READING COMPREHENSION

DPP-II-A (Based on Key Words)

Directions (Q. 1-5): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside it.
There is an old African proverb that says, “Until the lions have their own historians, histories of the
hunt will glorify the hunter.”
As is common knowledge, while the male lion’s mane incites our imagination, it is actually the
lionesses that bring in food and ensure survival of the species. As Renana Jhavwala of SEWA and
member of UN Secretary General’s High Level Panel on Women’s Economic Empowerment aptly
says, “Women's work is invisible … women are at the base of the economic pyramid. Women are
stuck on a 'sticky floor' of low technology, low productivity, low skills, low earnings and low
dignity.” Rural women in the Asia-Pacific region make critical contributions to household production
and national food security, yet their contribution is hardly acknowledged.
The credit for the success of Brazil’s conditional cash transfer programme, Bolsa familia, goes to
women. The programme rewards families for sending their children to school and taking them for
regular health check- ups. This scheme has pulled millions out of poverty. The state tends to believe
women are more reliable than men. In Mexico, a similar programme, Oportunidades, is available
exclusively to women.
There is strong empirical evidence to suggest that money in the hands of the mother increases
expenditure on children. There is a strong positive correlation between women’s status and
economic/social development. Policy makers across the world have placed great emphasis on gender
equality. The experience suggests that economic development alone is not enough to bring about
equality. What is needed is policy action. This is where the importance of women’s political
empowerment comes. Democracy in the 21st century is moving towards equity and inclusion. This is
the underlying message of citizens’ movements across the world. And with increasing role of women
at the policy level and in institutions of government, democracy can become ‘politics of difference’
and ‘politics of presence.’
1. 'Democracy in the 21st century is moving towards equity and inclusion.' implies that
(a) Every citizen has the right to participate actively in the democracy in the 21st century.
(b) Women had no role in politics before 21st century.
(c) Democracy in the 21st century is accepting both men and women equally in the mainstream
politics.
(d) None of the above

2. Which of the following is contrary to the facts mentioned in the passage about women in the
Asia-Pacific region?
(a) Their contribution is greatly acknowledged.
(b) They make a lot of contribution to household production and national food security.
(c) They are engaged mostly in household work, which is a piece of low-skill work.
(d) None of the above

3. What is the position of women in the economic pyramid?

(a) They are at the top of the economic pyramid.
(b) They are at the bottom of the economic pyramid.
(c) They are in the middle of the economic pyramid.
(d) Not clear from the given passage.

4. Which of the following is true about 'Bolsa familia' programme?

(a) This is a conditional cash transfer programme in Mexico.
(b) This programme failed in Brazil because of the non-cooperation of local people.
(c) This programme pulled millions out of poverty.
(d) This programme has provided employment opportunities to Brazilian women.

