1. Noise would decrease student performance is a.

A. Concept
B. Hypothesis
C. Idea
D. Research design
View Answer
B. Hypothesis

2. Rejection of a null hypothesis when it is true called.

A. Hypothesis
B. Conclusion
C. Variable
D. Type I error
View Answer
D. Type I error

3. Error in testing a hypothesis is due to wrong.

A. Study design
B. Analysis
C. Conclusion
D. All of them
View Answer
D. All of them

4. Research and group being observed equally engaged in.

A. Non participant behaviour
B. Participant behaviour
C. Survey
D. Experiment
View Answer
B. Participant behaviour

5. Identify a method of data collection.

A. Observation
B. Interview
C. Questionnaire
D. All of them
View Answer
D. All of them

6. Unstructured interview is.

A.Flexible
B.Rigid
C.Clear
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Flexible

7. Disadvantage of questionnaire is.

A.Anonymity
B.Less expensive
C.No opportunity of spontaneous response
D.All of them
View Answer
C.No opportunity of spontaneous response

8. Content of cover letter is.

A.General information
B.Thanks for participation
C.Relevance of study
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

9. Method of data collection in quantitative research is.

A.Observation
B.Unstructured interview
C.Secondary sources
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

10. Data can be collected through secondary sources.

A.Personal records
B.Mass media
C.Earlier research
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

11. Problem of secondary source.

A.Personal bias
B.Format
C.Validity
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

12. Method of drawing a random sample.

A.Fishbowl draw
B.Computer program
C.Random generated numbers
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

13. Non-random sampling is.

A.Expert
B.Stratified
C.Cluster
D.Sample random sampling
View Answer
A.Expert

14. The sampling based upon convenience is.

A.Accidental
B.Snowball
C.Quota
D.Cluster
View Answer
A.Accidental

15. Research activity revolves around.

A.Researcher
B.Participant
C.Funding agency
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

16. Keeping information of the participant anonymous is called.

A.Informed consent
B.Confidentiality
C.Bias
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Confidentiality

17. Using someone else work as claiming yours is.

A.Plagiarism
B.Hypothesis
C.Variable
D.Research question
View Answer
A.Plagiarism

18. Research question must be.

A.Valid
B.Objective
C.Accurate
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

19. Research design is used to assess.

A.Question
B.Decision
C.Idea
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Question

20. A research design must include.

A.Study population
B.Sample
C.Instrument
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

21. In social research, attitudes of people is measured toward.

A.Conditions
B.Policies
C.Problems
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

22. Identify an attitudinal scale.

A. Likert
B. Thurstone
C. Guttman
D. All of them
View Answer
D. All of them

23. The first step I calculating attitudinal score is.

A.Administer statements
B.Assemble statements
C.Construct questionnaire
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Assemble statements
24. First step in constructing Thurstone scale is.
A.Construct statement
B.Construct questionnaire
C.Calculate median
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Construct statement

25. Interval scale is implemented in.

A. Thurstone scale
B. Likert scale
C. Guttmann scale
D. None of them
View Answer
A. Thurstone scale

26. The most difficult scale to construct is.

A.Thurstone scale
B.Guttmann scale
C.Likert scale
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Guttmann scale

27. Hypothesis defines.

A.Relationship
B.Conclusion
C.Issues
D.Limitations
View Answer
A.Relationship

28. Null hypothesis is denoted as.

A.Ho
B.H1
C.H2
D.H3
View Answer
A.Ho

29. Researcher W ‘s hypothesis was faulty, this might be due to wrong.

A.Design
B.Sample
C.Objectives
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

30. Participant observation involves.

A.Researcher
B.Participant
C.Irrelevant person
D.Researcher and participant
View Answer
D.Researcher and participant

31. Rigid interview is called.

A.Structured
B.Unstructured
C.Participant observation
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Structured

32. Questionnaires are useful because of.

A.Limited application
B.Low cost
C.Low response
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Low cost

33. Cover letter shows.

A.Objectives
B.Instructions
C.Procedure
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

34. Characteristic of a hypothesis is.

A.Tentative proposition
B.Validity
C.Relationship between variables
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

35. To test a hypothesis, first step is to.

A. Gather evidence
B. Construction
C. Analysis
D. None of them
View Answer
A. Gather evidence

36. Phase II in the process of testing a hypothesis is.

A. Collect required data
B. Formulate hunch
C. Analyze data
D. None of them
View Answer
A. Collect required data

37. No relationship between variables are presented through.

A.Null hypothesis
B.Alternate hypothesis
C.Experimental hypothesis
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Null hypothesis

38. Information gathered using second approach is.

A.Primary source
B.Secondary source
C.Mixed source
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Secondary source

39. Identify a secondary source.

A.Document
B.Interview
C.Observation
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Document

40. Identify characteristic of unstructured interview.

A.Evolutionary
B.Pre-determined
C.Rigid
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Evolutionary

41. Collective information is obtained through.

A.Students in classroom
B.People attending function
C.Audience of a program
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

42. Advancement in communication technology is implemented in.

A.Mailed questionnaire
B.Collective administration
C.Online questionnaire
D.None of them
View Answer
C.Online questionnaire

43. Method of data collection most appropriate for complex situation is.
A.Interview
B.Survey
C.Observation
D.Questionnaire
View Answer
A.Interview

44. Time consuming and expensive is.

A.Interview
B.Questionnaire
C.Survey
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Interview

45. Information can be supplemented in.

A.Interview
B.Survey
C.Observation
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Interview

46. Interaction due to quality of data is most important in.

A.Survey
B.Interview
C.Observation
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Interview
47. Possibility of researcher bias is frequent in.
A.Interview
B.Survey
C.Observation
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Interview

48. Sensitive questions can be asked in.

A.Survey
B.Interview
C.Observation
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Interview

49. For quality interview, interviewer should have essential.

A.Skills
B.Qualification
C.Expertise
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

50. Diverse type of population can be easily contacted through.

A.Interview
B.Observation
C.Questionnaire
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Interview

51. Questions related to private life can be easily asked through.

A.Interview
B.Observation
C.Questionnaire
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Interview

52. There is a greater investigator bias in question.

A.Open ended
B.Closed ended
C.Double barrel
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Closed ended

53. How often and how much time you exercise is question called.
A.Double barrel
B.Ambiguous
C.Clear
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Double barrel

54. Step 2 in constructing research instrument is to specify.

A.Objectives
B.Questions
C.Hypothesis
D.None of them
View Answer
C.Hypothesis

55. Last step in construction of instrument is to formulate.

A.Questions
B.Objectives
C.Hypothesis
D.None of the
View Answer
A.Questions

56. Oral histories involve.

A.Active listening
B.Passive listening
C.Culture
D.Active and passive listening
View Answer
D.Active and passive listening

57. Narratives have context.

A.No predetermined
B.Predetermined
C.Ambiguous
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Predetermined

58. In depth interviews are .

A.Simple
B.Complex
C.Vague
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Simple

59. Difference between qualitative and quantitative research depends on.

A.Extraction
B.Analysis
C.Communication
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

60. Secondary source is.

A.Government publication
B.Newspapers
C.Television
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

61 Problem with secondary source data is.

A.Reliability
B.Complication
C.Restriction
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Reliability

62. Secondary source data exhibits less.

A.Objectivity
B. Rigor
C.Clarity
D.Objectivity and rigor
View Answer
D.Objectivity and rigor

63. Cover letter should brief.

A.Introduction
B.Instructions
C.Contact numbers
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

64. Every individual has chance of selection in random sampling is.

A.Equal
B.Not equal
C.Disproportionate
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Equal

65. Every individual in non-random sampling has chance of selection as.

A.Not equal
B.Collective
C.Ratio
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Not equal

66. Which of the following is a type of random sampling.

A.Cluster
B.Expert
C.Quota
D.Snowball
View Answer
A.Cluster

67. Good research question must be.

A.Accurate
B.Illogical
C.Unclear
D.Vague
View Answer
A.Accurate

68. A research design is.

A.Idea
B.Plan
C.Phenomena
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Plan

69. Identify a study design.

A.Cross sectional
B.Before-after
C.Control experiment
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them
70. In quantitative research, there are.
A.Three scales
B.Two scales
C.Four scales
D.Five scales
View Answer
A.Three scales

71. Summated rating scale is also known as.

A.Likert
B.Thurstone
C.Guttmann
D.Equal appearing interval
View Answer
A.Likert

72. Last step in calculating attitudinal score is.

A.Administer statement
B.Assemble statement
C.Construct questionnaire
D.Calculate score
View Answer
C.Construct questionnaire

73. Identify a measurement scale.

A.Ordinal
B.Ratio
C.Interval
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

74. Thurstone scale calculates.

A.Weight
B.Attitudinal value
C.Schemas
D.Weight and attitudinal scale
View Answer
D.Weight and attitudinal scale

75. Quantitative and qualitative research differs in.

A.Method
B.Procedure
C.Idea
D.Method and procedure
View Answer
D.Method and procedure

76. ‘Less hard work would lead to failure’ is a statement called.

A.Concept
B.Hypothesis
C.Variable
D.Idea
View Answer
B.Hypothesis

77. Researcher X rejects a hypothesis whereas it is true refers to.

A.Concept
B.Type I error
C.Variable
D.Design
View Answer
B.Type I error

78. Researcher Y conclusion was wrong, it might be due to incorrect.

A.Data collection
B.Instrument
C.Sample
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

79. Researcher is not involved in.

A.Participant observation
B.Non participant observation
C.Interview
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Non participant observation

80. Flexible interview is called.

A.Clear
B.Unstructured interview
C.Survey
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Unstructured interview

81. Spontaneous response can’t be observed through.

A.Questionnaire
B.Cost
C.Identity
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Questionnaire

82. In depth information can be collected through questions.

A.Open ended
B.Closed ended
C.Ambiguous
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Open ended

83. Second phase of hypothesis testing is.

A.Gathering evidence
B.Construction
C.Analysis
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Gathering evidence

84. Hypothesis must be tested through.

A.Analysis
B.Idea
C.Knowledge
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Analysis

85. Type of hypothesis is.

A.Alternate
B.Research
C.Logical
D.Alternate and research
View Answer
D.Alternate and research

86. Information gathered using first approach is.

A.Primary source
B.Secondary source
C.Mixed source
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Primary source
87. Primary source is.
A.Observation
B.Interviewing
C.Questionnaire
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

88. Situation in which observation can be made.

A.Natural
B.Controlled
C.Critical
D.Natural and controlled
View Answer
D.Natural and controlled

89. Identify characteristic of structured interview.

A.Flexible
B.Open
C.Closed
D.Open
View Answer
C.Closed

90. Most common approach to collect information is.

A.Mailed questionnaire
B.Collective administration
C.Online questionnaire
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Mailed questionnaire

91. Questionnaire can be administered in a.

A.Public place
B.Health Centre
C.Shopping Centre
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

92. Questions can be explained in.

A.Interview
B.Survey
C.Observation
D.Questionnaire
View Answer
A.Interview

93. Wider application is of.

A.Survey
B.Interview
C.Observation
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Interview

94. Quality of data depends upon interaction in.

A.Survey
B.Interview
C.Observation
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Interview

95. Interview can be used with.

A.Population
B.Children
C.Illiterate
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

96. Quality of data in interview depends upon interviewer.

A.Experience
B.Skill
C.Commitment
D.All of them
View Answer
D.All of them

97. Effective questions be asked in.

A.Simple language
B.Double barrel questions
C.Leading questions
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Simple language

98. Unemployment is increasing, what do you think is a question called.

A.Double barrel
B.Leading
C.Simple
D.None of them
View Answer
B.Leading

99. How many cigarettes do you smoke in a day is question called.

A.Double barrel
B.Presumed
C.Simple
D.All of them
View Answer
B.Presumed

100. Smoking is bad, isn’t is a question called.

A.Leading
B.Presumed
C.Logical
D.All of them
View Answer
A.Leading

101. Ambiguous question contain more than one.

A.Meaning
B.Variables
C.Hypothesis
D.None of them
View Answer
A.Meaning

MCQ 1: A theoretical ideas that form the basis of research hypothesis is:

Conceptual variables

MCQ 2: A attribute, presuming different values among different people in different times or places,
known as:

