Pre Board Reviewer

CRIMINOLOGY 2 Theories of Crime Causation
1. It refers to a theory which claims to be able to determine character, personality traits and criminality on
the basis of the shape of the head?
 Phrenology
2. These theories of criminality basically purport that criminal behavior is the result of some flaw in the
biological makeup of the individual. This refers to:
 Biological Theories
3. It is an indeterminate factor in mobilizing the criminal act. As each person has a unique psychological
make-up, it follows that only he can achieve a particular aim in a given environment.
 Situation
4. This study has linked medical and moral deviance and fused the new Mendelian laws with the Old biblical
injunctions that “the sins of the fathers shall be visited in the sons.” The study refers to:
 Study of Kallikak Family Tree
5. What is a generic term of crime which is punishable by the special law such as Republic Act and
Presidential Decree?
 Offense
6. The main notion of this school is “Let the punishment fit the criminal.”
 Classical school of criminology
7. It involved weighing of pleasure versus pain?

 Hedonistic Calculus / Utility
8. Who is the main advocate of Classical school?

 Cesare Beccaria
9. What is the fundamental notion of Neo-classical school?

 Let the children and lunatic criminals be exempted from punishment
10. What perspective claimed that crime is product of socialization or interaction of one person to other
person, and crime is a function of upbringing, learning and control?
 Process
11. According to this theory, potential delinquents and criminals master techniques that enable them to
counterbalance or neutralize conventional values and drift back and forth between illegitimate and
conventional behavior.
 Neutralization Theory
12. This principle explains that people’s contacts with their most intimate social companions – family, friends,
and peers – have the greatest influence on their deviant behavior and attitude development.
 Learning occurs within intimate groups.
13. The quotation “Tell me who your friends are and I will tell you who u are” can be best associated to what
theory?
 Differential Association Theory
14. It is a theory of learning process and social behavior which proposes that new behaviors can be acquired
by observing and imitating others.
 Social Learning Theory
15. What school presumed that criminal behavior is caused by internal and external factors outside of the
individual’s?
 Positivist School
16. This theory links criminal acts to the formation of independent subcultures with a unique set of values
that clash with the main stream culture. It argues that offender learn deviant behavior socially through
exposure to others and modelling of other’s action.
 Culture Deviance Theory
17. What perspective expressed that criminal behaviour, was the product of “unconscious” forces operating
within a person’s mind?
 Psychological
18. According to this theory disorganized areas cannot exert identifies by their relatively high level of change,
fear, instability, poverty, and deterioration and these factors have direct influence on the areas delinquency
rate.
 Social disorganization theory
19. This theory links criminal acts to the formation of independent subcultures with a unique set of values
that clash with the main stream culture;
 Culture deviance theory
20. This theory proposed that through interaction with others, individuals learn the values, attitude,
techniques and motive for criminal behavior;
 Differential association theory
21. This theory believe that crime is a product of learning norms, values and behaviors associated with
criminal activity;
 Social learning
22. This theory proposed that deviance is socially constructed through reaction instead of action;
 Labeling theory
23. This theory occurs when behavior is reinforced by being either rewarded or punished while interacting
with others;
 Differential reinforcement theory
24. This theory viewed that process of becoming as a learning experience in which potential delinquents
and criminals master techniques that enable counterbalance conventional values and drift, back and forth,
between illegitimate and conventional behavior;
 Neutralization theory
25. This theory maintained that person pursues criminal behavior to the extent that it identifies himself with
a real or imaginary person from whose perspective his criminal behavior seems acceptable;
 Differential identification theory
26. It arose during the French revolution with the modification that children, lunatics, and others were not
legally responsible for their actions;
 Neo classical school
27. Political and economic forces as the causes of crimes are under the?
 Conflict perspective
28. A standard model of decision-making whereby individuals choose between criminal activity and legal
activity on the basis of expected utility from those acts.
 Economic Model of Criminal Behavior
29. In this technique of neutralization, the criminal argues that it is unfair for them to be blamed for the crime
and that they are being persecuted or punished out of spite.
 Condemnation of Condemners
30. Under the theory of Karl Marx, this pertains to the economic system based on the private ownership of
the means of production and their operation for profit.
 Capitalism
31. Under the economic model of criminal behavior, what is the primary consideration in involving oneself
in criminal activity?
 The expected gains
32. This pertains to the group of people under the Marxist socialist system who are composed of the inferior
class.
 Peasants
33. It is a political pamphlet by the German philosophers Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels which described
the way of life under the capitalist system.
 Communist Manifesto
34. According to this theory, criminality is a function brought about by inequities found in the capitalist
system.
 Karl Marx Theory
35. It refers to the group of people under the capitalist society as the owners of the means of production
who has the power to control the production of goods.
 Bourgeoisie
36. A term used to describe persons who were normal in all respects except that something was wrong with
the part of the brain that regulates affective responses.
A. Moral Insanity C. Aura Epileptica
B. Criminal Responsibility D. Premenstrual Syndrome
37. The following are three (3) distinct areas of study biosocial theory, EXCEPT:
 Hormonal
38. Under the theory of Karl Marx, this refers to the relationship that exist among the people producing goods
and services.
 Productive Relations
39. It argues that anyone facing such an overwhelming, negative labeling social reaction will eventually
become more like the label because that is the only way out of their identify formation.
 Labeling Theory
40. It refers to any of several psychological disorders of mood characterized usually by alternating
episodes of depression and mania.
 Manic depression
41. What is the other term of schizophrenia?
 Dementia praecox
42. According to this theory, the changes or modification of the “bio”, “psycho”, and the “socio” component
of the person affect his/her behavior.
 Biopsychosocial Model
43. It is a neurological dysfunction that prevents an individual from learning to his or her potential;
 Learning disability
44. An explanation for crime and deviance that holds that people pursue criminal or deviant behavior to the
extent that they identify themselves with real or imaginary people from whose perspective their criminal or
deviant behavior seems acceptable.
 Differential Identification Theory
45. A term used to describe persons who were normal in all respects except that something was wrong with
the part of the brain that regulates affective responses.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Moral Disorder
B. Moral Insanity D. Brain Disorder
46. It pertains to the homicidal impulse characterized by a strange morbid sensation, beginning in some part
of the body and mounting to the brain preceding an attack of epilepsy.
A. Criminal Responsibility C. Aura Epileptica
B. Moral Insanity D. Brain Disorder
47. It refers to onset of the menstrual cycle that triggers excessive amounts of the female sex hormones,
which affect antisocial, aggressive behavior.
 Premenstrual Syndrome
48. Physiognomy deals with the study of?
 Facial feature
49. A medical diagnosis based on evidence indicating that the child has been subjected to a pattern of
serious and unexplained abuse.
 Battered Child Syndrome
50. A psychological term used to describe women who are stuck within or have recently left a violent
relationship characterized by the cycle of violence.
 Battered Woman Syndrome
51. It is the stage of abuse which reinforces the woman’s hope that the relationship will get better or is at
least salvageable.
 Honeymoon Stage
52. It is in this stage that the abuser is often very loving and remorseful. Promises are made by the batterer
that he will not violently abuse the woman again.
 Loving Contrition Stage
53. It is an emotional reaction which falls between baby blues and postpartum depression.
 Postpartum Stress Syndrome
54. Who among of the following is not a proponent of strain theory?

