FORENSIC CHEMISTRY

1. Seminal stain under the ultraviolet light exhibits

a. purple fluorescence c. yellow fluorescence
b. blue fluorescence d. pink fluorescence

2. Examination of semen and seminal stains is an important part in routine investigation of

cases as
a. rape c. shooting
b. extortion d. all of the above

3. The visible result of phenolphthalein test for blood is

a. orange c. deep blue
b. pink d. red

4. Nitrites with diphenylamine reagent is

a. blue c. blue green
b. blue black d. yellow green

5. What is a science that deals with the study and application of chemical principles in the
solution of problems relating to crime providing scientific evidences in connection with the
administration of justice?
a. Forensic Medicine c. Forensic Science
b. Chemistry d. Forensic Chemistry

6. Which is the means sanctioned by law in ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth
respecting a matter of fact wherein scientific knowledge is necessary?
a. Real Evidence c. Scientific Evidence
b. Evidence d. Admissible Evidence

7. Semen is unquestionably identified under the microscope by the presence of

a. spermatozoa c. nucleus
b. plasma d. spermine

8. In cases of clothing suspected to contain blood, it must be thoroughly dried by

a. using electric fan c. heat
b. sunlight d. drying at room temperature

9. The enzyme present in semen is

a. phosphatase c. lecithinase
b. peroxidase d. hydrogenase

10. Which of the following is an appendage of the skin found all over the body except on the
palms of the hand and soles of the feet?
a. Semen c. Hair
b. Friction Skin d. Sweat Pores

11. Condition wherein males have less spermatozoa at all in their seminal fluid
a. oligospermia c. hernia
b. aspermia d. anemia

12. Which is NOT a test for blood?

a. Benzidine test c. Precipitin test
b. Takayama test d. Walker’s test

13. This has a characteristic alkaline odor, viscid, gelatinous and sticky
a. Choline c. semen
b. lecithin d. spermatozoa

14. This test determines whether blood is of human origin or not

a. precipitin c. microscopic
b. benzidine d. luminal

15. Which of the following is the distinctive mark or design placed in the paper at the time of
its manufacture by a roll usually covered with wire cloth which is known as a dandy roll?
a. Water Mark c. Latent Mark
b. Wire Mark d. Patent Mark

16. Which of the following is the circulating tissue of the body?

a. erythrocytes c. blood
 b. leukocytes d. hemoglobin

17. Which of the following is the supercooled liquid which possesses high viscosity and
hence, rigidity?
a. Moulage c. Water Mark
b. Glass d. Semen

18. Which of the following is the faithful reproduction of an impression made on a soft surface
by the application of a casting material?
a. Moulage c. Water Mark
b. Glass d. Semen

19. Which refers to the process employed in the restoration of serial number?
a. Spectrograph c. Chronograph
b. Chemical Etching d. Risograph

20. What is the light dispersing instrument capable of determining the chemical composition
of a material?
a. X-Ray machine c. Chronograph
b. Spectrogram d. Microscope

21. It is any substance that may cause explosion by its sudden decomposition and
combustion –
a. cell c. explosive
b. fire d. dynamite

22. What is the mixture of dye or colored substance dispersed in a fluid?

a. Water Mark c. Ink
b. Pen d. Lead

23. A black coarsely peppered pattern of gunpowder residue

a. burning c. tattooing
b. smudging d. singeing

24. What is that which results from the practically instantaneous decomposition or
combustion of unstable compounds usually followed by explosion?
a. Combustion c. Detonation
b. Chemical Reaction d. Friction

25. Chemistry that belongs to the courts of law

a. Organic Chemistry c. Inorganic Chemistry
b. Forensic Chemistry d. Applied Chemistry

26. Which of the following is a preliminary test for blood?

a. Takayama c. Kastle-Meyer
b. precipitin d. Haemochromogen crystal

27. Which of the following is that branch of science which treats of the form and quantity of
medicine to be administered within a period of time?
a. Chemistry c. Odontology
b. Serology d. Posology

28. Which of the following pertains to materials composed of knotted or woven yarns capable
of being scientifically examined as to color, composition and constructions
a. Hair c. Glass
b. Fiber d. DNA

