RESPONSIBILITIES AND ROLE OF A LEADER

1. Rightsizing the government MEANS;

A. Revamp the Philippine bureaucracy
B. Reorganizing the renewed calls
C. Make the govt. more efficient in delivery public service
D. Streamlining some services only.
E. Focus on the Big Picture

2 What is the meaning of red tape?

A. Good for our country
B. Good for our people
C. Good for our democracy
D. Breeding ground of graft and corruption
E. Good for friendship

3. Who is a leader?
A. One who is elected because of popularity
B. One who is in command of others
C. One who is a close relative of an official
D. One who is influential
E. C and D Only

4. A leader’s role is to ensure his team achieves the task in hand but an effective leader
has to ensure they meet subtler requirement like;
A. Must be honest and intelligent
B. Must be popular and friendly
C. Must be industrious
D. Must be conscientious
E. Must be responsible

5. It is the responsibility of a leader to;

A. To improve the organization from Day
B. To lead by example
C. To be committed
D. To pass on the task to a member
E. All of these

6.” Let us from the excess fat and add more muscle”
A. Rightsizing the government.
B. Problem of corruption in the govt.
C. Bureaucratic Red Tape
D. Customs and Tariff Code
E. A, B and C only
7. Part of the 2nd SONA delivered by Pres. Duterte includes;
A. He felt frustrated and pet peeved about our present govt.
B. The problem of corruption has improved
C. He plans to come up with a system as applied in other countries
D. He plans to apply the same system like the past year.
E. all of these

8. They were able to recovered the single biggest illegal shabu shipment.
A. Bureau of Customs, still has to improve
B. Some Cakwood Mutiny Soldiers were included as they are believed to be
vigilant.
C. PDEA and the NBI
D. PCGG plans to be abolished
E. PCAG and ACG

9. Responsibilities of a Leader;
A. Asking tough questions
B. Basic understanding on money matters
C. Evaluate fake news
D. manage the flow of monthly reports
E. Rightsizing the Govt

10. Leading by example to maintain integrity MEANS;

A. A President must operate above board
B. Business matters have to be kept secret
C. Be aware what the media will say
D. Keep silent on important issues
E. None of these

Responsibilities and Roles of a Leader

1. Which of the following is one of the traits ad characteristics of a good leader?

a. Introversion

b. Conversion

c. Assertiveness

d. Dissociation

2. The three competencies to be developed by leaders are ability, communication

and_____.
a. conceptual analysis

b. adaptation

c. theoretical formulation

d. self-enrichment

3. A leader________when there is a communication of policies and plans to

subordinates where work actually starts.

a. Builds relationships

b. Creates confidence

c. Motivates

d. Initiates action

4. ______means management is getting things done from group members.

a. Creating confidence

b. Whining

c. Motivation

d. Coordination

5. Energy, drive, enthusiasm, ambition, affection, honesty, perceptiveness and

_____are some leadership traits, among others.

a. Disproportion

b. Persuasiveness

c. Budget management

d. Fatherliness to subordinates
LEADERSHIP CATEGORIES AND STYLES

1. Typically have an orientation toward relationships and tasks.

A. Leadership
B. Leaders
C. Tasked Motivated leadership
D. Commanding leadership
E. Pacesetting Leaders

2. Is distinct from the other task styles because of heavy emphasis on work processes
and systematic work completion.
A. Commanding leadership
B. Tasked Motivated leadership
C. Bureaucratic leaders
D. Pacesetting Leaders
E. Relationship-oriented leaders

3. Are focused on supporting, motivating and developing the people on their teams and
the relationships within.
A. Relationship-oriented leaders
B. Commanding leadership
C. Tasked Motivated leadership
D. Leadership
E. Pacesetting Leaders

4. Is a style that is defined and described the contingency theory.

A. Pacesetting Leaders D. Bureaucratic leaders
B. Commanding leadership E. All of these
C. Task Motivated leadership

5. Are highly goal oriented and tend o exact pressure on their employees to complete
work precisely and on time.
A. Commanding Leadership D. Bureaucratic leaders
B. Leadership E. C and D only
C. Pacesetting Leaders