 Merton
55. This theory viewed that some people may actually initiate the confrontation that eventually leads to their
injury or death.
 Victim precipitation theory
56. This theory argues that criminal activity occurs when an individual's attachment to society is weakened.
This attachment depends on the strength of social bonds that hold people to society.
 Social Control Theory
57. During this stage of violence, relatively minor incidents increase the tension in the relationship which
culminate the eruption of violence.
 Tension Building Stage
58. It refers to an emotional reaction which is also known as Adjustment Disorder.

59. A common temporary psychological state right after childbirth when a new mother may have sudden
mood swings, feeling very happy, then very sad, cry for no apparent reason, feel impatient, unusually
irritable, restless, anxious, lonely and sad.
 Baby Blues
60. A complex mix of physical, emotional, and behavioral changes that happen in a woman after giving birth
associated with feelings of sadness, anxiety (worry) and tiredness that last for a long time after giving birth.
 Postpartum Depression
61. A stress usually characterized by feelings of anxiety and self-doubt. The woman wants to become a
perfect mother and wife, but at the same time she feels exhausted and overwhelmed.
62. What precipitation occurs when victims act provocatively, use threats or fighting words, or even attacks
first the offenders?
 Active precipitation
63. A syndrome that does not establish the culpability of any particular person but rather indicates that a
child found with serious, repeated injuries has not suffered those injured by accidental means.
 Battered Child Syndrome
64. It suggests that people who obey the law simply to avoid punishment or who have outlooks mainly
characterized by self-interest are more likely to commit crimes than those who view the law as something
that benefits all of society and who honor the rights of others;
 Moral Development Theory
65. What is the most basic human drive present at birth?

 Eros
66. It is the theory which holds that crime is an outcome of class struggle and that crime is defined by those
in power.
 Conflict Theory
67. This theory view crime as function of the capitalist mode of production in which the rich use the fear of
crime as a tool to maintain their control over society.
 Marxist Criminology
68. It focuses on the critical analysis of communication and language in legal codes. Those in power use
their own language to define crime and law while excluding or dismissing those who are in opposition
 Post Modern Theory
69. According to this theory, crime is defined as the application of harm to others and the act of making
people “criminals” is a crime.
 Institutive-Constitutive Theory
70. According to this theory, street criminals prey on the poor, thus making the poor doubly abused, first by
the capitalist system and then by the members of their own class.
 Left Realism Theory
71. A theory which describes a communist form of government in which the power of the government is
absolute and it controls the behavior and actions of its populace.
 Conservatism
72. This theory explains that people are naturally creative and freedom-loving in which they are able to do
as they please without interference by anyone thereby resulting to moral deterioration and high crime rates
as a function of survival.
 Radicalism Theory
73. This assumes that the ideal society is one in which there is equality of opportunity and a general
consensus to accept differences in rewards as the outcomes of fair completion.
 Liberalism
74. Mr. X was a member of the known Sputnik Gang as also an associate of mayor Tumutumba. Because
of this, he doesn’t fear if he will be caught doing something against the law. What theory best explain this?
A. Conservatism Theory C. Identity Fusion Theory
B. Liberalism Theory D. Left Realism Theory
75. These ideologies assume that the ideal society is one in which authority is unquestioned. The hierarchy
of wisdom and virtue is accepted by all as based on recognizing natural inequalities.
 Conservatism
76. What precipitation occurs when the victim exhibits some personal characteristics that unknowingly
either threatens or encourages the attacker?
 Passive precipitation
77. Criminality, according to this view, cannot be attributed to a single cause, nor does it represent a single
underlying tendency because people are influenced by different factors as they mature.
 Life Course Theory
78. This theory holds that, commitment and attachment to conventional institutions, activities and beliefs
insulate youth from delinquency.
 Interactional Theory
79. This theory explains that if one of the members of the gang was killed and the other members knew who
killed their co-member then; there is a big possibility that this gang will join forces to revenge against the
killer, because each member of the gang feels that they are one family within the group.
 Identity Fusion Theory
80. According to this theory, deviance increases when there is control deficit and with excessive control.
Control imbalance represents a potential to commit crime and deviance
 Control Balance Theory
81. The type of crime committed by a certain individual is in consonance with his age or his age
governs/dictates what type of crime to be committed by him. This can be best explain by
_________________.
 Age-Graded Theory
82. This theory explains that weak bonds lead kids to develop friendships with deviant peers and get involved
in delinquency
 Interactional Theory
83. As people are into the process of transition-moving from one stage to another stage of life like from
adolescents to adulthood, along the way, he or she may experience some disruption in any of the stages
which can lead to criminal behavior. This can be best explained by __________.
 Life Course Theory
84. This theory claims that people do not change, instead criminal opportunities change. Early social control
like proper parenting can reduce criminal propensity.
 Latent Trait Theory
85. A stage of development experienced only by female children and occurs when a girl notices the
differences in male and female anatomy and longs to have a penis of her own.
 Penis Envy
86. This theory argued that the involvement in criminal activities is increased when women have different
opportunities. If female opportunity, efficiency and social communication are increased, then the rate of
criminality increases accordingly.
 Opportunity Theory
87. This theory holds that criminality among women is the result of gender inequality characterized by male
supremacy and the effort of the male to control female sexuality.
 Critical Feminist Theory
88. Argued that women are involved in crime due to the increasing participation of women in social
movements which changed role of female in family and the feelings of independence in her work and
thought.
 Theory of Masculinity
89. It refers to the quality or condition of a female being masculine or having the characteristic of the male
sex.
 Masculinity
90. The term applied to the crime carried out by women whose office jobs can be characterized as being
set on a low to medium level.
 Pink Collar Crime
91. According to this theory, women are motivated to commit crime as a rational response to poverty and
economic uncertainty that they perceive.
 Marginalization Theory
92. It mean getting involved with deviant peer groups, just “hanging out”, or frequenting bars until late into
the night and drinking heavily.
 High risk lifestyle
93. In this theory, Sigmund Freud proposes that very young girls feel deprived and envious that they do not
have a penis.
 Theory of Penis Envy
94. Who first presented victim precipitation theory and applies only to violent victimization.
 Hans Von Hentig
95. According to this theory, the fundamental causes of crime are poverty, lack of education, absence of
marketable skills, and subcultural values.
 Social Structure Theory
96. This theory asserts that a person's residential location is a substantial factor in shaping the likelihood
that that person will become involved in illegal activities
 Social Disorganization Theory
97. This theory states that the zones closest to the inner city had the highest prevalence of social ills,
notably, unemployment, poverty, reliance on social assistance, and rates of disease.
 Concentric Zones Theory
98. This contends that certain classes are denied legitimate access to culturally determined goals and
opportunities, and the resulting frustration results in illegitimate activities or rejection of the society’s goal.
 Strain Theory
99. It assumes that persons who become criminal do so because of contacts’ with criminal patterns and
isolation from non-criminal patterns.
Differential Association Theory
100. What attachment affects the capacity to be affectionate and to develop an intimate relationship with
others?
 Emotional bond
CLJ – 1
1. This pillar accepts the re-entry of the offender as law-abiding and useful citizen of society;
A. Community B. Court C. Correction D. Police
2. It is a course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a court of justice to determine
the innocence or guilt of the accused;
A. Trial B. Prosecution C. Pre-trial D. Arraignment
3. What is a judicial tribunal designed to administer justice?

