ANNA UNIVERSITY COIMBATORE

CENTRE FOR RESEARCH

GCT CAMPUS, COIMBATORE – 641 013

NOTE: THE ENTRANCE EXAMINATION WILL COVER THE FUNDAMENTALS

RELATED TO THE RESPECTIVE FACULTY / DEPARTMENTS.

Model Question Paper –Chemical Engineering

1. Fins are provided on heat transferring surface in order to increase

a) heat transfer area b) heat transfer coefficient

c) mechanical strength of the equipment d) temperature gradient

2. Preheating of feed into an evaporator

a) reduces economy b) increases the heat transfer area

c) decreases the heat transfer area d) requires higher pressure of operation

3. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a rigid body, the

pressure intensity varies as the

a) square of the radial distance b) radial distance linearly.

c) inverse of the radial distance d) elevation along vertical direction

4. Pump used for transportation of molten sodium, in fast breeder reactor is

a) reciprocating pump b) plunger pump

5. Propellers are

a) axial flow mixers b) low speed impellers

c) used for mixing liquids of high viscosity d) radial flow mixers

7. The dimensionless group in mass transfers that is equivalent to Prandtl number

in heat transfer is

a) Nusselt number b) Sherwood number c) Schmidt number d) Stanton number

8. The heat capacities of substances

a) decreases with increase in temp

b) increase with temp increase

c) decrease and then increase as temp increase

d) increase and then decrease as temp increase

9. One bar is ________ kgf/cm2

a)1.033 b)0.987 c)1.0197 d)1.0

10. Trouton’s rule deals with the relationship between

a) sensible heat and boiling point b) latent heat and boiling point

c) heat of reaction and temperature d) heat of reaction and pressure

a) Byte b) Word c) Bit d) Code

12. Supervisory control is used to

a) change only the set points or values

b) can not be used to change set points or values

c) changes both set points and values

d)none

13. Dead time is defined as

a) No effect is observed on the output of the system

b) effect is observed on the output of the system

c) No such observation on the output of the system d) none.

14. The change in Gibb’s free energy for vapourisation of a pure substances is

a) positive b) negative c) zero d) may be positive or negative

15. A Carnot cycle consists of the following steps.

a) two isothermals and two isentropics

b) two isobarics and two isothermals

c) two isochorics and two isobarics

d) two isothermals and two isochorics

a) point functions b) properties of the system

c) path functions d) state description of the system.

17. If ‘n’ is the order of the reaction than unit of rate constant is

a) 1 b) (time)-1 (Concentration)n -1

(time) (Concentration)n –1

c) (time)n (Concentration) d) none of the above

18. Half life period of a chemical reaction is

a) The time required to reduce the concentration of the reacting substance to half its
initial

value.

b) half of the space time of a reaction

c) half of the residence time of a reaction

d) None of these

19. A trickle bed reactor is one which

a) has altogether three streams either entering or leaving

b) processes three reactants at different flow rates

c) processes three reactants with same flow rate

d) employs all the three phases ( i.e. solid, liquid and gas)

20. A consecutive reaction A k1 B k2 C is characterized by

c) maxima in the concentration of C d) high exothermicity

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ANNA UNIVERSITY COIMBATORE

Ph. D. ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

MODEL QUESTION PAPER- Faculty of Electrical Engineering

1. International Ohm(D) is defined in terms of the resistance of

a) Cube of Copper

b) Cube of Carbon

c) A Column of Mercury

d) The Unit length of metal wire

2. Midway between two equal and similar charges , a third equal and similar charge is
placed

, then this third charge will be

a) remain in stable equilibrium

b) be in unstable equilibrium

c) not be in equilibrium

d) will move out of the field of influence of the two charges

3. The unit of retentivity is

b) ampere turn per metre

c) weber

d) weber per sq. m.

