05-02-2024 Even Batch Unit-1

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05- 02- 2024 Batch : EVEN BATCH

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT- V 221
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA VERSION
Time: 3 hrs.
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800 Physics + Chemistry + Biology
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720 B1
PHYSICS 4. A screw gauge gives the following
reading when used to measure the
1. If mass [M], distance [L] and time [T]
diameter of a wire.
are fundamental quantities, then find
the dimensions of torque. Main scale reading : 0 mm
2 2 Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
1)  ML T 
Given that 1 mm on main scale
2 corresponds to 100 divisions of the
2)  MLT 
circular scale.
3)  MLT  The diameter of wire from the above

data is :
2
4)  ML T  1) 0.52 cm
2) 0.052 cm
2. Which of the following five physical
parameters have the same 3) 0.026 cm
dimensions?
4) 0.005 cm
I. Energy density
5. A Vernier callipers has 1 mm marks
II. Refractive index on the main scale. It’s 20 equal
divisions on the Vernier scale which
III. Dielectric constant match with 16 main scale divisions,
IV. Young’s modulus for the Vernier callipers, the least
count is
V. Magnetic field
1) 0.02 mm
1) I and IV
2) 0.05 mm
2) III and V
3) 0.1 mm
3) I and II
4) 0.2 mm
4) I and V
6. A body is projected vertically upwards.
3. If E= energy, G = gravitational The times corresponding to height h
constant, I = impulse and M = mass, while ascending and while descending
are t1 and t2, respectively. Then, the
GIM 2
then the dimensions of are velocity of projection will be (take g as
E2 acceleration due to gravity)
same as that of
1) time g t1 t 2 g  t1  t 2 
1) 2)
2 2
2) mass
3) length t1t 2
3) t1 t 2 4)
4) force  t1  t 2 
FT24B /TP/MOD/NEET/PCB-[221] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
7. A wire has a mass  0.3  0.003 g , radius 10. A body moving along a circular path of
radius R with velocity v, has centripetal
 0.5  0.005 mm and length  6  0.06  cm . acceleration a. If its velocity is made
The maximum percentage error in the equal to 2v, then its centripetal
measurement of its density is : acceleration is
1) 4a
1) 1 2) 2
2) 2a
3) 3 4) 4
3) a/4
8. If t he r adiu s of a sph er e is  5.3  0.1 cm . 4) a/2

Then, percentage error in its volume 11. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform
will be s p eed v u and returns to X with a
uniform speed vd. The average speed
100 for this round trip is
1) 3  6.01
5.3
2 d  u
1) 2)  u  d
d   u
1 100
2)  0.01
3 5.3 d u u  d
3) 4)
d   u 2
 3  0.1 
3)    100 12. Find the average velocity when a
 5.3 
particle complete the circle of radius
1m in 10 s.
0.1
4)  100 1) 2 ms–1 2) 3.14 ms–1
5.3
3) 6.28 ms–1 4) Zero
9. Statement-I: The dimensional formula
for relative velocity is same as that of 13. Assertion : A body is momentarily at
the change in velocity. rest at the instant, if it reverse the
direction.
Statement-II: |Relative velocity| = Reas on : A body cannot have
|change in velocity| acceleration, if its velocity is zero at a
given instant of time
1) Statement I is true, statement II is
true, statement II is correct 1) Assertion and Reason both are
explanation for statement I correct and Reason is correct
explanation of Assertion
2) Statement I is true, statement II is
2) Assertion and Reason both are
true, statement II is not correct
correct and Reason is not the correct
explanation for statement I
explanation of Assertion
3) Statement I is true, statement II is 3) Assertion is correct but Reason is
false incorrect
4) Statement I is false, statement II is 4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is

true correct
14. A particle moves in a straight line with 17. The acceleration of a moving body is
a constant acceleration. It changes its found from the
velocity from 10 ms–1 to 20 ms–1 while
1) area under velocity -time graph
passing throu gh a distance 135 m in t s.
The value of t (in second) is 2) area under displacement-time graph
1) 10 2) 1.8 3) slope of distance -time graph
3) 12 4) 9 4) slope of velocity-time graph

18. The numerical ratio of average velocity
15. The distance covered by an object (in
to the average speed is
metre) in given by s=8t3–7t2+5t, find
its speed at t= 2sec 1) less than one
1) 73 ms–1 2) equal to one

3) more than one
2) 76 ms–1
4) equal to one or less than one
3) 86 ms–1
19. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards
4) 82 ms–1 with a velocity of 40 m/s, then velocity
of the ball after two seconds is:
16. Which graph pertains to uniform
acceleration ? ( g =10 m/sec2)
1) 15 m/s
2) 20 m/s
1) 3) 25 m/s
4) 28 m/s
20. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors
is equal to the magnitude of difference
of the two vectors, the angle between
these vectors is
2)
1) 90o 2) 45o
3) 180o 4) 0o
   
21. If A  B  3 A  B , then the value of
 
A  B is
3)
1/ 2
 2
1) A  B  AB
2

1/ 2
 2 2 AB 
2)  A  B  
 3
4) 3) A + B
1/2

4) A 2  B2  3AB 
22. For an object thrown at 45 o to the 26. When forces F1, F2 and F3 are acting
horizontal, the maximum height H and on a particle of mass m such that F2
horizontal range R are related as and F 3 are mutually perpendicular,
the particle is stationary. If the force
1) R = 16H F 1 is now removed than the
acceleration of the particle is
2) R= 8H
3) R = 4H F1
1)
4) R = 2H m
23. During projectile motion, the
horizontal velocity F2 F3
2)
1) first increases, then decreases mF1
2) first decreases, then increases

F2  F3
3) always increases 3)
m
4) always constant
24. A tennis ball rolls off the top of a stair- F3
case way with a horizontal velocity 4)
m
u ms –1. If the steps are b metre width
and h meter high, the ball will hit the
27. If a r and a t represent radial and
edge of the nth step, if
tangential accelerations respectively,
the motion of a particle will be
2hu uniformly circular if
1) n 
gb 2
1) ar=0 and at = 0
2
2hu
2) n  2) ar=0 but at  0
gb 2
3) ar  0 but at = 0
2hu 2
3) n 
gb 4) ar  0 but at  0
hu 28. At the height 80 m, an aeroplane is