A. Office of the Ombudsman C. Jury
B. Department of Justice D. Court
4. A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public order;

A. Protection C. Crowd control
B. Order maintenance D. Crime prevention
5. A local government together with society of individuals or institution refers to?

A. Family B. Religion C. Community D. Prison
6. This refers to a person convicted by a competent court for committing crime;

A. Criminal B. Law breakers C. Delinquent D. Offender
7. Which of the following is a review court and it is considered as the highest court of the land?
A. Court of Appeal C. Municipal Trial Court
B. Regional Trial Court D. Supreme Court
8. This is a special court tasked to handle graft and corruption committed by public officials or employees?
A. Ombudsman C. Sandiganbayan
B. Military Court D. Supreme Court
9. This is an attitude enjoyed given to police to use discretion whether to effect arrest or not?
A. Administration B. Management C. Authority D. Power
10. What is the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a court of justice to
determine the innocence or guilt of the accused?
A. Prosecution B. Arraignment C. Trial D. Pleadings
11. It may be viewed or defined as the system of law enforcement, adjudication, and correction that is directly
involved in the apprehension, prosecution, and control of those charged with criminal offenses”.
A. Criminal Justice B. Criminology C. Penology D.
Sociology
12. It is “the body of knowledge regarding crime as social phenomenon.

A. Criminology B. Criminal justice C. Crime D.
Sociology
13. What is the event that calls for the operation of the CJS?
A. Festival B. Crime C. Criminal D.
Disorder
14. The Sociology of Criminal Law which systematically analyzes the conditions under which penal laws
develop and explains as well the procedures used in the police agencies and courts focuses on?
A. Law Breaking C. Law Making
B. Society’s Reaction towards law breaking D. All of these
15. The Sociology of Crime and the Social Psychology of Criminal Behavior which examines economic,
social and political conditions that generates or prevents the commission of crimes focuses on?
16. The Sociology of Punishment and Correction that systematically analyses the procedures and policies
that aims to control crimes focuses on?
17. This maxim means there is no crime where no law is punishing it.
A. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege C. Actus me invito factus, non est meus actus
B.Actus non facit reum, nisi mens rea D. Mala in se
18. This principle means a crime is not committed if the mind of the person performing the act complained
be innocent.
B. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens rea D. Mala in se
19. This maxim means an act done by me against my will is not my act
B. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens rea D. Mala in se
20. This set of crimes refer to those that are naturally criminal on moral grounds.
A. Mala prohibita B. Mala in se C. Negligence D. Imprudence
21. Who has the power to define and punish crime?

A. Church B. Judiciary C. State D. Police
22. What is the process by which we use or manipulate representation or symbols?

A. Thinking B. Perceiving C. Intuition D. Imagining
23. It means as the power to try and decide, or hear and determine a cause?
A. Court B. Jurisdiction C. Jail D. Justice
24. These provides the basis for due process of law;

A. Bible B. Constitution C. Common law D. PNP Law
25. Which of these have the administrative supervision over all courts and the personnel thereof?
A. DOJB. Supreme Court C. The President D. Court of Appeal
26. The authority of the court to hear and determine a case;

A. Hearing B. Legislative power C. Decision D. Jurisdiction
27. The best interest of the child shall at all times be respected by the whom?
A. Court B. Defense C. Prosecution D. Witnesses
28. The major function of the Prosecution component of the Criminal Justice System:
A. Rehabilitate prisoners C. Represents the government in criminal cases
B. Enforce the law of the land D. Sentencing of the accused
29. The police is an agency of the ___________;

A. State B. Community C. Government D. All of these
30. The primary and major output of the Criminal Justice System is ________;
A. Law B. Justice C. Crime D. Correction
31. This set of crimes pertain to those acts that have been criminalized for regulatory purposes.
A. Mala prohibita B. Mala in se C. Negligence D.
Imprudence
32. What department of the government defines and punishes an act?