29. Which of the following is a condition where males are unable to produce or ejaculate
semen?
a. Aspermia c. Oligoslalia
b. Oligospermia d. Aspermia

30. This is an individual or part of a material taken as example of class or whole in question
for purposes of investigation or scientific study –
a. Scientific Evidence c. Specimen
b. Forensic Evidence d. Experimental Evidence

31. A condition where semen has few or less sperm cells or counts –
a. Aspermia c. Oligoslalia
b. Oligospermia d. Aspermia
32. A condition of a person who has an abnormal deficiency of saliva –
a. Oligoslalia c. Oligotrichia
b. Oliguria d. Oligospermia

33. Article or material found in connection with an investigation

a. Physical evidence c. experimental evidence
b. Hearsay evidence d. testimonial evidence

34. A condition of a person who has a deficiency in the growth hair especially when
congenital –
a. Oligoslalia c. Oligotrichia
b. Oliguria d. Oligospermia

35. A person who has a reduced excretion of urine suffers from what condition?
a. Oligoslalia c. Oligotrichia
b. Oliguria d. Oligospermia

36. What is the total number of spermatozoa in a single ejaculation from a healthy young
man?
a. 100 – 200 million c. 300 – 400 million
b. 200 – 300 million d. 400 – 500 million

37. What is the blood content of a man of average size?

a. 5 quartz c. 7 quartz
b. 6 quartz d. 8 quartz

38. Red cells or erythrocytes and white cells or leukocytes or also known as blood platelets
are both what?
a. Enzymes c. Plasmas
b. Proteins d. Formed Elements

39. An intimate mixture of Carbon, Sulfur,Postassium or Sodium Nitrate

a. Black powder c. Red powder
b. Smokeless powder d. Yellow powder

40. Guaiacum test is also known as

a. Leucomalachite test c. Luminol test
b. Van Deen test d. Benzidine test

41. There are six (6) main divisions of Criminalistics. Which of the following includes alcohol
analysis, toxicology, narcotic testing, firearm discharge residues, identification of pain
chips, chemical development of latent fingerprints?
a. Biology c. Serology
b. Physics d. Forensic Science

42. Which of the following is a main division in Criminalistics which deals with firearm
identification, toolmark comparison, scientific photography, study of traffic accidents to
find out the speed and direction of vehicles involved and the use of x-rays?
a. Biology c. Serology
b. Physics d. Forensic Science

43. Which of the following is a gunpowder that is either single base – composed of
nitrocellulose (cellulose nitrate) or double base – composed of nitrocellulose and
nitroglycerine (glycerol nitrate)?
a. Black Powder c. Smokeless Powder
b. White Powder d. Baby Powder

44. In GSR, all characteristic patterns of burning, smudging singeing and tattooing indicates
approximate distance of
a. 8 inches c. 36 inches
b. 0-2 inches d. beyond 36 inches

45. Which is the type of explosion which is caused by expansion of gas producing high
pressure beyond the capacity of the container?
a. Atomic c. Chemical
b. Mechanical d. Natural
 46. When the explosion results from atomic transformation of atomic elements –
a. Atomic c. Chemical
b. Mechanical d. Natural

47. When the explosion is produced through extremely rapid transformation of the unstable
substances accompanied by the formation of heat –
a. Atomic c. Chemical
b. Mechanical d. Natural

48. Which of the following is NOT a part of shaft?

a. Cuticle c. Medulla
b. Cortex d. Root

49. Reinsch test is used for preliminary examination of what?

a. Arsenic Poisoning c. Acid Poisoning
b. Bacterial Poisoning d. Tetanic Poisoning

50. With the DPA reagent the positive result for the presence of nitrates is
a. Purple specks c. yellow green specks
b. Deep blue specks d. orange specks.