4. Interpoles in DC machine are usually wound with

a) very fine gauge copper wire

b) heavy gauge copper wire

c) insulation material

d) interpoles do not need winding

5. Equalizer connections are required when parallel to

a) bipolar generators

b) shunt generators

c) series generators

d) compound generators

6. Regenerating braking on shunt motors is used when

a) the load is variable load

b) the load is constantly decreasing

c) the load has overhauling characteristics

d) the load also acts as braking force

a) yoke

b) size of conductor

c) commutator

d) winding

8. Power factor of the magnetizing component of a transformer

a) unity

b) lagging

c) always leading

d) zero

9. Power is measured in terms of decibel in case of

a) transformers

b) current transformers

c ) auto transformers

d) electronic equipments

10. If two alternators are running in synchronism and the voltage of one machine is
suddenly

increased, then

a) the machines will burn

b) both the machines will stop

c) synchronizing torque will be produced to restore further synchronism

11. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing
its

synchronism is known as

a) breaking torque

b) synchronizing torque

c) pull out torque

d) slip torque

12. Which motor has the highest power to weight ratio?

a) universal motor

b) induction motor

c) synchronous motor

d) capacitor start induction run motor

13. In a shaded pole motor shading coils are used to

a) reduce winding losses

b) reduce friction losses

c) produce rotating magnetic field

d) to protect against sparking

14. A 100MW thermal power plant will consume how many tons of coal in one hour
a) 50 tonnes

b) 150 tonnes

c) 1500 tonnes

d) 15000 tonnes

15. During load shedding

a) system voltage is reduced

b)system frequency is reduced

c) some loads are switched off

d) system power factor is changed

16. In a transmission line having negligible resistance the surge impedance is

a) Sqrt. of (L + C)

b) Sqrt. of (C / L)

c) Sqrt. of (1 / LC)

d) Sqrt. of (LC)

17. Which of the following is not a part of a circuit breaker?

a) explosion part

b) fixed and moving contacts

c) conservator

d) operating mechanism
18. The break down voltage of a cable depends on

a) time of application of voltage

b) working temperature

c) presence of moisture

d) all the above

19. In a mercury arc rectifier, positive ions are attracted towards

a) mercury pool

b) shell bottom

c) cathode

d) anode

20. Polarization of dielectric materials results in

a) absorption of electrons

b) release of high velocity protons

c) creation of electric dipoles

d) production of eddy currents

ANNA UNIVERSITY COIMBATORE

Ph.D. Entrance Examination (Electronics & Communication Engineering)

MODEL OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. An intrinsic semiconductor at absolute zero temperature

b. Behave like a metallic conductor

c. Has a large no. of holes

d. Has a few hole and few free electrons

2. High frequency inductors and capacitors are commonly placed with

silver because

a. Reduce their DC resistances

b. Reduce their AC resistances

c. Increase their DC resistances

d. Increase their DC resistances

3. At 0°K, the forbidden energy gap in silicon is

a. 0.785eV

b. 1.21 eV

c. 0.72 eV

d. 1.1 eV

4. Large scale integration

a. Does not require costly process facilities

b. Cannot be applied to MOS systems

c. Refers to only integrated electronic components fabricated in full size of

silicon
d. Refers to technology used to fabricate IC’s with complexity above 100

gates

5. 550 IC is

a. An Op Amp

b. Timer

c. Voltage regulator

d. Counter

6. Select a 32 bit microprocessor

a. Intel 80186

b. Intel 80286

c. Intel pentium IV

d. Motorola’s MC 68000

7. Which of the following transistor is affected by static electricity

a. NPN transistor

b. JFET

c. UJT

d. MOSFET

8. In a resonant circuit, the power factor at resonance is

a. Zero
b. Unity

c. 0.5

d. ½

9. A digital voltmeter measures

a. Peak value

b. Peak to peak value

c. RMS value

d. Average value

10. Which is the following amplifier produces the least distortion?

a. Class A

b. Class AB

c. Class B

d. Class C

11. What technology is used for flat panel display?

a. Solid state

b. RBG monitor

c. VLSI

d. Direct view storage tube

12. A switch – tail ring counter is made by using a single D flip-flop. The
circuit is a

a. SR flip-flop

b. JK flip-flop

c. D flip-flop

d. T Flop-flop

13. In FM broadcast, the maximum modulation frequency is restricted to

a. 5 KHz

b. 10 KHz

c. 15 KHz

d. 20 KHz

14. The baud rate is

a. Always equal to the bit transfer rate

b. Equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel

c. Not equal to the signaling rate

d. Equal to one-half the bandwidth of ideal channel

15. Pre-emphasis circuit is used

a. After modulation

b. Before modulation

c. Before detection

d. After detection
16. Transient response of system is basically because of

a. Coupling

b. Forces

c. Friction

d. Stored energy

17. A rectangular or a circular wave guide is

a. A resonance circuit

b. High-pass filter

c. Low-pass filter

d. None of the above

18. The S / N power ratio for a satellite signal depends on

a. Bandwidth

b. Free-space path losses

c. Effective isotropically radiated power

d. All of the above

19. Which of the following satellite system is an international system?

a. INTEL SAT

b. INSAT

c. ATS-6
d. None of these

20. A radar systems can be used to

a. Determine both range as well as velocity of moving target

b. Identify a target

c. Do imaging of a target

d. All of the above