A. Executive B. Judiciary C. Legislative D. PNP
33. If a crime is punished by the Revised Penal Code, it is called ____?

A. Felony C. infraction of ordinance
B. offense D. Crime
34. In this sense, crime is defined as a voluntary and intentional violation by legally competent person of a
legal duty that commands or prohibits an act for the protection of the society
A. Criminological Sense C. Criminal Justice Sense
B. Legal Sense D. Nonsense
35. In this sense, a crime is a violation of societal rules of behavior as interpreted and expressed by a
criminal legal code created by people holding social and political power.
A. Criminological Sense C. Criminal Justice Sense
B. Legal Sense D. Nonsense
36. If a crime is punishable by special law, it is called?

A .Felony B. offense C. infraction of ordinance D. Crime
37. If a crime is punishable by an ordinance, it is called?

A. Felony B. offense C. infraction of ordinance D. Crime
38. What is the basis of the Criminal Justice System?

A. Criminology B. Penology C. Sociology D. Criminal Law
39. It is defined as that branch of public law, which defines crimes, treats of their nature, and provides for
their punishment.
A. Criminology B. Penology C. Sociology D. Criminal Law
40. It defines the elements that are necessary for an act to constitute a crime and therefore punishable.
A. Procedural Criminal Law C. Penology
B. Substantive Criminal Law D. Criminal Law
41. It refers to a statute that provides procedures appropriate for the enforcement of the Substantive
Criminal Law.
A. Procedural Criminal Law C. Penology
B. Substantive Criminal Law D. Criminal Law
42. The following are the sources of substantive criminal law in the Philippines, EXCEPT?
A. The Revised Penal Code C. Special Penal Laws
B. Presidential Decrees D. Bill of Rights of the Philippine Constitution.
43. The following are the sources of procedural criminal laws in the Philippines, EXCEPT?
A. The Bill of Rights of the Philippine Constitution.
B. The Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure; Rules of Court.
C. City or Municipal Ordinance
D. Other Rules on Criminal Procedures promulgated by the Supreme Court pursuant to its
Constitutional mandate
44. This principle means that those who are accused of crimes are considered innocent until proven
guilty. This is the fundamental assumption of our legal system that at least in theory is supposed to
exist
A. Presumption of Innocence C. Prove beyond reasonable doubt
B. Burden of Proof D. All of these
45. This principle means that the government must prove beyond reasonable doubt” that the suspect
committed the crime. Because the criminal prosecutions carry the penalty of imprisonment and even
death in some cases, the state through the prosecution is given a difficult burden.
A. Presumption of Innocence C. Prove beyond reasonable doubt
46. He is considered as the main character in the criminal justice system.

A. Victim B. Criminal C. Judge D. Police
47. In this sense, a person may be considered as a criminal from the time he or she committed the
crime regardless whether or not it has been referred or reported to the police for investigation
A. legal sense C. criminal justice sense
B. criminological sense D. all of these
48. In this sense, a person may be considered a criminal only upon undergoing the judicial process and
upon determination by the Court that he or she is guilty beyond reasonable doubt.
A. legal sense C. criminal justice sense
49. In this sense, a criminal may be defined as one who has undergone the process and went through
all the pillars of the Criminal Justice System.
A. Legal sense C. criminal justice sense
50. At the police stage, during investigation, the person who is being processed under the CJS is called?
A. Suspect B. Respondent C. Accused D. Criminal
51. At the Prosecutors office, during the determination of probable cause or during the Preliminary
Investigation, the person who is being processed under the CJS is called?
A. Suspect B. Respondent C. Accused D. Convict
52. Once the Court has determined that the accused is guilty beyond reasonable doubt as charged and the
judgement has been rendered, he is referred to as the _______?
53. At the trial of the case, when a case has been filed in Court, he is referred to as the________?
54. It is only upon undergoing all the process when the person has served the sentence when he can really be
considered as a ____________?
A. Suspect B. Respondent C. Accused D. Criminal
55. It does not mean such a degree of proof as, excluding the possibility of error, produces absolute certainty.
Moral certainty is only required, or that degree of proof which produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind.
A. Presumption of Innocence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
56. What is the basic ingredient of criminal due process?

A. trial B. arraignment C. judgment D. Correction
57. It refers to the observance of Rules of Criminal Procedure issued by the Supreme Court of the Philippines
and the Bills of Rights embodied under Article III of the Philippine Constitution, and other statutes.
A. Adversarial approach C. Criminal due process
B. Inquisitorial approach D. Criminal justice system
58. In this philosophical approach, the accused must prove that they are innocent.
59. In this approach, the prosecutor representing the state must prove the guilt of the accused
60. When the police are acting as the enforcer, prosecutor, judge and executioner at the same time, this system
is called?
A. Abuse of authority C. Criminal justice
B. Extra-Judicial system D. Side-walk Justice
61. The primary goal of Criminal Justice System is;

A. Maintain Peace and Order C. Prevention of crime
B. Protection of government from enemies D. Prosecute criminal
62. Which of the following is the primary source of criminal law in the Philippines is?
A. Republic Acts C. Presidential Decrees
B. Revised Penal Code D. Either of these
63. This refers to the recital of the rights of a suspect during custodial investigation?
A. Bill of Rights C. Miranda Warning
B. Code of Ethics D. Policeman’s Code
64. This refers to the reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to commit a crime?
A. Law enforcement C. Crime prevention
B. Protection of rights D. Order maintenance
65. They are referred to as the forgotten subjects in the criminal justice system?
A. Accused B. Victims C. Criminals D. Witnesses
66. What is a group of people having ethnic or cultural or religious characteristics in common?
A. Society B. People power C. Community D. Cultural minority
67. They are task to apprehend and investigate those person who have violated the rules of the professional
ethics in spending government’s budget in some personal interest?
A. NBI B. Sandiganbayan C. COA D. Senate
68. In the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a court of justice to determine the
innocence or guilt of the accused?
A. Trial B. Pre-trial C. Prosecution D. Arraignment
69. It is a course of action whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out mutually beneficial
and satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval?
A. Arraignment C. Plea bargaining
B. Pre-trial D. Trial
70. Who has the one that conceive the idea of giving the police a very wide powers including price control?
A. Saint-Louis C. Debelleyme
B. Augustus Caesar D. Robert Peel
71. Among the four elements of justice, what is the hardest to identify?
A. The absolute ability to identify the law of violator.
B. The absolute ability to apprehend law violator.
C. The absolute ability to punish law violator.
D. The absolute ability to identify the intent of the law violator.
72. It refers to a series of activities designed to address issues that caused the child to commit an offense.
A. Intervention C. Diversion
B. Restorative Justice D. Child at risk
73. It refers to a child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under
Philippine laws.
A. Intervention C. Child in Conflict with the Law
74. One who is vulnerable and at the risk of committing criminal offense because of personal, family and social
circumstances.
75. It refers to the principle which requires a process of resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
victim, the offender and the community.
76. It refers to an alternative, child- appropriate process of determining the responsibility and treatment of a child
in conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, economic, psychological or educational background
without resorting to formal court proceedings.
B. Restorative Justice D. Diversion
77. It is otherwise known as the Juvenile Justice Welfare Act of 2006