Variable

MCQ 3: The concept which form the basis of a research hypothesis are known as:

Conceptual variable
MCQ 5: A variables that consisting of a numbers that represent the conceptual variables are known
as:

Measured variable

1. Statements based on the systematic collection of data are:

a. empirical
b. dialectic
c. empathic
d. false
2. The goal of correlational research is to:
a. assess the causal impact of one variable on another
b. create a snapshot of what’s happening
c. assess relationships between variables
d. all of the above
3. A study of the feeding behaviour of a group of wild monkeys in India would be an example
of:
a. a survey
b. naturalistic observation
c. a correlation
d. an experiment
4. If income and happiness are positively correlated then a person with a low income would be
predicted to be:
a. not depressed at all
b. less depressed than a person with a high income
c. more depressed than a person with a high income
d. cannot make a prediction from correlational data
5. Descriptive statistics aim to:
a. explain
b. confuse
c. complicate
d. summarize
6. In a ________ experiment neither the researcher nor the participants know which condition
participants are in.
a. blind
b. double-blind
c. random
d. confounded

7. A researcher is interested in the impact of anxiety on performance. In order to manipulate

anxiety, they have some subjects eat plain chips while others eat barbecue flavored chips.
The most obvious problem with this experiment is a lack of:
a. statistical validity
b. empirical validity
c. internal validity
d. construct validity
8. A strength of correlational designs is that they:
a. can demonstrate causation
b. do not require ethics board approval
c. can be used with variables which cannot be manipulated by a researcher
d. are more intrusive than experimental designs
9. A researcher uses an experimental design to study the effect of music on memory. In this
experiment, the Independent Variable is:
a. music
b. memory
c. both music and memory
d. neither music nor memory
10. According to the text, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good theory?
a. it is parsimonious
b. it is falsifiable
c. it is common sense
d. it is general
11. Empirical statements are based on:
a. belief
b. data
c. intuition
d. common sense
12. Informed consent is typically obtained:
a. during an experiment
b. before an experiment
c. after an experiment
d. it is not typical to obtain informed consent
13. Creating equivalence among research participants is vital for:
a. experimental research
b. correlational research
c. descriptive research
d. equivalence is never vital
14. A researcher is interested in whether the results of her experiment (conducted in Canada)
would be the same if the experiment were conducted in China. This researcher is concerned
with:
a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. statistical validity
d. none of the above
15. Standard deviation is a measure of:
a. range
b. central tendency
c. inference
d. dispersion
16. Generalization is a key issue in:
a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. a double-blind experiment
d. a single-blind experiment
17. In an experiment examining the effect of mood on intelligence participants are randomly
assigned to watch either a funny movie or a sad movie before they complete an IQ test. The
funny movie is shown in a classroom, while the sad movie is shown in the student lounge.
The most obvious problem with this experiment is:
a. lack of statistical validity
b. the IV is confounded
c. the use of random assignment
d. none of the above

18. In an experiment the researcher manipulates the ________ variable and measure the
________ variable.
a. independent, dependent
b. dependent, independent
c. causal, spurious
d. spurious, causal
19. The more exercise a person takes the fewer medical problems they report. This is an
example of:
a. a curvilinear relationship
b. statistical independence
c. a positive correlation
d. a negative correlation
20. In a normal distribution most scores are located:
a. at the high end of the distribution
b. at the low end of the distribution
 c. in the center of the distribution
d. at the extremes of the distribution
21. Data from a correlational study is usually shown as a:
a. scatterplot
b. pie chart
c. bar graph
d. b or c
22. A researcher plans to assess intelligence by counting the number of times participants can
hop on one leg in 60 seconds. An obvious problem with this is:
a. lack of statistical validity
b. number of hops is too subjective
c. lack of construct validity
d. lack of significance
23. A double-blind study is used to minimize the impact of:
a. experimenter bias
b. expectancy effects
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b

24. Correlation coefficients range from:

a. r = -1 to r = +1
b. r = 0 to r = +1
c. r = -1 to r = 0
d. r = +.5 to r = +1
25. In an experiment randomly assigned, participants drank wine or water. All participants then
completed an anxiety questionnaire. In this experiment the IV was:
a. the results of the memory test
b. the participants
c. the random assignment
d. what the participants drank
26. Research shows that the older a person is, the larger their vocabulary. This is an example of
a:
a. positive correlation
b. negative correlation
c. causal correlation
d. partial correlation
27. Three commonly used measures of central tendency are:
a. range, standard deviation, median,
b. median, mode, dispersion
c. mode, median, standard deviation
d. median, mode, mean
28. Dr. Maki questioned a group of 9th graders about their career aspirations. This is an
example of a(n)
a. experiment
b. survey
 c. case study
d. manipulation
29. In an experiment looking at the effect of heat on performance, participants were randomly
assigned to spend 20 minutes in a hot room painted blue or to spend 20 minutes in a cold
room painted yellow. In this experiment the IV is confounded by:
a. lack of random sampling
b. the colour of the room
c. performance on the task
d. there is no confound
30. A researcher asks 250 students (from a school with 1000 pupils) to complete a survey about
the cafeteria. The 250 students are a:
a. population
b. case study
c. sample
d. variable

1. Which of the following is not associated with use of the scientific method in psychological
research?

a. A commitment to producing knowledge through observation and experiment.

b. A commitment to basing knowledge exclusively on common sense and opinion.
c. A commitment to basing knowledge on empirical evidence.
d. A commitment to discovering truth.
e. A commitment to ensuring that findings are correctly interpreted.

2. Which of the following contribute to the development of knowledge and theory in psychology?
[TY2.2]

a. Evidence that supports a hypothesis.

b. Evidence that contradicts a hypothesis.
c. Evidence that tests a hypothesis.
d. All of the above.
e. Answers (a) and (c) only.

3. Which of the following statements is true? [TY2.3]

a. If a finding is reliable it should be easy to replicate using the same procedures.

b. If a finding is reliable it will also be valid.
c. If a finding is reliable it will be important.
d. If a finding is reliable it must be an example of good scientific practice.
e. If a finding is reliable it has been correctly interpreted.
4. Which of the following statements is true? [TY2.4]

a. The major goal of science is to identify as many facts as possible.

b. The major goal of science is to develop as many theories as possible.
c. The major goal of science is to explain as many facts as possible with the smallest number of
theoretical principles.
d. The major goal of science is to do as much research as possible with as little money.
e. Both (a) and (b).

NONE OF THEM

7. After reading some research on the topic of students’ attitudes to university courses, Mark does a
study to find out what students’ favorite subject at university is. In this he finds that final-year
psychology students prefer studying psychology to any other subject. On this basis he concludes
that psychology is the most popular subject. However, Jane argues that this conclusion is wrong as
the research actually shows that students prefer the subject, they end up studying. What is the basis
of her objection to Mark’s research? [TY2.7]

a. The study is invalid.

b. The study is unreliable.
c. The study is non-cumulative.
d. The study is unparsimonious.
e. None of the above.

8. If an experimental finding is valid, which of the following statements is true?

a. It should be easy to replicate

b. It supports a researcher's experimental predictions
c. It supports a researcher's theory
d. It occurred for the reason hypothesized by the researcher
e. It will make a demonstrable contribution to scientific knowledge

Which of the following would not be of interest to a behaviourist?

a. A person's reaction to a flashing light.

b. Differences in various people's responses to a flashing light.
c. The cognitive processes associated with reaction to a stimulus.
d. The impact of a particular stimulus on behaviour.
e. The different behaviours that arise from exposure to different stimuli.
10. Which of the following is a physiological measure?

a. A measure of blood flow through a person's brain.

b. Details of a person's family tree.
c. A person's response to questions on a survey.
d. A person's response to questions in an experiment.
e. The preference a person shows for one stimulus rather than another.

11. Theory A explains phenomenon L, phenomenon M and phenomenon N using principles J and K.
Theory B explains phenomenon L, phenomenon M, and phenomenon N using only principle K.
Theory C explains phenomenon L and phenomenon N using principles J and K. Which of the
following statements is true?

a. Theory A is the most parsimonious.

b. Theory B is the most parsimonious.
c. Theory C is the most parsimonious.
d. Theory A and Theory C are equally and most parsimonious.
e. Theory A and Theory B are equally and most parsimonious.

12. “An argument in which the thing to be explained is presented as the explanation (e.g. where
memory ability is used to explain memory performance).” What type of argument is this a glossary
definition of?

a. Conceptual argument
b. Convenient argument
c. Causal argument
d. Circular argument
e. Casual argument

13. “The goal of accounting for the maximum number of empirical findings in terms of the smallest
number of theoretical principles.” This a glossary definition of which principle?

a. Maximization.
b. Parsimony.
c. Reliability.
d. Validity.
e. External validity.
14. “Formally, a statement about the causal relationship between particular phenomena (i.e. in the
form ‘A causes B’). This is usually derived from a particular theory and designed to be tested in
research.” Which construct is this a glossary definition of?

a. Prediction.
b. Deduction.
c. Hypothesis.
d. Conventional reasoning.
e. Deductive reasoning.

15. “Treating an abstraction as if it were a real concrete thing. In psychology this refers to the
process and outcome of treating an empirical finding as if it were the straightforward expression of
an underlying psychological process (e.g. seeing performance on intelligence tests as the expression
of intelligence).” This a glossary definition of which process?

a. Reification.
b. Refutation
c. Concretization.
d. False consensus.
e. Experimental artifice.

1. In the context of psychological experiments, reliability refers to

a. the ability of an experiment to prove a hypothesis

b. the consistency of the results of an experiment
c. the usefulness of the results of an experiment
d. whether the researcher is likely to turn up on time

2. Reactivity refers to the effect whereby

a. a participant responds to an experimental trial

b. demand characteristics influence participant behavior
c. a stimulus causes a response
d. people’s behavior is affected by the knowledge that they are being observed

3. Inferential statistics provide information about

a. mean, medians and modes

b. measures of dispersion
c. the probability that your scores could occur by chance
d. whether you have proved your hypothesis
4. Qualitative data typically come in the form of

a. numbers
b. words
c. measurements
d. frequencies

5. In terms of experimental techniques, ‘content analyses refer to

a. measuring the level of happiness of an experimental participant

b. looking at the front pages of a book to determine if it’s worth reading
c. formally categorizing and counting the frequency of things in texts
d. examining what people have in their bags to infer personality characteristics

6. Demand characteristics are

a. the social demands on someone in an experiment

b. the features of a study, which give cues on how someone is meant to behave
c. unwanted influences in an experiment produced by the experimenter
d. the consequences of a self-fulfilling prophecy

7. A double-blind control is an experiment were

a. the participant is not aware of which condition they are in

b. the experimenter is not aware of which condition the participant is in
c. neither the experimenter nor the participant is aware of which condition the
participant is in
d. nobody has got a clue what is going on

8. What are experimenter effects?

a. the social demands on someone in an experiment

b. the features of a study, which give cues on how someone is meant to behave
c. unwanted influences in an experiment produced by the experimenter
d. the consequences of a self-fulfilling prophecy

9. The British Psychological Society has published an ethical code based on four principles. Two of
them are respect and responsibility. The other two are

a. due diligence and integrity

b. competence and integrity
c. due diligence and professionalism
d. professionalism and integrity
10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about ‘neural networks’:

a. they can be used to simulate the way the brain works

b. they use individual, interacting computational units that can communicate simultaneously
c. they are self-aware entities that have distinct, sometimes malevolent, personalities
d. they can be trained to understand visual inputs in a way similar to humans

11. What is discursive psychology?

a. a method that looks at how people discuss things

b. a method that examines how individuals perform in social action
c. a method where psychologists explore ideas by discussing things
d. the work of the devil

12. The process of triangulation refers to

a. doing everything three times to ensure reliability

b. doing everything three times to ensure validity
c. comparing qualitative and quantitative data to ensure reliability
d. comparing qualitative and quantitative data to ensure validity

13. In the field of gambling studies, the term behavioral tracking refers to

a. data from gambling companies that shows the log of an individual’s behavior online
b. closely following an individual to observe their natural behavior
c. closely following an individual’s behavior online to observe their gambling in real time
d. using online data of gambling behavior to track down a particular individual