6. Also known as “transactional leadership” simple premise that employees are

obligated to follow directions when accepting payment for job.
A. Tasked Motivated leadership
B. Commanding leadership
C. Pacesetting Leaders
D. Relationship-oriented leaders
E. All of these
7. Is a leader who follows the practice of setting goals, structuring tasks and
measuring performance.
A. Tasked Motivated leadership
B. Commanding leadership
C. Pacesetting Leaders
D. Relationship-oriented leaders
E. Bureaucratic leaders

8. Referring to the power inherent in the leader’s position itself.

A. Leader-Member Relations
B. Fiedler contingency model
C. Leader Position Power
D. Task Structure
E. A, B and C only

9. The ____argues that three situational components can determine whether task-
oriented or relationship-oriented leadership is the better fit for the situation.
A. Task Structure
B. Leader Position Power
C. Leader-Member Relations
D. Fiedler Contingency Model
E. Commanding Leadership

10. Referring to the degree of mutual trust, respect and confidence between the leader
and the subordinates.
A. Fiedler Contingency Model
B. Leader-Member Relations
C. Task Structure
D. Leader Position Power
E. None of these

LEADERS & MANAGERS (10)

1. A leader must understand human ________.

A. Morale D. Behavior
B. Ethics E. All of these
C. Nature

2. The skills where the managers work with and through other people effectively is
called.
A. Technical D. Human
B. Cognitive E. None pf these
C. Conceptual
3. The skill of managers where thinking and planning abilities are involve.
A. Technical D. Human
B. Conceptual E. A and D only
C. Effective

4. The role of managers to keep his subordinates informed and scan materials to make
sure that they are well informed.
A. Informational D. Decisional
B. Interpersonal E. Conceptual
C. Group

5. It is the understanding of and proficiency in the performance of specific task is called.

A. Conceptual D. Human
B. Technical E. dignity
C. Psychomotor

6. This always includes the chief executive/managing director and board of directors
A. the top level of management and is where executive authority lies
B. They administer day-to-day routines
C. monitors performance and make sure everything is done in compliance with
organization's needs.
D. including generating revenue and controlling costs
E. the general manager may be one of the top executives.

7. How do you motivate employees to work overtime?

A. when high levels of overtime begin, marginal productivity slows
B. you should be open and frank with them
C. More Money. The most obvious perk for employees who work overtime is
more money. ...
D. Extra Money Around the Holidays. Padded paychecks can especially help
during the holidays. ...
E. Opportunities for Promotions.

8. What separates a good leader from a great one?

A. Learn how to bring those qualities into your workplace
B. put your best foot forward in both your personal and professional life
C. A good leader impresses you with their capacity
D. Leaders are willing to step up and take control of a project or task
E. embrace change as they know it will benefit them in the long term

9. One of the management functions wherein you delegate people to do the job.
A. Control the Organization
B. Organize
C. Plan
 D. Lead
E. all of these

10. The level of manager who is responsible for a department that performs as single
functional task and has employees with similar trainings and skills.
A. Top D. First time
B. Middle E. All of these
C. Functional

LEADERS & FOLLOWERS (10)

1. A set of attitudes that assume the best average worker’s initiative and creativity
A. Theory YX D. Theory XY
B. Theory X E. Theory XZ
C. Theory Y

2. In what theory does average person desires work as naturally as he or she does
play?
A. YX D. Y
B. XY E. W
C. X

3. What should you do in order that subordinates will not resist change?
A. There must be a change
B. there must development in the organization

C. stay as is
D. have job rotation
E. Both A and C

4. What Theory in involve there is natural dislike for work and try to avoid it.

A. X D. XY
B. Y E. W
C. YX

5. A belief based on a perception if what seems to be true or probable one’s own

mind.
A. attitude D. opinion
B. belief E. loyalty
C. behavior
6. A person’s manner of thinking, feeling or acting toward a specific stimuli.
A. belief . D. behavior
B. attitude E. loyalty
C. opinion

7. It is the people’s attitude about the importance of working, the kind of work they
choose and the quality of efforts while performing their work.
A. value D. attitude
B. belief E. loyalty
C. work ethics
8. A set of attitudes traditionally held by leaders that assume the worst with regard to
the average worker’s initiative and creativity’
A. Theory X D. Theory YX
B. Theory Y E. Theory XZ
C. Theory XY

9. An activity, condition or object that we feel has merit or worth in our lives.
A. value D. belief
B. work ethics E. B and C only
C. attitude

10. One of the reasons why subordinates resist change they are afraid of the
implements of such change in their jobs, status, pay or future. This is considered as
A. public reason D. other reason
B. professional reason E. group reason
C. personal reason

FAMILY CODE

1. It is considered as relative divorce because it does not affect the marital status,
there being no severance of the marriage tie.
A. annulment of marriage
B. nullity of marriage
C. legal separation
D. cohabitation
E. divorce

2. A petition where the absent spouse is missing for at least 2 years while in a point
of death for the present spouse to remarry.