A. RA 9344 B. PD 603 C. RA 7610 D. RA 6975
78. This pillar is considered to be the “initiator” or the “prime-mover” of the Criminal Justice System.
A. Law Enforcement B. Court C. Prosecution D. Correction
79. It is considered as “the initiator of the actions” that other pillars must act upon to attain its goal or objective.
A. Law Enforcement B. Correction C. Court D. Community
80. The following are examples of law enforcement initiating action, except?
A. Effecting arrest B. traffic C. Surveillance D. crime investigation
81. Prevention involves all the factors directed toward eliminating the cause of crimes.
A. To protect life and property C. To prevent criminal behavior.
B. To apprehend and arrest criminals D. To reduce crime
82. Crime reduction essentially means eliminating and reducing opportunities for criminal behavior.
83. This function includes crime investigation and gathering of evidences that could withstand the scrutiny of the
court.
84. Protecting life and property is essentially the purpose why the PNP was created.
85. This involves the community service and the maintenance of order functions of the PNP.
B. To apprehend and arrest criminals D. To regulate non-criminal conduct
86. The PNP was established by the enactment of __________ otherwise known as the DILG ACT of 1990
A. RA 6975 B. RA 8551 C. RA 6425 D. RA 9165
87. When was the PNP established?
A. January 1990 B. January 1991 C. January 1992 D. December 1991
88. It is also known as “THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE REFORM ACT OF 1998”
A. RA 9165 B. RA 5487 C. RA 6975 D. RA 8551
89. It is the absence of disorder.

A. peace B. tranquility C. order D. maintenance
90. It means behavior that tends to disrupt the peace and tranquility of the public or that involves serious face-
to-face conflict between two or more persons.
A. disorder B. crime C. delinquency D. offense
91. Which is true about Police?

A. Ensure law and order C. Should be powerful not oppressive
B. A branch of Criminal Justice System D. Should form an impartial force
92. Constables are implementing and carrying out the law by keeping the peace, arresting criminals and
guarding. They were known in what particular country?
A. England B. Greece C. Rome D. Egypt
93. The term police was derived from Greek word Politeia that primarily denotes the activity of a polis. What do
polis means?
A. police B. government C. city D. govern
94. In the criminal justice system, government must keep with the framework of laws that protect individual rights.
Who among these people is being process in the said system?
A. the offended party C. law
B. justice D. accused
95. Who are the gate keepers of Criminal Justice System?

A. Jail guard B. Court C. Correction D. Law enforcement
96. It is such a fact and circumstances which would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to believe that
the person has committed an offense, sought to be arrested?
A. Information C. Probable cause
B. Testimony D. Prima facie
97. The person responsible for securing the rights of the state over an accused person for he directs the
proceeding and he institute an offense in behalf of the state;
A. Judge B. Counsel de officio C. Attorney D. Prosecutor
98. The release of a convicted offender under supervision and under certain restrictions and requirements after
he has served a certain portion of his sentence in a penal institution;
A. Community service B. Parole C. Jail D. Probation
99. This is a records clearing house that serves a means as a means of communicating information from the
police of one country to those of another?
A. Clearing house record C. Interpol
B. National records D. NBI
100. All EXCEPT one are the functions of the police which are part of the knot of the major chain of the CJS;
A. crime suppression C. crime investigation
B. case preparation D. arrest of suspects
101. According to him, the maintenance of order more than the problem of law enforcement, is central to
policeman’s (especially the patrolman) role for several reasons.
A. Kelling B. Wilson C. Lombroso D. Beccaria
102. According to ________, increased attention to order maintenance improves the relationship between the
police and the community, which results in greater cooperation of citizens with the police
A. Kelling B. Wilson C. Lombroso D. Beccaria
103. ___________ is the third major area of police functions.

A. Law Enforcement C. Order maintenance
B. Neighborhood team policing D. Community service
104. It represents an attempt to integrate the police and the community interests into a working relationship so
as to produce the desired objectives of peacekeeping in the community
A. Law Enforcement C. Order maintenance
B. Neighborhood team policing D. Community service
105. What is the other term for a buy-bust operation?

A. intrapment B. frame up C. entrapment D. instigation
106. _________ is wherein the police basically induced the person into committing a crime.
A. intrapment B. frame up C. entrapment D. instigation
107. It refers to when the police selectively enforce criminal law for various reasons.
A. rationing B. investigation C. instigation D. entrapment
108. It refers to the taking of the person into custody in order that he be made to answer for the
commission of the crime.
A. Search B. rescue C. arrest D. arrest warrant
109. Refers to such fact and circumstances which would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed by the person sought to be arrested.
A. search B. arrest C. rationing D. probable cause
110. What is the general rule in effecting an arrest?

A. by virtue of search warrant C. when there is a warrant of arrest
B. based on probable cause D. all of these
111. What are the properties to be seized?

A. Subject of the offense
B. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds, fruits of the offense;
C. Used or intended to be used as the means commission of the offense
D. All of the above
112. What do you call this rule not admitting these unlawfully obtained evidence?
A. rules on evidence C. general rules
B. rules on criminal procedure D. the exclusionary rule
113. What is the main purpose of patrol?

A. to provide security C. to provide police visibility
B. to provide safety D. to arrest the criminals
114. It is an art, which deals with the identity and the location of the offender and gather evidence of
his guilt in criminal proceedings.
A. criminal investigation C. SOCO
B. crime investigation D. CIDG
115. It is simply defined as the elimination or reduction of the desire and/or opportunity to commit a
crime.
A. Crime detection C. Crime Suppression
B. crime prevention D. Crime Solution
116. One who is charged with the duty of carrying the objectives of investigation
A. investigator B. SOCO C. CIDG D. Private
detective
117. What is the general rule in effecting search and seizure?