5. According to the author,

(a) There is no relationship between women's status and socio-economic development.
(b) Money in the hands of women makes them frugal.
(c) Economic development alone is enough to bring about equality.
(d) Most of the policy makers across the world agree that there should be gender equality.
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Directions (Q. 6-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
India’s admittance into the Wassenaar Arrangement, a multilateral export control regime, as its 42nd
participating member is a big step forward in its quest for formal acceptance as a responsible nuclear
power. This has come a year after India made the request for membership. As a non-signatory to the
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), New Delhi has been at pains to convey to the international
community that it adheres to, and is invested in, a rules-based order. The Wassenaar Arrangement
was founded in 1996, and is clubbed with mechanisms such as the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG),
the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) and the Australia Group. Its stated aim is “to
contribute to regional and international security and stability, by promoting transparency and greater
responsibility in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods and technologies, thus preventing
destabilizing accumulations.” India’s Wassenaar success at the Vienna plenary meeting last week
presumes a broad acceptance among its members of the country’s credentials as a fastidious adherent
to export controls. It comes on the heels of membership last year of the MTCR. Ever since India
signed the 123 Agreement in 2005, the underlying assumption was that the United States would help
chaperone New Delhi into global nuclear acceptability after it separated its civil and military nuclear
programmes and plugged the loopholes to prevent diffusion of nuclear materials and technology in a
way that is demonstrably in line with best practices followed by the members of the NSG.
However, over the past couple of years it has become evident that Delhi has to do most of the heavy
lifting to gain a seat at various global high tables. The Wassenaar Arrangement membership is also a
lesson on the need for quiet diplomacy in sensitive nuclear issues, compared to the botched attempt
to gain entry to the NSG last year. While India’s efforts at the NSG were stopped by China, which is
not a member of the Wassenaar Arrangement, raising the pitch publicly at the time came with costs. It
made the task of forging a consensus on membership to the NSG more difficult. And when that
attempt failed, it gave the setback the appearance of being significantly more insurmountable.
Nonetheless, now that more and more countries are signing on to India’s steadily strengthening
credentials in the nuclear area, there is hope that a fresh momentum will be imparted to a future bid
for the NSG. It will not be easy. The Australia Group, which focuses on biological and chemical
weapons, may be easier to crack given that China is not a member. But meanwhile, the Wassenaar
Arrangement will embed India deeper in the global non-proliferation architecture and enable access
to critical technologies in the defence and space sectors.
6. Which among the following is the significance of the acceptance of the membership of our
country into the Wassenaar Agreement?
(a) India can now get everything from countries which have not signed nuclear agreements
with the country.
(b) India and Pakistan can now become friends regarding the expansion of nuclear weapons
development in their respective countries.
(c) The India-Pakistan relationship is based on the necessity to understand the importance of
diplomacy within the confines of the neighborhood.
(d) It is imperative to note that India is a country that determines the market position in Asia
regarding many items though nuclear items are not included.
(e) India has been recognized as a country that is committed towards responsible development
and use of nuke energy in the world.

7. Consider the following statements regarding the Wassenaar Group.

I. This group was formed in the 21st century by the nuclear-enabled countries in order to
ensure the development of nuclear energy in a responsible manner.
II. All the members of the Nuclear Suppliers’ Group are not members of the Wassenaar Group
also.
III. The Wassenaar Agreement works in tandem with Missile Technology Control Regime,
Australia Group and NSG in order to prevent the nuclear technology from disturbing the
global order
Which among the above statements is/are correct with reference to the information given in the
passage?
(a) Both I and II (b) Both II and III (c) Only III
(d) Only I (e) All I, II and III

8. Which among the following is a lesson that should be learnt from the diplomacy surrounding
the acceptance of membership of India into the Wassenaar Agreement?

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 (a) It is easier to sneak into any group where other Asian countries are not there and common
interests are not taken into account.
(b) The government should understand the way in which partnership can be forged rather than
shouting too much on the public forum.
(c) India should have good spokespersons so that the stand taken by the country can be
explained at any international summits without any confusion.
(d) The government should start any negotiation process well in advance in order to avoid any
kind of rush during the actual summit.
(e) The government should keep China out of any deal that it gets from other countries
regarding nuclear power development in the country

9. Which among the following is correct regarding the assumption of Indian government regarding
the reaction of the USA towards the development of nuclear energy in India?
(a) USA is happy that its ally is going to develop nuclear energy in its arena and it is going to
assist the country in understanding the Asian geography.
(b) The US government is convinced that India will not be able to develop nuclear energy and
that is why it is just giving financial support to our country.
(c) The US Government is convinced about the intention of the Government of India in case of
development of nuclear energy and therefore it is supporting India’s cause.
(d) India is not getting enough support from its allies regarding the membership into the
important nuclear groups of the world.
(e) The Government is not reaching out to the US Government since they are afraid that US
may withdraw support from any nuclear program of the country

10. Which among the following is/are not correct regarding the Australian Group associated with
the development of nuclear energy in the world?
(a) Australian Group is mainly concerned about chemical and biological weapons and that is
why it is not considered as an important organization.
(b) India is a member of the Australia Group and China also supported our membership bid in
that group.
(c) China is yet to give due importance to the Australia Group as the USA has not been
inducted into this group till date.
(d) Both A and B
(e) All A, B and C