4) n  horizontally moved with 150 ms –1. A
gb bomb is dropped from it so as to hit a
target. At what distance from the
25. Two stones are projected with same
targest should the bomb be dropped ?
velocity v at an angle  and  90    . (Take, g =10 ms–2)
If H and H1 are the greatest heights in
the two paths, then what is the relation 1) 605.3 m
between R, H and H1 ?
2) 600 m
1) R  4 HH1 2) R  HH1
3) 80 m
3) R  HH1 4) None of these
4) 230 m
29. A gun fires N bullet per second, each 32. Two masses m1 = 5kg and m2=4.8 kg
of mass m with velocity v. The force tied to a string are hanging over a light
exerted by the bullets on the gun is frictionless pulley. What is the
acceleration of the masses, when
system is free to move ?
1) vNm
(Take, g = 9.8 ms–2)
mv
2)
N
3) mvN 2
mv 2
4) 1) 0.2 ms–2 2) 9.8 ms–2
N
3) 5 ms–2 4) 4.8 ms–2
30. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 33. A car is travelling with linear velocity
0.5kg for 0.25s starting from rest. v on a circular road of radius R. If its
What is its impulse ? speed is increasing at the rate of
a ms –2 , then the net acceleration will
1) 0.25 N-s be
v2
2) 2.5 N-s 1) a
R
3) 0.5 N-s
v2
2) a
R
4) 0.75 N-s
2
31. If the coefficient of friction of a plane

3) v 2
/ R   a2
inclined at 45 o is 0.5. Then
acceleration of a body sliding on it will
be
4) v 2
/ R2   a2
34. A projectile is projected at an angle of

9.8 15o to the horizontal with some speed
1) ms2 v. If another projectile is projected with
2 2 the same speed, then it must be
projected at an angle with the
horizontal so as to have the same
9.8 2 range.
2) ms
2
1) 12.5o
2) 75o
3) 9.8 ms–2
3) 65o
4) 4.8 ms–2 4) It is never possible
35. A body is projected at an angle of 30o 38. A smooth block is released at rest on
to be horizontal with kinetic energy E. 45o incline and then slides a distance
The kinetic energy at the top most d. The time taken to slide is n times
point is as much to slide on a rough incline,
than on a smooth incline. The
1) 3E/4 coefficient of friction is
2) E/4 1
1)  k  1 
n2
3) 0
1
2)  k  1 
4) E/2 n2
36. Density of a liquid in CGS system is 1

0.625 g/cm3. What is its magnitude is 3)  s  1 
n2
SI system ?
1) 0.625 Kg/m3 1
4) s  1 
n2
2) 0.0625 Kg/m3
39. A box of mass 2 kg is placed on the roof
of a car. The box would remain
3) 0.00625 Kg/m3
stationary until the car attains a
maximum acceleration. Coefficient of
4) 625 Kg/m3 static friction between the box and the
roof of the car is 0.2 and g = 10ms-2.
37. A goods train accelerating uniformly
on a straight railway track, approaches The maximum acceleration of the car,
an electric pole standing on the side for the box remain stationary, is
of track. Its engine passes the pole with 1) 8 ms–2 2) 6 ms–2
velocity u and the guard’s room passes
with velocity v. The middle wagon of 3) 4 ms–2 4) 2 ms–2
the train passes the pole with the 40. Match the following two columns.
velocity.
Column I Column II
uv
1) a) Electrical resistance p)  M1L3 T 3 A 2 
2
b) Electrical potential q)  ML2 T 3 A 2 
1 2 c) Specific resistance r)  ML2 T 3 A 1 

2) u  v2
2 d) Electric conductance s)  M 1L3T 3 A 2 
3) uv 1) a  q; b  s, c  r; d  p
2) a  q; b  r, c  p; d  s
 u 2  v2  3) a  p; b  q, c  s; d  r
4)  
 2  4) a  p; b  r, c  q; d  s
41. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against 44. A car starts from rest, moves with an
a wall applying a horizontal force of 5 acceleration a and then decelerates at
N on the block. If the coefficient of b for sometime to come to rest. If the
friction between the block and the wall total time taken is t, the maximum
is 0.5, the magnitude of the frictional velocity is
force acting on the block is
1) 2.5 N abt a2t
1) 2)
ab ab
2) 0.98 N
3) 4.9 N at b2t
3) 4)
4) 0.49 N ab ab
42. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a 45. A car of mass m is moving on a level

rough horizontal road with momentum
circular track of radius R. If s
P. If the coefficient of friction between
the tyres and the road be  , then the represents the static friction between
the road and tyres of the car, the
stopping distance is:
maximum speed of the car in circular
motion is
P
1)
2 mg
Rg
1) s mRg 2)
s Rg
P2
2)
2 mg
mRg
3) 4) s Rg
P s
3)
2 m 2 g
CHEMISTRY
P2 46. AZT is used to treat

4)
2 m 2 g 1) Cancer 2) AIDS
43. A circular track of radius 100m is 3) Lung diseases 4) Heart diseases
designed for an average speed 54 Km/h.
Find the angle of banking. (g=10 m/s2) 47. Which of the following statements
about a compound is incorrect?
1  3 
1) tan   1) A molecule of a compound has atoms
 20  of different elements
2) A compound cannot be separated

1  9 
2) tan   into its constituent elements by
 40  physical methods of separation
 3 3) A compound retains the physical

1
3) tan   properties of its constituent elements
 10 
4) The ratio of atoms of different
4) none of these elements in a compound is fixed
48. Which of the following is a 53. The vapour density of gas is 11.2.
heterogeneous mixture? Calculate the volume occupied by 11.2
g of gas at NTP?
1) 916 gold
1) 22.4 L
2) Iodised table salt
3) Petrol 2) 33.6 L
4) Sugar solution
3) 11.2 L
49. The mass equivalent to 1 amu is
4) 5.6 L
1) 1.66×10–24 kg
54 Which of the following concentration
2) 1.66×10–22 kg term is temperature dependent?
3) 1.66×10–27 kg
1) Molality
4) 1.66×10–27 g
2) Mole fraction
50. What is the mass percent of carbon in
carbon dioxide?
3) Molarity
1) 0.034%
4) Mass percentage
2) 27.27%
3) 3.4% 55. 6.02×10 20 molecules of urea are

present in 100ml of its solution. The
4) 28.7% concentration of the solution is
51. The number of atoms in 44g of CO2 is 1) 10–3 M