14. What was the sample size of the behavioral tracking study by Auer and Griffiths?

a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 100,000

15. What is the eye–mind assumption?

a. there is a direct relationship between eye movements and thought

b. the brain only processes what the eye is looking at
c. there is a relationship between gaze and consciousness
d. there is a relationship between gaze and awareness
16. What is the placebo effect?

a. the belief that a substance is having an effect even when it isn’t

b. an inactive substance or fake treatment produces a response in the patient
c. a substance has an enhanced effect on a patient due to their belief in its efficacy
d. a substance that fails to work on a patient because of their beliefs about its efficacy

17. It is often NOT possible to carry out double-blind trials of psychological treatments because

a. there are ethical issues in having a control condition of ‘no treatment’

b. it is sometimes impossible to disguise who is receiving the treatment and who isn’t
c. the trails are conducted by the therapists who are trying to have an effect on the patients
d. all of these

18. When George Miller argued that we should give psychology away, he was referring to

a. psychologists should give their services for free

b. psychologists should only work for publicly funded organizations
c. psychologists should not claim expertise but should encourage everyone to be in
control of themselves
d. psychologists should create a technology that makes everyday life healthier and safer

19. David Wilson argues that murder is a social rather than an individual event because

a. there are usually other people present when the murder is carried out
b. many murderers work in teams
c. people who are commonly murdered by serial killers come from groups on the fringes
of mainstream society
d. people who are commonly murdered by serial killers often know each other

20. The research study on bus shelter adverts by Crundall et al. found that

a. bus shelter adverts receive more attention than pole-mounted adverts

b. bus shelter adverts receive less attention than pole-mounted adverts
c. bus shelter adverts receive a similar amount of attention as pole-mounted adverts
d. all adverts are hazardous to drivers

1. Which of the following statements is not true? [TY3.1]

 a. Psychological measurement can involve the measurement of phenomena believed to be
related to a given psychological state or process.
b. Psychological measurement can involve the measurement of behavior believed to result
from a given psychological state or process.
c. Psychological measurement can involve self-reports of behavior believed to be related to a
given psychological state or process.
d. Psychological measurement can involve the self-reports of a sample drawn from a particular
sub-population.
e. Psychological measurement can involve direct examination of psychological states
and processes.

2. A researcher conducts an experiment that tests the hypothesis that ‘anxiety has an adverse effect
on students’ exam performance’. Which of the following statements is true? [TY3.2]

a. Anxiety is the dependent variable; exam performance is the independent variable.

b. Anxiety is the dependent variable; students are the independent variable.
c. Anxiety is the independent variable; students are the dependent variable.
d. Anxiety is the independent variable; exam performance is the dependent variable.
e. Students are the dependent variable; exam performance is the independent variable.

3. An experimenter conducts a study in which she wants to look at the effects of altitude on
psychological well-being. To do this she randomly allocates people to two groups and takes one
group up in a plane to a height of 1000 meters and leaves the other group in the airport terminal as
a control group. When the plane is in the air, she seeks to establish the psychological well-being of
both groups. Which of the following is a potential confound, threatening the internal validity of the
study? [TY3.3]

a. The reliability of the questionnaire that she uses to establish psychological health.
b. The size of the space in which the participants are confined.
c. The susceptibility of the experimental group to altitude sickness.
d. The susceptibility of the control group to altitude sickness.
e. The age of people in experimental and control groups.

4. What distinguishes the experimental method from the quasi-experimental method? [TY3.4]

a. The scientific status of the research.

b. The existence of an independent variable.
c. The existence of different levels of an independent variable.
d. The sensitivity of the dependent variable.
e. The random assignment of participants to conditions.

5. Which of the following is not an advantage of the survey/correlational method? [TY3.5]

a. It allows researchers to examine a number of different variables at the same time.

 b. It allows researchers to examine the relationship between variables in natural settings.
c. It allows researchers to make predictions based on observed relationships between
variables.
d. It allows researchers to explain observed relationships between variables.
e. It is often more convenient than experimental methods.

6. Which of the following statements is true? [TY3.6]

a. Case studies have played no role in the development of psychological theory.

b. Case studies have all of the weaknesses and none of the strengths of larger studies.
c. Case studies have none of the weaknesses and all of the strengths of larger studies.
d. Case studies should only be conducted if every other option has been ruled out.
e. None of the above.

7. An experimenter, Tom, conducts an experiment to see whether accuracy of responding and

reaction time are affected by consumption of alcohol. To do this, Tom conducts a study in which
students at university A react to pairs of symbols by saying ‘same’ or ‘different’ after consuming two
glasses of water and students at university B react to pairs of symbols by saying ‘same’ or ‘different’
after consuming two glasses of wine. Tom predicts that reaction times will be slower and that there
will be more errors in the responses of students who have consumed alcohol. Which of the following
statements is not true? [TY3.7]

a. The university attended by participants is a confound.

b. The experiment has two dependent variables.
c. Reaction time is the independent variable.
d. Tom’s ability to draw firm conclusions about the impact of alcohol on reaction time would be
improved by assigning participants randomly to experimental conditions.
e. This study is actually a quasi-experiment.

8. What is an extraneous variable? [TY3.8]

a. A variable that can never be manipulated.

b. A variable that can never be controlled.
c. A variable that can never be measured.
d. A variable that clouds the interpretation of results.
e. None of the above.
9. Which of the following statements is true? [TY3.9]

a. The appropriateness of any research method is always determined by the research

question and the research environment.
b. Good experiments all involve a large number of participants.
c. Experiments should be conducted in laboratories in order to improve experimental control.
d. Surveys have no place in good psychological research.
e. Case studies are usually carried out when researchers are too lazy to find enough
participants.

10. A piece of research that is conducted in a natural (non-artificial) setting is called: [TY3.10]

a. A case studies.
b. A field studies.
c. A quasi-experiment.
d. A survey.
e. An observational study.

11. “Measures designed to gain insight into particular psychological states or processes that involve
recording performance on particular activities or tasks.” What type of measures does this glossary
entry describe?

a. State measures.
b. Behavioral measures.
c. Physiological measures.
d. Activity measures.
e. Performance measures.

12. “An approach to psychology that asserts that human behaviour can be understood in terms of
directly observable relationships (in particular, between a stimulus and a response) without having
to refer to underlying mental states.” Which approach to psychology is this a glossary definition of?

a. Behaviorism.
b. Freudianism.
c. Cognitivism.
d. Radical observations.
e. Marxism.
13. “The complete set of events, people or things that a researcher is interested in and from which
any sample is taken.” What does this glossary entry define?

a. Total sample.
b. Complete sample.
c. Reference sample.
d. Reference group.
e. Population.

14. “Either the process of reaching conclusions about the effect of one variable on another, or the
outcome of such a process.” What does this glossary entry define?

a. Causal inference.
b. Induction.
c. Deduction.
d. Inductive reasoning.
e. Inferential accounting.

15. “The extent to which the effect of an independent variable on a dependent variable has been
correctly interpreted.” Which construct is this a glossary definition of?

a. Internal inference.
b. External inference.
c. External validity.
d. Holistic deduction.
e. Internal validity.

1. What is a manipulation check and what is its purpose? [TY4.1]

a. A dependent measure used to check that manipulation of an independent variable

has been successful.
b. An independent variable used to check that measurement of a dependent variable has been
successful.
c. A measure used to check that an experiment has an independent variable.
d. An independent measure used to check that the operationalization is relevant.
e. A dependent measure used to check that an independent variable is sufficiently relevant.

2. Which of the following statements is true? [TY4.2]

a. Dependent variables that do not measure the most relevant theoretical variable are
pointless.
b. A study that employs dependent variables that are sensitive enough to detect
variation in the independent variable is a quasi-experiment.
c. Unless dependent variables are sufficiently sensitive, they will not reveal the effects of
manipulating an independent variable.
 d. Unless dependent variables are sufficiently relevant, they will not reveal the effects of
manipulating an independent variable.
e. None of the above.

3. A team of researchers is interested in conducting an experiment in order to test an important

theory. In order to draw appropriate conclusions from any experiment they conduct, which of the
following statements is true? [TY4.3]

a. The experimental sample must be representative of the population to which they want to
generalize the research on dimensions of age, sex and intelligence.
b. The experimental sample must be representative of the population to which they want to
generalize the research on all dimensions.
c. The experimental sample must be representative of the population to which they want to
generalize the research on all dimensions that can be measured in that population.
d. The experimental sample must be representative of the population to which they
want to generalize the research on all dimensions relevant to the process being
studied.
e. None of the above.

4. An experimenter conducts a study examining the effects of television violence on children’s

aggressiveness. To do this she asks 40 schoolboys who display normal levels of aggressiveness to
watch one violent video a week for 40 weeks. On a standard measure of aggressiveness, which she
administers both before and after each video over the 40-week treatment, she finds that the boys
are much more aggressive in the last 10 weeks of the study. Without knowing anything more about
this study, which of the following can be ruled out as a threat to the internal validity of any
conclusions she may seek to draw? [TY4.4]

a. History effects.
b. Maturation effects.
c. Mortality effects.
d. Regression to the mean.
e. Testing effects.

5. Which of the following can increase a researcher’s ability to generalize findings from a particular
piece of research? [TY4.5]

a. Cheating.
b. Experimenter bias.
c. Deception and concealment.
d. Participants’ sensitivity to demand characteristics.
e. The use of unrepresentative samples.
6. A researcher conducts an experiment to investigate the effects of positive mood on memory.
Mood is manipulated by giving participants a gift. In the experiment, before they are given a
memory test, half of the participants are randomly assigned to a condition in which they are given a
box of chocolates, and the other half are given nothing. Which of the following statements
is not true? [TY4.6]

a. Mood is a between-subjects variable.

b. The experiment has two conditions.
c. The experiment includes a control condition.
d. The independent variable is manipulated within subjects.
e. Experimental control eliminates potential threats to the internal validity of the experiment.

7. Which of the following is a researcher’s overall objective in using matching? [TY4.7]

a. To control for extraneous variables in quasi-experimental designs.

b. To increase participants’ enjoyment of correlational research.
c. To ensure that participants are randomly assigned to conditions.
d. To ensure that groups of participants do not differ in age and sex.
e. To ensure that groups of participants do not differ in intelligence.

8. Which of the following threats to validity is the most difficult to control by improving experimental
design? [TY4.8]

a. Maturation effects.
b. Cheating by experimenters.
c. History effects.
d. Sensitivity to demand characteristics.
e. Experimenter bias.

9. Some researchers decided to conduct an experiment to investigate the effects of a new

psychological therapy on people’s self-esteem. To do this they asked all their clients who were
currently receiving treatment for low self-esteem to continue using an old therapy but treated all
their new clients with the new therapy. A year later they found that clients subjected to the new
therapy had much higher self-esteem. Which of the following statements is true? [TY4.9]

a. The greater self-esteem of the clients exposed to the new therapy resulted from the
superiority of that therapy.
b. The greater self-esteem of the clients exposed to the new therapy resulted from the fact that
the new clients were more optimistic than those who were previously receiving treatment.
 c. The greater self-esteem of the clients exposed to the new therapy resulted from the fact that
the new clients were less disillusioned with therapy than those who were previously
receiving treatment.
d. The greater self-esteem of the clients exposed to the new therapy resulted from the fact that
the new clients were more intelligent than those who were previously receiving treatment.
e. It is impossible to establish the validity of any of the above statements based on the
results of this study.

10. An experimenter conducts an experiment to see whether people's reaction time is affected by
their consumption of alcohol. To do this, she conducts a study in which students from University A
describe symbols as ‘red’ ‘green’ or ‘blue’ before they consume two glasses of wine and students
from University B describe symbols as red’ ‘green’ or ‘blue’ after they consume two glasses of wine.
She hypothesizes that reaction times will be slower and that there will be more errors in the
responses of students who consume alcohol before reacting to the symbols. Which of the following
statements is false?

a. It is appropriate to analyze the results using independent sample t-tests

b. Type of University is a potential experimental confound
c. The experiment has two dependent variables
d. The experiment has three independent variables
e. The experiment has a between-subjects design.

11. “Both (a) the process of constructing experiments and (b) the resulting structure of those
experiments.” What research feature is this a glossary definition of?

a. Experimental design.
b. Constructive design.
c. Experimental structuration.
d. Solidification.
e. Experimental procedure.

