1. Which of the following specimen type is A.

One part fixative to one part stool

most often submitted for parasite study? B. Two parts fixative to one part stool
A. Blood C. Three parts fixative to one part stool
B. Sputum D. Four parts fixative to one part stool
C. Urine
D. Stool 7. Which technique is used to detect the
eggs of Enterobius vermicularis?
2. How many stool samples should be A. Duodenal aspirate
collected when following the typical O&P B. Cellophane tape prep
collection protocol? C. Sigmoidoscopy
A. 1 D. Skin snips
B. 2
C. 3 8. Which of the following tests is used for
D. 4 \ the detection of Cryptosporidium?
A. Sabin-Feldman dye test
3. What is the purpose of fixatives for the B. Xenodiagnosis
collection of stool samples? C. G-6-PD test
A. Enhance the motility of protozoa D. Sheather's sugar flotation
B. Stain the cytoplasmic inclusions of
protozoa 9. The ideal temperature at which to hold a
C. Preserve the morphology of protozoa fecal specimen for more than 1 hour is
and prevent further development of A. Freezing temperature
helminths B. Refrigerated temperature
D. All of the above C. Room temperature
D. Incubated temperature
4. Which of the following parasitic stages is
not usually detected after using a 10. The preferred specific gravity of zinc
concentration technique? sulfate solution for the flotation method is
A. Protozoan cyst A. 1.01
B. Protozoan trophozoites B. 1.04
C. Helminth eggs C. 1.18
D. Helminth larvae D. 1.48

5. Which of the following is the specimen of 11. What is the advantage of the
choice to demonstrate intracellular parasites sedimentation method of concentrating stool
such as Toxoplasma gondi and Leishmania specimens?
spo.? A. All eggs will sediment
A. Sputum B. Fecal debris and soluble material can be
B. Urine removed
C. Tissue C. Recovers operculated eggs
D. Genital secretions D. All of these

