M06.

1 (a) Characteristics, properties and identification of common alloy steels

used in aircraft

(1) A ferrous metal contains:

(A) Iron
(B) Aluminium
(C) Magnesium

(2) With respect to ferrous metals which of the following is true?

(A) Iron is not any element of ferrous metals.
(B) Iron is a main element and most ferrous metal are magnetic.
(C) Iron is a main element and ferrous metals are not magnetic.

(3) Relative density of steel is

(A) 3.8
(B) 7.9
(C) 14.0

(4) Chromium added to plain carbon steel:

(A) Turns it into a non-ferrous alloy
(B) Make the metal softer
(C) Increase its resistance to corrosion

(5) __________ is used in the production of permanent magnets

(A) Molybdenum
(B) Tungsten
(C) Cobalt

(6) A steel alloy with standard SAE 2545, shows that the steel used contains _____
of carbon.
(A) 0.45%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 45%

(7) A steel alloy with standard SAE 2545, shows that the steel used contains _____
of the nickel
(A) 0.05%
(B) 0.5%
(C) 5.0%

(8) SAE 3330 is a steel containing basic alloying element of

(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
 (C) Nickel + Chromium

(9) Which of the following is correct about the abbreviation of SAE?

(A) Society of aerospace engineer
(B) Society of American engineer
(C) Society of Automotive engineer

(10) The ease with which a material can be forged, rolled and extruded without
fracture is an indication of
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Brittleness

M06.1 (b) Testing of ferrous materials for hardness, …

1. What type of a test involves rotating material until it breaks?

(A). Fatigue Testing
(B). Hardness Testing
(C). Tensile Testing

2. In the tensile strength test

(A). The material is pulled to limit of elasticity
(B). The material is pulled to until it breaks
(C). The material is pulled until it reaches its UTS

3. The Charpy test measures.

(A). strain.
(B). impact energy.
(C). Young's modulus.

4. What is a Rockwell tester used for?.

(A). Hardness Testing.
(B). Tensile Testing.
(C). Fatigue Testing

5. What type of test involves using a weighted pendulum to strike a material until
fracture?.
(A). Hardness Test.
(B). Impact Resistance Test.
(C). Fatigue Testing.

M06.2. (a) Characteristics, properties and identification of common non-ferrous

1. If caustic soda turns a material black what is it?.

(A) Aluminium alloy
(B) Alclad
(C) Aluminium.
 2. Pure copper can be found in
(A) Aircraft structures
(B) Electrical equipment
(C) Engine

3. Pure aluminium is know for its

(A)Tensile strength
(B) Corrosion resistance
(C)Heat resistance

4. Magnesium can be protected from corrosion by

(A) Cladding
(B) Chromating
(C) Natural Ageing

5. Magnesium alloys is used in manufacturing of

(A) Firewall heat shields
(B) Tubing, pipe fittings and bearing bushes
(C) Wheels, crankcases and valve body

6. Which of the following statement about titanium is true?

(A) It has high thermal conductivity and is about half the weight of aluminium
(B) It is highly corrosion resistant and when fire should occur dry sand should
be used
(C) It is about half the weight of stainless steel and has low thermal
conductivity.

7. Monel metal consists of approximately

(A) 66% chromium and 33% copper
(B) 66%nickel and 33% copper
(C) 66% copper and 33% nickel

8. Why are aluminium alloys used on aircraft, instead of pure aluminium?

(A) Stronger
(B) Corrosion to resistant
(C) Lighter

9. When two or more metallic materials are fused together, the combination is
known as.
A) a composite material.
B) a thermosetting compound.
C) an alloy.
M06.2. (b) Testing of non-ferrous materials for hardness…

Q1. In the Brinell Hardness test, you would measure the indentation’s
(a) Depth
(b) Area
(c) Diameter

Q2. During a ________ Hardness test, the depth of the indent is measured
for hardness dimension.
(a) Rockwell
(b) Brinell
(c) Vickers

Q3. During a ________ Hardness test, the diameter of the indent is

measured for hardness dimension.
(a) Rockwell
(b) Brinell
(c) Izod testing

Q4. Which of the following are all hardness testing machines?