12. “A system for deciding how to arrange objects or events in a progressive series. These are used
to assign relative magnitude to psychological and behavioral phenomena (e.g. intelligence or
political attitudes).” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. A scale.
b. A measure.
c. A measurement.
d. A calibration.
e. A test.

13. “The principle that the more relevant a dependent variable is to the issue in which a researcher
is interested, the less sensitive it may be to variation in the independent variable.” What is this a
glossary definition of?

a. Systematic desensitization.
 b. Random variation.
c. Measurement error.
d. Relevance–sensitivity trade-off.
e. Inferential uncertainty.

14. “The extent to which a research finding can be generalized to other situations.” What is this a
glossary definition of?

a. External validity
b. Generalization.
c. Induction.
d. Extendability.
e. Empirical applicability.

15. “Systematic change to an independent variable where the same participants are exposed to
different levels of that variable by the experimenter.” What procedure is this a glossary definition of?

a. Random assignment.
b. Within-subjects manipulation.
c. Between-subjects manipulation.
d. Variable assignment.
e. Experimenter manipulation.

1. Surveys are preferred in some areas of psychology for which of the following reasons? [TY5.1]

a. They are usually cheaper.

b. They allow researchers to infer causal relationships.
c. They are more scientific because similar methods are used in astronomy and geology.
d. It is often impossible to manipulate the independent variables the researchers are
interested in.
e. They use randomization to achieve random sampling.

2. A television news programme shows a murder case including video footage of the grieving
parents of the victim. The television station then conducts an opinion poll in which it asks viewers to
phone in and vote for or against the death penalty for murder. The results of the survey show that
83% of the 20,000 viewers who ring in are in favor of the death penalty. Which of the following
statements is true? [TY5.2]

a. The results of this study can only be generalized to people who watch news programmes.
b. The results of this study can only be generalized to people who own a television.
 c. The results of this study can only be generalized to people who care about the death
penalty.
d. The results of this study can only be generalized when we know much more about the
sampling method.
e. The results of this study can only be generalized if the bias created by showing the grieving
parents is eliminated.

3. Which of the following can be a threat to the internal validity of longitudinal studies? [TY5.3]

a. Testing effects.
b. The IQ of the participants.
c. Sample size.
d. Maturation effects.
e. Both (a) and (d).

4. Which of the following statements is true? [TY5.4]

a. Questionnaires should not ask people to provide personal information.

b. Questionnaires should aim to obtain as much information from people as possible.
c. The order of items in a questionnaire is not particularly important.
d. Questionnaires should contain a mixture of open-ended and forced-choice items.
e. None of the above.

5. In a survey where the results are obtained from a representative random sample of a population,
which of the following is true? [TY5.5]

a. The results can be generalized to that population.

b. The sample can only be obtained by simple random sampling.
c. The sampling procedure is similar to that used in most experimental research.
d. Both (a) and (b).
e. None of the above.

6. Which of the following statements about convenience sampling is true? [TY5.6]

a. It should always be avoided.

b. It is appropriate providing the sample size is extremely large.
c. It can be used under some circumstances.
d. It is a non-probability sampling technique.
e. Both (c) and (d).

7. Which of the following is likely to be a problem for non-reactive studies that use non-obtrusive
measures? [TY5.7]

a. Social desirability effects.

b. Defining the probability of maturation for each member of the population.
c. Appropriate operationalization of variables.
 d. Behavioral traces.
e. Both (c) and (d).

8. A team of researchers conducts a study in which they ask boys and girls from a local high school
to complete a battery of psychological tests that investigate their social skills and levels of sociability.
Ten years later they ask boys and girls from the same school to perform the same tests. Which of
the following statements is false? [TY5.8]

a. The study has a successive cross-sectional design.

b. The research is invalid because developmental studies should not include
psychological tests.
c. Testing effects are eliminated by using a between-subjects design.
d. Mortality effects are eliminated by using a between-subjects design.
e. Maturation effects are eliminated by using a between-subjects design.

9. Which of the following statements is most correct?

a. The use of unobtrusive measures in surveys helps deal with reactivity.

b. The use of unobtrusive measures in surveys helps deal with standardization.
c. The use of unobtrusive measures in surveys helps deal with social desirability.
d. The use of unobtrusive measures in surveys helps deal with reactivity and social
desirability.
e. The use of unobtrusive measures in surveys helps deal with reactivity, standardization and
social desirability.

10. A researcher conducts a research project in which she surveys all the members of her local golf
club. This is most likely to be an example of which of the following?

a. Purposive sampling.
b. Random sampling.
c. Simple random sampling.
d. Split ballot sampling.
e. None of the above.

11. “The extent to which people’s behavior appears acceptable to other people. If behavior is
affected by people trying to behave in ways that they perceive to be desirable to the researcher then
this threatens both the internal and external validity of research.” What construct does this glossary
entry define?

a. Social desirability.
b. Self-presentation.
c. Deception.
d. Experimenter bias.
e. Participant bias.
12. “A listing of all members of the population of interest.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. A sample brochure.
b. A population directory.
c. A sampling directory.
d. A sampling frame.
e. A full sample specification.

13. “A preliminary piece of research designed to ‘road-test’ various design elements (e.g.
independent variables, dependent variables, details of procedure), in order to establish their viability
and utility prior to the investment of time and money in a full study.” What type of study does this
glossary entry define?

a. A sampling study.
b. A replication study.
c. A pre-test.
d. A pilot study.
e. A viability study.

14. “Studies where the same sample of participants is measured on more than one occasion.” What
type of study is this a glossary definition of?

a. Longitudinal surveys
b. Carry-over surveys
c. Repeated-measures surveys
d. Cohort surveys
e. Population censuses

15. “Questionnaire items where a respondent has to select one response from two or more
options.” What type of response is this a glossary definition of?

a. Selective response.
b. Forced-choice response.
c. Free response.
d. Likert-scale response.
e. Double-barreled response.
1. A researcher conducts an experiment in which she assigns participants to one of two groups and
exposes the two groups to different doses of a particular drug. She then gets the participants to
learn a list of 20 words and two days later sees how many they can recall. In the experiment the
dependent measure is simply the number of words recalled by each participant. What type of
dependent measure is this? [TY6.1]

a. Nominal.
b. Ordinal.
c. Interval.
d. Ratio.
e. None of the above.

2. A researcher conducts a study to find out how many times people had visited a doctor in the
previous year. Five people participated in the study and the numbers of visits they had made were 2,
5, 7, 4 and 2. Which of the following statements is true? [TY6.2]

a. The mean number of visits is 2.

b. The median number of visits is 2.
c. The median number of visits is 4.
d. The modal number of visits is 4.
e. The modal number of visits is 7.

3. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true if the distribution of a variable is
severely skewed? [TY6.3]

a. The mean will be the best measure of central tendency.

b. The median will be as misleading as the mean.
c. The mode will no longer be the most common response.
d. The median will be the best measure of central tendency.
e. The mode will be the best measure of central tendency.

4. If X is a variable, which of the following is not measured in the same units as X? [TY6.4]

a. The mean of X.
b. The range of X.
c. The standard deviation of X.
d. The variance of X.
e. The difference between minimum and maximum values of X.
5. If scores on a variable are normally distributed, which of the following statements is false? [TY6.5]

a. All scores on the variable will have been observed with equal frequency.
b. The distribution of scores is symmetrical about the mean.
c. Similar distributions are commonly observed in data obtained from psychological research.
d. There will be relatively few extreme scores.
e. The mean, median and modal scores will be equal.

6. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency? [TY6.6]

a. The mean of a distribution.

b. The mean squared deviation of some data.
c. The modal value of a set of values.
d. The median response on a scale.
e. An average score.

7. The shaded bars in the histogram below represent the times (rounded to the nearest 10
milliseconds) that 50 people take to react to a loud noise. Which of the following statements
is not true?

a. The distribution of reaction times is negatively skewed.

b. The modal reaction time is 240 ms.
c. The median reaction time is greater than 240 ms.
d. The mean reaction time will be greater than the modal reaction time.
e. The mean is an ambiguous measure of central tendency.
8. ‘Root mean squared deviate’ could be used as another name for which measure of dispersion?
[TY6.8]

a. Range.
b. Skewness
c. Variance.
d. Standard deviation.
e. Squared deviation from the root.

9. A researcher measures a variable whose distribution she observes to be normally distributed. On

this basis which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

a. The distribution's mean will be greater than its median and mode.
b. The distribution's median will be greater than its mean and mode.
c. The distribution's mean will be similar to its median and mode.
d. The distribution's mean will be less than its median and mode.
e. The distribution's mean will be greater than its median but less than its mode.

10. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

a. The variance in scores obtained on a dependent measure.

b. The mean deviation of some data.
c. Standard deviation.
d. The range of a set of values.
e. None of the above.

11. The SPSS output below is from a study in which the scores for the variable “Survey_Point” could
vary between 0 and 30. Looking at the distribution of frequencies, which of the following statements
is true?
 a. The distribution of scores is positively skewed.
b. The distribution of scores is negatively skewed.
c. There is a uniform distribution of scores.
d. The data have a bimodal distribution.
e. None of the above.

12. The SPSS output below is from a study in which the scores for the variable “Survey_Point” could
vary between 0 and 30. Looking at the distribution of frequencies, which of the following statements
is true?
 a. The mean will be higher than the mode.
b. The mode will be higher than the mean.
c. The mean will be the same as the mode.
d. The median will be lower than the mean.
e. The median will be higher than the mode.

13. “A variable that can be treated as if there were no breaks or steps between its different levels
(e.g., reaction time in milliseconds).” What type of variable is this a glossary definition of?

a. A logical variable.
b. A discrete variable.
c. A scale variable.
d. A continuous variable.
e. A measurement variable.

14. “A measure reflecting distinct categories that have different names but the categories are not
numerically related to one another.” What type of measure is this a glossary definition of?

a. An ordinal measure.
b. A nominal measure.
c. A scale measure.
d. A desperate measure.
e. A ratio measure.
15. “The spread of scores across levels of a variable.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. Distribution.
b. Range.
c. Variance.
d. Covariance.
e. Standard deviation.

16. “Scores that are very different from the typical value for a distribution. Because they are very
different from the central tendency of a distribution, they contribute a great deal to the amount of
dispersion in the distribution.” What does this glossary entry define?

a. Deviates.
b. Mean deviates.
c. Outliers
d. Non-respondents.
e. Missing data.

1. Imagine a coin-tossing experiment in which a coin is tossed 10 times and the researcher records
the number of heads obtained. Which of the following statements is true? [TY7.1]

a. The binomial distribution helps provide a statistical model for this coin-tossing
experiment.
b. The binomial distribution gives the probability that the coin is biased.
c. Very rare events are always random.
d. The information term of the statistic used in this experiment will be a measure of chance, or
random error.
e. Both (a) and (b).

2. Jane has an IQ of 145. The area beyond a z-score of 3.0 (the z-score associated with her IQ) is .001.
If we took a random sample of 1000 people from the population (that is known to have a mean of
100 and a standard deviation of 15) then which of the following statements is true? [TY7.2]

a. Jane’s z-score will be 3.0.

b. We can expect about 1 person in the sample of 1000 to have an IQ the same as or
higher than Jane’s.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. Jane’s z-score is obtained by dividing the binomial distribution by the error term.
e. Both (a) and (d).
3. Which of the following is true of the sampling distribution of the mean? [TY7.3]

a. It is an observed distribution of scores.

b. It is a hypothetical distribution.
c. It will tend to be normally distributed with a standard deviation equal to the population
standard deviation.
d. The mean will be estimated by the standard error.
e. Both (b) and (c).

4. Which of the following statements about descriptive uncertainty and inferential uncertainty is
true? [TY7.4]

a. Both are types of statistical uncertainty.

b. Only descriptive uncertainty is a form of statistical uncertainty.
c. They are unrelated.
d. Both are measured by the information term of any statistic.
e. They provide different answers to the same questions.

5. Which of the following statements about z-scores is true when they are used to make inferences
about individual scores? [TY7.5]

a. They are produced by random processes.

b. They are calculated by dividing the difference between the score and the mean by the
standard deviation.
c. They can only be used to make inferences about groups.
d. They follow the central limit theorem.
e. None of the above.