1) 6.02×1022
2) 10–1 M
2) 1.8×1023
3) 2×10–2 M
3) 3.6×1023
4) 1.8×1024 4) 10–2 M
52. The empirical formula and molecular 56. How many moles of Mg 3 (PO 4 ) 2 will
mass of a compound are CH 2O and contains 0.25 mol of oxygen atoms?
180g respectively. What will be the
molecular formula of the compound? 1) 0.02
1) C9H18O9
2) 3.125×10–2
2) CH2O
3) 1.25×10–2
3) C6H12O6
4) C2H4O2 4) 5.06 ×102

57. Match the following 60. Modern periodic table is based on the
atomic number of the elements, the
experiment which proved the atomic
L ist-I L ist-II number was
1) 52 g of He i) 13 atoms
1) Mulliken oil drop experiment
2) 52 moles of He ii) 44.8 L
2) Mosely’s work on x-ray spectra
23
3) 34 g of NH 3 iii) 313.196 × 10 atoms
3) Bragg’s work on x-ray diffraction
23
4) 52 u of He iv) 78.299 × 10 atom s
4) Discovery of x-rays by Rontgen
The correct matching is 61. Third line of Balmer series is produced

by which transition in spectrum of H-
1) 1  ii; 2  iv; 3  iii; 4  i atom
1) 5 to 2
2) 1  iii; 2  ii; 3  i; 4  iv
2) 5 to 1
3) 1  ii; 2  iii; 3  iv; 4  i 3) 4 to 2
4) 1  iv; 2  iii; 3  ii; 4  i 4) 4 to 1

62. Which of the following represents
58. Statement-I : Boron has relative
Heisenberg’s uncertainity principle
atomic mass 10.81.
Statement-II : Boron has two isotopes h

1) x V 
5
B 10 and 5 B 11 and their relative 4m
abundance is 19% and 81%.
h
1) Statement-I and Statement-II both 2) x  P 
are correct 4m
2) Staement-I and Statement-II both h

are incorrect 3) x  V 
4m
3) Statement-I is correct and
Statement-II is incorrect h
4) x  P 
2m
4) Statement-I is incorrect and
Statement-II is correct 63. Which of the following set of quantum
number is correct for the 19th electron
59. The momentum of a particle having de of chromium
Broglie wavelength of 0.1 nm is
1) 6.626  1021 kg ms 1 n  m s
1) 3 0 0 1
2) 6.626  10 22 kg ms 1 2
2) 3 2 2 1
2
3) 6.626  1023 kg ms 1 1
3) 4 0 0
2
4) 6.626  10 24 kg ms 1 4) 4 1 1 1
2
64. The number of radial nodes and 70. How much energy is required to ionise
angular nodes in 4p orbital is a hydrogen atom if the electron
respectively occupies n = 5 orbit?
1) 2, 2 2) 1, 0
1) 2.72 eV
3) 2, 1 4) 1, 2
2) 0.544 eV
65. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of
hydrogen is 0.529Ao . The radius of the 3) 0.85 eV
3rd orbit of He+ will be
4) 1.51 eV
1) 8.46Ao 2) 0.705Ao
3) 1.59Ao 4) 2.38Ao 71. Match the following
66. De broglie wavelength of particle B is

double of particle A and mass of List  I List  II
th
particle A is thrice of mass of particle 1) Energy of electron in n orbit i)  n 2
B. The ratio of velocity of particle A to 2) Wavelength of electron in n orbit ii)  1/ n 2
th
B is 3) Velocity of electron in n th orbit iii)  n

4) Radius of electron in nth orbit iv) 1/ n
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2
3) 4 : 3 4) 3 : 4
The correct matching is
67. What is the maximum possible number
of electrons in an atom that can have 1) 1  i; 2  ii; 3  iii; 4  iv
the quantum numbers n = 4 and ml =
+1 ? 2) 1  iv; 2  iii; 3  ii; 4  i
1) 4 2) 15
3) 1  i; 2  ii; 3  iv; 4  iii
3) 3 4) 6
68. Number of electron exchanges present 4) 1  ii; 2  iii; 3  iv; 4  i
in d5 configuration is :
1) 10 2) 20 72. Statement-I : Fe 2+ has 24 electrons
hence, the electronic configuraiton is
3) 5 4) 15 similar to that of Cr(24) [Ar]3d5 4s1.
69. Sta tement -I : Orbital angular
Statement-II : All the five unpaired
momentum values of 2s, 3s, 4s are zero
electrons in 3d sub shell give stability
Statement-II : 2s, 3s, 4s all have to the ion.
spherical shape.
1) Statement-I and Statement-II both
1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
are correct
2) Staement-I and Statement-II both
2) Staement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
are incorrect
3) Statement-I is correct and 3) Statement-I is correct and
Statement-II is incorrect Statement-II is incorrect
4) Statement-I is incorrect and 4) Statement-I is incorrect and

Statement-II is correct Statement-II is correct
73. The electronic configuration of 77. Let IP stand for ionisation potential.
gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is Th e IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348
kcal mol–1. The energy required for the
1) [Xe] 4f 3 5d5 6s2 following reaction is
2) [Xe] 4f7 5d2 6s1 Mg  Mg 2  2e 

3) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2
1) +178 kcal
4) [Xe] 4f8 5d6 6s2
2) +526 kcal
74. The statement that is not correct for 3) –170 kcal
periodic classification of elements is
4) –526 kcal
1) The properties of elements are
periodic function of their atomic 78. Calculate the concentration of nitric
numbers acid in moles per litre. The sample has
density, 1.41 g ml–1 and mass percent
2) Non metallic elements are less in 69%
number than metallic elements
1) 15.44 M
3) For transition elements, the 3d-
orbitals are filled with electrons after 2) 11.8 M
3p-orbitals and before 4s orbitals
3) 19 M
4) The first ionisation enthalpies of
elements generally increase with 4) 8 M
increse in atomic number as we go
along a period 79. A gaseous mixture contains O2 and N2
in the ratio 1 : 4 by weight. Then the
75. An example of amphoteric oxide is ratio of their number of molecules in
the mixture is
1) Ti2O2
1) 3 : 32
2) MgO
2) 7 : 32
3) Cl2O7
3) 1 : 4
4) Al2O3
4) 3 : 16
76. In the following, the element with the
highest ionization energy is 80. The amount of NH 3 formed by the
reaction of 2L of N2 and 2L of H2 is
1) [Ne] 3s2 3p1
1) 2L
2 3
2) [Ne] 3s 3p
2) 1L
3) [Ne] 3s2 3p2
3) 0.66 L
4) [Ne] 3s2 3p4 4) 1.33 L
81. Statemen-I : 32g of O2 and 48g of O3 86. In which of the following
have same number of atoms. arrangements, the order is not
according to the property indicated
Statement-II : Number of moles of O2 against it?
and O3 are different.
1) I < Br < F < Cl increasing electron
1) Statement-I and Statement-II both gain enthalpy
are correct
2) Li < Na < K < Rb increasing metallic
2) Staement-I and Statement-II both radius
are incorrect
3) B < C < N < O increasing first
3) Statement-I is correct and ionisation energy
Statement-II is incorrect
4) F > O > C > B - increasing
4) Statement-I is incorrect and electronegativity
Statement-II is correct
87. Identify the correct order in which the
82. The number of orbitals in a subshell is ionic radius of the following ions
equal to increases:
i) F– ii) Na+ iii) N3–

1) n2 2) 2
1) iii, i, ii
3) 2 + 1 4) n
2) i, ii, iii
83. According to Bohr theory, the angular
momentum of an electron in 5th orbit 3) ii, iii, i
is
4) ii, i, iii
25h h 88. Identify the correct order of acidic
1) 2)
  strengths of CO2, CuO, CaO and H2O
1) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2

5h 2.5 h
3) 4)
  2) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
84. The total number of electrons present 3) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2
in orbitals of sodium atom having
(m) = 0 4) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO
1) 6 2) 5 89. An element has successive ionization

energies as 940, 2080, 3090, 4140,
3) 8 4) 7 7030, 7870, 16000 and 19500 kJ/mole.
The element belongs to group number?
85. Which of the following orbital has zero
1) 14
probability of finding the electron in YZ
plane?
2) 15
1) Px 2) Py 3) 16
3) Pz 4) dyz 4) 17
90. Statement-I : The first ionization 93. Which one is correctly matched?
energy of N is more than that of O.
1)Ustilago - Mushroom
Statement-II : Oxygen after losing one
electron gets a stable electronic
2)Agaricus - Smut
configuration.
1) Statement-I and Statement-II both 3)Puccinia - Bread mould

are correct
4)Deuteromycetes - Fungi imperfecti
2) Staement-I and Statement-II both
are incorrect 94. Read the statements carefully
3) Statement-I is correct and

Statement-I : Penicillium is a
Statement-II is incorrect
unicellular fungus
Statement-II is correct Statement-II : Coprophilous means
salt loving fungus.
BOTANY
Statement-III : Albugo is a parasitic
91. Which of the following statement is fungus on Mustard plants.
incorrect about viruses?
1) Only statement I and statement II
1) Virus infecting plants, show leaf are correct
rolling and curling
2) All the above statements are
2) Bacteriophages are usually double incorrect
stranded DNA viruses
3) Only statement III is correct
3) TMV contains both RNA and DNA as
their genetic material
4) Both statement I and statement III
are correct
4) Viruses contain either RNA or DNA
95. Which is incorrect in respect of

92. Select the incorrect statement.
Kingdom fungi?
1) Nostoc and Anabaena have
heterocysts for nitrogen fixation 1) It includes Mushrooms and
Penicillium
2) Cyanobacteria often form blooms in
polluted water bodies 2) They reproduce asexually and
sexually
3) Heterotrophic bacteria are more
abundant in nature 3) Most of fungi are saprophytic in their
mode of nutrition
4) The cell wall of Mycoplasma are made
up of cellulose 4) They do not reproduce by spores
96. The fungi form fruiting bodies in which 100. Match column – I and column – II and
________ division occurs, leading to choose the right option.
formation of ______ spores after
plasmogamy and karyogamy.
Column – I Column – II
1) Mitotic, diploid
a.Phycomycetes (i) Puccinia, Ustilago
2) Reduction, haploid b.Ascomycetes (ii) Rhizopus, Mucor
3) Equational, haploid c.Deuteromycetes (iii) Colletotrichum, Alternaria

d.Basidiomycetes (iv) Claviceps,Neurospora
4) Reduction, diploid
97. Which is not a feature of Gonyaulax? 1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d (i)

1) Some causes the red tide during
2)a (i), b (iii), c (ii), d (iv)
multiplication
2) Their cell wall has stiff cellulose 3)a (iv), b (ii), c (i), d (iii)
plates on the outer surface
4) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv)
3) They release toxins
101. Which one is correct?
4) These are mostly fresh water and
non-photosynthetic 1) Viroids have a protein coat made up
of pellicle
98. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful
to humans in making curd from milk
2) Viruses are non-cellular organisms
and in production of antibiotics are the
ones categorized as 3) Viruses, viroids are classified by
1) Heterotrophic bacteria Whittaker under Kingdom Monera
2) Autotrophs 4) Viruses are autotrophs
3) Cyanobacteria 102. Strobili are found in

4) Archaebacteria
1) Equisetum
99. Find out the statements which are
correct for protists? 2) Salvinia
(i) Multicellular eukaryotes 3) Selaginella

(ii) Unicellular eukaryotes 4) 1 & 3
(iii) Unicellular prokaryotes
103. Carrageen is obtained from
(iv) Autotrophs and Heterotrophs
1) Bryophytes
1) i, ii
2) Pteridophytes
2) ii, iii, iv
3) ii, iv 3) Gymnosperms
4) iii, iv 4) Red algae

104. The chief producers in the ocean are : 108. Match the following and choose the
correct option:
1) Slime moulds
2) Diatoms Column – I Column – II
3) Protozoans (Classes) (Examples)
4) Archaebacteria
A.Psilopsida I.Selaginella
105. In which of the following, all listed
genera belong to the same class of B.Lycopsida II.Psilotum
Algae?
C.Sphenopsida III.Adiantum
1) Ulotrix, Fucus, Polysiphonia
D.Pteropsida IV.Equisetum
2) Spirogyra, Chara, Volvox
3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Spirogyra 1) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
4) Sargassum, Chlamydomonas, 2) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III

Gracilaria
106. The unique feature of bryophyte is : 3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
1) They produce spores. 4) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
2) They lack vascular tissues.