6. When using preservatives, what is the 12. The motile, reproducing, feeding stage
appropriate ratio of fixative to stool? of the Protozoa is which of the following?
A. Cyst 18. Amoeba inhabiting the central nervous
B. Trophozoites system enter the body through:
C. Ova A. Mouth
D. Adult worm B. Nasal mucosa
C. Ears
13. Mature cysts of Entamoeba polecki D. Feet
have how many nuclei?
A. 2 19. In which specimen are Naegleria and
B. 8 Acanthamoeba usually found:
C. 1 A. Blood
D. 4 B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Urine
14. Which of these trophozoites, when D. Stool
acting as a pathogen, is likely to ingest red
blood cells of the host? 20. Which of the following is pathognomonic
A. Entamoeba coli for Giardia lamblia and the stage it is found
B. Entamoeba hartmanni in?
C. Entamoeba histolytica A. Spiral groove; trophozoite
D. Endolimax nana B. Cytostome; trophozoite
C. Undulating membrane; cyst
15. Which of the following organs of the D. Ventral sucking disk; trophozoite
body is most often involved in extraintestinal
amoebiasis? 21. A pear-shaped flagellate with jerky
A. Lungs motility that is found in a urine specimen is
B. Kidneys identified as
C. Pancreas A. Trichomonas hominis
D. Liver B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Entamoeba coli
16. Which trophozoite is distinguished by D. Giardia lamblia
the possession of achromatic granules
surrounding its karyosomal chromatin? 22. The only bilaterally symmetrical
A. Endolimax nana protozoan is
C. Entamoeba coli A. Trichomonas
B. Entamoeba histolytica B. Dientamoeba
D. lodamoeba butschlii C. Giardia
D. Balantidium
17. Which of the following would have a
double-walled, wrinkled cyst form? 23. Which species of Trypanosoma is the
A. Naegleria fowleri cause of Chagas' disease?
B. Entamoeba hartmanni A. rhodesiense
C. Acanthamoeba castellani B. cruzi
D. Dientamoeba fragilis C. gambiense
D. A and C
24. Which of the following is the vector of C. Plasmodium ovale
African sleeping sickness? D. Plasmodium malariae
A. Reduviid bug
B. Sandflv 30. What is the infective stage of the
C. Tsetse fly malarial parasite to the vector?
D. Ticks A. Gametocyte
B. Schizont
25. Which organism is the cause of C. Sporozoites
kala-azar? D. Oocyst
A. Leishmania donovani
C. Trypanosoma cruzi 31. What is the infective stage of the
B. Leishmania brasiliensis malarial parasite to humans?
D. Trypanosoma gambiense A. Gametocyte
B. Schizont
26. The definitive host to Plasmodium is C. Sporozoites
A. Man D. Oocyst
B. Female Anopheles mosquito
C. Tsetse fly 32. In falciparum malaria, sudden massive
D. Sandfly intravascular hemolysis producing
hemoglobinuria is called
27. Which of the following malarial A. Black fever
organisms preferentially invades B. Blackwater bay
reticulocytes? C. Black eschar
A. Plasmodium falciparum D. Blackwater fever
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium vivax 33. What constitutes a positive result in the
D. All of these Sabin-Feldman dye test?
A. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile
28. Which malarial organism B. Toxoplasma can no longer be
characteristically has a band form demonstrated as an intracellular organism
trophozoite stretching across the red blood C. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for
cell? methylene blue dye
A. Plasmodium malariae D. The mouse into which the immune serum
B. Plasmodium ovale is injected does not die from toxoplasmosis
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Plasmodium falciparum 34. Oocyst of Cryptosporidium spp. can be
detected in stool specimens using:
29. Which malarial organism features ring A. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain
trophozoites that have double chromatin B. Methenamine silver stain
dots, applique forms, and often have C. Gram stain
multiple parasites in the infected red blood D. Trichrome stain
cells?
A. Plasmodium vivax 35. Autofluorescence requires no stain and
B. Plasmodium falciparum is recommended for the identification of:
A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts D. Ascariasis
B. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
C. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites 41. Which of the following is the eye worm?
D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts A. Wuchereria
C. Onchocerca
36. Which microfilariae are usually not B. Brugia
found circulating in the peripheral blood? D. Loa
A. Brugia malayi
B. Onchocerca volvulus 42. Where does the larva of Ascaris
C. Wuchereria bancrofti lumbricoides go after it hatches in the small
D. Loa loa intestine?
A. Migrates through the blood, liver, lungs,
37. Which parasite causes eosinophilic pharynx, and then back to the small
meningoencephalitis intestine
A. Necator americanus B. Migrates through the blood, brain, and
B. Ancylostoma braziliensis pharynx
C. Angiostrongylus cantonensis C. Migrates through the lymph nodes and
D. Strongyloides stercoralis back to the intestines
D. It does not migrate
38. A stool specimen was collected at 8pm
from a patient. Following collection, the 43. The helminth that induces a
specimen was not submitted to the hypochromic microcytic anemia in its host is
laboratory until 11pm. The laboratory the
technologist found larvae with a long buccal A. Hookworm
cavity and a small, reduced genital B. Whipworm
primordium in the fecal sample. C. Pinworm
The larvae are most likely: D. Threadworm
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Strongyloides stercoralis 44. The intermediate host of the guinea
C. Trichuris trichiura worm is the
D. Unable to determine A. Mosquito
C. Chrysops fly
39. The gravid female of Enterobius B. Black fly
vermicularis deposits her embryonated eggs D. Copepod
A. In the small intestines
B. In the perianal skin 45. Dirofilaria immitis is the
C. In the large intestine A. Dog heartworm
D. In sputum B. Dog hookworm
C. Rat lungworm
40. Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique D. Dog tapeworm
employed to detect
A. Trichinosis 46. Which of the following is the first
C. Trichuriasis intermediate host of the flukes?
B. Taeniasis A. Snail
B. Water plant Middle East, has large terminal spines on its
C. Fish eggs, and is found in urine samples?
D. Crab A. P. westerman
B. S. japonicum
47. Which of the following worms have C. S. haematobium
separate sexes? D. S. mansoni
A. Intestinal fluke
C. Tapeworm 53. Characteristics of the cestodes include
B. Liver fluke all of the following except:
D. Blood flukes A. They are hermaphroditic
B. They generally require intermediate host
48. Which operculated ovum contains a C. Laboratory diagnosis consists of finding
miracidium and can appear in sputum often larvae in feces
accompanied by blood and Charcot-Leyden D. Regions include the scolex, neck, and
crystals? strobili
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani 54. The incorrect match between organism
C. Schistosoma mansoni and characteristic is:
D. Dipylidium caninum A. Chilomastix mesnili - Sheperd's crook
and lemon shape
49. Cercarial dermatitis, commonly known B. Hymenolepis nana - striated shell
as swimmer's itch, is caused by C. Plasmodium malariae - "band troph"
A. Larvae of roundworms D. Wuchereria bancrofti - sheathed
B. Eggs of tapeworms microfilariae
C. Schistosomule
D. Cercaria of schistosomes 55. What is the infective stage of the broad
fish tapeworm to humans?
50. The fluke acquire by eating A. Plerocercoid
contaminated vegetation is: B. Coracidum
A. Clonorchis sinensis C. Hydatid cyst
B. Fasciolopsis buski D. Cysticercus
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Schistosoma mansoni 56. In infections with Tania solium, humans
can serve as the:
51. It is considered among patients A. Definitive host
diagnosed to have pulmonary tuberculosis B. Intermediate host
and not responding to treatment C. Either the definitive host or the
A. Fascioliasis intermediate host
B. Schistosomiasis D. None of these options
C. Paragonimiasis
D. None of these 57. Which tapeworm proglottid makes its
way across the fecal specimen by doubling
52. Which of the following organisms movements, and is seen under the
penetrates skin, is endemic in Africa and the microscope to have numerous regular
uterine branches (more than 15) resembling
those of a tree
A. Taenia saginata
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Taenia solium
D. Dipylidium caninum