FORENSIC BALLISTICS

1. Metallic or non-metallic, cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by means of the

expansive force of gases from burning gunpowder –
a. Cartridge case c. Bullet
b. Ammunition d. Firearm

2. Those which are made of lead or alloys of this metallic lead, tin and antimony which is
slightly harder that pure lead –
a. Jacketed Bullets c. Lead Bullets
b. Synthetic Bullets d. Explosive Bullets

3. Those with a core of lead covered with a jacket of harder material such as gliding metal,
a copper alloy of approximately 90% copper and 10% zinc –
a. Jacketed Bullets c. Lead Bullets
b. Synthetic Bullets d. Explosive Bullets

4. Those made of plastic / plasticine and other composition or those made of sand polymer
mixed –
a. Jacketed Bullets c. Lead Bullets
b. Synthetic Bullets d. Explosive Bullets

5. Those that have soft cores inside a jacket and are used against personnel only –
a. Ball Bullets c. Armor Piercing Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets d. Incendiary Bullets

6. Bullets that have steel cores and are fired against vehicles and other armored targets in
general –
a. Ball Bullets c. Armor Piercing Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets d. Incendiary Bullets

7. Which of the following bullets contain compound at its base which is set on fire when the
bullet is projected?
a. Ball Bullets c. Armor Piercing Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets d. Incendiary Bullets

8. Those type of bullets that contain a highly charged explosive; because of their small size,
it is difficult to make a fuze that will work reliably in small arms ammunitions –
a. Ball Bullets c. Armor Piercing Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets d. Incendiary Bullets

9. The low explosive which makes up the charge to fire the projectile from a weapon –
a. Propellants c. Explosives
b. IED d. Priming Mixture

10. Type of gunpowder commonly used in modern small arms ammunition and is most
powerful of the propellants; commonly, these are nitrocellulose-based.
a. Black Powder c. Clear Powder
b. Smokeless Powder d. Baby Powder
11. A mechanical mixture of potassium nitrate, charcoal and Sulphur in the proportions
70:15:10, though these proportions have varied during its history.
a. Black Powder c. Clean Powder
b. Smokeless Powder d. Baby Powder

12. A type of propellant in which the main constituent is from the Hexogen RDX group of
High explosives.
a. Single Based c. High Ignition Temperature
b. Double Based d. Gunpowder

13. It is used to describe propellant powders which are made from nitrocellulose with addition
of very small quantities of chemicals to promote chemical stability, flashlessness, or to
assist in the manufacturing process.
a. Single Based c. High Ignition Temperature
b. Double Based d. Gunpowder

14. A type of propellant powder which uses three principal ingredients – nitrocellulose,
nitroglycerine, and nitroguanidine.
a. Single Based c. High Ignition Temperature
b. Double Based d. Gunpowder

15. Which are those characteristics that are determinable even prior to the manufacture of
the firearms?
a. Class Characteristics c. Accidental Characteristics
b. Individual Characteristics d. Firearms Characteristics

16. Which of the following refers to those characteristic markings peculiar in a particular
firearm and which are not found in all other firearms?
a. Class Characteristics c. Accidental Characteristics
b. Individual Characteristics d. Firearms Characteristics

17. This valuable instrument is specially designed to permit the firearm examiner to
determine the similarity and dissimilarity between two fire bullets or two fired shells, by
simultaneously observing their magnified image in a single microscopic field –
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope c. Bullet Recovery Box
b. Vernier Caliper d. Micrometer

18. This is used to recover test bullets or test shells for comparison with the questioned bullet
or shell –
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope c. Bullet Recovery Box
b. Vernier Caliper d. Micrometer

19. This instrument is used to measure the diameter of the bullets or shells up to a
thousandth of an inch –
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope c. Bullet Recovery Box
b. Vernier Caliper d. Micrometer

20. Which of the following is used for measuring purposes same as the Vernier caliper?
a. Bullet Comparison Microscope c. Bullet Recovery Box
b. Vernier Caliper d. Micrometer

21. Which is the science that deals with the motion of the projectiles and conditions
governing that motion?
a. Forensic Ballistics c. Physics
b. Ballistics d. Velocity

22. This is used more or less for determining weights of bullets and shotgun pellets – for
possible determination of type, caliber and make of firearms from which fired.
a. Torsion balance c. Taper gage
b. Helixometer d. Electric gun maker