(a) Rockwell, Brinell and Izod
(b) 1 Rockwell, Vickers and Izod
(c) Rockwell, Brinell and Vickers

Q5. Ductility means the ability of the material to:

(a) Return to its original shape after normal stretching
(b) Be bent without cracking
(c) Be drawn into thinner section without breaking

M06.3.1 (a) characteristics, properties and identification of common composite…

Q1. Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fibre
(Kevlar) composites?
(a) High tensile strength and flexibility
(b) Flexibility, stiffness and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium
(c) High tensile strength, stiffness and ability to coduct electricity

Q2. Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite

fibre composites?
(a) Flexibility, High compressive strength and ability to coduct electricity
(b) Flexibility and High compressive strength
 (c) Stiffness, high compressive strength and corrosive effect in contact with
aluminium
Q3. Which of the following statements is true about thermosetting plastics?
(a) They are also known as Teflon
(b) Once moulded into shape they become set and cannot subsequently
be softened by reheating
(c) They become plastic when heat is applied

Q4. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on

modern aircraft because this type of construction
(a) May be repaired by gluing replacement skin to the inner core material
with thermoplastic resin
(b) Is lighter than single sheet skin of the same strength and is more
corrosion resistant
(c) Has a high strength to weight ratio

Q5. A thermoplastic can be

(a) Heated and formed only once
(b) Is not affected by even low temperatures
(c) Can be reheated and reformed more than once

Q6. Which of the following is susceptible to the ingress of moisture?

(a) Glass fibre
(b) Carbon fibre
(c) Kevlar

Q7. In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer extend
beyond the layer below it?
(a) 1 – 2 inches
(b) 3 – 4 inches
(c) 2 – 3 inches

Q8. When mixing resin it Is dangerous to add

(a) Accelerator and catalyst before resin
(b) Catalyst and resin before the accelerator
(c) Resin and accelerator before catalyst

Q9. Thermosetting adhesive, during their curing cycle give off.

(a) Static radiation
(b) Heat
(c) Carbon monoxide
Q10. Over extended honeycomb can bend in which direction?
(a) In all directions
(b) Across the ribbon
(c) Along the ribbon

Q11. A composite flap panel has structural damage. What NDT method will
you use to detect?
(a) Coin tap test
(b) High voltage x-ray
(c) Low voltage x-ray

Q12. The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft

structures is
(a) S-glass
(b) E-glass
(c) G-glass

Q13. Polyester resin and glass fibre cloth, becomes

(a) GRP
(b) PTFC
(c) PVC

Q14. Which of the following could best be manufactured from Perspex panel?
(a) A radome
(b) A cockpit windscreen
(c) A passenger window

Q15. What is the largest hole in honeycomb repairable with microballoons?

(a) 2.54 inches
(b) 2.54 mm
(c) 2.54 cm

Q16. When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method,
a dull thud may indicate.
(a) An area of too much matrix between the fibres
(b) Less than full strength curing of the matrix
(c) Separation of the laminates
 Q17. Which of the following are advantages of using microballoons in repairs
to laminate honeycomb sandwich panels?
(a) Greater concentrations of resin in edges and corners, improved
strength to weight ratio, less density, lower stress concentrations
(b) Less density, lower stress concentration
(c) Improved strength to weight ratio, less density lower stress

Q18. Fibreglass laminate damage that extends completely through one

facing and into the core
(a) Can be repaired by using a typical facing patch
(b) Requires replacement of the damaged core and facing
(c) Cannot be repaired

M06.3.2 Wooden structures

Q1. With what would you check the bonded joints if a wooden aircraft
structure?
(a) Feeler gauge
(b) Plastic strup
(c) Screwdriver

Q2. How is the moisture content within the wood of a wood aircraft structure
determined?
(a) By inserting the probe of a moisture meter
(b) By measuring the size of the water stains at joints
(c) By weighing the wood structure before and after drying it

Q3. The greatest amount of shrinkage in wood is in which direction?

(a) Tangential
(b) Radial
(c) The shrinkage is equal in tangential and radial directions

Q4. Wood with checks, shakes or splits

(a) Can be used providing the damage is repaired by gluing and clamping
(b) Can be used for certain secondary structure
(c) Must be rejected

Q5. The maximum size damage to plywood skin that may be repaired with a
 fabric patch is.
(a) 3.0 inch diameter
(b) 0.5 inch diameter
(c) 1.0 inch diameter

Q6. The greatest amount of shrinkage in wood is in which direction?