58. Contains a hexacanth embryo that lacks

polar knobs or filaments
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Hymenolepis diminuta
D. Taenia saginata

59. The eggs of Echinococcus granulosus

are found in the feces of
A. Man
B. Dogs
C. Cats
D. Cattle

60. In some individuals, particularly those of

Scandinavian extraction, this worm can
cause megaloblastic anemia
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Hymenolepis nana
1. Increase in size of tissues or organs due B. Liquefactive Necrosis
to increase in size of individual cells. Mostly C. Caseous Necrosis
seen in cells that cannot divide such as D. Gangrenous Necrosis
skeletal and cardiac muscle
A. Hyperplasia 7. It is a special form of cell death produced
B. Atrophy by the Tubercle Bacillus
C. Hypertrophy A. Coagulative necrosis
D. Metaplasia B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Fat Necrosis
2. Marked regressive change in adult cells D. Caseous Necrosis
towards more primitive or embryonic cell
types 8. Cardinal sign of inflammation due to
A. Aplasia transfer of internal heat to the surface of site
B. Anaplasia of injury, brought about by increased blood
C. Dysplasia content.
D. Metaplasia A. Rubor
B. Tumor
3. Reversible change involving the C. Calor
transformation in one type of adult cell to D. Dolor
another
A. Atrophy 9. Cardinal sign of inflammation due to
B. Hypertrophy pressure upon sensory nerve by the
C. Hyperplasia exudate or tumor.
D. Metaplasia A. Rubor
B. Tumor
4. This is the most common pattern of C. Calor
metaplasia: D. Dolor
A. Squamous to columnar
B. Columnar to squamous 10. Acute inflammation:
C. Squamous to cuboidal
D. Cuboidal to squamous I. Sudden onset and characterized by the
classic features of heat, redness, swelling,
5. This is also known as nuclear pain and loss of function
fragmentation: II. Persistence of the injurious agent for
A. Karyolysis weeks or years
B. Pyknosis III. Exudative inflammation, with exudation
C. Karyorrhexis of white blood cell, predominantly the
D. Both A and B polymorphonuclear leukocyte
IV. Proliferative, predominantly mononuclear
6. Characteristic of hypoxic death of cells cell infiltration
where the outline of the dead cells is
maintained; and, the tissue is somewhat A. I and III
firm. Examples include myocardial infarction B. Il and IV
A. Coagulative Necrosis C. I, Il, and III
D. All are correct
16. Organs are removed one by one. This
11. Malignant tumors of epithelial tissue method has been used most widely, often
origin, which have less tendency to produce with some modifications.
supporting tissue or stroma A. Technique of R. Virchow
A. Carcinoma C. Technique of A. Ghon
C. Adenoma B. Technique of C. Rokitansky
B. Sarcoma D. Technique of M. Letulle
D. Papilloma
17. The amount of fixing fluid should be
12. Epithelial neoplasms producing approximately:
fingerlike or warty projections A. 5-10 times the volume of the specimen
A. Papilloma B. 10-20 times the volume of the specimen
B. Adenoma C. 20-30 times the volume of the specimen
C. Cystadenoma D. 40-50 times the volume of the specimen
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
18. All of the following are microanatomical
13. TNM Classification: fixatives, except:
Larger, more invasive within the primary A. 10% Formalin
organ site B. Bouin's solution
Regional lymph node involvement C. Zenker's fluid
Distant metastases present D. Flemming's fluid