109. Flagellated, isogamates are seen in
3) They lack roots.
1) Eudorina
4) Their multicellular sporophyte is
attached to the gametophyte 2) Ulothrix
107. Match column – I with column-II
3) Volvox
Column – I Column – II
4) All of these
A.Algae I.Nostoc
110. Find out the wrong statement
B. Fungi II.Dryopteris
C.Cyanobacteria III.Cedrus 1) Phaeophyceae have Mannitol and

cellulosic cell wall
D.Pteridophyte IV.Chara
2) Lateral unequal flagella and Algin
E.Gymnosperm V.Trichoderma
in the cell wall are seen in
1) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – II; E – III phaeophyceae
2) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III 3) Rhodophyceae have chlorophyll-c and

r-phycoerythrin
3) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – III
4) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II 4) Gelidium belongs to Rhodophyceae

111. Rhodophyceae produce 115. Read the assertion and reason
carefully to mark the correct option out
1) Asexual non-motile spores
of the options given below:
2) Sexual non-motile gametes
Assertion : In Pinus coralloid roots are
3) Sexual motile gametes associated with nitrogen fixing
cyanobacteria.
4) Both (1) and (2)
112. Select the correct match with respect Reason : In Cycas mycorrhiza is
to Whittaker’s system of classification present.
1) Monera : Multicellular, producers 1) If both the assertion and the reason

and decomposers, true cellulose cell are true and the reason is a correct
wall. explanation of the assertion
2) Protista : Unicellular, eukaryotic, 2) If both the assertion and reason are

photoautotrophs only true but the reason is not a correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Fungi : Multicellular/loose tissue,
eukaryotic, chitinous cell wall 3) If the assertion is true but the
reason is false
4) Animalia : Multicellular, eukaryotic,
saprophytic with pectin in the cell wall 4) If both the assertion and reason are
false
113. During favourable condition, slime
moulds produce 116. In mosses protonema is :
1) Plasmodium 1) Diploid, filamentous, non-
2) Sex organs photosynthetic and formed by mitosis
3) Formation of fruiting body 2)Haploid, filamentous, photosynthetic

and formed from spore due to mitosis
4) Formation of spore with cell wall
3) Haploid, unicellular, photosynthetic
114. Read the assertion and reason
and formed from spore due to meiosis
of the options given below: 4)A haploid structure which bears sex
Assertion : Gymnosperms are organs
heterosporous. 117 .Gametophyte of homosporous
pteridophyte is
Reason : They produce microspores and
megaspores. 1) Small, unicellular, free living, mostly
photosynthetic, differentiated into root,
1) If both the assertion and the reason stem and leaf
are true and the reason is a correct
explanation of the assertion 2) Small, inconspicuous but
multicellular dependent mostly
2) If both the assertion and reason are photosynthetic plant body
true but the reason is not a correct 3) Small but multicellular, free living
explanation of the assertion mostly photosynthetic thalloid
3) If the assertion is true but the structure
reason is false 4) Small, diploid but multicellular free
4) If both the assertion and reason are – living mostly non – photosynthetic
false thalloid body
118. Dictyota is a member of 122. Read the following statements
regarding fungi and select the correct
1) Red algae option.
1)Reproduction can take place by

2) Brown algae vegetative means - fragmentation,
fission and budding
3) Green algae
2)Fusion of two nuclei is called
plasmogamy
4) Blue-green algae
3)Fusion of protoplasm between two
119. Plasmogamy is fusion of motile or non-motile gametes called
karyogamy
1) Two nuclei
4)Meiosis in zygote resulting in diploid
spores.
2) Two haploid cells without nuclear
fusion Section B: Answer any 10 Qns. (36-50)
123. The ………………..oxidise inorganic

3) Sperm and egg
substances like nitrates, nitrites and
ammonia and the energy released is
4) Sperm and two polar nuclei used for ATP synthesis.
120. Which statement is correct for both 1) Chemosynthetic autotrophic

blue-green algae and bacteria? bacteria
2) Photosynthetic bacteria
1) Both show anaerobic respiration only
3) Heterotrophic fungi
2) Both have chlorophyll-a
4) Methanogens
3) Both are devoid of true nucleus 124. Name the organism with gullet & cilia
causes the water laden with food to be
4) Both are heterotrophic only steered into the gullet.
1) Plasmodium
121. Which one of the following is a
characteristic features of 2) Entamoeba
Chrysophytes?
3) Paramoecium
1) They are parasitic forms which 4) Amoeba

cause diseases in animals
125. ………………. are formed by fusion of
two gametes.
2) They have a protein rich layer called
pellicle. 1) Conidia
2) Sporangia
3) They have indestructible wall layer
deposited with silica 3) Zygospores
4) All
4)They belongs to Animalia
126. Exogenous, asexual spores called 130. Which event is a pre-cursor to seed
conidia are produced by development?
1) Albugo
1) Production of motile sperms
2) Rhizopus
2) Homospory
3) Mucor
4) Penicillium 3) Formation of embryo occurs inside

female gametophyte
127. …………. showed that viruses could be
crystallised and crystals consist 4) Female gametophyte is retained
largely of proteins.
outside the sporophyte
1) In 1935,M.W. Beijerinek
131. Find out the mismatched pair from the
2) In 1971, T.O. Diener
following :
3) In 1935, W.M. Stanley
1) Prothallus - n
4) In 1898,M.W. Beijerinek
128. Fungus used in genetical experiments 2) Stem like region of moss - n

