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MM : 740 REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD Time : 200 Min.

PHYSICS

SECTION A

1. A block of mass 2 kg is pulled by a force of 2. Which of the following force time graph,
18 N applied to a light pulley as shown in gives maximum impulse?
the figure. If the acceleration of the block is (1)
0.5 m/s2 , then coefficient of friction between
the block and surface will be (g = 10 m/s2 )

(2)

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.5

(3)

(4)

1
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

3. In the given arrangement if all the surfaces 6. In the figure given, the position-time graph of
are smooth, then the reading of spring a particle of mass 1 kg is shown. The
balance is magnitude of impulse acting on particle at t =
2 s is

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 40 N (1) 1 N-s
(4) Zero (2) 8 N-s
(3) 5 N-s
4. A block is kept on a rough floor in two (4) 7 N-s
different orientations (as shown in the
figures) such that the area of contact varies
7. Human heart is pumping blood with constant
velocity v m/s, at the rate of M kg/s. The force
applied by heart to pump the blood (in
newton) is
(1) Mv
If (fs)L is the maximum value of static friction (2) v dM
that can act then dt

(1) [(fs)L ]1 < [(fs)L ]2 (3) M

dv

dt

(2) [(fs)L ]1 > [(fs)L ]2 (4) M

v
(3) [(fs)L ]1 = [(fs)L ]2
(4) Can’t be predicted
8. A parabolic bowl with its bottom at origin has
2
x
the shape, y = ¯
¯¯¯
, where x and y are in
5. A block of mass 4 kg is placed in a 20

accelerating cart as shown in the figure. If metre.The maximum height at which a small
coefficient of static friction and kinetic friction mass m can be placed on the bowl without
between the block and cart surface are 0.4 slipping is (coefficient of static friction μ = 0.5
and 0.3 respectively. Then acceleration of and g = 10 m/s2 )
block w.r.t. cart will be (g = 10 m/s2 ) (1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.5 m
(3) 1.0 m
(4) 2.0 m

9. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on smooth

→ → →
rigid surface F 1 , F 2 and F 3 are
(1) 2 m/s2 forces acting on it as shown in figure. The
acceleration of block is
(2) Zero
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

(1) 20 ms–2
(2) 30 ms–2
(3) 40 ms–2
(4) Zero

2
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

10. Initially both blocks A and B are in 14. A bomb at rest explodes into 3 parts of
equilibrium. If string between A and B is cut, masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2. The velocity of
then acceleration of block A just after cut will the two parts of equal masses, immediately
be (pulley and strings are ideal) after explosion are ˆ
−2v i and
ˆ
vj respectively. Then velocity of the third

part is
(1) 2vˆ ˆ
i − vj

(2) ˆ ˆ
−2v i + v j

(3) ˆ
−v i +
v ˆ
j
2

(4) ˆ
vi −
v ˆ
j
2

15. In the figure shown, the velocities of different

blocks are indicated. The velocity of C is
(1) g upward (All pulleys and strings are ideal)
(2) g downward
(3) 2g downward
(4) Zero

11. The acceleration of the given block is

(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 9 m/s2
(1) 4 m/s downwards
(3) 4 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s upwards
(4) 5 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s downwards
(4) 2 m/s upwards
12. Consider the following two statements.
A. A body can’t exert force on another body
from a distance. 16. A block of mass 2 kg is connected with a
B. No external force is required to keep the spring having spring constant 200 N/m held
body in uniform motion. in equilibrium between two vertical walls A
Select the correct options. and B as shown in figure. If compression in
the spring is 4 cm and all the surfaces are
(1) Statement A is correct while statement
smooth then normal reaction by the block on
B is incorrect
the wall B will be
(2) Statement B is correct while statement
A is incorrect
(3) Both statement A and B are correct
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect

13. Force is an entity which, when applied on a

body changes or tends to change a body’s
(1) State of motion (1) 8N
(2) Direction of motion (2) 16 N
(3) Shape (3) 4N
(4) All of these (4) 12 N

3
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

17. A block of mass m is suspended through a 20. Two bodies A and B of mass 10 kg and 20
vertical spring of spring constant k as shown kg respectively kept on a smooth horizontal
in the figure. If the block is pulled down by a surface are tied to the ends of a light string. If
mg
distance 4k from equilibrium position and on applying a horizontal force of 600 N on A,
tension in string is T1 and on applying the
released, then the initial acceleration of the
same force on B, tension in string is T2 , then
block will be
difference of tension (T1 – T2 ) is
(1) 200 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 250 N
(4) Zero

(1) g/3 21. Mark the incorrect statements about the

(2) g/4 friction between two bodies.
(3) g/5 (1) Limiting friction is never less than static
friction
(4) g
(2) Limiting friction is greater than the
kinetic friction
18. The position-time graph of a body of mass (3) Static friction is always greater than the
2.5 kg is as shown in figure. The magnitude kinetic friction
of change in momentum of the ball at t = 5
second is (4) Coefficient of static friction is greater
than the coefficient of kinetic friction