A. by virtue of search warrant C. when there is a warrant of arrest
B. based on probable cause D. all of these
118. It is the security given for the release of the person in the custody of the law, furnished by
him of the bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the
conditions as specified.
A. Prosecution B. Trial C. Bail D. Judgment
119. The courts are responsible for reviewing the actions of law enforcement agencies to ensure
that the police have not violated the rights of the accused;
A. To protect the rights of the accused
B. To dispose properly of those convicted of the crimes
C. To determine by all legal means whether a person is guilty of a crime.
D. To protect the society.
120. Review all the evidences presented by the police to determine its relevance and admissibility
in accordance with the Constitution and the rules of court.
121. “Every Law should be like death, which spares no one”. Which of the following best explains
the statement?
A. The law should punish the wrongdoers to death
B. Nobody should be above the law
C. The law must be obligatory for equal protection
D. The law should always go after the evildoers.
122. This is a concept which involves teamwork with the citizenry in combating crimes and
prevention of delinquency in the community?
A. Policing C. Police Community Relations
B. Team Policing D. Community Oriented Policing System
123. The Romans have established a concrete process of criminal procedure, through the lawyers
and magistrates they developed a precise system known as the Jus Gentium. What do Jus
means?
A. Magistrate B. Law C. Justice D.
Nation
124. Known as community oriented policing in its application in the Philippine setting it has wide
application in the Philippine National Police particularly in urban area.
A. Law enforcement C. Participative law enforcement
B. Team policing D. Participative citizen to the police
125. When can a preliminary investigation be compulsory in the following statement?
A. The offender was caught in flagrante delicto
B. When the penalty of the committed crime is afflictive
C. The offender was insane
D. The victim has ask for the procedures
126. The courts have the responsibility to examine the background of the accused and the
circumstances of the crime;
127. After the accused has been found guilty, the court may determine if the offender should be
removed from society and incarcerated in order to protect the safety of life and property and this
is especially in case of probation;
128. This is the task of properly imposing the proper penalty and sanctions that will serve to deter
the future criminal acts by the offender and also serve as an example and deterrent to others who
would commit criminal acts or threaten public safety.
D. To prevent and reduce criminal behavior
129. It is the authority of the court to hear and try a particular offense and to impose the
punishment provided by law.
A. Venue B. Jurisdiction C. Power D.
Authority
130. It refers to the place, location or site where the case is to be heard on its merits.
A. Venue B. Jurisdiction C. Power D.
Authority
131. It is the law’s final word pronounced by a competent authority in a controversy submitted to
it.
A. Litigation B. Punishment C. Arraignment D.
Judgment
132. It is a warrant issued by a court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing the
jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
A. Mittimus B. Commitment order C. Deterrence D.
Reformation
133. It is a written order of the court or authority consigning a person to jail or prison for detention.
Reformation
134. It is one of the most meaningful principles of corrections. Its concept is that punishing the
criminal will reduce the incidence of criminal behavior in a society.
Reformation
135. A ___________ postpones the execution of an offense to a later date.

A. Amnesty B. Pardon C. Reprieve D.
Commutation
136. It is a remission of a part of the punishment; a substitution of a less penalty for the one
originally imposed.
Commutation
137. It is an act of grace, proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution with the laws,
which exempts the individual on whom it is bestowed from the punishment which the law inflicts
for a crime he has committed.
Commutation
138. It is commonly denoted the general pardon to rebels for their treason and other high political
offenses.
Commutation
139. It is a disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence, is released subject
to the conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A. Parole B. Probation C. Penology D. Corrections
140. It simply means the treatment of criminals.

A. Jail B. Prison C. Penology D. Corrections
141. It is a branch of the criminal justice system charged with the custody, supervision and
rehabilitation of a convicted offender.
A. Jail B. Prison C. Penology D. Corrections
142. Those whose sentences are from one day to six months.
A. City Prisoners C. Municipal Prisoners
B. Insular Prisoners D. Provincial Prisoners
143. Those whose sentences are from one day to three years.
A. City Prisoners C. Municipal Prisoners
B. Insular Prisoners D. Provincial Prisoners
144. It is created by RA 6975 to hear and decide citizen’s complaints and cases against an erring
officer and members of the PNP.
A. Mayor B. IAS C. PLEB D. Governor
145. It refers to a police-community partnership, proactive, and problem solving approach to the
police functions.
A. Community Organization C. Community Assistance and Development
B. Community Policing D. Community Inter-relation
146. Which of the following is considered as the second line of defense on crime fighting?
A. Crime prevention C. Proactive measures
B. Crime suppression D. Crime investigation
147. It is the institution that provides community’s official reaction to a convicted offender, such
responsibility is a branch of the administration of criminal justice, charge with the responsibility for
custody, and supervision and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
A. Restorative justice B. Restoration C. Rehabilitation D. Correction
148. What will happen to the arraignment if the accused appears to be suffer from an unsound
mental condition which effectively renders him unable to fully understand to changes against him?
A. Suspend B. Waived C. Terminated D. Commenced
149. The process submits that the criminal behavior was due to the gap between the criminal and
the community. For this reason the offender must be assisted to strive hard to face the forces of
the society or community which will join upon his release from jail/prison;
A. Rehabilitation C. Isolation of prisoners
B. Re-integration D. Purpose of sentencing
150. Which of the following is not true about police patrol?

A. It is the bridge establishing the relationship between official and the community
B. The backbone of the police organization
C. The eyes and ears of the organization
D. none of these
CLJ 1
1. Is a general pardon extended to a group or classes of person and is exercised by the chief
executive with the concurrence of congress. It is usually given to political offenders. Its purpose
is to bring about the return of dissidents and recalcitrant members of our population to their homes
and resumption of their lawful pursuit.
A. Arrest B. amnesty C. executive clemency
2. It refers to adversary proceeding in which the prosecution tries prove the defendant quilt, and
defendant counsel tries to prove innocence either before the judge.
A. Trial B. Sentencing C. appeal
3. It is the taking of a person into custody so that he may be bound to answer for the commission
of an offense.
A. Warrant of arrest B. arrest C. summon
4. It is the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or
bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions
hereinafter specified.
A. Bail B. surety C. witness protection program
5. He heads the Lupon Tagapamayapa as prescribed in RA 7160.