23. Which of the following is used primarily for determining the bore diameter of firearms?
a. Torsion balance c. Taper gage
b. Helixometer d. Electric gun maker

24. Which of the following used in measuring the pitch of riflings of firearms?
a. Torsion balance c. Taper gage
b. Helixometer d. Electric gun maker
25. Which of the following is used in the laboratory for marking bullets, fired shells, and
firearms submitted for examination?
a. Torsion balance c. Taper gage
b. Helixometer d. Electric gun maker

26. A higher-powered electron microscope used to identify left over particles like gunpowder
residues and primer residues –
a. Torsion balance c. Scanning electron microscope
b. Bullet comparison microscope d. Electric gun maker

27. Which is used in the laboratory for marking bullets, fired shells, and firearms submitted
for examination?
a. Torsion balance c. Taper gage
b. Helixometer d. Electric gun maker

28. It is the bore diameter expressed in decimal of an inch otherwise in the metric system –
a. Caliber c. Micrometer
b. Gauge d. Millimicrons

29. A complete round of ammunition, made up simply of shell, primer powder and bullet –
a. Firearm c. Cartridge Case
b. Bullet d. Cartridge

30. It is commonly the brass or copper envelope that contains primer powder and the bullet –
a. Firearm c. Cartridge Case
b. Bullet d. Cartridge

31. Which of the following is the instrument which measures the velocity of projectile?
a. Helixometer c. Torsion balance
b. Chronograph d. Micrometer

32. Found in revolver-type of firearm, a cartridge container that rotates around an axis
parallel to and below the barrel –
a. Ejector c. Shell
b. Extractor d. Cylinder

33. The device at the barrel breech within the action that knocks the fired cartridge case –
a. Ejector c. Shell
b. Extractor d. Cylinder

34. Which is the device that removes or partially removes the fired cartridge case from the
chamber of the gun?
a. Ejector c. Shell
b. Extractor d. Cylinder

35. Which of the following is the unit of bore measurement in shotgun determined by the
number of solid lead balls, of the bore diameter obtainable from a pound of lead?
a. Caliber c. Micrometer
b. Gauge d. Millimicrons

36. Spiral tube in a bore which causes the bullet to spin as it travels down the barrel –
a. Lands c. Grooves
b. Furrows d. Riflings

37. That portion of the bore remaining after the rifling or grooves have been cut –
a. Lands c. Grooves
b. Furrows d. Riflings

38. Which of the following is the device or reservoir that holds extra cartridge?
a. Magazine c. Butt
b. Rifling d. Grip

39. The end of barrel opposite breech point from which bullet or shot leaves the barrel –
a. Ogive c. Base
b. Tip d. Muzzle

40. The radius of the curve of the nose of the bullet usually expressed in caliber –
a. Ogive c. Air resistance
b. Trajectory d. Velocity
 41. Which of the following is the pressure of air encountered by the bullet in its flight?
a. Ogive c. Air resistance
b. Trajectory d. Velocity

42. Which is the curve path of the bullet in flight or a parabola?

a. Ogive c. Air resistance
b. Trajectory d. Velocity

43. It refers to the speed of the bullet and is measured in feet per second –
a. Ogive c. Air resistance
b. Trajectory d. Velocity

44. Which of the following is the science that deals with the motion of the projectile after
leaving the muzzle of the firearm?
a. Interior Ballistics c. Terminal Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics d. Forensic Ballistics

45. Which is the science that deals with the motion of the projectile before leaving the barrel
of the firearm?
a. Interior Ballistics c. Terminal Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics d. Forensic Ballistics

46. Which is the study of firearm identification by means of ammunitions fired through them?
a. Interior Ballistics c. Terminal Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics d. Forensic Ballistics

47. Which of the following is the study that deals with the effect of the impact of the bullet on
the target?
a. Interior Ballistics c. Terminal Ballistics
b. Exterior Ballistics d. Forensic Ballistics

48. Which of the following is an instrument that is used for the propulsion of projectiles by
means of the expansive force of gases of burning powder?
a. Ballistics c. Barrel
b. Ammunition d. Firearms