22. Two blocks ‘A’ and ‘B’ each of mass ‘m’ are
placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Two
horizontal force F and 2F are applied on the
two blocks ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively as shown
in figure. The block A does not slide on block
B. Then the normal reaction acting between
the two blocks is (A and B are smooth)

(1) 1.5 kg ms–1

(2) 2.5 kg ms–1
(3) 3.5 kg ms–1
(4) 4.5 kg ms–1
(1) F
19. A wedge block system with masses is shown (2) F/2
in figure. What optimum force F should be (3) 3F
applied on the wedge, so that block with
(4) F
mass 2 kg does not slide down relative to √3

wedge (Take g = 10 ms–2 )

(1) 100 N
(2) 200 N
(3) 120 N
(4) 175 N

4
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

23. If velocity of block B is 2 m/s downward as 27. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the
shown in the figure, then the speed of block tension in the supporting cable is 32000 N.
A is Then its acceleration is (g = 10 m/s2 )
(1) 4.0 m/s2 downwards
(2) 6.0 m/s2 downwards
(3) 4.0 m/s2 upwards
(4) 6.0 m/s2 upwards

28. A : Linear momentum of a body changes

even when it is moving uniformly in a circle.
R : In uniform circular motion velocity
changes continuously.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(1) 1 m/s explanation of the assertion
(2) 2 m/s (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(3) 4 m/s is false
(4) 6 m/s (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

24. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on the floor. The

coefficient of static friction between block 29. An explosion blows a stone at rest into three
and floor is 0.2. If a force of 3 N is applied on parts. Two pieces fly off at right angles to
block as shown in diagram, the frictional each other, 1 kg with velocity of 12 m/s and 2
force between block and floor is kg with velocity of 8 m/s. If third piece flies off
with velocity of 10 m/s, then its mass is
(1) 0.5 kg
(2) 1.5 kg
(3) 2.0 kg
(1) 2N (4) 2.5 kg
(2) 3N
(3) 4N 30. A force of 5 N changes the velocity of a body
(4) Zero from 10 m/s to 20 m/s in 6 s. The force
required to bring the same change in 1.5 s
is
25. According to Newton's 3rd law of motion
(1) 10 N
(1) Action arises before reaction
(2) 15 N
(2) Reaction arises before action
(3) 18 N
(3) Action and reaction always act on
same bodies (4) 20 N
(4) Action and reaction always act on
different bodies 31. A lift is moving downward with an
acceleration equal to acceleration due to
gravity. The apparent weight of a boy of
26. In the given arrangement the acceleration of mass 50 kg in the lift is
the block of mass m is
(1) 500 N
(2) Zero
(3) 250 N
(4) 600 N

(1) g
(2) 2g
(3) 3g
(4) g
2

5
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

32. To take a safe turn on a circular turning, a 34. The maximum value of the force F, such that
cyclist bends (inward) towards the centre of the block shown in the arrangement does
circular path at an angle θ with the not move
horizontal. Then tanθ will be equal to (v -
velocity of cyclist, R - Radius of circle)
(1) v 2

Rg

(2) Rg

2
v
–
(1) 5√2 N
(3) Rv
2

g
(2) 10 N
(4) R
(3) 5 N
2
v g
(4) 10√– 2 N

33. A uniform chain of mass M and length L is

lying on a table. The minimum value of 35. A simple Atwood machine with two masses
coefficient of friction between chain and 3 kg and 2 kg connected by a light string
table such that L part of the chain is hanging passing over a frictionless pulley,
3
suspended with a spring balance as shown
at the edge of table is in figure. The reading of spring balance is
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.4

(1) 2.4 kg-wt

(2) 4.8 kg-wt
(3) 5 kg-wt
(4) 1.0 kg-wt

SECTION B

36. In the given figure, tension in string AB is 37. A ball of mass 0.5 kg, moving with velocity
ˆ ˆ
m/s, is caught by a fielder. If the
(2 i + 2 j )

ball comes to rest in 1.414 s, then the

magnitude of average force applied on the
ball is
(1) 2 N
(2) 1
N
2

(3) 4 N
(1) 50 N (4) 1 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 50√–3N 38. A rocket of total mass 4500 kg is set for
– vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 900 m/s
(4) 100√3 N
with respect to the rocket. To give an initial
upward acceleration of 20 m/s2 , the mass of
gas ejected per second should be (g = 10
m/s2 )
(1) 50 kg/s
(2) 100 kg/s
(3) 150 kg/s
(4) 200 kg/s

6
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

39. A body of mass m rests on a horizontal floor. 43. The reading of spring balance as shown in
The coefficient of static friction between floor figure is [g = 10 m/s2 ]
and body is μ. The minimum possible force
that has to be applied to make the body
move is
(1) μ mg
(2) (√− −−−−
2
μ + 1 ) mg

(3) μ mg

2
√μ +1

(4) mg

2
√μ +1

(1) 30 N
(2) 20 N
40. A force F = 20 t (where t is time) is applied
on a block of mass 20 kg kept on rough (3) 40 N
surface (μ = 0.6) at rest. The value of force of (4) 10 N
friction at t = 5 s is