6. Which of the following statements about statistical inferences in psychology is false? [TY7.6]

a. Statistical inferences usually involve calculating a statistic that is obtained by dividing an

information term by an error term.
b. Statistical models allow us to calculate the probability that our results are due to
chance.
c. The sampling distribution of the mean is a useful concept for making inferences about
groups.
d. Statistical inferences about the mean can often make use of the z-distribution when the
population standard deviation is known.
e. The law of large numbers implies that, other things being equal, it is easier to be confident
when making inferences using large samples.
7. Which of the following follows from the law of large numbers? [TY7.7]

a. If you are unlucky in roulette you should stick with the same number because it has to come
up eventually.
b. The mean of a small random sample of the population is more likely to be a reliable
estimate of the population mean than that of a large sample.
c. In the long run we can expect similar numbers of heads and tails from a fair coin.
d. The mean of a large sample will be larger than the mean of a small sample.
e. The standard deviation of a large sample will be smaller than the standard deviation of a
small sample.

8. If a set of responses is normally distributed, which of the following statements is not true?

a. The scores will be symmetrically distributed around the mean

b. We can predict the percentage of responses falling within one standard deviations of the
mean
c. About 95% of responses fall within two standard deviations of the mean
d. The mean is a good measure of central tendency
e. The data needs to be transformed to satisfy the assumptions of most statistical
analyses.

9. If a student has an IQ of 90, how many standard deviation units is this away from the mean (note
that IQ has a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15)?

a. 10
b. 0.67
c. 1.5
d. 95
e. -1

10. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Inferential statistics draw upon information from sample data.

b. Inferential statistics draw upon knowledge of how random processes behave.
c. Inferential statistics make statements about samples based on observing populations.
d. Inferential statistics are used to make statement about how plausible it is that a random
process could have produced results as extreme as those obtained in a given piece of
research.
e. Inferential statistics are based on the ratio of information to error.
11. “The amount of descriptive uncertainty or chance variation associated with statistical statements
and observations.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. Descriptive error.
b. Statical variability.
c. Measurement error.
d. Random error.
e. Random variation.

12. “The mean value of a probability distribution. For example, this is 25 for the number of heads
when a fair coin is tossed 50 times.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. Chance outcome.
b. Expected value.
c. Random event.
d. Random value.
e. Arbitrary outcomes in sampling space.

13. “The statistical theorem that for large samples the sampling distribution of the mean will be
approximately normally distributed.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. The normal distribution theorem.

b. The central limit theorem.
c. The sampling distribution theorem.
d. The law of large numbers
e. The law of time and relative dimensions in space.

14. “The units in which z-scores are expressed.” What does this glossary entry define?

a. Standard mean units.

b. z-units.
c. Standard deviation units.
d. Variance units.
e. Zoned units.

15. “A distribution with a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1.” What is this a glossary definition
of?

a. Random test distribution.

b. Standard test distribution.
c. Mean-centred distribution.
d. Random distribution.
e. Standard normal distribution.
1. Which of the following statements is/are true about the t-distribution? [TY8.1]

a. Its shape changes with the number of degrees of freedom.

b. Its expected value is 0.
c. It can be used to test differences between means providing that the population standard
deviation is known.
d. Both (a) and (b).
e. All of the above.

Answer: D

2. The mean height of a sample of 100 men in 2014 is 180 cm, with a standard deviation of 10 cm.
The mean for the same population in 1914 was 170 cm. Imagine that we want to use the 2014
sample to test whether the height of the population has changed over the intervening 100 years.
Which of the following statements is true? [TY8.2]

a. The number of degrees of freedom for the test in this case is 99.
b. The t-value is 10.0.
c. The t-value corresponds to a very small probability that a random process of taking samples
of 100 men from a population similar to the 1914 population would produce a sample of 180
cm or taller.
d. All of the above.
e. Answers (a) and (b) only.

Answer: D

3. Which of the following is not relevant to a between-subjects t-test? [TY8.3]

a. The pooled variance estimate.

b. A difference score D.
c. An information term.
d. A sampling distribution of the differences between means.
e. A probability that a difference of the same size or larger could be obtained by a random
process.

Answer: B

4. If an experimenter conducts a t-test to see whether the responses of participants in a control

group differ from those of an experimental group, which of the following outcomes will yield the
highest t-value? [TY8.4]

a. If there are 10 participants in each condition and the difference between the mean
responses of the control group and the experimental group is 2 and both have standard
deviations of 1.
 b. If there are 10 participants in each condition and the difference between the mean
responses of the control group and the experimental group is 2 and both have standard
deviations of 2.
c. If there are 20 participants in each condition and the difference between the mean
responses of the control group and the experimental group is 1 and both have standard
deviations of 1.
d. If there are 20 participants in each condition and the difference between the mean
responses of the control group and the experimental group is 2 and both have standard
deviations of 1.
e. If there are 20 participants in each condition and the difference between the mean
responses of the control group and the experimental group is 2 and both have standard
deviations of 2.

Answer: D

5. Which of the following must be true of a statistically significant result of a t-test? [TY8.5]

a. The probability that a difference at least as large as the observed difference could be
produced by a particular random process will be less than the alpha level.
b. The obtained value of t will exceed the alpha level.
c. The rejection regions must be significantly different from each other.
d. Both (a) and (c).
e. Alpha must be set at .05.

Answer: A

6. Researchers conduct a t-test and obtain a p-value of .0012. Which of the following is an
appropriate conclusion on the basis of the information provided? [TY8.6]

a. The result is significant.

b. The effect size will be large.
c. Both (a) and (b).
d. A 99% confidence interval for the differences between the means will include the observed
difference.
e. A 95% confidence interval for the differences between the means will not include the
observed difference.

Answer: E

7. Researchers conduct a t-test to compare two groups and find that one of the groups has a much
larger standard deviation than the other. Which of the following statements is true? [TY8.7]

a. The variances are robust.

b. The assumption of equal variance may have been violated.
c. The researchers should make sure that their distributions are free of parameters.
d. The standard deviations are not normal.
 e. Both (b) and (d).

Answer: B

8. If an experimenter were to conduct an experiment in which participants were randomly assigned

to either a control condition or an experimental condition, which of the following statements would
be true? [TY8.8]

a. It will be appropriate to analyse results using a between-subjects t-test.

b. Any statistical analysis will be based on pairs of responses.
c. If a t-test is performed to analyse the results, it will have n − 1 degrees of freedom.
d. The experiment involves two related samples.
e. Both (a) and (c).

Answer: A

9. John, a second-year psychology student, is using the hypothesis-testing approach and an alpha
level of .05 to examine a difference between two means. He discovers that this difference is
associated with a t-value of 3.46. If the critical t-value with α = .05 is 2.056 what should he conclude?
[TY8.9]

a. That the difference between the means is statistically significant.

b. That the alpha level is too high.
c. That the alpha level is not high enough.
d. That the experiment did not contain enough participants to draw a strong conclusion.
e. That no conclusion can be made about the nature of the underlying populations.

Answer: A

10. Which of the following suggests that the assumptions underlying a between-subjects t-test have
been violated? [TY8.10]

a. Evidence that the dependent variable is normally distributed.

b. Evidence that the samples being compared have unequal variances.
c. Evidence that the manipulation of the independent variable had no effect.
d. Evidence that sampling was random, and that scores were independent.
e. None of the above.

Answer: B

11. Which of the following increases the likelihood of a Type II error when conducting a t-test?
[TY8.11]

a. A high alpha level.

b. A large sample size.
c. High power.
 d. Low random error.
e. A small difference between means.

Answer: E

12. An experimenter conducts an experiment using a control group containing 8 subjects and an
experimental group containing 8 subjects. How many degrees of freedom are there in this
experimental design?

a. 7
b. 8
c. 14
d. 15
e. 16

Answer: C

13. The graph below was generated by SPSS and plots participants’ scoreson the variable
“Survey_Point” which can vary between 0 and 30. Looking at this graph, what might make these data
inappropriate to analyse using a t-test?

a. The assumption of independence is violated.

b. The assumption of normality is violated.
c. The assumption of equal variance is violated.
d. Both (a) and (b).
e. Both (b) and (c).
Answer: B

14. “The probability, as revealed by a statistical test, that a random process (involving taking random
samples of a particular size from a particular population) could produce some outcome.” What is
this a glossary definition of?

a. Random error
b. Sampling error
c. The random value
d. The p-value
e. The q-value

Answer: D

15. “An outcome where the probability that an effect at least as large as that observed could be
produced by a random process is less than a predetermined alpha level. This means that it is
implausible that a random process could have produced the effect.” Which construct is this a
glossary definition of?

a. Statistical significance.
b. Power.
c. Type I error.
d. Type II error .
e. Random error.

Answer: A

16. “The mistaken idea that random events are not independent. A gambler may believe that a long
run of good or bad luck has to change. The gambler’s fallacy arises from a misunderstanding of the
law of large numbers. The idea that a random process will behave in a predictable way on average
over a long run of observations can be misunderstood to imply that there is ‘a law of averages’ that
serves to change the probability of random events based on past events. However, coins, dice and
other things that generate random outcomes do not have memories.” What type of fallacy is this a
glossary definition of?

a. The significance fallacy.

b. The gambler’s fallacy.
c. The causal fallacy.
d. The operational fallacy.
e. The psychological fallacy.

Answer: B

1. Which of the following statements is true? [TY9.1

a. A negative correlation is the same as no correlation.

 b. Scatterplots are a very poor way to show correlations.
c. If the points on a scatterplot are close to a straight line there will be a positive correlation.
d. Negative correlations are of no use for predictive purposes.
e. None of the above.

Answer: E

2. If a calculation of Pearson’s r yields a value of −.96, which of the following statements is false?
[TY9.2]

a. The observed correlation between variables is negative.

b. There is a small amount of negative covariance between variables relative to random error.
c. A high score on one variable is associated with a low score on the other.
d. This correlation is useful for predictive purposes.
e. Points on a scatterplot would resemble a straight line.

Answer: B

3. As part of a psychology assignment Kate has to calculate Pearson’s r to measure the strength of
association between two variables. She finds that r = −.2 and that this is significant at her selected
alpha level of .05. What should she conclude? [TY9.3]

a. That there is a significant but small relationship between the two variables.
b. That there is a non-significant but large relationship between the variables.
c. That there is a significant and moderate relationship between the variables.
d. That the two variables are unrelated.
e. That variation in one variable is associated with most of the variation in the other.

Answer: A

4. The correlational fallacy refers to which of the following? [TY9.4]

a. The idea that a correlation can be statistically significant without being psychologically
meaningful.
b. The idea that a strong correlation between variables does not mean that one predicts the
other.
c. The idea that a correlation between variables does not mean that one variable is responsible
for variation in the other.
d. The idea that correlation does not justify prediction.
e. Both (a) and (c)

Answer: C

5. A group of researchers conducts some research in which they identify a significant positive
correlation (r = .42) between the number of children people have and their life satisfaction. Which of
the following is it inappropriate to conclude from this research? [TY9.5]
 a. That having children makes people more satisfied with their life.
b. That someone who has children is likely to be happier than someone who does not.
c. That the causes of life satisfaction are unclear.
d. That the consequences of having children are unclear.
e. That it is possible to predict someone’s life happiness partly on the basis of the number of
children they have.

Answer: A

6. Which of the following statements is true of the problem of restricted range? [TY9.6]

a. Restricted range can reduce the size of correlations.

b. Restricted range can lead to a violation of the assumption of bivariate normality.
c. Restricted range can produce regression to the mean.
d. All of the above.
e. Answers (a) and (b) only.

Answer: D

7. If an experimenter observes a correlation of −1 between two variables, which of the following

is false? [TY9.7]

a. One variable is completely predictive of the other.

b. One variable is completely responsible for variation in the other.

a. Knowledge of the value of one variable allows one to know with certainty the value of the
other.

a. A higher score on one variable is associated with a lower score on the other.
b. All the variation in one variable is associated with variation in the other.

Answer: B

8. If the correlation between people’s wealth and a measure of their psychological well-being is .40,
how much of the variation in their scores on the well-being measure will be associated with variation
in their wealth? [TY9.8]

a. 60%
b. 40%
c. 16%
d. 4%
e. It is impossible to say without information about how psychological well-being is defined.