49. Those are types of firearms that propel projectiles less than one (1) inch in diameter –
a. Small Arms c. Hand Arms
b. Artillery d. Shotguns

50. Those types of firearms that propel projectiles more than one (1) inch in diameter –
a. Small Arms c. Hand Arms
b. Artillery d. Shotguns

LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUES

1. Is a kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive another?

a. black lie c. red lie
b. yellow lie d. white

2. The polygraph machine has ___ major components?

a. three c. four
b. five d. six

3. The following re the major components of the polygraph machine, except:

a. kymograph c. galvanograph
b. cardiosphymograph d. Pneumograph

4. Is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test, where the subject consent is obtained?
a. Initial interview c. Pre-test Interview
b. Instrumentation d. Post-test Interview/Interrogation

5. It is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test?

a. 60 - 65 c. 70 – 75
b. 6 – 12 d. 13 – 15

6. What is the normal cyclic rate of respiration of a normal built person in a polygraph test?
a. 60 - 65 c. 70 – 75
b. 6 – 12 d. 13 – 15
7. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination are all ___ and this
creates a set of distortion?
a. Terrified c. Convenient
b. Nervous d. Confident

8. It is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child acquires from his surrounding once he
learned to go out and socialized with his neighborhood.
a. Personality c. Heredity
b. Environment d. Education

9. Is a type of questioned designed to link the subject to the crime? In criminal investigation it is
otherwise referred to as associative evidence:
a. Sacrifice question c. Knowledge question
b. Evidence connecting question d. Control question

10. An irrelevant question between and after a relevant?

a. Control question c. Padding question
b. Sacrifice question d. Knowledge question

11. Is the type of test consisting of series of irrelevant question with only one relevant question?
a. General question test c. Peak of tension test
b. Guilt complex test d. Silent answer test

12. A type of question designed to obtain a response from an innocent subject.

a. Irrelevant question c. Control question
b. Relevant question d. Knowledge question

13. Refers to the brief confrontation between the subject and the polygraph examiner done every
after taking each chart.
a. Initial interview c. Pre-test Interview
b. Chart probing d. Post-test Interview/Interrogation

14. Corrugated rubber bellows with the aid of beaded chain should be fastened on the subject’s:
a. Abdomen and chest c. Waistline
b. Hips d. Neck

15. A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph instrument in the year 1938,
which is capable of recording blood pressure, pulse beat, respiration and electrodermal
response.
a. John A. Larson c. John E. Reid
b. Richard O. Arthur d. Leonarde Keeler

16. Is that component of the polygraph machine which is designed to detect changes of electro
dermal response?
a. Kymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Cardiosphygmograph d. Pneumograph

17. The Pneumograph component detects what?

a. Breathing c. Blood pressure of the subject
b. Skin resistance d. Pulse rate

18. Which of the following is one among the major components of the polygraph?
a. Sphygmomanometer c. Kymograph
b. Blood pressure cuff d. Cardiosphymograph

19. It is that section of the polygraph machine designed to make a permanent record of the
polygraph test.
a. Kymograph c. Pen and Inking system
b. Pneumograph d. Galvanograph

20. He detected deception with the used of Pneumograph?

a. Harold Burtt c. Sir James Mckenzie
b. Vittorio Bennussi d. Richard Arther

21. Markings used at the end of the test:

a. XX /40/ 1.5 A c. /xx/ BP reading time
b. 40/X/1.5 A d. /xxx/ BP reading end
22. The accuracy of polygraph examination largely depends upon:
a. Working condition of polygraph c. Investigator’s competency
b. Subject’s cooperation d. Examiner’s competency

23. Polygraph is:

a. a lie detector c. physical and mental evaluator
b. a scientific diagnostics instrument d. a guilt detector

24. Which complementary branch of autonomic or regulating nervous system prevails when a
person is under stimuli of fear?
a. Receptive c. Para receptive
b. Sympathetic d. Parasympathetic

25. This refers to the finish chart where detected body changes associated with lying are
reflected or recorded?
a. Polygraph c. Chart paper
b. Polygram d. Test result