44. A block of mass 10 kg is moving on a rough

horizontal surface as shown in figure. At t =
0, velocity of block is 10 m/s towards left and
(1) 120 N a constant force F = 10 N acts horizontally
towards right. Acceleration of the block at t =
(2) 100 N
3 s is (g = 10 m s–2 )
(3) 140 N
(4) 180 N

41. A particle of mass 2 kg is initially moving

with velocity 5 m/s. A force acts on it whose
magnitude changes with time as shown in
graph. The velocity of particle at t = 6 s is
(1) 5 m s–2
(2) 4 m s–2
(3) Zero
(4) 2 m s–2

45. →
ˆ ˆ
A force F = ( i + 4j ) N acts on a block
as shown in the figure. The force of friction
(1) 25 m/s acting on the block is
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 35 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

42. A : Friction always decreases the speed of

body.
R : Friction always opposes the motion of
(1) ˆ
N
body. −i

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) ˆ

−1.8 i N
the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) ˆ
N
the assertion −2.4 i

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (4) ˆ

−3 i N
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

7
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

46. A block of mass 1 kg is placed on the 48. In the figure shown, the tension in strings are
periphery of a rotating rough circular table of T1 and T2 for figure (1) and (2), respectively
radius 50 cm as shown in the figure. Angular and acceleration of mass m are a1 and a2
velocity of the table is 4 rad/s. The minimum for figure (1) and (2) respectively. Select the
value of coefficient of friction between the correct option.
contact such that there is no relative slipping
is (g = 10 m/s2 )

(1) 0.8
(2) 1.6 (1) T1 > T2 and a2 > a1
(3) 0.4 (2) T2 > T1 and a1 > a2
(4) 0.2 (3) T1 > T2 and a1 > a2
(4) T2 > T1 and a2 > a1
47. A block has been placed on an inclined
plane. The slope angle θ of the plane is
such that the block slides down the plane at 49. A Van is moving with an acceleration g m/s2 .
a constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic A man in side the Van drops a coin outside
friction is equal to the window. If mass of the coin is m then net
(1) sinθ force acting on the coin just after release will
be
(2) cosθ
(1) mg
(3) cotθ –
(2) mg√2
(4) tanθ
(3) 0
(4) 2mg

50. A particle is moving in a circular path having

acceleration
→ 2 →
ˆ ˆ
a = (4 i + 3 j ) m/s and momentum p

ˆ ˆ
= 8 i − 6j kg m/s
at a given instant. Then which of the
following is correct?
(1) Particle is performing uniform circular
motion
(2) Particle is speeding up
(3) Particle is slowing down
(4) Particle will leave the circular path

8
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

CHEMISTRY

SECTION A

51. Which of the following is not a valid 53. Which among the following is not a
resonating structure of the Aniline? heterocyclic compound?
(1) (1)

(2)
(2)

(3)

(3)
(4)

(4)

54. The common technique used to separate

liquids chloroform and aniline is
(1) Sublimation
52. Identify the functional group which is not (2) Steam distillation
present in the following compound
(3) Distillation
(4) Differential extraction

55. Number of 1° hydrogen atoms present in n-

butane is
(1) 6
(1) Ester (2) 4
(2) Ether (3) 10
(3) Alcohol (4) 3
(4) Ketone
56. The most stable carbocation among the
following is
(1) CH2 = CH+
(2)

(3)

(4)

9
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

57. 63. The correct order of stability of following free

radicals is

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(1) I > II > III
(3) Functional isomers
(2) III > II > I
(4) Metamers
(3) III > I > II
(4) II > I > III
58. The IUPAC name of the following compound
is
64. 2-pentyne and 1, 3-pentadiene are
(1) Position isomers
(2) Metamers
(3) Functional isomers
(1) 6-Methylhepta-2,5-dienoic acid
(4) Chain isomers
(2) 5-Methylhexa-2,4-dienoic acid
(3) 2-Methylhepta-2,5-dien-7-oic acid
65. Number of tertiary carbon atom(s) in tertiary
(4) 2-Methylhepta-2,5-dien-6-oic acid butyl alcohol is
(1) 1
59. Which of the following species does not (2) 2
behave as a nucleophile?
(3) 0
(1) C2 H4
(4) 4
(2) NH3
(3) B2 H6 66. The hybridisation of nitrogen in pyrrole is
(4) Cl– (1) sp3
(2) sp2
60. In which effect, the polarity is produced in (3) sp
the molecule by the interaction of two π-
(4) sp3 d
bonds or between a π-bond and lone pair of
electrons present on adjacent atom?
(1) Inductive effect 67. The IUPAC name of the compound having
(2) Mesomeric effect the formula CH ≡ C—CH = CH2 is
(3) Electromeric effect (1) 1-butene-3-yne
(4) Hyperconjugation effect (2) 3-butene-1-yne
(3) 1-butyn-3-ene
61. The common technique used to separate (4) but-1-yne-3-ene
liquids chloroform and aniline is
(1) Sublimation 68. Kjeldahl method for the estimation of
(2) Steam distillation nitrogen is applicable for
(3) Distillation (1) All of these
(4) Differential extraction (2)

62. The intermediate formed in the electrophilic

addition of HBr to propene is a
(1) Carbocation (3)
(2) Carbanion
(3) Carbene
(4) Free radical (4)