A. Lupon tagamayapa C. judge
B. barangay Chairman
6. This was created to amicably settle cases within their respective barangay, punishable by
imprisonment not exceeding one year.
A. Lupon tagamayapa C. Lupontagapagkasundo
B. barangay court system
7. It is written direction or command of the court or any other competent authority consigning an
offender to jail or prison for confinement.
A.mittimus B. commitment order C. writ of execution
8. It is sworn written statement charging a person for an offense, subscribed by the offended
party, public officers or any peace officer in charge of the law violated.
A. complaint B. information C. police blotter
9. It is a change made by the president on the decision of the court by reducing the degree of
penalty imposed upon the convicted felon.
A. commutation B. parole C. probation
10. It is the theory of the police service where the policemen are considered servants and in
France where the form of government is centralized.
A. continental B. centennial C. decentralization
11. A factors or elements from the environment that influenced to the individual as cause of crime
that can be change or influence by man.
A. exogenous variables C. homogenous variables
B. Indigenous variables
12. It refers to anything, which is contrary or against the rules of a particular prison or jail facility
like cash, jewelry, dangerous drugs, and deadly weapons.
A. personal belongings C. prohibited materials
B. contraband
13. It is considered as the weakest link of the Philippine Criminal Justice System because of its
failure to rehabilitate the inmates after serving their services.
A. corrections B. community C. family
14. It is a governmental body officially assembled under the authority of law at the appropriate
time and place for the administration to justice through which state enforces its sovereign
rights and power. It is also empowered by the constitution to determine the guilt of the
accused.
A. court B. department of justice C. prosecution
15. This was established under Batas Pambansa Bilang 129 known as “The Judiciary Recognition
Act of 1980”. The court is composed of one (1) Presiding Justice and sixty eight (68) Associate
Justice.
A. RTC B. court of appeals C. family court
16. It is a criminal justice model that is based on the idea that the important functions of the pillars
of the Criminal Justice System are the protection of the public and repression of criminal
conduct.
A. crime control model B. positive model C. rehabilitation model
17. It comprises all the means used to enforce those standards of conduct, which are deemed
necessary to protect individuals and to maintain general community well – being.
A. criminal justice system C. crime control theory
B. criminal justice process
18. A synonymous with carelessness, acts of indiscretion and lack of crime prevention
consciousness on the part of the victim.
A. opportunity B. Poverty C. ignorance of the law
19. It is an authority conferred by law of act to act in certain conditions or situations in accordance
with an official’s or an official agency’s own considered judgment and conscience.
A. decision B. good judgment C. discretion
20. This refers to the ways and means resorted to by the police wherein they catch criminals by
having personal knowledge of the crimes wherein the mens rea came from the perpetrators.
A. entrapment B. buy bust C. stake out
21. It is when in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or
is attempting to commit an offense.
A. inflagrante delicto B. in flagrante dilicto C. all of this
22. It is an accusation in writing charging a person for an offense, subscribed by the fiscal and
filed before the court.
A. complaint B. information C. police report
23. He is the officer of the judiciary who issues warrant of arrest and determine the culpability of
the accused.
A. prosecutor B. court C. judge
24. It is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not the offense charged, aid in
the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by the law on the accused.
A. sentence B. judgment C. conviction
25. It is the authority to hear and determine the cause.

A. jurisdiction B. venue C. area of responsibility
26. It is the initiator of action in the Philippine Criminal Justice System.

A. police B. law enforcement c. community
28. It is a special investigate agency tasked to investigate highly controversial cases.

A. ombudsman B. NBI C. Anti –organized task group
29. It is under the supervision and control of the DOJ and is tasked as the prosecutorial arm of
the government.
A. national prosecution service C. fiscal
B. prosecutor office
30. It is known as the Community Oriented Policing System. This is a concept which involves
teamwork with the citizen in combating crimes and prevention of delinquency in the
community.
A. participative law enforcement C. people participation
B. people empowerment
31. It is a branch of criminology, which deals with the management and administration of inmates.
A. victimology B. penology C. sociology of crime
32. It shall hear and decide citizen’s complaints or cases filed before it against erring officers and
members of the PNP where the offense is punishable by withholding of privileges, restriction
to specified limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any combination thereof for a period
exceeding thirty days or by dismissal.
A. PLEB B. mayor C. chief PNP D. all of this
33. It refers to the citizen agency of the government responsible for the enforcement of laws,
prevention and control of crimes, maintenance of peace and order and ensuring public safety
and internal security with the active support of the community.
A. PNP B. barangay tanod C. barangay council
34. The types of corruption emanates from the broad discretion of police have in much of their
work and the tension between efficiency standards versus the activities that must ensure the
process.
A. opportunistic corruption C. corruption of authority
B. Abuse of authority
35. It is created to establish harmonious relationship between the police and the citizen.
A. spoke person B. PCR unit C. admin. branch
36. It is and inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient
ground to engender a well – founded belief that a crime cognizable by the Regional Trial Court
has been committed and that the responded is probably guilty thereof and to be held for trail.
A. preliminary investigation B. rebuttal C. injunction
37. It is when the person to be arrested is one who has escaped from a penal establishment or
place where he is serving or has escaped while being transferred from one confinement to
another under Sec. 5, Rule 113 of the Revised Rules of Court.
A. fugitive B. prisoner arrest C. prisoner escape
38. It refers to facts and circumstances which would lead a reasonable, discreet and prudent mind
to believe that the crime was committed by the person sought to be arrested. It also serves
as a basis in charging or prosecuting a person with and for an offense, grounds for an arrest
or issuance of warrant of arrest and protection against false prosecution and arrest.
A. probable cause B. sufficient ground C. evidence
39. He acts as the Law Officer of the province or city in the absence of Legal Officer. He also
conducts preliminary investigation.
A. prosecutor B. fiscal C. all of this
40. It is the process of converting or inducing another to change his religious belief or sect.
A. recruitment B. proselytizing C. inducement
41. It is a Witness Protection, Security and Benefit Act of the Philippines.