are
3) Spore mother cell of moss - 2n
1) Drosophila
2) Ustilago 4) Zygote of Liver worts - 3n
3) Puccinia 132. ‘Gemmae’ present on the gemmae cups

are
4) Neurospora
129. Read the assertion and reason 1) Asexual buds of protonema

of the options given below: 2) Asexual multicellular buds of some
bryophytes
Assertion : Bacteria are prokaryotic.
Reason : Bacteria do not possess true 3) Asexual unicellular buds of some

nucleus and membrane bound cell Gymnosperms
organelles.
4) Sexual organ of Pteridophytes
1) If both the assertion and the reason
are true and the reason is a correct
133. A Bryophyte differs from Pteridophytes
in having
2) If both the assertion and reason are
true but the reason is not a correct 1) Archegonia
2) Lack of vascular tissue
3) If the assertion is true but the
reason is false
3) Motile antherozoids
4) If both the assertion and reason are
false 4) Sexual Reproduction
134. Funaria may be differentiated from 137. Which of the following animals (adults)
Pinus by the character have a different symmetry in
comparison to the other three?
1) No fruits are produced
1) Pleurobrachia
2) No seeds are produced 2) Ophiura
3) Sepia
3) Archegonia
4) Cucumaria
4) Both (1) and (2)
138. Which one of the following is not a
135. Pteris plant is a common feature of Cnidaria and
Ctenophora?
1) Bryophyte 1) Extra and intracellular digestion
2) diploid gametophyte 2) Monoecious condition
3) Exclusively marine habitat

3) Diploid sporophyte
4) External fertilisation
4) haploid sporophyte
139. Match the following organisms with
their respective characteristics.
ZOOLOGY
136. Identify the correct set of statements Column I Column II

regarding porifera
a) Aplysia i) Flame cells
a) They are commonly known as b) Locusta ii) Comb plates
sponges.
c) Pleurobrachia iii) Radula
b) Members of phylum porifera are d) Fasciola iv) Malpighian tubules
exclusively marine.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
c) Asexual reproduction is absent in
sponges. 1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
d) Sponges have water transport 2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

system. 3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
e) In water transport system water 4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

enters through osculum.
140. Which of the following pairs of animals
has non glandular skin?
1) a and b only
1) Testudo and frog
2) a, b and d only
2) Chameleon and Krait
3) a, d and e only 3) Salamander and Pigeon
4) a and d only 4) Crocodile and Tiger

141. Roundworms differ from flatworms in 145. All the following are correct about
having Cnidarians, except
1) complete alimentary canal 1) Some cnidarians exhibit two basic

body forms called polyp and medusa.
2) closed circulatory system
2) They have a coelenteron with a
3) bilateral symmetry single opening known as hypostome
4) internal fertilisation
3) Cnidoblast cells are present on the
tentacles and the body.
142. Which of the following has mesoderm
but no coelom?
4) Cnidoblasts are used for anchorage,
defense and for the capture of prey.
1) Adamsia
146. Which of the following lacks the
2) Echinus
capacity to regulate body temperature?
3) Laccifer
1) Psittacula
4) Taenia
2) Catla
143. Read the following statements and find
out the incorrect statement 3) Ornithorhynchus
1) Dog fish has teeth that are modified 4) Balaenoptera

placoid scales
147. Identify the correct feature related to
2) In fighting fish, operculum is present phylum Aschelminths.
while in sting ray, gill cover is absent
1) All are endoparasites in plants and
3) Air bladder in saw fish regulates animals
buoyancy, while in Angel fish it is
absent 2) Often females are slightly longer
than males
4) Mouth of flying fish is terminal while
that of great white shark is ventral 3) External fertilisation and direct
development
144. In Euspongia
4) They are triploblastic and
1) digestion is extracellular and acoelomates
development is indirect.
148. In molluscans, sensory tentacles are
2) digestion is intracellular and found in
development is direct
1) Anterior head
3) digestion is intracellular and
development is indirect 2) Mantle cavity
4) digestion is both intra & 3) Visceral hump

extracellular and development is
direct. 4) Muscular foot
149. An important character that 153. Find the correctly matched organism
hemichordates share with chordates with their respiratory and locomotory
is: organs respectively
1) Scorpion - Tracheal tubes and
1) segmented body
tentacles
2) having a ventral tubular nerve cord 2) Pheretima - Moist skin and
parapodia
3) pharynx with gill slits
3) Ancylostoma - Moist skin and tube
feet
4) open circulation
4) Apple snail - Gills and muscular foot
150. Find the correct option regarding the
154. How many statements are correct
following organisms
about echinoderms?
- Taenia, Ascaris, Nereis, Periplaneta a. Spiny and segmented body
b. digestive system with lower anus
1) Except Ascaris all others show
and upper mouth
metamerism
c. External fertilization and direct
2) Except Taenia, the rest have a development
complete digestive system.
d. excretory system is absent
3) Ascaris and Nereis have 1) One only
pseudocoelom
2) Three only
4) Nereis is monoecious while others 3) All four
are dioecious
4) Two only
151. Which of the following group exhibits 155. Which of the following exhibits a
homeothermy? bilaterally symmetrical larva and
radially symmetrical adult?
1) Macropus, Platypus, Bangarus
1) Sea horse 2) Sea fan
2) Macaca, Columba, Equus 3) Sea lily 4) Sea hare
3) Elephas, Calotes, Corvus 156. Select the option that corre ctly
matches characteristic features with
4) Neophron, Chameleon, Panthera the group of three animals.
1) Water vascular system – Sea
152. Choose the correctly matched pair cucumber, Sea urchin, Sea pen
1) Bangarus - Viper 2) Excretion by flame cells - Taenia,

Fasciola, Ancylostoma
2) Calotes - Tree lizard 3) Mouth contains radula - Dentalium,
Octopus, Chiton
3) Chameleon - Chelone
4) Skeleton of spicules - Sycon,
4) Hemidactylus - Wall lizard Chaetopleura, Spongilla
157. Which of the following is not a result Assertion – Reason type questions
of cell division?
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A).
1) Growth
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is
2) Repair the not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

3) Metabolism
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
4) Reproduction
161. Assertion (A): Members of phylum
Ctenophora are also called as comb
158. The number and types of organism jellies.
present on earth is known as
Reason (R): Body of ctenophores is
delicate and have internal row of comb
1) Biodiversity
plates
2) Taxonomy 162. Assertion (A): Arthropods are

bilaterally symmetrical animals.
3) Systematics Reason (R): Body of arthropods can be
divided into identical left and right
4) Ecosystem halves in only one plane.
163. Assertion (A): All multicellular

159. Solanum melongena is the botanical organisms are animals.
name of
Reason (R): All animals exhibit the
1) Potato same pattern of organization of cells
Statement type questions

2) Sweet potato
1) Both statement - I and II are
3) Brinjal incorrect.
2) Statement-I is correct but

4) Mango statement-II is incorrect.