10
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

69. If an organic compound contains both S and 75. Most stable species among the following is
N, then during Lassaigne’s test, the colour (1) C⋅

H( CH )
formed is 3 2

(1) Black (2) ˙

CH3 CH2
(2) Blue (3) ˙
CH3
(3) Pink
(4) ⋅

(4) Blood red C( CH3 )

3

70. CH3 COCH3 and CH3 CH2 CHO are 76. The structure of neopentyl group is
(1) Position isomers (1)
(2) Functional isomers
(3) Chain isomers (2)
(4) Geometric isomers
(3)
71. β-elimination is not possible in
(1) (CH3 )3 CCH2 Br
(4)
(2) (CH3 )3 CBr
(3) (CH3 )2 CHBr
(4) (CH3 )2 CHCH2 Br

72. The C – Cl bond length is shortest in 77. Kjeldahl's method for detection of nitrogen in
organic compounds can be used in case of
(1)
(1)

(2)
(2) CH3 – CH2 – Cl
(3)
(3)

(4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl (4)

73.
The IUPAC name of is 78. Correct IUPAC name of the compound

(1) 1-Propyl-3-ethyl-5-methylcyclohexane is
(2) 1-Ethyl-3-methyl-5-propylcyclohexane
(3) 1-Methyl-3-propyl-5-ethylcyclohexane (1) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclohexane
(4) 1-Methyl-3-ethyl-5-propylcyclohexane (2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
74. In which effect the polarity is produced in the (4) 5-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
molecule by the interaction of two π-bonds
or between a π-bond and lone pair of
electrons present on adjacent atom? 79. Out of the given substituent groups, which
(1) Inductive effect one shows +R effect?
(1) – COOH
(2) Mesomeric effect
(2) – NH2
(3) Electromeric effect
(4) Hyperconjugation effect (3) > C = O
(4) – CN

11
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

80. While testing for halogens, nitric acid is 83. Most common name of C6 H5 NH2 is
added to Lassaigne’s extract to decompose (1) Cyclohexylamine
(1) Sodium fluoride and sodium sulphide (2) Phenylamine
(2) Sodium cyanide and sodium sulphate (3) Benzylamine
(3) Sodium chloride and sodium sulphate (4) Aniline
(4) Sodium cyanide and sodium sulphide

84. Out of given carbocations, most stable one

81. The hybridisation state of negatively is
⊝

charged carbon atom in CH3 − CH2 is (1) +

CH2 = CH
(1) sp (2) +

(2) sp2 CH3 − CH2

(3) sp3 (3) +

CH3 − CH − CH3
(4) sp3 d (4) +

CH3

82. Which of the following free radical C-atom is

sp3 hybridised? 85. Phosphate ion in a solution in the presence
of HNO3 can be identified by using
(1) ∙
CF3 (1) Sodium nitroprusside
(2) ∙
(2) Ammonium molybdate
CH3

(3) ∙ (3) Lead acetate

CH3 − CH − CH3 (4) AgNO3
(4) All of these

SECTION B

86. Which among the following is the most

stable carbanion?
(1) (CH3 ) ¯ ¯
¯
C
3

(2) ¯
¯
( CH3 CO) C
¯
3

(3) ¯
¯
( CH3 O) C
¯
3

(4) ¯¯
¯
CH3 CH2

87. Consider the following compounds

Keto-enol tautomerism is shown by

(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

12
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

88. Most stable carbocation is 90. Which among the given molecules can
(1) exhibit tautomerism?
(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3) (4)

91. In which of the following compounds, C-Br

bond ionization will give most stable
carbonium ion?
(1) (CH3 )3 C – Br

(4) (2)

(3)

(4)

89. The most stable ion among the following is 92. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of
(1) nitrogen present in a compound, the
ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample is
neutralized by 100 ml of 0.1 M H2 SO4 . The
(2) percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(1) 31.58%
(3) (2) 41.48%
(3) 26.42%
(4) 37.33%
(4)

93. In estimation of sulphur, 0.314 g of an

organic compound gave 0.9626 g of barium
sulphate (BaSO4 = 233). What is the
percentage of sulphur in the compound?
(1) 21%
(2) 42.1%
(3) 10.5%
(4) 14.5%

13
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

94. Group showing highest ‘–I’ effect in the 98. Given:

following is
(1) –Cl
(2) –NO2 (I)
(3) –CN
(4) ⊕

−NH3

95. Number of carbon atoms having sp (II)

hybridization in the given molecule is
CH3 − C ≡ C − CH = CH2

(1) 2
(2) 3 (III)
(3) 4
Which of the given compounds can exhibit
(4) 5
tautomerism?
(1) I and II only
96. Most stable free radical among the following (2) II and III only
is
(3) I and III only
(1) C
˙
( CH )
3 3 (4) I, II and III
(2) ˙
CH3