Answer: C
9. A researcher conducts some research in which they identify a significant positive correlation
(r = .42) between the number of children a person has and their life satisfaction. Which of the
following is it inappropriate to conclude from this research?

a. That having children makes people more satisfied with their life.
b. That someone who has children is likely to be more happy than someone who doesn't.
c. That the causes of life satisfaction are unclear.
d. That the consequences of having children are unclear.
e. That it is possible to predict someone's life happiness partly on the basis of the number of
children they have.

Answer: A

10. A researcher conducts a survey with 221 participants who each complete 24 measures designed
to assess the impact of social and psychological factors (such as demands, social support and role
clarity) on stress in the workplace. As part of her analysis she investigates the correlations between
pairs of these variables. How many degrees of freedom will her analysis have?

a. 221
b. 220
c. 219
d. 24
e. 23

Answer: C

11. “A graph plotting the scores on one variable against the scores on another.” What type of graph
is this a glossary definition of?

a. A line graph
b. A bar graph
c. A scatterplot
d. An angiogram
e. A scattergram

Answer: C

12. “A relationship between two variables that can be described by a straight line. The equation for
such a line is y = a + bx, where b is the slope of the line (its gradient) and a is the y intercept (where
it cuts the vertical axis).” Which type of relationship is this a glossary definition of?

a. A straight-line relationship
b. An a + b relationship
c. A bx relationship
d. A curvilinear relationship
e. A short-term relationship
Answer: A

13. “A measure of the degree of linear association between two variables.” What is this a glossary
definition of?

a. A correlation coefficient.
b. A covariance coefficient.
c. Covariance.
d. A product-moment coefficient.
e. A linear coefficient.

Answer: A

14. “The amount of variation in one variable associated with variation in another variable (or
variables). In the bivariate case this is given by r2.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. Variance.
b. Covariance.
c. Common variance.
d. Linear correlation.
e. Estimated variance.

Answer: C

15. “A barrier to the correct interpretation of results that arises when the range of scores is limited
because they are clustered in the region of the maximum scale value.” What specific type of effect is
this a glossary definition of?

a. Restricted range effect.

b. Maximum value effect.
c. Floor effect.
d. Ceiling effect.
e. Doppler effect

Answer: D

1. Which of the following is a pooled variance estimate that constitutes the denominator of an F-
ratio? [TY10.1]

a. The between-cells mean square (MSB).

b. The mean of the sampling distribution.
c. The sum of the deviations from the grand mean.
d. The grand mean.
e. The within-cells mean square (MSW).

Answer: E
2. Which of the following statements is true? [TY10.2]

a. In one-way ANOVA the total sum of squares comprises two main sources of variance: within-
groups variance and between-groups variance. Each has the same number of degrees of
freedom.
b. In one-way ANOVA the total sum of squares comprises two main sources of variance: within-
groups variance and between-groups variance. Each has its own number of degrees of
freedom.
c. In one-way ANOVA the total sum of squares comprises three main sources of variance:
within-groups variance, between-groups variance and error variance. Each has the same
number of degrees of freedom.
d. In one-way ANOVA the total sum of squares comprises three main sources of variance:
within-groups variance, between-groups variance and information variance. Each has the
same number of degrees of freedom.
e. In one-way ANOVA the total sum of squares comprises three main sources of variance:
within-groups variance, between-groups variance and information variance. Each has its
own number of degrees of freedom.

Answer: B

3. What is the point of calculating the value of η2 in relation to particular F- and p-values? [TY10.2]

a. η2 is a hypothesis-testing measure that can tell us whether a particular F-value is significant.

b. η2 is the square of α and can tell us whether a particular p-value is significant.
c. η2 is a measure of effect size that can tell us whether a particular F-value is significant.
d. η2 is a measure of effect size that can tell us whether a particular p-value is significant.
e. η2 is a measure of effect size that can tell us how much variance a particular effect accounts
for.

Answer: E

4. A researcher, Isobel, conducts one-way analysis of variance in which she compares the final marks
of students who have studied psychology at one of five different institutions, A, B, C, D and E. The
study looks at the marks of 100 students, 20 from each institution. On the basis of a given theory,
the researcher plans to make four comparisons: between A and B, A and C, C and D, and C and E.
Three other researchers make the following observations:

X: ‘If Isobel used an experimentwise alpha level of .01, a Bonferroni adjustment would mean that
each of these tests had an alpha level of .0025.’

Y: ‘If Isobel used an experimentwise alpha level of .05, a Bonferroni adjustment would mean that
each of these tests had an alpha level of.0025.’

Z: ‘If Isobel used an experimentwise alpha level of .05, a Bonferroni adjustment would mean that
each of these tests had an alpha level of .0125.’
Who is correct? [TY10.4]

a. Only X.
b. Only Y.
c. Only Z.
d. X and Y.
e. X and Z.

Answer: E

5. An experimental psychologist conducts a study examining whether the speed with which two
shapes can be identified as similar or different depends on whether the stimuli are (a) of equal or
unequal size and (b) symmetrical or asymmetrical. The mean reaction times for the four cells of the
design are as follows: equal symmetrical (M = 132 ms), unequal symmetrical (M = 148 ms), unequal
asymmetrical (M = 142 ms), unequal asymmetrical (M = 182 ms). Which of the following is true?
[TY10.5]

a. A line graph in which these data are plotted suggests that there might only be a main effect
for size.
b. A line graph in which these data are plotted suggests that there might only be a main effect
for symmetry.
c. A line graph in which these data are plotted suggests that there might only be a main effect
for size and an interaction between size and symmetry.
d. A line graph in which these data are plotted suggests that there might only be a main effect
for symmetry and an interaction between size and symmetry.
e. A line graph in which these data are plotted suggests that there might be main effects for
size and symmetry and an interaction between size and symmetry.

Answer: E

6. Which of the following statements is false? [TY10.6]

a. One difference between ANOVA and t-tests is that ANOVA allows researchers to compare
responses of more than two groups.
b. One difference between ANOVA and t-tests is that ANOVA does not make assumptions
about homogeneity, normality and independence.
c. One difference between ANOVA and t-tests is that ANOVA can be used to examine
simultaneously the impact of more than one variable.
d. One difference between ANOVA and t-tests is that ANOVA is based on analysis of the ratios
of variances.
e. One difference between ANOVA and t-tests is that ANOVA uses two separate degrees of
freedom (one for between-cells variance, one for within-cells variance).

Answer: B
7. A researcher conducts a study examining the impact of social support on depression in which he
studies how four independent groups that each receive a different type of social support (financial,
emotional, intellectual, none) react to a stressful experience. There are 20 people in each group.
Which of the following statements is true? [TY10.7]

a. There are 4 degrees of freedom for the between-cells variance.

b. There are 78 degrees of freedom for the within-cells variance.
c. If ANOVA yielded a between-groups F-value of −2.18 this would be significant with alpha set
at .05.
d. If ANOVA yielded a between-groups F-value of 0.98 this would be significant with alpha set at
.01.
e. None of the above statements is true.

Answer: E

8. Which of the following statements about the F-distribution is false? [TY10.8]

a. The distribution is asymmetrical.

b. The distribution is one-tailed.
c. Higher values of F are associated with a higher probability value.
d. The distribution is positively skewed.
e. If the amount of between-cells variance is equal to the amount of within-subjects variance,
the value of F will be 1.00.

Answer: C

9. The SPSS ANOVA output below is from a study in which participants were randomly assigned to
one of four conditions in which they were given different instructions to encourage them to
continue. Which of the following statements is true?
 a. There is no possibility at all that the results are due to chance.
b. It would be useful to supplement the p-value with a measure of effect size.
c. With an alpha level of .01, ANOVA reveals a significant effect for Instruction.
d. As groups are randomly assigned, we need to compute a z-score in order to gauge the size
of these effects relative to chance.
e. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: B

10. The SPSS ANOVA output below is from a study in which participants were randomly assigned to
one of four conditions in which they were given different instructions to encourage them to
continue. Which of the following statements is true?
 a. ANOVA shows that there was no effect for Instruction.
b. With an alpha level of .05, ANOVA reveals a significant effect for the Instruction.
c. With an alpha level of .01, ANOVA reveals a significant effect for Instruction.
d. With an alpha level of .05, ANOVA reveals a significant effect for Intercept.
e. With an alpha level of .01, ANOVA reveals a significant effect for Intercept.

Answer: B

11. “A hypothetical model in which mean responses differ across the conditions of an experimental
design. This represents an alternative to the null hypothesis that the mean response is the same in
all conditions.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. Hypothetical model.
b. Hypothetical difference model.
c. Difference model.
d. Effects model.
e. Experimental model.

Answer: D

12. “Comparisons between every pair of cells in a given experimental design”. What is this a glossary
definition of?

a. cross-lagged comparisons
b. pared comparisons
c. pairwise comparisons
d. a priori comparisons
e. post hoc comparisons

Answer: C

13. “Effects which reflect the impact of one independent variable averaged across all levels of other
independent variables, rather than the impact of an interaction between two or more independent
variables.” What is is this a glossary definition of?

a. Main effects.
b. Average effects.
c. Significant effects.
d. Non-interaction effects.
e. Isolation effects.

Answer: A

1. A team of researchers conducts a large study looking at factors that predict poor health in the
workplace. They find that more men than women have heart attacks at work. They plan to analyse
their data using a binomial test, but are aware of the need to take into account relevant base-rate
information. Which of the following constitutes relevant base-rate information for this purpose?
[TY11.1]

a. The proportion of people in the workplace who are men.

b. The proportion of people in the workplace who have heart attacks.
c. The proportion of men in the workplace who have heart attacks.
d. The proportion of women in the workplace who have heart attacks.
e. None of the above, as base-rate information is irrelevant here.

Answer: E

2. A researcher is interested in seeing whether families who go to a particular coastal town for their
holiday are more likely to come from some towns than from others. In his research he looks at the
visitors’ books of three hotels and finds that together they have been visited by 1204 families over
the past year. Of these, 261 are from Town A, 403 are from Town B, 312 are from Town C and 228
are from Town D. Which of these towns makes the greatest contribution to χ2? [TY11.2]

a. Town A.
b. Town B.
c. Town C.
d. Town D.
e. All make an equal contribution.

Answer: B

3. The statistical odds of an event occurring are .25. Which of the following statements is true?
[TY11.3]

a. The probability of the event occurring is .25.

b. In four independent tests the expected frequency of the event is 1.
c. The probability of the event occurring is .2.
d. We cannot make a statement about probability or expected frequency, because odds are
only ever calculated by bookmakers who are trying to make a profit.
e. None of the above.

Answer: C

4. Which of the following statements is true? [TY11.4]

a. Distribution-free tests do not involve distributions.

b. Non-parametric tests do not involve distributions.
c. Non-parametric tests are very different from distribution-free tests.
d. Distribution-free tests are free of assumptions about the parameters of the distribution
from which a sample is drawn.
e. None of the above.
Answer: E

5. The Mann-Whitney test is the distribution-free analogue of which of the following tests? [TY11.5]

a. The between-subjects t-test.

b. The within-subjects t-test.
c. One-way ANOVA.
d. Two-way ANOVA.
e. Pearson’s r.

Answer: A

6. An organizational psychologist conducts a piece of research in which he tests the hypothesis that
companies that have a pension plan retain more employees than companies that do not have a
plan. To test this hypothesis he collects data from 60 companies recording (a) whether or not they
have a pension plan and (b) what percentage of their employees are still working for the company
after a year. However, on inspecting his data, the researcher finds that most companies retain a very
high proportion of their employees and that scores on this measure are therefore very highly
skewed. Which of the following tests would be most appropriate for comparing central tendencies?
[TY11.6]

a. ANOVA.
b. The χ2 test of independence.
c. The χ2 test of goodness of fit.
d. The Mann–Whitney test.
e. The between-subjects t-test.

Answer: D

7. Which of the following statements is false? [TY11.7]

a. Distribution-free tests can be useful when the assumptions of other tests are violated.
b. Distribution-free tests are useful when handling categorical data.
c. Non-parametric tests are useful when handling categorical data.
d. Non-parametric tests have very few uses.
e. Non-parametric tests and distribution-free tests both make relaxed assumptions about the
parameters of population distributions.