A. petition for presumptive death

B. petition to remarry
C. petition for nullity
D. petition for Annulment
E. petition to cohabit
 3. The following are void marriages except:
A. between ascendants and descendants
B. between step-father and step- daughter
C. between adopting parent and adopted child
D. between minors
E. between brother-in law and sister-in law

4. Marriage where the consent of one of the contracting parties was obtained by
force and intimidation
A. The statement is VALID
B. The statement is VOID
C. The statement is VOIDABLE

5. The couple who have been cohabiting for a period of 5 years without legal
impediment may enter a contract of marriage even without valid license under:
A. Article 24 D. Article 44
B. Article 34 E. Article 54
C. Art 64 of the family code.

6. Marriage between uncles and nieces

A. The statement is VALID
B. The statement is VOID
C. The statement is VOIDABLE

7. The remedy of the spouses who sought to have the marriage terminated if the
marriage is void.
A. petition for nullity
B. petition for annulment
C. petition to delete the marriage contract
D. petition to remarry
E. petition to cohabit

8. The remedy of the spouses who sought to have the marriage terminated if the
marriage is voidable.
A. petition for nullity
B. petition for annulment
C. petition to declare void
D. petition to remarry
E. petition to cohabit
 9. It is required among parents where the contracting parties in a marriage are both
20 years of age.
A.Parental advice D. Parental guidance
B. Parental counselling E. Parental support
C. Parental consent

10. Marriage where one of the parties is of unsound mind.

A. The statement is VALID
B. The statement is VOID
C. The statement is VOIDABLE

11. Marriage between father and daughter.

A. The statement is VALID

B. The statement is VOID
C. The statement is VOIDABLE

12. Marriage solemnized in remote areas without marriage license

A. The statement is VALID
B. The statement is VOID
C. The statement is VOIDABLE

13. Children conceived and born out of a valid marriage.

A. legitimated D. adopted
B. illegitimate E. legitimate
C. non-marital

14. Venues in the solemnization of marriages are in any of the places listed below
except:
A. chapel D. garden of eden
B. chamber of the judge E. airplane in articulo mortis
C. temple

15. Which among the choices below is not an essential requirement of a valid
marriage:
A. legal capacity of the contracting parties
B. parties must be a male and a female
C. consent freely given by the parties
D. parties appear before the solemnizing officer
E. marriage ceremony

Rules on Evidence
1. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no evidence shall be
admissible other than the __________________itself.
a. evidence d. inquest result
b. original document e. none of the above
c. investigation result

2. Quantum of proof required in administrative proceedings:

a. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. substantial evidence
c. preponderance of evidence
d. clear and convincing
e. none of the above

3. Quantum of proof required for criminal cases:

a. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. substantial evidence
c. preponderance of evidence
d. clear and convincing
e. none of the above

4. The party who has the burden of proof in criminal cases is the _________.
a. private complainant d. defense
b. accused e. complaint
c. prosecution

5. In criminal cases, except those involving quasi-offenses (criminal negligence) or

those allowed by law, an offer of __________________by the accused may be
received in evidence as an implied admission of guilt.
a. compromise d. promise to pay
b. plea of guilt e. plea bargaining
c. bargaining

6. Presumption of innocence applies only in _________________.

a. civil cases d. custodial investigation
b. criminal cases e. none of the above
c. administrative cases

7. It is the probative effect of evidence and is the conviction or persuasion of the

mind resulting from a consideration of the evidence.
a. evidence d. corpus delicti
b. proof e. c and d
 c. truth
8. Defense of the accused that he was somewhere else at the time of the
commission of the offense.
a. Positive d. admission
b. negative e. reasoning
c. alibi