(3) ˙
CH( CH3 )
99. Statement (I): Adsorption chromatography
2
is based of the fact that different compounds
(4) ∙
are adsorbed on an adsorbent to different
CH2 CH3
degrees.
Statement (II): Silica gel or alumna can be
97. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, used as adsorbent in thin layer
0.2 g of an organic compound gave 0.15 g of chromatography.
AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the In the light of above statements, choose the
compound will be (Atomic masses of Ag and most appropriate answer from the options
Br respectively are 108 u and 80 u) given below.
(1) 31.9% (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(2) 62.5% incorrect
(3) 39.5% (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct
(4) 26.2%
(3) Both statement I and statement II are
correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect

100. IUPAC name of

is
(1) 2-Chloro-1,5-dinitrobenzene
(2) 1-Choro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
(3) 1-Chloro-4,6-dinitrobenzene
(4) 4-chloro-1,3-dinitrobenzene

14
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

BOTANY

SECTION A

101. In 1770, who performed experiments that 107. Which of the following statements is not true
revealed the essential role of air in the for chlorophyll a?
growth of green plants? (1) It works as shield pigment
(1) Joseph Priestley (2) It is bright or blue-green in
(2) Jan Ingenhousz chromatogram
(3) T. W. Engelmann (3) It is the primary photosynthetic pigment
(4) Cornelius van Niel (4) It works as reaction centre in the
photosystem
102. In chloroplasts, the enzyme that catalyse the
reduction of NADP+ to NADPH + H+ is 108. The range of photosynthetically active
located radiation is
(1) In the lumen of thylakoid (1) 390 – 760 Å
(2) On the inner side of inner membrane (2) 400 – 700 nm
(3) In between the outer and inner (3) 400 – 700 Å
membrane (4) 360 – 590 nm
(4) On the stroma side of the thylakoid
membrane 109. Pigment system I is found in
(1) Grana lamellae only
103. Light reaction does not yield (2) Stroma lamellae only
(1) ATP (3) Both grana and inner membrane of
(2) FADH2 chloroplast
(3) NADPH (4) Both grana and stroma lamellae
(4) O2
110. To make one molecule of glucose how many
NADPH molecules are required?
104. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so
because (1) 12
(1) It occurs in dark only (2) 8
(2) It does not require light energy directly (3) 18
(3) It cannot occur during day time (4) 6
(4) It does not use reducing power
111. According to chemiosmotic theory, ATP
synthesis requires all, except
105. Which of the following is not an external
factor that influences the photosynthesis in (1) Electron gradient
plants? (2) Proton gradient
(1) Orientation of leaves (3) Proton pump
(2) Atmospheric concentration of CO2 (4) ATP synthase
(3) Temperature
(4) Availability of sunlight 112. The primary CO2 acceptor molecule of C3
cycle is
106. Select the cell organelle which is not (1) Five-carbon ketose sugar
involved in photorespiration. (2) Four-carbon ketose sugar
(1) Mitochondria (3) Five-carbon aldose sugar
(2) Chloroplast (4) Four-carbon aldose sugar
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome

15
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

113. The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 pathway is 118. Select the rightly defined option.
(1) A 3-Carbon molecule (1) Carboxylation – Formation of glucose
(2) A C4 acid (2) Reduction – Photolysis of water
(3) A 5-Carbon Ketose sugar (3) Regeneration of RUBP – Fixation of
CO2
(4) A 2-Carbon compound
(4) Photophosphorylation – Synthesis of
ATP in presence of light
114. The reaction centre chlorophyll a molecule
in PS – II has an absorption maxima at
(1) 700 nm 119. If we provide artificial light to plant:
(2) 400 nm (1) Chlorophyll is destroyed

(3) 680 nm (2) There will be no photosynthesis

(4) 200 nm (3) Photosynthesis will occur
(4) Dark reaction is inhibited

115. Identify the wrongly matched pair with

regard to C4 cycle? 120. A : Chlorophyll 'a' is the chief pigment
associated with photosynthesis.
(1) Primary CO2 fixation enzyme –
R : Chlorophyll 'b', xanthophylls and
RuBisCO carotenoids are called accessory pigments.
(2) Site of initial carboxylation – Mesophyll (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
cells the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) Exemplified by – Sugarcane the assertion
(4) Primary CO2 acceptor – PEP (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
116. A : Chlorophyll a is bright or blue green
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
coloured pigment in the chromatogram.
is false
R : In PS I, the reaction centre chlorophyll a
has an absorption peak at 700 nm. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and statements
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion 121. Productivity and yields are much better in C4
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but plants in comparison to C3 plants probably
the reason is not the correct because of
explanation of the assertion (1) High transpiration
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) More guttation
is false
(3) Lack of photorespiration
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (4) High photorespiration rate

117. Match the following columns. 122. How many ATPs are consumed by C4 -plants
Column I Column II in fixation of 2 CO2 molecules?
Joseph Experimented on (1) 5
a. (i)
Pristley Cladophora (2) 30
T. W. Experimented on (3) 10
b. (ii)
Engelmann Hydrilla (4) 6
Showed that chlorophyll
Cornelius
c. (iii) is located in
van Niel 123. During photorespiration, release of CO2
chloroplasts
occurs in
Julius von
d. (iv) Discovered oxygen (1) Chloroplast
Sachs
Inferred that source of (2) Mitochondria
Jan
e. (v) evolved O2 is water (3) Peroxisome
Ingenhousz
during photosynthesis (4) Lysosome
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(v), d(iii), e(ii)
(2) a(iv), b(v), c(i), d(ii), e(iii)
(3) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii), e(ii)
(4) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(ii), e(iii)