160. Basic unit of biologoical classification
statement-II is correct.
is
4) Both statement-I and Statement-II
1) Kingdom are correct.
164. Statement-I: The most distinctive

2) Species feature of echinoderms is the presence
of water canal system.
3) Family
Statement-II: Echinoderms exhibit
radial or bilateral symmetry depending
4) Genus on the stage.
165. Statement-I: Petromyzon and Myxine 170. (a) Notochord is persistent throughout
are the members of the subphylum life
Cyclostomata.
(b) Mouth ventral
Statement-II: Cyclostomes have a (c) Claspers in males
sucking and circular mouth with jaws.
How many organisms are given below
166. Metagenesis means possess the above characters?
1) metamorphosis of obelia larva Dogfish, Saw fish, Flying fish, Fighting

fish, Trygon, Rohu, Magur
2) form of sexual reproduction in 1) 3 2) 4
cnidarians
3) 6 4) 5
3) alternation of asexual and sexual
phase in Obelia 171. Which one of the following pairs of
animals are not similar to each other
4) form of asexual reproduction in for the features stated against them?
coelenterates
1) Aptenodytes and Platypus - Complete
167. Choose the correct one regarding Aves double circulation
2) Labeo and Pterophyllum - Cold
1) Poikilothermic to maintain constant blooded animals
body temperature
3) Salamander and Chameleon -
2) Air sacs supplement respiration External fertilisation and indirect
development
3) Exoskeleton is fully ossified
4) Icthyophis and Bangarus - Limbless
4) Skin is dry without any gland animals
168. Which among the following animals do 172. Creeping and crawling group among
not come under the same class as the following is
the other three? 1) Alligator, Icthyophis, Hippocampus
1) Fighting fish 2) Krait, Testudo, Naja
2) Sawfish 3) Vipera, Salamandra, Neophron

4) Calotes, Hyla, Pteropus
3) Flying fish
173. Identify the set containing only
4) Angel fish diploblastic animals
169. Which one of the following statements 1) Hydra, Aurelia, Ophiura,
is correct? Ancylostoma
1) Round worms are monoecious 2) Gorgonia, Antedon, Pleurobrachia,

Adamsia
2) Flat worms are pseudocoelomates
3) Pennatula, Adamsia, Aurelia,
3) Hemichordates are acoelomates Gorgonia
4) Antedon, Adamsia, Aurelia, Ophiura
4) Sea walnuts are hermaphrodites
174. Select the true statement from the 177. Which one of the following categories
following of animals, is correctly described
without any exception ?
1) Chordates have a dorsal muscular
1) All sponges are marine and have
heart with 2, 3, or 4 chambers
collar cells
2) In Tunicates, notochord is seen 2) All bony fishes have four pairs of
throughout their life gills and an operculum on each side
3) Gnathostomes include five classes 3) All reptiles have a three chambered

which bear limbs heart and are cold blooded
4) All mammals are viviparous and

4) Branchiostoma is a chordate without possess muscular diaphragm
a backbone
178. Find out the mismatched one :
175. Find the correct taxonomic category
1) Potato - Solanum tuberosum
common for both sawfish and hag fish
2) Mango - Mangifera indica
1) Class - Chondrichthyes
3) Tiger - Panthera tigris
2) Superclass - Pisces
4) Leopard - Panthera leo
3) Division - Gnathostomata 179. Which of the following is wrongly

matched pair about organisms and its
4) Subphylum - Vertebrata common reproductive mechanism:
1) Bacteria - Binary fission

176. Which of the following is a matching
pair of an animal and a specific 2) Fungi - Asexual spores
character it exhibits?
3) Yeast - Fragmentation
1) Meandrina - Calcareous ossicles
4) Hydra - Budding
2) Nereis - Parapodia 180. The internationally agreed principles

and criteria for naming of animals
3) Adamsia - Metagenesis
1) IUCN 2) ICBN
4) Taenia - Metamerism 3) ICZN 4) ICVN
TEST ID
05- 02- 2024 Batch : EVEN BATCH
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE NEET MODEL EXAMINATION - UNIT- V 221
Puliyannoor P.O., PA LA BOOKLET CODE
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800 P + C + B - Key with Hints
www.brilliantpala.org B1
PHYSICS
1. 1
2. 1
3. 1
4. 2
5. 4
6. 2
7. 4
8. 3
9. 1 Statement 2 is the explanation of statement 1
10. 1
11. 1
12. 4
13. 3
14. 4
15. 1
16. 1
17. 4
18. 4
19. 2
20. 1
21. 1
22. 3
23. 4 During projectile motion, horizontal velocity always remain constant
24. 2
25. 1
26. 1
27. 3
28. 2
29. 1
30. 2
31. 1
32. 1
33. 3
34. 2
35. 1
36. 4
37. 4
38. 1
39. 4
40. 2
41. 2
42. 4
43. 2
44. 1
45. 4
CHEMISTRY
46. 2
47. 3
48. 2
49. 3
50. 2
51. 4
52. 3
M 11.2
53. 3 V.D . = no.of moles = = 0.5 mole;  Volume  11.2 L
2 22.4
54. 3
55. 4
56. 2
57. 4
58. 1
h
59. 4 P

60. 2
61. 1
62. 1
63. 3
64. 3 Number of radial nodes = n - l - 1, Number of angular nodes = l
n2
65. 4 rn  0.529 
Z
66. 1  B  2 A
m A  3m B
h h
 ; v
mv m
1
m  2 A
VA m B B 3 A 2
  