A. T3N2M1 19. Nuclear fixatives are those which

B. T2N1M1 preserves the nuclear structures. They
C. T2N2M1 usually contain component due to its affinity
D. T1NOM1 for nuclear chromatin. They have a pH Of
4.6 or less
14. First demonstrable change observed A. Osmium tetroxide
characterized by cooling of the body, B. Nitric acid
occurring at a definite rate about 7°F per C. Trichloroacetic acid
hour and usually important in establishing D. Glacial acetic acid as their primary
the approximate time of death.
A. Algor mortis 20. In tissues containing much blood (e.g.
C. Livor mortis spleen), unbuffered formalin leads to the
B. Rigor mortis formation of dark brown artifact pigment
D. Postmortem clotting granules. These pigments may be removed
with:
15. Rigidity of the body due to hardening of A. lodine
the skeletal muscles after death B. Sodium thiosulfate
A. Algor mortis C. Picric Acid
B. Rigor mortis D. Glacial acetic acid
C. Livor mortis
D. Postmortem clotting
21. Mercuric chloride pigment may be
removed from tissue by: 26. It is the most rapid and most commonly
A. an iodine-sodium thiosulfate sequence used clearing agent in histology laboratories
B. washing in 50% or 70% alcohol A. Benzene
C. washing in running water B. Toluene
D. the alcoholic dehydration step in C. Xylene
processing D. Chloroform

22. This fixative is recommended for the 27. Most probable cause when clearing
study of early degenerative processes and agent turns milky as soon as the tissue is
tissue necrosis. It demonstrates Rickettsiae placed in it:
and other bacteria. A. incomplete fixation
A. Acetone B. prolonged fixation
B. Orth's fluid C. Incomplete dehydration
C. Ethyl alcohol D. Prolonged dehydration
D. Bouin's solution
28. When wax has been reused, some
23. It is recommended for fixation of amount of water inevitably is mixed with it. If
embryos: excessive, this may impair the impregnating
A. Zenker's fluid capacity of the medium and prevent
B. Bouin's solution formation of a good tissue block. Water
C. Orth's fluid must therefore be removed by heating the
D. Regaud's fluid wax to _°C thereby raising its melting point.
Paraffin wax may be used only twice, after
24. This is a very expensive although the which, fresh wax must be utilized.
most ideal, most sensitive, and most reliable A. 45 to 55°C
method of determining the extent of B. 55 to 60°C
decalcification due to its ability to detect C. 100 to 105 °C
even the smallest focus of calcium D. 160 to 180°C
A. Physical test
B. Mechanical test 29. In double embedding, the tissue is first
C. Radiological method infiltrated with _, followed by embedding
D. Chemical test with
A. Celloidin, Paraffin
25. If good grade absolute alcohol (for B. Paraffin, Celloidin
dehydration) is not easily available, it should C. Celloidin, Gelatin
be at least 99.7% pure, and freedom from D. Paraffin, Gelatin
water should be checked by adding a small
amount of _, if water is present it will Most rapid embedding technique
become tinged with blue. A. Manual
A. Sodium sulfate C. Automatic
B. Copper sulfate B. Vacuum
C. Thymol D. None of the choices
D. Phenol
30. The temperature of the paraffin oven 35. The silver nitrate reduction technique of
used for impregnation is usually: Fontana may be used to demonstrate:
A. 2-5 °C above the melting point of A. Spirochetes
impregnating medium B. Calcium
C. 5-10 °C above the melting point of C. Argyrophil cells
impregnating medium D. Argentaffin cells
B. 6-10 °C below the melting point of
impregnating medium 36. Special stain for the demonstration of
D. 6-10 °C above the melting point of fungus and Pneumocystis carinii organisms
impregnating medium in lung tissue sections:
A. Dieterle
31. A process whereby the action of the dye B. Wade-Fite
is intensified by adding another agent or C. Grocott's Methanamine Silver
mordant. D. Levaditi
A. Direct staining
B. Indirect staining 37. Using the Warthin-Starry method for the
C. Progressive staining demonstration of spirochetes, the organism
D. Regressive staining is positively stained as:
A. Red
32. Common nuclear stains: C. Purple
I. Neutral Red B. Blue
II. Hematoxylin D. Black
III. Methylene Blue
IV. Eosin 38. It is considered to be as the staining
method choice for exfoliative cytology
A. I and III A. Papanicolau method
B. Il and IV B. Modified Papanicolau
C. I, Il, and III C. Hand E
D. I,I,Ill,and IV D. Periodic Acid Schiff