Answer: D

8. Which of the following is the main limitation of tests with relaxed assumptions? [TY11.8]

a. Their assumptions are generally too relaxed.

b. They are usually very difficult to conduct.
c. They can only be used effectively in applied settings.
d. They provide information about odds rather than probabilities.
 e. They generally have less power than parametric tests.

Answer: E

9. Which of the folliwing statements is true?

a. Sometimes we need to use distribution-free tests because we do not know enough about
the population from which data are drawn.
b. Sometimes we need to use distribution-free tests because we are unable to make
assumptions about the population from which data are drawn.
c. Sometimes we need to use distribution-free tests because we are unwilling to make
assumptions about the population from which data are drawn.
d. Both (a) and (b).
e. All of the above.

Answer: E

10. The sign test involves analysing what form of data?

a. Data in which one variable has two levels.

b. Data in which one variable has two or more levels.
c. Data in which two variables have two levels.
d. Data in which two variables have many levels.
e. None of the above.

Answer: D

11. “The incidence of a particular phenomenon among a population of interest. Information about
these is required in order to establish the significance of the incidence of the phenomenon within a
subset of that population (e.g. people who have been subjected to a particular treatment).” What is
this a glossary definition of?

a. Population rates
b. Backgrount rates
c. Incidence rates
d. Base rate.
e. General rate.

Answer: D

12. “Statements of the likelihood of one event occurring given that another has occurred. These are
obtained from the data in specific rows or columns of contingency tables, and are expressed in
terms of the frequency with which the event occurs in a given row or column divided by the
frequency with which it does not occur in the same row or column.” What is this a glossary definition
of?
 a. Conditional odds.
b. Betting odds.
c. Likelihood ratios.
d. Relative odds.
e. Likelihood odds.

Answer: A

13. “Statements of the likelihood of a given event occurring expressed in terms of the expected
frequency of it occurring divided by the expected frequency of it not occurring. Note that this
is not the same as the probability of the event occurring.” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. Likelihood ratio.
b. Odds ratio.
c. General probability.
d. Frequency odds.
e. Statistical odds.

Answer: E

14. “A distribution-free test that is usually used to compare the central tendency of two independent
groups. In this regard it is the distribution-free analogue of a between-subjects t-test.” Which
statistical test is this a glossary definition of?

a. Kruskal-Wallis test
b. Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test
c. Chi-square test
d. Mann-Whitney test
e. McNemar test.

Answer: D

15. “A distribution-free test that is usually used to compare the central tendency of more than two
related groups. In this regard it is the distribution-free analogue of one-way within-subjects ANOVA.”
Which statistical test is this a glossary definition of?

a. Kruskal-Wallis test
b. Wilcoxon matched-pairs signed-ranks test
c. Chi-square test
d. Mann-Whitney test
e. McNemar test.

Answer: A

1. A hermeneutic approach to qualitative research involves which of the following? [TY12.1]

 a. Use of advanced statistical principles.
b. Use of basic statistical principles similar to those that underpin distribution-free tests.
c. Attending to the meaning of particular phenomena for those who experience them.
d. A process of self-discovery in which the researcher reflects on his or her own role in the
research process.
e. Spending a lot of time in isolation, quarantined from the outside world.

Answer: C

2. Which of the following procedures would not be included in a programme of qualitative research?
[TY12.2]

a. Assessment of effect size.

b. Development of appropriate research questions.
c. Clarification of the logic linking the data to research propositions.
d. Explanation of criteria for data interpretation.
e. Identification of key propositions.

Answer: A

3. Which of the following is not achieved through repertory grid analysis? [TY12.3]

a. A formal representation of a person’s understanding of aspects of their world.

b. A representation of reality from a given person’s vantage point.
c. A structured map of an individual’s subjective reality in relation to a phenomenon of interest
to a researcher.
d. A grid that identifies perceived similarities and differences between elements that contribute
to an individual’s psychological experience of reality.
e. A factor analytic solution.

Answer: E

4. A team of researchers wants to use content analysis to examine the behaviour of people in a
crowd. Specifically, the researchers want to examine whether the number of times a person displays
anger or frustration depends on the number of other people that are in close proximity. Which of
the following statements is false? [TY12.4]

a. The researchers would want to specify their sampling domain in advance.

b. The researchers might want to use multiple coders to ensure that coding is reliable.
c. The researchers might want to assess the level of inter-rater reliability in categorizing
particular displays of emotion as anger or frustration.
d. The researchers would seek to clarify the nature of the coding categories ‘anger’ and
‘frustration’ after they have collected their data.
e. The researchers may want to perform statistical analysis on the data they obtain.

Answer: D
5. Which of the following is not required for thematic analysis? [TY12.5]

a. A data set.
b. A data item.
c. A data corpus.
d. A data management strategy.
e. Different coding categories for data extracts obtained from male and female participants.

Answer: E

6. Consider the following two reports of a soccer match (from Dey, 1993):

A: Wimbledon 0 Liverpool 0

B: ‘There was more excitement in the car park than on the pitch’ Which of the following statements
is true? [TY12.6]

a. Report A is quantitative, Report B is qualitative.

b. Both reports are qualitative.
c. Both reports are quantitative (although one measures the score and the other measures
excitement).
d. Neither report could be used in psychological research.
e. None of the above.

Answer: A

7. What is inter-rater reliability? [TY12.7]

a. A measure of the agreement between people coding a given set of qualitative data.
b. A strategy for ensuring that people who code data are honest.
c. A measure of the degree to which the personal constructs of researchers have affected their
coding.
d. A measure of the degree to which raters are reliable over time.
e. The outcome of a process in which reflexive journals are inspected to ensure that
researchers have taken account of the subjective meaning of phenomena for participants.

Answer: A

8. Which of the following statements is true? [TY12.8]

a. It is generally better for a researcher to use one method to collect and analyse data as this
avoids confusion.
b. Researchers who use different methods to examine the same issue are more likely to
misrepresent features of the phenomena they are investigating.
c. Good researchers do not have methodological preferences as they are aware that these
encourage disagreement and conflict.
 d. Qualitative methods are interesting, but they have not had much impact on psychology.
e. None of the above.

Answer: E

9. Which of the following is not usually a step in thematic analysis?

a. Data familiarization.
b. Code generation.
c. Search for themes.
d. Review of themes.
e. None of the above (i.e., all are steps in thematic analysis).

Answer: E

10. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Thematic analysis must be conducted in a top-down process, in which researchers come to

the data with a particular theory in mind, and then use that theory as a way of organizing
information contained within the data
b. Thematic analysis must be conducted in a bottom-up process where researchers come to a
topic with a relatively open mind and lets themes ‘emerge’ from the data.
c. Thematic analysis can be conducted at the same time in both a top-down process and a
bottom-up process.
d. Thematic analysis can be conducted in both a top-down process and a bottom-up process
but these processes must be kept spearate.
e. None of the above.

Answer: E

11. “The process of turning research data (e.g. recorded interviews) into an accessible written form.”
What research practice is this a glossary definition of?

a. Translation.
b. Transcription.
c. Ethnography.
d. Accessibility.
e. Reflexivity.

Answer: B

12. “Research practice that acknowledges the role that participants play in research and that seeks
to involve them in as much of the research process as possible.” Which research principle is this a
glossary definition of?

a. Experiential approach.
 b. Democratic forum.
c. User involvment.
d. Participant involvement.
e. Participant-led research.

Answer: D

13. “A way of accounting for scientific endeavour and progress that draws attention to the role
played by subjective, human factors beyond the realm of the empirical phenomena under
investigation.” Which construct is this a glossary definition of?

a. Contingent repertoire.
b. Empricist repertoire.
c. Non-empricist repertoire.
d. Subjectivist psychology.
e. Holistic psychology.

Answer: A

14. “A qualitative research tool in which participants introspectively comment on a particular topic
and their responses are coded using pre-established guidelines. The most common of these is the
‘thinking-aloud’ technique used to gain insight into participants’ cognitive processes while
performing particular tasks (e.g. playing chess or map reading).” Which construct is this a glossary
definition of?

a. Semi-structured interviewing.
b. Reflexive interviewing.
c. Open-ended interviewing.
d. Cogntive protocols.
e. Verbal protocols.

Answer: E

15. “A philosophy that suggests that features of the world exist in an objective form that makes
them amenable to measurement and definitive characterization.” What philosophical orientation is
this a glossary definition of?

a. Postivism.
b. Idealism.
c. Relativism.
d. Realism.
e. Contextualism.

Answer: D
1. Which of the following is not associated with a postmodern approach to psychological research?
[TY13.1]

a. Idealism.
b. Realism.
c. Constructivism.
d. Relativism.
e. Constructionism.

Answer: B

2. What is the role of a reflexive journal in grounded theory? [TY13.2]

a. To record data that are collected in the field, but that need to be analysed at a later stage,
once the researcher has had an opportunity to reflect on them.
b. To allow participants to record their own thoughts and feelings about the research process –
in particular, aspects of it that they are uncomfortable with and that they can discuss with
the researcher later.
c. To allow researchers to record their thoughts about the research process, so that the
rationale for their decisions is recoverable at some later stage.
d. To allow researchers and participants to reflect upon each other’s activity so that differences
in their perspective can be reconciled by a third party.
e. To record specific features of the physical environment that reflect on the research process
as a whole, but that might be omitted from quantitative analysis.

Answer: C

3. In devising an interview schedule for a study that will involve interpretative phenomenological
analysis (IPA), which of the following should one try to include? [TY13.3]

a. Double-barrelled questions.
b. Jargon.
c. Open questions.
d. Value-laden questions.
e. Offensive questions.

Answer: C

4. Which of the following activities might be carried out as part of discourse analysis? [TY13.4]

a. Transcription of a conversation between two people at a breakfast table.

b. Identification of changes in pitch when a person is speaking.
c. Interpretation of linguistic features in the context of their production.
d. Both (b) and (c).
e. All of the above.
Answer: E

5. A team of researchers investigating young people’s attitudes to marriage favours a contextualist

approach to qualitative research in which commitment to the scientific method places emphasis on
the perspective of participants and researchers and features of the research context. Which of the
following approaches is most likely to appeal to the researchers? [TY13.5]

a. Content analysis.
b. Analysis of contextual variance.
c. Grounded theory.
d. Discourse analysis.
e. Repertory grid analysis.

Answer: C

6. Which of the following qualitative methods does not require coding categories (e.g. themes and
concepts) to be defined at an appropriate level – such that they are neither too specific nor too
general? [TY13.6]

a. Thematic analysis.
b. Grounded theory.
c. IPA.
d. Discourse analysis.
e. None of the above (all incorporate this requirement).

Answer: D

7. Which of the following statements is true? [TY13.7]

a. It is generally better for a researcher to use one method to collect and analyse data as this
avoids confusion.
b. Researchers who use different methods to examine the same issue are more likely to
misrepresent features of the phenomena they are investigating.
c. Good researchers do not have methodological preferences as they are aware that these
encourage disagreement and conflict.
d. Qualitative methods are interesting, but they have not had much impact on psychology.
e. None of the above.

Answer: E

8. Which of the following is not usually a step in interpretative phenomenological analysis?

a. Definition of research question and sample.

b. Data collection and transcription.
c. Identification of themes in the first case.
d. Identification of themes in subsequent phases.
 e. Organization of themes.

Answer: D

9. What is the purpose of an interview schedule in qualitative research?

a. To ensure that questions are asked at the right time

b. To ensure that interviews do not go on for too long.
c. To specify the issues that a researcher wants to explore and the questions that he or she
wants to ask.
d. To ensure that different researchers do not ask the same question.
e. To provide an audit trail for quality assurance purposes.