Directions (Q. 11-15): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given beside.
The International Cricket Council (ICC) announced that PepsiCo Chairman and CEO Indra Nooyi has
been appointed to the ICC Board as the organization's first independent female director. Mrs. Nooyi
will join the Board in June 2018 to align with the term of the ICC Independent Chairman, following
the unanimous confirmation of her appointment at Board’s meeting.
The introduction of an Independent Director, who must be female, was approved by the ICC Full
Council in June 2017 as part of wide ranging constitutional change aimed at improving the global
governance of the sport.
Mrs. Nooyi is a global business leader, consistently ranked by Fortune Magazine among the World's
Most Powerful Women. As Chairman and CEO of PepsiCo, Mrs. Nooyi is responsible for a global
food and beverage portfolio that includes 22 brands generating more than $1 billion each in annual
retail sales, including Quaker, Tropicana, Gatorade, Frito-Lay and Pepsi-Cola.
Mrs. Nooyi is also the chief architect of Performance with Purpose, PepsiCo's vision to deliver top-tier
financial performance over the long term by integrating sustainability into the company's business
strategy. Under her leadership, since 2006 PepsiCo has focused on offering more nutritious foods and
beverages, minimizing their impact on the environment, and creating opportunities for their
employees and people across the markets they serve.
ICC Chairman Shashank Manohar said: "We are delighted to welcome Indra to the ICC. Adding
another independent director - particularly a female - is such an important step forward in improving
our governance. To have someone of Indra's calibre is fantastic news for the global game - she is
frequently recognized as one of the most influential people in business today, running one of the
world's biggest corporations."
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"We undertook a global search looking for the right candidate who would complement the existing
skills and experience already on our Board. A cricket enthusiast with experience in the commercial
sector and independent of the ICC, any Member or state or associated organization were the primary
criteria and in Indra we have found an exceptional new colleague and we look forward to working
with her in the future."
The Independent Director will be appointed for a two-year term although she may be re-appointed
for two further terms with a maximum six-year consecutive period of service.
In accordance with international standards of good governance, the Independent Ethics Officer for
the ICC and PepsiCo's General Counsel have reviewed and both formally approved the appointment,
providing a clear framework for appropriately managing any potential or perceived conflicts of
interest that might arise in the future.
11. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
I. Indra Nooyi will be the first female chairman of ICC.
II. She may be re-appointed for two further terms resulting in six years of total service.
III. Indra Nooyi ranked number 1 in the list of World’s most powerful women by fortune
magazine.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only III (c) Only II
(d) Only II and III (e) None of the above

12. What does the writer want to convey by saying that- “Mrs. Nooyi is also the chief architect
of Performance with Purpose”?
I. Mrs. Nooyi has started objective based planning in PepsiCo.
II. Mrs. Nooyi has driven the concept of corporate social responsibility.
III. Mrs. Nooyi does not want to make profit at the cost of consumer’s health.
(a) Only III (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and II
(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

13. What is the objective of introducing a female independent director in ICC?

(a) To improve global governance of the sport.
(b) To prove that women are better than men.
(c) To set an example of gender equality.
(d) Either A or C (e) None of the above

14. Which of the following has/have confirmed the appointment of Indra Nooyi?
(a) General Counsel of ICC (b) General Counsel of PepsiCo
(c) Independent Ethics officer of ICC (d) Both A and C
(e) Both B and C

15. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
I. Quaker is a product of PepsiCo.
II. Mrs. Nooyi heads over 22 food brands under the flagship of PepsiCo.
III. Mrs. Nooyi was elected unanimously.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III
(d) Only I and III (e) None of the above