16
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

124. All of the following are favourable conditions 131. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was
for non-cyclic phosphorylation to operate, described by using alga
except (1) Chlorella
(1) Optimum light (2) Spirogyra
(2) Availability of light wavelengths beyond (3) Cladophora
680 nm only
(4) Chlamydomonas
(3) Presence of CO2
(4) Aerobic conditions
132. A : Water stress reduces CO2 availability in
plants.
125. Which of the following is not a C4 acid? R : Water stress causes the stomata to close.
(1) Oxaloacetic acid (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Malic acid
the assertion
(3) Pyruvic acid
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(4) Aspartic acid the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
126. Optimum temperature for bell pepper plant is (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(1) 20 - 25°C is false
(2) 15 - 20°C (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(3) 10 - 15°C
(4) 35 - 40°C
133. The optimum range of temperature for
photosynthesis in C4 plant is A and for C3
127. Which of these does not affect the rate of ¯
¯¯¯¯¯
photosynthesis? plant is B .
¯¯¯¯¯¯
(1) Light quality Select the correct option for A and B.
(2) Duration of light A B
(3) Photosynthetic products accumulation (1) 20 – 25°C 30 – 45°C
(4) Concentration of CO2 (2) 30 – 35°C 50 – 55°C
(3) 50 – 55°C 30 – 35°C
128. A : PS I and PS II are named in the (4) 30 – 45°C 20 – 25°C
sequence of their discovery (1) (1)
R : PS I has been discovered first and then (2) (2)
PS II
(3) (3)
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (4) (4)
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 134. All the given plants lack scotoactive stomata,
the reason is not the correct except
explanation of the assertion (1) Maize
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) Wheat
is false
(3) Tomato
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (4) Bryophyllum

129. "At high light intensity, increase in 135. Photorespiration is negligible at high light
CO2 concentration increases the rate of intensities in
photosynthesis”. It is maximum in (1) Triticum aestivum
(1) Tomato (2) Zea mays
(2) Amaranthus (3) Glycine max
(3) Maize (4) Oryza sativa
(4) Sugarcane

130. In C2 cycle, glycine is produced in

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Glyoxysome

17
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

SECTION B

136. Photosystem I is 144. The assimilatory power(s) produced in cyclic

(1) Found in both grana and stroma photophosphorylation is/are
lamellae (1) ATP only
(2) Associated with splitting of water (2) NADPH only
(3) Involved only in non-cyclic flow of (3) Both ATP and NADPH
electrons (4) ATP and NADH
(4) A complex formed of LHC only
145. The most abundant enzyme on the Earth is
137. RuBisCO enzyme is present in all, except (1) RuBisCO
(1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants (2) NADP reductase
(2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants (3) PEPcase
(3) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants (4) ATP synthase
(4) In CAM plants
146. Phosphoenolpyruvate is
138. The first stable product in C4 pathway is (1) Primary CO2 acceptor in rice plant
(1) PGA (2) Last product of glycolysis
(2) OAA (3) An intermediate of Krebs cycle
(3) Triose phosphate (4) Primary CO2 acceptor in Hatch-Slack
(4) Phosphoglycolate cycle

139. During reduction step of Calvin cycle 147. Who found that green parts of plants
synthesise glucose and then it is usually
(1) ATP and NADPH are formed
stored as starch?
(2) Carboxylation of RuBP occurs (1) Julius von Sachs
(3) ATP and NADPH are utilised (2) Joseph Priestley
(4) CO2 acceptor molecule is produced (3) Jan Ingenhousz
(4) Cornelius van Niel
140. Which one is odd w.r.t. C4 plants?
(1) Sugarcane 148. The energy required to synthesise one
(2) Sorghum molecule of glucose in Calvin cycle is
(3) Amaranthus (1) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
(4) Tomato (2) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH
(3) 12 ATP and 18 NADPH
141. The enzyme responsible for the initial (4) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
fixation of CO2 in C4 plants is
(1) PGA 149. Which of the following is not common in C3
(2) PEP carboxylase and C4 plants?
(3) RuBisCo (1) Calvin cycle
(4) PEP synthetase (2) Carbon fixation
(3) Krebs cycle
142. The primary CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle is (4) Photorespiration
(1) Five-carbon ketose sugar
(2) Acetyl CoA 150. Which of the given is not a assimilatory
(3) Three-carbon ketose sugar power for dark reaction?
(4) Citric acid (1) ATP
(2) NADPH
(3) CO2
143. Law of limiting factors was given by
(1) Hatch and Slack (4) Both ATP & NADPH
(2) Blackman
(3) Melvin Calvin
(4) Joseph Priestley