(a) Tangential
(b) Radial
(c) The shrinkage is equal in tangential and radial directions

M06.3.3 Fabric covering

Q1. Fabric to be hand sewn must be doubled under at the edge to a
minimum distance of
(a) ½ inch
(b) ¼ inch
(c) 3/8 inch

Q2. How are cut in fabric for inspection panels, spar fittings, drain grommets
etc
(a) After doping
(b) Before doping
(c) Before attaching the fabric to the structure

Q3. Aluminium-pigment in dope is used primarily to

(a) Exclude sunlight from the fabric
(b) Provide a silver colour
(c) Aid in sealing out moisture from the fabric

Q4. When a full inspection for corosion is to be carried out on a wooden

aircraft you would
(a) Remove all the fabric/cloth prior to inspection
(b) Bring the aircraft into the hangar for 2 to 3 days prior to the inspection
(c) Jack and trestle the aircraft to the rigging position

Q5. Where the edge of a new fabric section will be located within 1 inch of a
structural member to which the fabric is attached by rib lacing or other
methods, the new fabric section should
(a) Be extended 3 inches past the structural member
(b) Be extended to meet the structural member
(c) Be designated a major repair.
 Q6. A retarder is added to aircraft dope to.
(a) To extend the shelf life.
(b) Produce a smoother finish.
(c) To retard the application time

M06.4 (a) Chemical fundamentals

Q1. From the following list of metals, which is most cathodic?

(a) Stainless steel
(b) Steel
(c) Nickel

Q2. Intergrannular corrosion is caused by

(a) Improper assembled componenets
(b) Improper heat treatment
(c) Dissimilat metal contact

Q3. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal by

(a) Electrochemical action
(b) Hydroelectric action
(c) Electromechanical action

Q4. When dissimilar metals are brought together, one metal form the anode
and the other the cathode. Which will suffer from corrosion
(a) Both will corrode equally
(b) The cathode
(c) The anode

Q5. During construction, sharp internal corners and inaccessible places

should be avoided to reduce
(a) Filiform corrosion
(b) Fretting corrosion
(c) Crevice corrosion

Q6. Electrochemical reaction is caused by the contact of

(a) Bonding
(b) Moisture on the surface of the metal
(c) Dissimilar metals
Q7. In galvanic series, the most noble metal will, if joined to another metal
(a) Always be at the top of the table
(b) Corrode before the less noble metal
(c) Allow the less noble metal to corrode first

Q8. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed to
(a) Cold climates
(b) High temperatures
(c) Dry climates

Q9. What are the signs of fretting corrosion?

(a) Black powder or cocoa staining
(b) Intergrannular cracking
(c) Flaking

Q10. What type of corrosion attack grain boundaries of aluminium alloys

which are improperly heated?
(a) Stress corrosion
(b) Intergranular corrosion
(c) Fretting corrosion

Q11. A type of protection which is applicable to magnesium alloys is the

(a) Phosphate process
(b) Chromating process
(c) Cosletting process

Q12. Intercrystalline corrosion

(a) Is detectable by non destructive test
(b) Is the same as exfoliation corrosion
(c) Always appears as small surface cracks

Q13. Fretting occurs with

(a) Water trapped between moving parts
(b) Vibration in bolted parts
(c) Improper heat treatment

Q14. The artificial production of a film oxide on the surface of aluminium alloy
or any of its alloy is commonly
(a) Anodizing
(b) Parco lubrizing
(c) Alodizing
Q15. Corrosion on brasses or bronzes can be recognized by
(a) Blue/green deposit
(b) White deposit
(c) Grey deposit

Q16. Corrosion on cadmium can be recognized by

(a) Blue/green deposit
(b) White deposit
(c) Grey deposit

Q17. When dissimilar metals are brought together, Steel and the other metal is
Copper. Which will suffer from corrosion
(a) Both will corrode equally
(b) Steel
(c) Copper

Q18. Which type of corrosion does not occur on magnesium alloy

(a) Filiform corrosion
(b) Exfoliation corrosion
(c) Intergranular corrosion

Q19. Exfoliation corrosion is also known as

(a) Layer corrosion
(b) Filiform corrosion
(c) Sub – surface corrosion

Q20. When different metals are brought together, or the same metal in
different states, one metals forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which
will suffer from the corrosion?
(a) Anode
(b) Cathode
(c) Both will corrode equally

Q21. Electrochemical reaction is caused by the contact of

(a) Bonding
(b) Moisture on the surface of the metal
(c) Dissimilar metals

Q22. A type of protection which is applicable to magnesium alloys Is the

(a) Phosphate process
(b) Chromating process
 (c) Cosletting process

Q23. Black streaks back from a rivet hole signify

(a) Galvanic corrosion
(b) Intergrannular corrosion
(c) Fretting

Q24. Lead acid battery fluid has been found to be leaking on the surface of
the aircraft structure. What substance would you use to neutralize the acid?
(a) Sulphur and Lime
(b) Hot distilled water
(c) Sodium bicarbonate of soda