Answer: C

10. According to Spears and Smith (2011) which of the following is true?

a. Experiments are ‘paradigms of discourse’ in which the production of particular results is to

some extent contingent upon participants accepting the authority of the experimenter to
talk about the experimental situation in particular ways.
b. Experiments are ‘paradigms of power’ in which the production of particular results is to
some extent contingent upon participants accepting the authority of the experimenter to
define the experimental situation in particular ways.
c. Experiments are ‘paradigms of sense-making’ in which the production of particular results is
to some extent contingent upon participants understanding the meaning that the
experimenter is trying to communicate.
d. Experiments are ‘paradigms of protest’ in which the production of particular results is to
some extent contingent upon participants trying to engage in an argument with the
experimenter about the purpose of the research and their reason for being there.
e. Experiments are ‘paradigms of conformity’ in which the production of particular results is to
some extent contingent upon participants trying to help the experimenter produce the
results that he or she wants.

Answer: B

11. “An approach to research that attempts to develop person-specific analyses of phenomena in
the particular context in which they arise. This is not oriented to the discovery of universal causal
laws (of the form ‘A always leads to B’).” What is this a glossary definition of?

a. Idiographic approach.
b. Nomothetic approach.
c. Constructivist approach.
d. Reflexive approach.
e. Phenomenological approach.
Answer: A

12. “A qualitative research practice in which understanding of a phenomenon is inductively derived

from studying that phenomenon from the perspective of those to whom it is relevant. In this way,
the researcher does not begin with a theory and then test it; instead, theory is discovered,
developed and provisionally verified as it emerges from systematic examination of data.” Which
qualitative research method is this a glossary definition of?

a. Taxonomic analysis.
b. Content analysis.
c. Grounded theory.
d. Discourse analysis.
e. Interpretative Phenomenological Analysis.

Answer: C

13. “A research method that attempts to discover the meaning of phenomena for participants, but
that also recognizes – and attempts to do justice to the fact – that this is necessarily bound up with
the meaning that those phenomena have for researchers.” What research practice is this a glossary
definition of?

a. Conversation analysis.
b. Interpretative Phenomenological Analysis (IPA).
c. Thematic analysis.
d. Linguistic analysis.
e. Discourse analysis.

Answer: B

14. “The plan for an interview that provides details of the issues that a researcher wants to explore
and the questions that the researcher wants to ask. It may also include details of prompts to be
used in the event that a question proves difficult for an interviewee to answer.” What is this a
glossary definition of?

a. Interview plan.
b. Interview schedule.
c. Interview protocol
d. Semi-structured protocol
e. None of the above

Answer: B

15. “The meaning that a given phenomenon has for the people who experience it.” What is this a
glossary definition of?

a. Hermeneutics.
 b. Double hermeneutic.
c. Triple hermeneutic.
d. Phenomenology.
e. Experiential reflexivity.

Answer: D

1. Which of the following is true about the relationship between scientific research and society?
[TY14.1]

a. Science exists outside society.

b. Ethical principles are generally imposed by governments on psychologists against their will.
c. Only scientists should decide what is ethical or not about research.
d. Decisions about research ethics are always a matter of personal choice.
e. None of the above.

Answer: E

2. Which of the following should ethical research with humans involve? [TY14.2]

a. Informed consent on the part of the participants where possible.

b. Debriefing.
c. Minimization of research risk.
d. Justification of invasive procedures.
e. All of the above.

Answer: No answer given

3. Which of the following is true about ethical research using animals? [TY14.3]

a. It must ensure that discomfort to animals is minimized and harm only occurs where
essential.
b. Ethics are not a major issue because participants are not deceived.
c. Because it is such a controversial topic, the issues it raises are only worth discussing in
relation to medical research.
d. It is not really relevant to psychology.
e. None of the above.

Answer: A

4. Imagine that you are conducting a psychological experiment that has been approved by your
institutional ethics committee and two participants object to answering some questions which they
consider to be too personal. As a result, they decide they want to cease participating in the
experiment. What are their responsibilities in this case? [TY14.4]
 a. To complete the experimental session because you would not ask personal questions unless
they were really important for science.
b. To explain to you why they wish to leave so that you can conduct debriefing.
c. The participants have no responsibilities, they can leave at any time.
d. To report you to the institutional ethics committee.
e. To discuss your experiment with other students.

Answer: C

5. Informed consent means that researchers should tell participants about which of the following
before they agree to participate in research? [TY14.5]

a. The hypotheses.
b. Anything that is likely to affect the participants’ decision to participate in the research.
c. Details of any deception.
d. The independent variable.
e. Whether the experiment involves a placebo.

Answer: B

6. Which of the following statements about Milgram’s obedience-to-authority studies is (are) true?
[TY14.6]

a. They violated the American Psychological Association’s standards at the time because they
used poor debriefing procedures.
b. They led to important developments in ethical principles in psychological research.
c. They have been criticized for putting participants at risk of harm.
d. Both (b) and (c).
e. They used inadequate follow-up procedures.

Answer: D

7. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Ethical considerations are only relevant in experimental research.

b. Ethical considerations are only relevant in survey research.
c. Ethical considerations are more relevant in experimental research than survey research.
d. Ethical considerations are more relevant in survey research than experimental research.
e. None of the above (i.e., all are false).

Answer: E

8. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Everyone today accepts that Milgram’s research was unethical.

b. Everyone today accepts that Milgram’s research was ethical.
 c. There is as less debate about the ethics of Milgram’s research today than when it was first
conducted.
d. Milgram had no regard for ethical issues.
e. None of the above (i.e., all are false)

Answer: E

9. Which of the following statements is true?

a. The goal of psychological research is often to minimize statistical uncertainty and create
methodological uncertainty.
b. The goal of psychological research is often to create statistical uncertainty and measure
methodological uncertainty.
c. The goal of psychological research is often to measure statistical uncertainty and reduce
methodological uncertainty.
d. The goal of psychological research is often to create statistical uncertainty and reduce
methodological uncertainty.
e. The goal of psychological research is often to reduce statistical uncertainty and create
methodological uncertainty.

Answer: C

10. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Statistical and methodological uncertainty are the only forms of uncertainty good
researchers need to worry about.
b. Ethical uncertainty has no place in good psychological research.
c. Research always progresses by attempting to reduce as much uncertainty as possible.
d. Scientific revolutions are often associated with the introduction of uncertainty into the
research process.
e. Uncertainty in general has no place in psychological research — it is a sign of weakness and
failure.

Answer: D

11. “The ethical principle that research participants should be told enough about a piece of research
to be able to make a decision about whether to participate in it.” Which research principle is this a
glossary definition of?

a. Informed consent.
b. Revelation management.
c. Expectation management.
d. Participant decision-making.
e. Deconcealment.

Answer: A
12. “Ensuring that in the research process individual participants cannot be identified. This often
means making sure that responses are anonymous.” What research principle is this a glossary
definition of?

a. Deception.
b. Concealment.
c. Confidentiality.
d. Subject-incognito.
e. The experimental code of silence.

Answer: C

13. “An ethical principle which guarantees the right of all human participants to cease taking part in
research at any time.” Which ethical principle is this a glossary definition of?

a. Freedom of movement.
b. Freedom of association.
c. Democratic contract.
d. Psychological contract.
e. Discontinuing participation.

Answer: E

14. “The possibility of harm to participants, usually in the form of long-term negative effects.” Which
ethical construct is this a glossary definition of?

a. Research harm.
b. Research risk.
c. Participant stress.
d. Relevance-sensitivity trade-off
e. The law of unintended consequences.

Answer: B

15. “Research procedures which lead to changes in participants.” Which construct is this a glossary
definition of?

a. Experimental design.
b. Experimental manipulation.
c. Experimental procedures.
d. Invasive procedures.
e. Invasive protocols.

Answer: D
1. Which of the following is true about the relationship between scientific research and society?
[TY14.1]

a. Science exists outside society.

b. Ethical principles are generally imposed by governments on psychologists against their will.
c. Only scientists should decide what is ethical or not about research.
d. Decisions about research ethics are always a matter of personal choice.
e. None of the above.

Answer: E

2. Which of the following should ethical research with humans involve? [TY14.2]

a. Informed consent on the part of the participants where possible.

b. Debriefing.
c. Minimization of research risk.
d. Justification of invasive procedures.
e. All of the above.

Answer: No answer given

3. Which of the following is true about ethical research using animals? [TY14.3]

a. It must ensure that discomfort to animals is minimized and harm only occurs where
essential.
b. Ethics are not a major issue because participants are not deceived.
c. Because it is such a controversial topic, the issues it raises are only worth discussing in
relation to medical research.
d. It is not really relevant to psychology.
e. None of the above.

Answer: A

4. Imagine that you are conducting a psychological experiment that has been approved by your
institutional ethics committee and two participants object to answering some questions which they
consider to be too personal. As a result, they decide they want to cease participating in the
experiment. What are their responsibilities in this case? [TY14.4]

a. To complete the experimental session because you would not ask personal questions unless
they were really important for science.
b. To explain to you why they wish to leave so that you can conduct debriefing.
c. The participants have no responsibilities, they can leave at any time.
d. To report you to the institutional ethics committee.
e. To discuss your experiment with other students.

Answer: C
5. Informed consent means that researchers should tell participants about which of the following
before they agree to participate in research? [TY14.5]

a. The hypotheses.
b. Anything that is likely to affect the participants’ decision to participate in the research.
c. Details of any deception.
d. The independent variable.
e. Whether the experiment involves a placebo.

Answer: B

6. Which of the following statements about Milgram’s obedience-to-authority studies is (are) true?
[TY14.6]

a. They violated the American Psychological Association’s standards at the time because they
used poor debriefing procedures.
b. They led to important developments in ethical principles in psychological research.
c. They have been criticized for putting participants at risk of harm.
d. Both (b) and (c).
e. They used inadequate follow-up procedures.

Answer: D

7. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Ethical considerations are only relevant in experimental research.

b. Ethical considerations are only relevant in survey research.
c. Ethical considerations are more relevant in experimental research than survey research.
d. Ethical considerations are more relevant in survey research than experimental research.
e. None of the above (i.e., all are false).

Answer: E

8. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Everyone today accepts that Milgram’s research was unethical.

b. Everyone today accepts that Milgram’s research was ethical.
c. There is as less debate about the ethics of Milgram’s research today than when it was first
conducted.
d. Milgram had no regard for ethical issues.
e. None of the above (i.e., all are false)

Answer: E

9. Which of the following statements is true?

 a. The goal of psychological research is often to minimize statistical uncertainty and create
methodological uncertainty.
b. The goal of psychological research is often to create statistical uncertainty and measure
methodological uncertainty.
c. The goal of psychological research is often to measure statistical uncertainty and reduce
methodological uncertainty.
d. The goal of psychological research is often to create statistical uncertainty and reduce
methodological uncertainty.
e. The goal of psychological research is often to reduce statistical uncertainty and create
methodological uncertainty.

Answer: C

10. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Statistical and methodological uncertainty are the only forms of uncertainty good
researchers need to worry about.
b. Ethical uncertainty has no place in good psychological research.
c. Research always progresses by attempting to reduce as much uncertainty as possible.
d. Scientific revolutions are often associated with the introduction of uncertainty into the
research process.
e. Uncertainty in general has no place in psychological research — it is a sign of weakness and
failure.

Answer: D

11. “The ethical principle that research participants should be told enough about a piece of research
to be able to make a decision about whether to participate in it.” Which research principle is this a
glossary definition of?

a. Informed consent.
b. Revelation management.
c. Expectation management.
d. Participant decision-making.
e. Deconcealment.

Answer: A

12. “Ensuring that in the research process individual participants cannot be identified. This often
means making sure that responses are anonymous.” What research principle is this a glossary
definition of?

a. Deception.
b. Concealment.
c. Confidentiality.
d. Subject-incognito.
 e. The experimental code of silence.

Answer: C

13. “An ethical principle which guarantees the right of all human participants to cease taking part in
research at any time.” Which ethical principle is this a glossary definition of?

a. Freedom of movement.
b. Freedom of association.
c. Democratic contract.
d. Psychological contract.
e. Discontinuing participation.

Answer: E

14. “The possibility of harm to participants, usually in the form of long-term negative effects.” Which
ethical construct is this a glossary definition of?

a. Research harm.
b. Research risk.
c. Participant stress.
d. Relevance-sensitivity trade-off
e. The law of unintended consequences.

Answer: B

15. “Research procedures which lead to changes in participants.” Which construct is this a glossary
definition of?

a. Experimental design.
b. Experimental manipulation.
c. Experimental procedures.
d. Invasive procedures.
e. Invasive protocols.

Answer: D