Direction (Q. 16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
As the 23rd conference of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change in Bonn shifts into high
gear, developing countries including India are focussing on the imperatives of ensuring adequate
financing for mitigation and adaptation. They are moving ahead with specific instruments for loss
and damage they suffer due to destructive climate-linked events. India’s progress in reducing the
intensity of its greenhouse gas emissions per unit of GDP by 20-25% from 2005 levels by 2020, based
on the commitment made in Copenhagen in 2009, has been positive. Early studies also suggest that it
is on track to achieve the national pledge under the 2015 Paris Agreement for a 33-35% cut in
emissions intensity per unit of growth from the same base year by 2030, and thus heed the 2°C
warming goal. Since this performance is predicated on a growth rate of just over 7%, and the parallel
target for 40% share of renewable energy by that year, the national road map is clear. What is not,
however, is the impact of extreme weather events such as droughts and floods that would have a
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bearing on economic growth. It is in this context that the rich countries must give up their rigid
approach towards the demands of low and middle income countries, and come to an early resolution
on the question of financing of mitigation, adaptation and compensation. Of course, India could
further raise its ambition in the use of green technologies and emissions cuts, which would give it the
mantle of global climate leadership.
The climate question presents a leapfrog era for India’s development paradigm. Already, the country
has chalked out an ambitious policy on renewable energy, hoping to generate 175 gigawatts of power
from green sources by 2022. This has to be resolutely pursued, breaking down the barriers to wider
adoption of rooftop solar energy at every level and implementing net metering systems for all
categories of consumers. At the Bonn conference, a new Transport Decarbonisation Alliance has been
declared. It is aimed at achieving a shift to sustainable fuels, getting cities to commit to eco-friendly
mobility and delivering more walkable communities, all of which will improve the quality of urban
life. This presents a good template for India, building on its existing plans to introduce electric
mobility through buses first, and cars by 2030. Such measures will have a beneficial effect not just on
transport choices, but on public health through pollution abatement.
16. What does the author wants to convey by saying that- “The country has chalked out an
ambitious policy on renewable energy.”
I. The country has planned a policy on renewable energy.
II. The country is emphasizing on renewable energy.
III. The country has shifted it’s focus from renewable energy to electric mobility.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only III (c) Only I
(d) Only II (e) None of the above

17. Which of the following ensure(s) India to be a leader of global climate change campaign?
I. Use of green technologies.
II. Initiatives for deteriorating emissions.
III. Faster economic growth rate.
(a) Only II and III (b) Only II (c) Only I
(d) Only I and II (e) None of the above

18. Which of the following is true in the context of passage?

I. India has achieved a 33-35% cut in emissions intensity per unit of growth.
II. The transport carbonization alliance will improve quality of life.
III. India is focusing on importance of ensuring adequate financing.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only III (c) Only II
(d) All of the above (e) None of the above

19. What is/are the factor(s) affecting economic growth of the country as per the passage?
(a) Climatic conditions of the country
(b) Policy framework of the country
(c) Both A and B
(d) Either A or B
(e) None of these

20. Which of the following is not true regarding the passage?

I. India’s efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 2020 is based on the commitment
made in Paris in 2014.
II. India has shown a drastic improvement as far as efforts on climate change is concerned.
III. 22nd conference on climate change was held at Bonn.
(a) Only I (b) Only I and III (c) Only II
(d) Only II and III (e) None of the above

Direction (Q. 21-30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.
Certain parts are given in bold to answer some of the questions based on the passage.
Most of the competitive examinations conducted for admission for higher education or job
recruitments are objective in nature. They have several advantages over the subjective ones, for both
the examining authorities and the examinees. The multiple choice questions (MCQs) are the