Q25. When examining a piece of metal through a magnifying glass, hair line
cracks would indicate.
(a) Crevice corrosion
(b) Intergrannular corrosion
(c) Surface corrosion

Q26. When dissimilar metals are brought together, one metal form the anode
and the other the cathode. Which will suffer from corrosion
(a) Both will corrode equally
(b) The cathode
(c) The anode

Q27. The main caused for galvanic corrosion is

(a) Incorrect heat treatments or incorrect alloying
(b) The joining of 2 dissimilar metals
(c) Cyclic stressing and a decrease in cross sectional area

Q28. During construction, sharp internal corners and inaccessible places

should be avoided to reduce
(a) Filiform corrosion
(b) Fretting corrosion
(c) Crevice corrosion

M06.5.1 Screw threads

Q1. Crest is define as the surface of the thread corresponding to the:

(a) Major diameter of the screw
 (b) Major diameter of the nut
(c) Minor diameter of the nut

Q2. A metric screw thread angle is

(a) 7° (b) 57° (c) 60°

Q3. Classes fit of 1A, 2A, 3A apply and as an indication for the:
(b) Male Thread
(c) Female Thread
(d) Both

Q4. Pitch of a screw thread is defined as

(a) Distance from the centre of one crest to the next
(b) Difference between major diameter and minor diameter
(c) Distance between the crest and the root of the thread

Q5. Which thread type has a 55° angle?

(a) Whitworth
(b) Metric
(c) UNF

Q6. Multi-start threads will increase:

(a) Lead and pitch
(b) Lead without increasing the pitch
(c) Pitch without increasing the lead

Q7. A bolt part number AN25C15 when compared to a bolt part number
AN25-15 has
(a) A less expensive design and product cost
(b) A higher resistance to corrosion
(a) A higher pitch thread

Q8. Pitch is measured from:

(a) Crest to crest position
(b) Crest to root position
(c) Over a specific length of engagement
M06.5.2 Bolts, stus and screws
Q1. Which of the following thread designation is most fatigue resistant?
(a) UNF
(b) UNC
(c) UNJF

Q2. A bolt part number AN25C15 when compared to a bolt part number
AN25–15 has
(a) A less expensive design and product costs
(b) A higher resistance to corrosion
(c) A higher pitch thread

Q3. What is the nominal screw length?

(a) The overall length of a countersunk screw and the non-threaded portion
of a bolt
(b) The overall length of a bolt (from under the head) and the overall length
of a screw (Including the head)
(c) The length of the thread for a bolt , overall length for a countersunk
screw

Q4. A (British) 3/8 inch diameter UNF bolt will have the diameter code
letter
(a) N
(b) G
(c) J

Q5. A (British) 5/16 inch dia. UNF bolt will have the diameter code letter.

(a) N
(b) G
(c) J

Q6. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a

(a) Class 1 fit for the threads
(b) Class 2 fit for the threads
(c) Class 3 fit for the threads

Q7. What is the nominal screw length?

(a) The overall length of a countersunk screw and the non-threaded portion
of a bolt
(b) The overall length of a bolt (from under the head) and the overall length
of a screw (including the head)
(c) The length of thread for a bolt, overall length for a countersunk screw
 Q8. For an American bolt, the code on the AN 24 – 15, the length of the bolt
is quoted to be in the increment of
(a) Eighth
(b) Tenth
(c) Sixteenth

Q9. A bolt with a single dash on the head is classified as an

(a) NAS standard aircraft bolt
(b) AN corrosion resistant steel bolt
(c) NAS close tolerance bolt

M06.5.3 Locking devices

Q1. Wire locking approach angles should not be less than

(a) 45°
(b) 90°
(c) 10°

Q2. When a spring washer is used on steel components, it is used:

(a) With a plain washer
(b) Without a plain washer
(c) With a tab locker

Q3. The maximum length for the wire should be left untwisted is:
(a) 12 mm
(b) 3/8 in
(c) 0.015 m

Q4. A spring washer may

(a) Be used a second time provided it is fitted the reverse way round
(b) Be used more than once provided it continues to provide an efficient
lock
(c) Not be used more than once