26. The polygraph methods relate or associated deception to ____ changes that occur while
someone is lying?
a. Psychological c. Physiological
b. Behavioral d. Chemical

27. Is the person who devises an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure, pulse
beat and respiration simultaneously which he called the “Bread board Lie Detector”.
a. Cesare Lombroso c. Sir James Mackenzie
b. John A. Larson d. Leonarde Keeler

28. A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year 1926.
a. John A. Larson c. John E. Reid
b. Richard O. Arthur d. Leonarde Keeler

29. Which of the following is true about the polygraph machine?

a. it is a machine that can diagnose subject
b. it is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion
c. it is a lie detector machine
d. it is a machine that detects physiological responses

30. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, EXCEPT:
a. It rings a bell c. It has a dial indicator
b. It flash a light d. It is like an x-ray

31. An attachment of the Cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial artery.
a. Arm cuff c. Wrist cuff
b. Infant cuff d. Hand cuff

32. The size of the Galvanograph recording pen is?

a. 5 inches c. 7 inches
b. 6 inches d. 10 inches

33. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of?
a. 100 yards c. 100 ft
b. 100 meters d. 100 km

34. Is the stage in the conduct of the polygraph test, which is designed to prepare or condition the
subject for the actual test?
a. Initial interview c. Pre-test Interview
b. Instrument d. Post-test Interview/Interrogation

35. Which of the following notion about polygraph machine is wrong?

a. it is capable of detecting lies
b. it is incapable of drawing or interpreting any conclusions
c. it is a sensitive machine like an x-ray which needs interpretation
d. none of these

36. As polygraph examiner your primary mission is to detect whether subject is indeed telling the
truth or?
a. Lying c. Denying
b. Insinuating d. Cooperative
37. In polygraph test, the respiratory tracing is found in the?
a. Bottom of the chart c. Middle of the chart
b. Top of the chart d. Subjects breathing

38. Polygraph testing, aside from the condition and reliability of machine and necessary
preparations, the other important face consider is the examiners?
a. Professionalism c. Competence
b. Idealism d. Integrity

39. The reason why the result of polygraph examination is not admission evidence in court of law
in the Philippines is because the said technique in eliciting information or deception is still in
the?
a. Experimental Stage c. Analysis Aspect
b. Law Enforcement d. Limb

40. Answerable by no only the “peak of tension test” is the asking of series of questioning on
subject. On that kind of test on how many questions that have bearing upon the case under
investigation should be included?
a. One c. Two
b. Three d. Many

41. Lire polygraph test the “Narco Analysis” or administration of truth serum in a subject is
violative of one’s constitutional privacy and?
a. Legality c. Free will
b. Innocence d. Ecstasy

42. In polygraph test the questions, your name is “Mr. Jose Velarde” what kind of question?
a. Irrelevant c. Confirmatory
b. Explorating d. Relevant

43. The main objective of polygraph examination is to detect whether the subject is?
a. Above average I.Q. c. normally functioning
b. Guilt or innocent d. telling the truth

44. What is the primary objective of the polygraph test?

a. Obtain admission c. Secure operation
b. Identify those involved d. Detect involvement in a crime

45. What is the part of the cardio component which indicate the system in millimeters of mercury?
a. Anode indicator c. Polygram
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Electrode

46. In polygraph testing, the emotional response of the body of the subject is called?
a. Reaction c. Questioning
b. Recollection d. Touching

47. Polygraph instrument has:

a. two short pens and one long pen
b. three short pen and one long pen
c. one short pen and two long pens
d. all of the above

48. Who determines the truthfulness of the subject in a polygraph test?

a. Examiner c. Judge
b. Prosecutor d. Investigator

49. Among the three systems of the human body, it is considered as the less valuable in the
detection of deception according to Harold Burtt?
a. Cardiovascular Activity c. Respiration
b. Electrodermal Activity d. Exhalation

50. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?
a. Reschedule the examination
b. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview
c. call for a doctor or request for an ambulance
d. does not continue with the pre-test and ask the subject for his available date
for reschedule