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predominant type of objective questions. For each question a number of alternative answers, usually
four, coded as (a), (b), and so on are given, one of which would be the correct or the most fitting
answer and the rest distractors. The examinee chooses and indicates the 'correct' answer. The
evaluation is done electronically with utmost precision. The subjective type involves elaborate
answering and its evaluation involves human elements, and therefore, sometimes, subject to vagaries.
Thus the objective type of examining has the advantages of almost error -free evaluation, efficient
answering by examinees who may have good subjective knowledge but no language proficiency and
considerable saving in time for evaluation.
However, the question paper preparation of objective type requires more care and talent. First, the
standard of the questions must suit the level of the candidates tested. Next, while some of the
questions could be straight forward, from basic concepts learnt from textbooks or classes, some
should be application oriented and based on a little extensions of those basic concepts. Such questions
will help identify better talent in a group, which is an important aim of competitive examinations. All
the answer codes must have almost equal probability of being the correct answer and the correct
answer must be randomly distributed. (Some say that the choice (c) is often the correct answer code.).
The concept of negative marking for wrong answers is not acceptable to some of us. They feel that
wise guessing could be allowed and should not be discouraged with penalty if it goes wrong. It
should be noted that wise guessing is already allowed, as it is one of the methods of narrowing down
to the correct answer after eliminating the wrong answers. If by this you are not narrowing down to
the correct answer, then your guess is not wise but wild, which should be discouraged.
The implication of wild guesses can be brought out with an example of a candidate A taking an
objective test. Suppose A does not even open the question booklet, but goes on marking one
particular answer code, say (b), for all the 100 questions of the test, which may take less than five
minutes. If there are four multiple choices, (b) would be the correct answer choice for about 25
questions, in all probability, getting him 25 marks out of the total marks of 100. Say now, B, a serious
student who would have sincerely attempted might have got much less; how to tackle this situation?
A should get only zero which he deserves. His 25 marks will be reduced to 0 only if (1/3) mark is
deducted for every one of the 75 wrong answers. Generalising, the factor should be 1 / (k – 1) when
the number of alternative answers for every question is k. The purpose of examinations, particularly
competitive ones, is to correctly assess the relative merits of candidates, which is made possible by the
negative marking system. Awarding of any concessions to anyone is a matter that can be taken up at
a later stage.
21. Why electronic evaluation is preferred over the one which is done subjectively?
(a) Electronic evaluation is almost error-free
(b) Technology used builds precision in marking
(c) The subjective types are bound to have human error
(d) Both 1 and 3
(e) Both 1 and 2

22. What does the author mean by quoting the consequence of "What if a doctor makes a wrong
diagnosis instead of referring it to a higher centre"?
(a) Wrong diagnosis can cost a patient's life
(b) Guessing an answer shows lack of merit
(c) Those who get selected by luck, don't make good doctors
(d) Just like a wrong diagnosis, a wild guess guess in exams can costs dearly
(e) None of the above

23. What of the following is the nearest in meaning to "IMPLICATIONS"?

(a) suggestion (b) innuendo
(c) indication (d) Both 1 and 2
(e) All of them

24. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?

(a) Preparing objective type questions requires more skills
(b) In several tests, scheme of negative marking is being adopted
(c) Answering "most fitting" answer is in itself is arbitrary
(d) Purpose of examinations is to assess the relative merits of candidates
(e) Objective questions help identifying better talent in a group

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25. What according to author is important in the process of making options?
(a) They should be randomly distributed
(b) All options must have almost equal probability of being the correct answer
(c) Some options should use diversionary tactic
(d) Both 1 and 2
(e) None of the above

26. Other than the right option," "has been used to describe rest of the options. Identify that word
from the passage
(a) attention-grabber (b) diversion (c) distractors
(d) gimmick (e) disturbance

27. The thing which is kept in mind while making a question is...
(a) Some question should be based application oriented as well
(b) More than four options complicates a question
(c) Most of the question should be practical knowledge -based
(d) That which tests a candidate's theoretical knowledge is are better
(e) None of the above

28. What do you infer from the word "VAGARIES" mentioned in the passage?
(a) Evaluation being error-ridden
(b) That which cannot be controlled and can influence a situation
(c) mistakes in evaluating a specific paper
(d) Both 1 and 2
(e) Both 2 and 3

29. How does the author differentiate between a 'wise' guess and 'wild' guess?
(a) Guessing answers should not be penalised
(b) Narrowing down answers by elimination is wise guess only
(c) Implication of wild guessing can be huge
(d) Objective format papers make for easy guessing of answers
(e) Negative marking defeats the purpose of guessing

30. Which among the following inferences can be best attributed to the concluding paragraph of the
passage?
(a) Purpose of examinations
(b) Advantages of electronic evaluation
(c) Positives of the negatives
(d) Subjective over objective
(e) Lacunas in marking schemes

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