M06.5.4 Aircraft rivets

Q1. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of

(a) 1/16 inch
 (b) 1/8 inch
(c) 1/4 inch

Q2. What would be the diameter and length of a solid rivet if the following
markings are given, AS 162 – 408?
(a) ¼ inch diameter, ½ inch length
(b) ½ inch diameter, ½ inch length
(c) 1/8 inch diameter, ½ inch length

M06.6 (a) Identification of, ande types of rigid and flexible pipes and their…
M06.6 (b) Standard unions for aircraft hydraulic, fuel, oil, pneumatic…

Q1. The continuous coloured line on a hose assembly

(a) Identify hose material
(b) Will assist in detection of any twist in an installed hose
(c) Identifies fluid compatibility of hose

Q2. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose compared to a 3/8 inch
metal tubing used in the same system will
(a) Have equivalent flow characteristics
(b) Have about the same OD
(c) Usually have interchangeable applications

Q3. What is the colour of an AN steel flared-tube fitting?

(a) Black
(b) Red
(c) Blue

Q4. A butyl rubber seal is made from

(a) Silicon rubber
(b) Synthetic rubber
(c) Latex natural rubber

M06.7 Springs

Q1. Steel music wire is

(a) Used for lower strength springs
(b) Made of high carbon or nickel alloy
(c) Used for high strength springs and as progressive-rate springs

Q2. A spring should be inspected for correct

(a) Length, strength and squareness
(b) Width, strength and squareness
(c) Width, length and strength
M06.8 Bearings

Q1. Loads on tapered roller bearings are

(a) Thrust only
(b) Radial only
(c) Radial and Thrust

Q2. Taper roller bearings are used for which of the following purposes?.
(a) To transmit radial loads whilst resisting axial movement.
(b) To transmit thrust loads with radial loads.
(c) To permit axial movement whilst resisting radial load

Q3. A watermark on a bearing indicates

(a) bearing running dry
(b) intergranular corrosion
(c) lack of lubrication

M06.9 Transmissions

Q1. How is a non-reversible chain different from a normal chain?.

(a) By use of a chain guard.

(b) Every second outer plate is extended in one direction.
(c) Different end fittings.

Q2. A worm drive creates.

(a) A drive in 2 planes and transmits both directions.
(b) A drive in 1 plane but transmits both directions.
(c) A drive in 2 planes but transmits 1 direction only

Q3. Where are needle roller bearings used?

(a) High speed operations
(b) Where is fluid damped bearing used
(c) Where there are space restrictions

Q4. If a chain is removed for routine maintenance.

(a) It must be proof checked to full load.
(b) It must be proof checked to ½ max load.
(c) It does not have to be proof checked.
M06.10 Control Cables

Q1. 6 * 14 cable is
(a) 6 strands of 14 wires
(b) 6 cables having 14 turns per inch.
(c) Cable size 14/6 inch diameter

Q2. The changes in direction of a control cable are accomplished by using

(a) Bellcranks
(b) Fairleads
(c) Pulleys

Q3. The smallest size cable that may be used in aircraft primary control
systems is
(a) 5/16 inch
(b) 1/4 inch
(c) 1/8 inch

Q4. Aircraft flying control cables are normally classified by the

(a) Circumference of the cable and overall length.
(b) Number of strands it contains and the number of wires in each strand.
(c) Minimum breaking load or the diameter in inches.

Q5. Tension regulators on aeroplanes with fully metal bodies are used to
(a) Set up the necessary tension
(b) Maintain the necessary tension
(c) Relax the tension in cold conditions

M06.11 Electrical Cables and Connectors

Q1. Cable current ratings are based on a conductor temperature rise of 40

°C and if the maximum design ambient temperature is continuously exceeded
they should be
(d) Multiplied by the 'K' factor
(e) Divide by the 'K' factor
(f) Halved.

Q2. A fire resistant cable must maintain enough insulation in a fire for
(a) 10 minutes
(b) 5 minutes
(c) 30 minutes.

Q3. The colour coded on the crimping terminals indicates

(a) The type of crimping tool to be used only
(b) The wire size to be used with that crimp only
(c) Both (a) & (b)

Q4. A fireproof electrical cable needs to be able to withstand 1100 °C for

how long?
 (a) 20 mins
(b) 10 mins.
(c) 15 mins

Q5. A co-axial cable is being use rather than a normal cable because
(a) There is an electrostatic field around it which helps to reduce the
electromagnetic field
(b) It can carry more signal
(c) It has low resistance