9. It is the fact or proposition to be established and/or the fact to be proved;

a. factum probans d. Allegations
b. factum probandum e. none of the above
c. Issue

10. The facts or material evidencing the fact or proposition to be established or

probative or evidentiary fact tending to prove the fact in issue;
a. factum probans d. allegations
b. factum probandum e. none of the above
c. Issue

11. Which among the statement below does not show the existence of factum
probandum for the crime of illegal possession of firearms.
a. existence of the subject firearm or explosive in accused’ possession
b. negative fact that the accused had no license
c. license or permit to own or possess the firearm or explosive
d. positive identification of the witness that he saw the accused possessing
the firearm
e. none of the above

12. The statement by a bus driver immediately after the collision that he dozed off
in the wheel while driving may be admissible in evidence as ___________.
a. dying declaration
b. part of res gestae
c. declaration against interest
d. declaration
e. none of the above

13. When A was stabbed on the chest during a street brawl, he instinctively
shouted for help. B, who was nearby, heard the shout and immediately ran
towards A who, upon inquiry by B, stated that C had stabbed him. If A should
die on account of the stab wound, upon what rule or rules of evidence could
B's testimony be received?
a. res gestae
b. dying declaration
 c. both a and b are correct
d. None of the above

14. ______________________________ is that evidence that indirectly proves a

fact in issue through an inference which the fact finder draws from the series
of unbroken chain of facts and evidence established.
a. direct evidence d. both a and c
b. circumstantial evidence e. none of the above
c. Positive evidence

15. Evidence to be admissible must not be excluded by the Rules and must be
both ______________and _______________.
a. competent and relevant d. relevant and positive
b. positive and direct e. none of the above
c. competent and direct
16. It is offered to prove its existence, condition or for any purpose other than its
contents.
a. Object evidence
b. Documentary evidence
c. Subject evidence
d. Oral evidence
e. Real evidence
17. It is the means of proving a fact and is offered to ascertain the truth.
a. Evidence
b. Documents
c. Investigation
d. Inquest
e. Proceedings
18. When the private document is offered as proof of its contents, it is considered
as:
a. Object evidence
b. Documentary evidence
c. Subject evidence
d. Real evidence
e. Oral evidence
19. The statement made while the declarant was conscious of an impending death is
admissible as:
a. Res gestae
b. Dying declaration
c. Admission
d. Confession
 e. None of the above
20. Quantum of proof required for civil cases:
a. proof beyond reasonable doubt
b. substantial evidence
c. preponderance of evidence
d. clear and convincing
e. none of the above

CHAIN OF CUSTODY RULE

1. Under the Memorandum on the “Mandatory Examination of all Firearms,

Shells and Slugs Recovered During Police Operations,” all firearms, cartridges, and
slugs seized, captured, or recovered during checkpoints or pursuit operations, including
those seized during the service of warrants and those recovered from crime scenes
shall immediately be submitted to:
a. Evidence Custodian
b. Judge
c. Prosecutor
d. Prosecution
e. Crime Laboratory

2. If drugs are seized during a buy-bust operation, the inventory and

photographing should be made at the:
a. Nearest police station
b. Place where the arrest was made
c. nearest office of apprehending unit
d. all of these
e. none of these

3. The Certificate of Inventory/Physical Inventory of the seized illegal drug must

be marked:
a. Evidence Custodian
b. in any place at the option of the apprehending officer
c. in the nearest police station
d. Since the intent to sell is clear, the sale was already consummated.
e. the dangerous drugs can be easily altered or substituted

4. The rule in the chain of custody in the prosecution of illegal sale of dangerous
drugs is more stringent than in the chain of custody of the item recovered in an ordinary
crime like homicide because:
a. the dangerous drugs can be easily altered or substituted
 b. the dangerous drugs can be easily manipulated
c. the dangerous drugs can be easily transported
d. the dangerous drug is readily identifiable
e. all of the above

5. The duly recorded authorized movements and custody of seized drugs from
the time of seizure to receipt in the forensic laboratory to safekeeping to presentation in
court for destruction.
a. Chain of Custody
b. Chain of Custody Rule
c. DNA Sample
d. Blood Sample
e. None of these

6. Seized drug evidence shall be forwarded to Crime Laboratory for qualitative

and quantitative examination within how many hours?

a. 12 hours d. 36 hours
b. 18 hours e. 40 hours
c. 24 hours

7. Again, given the above situation, what is your NEXT course of action?

a. Present suspect for Preliminary Investigation;

b. Forward evidence to Crime Laboratory for Examination;
c. Ensure that the witness/es will sign the inventory receipt;
d. Turn-over the evidence to the investigator-on-case with the accomplished
chain of custody form;
e. Mark, conduct physical inventory and taking of photographs of the seized
evidence.