33. All of the following are cytoplasmic 39. Of the following, which is the most
stains, except: important purpose of frozen sections?
A. Picric acid A. rapid pathologic diagnosis during surgery
B. Phloxine B B. diagnostic and research enzyme
C. Carmine histochemistry
D. Rose Bengal C. immunofluorescent &
immunohistochemical staining
34. Stain for DNA and RNA D. for specialized silver stains in
A. Acridine Orange neuropathology
B. Orcein
C. Best Carmine 40. Cryostat is maintained at temperature
D. Von Kossa's silver nitrate near _ _ where microtome, knife, and
specimen are kept.
A. 20 °C
B. -20 °C D. the board member can hold the position
C. 160 °C for a maximum of 3 years only
D. 160 °C
45. Who recommends the Medical
41. Which of the following is a qualification Technology board member/s?
for the appointment for chairman or member A. CHED
of the PRC? B. DOH
A. At least 36 years old C. PRC
B. At least less than 10 years active D. Commission on Appointments
practitioner prior to appointment
C. At least with 3 consecutive years in 46. Upon suspension of the certificate by
teaching the Board, Medical Technologist must
D. At least 4 years not connected to any surrender the COR within how many days?
review center A. 15 days
B. 30 days
42. As stipulated in PD 1534, the chairman C. 45 days
of the PRC holds which of the following D. 50 days
position in the council of the Medical
Technology education? 47. Provided it is in the same region, what is
A. Chairman the maximum distance of a mobile clinical
B. Vice-Chairman laboratory site from its DOH licensed
C. Secretary Clinical Laboratory?
D. Representative A. 50 km
B. 100 km
43. What category of the clinical laboratory C. 150 km
can perform routine hematology, routine D. 200 km
chemistry, urinalysis, fecalysis, blood typing.
and cross-matching? 48. What is the required minimum width for
A. primary the corridor of a cinical laboratory?
B. secondary A. 1.20 meters
C. tertiary B. 1.10 meters
D. free-standing C. 1.05 meters
D. 1.00 meter
44. What is the legal basis if the incumbent
member of the medical technology board is 49. RA 5527 was approved on?
in the position for 10 years now? A. June 21, 1969
A. A board member shall hold office for 3 B. July 21, 1969
years until the successor has been C. July 21, 1968
appointed D.June 21 1968
B. the incumbent members will continue to
serve until the expiration of their terms 50. The Law that governs the Newborn
regardless of age Screening Act of 2004
C the board member can hold the position A. Republic Act 9288
until retirement B. Republic Act 9709
C. Republic Act 7719 57. Which of the following is not included in
D. Republic Act 1517 the MT Code?
A. Integrity
51. What does RA 7719 promote? B. Reliability
A. Newborn Screening C. Honesty
B Establishment of Blood Banks D. Humility
C. Voluntary Blood donation
D. Clinical laboratory law FOR NUMBERS 58-59
V. San Lazaro Hospital-SACCL
52. The contribution of this former PAMET X. East Avenue Medical Center
President was the establishment of PAMET W. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
chapters and revision of Medical Y. National Kidney transplant institute
Technology Code of Ethics. Z. None of the Above
A. Mrs. Carmencita P. Acedera
B. Ms. Venerable C.V. Oca 58. 1- Confirmatory testing for blood
C. Mrs. Norma Nuñez Chang samples that were screened REACTIVE for
D. Mr. Crisanto Almario HIV?
2- Confirmatory testing for urine specimen
53. Which of the following is NOT included that was screened POSITIVE for drug of
in the Technical Panel in Medical abuse?
Technology Education? 3- Confirmatory testing for blood bag units
A. PAMET that were screened REACTIVE for HIV?
B. PASMETH A. 1-V, 2-X,3-W
C. PRC (MedTech Board) B. 1-Z,2-X,3-V
D. CHED C. 1-V,2-W.3-X
D. 1-V,2-Y,3-X
55. In case of failure to pass the Medical
Technology board of examination for the 59. 1- National Reference Laboratory for
third time, a refresher course is given for Hematology and Automated Urinalysis?
how many months in an accredited school 2- National Reference Laboratory for
or laboratory? Leprosy?
A. 6 months 3- National Reference Lab for Clinical
B 10 months Chemistry?
C. 12 months A. 1-Z,2-V,3-Y
D 18 months B. 1-Y,2-V,3-X
C. 1-W,2-Z,3-X
56. Who is currently the President of the D. 1-Y,2-Z,3-X
Philippine Association of Medical
Technology? 60. Anna is a drug analyst at a drug testing
A. Marilyn A. Cabal-Barza laboratory. Recently, she was offered a big
B. Luelle Vertucio sum of money to issue a negative result
C. Leila Florento from a patient who is confirmed to have a
D. Rommel Saceda positive drug test. Anna knows that this
could result in imprisonment ranging from:
A. 6 years and one day to twelve years
B. 6 years and one day to ten years
C. 12 years and one day to twenty years
D. 5 years and one day to ten years