VB m A  A mA A 3
67. 4
68. 1
69. 1
70. 2
71. 4
72. 4 Fe 2   Ar  3d 6 ; Cr   Ar  3d 5 4s1 half-filled and full filled configuration is more

stable than that other configurations. Both have different configuration.
73. 3
74. 3 3d orbital are filled with electrons after 3p and 4s orbitals but before 4p-
orbitals.
75. 4
76. 2 Half-filled orbitals and fully filled orbitals are more stable and hence they
have higher ionization energies. So [Ne] 3s 2 3p 3 has the highest ionization
energy.
77. 2 Rem oval of t wo elect r on s (on e by on e) fr om an at om r equ ir es an er gy = IP1 + IP2
= 178 + 348 = 526 kcal
 w / w%   d 10
78. 1 M
mB
69  1.41 10
=  15.4 M
63
1
No.of moles of O 2 Wt. / mol.wt. of O 2 1 28 7
  32   
79. 2 No.of moles of N 2 Wt. / mol.wt . of N 2 4 32 4 32
28
80. 4 Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous volume
81. 2 32 g O2  1 mol O2. Similarly 48g O3  1 mol O3. Both have NA number of O2
and O3 molecules but different number of O-atoms.
82. 3
83. 4
84. 4
85. 1
86. 3 Nitrogen has stable configuration. So, ionization enthalpy of nitrogen is greater
than that of oxygen. So the correct order of increasing first ionisation enthalpy
is B < C < O < N
87. 4
88. 1 CaO is basic while CO2 is most acidic of these . The increasing acidic strength
order is CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2
89. 3 As the largest jump is in between I 6 and I 7 so, the element must have 6
valence electrons it means it must be a VI A or 16th group element.
90. 1
BOTANY
91. 3 100. 1 109. 2 118. 2 127. 3
92. 4 101. 2 110. 3 119. 2 128. 4
93. 4 102. 4 111. 4 120. 3 129. 1
94. 3 103. 4 112. 3 121. 3 130. 3
95. 4 104. 2 113. 1 122. 1 131. 4
96. 2 105. 2 114. 1 123. 1 132. 2
97. 4 106. 4 115. 4 124. 3 133. 2
98. 1 107. 2 116. 2 125. 3 134. 2
99. 3 108. 1 117. 3 126. 4 135. 3
ZOOLOGY
136. 4 145. 2 154. 1 163. 4 172. 2
137. 3 146. 2 155. 3 164. 3 173. 3
138. 3 147. 2 156. 3 165. 1 174. 4
139. 2 148. 1 157. 3 166. 3 175. 4
140. 2 149. 3 158. 1 167. 2 176. 2
141. 1 150. 2 159. 3 168. 2 177. 2
142. 4 151. 2 160. 2 169. 4 178. 4
143. 3 152. 4 161. 3 170. 1 179. 3
144. 3 153. 4 162. 1 171. 3 180. 3

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3)  MLT  The diameter of wire from the above

8. If t he r adiu s of a sph er e is  5.3  0.1 cm . 4) a/2

4) Statement I is false, statement II is 4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is

1) 10 2) 1.8 3) slope of distance -time graph

3) 12 4) 9 4) slope of velocity-time graph

1) 73 ms–1 2) equal to one

2) first decreases, then increases

hu 28. At the height 80 m, an aeroplane is

31. If the coefficient of friction of a plane

34. A projectile is projected at an angle of

36. Density of a liquid in CGS system is 1

1 2 c) Specific resistance r)  ML2 T 3 A 1 

42. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a 45. A car of mass m is moving on a level

P2 46. AZT is used to treat

2) A compound cannot be separated

 3 3) A compound retains the physical

3) 3.4% 55. 6.02×10 20 molecules of urea are

51. The number of atoms in 44g of CO2 is 1) 10–3 M

4) C2H4O2 4) 5.06 ×102

The correct matching is 61. Third line of Balmer series is produced

4) 1  iv; 2  iii; 3  ii; 4  i 4) 4 to 1

Statement-II : Boron has two isotopes h

2) Staement-I and Statement-II both h

66. De broglie wavelength of particle B is

B is 3) Velocity of electron in n th orbit iii)  n

4) Statement-I is incorrect and 4) Statement-I is incorrect and

2) [Xe] 4f7 5d2 6s1 Mg  Mg 2  2e 

i) F– ii) Na+ iii) N3–

1) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2

1) 6 2) 5 89. An element has successive ionization

1) Statement-I and Statement-II both 3)Puccinia - Bread mould

3) Statement-I is correct and

95. Which is incorrect in respect of

3) Equational, haploid c.Deuteromycetes (iii) Colletotrichum, Alternaria

97. Which is not a feature of Gonyaulax? 1) a (ii), b (iv), c (iii), d (i)

2) Autotrophs 4) Viruses are autotrophs

3) Cyanobacteria 102. Strobili are found in

(i) Multicellular eukaryotes 3) Selaginella

4) iii, iv 4) Red algae

2) Diatoms Column – I Column – II

3) Protozoans (Classes) (Examples)

3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Spirogyra 1) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

4) Sargassum, Chlamydomonas, 2) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III

106. The unique feature of bryophyte is : 3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV

1) They produce spores. 4) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III

2) They lack vascular tissues.

C.Cyanobacteria III.Cedrus 1) Phaeophyceae have Mannitol and

2) A – IV; B – V; C – I; D – II; E – III 3) Rhodophyceae have chlorophyll-c and

4) A – IV; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – II 4) Gelidium belongs to Rhodophyceae

1) Monera : Multicellular, producers 1) If both the assertion and the reason

2) Protista : Unicellular, eukaryotic, 2) If both the assertion and reason are

3) Formation of fruiting body 2)Haploid, filamentous, photosynthetic

1)Reproduction can take place by

123. The ………………..oxidise inorganic

120. Which statement is correct for both 1) Chemosynthetic autotrophic

1) They are parasitic forms which 4) Amoeba

4) Penicillium 3) Formation of embryo occurs inside

128. Fungus used in genetical experiments 2) Stem like region of moss - n