18
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

ZOOLOGY

SECTION A

151. The articular surface of scapula with which 157. Type of joint in humans that does not help in
the head of humerus interacts to form the locomotion and other movements, is
shoulder joint is (1) Hinge joint
(1) Glenoid cavity (2) Gliding joint
(2) Acromion process (3) Cartilaginous joint
(3) Clavicular notch (4) Fibrous joint
(4) Acetabulum
158. About ___ percent of the body weight of a
152. Mark the odd one out from the following human adult is contributed by muscles.
(1) Lacrimal bones Choose the option that fills the blank
correctly.
(2) Ethmoid bone
(1) 40-50
(3) Zygomatic bones
(2) 30-40
(4) Palatine bones
(3) 60-70
(4) 50-90
153. Number of bicephalic, vertebrochondral ribs
in man is
(1) Seven pairs 159. What is the total number of cranial and facial
bones in an adult human?
(2) Twelve
(1) 29
(3) Ten pairs
(2) 22
(4) Six
(3) 80
(4) 126
154. Which of the following is the incorrect
description of pelvic girdle?
(1) It consists of two coxal bones 160. Select the correct set in options given
below that represents, contractile proteins of
(2) Socket acetabulam interacts with head
skeletal muscles.
of femur through ball and socket joint
(1) Tropomyosin and Myosin
(3) Its two halves meet dorsally to form
pubic symphysis (2) Myosin and actin
(4) It is the site for articulation of thigh bone (3) Troponin and meromyosin
(4) Tropomyosin and troponin
155. Repeated activation of muscle can lead to
accumulation of lactic acid to cause muscle 161. How many thoracic vertebrae are present in
fatigue. This lactic acid is produced due to an adult human?
(1) Aerobic breakdown of glycogen (1) 5
(2) Creatine phosphate (2) 12
(3) Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen (3) 7
(4) Increase in ATP (4) 9

156. The sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibres 162. Which of the following proteins has binding
is the store house mainly of sites for ATP and active sites for actin?
(1) Sodium ions (1) Actin
(2) Calcium ions (2) Myosin
(3) Magnesium ions (3) Troponin
(4) Potassium ions (4) Tropomyosin

19
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

163. Myosin protein is 170. Which of the following is a U-shaped bone of

(1) Formed of single unit of HMM and LMM skull present at the base of the buccal
cavity?
(2) A polymerised meromyosin protein
(1) Mandible
(3) Formed of tropomyosin and
meromyosin (2) Hyoid
(4) Helically coiled polymer of tropomyosin (3) Occipital
(4) Ethmoid
164. Acetabulum articulates with
(1) Scapula through acromion process 171. Bones of lower limb do not include
(2) Radius through humerus (1) Carpals
(3) Femur, the thigh bone (2) Phalanges
(4) Clavicle through scapula (3) Metatarsals
(4) Tarsals
165. In human body, which cells show
pseudopodial movements? 172. Flagellar movement is exhibited in/by all
(1) Hepatocytes and erythrocytes except
(2) Macrophages and leucocytes (1) Spermatozoa
(3) Leucocytes and spermatozoa (2) Euglena
(4) Macrophages and thrombocytes (3) Sponges
(4) Oviduct
166. Select the odd one w.r.t. axial skeleton
(1) Ear ossicles 173. Low concentration of calcium in the body
fluids may be a cause of
(2) Cranium
(1) Angina pectoris
(3) Sternum
(2) Anaemia
(4) Clavicle
(3) Tetany
(4) Gout
167. A genetic disorder in which progressive
degeneration of skeletal muscle occurs is
(1) Gout 174. Identify the neurotransmitter that crosses the
neuromuscular junction
(2) Osteoporosis
(1) Acetylcholine
(3) Muscular dystrophy
(2) Adrenaline (epinephrine)
(4) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Noradrenaline(norepinephrine)
(4) Calcium
168. Complete the analogy and choose the
correct option.
Joint between the carpal and metacarpal of 175. In a resting muscle, the central part of thick
thumb : Saddle joint :: Joint between the filament in a sarcomere is not overlapped by
carpals : ___ thin filament. This central part is called
(1) Saddle joint (1) H – zone
(2) Gliding joint (2) Z – line
(3) Hinge joint (3) I– band
(4) Ellipsoid joint (4) A – band

169. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of 176. Among the following, which bone is not a
uric acid crystals results in part of pelvic girdle?
(1) Osteoporosis (1) Ilium
(2) Gout (2) Clavicle
(3) Tetany (3) Pubis
(4) Tetanus (4) Ischium

20
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

177. Muscle fibres cannot be 182. The time delay between stimulation and the
distinguished/classified using which onset of contraction in muscle is called
criteria? (1) Latent period
(1) Location (2) Relative refractory period
(2) Elasticity (3) Absolute refractory period
(3) Appearance (4) Tetany
(4) Nature of regulation of their activities
183. Each fasciculus of the skeletal muscles in
178. Which of the following bones of forelimb and our body are immediately covered by a
hindlimb are unequal in number? connective tissue layer called
Forelimb Hindlimb (1) Perimysium
(1) Phalanges – Phalanges (2) Epimysium
(3) Sarcolemma
(2) Metacarpals – Metatarsals
(4) Endomysium
(3) Carpals – Tarsals
(4) Humerus – Femur
184. During muscle contraction
(1) (1) (1) Chemical energy is changed into
(2) (2) mechanical energy
(3) (3) (2) Mechanical energy is changed into
chemical energy
(4) (4)
(3) Temperature of muscle decreases
(4) Hydrolysis of ATP does not occur
179. Property common to muscular and neural
tissues is
(1) Elasticity 185. The cranial bone that has a depression
(2) Extensibility called sella tursica which harbours pituitary
gland is
(3) Contractility
(1) Temporal
(4) Excitability
(2) Sphenoid
(3) Ethmoid
180. Globular regulatory protein of skeletal
(4) Occipital
muscle fibres is
(1) Tropomyosin
(2) Myosin
(3) Actin
(4) Troponin