8. PSSg Masigasig acted as a poseur buyer. When the C/O asked the
prospect, Tikboy, that somebody was willing to buy for a P100 worth of shabu (which in
the drugs parlance means P100.00), the CI introduced PSSg Masigasig (who was in
short pant and sleeveless T-shirt) as the one interested in buying the said item. When
PSSg Masigasig was taking out the money to buy the shabu from his pocket, Tikboy
also was taking out the shabu from his pocket. Before Tikboy can get the money from
PSSg MAsigasig, a pre-arranged signal was made by spitting on the ground. At that
point, PSSg Masigasig approached Tikboy and announced of his arrest for selling a
dangerous drug. Tikboy was immediately handcuffed and was brought to the nearest
police station.
 From the foregoing scenario, which of the following statements is correct?

a. Since the intent to sell is clear, the sale was already consummated.
b. The mere fact of unauthorized possession and sale of the dangerous drugs is
sufficient to sustain the findings of guilt.
c. The fact that the substance said to be illegally sold is the very same substance
offered in court as exhibit is a strong evidence of guilt.
d. The transaction or sale did not actually take place that should lead to no other
but acquittal.
e. The fact that the chain of custody was properly recorded, acquittal of the
accused is incorrect.

9. If drugs are seized pursuant to a search warrant, the inventory and taking of
photograph should be made at:
a. nearest DOJ office d. nearest office of apprehending unit
b. nearest police station e. whichever is practicable
c. place where warrant was served

10. You as the police officer apprehended a suspect inflagrante delicto on violation of
RA 9165. After apprehending the suspect/s, what will be your FIRST course of
action?
a. Present suspect for Preliminary Investigation;
b. Forward evidence to Crime Laboratory for Examination;
c. Ensure that the witness/es will sign the inventory receipt;
d. Turn-over the evidence to the investigator-on-case with the accomplished
chain of custody form;
e. Mark, conduct physical inventory and taking of photographs of the seized
evidence.
ANSWER (SALESMANSHIP LEADERSHIP):
 1. A- Charismatic Leader
2. B- Adolf Hitler
3. A- Mother Teresa
4. B- Ronald Wilson Reagan
5. D- Pope John Paul II
6. A- Winston Churchill
7. B- Ronald Reagan
8. C- Pope John Paul II
9. D- Martin Luther King, Jr.
10. D- Mother Teresa

Strategic Leadership

1. To find out what an organization's strategy is, you should:

a. Read the mission statement

b. Look at what the organization actually does

c. Read the strategic plan

d. Ask the CEO

2. Systems are formal and informal rules and regulations that complement the
company.

a. strategy

b. structure

c. skills

d. environment

3. Micro environment is the __________ environment of a company.

a. working

b. human
 c. external

d. internal

4. It provides a way to bring in the people dimension in macro company analysis

without using psychological models of human behavior.

a. Environment

b. Society

c. Culture

d. All of the above

5. The process of forecasting an organization’s future demands for and supply of right
type of people in right number is

a. Product planning

b. Process planning

c. Man power planning

d. All of the above

6. In terms of the PESTLE analysis, the liberalizing of international trade and tariff
regimes could go in which section or sections?

a. Political

b. Legal

c. Political and economic and legal

d. Political and economic and environmental

7. Type(s) important managerial skill(s) required for the effective strategic management

a. Conceptual skill

b. Human skill

c. Intellectual skill
d. all of the above

8. Strategic management and leadership are concerned with

a. Short range planning

b. Long range planning

c. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

d. None of the above

9. Strategic management deals with

a. Production and quality

b. Profit and loss

c. Business process

d. All of the above

10. Should have the ability to develop a vision to see patterns into the future.
a. Leaders
b. Managers
c. Management
d. workers