181. G-actins polymerise to form F-actin chiefly in

the presence of
(1) Na+
(2) K+
(3) Mg2+
(4) Ca2+

SECTION B

186. The cross bridge formation during muscle 187. Read the following statements carefully and
contraction occurs just after select the incorrect option w.r.t. visceral
(1) Neurotransmitters are released at the muscle fibres
neuromuscular junction (1) They are located in the wall of the
(2) Release of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm alimentary canal.
(2) They do not show any striations.
(3) Hydrolysis of ADP by the globular head
of myosin that acts as ATPase (3) They are uninucleated and exhibit slow
contractions.
(4) Binding of Ca2+ to a subunit of troponin
(4) They are voluntary as their functions
can be directly controlled by our will.

21
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

188. Identify A, B, C and D in the following given 190. Each A has many parallely arranged
structure of myosin monomer. ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
B . Fill the blanks A and B with a
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
suitable option.
(1) A-Myofibril, B-Neurofibrils
(2) A-Myofibril, B-Muscle fibres
(3) A-Muscle fibre, B-Neurofibrils
(4) A-Muscle fibre, B-Myofibrils
Choose the option which represents A, B, C
and D correctly.
191. According to sliding filament theory
A B C D (1) Thick filaments slide over thin filaments
ATP (2) Thin filaments slide over thick filaments
Cross
(1) Head binding Tail
arm (3) Both the filaments slide towards the H-
sites
zone
Actin ATP (4) Contraction of only thick filament
Short Cross
(2) binding binding occurs
arm arm
sites sites
Actin
Short Cross 192. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Cori's
(3) Head binding
arm arm cycle.
site
(1) About 4/5th of the lactic acid is
ATP
Globular converted to liver glycogen
(4) binding Short arm Tail
head (2) Applicable only to smooth muscles
sites
(1) (1) (3) About 1/5th of lactic acid is oxidised to
CO2 and water
(2) (2)
(3) (3) (4) Lactic acid is producted as a result of
anaerobic breakdown of muscle
(4) (4) glycogen

189. Match column I with column II and choose 193. How many of the given features are correct
the correct option w.r.t red muscle fibres?
Column-I Column-II a. Mitochondria are abundant
Thin fibrous b. The red colour of fibres is due to
membrane, holding myoglobin
a. (i) Z-Disc c. These muscle fibres have a fast rate of
thick filaments
together contraction for short periods
Invaginations of the d. Eye ball muscles are rich in red muscle
sarcolemma from fibres
b. the surface toward (ii) A-band (1) One
the centre of the (2) Two
muscle fibre (3) Three
Synapse between a (4) Four
c. motor neuron & a (iii) M-line
muscle fibre
Area in the 194. Knee cap i.e. patella is an example of
sarcomere where (1) Sesamoid bone
d. (iv) T-tubules
both thick & thin (2) Dermal bone
filaments are found
(3) Cartilaginous bone
Neuromuscular
(v) (4) Visceral bone
junction
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(v), d(iii)
195. The extra O2 consumed to remove the
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(v), d(i)
excess lactate and to replenish ATP stores,
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(ii) after a period of muscle exertion, is known
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) as
(1) Aerobic glycolysis
(2) Anaerobic glycolysis
(3) Oxygen debt
(4) Rigor mortis

22
REVISION TEST 07 CFOYM FBD

196. Number of glenoid cavity(ies) associated 198. Read the following statements A and B and
with pectoral girdle is/are choose the correct answer.
(1) One A: Movements and locomotions can be
studied separately
(2) Three
B: All movements are locomotions but all
(3) Two locomotions are not movements
(4) Zero (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
197. Find out the correct option w.r.t. cervical (3) Both statements A and B are correct
vertebrae (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
A. The seventh cervical vertebra is ring like,
lacks centrum and neural canal.
B. In all mammals, number of cervical 199. Mark the odd one out w.r.t. paired skull
vertebrae are seven. bones
C. In case of humans, first, second and (1) Parietal
seventh cervical vertebrae are atypical.
(2) Temporal
D. In humans, the atlas rotates on the
odontoid peg of the axis. (3) Hyoid
(1) A, C & D (4) Zygomatic
(2) A, B & D
(3) B, C & D 200. Release of which of the following helps in
(4) C & D only relaxation of a skeletal muscle fibre?
(1) Calcium
(2) Acetylcholine
(3) Acetylcholinesterase
(4) Dopamine

23