A. R A 6758 B. R A 6981 C. R A 6987
42. It is a program of activity directed to restore an inmate’s self-respect thereby making him a
law-abiding citizen after serving his sentence. It is also the act of restoring to a good condition,
establishing good repute to accept respectability, restoring to a formal standing rank, right or
privileges.
A. reformation B. retribution C. re-integration
43. It is the temporary stay in the execution of the sentence. The execution is set backward to
enable the president to review the case and determine proper punishment for the convict. It
is exercised only by the president only after conviction.
A. safekeeping B. reprieve C. parole
44. It is the temporary custody of a person or the detention of a person for his own protection to
secure from liability, harm, injury, or danger.
A. custodial B. safekeeping C. safeguarding
45. An act providing the uniform system of preliminary investigation

A. RA 5878 B. RA 5891 C. RA 5189
46. It is the order issues by the investigating prosecutor to compel the presence of the accused
in a particular time and date.
A. summon B. sub poena C. arrest warrant
47. He is known as the Superstar in the Criminal Justice System.

A. witness B. suspect C. victim
48. It refers to the grass root approach undertaken to bring the people and the police close
together in a more cooperative condition.
A. team policing B. cops on block C. coban system
50. It is the arrest made by a police or an ordinary citizen of the community under the condition
the conditions prescribed in the Rule 113 Section 5 of the Revised Rules of Court.
A. warrantless arrest B. inflagrante delicto C. arrest w/ warrant
51. The following are nomenclatures given to the person who is being processed under the
criminal justice system, except;
A. suspect B. proponent C. respondent D.
accused
52. It is a social norm providing guidance for people in their dealings with one another; as standard
against which actions are evaluated; and as prescription for requirement that people act justly.
A. Law B. Justice C. social justice
53. It pertains to the measures imposed upon the state through CJS so that criminals will punished
in accordance with the law to serve a lesson for others not to commit crime and for criminals to
refrain from further committing crime.
A. crime prevention B. crime control C. crime deterrence
54. It refers to restraining or isolating criminals behind prison to effectively controlling then from
further endangering the society thus protecting the public from harm and damage.
A. crime control B. crime prevention C. isolation
55. It pertains to all government and non-government activities or program designed to thwart,
deter, preempt, and stop the crime from happening.
A. crime control B. crime prevention C. crime reduction
56. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the people of the Philippines, signed by the judge
and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for personal property described therein
and bring it before the court.
A. warrant of arrest B. search warrant C. search seizure
57. The following are the requisite for issuing search warrant; except
A. based upon probable cause
B. must be determined personally by the judge
C. must be in connection with one specific offense
D. upon the recommendation of the fiscal
58. It investigates and arrest illegal and undocumented aliens, foreign fugitives and criminal
operating in the country.
A. bureau of immigration B. bureau of custom C. DFA D. DOJ
59. It is empower to enforce measures to stop, control and monitor the spread of disease by
conducting quarantine on all air and seaports across the country.
A. bureau of custom B. bureau of quarantine C. DOH D. DOJ
60. The main purposes of PI are the following; except

A. to protect the innocent against hasty, oppressive and malicious prosecution.
B. to protect the state from useless and expensive trial
C. to provide assistance to the victim
61. The following are the remedies if the investigating fiscal refuses to file information despite of
the existence of strong evidence; except
A. file a motion for consideration
B. file administrative case against fiscal
C. file a motion to conduct another preliminary investigation
D. file an action for mandamus to compel the prosecutor or fiscal to file the information.
62. It is an inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest made
especially those arrest without warrant.
A. preliminary investigation C. confrontation
B. inquest procedure
63. The prudent use of judgment being exercised by the investigating fiscal or prosecutor in
determining the existence of probable cause during preliminary investigation.
A. authority conferred by law C. absolute power
B. prosecutorial discretion
66. The court created under PD 1083, with an exclusive jurisdiction pertains to family rights and
duties as well as contractual relations of Filipino Muslims in Mindanao.
A. RTC B. sharia court C. family court D. domestic relation
67. The special court which was established under PD 1606, with an exclusive jurisdiction on all
cases relating to the performance of all government official either elected or appointed position.
A. ombudsman B. sandiganbayan C. tanodbayan
68. The highest court in the Philippines and the final arbiter of any and all judicial issues.
A. court of appeals B. supreme court C. sandiganbayan
69. In trial proceeding, who will be the first to introduce the evidence?
A. the prosecutor C. as determine by the judge
B. the accused through his/her lawyer
70. An appeal must be taken within____________ days from promulgation of the judgment or
from notice of the final order appealed from.
A. ten ( 10 ) B. fifteen ( 15 ) C. twenty ( 20 )
71. Is preliminary investigation a Constitutional rights?

A. yes B. no it is merely a statutory right C. both
74. The stage where the issues are joined in criminal action and without which cannot advance
further or, if held, will otherwise void.
A. preliminary investigation B. arraignment C. trial
75. The branch of public law, which defines crimes, treats of their nature, and provides for their
punishment.
A. substantive law B. criminal law C. civil law
76. The following are the classification of prisoner; except

A. municipal prisone r C. insular prisoner
B. city prisoner D. home furlough
77. These institutions house the minimum custody offenders serving short sentence.
A. workhouses C. lock-up jail
B. jailfarms D. ordinary jail
78. This a security facility, usually operated by the police stations, for temporary detentions of
persons held for investigations or awaiting preliminary investigation before the prosecutor.
A. lock-up jail C. jail farms
B. workhouses D. ordinary jail
81. What this program, that the inmate returns home for a few days without supervision. This is
intended to build a solid based community and family support before the inmate walks out the
front gate of the prison.
A. work release B. home furlough C. conjugal family visitations
82. The major function of prosecution component of the criminal justice system.
A. to enforce the laws of the land
B. to rehabilitate offenders
C. to represent the government in criminal cases
87. A claim of the accused that he or she was in another place when the crime occurred and
therefore could not have committed it.
A. defense of instigation C. defense of consent
B. defense of alibi
88. A function of prosecution, by representing the state in criminal cases and to present the case
of the judge.
A. trial advocacy B. pleading C. charging
89. The so called “forgotten men “in the criminal justice process.
A. police B. victim C. criminal
90. Is an act of grace, proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution with the laws,
which exempts the individual on whom it is bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for a
crime he has committed?
A. parole B. pardon C. executive clemency
91. The judicial proceeding for the purpose of releasing a person who is illegally deprived of liberty
or restoring rightful custody to the person who has been deprived thereof.
A. preliminary injunction C. writ of amparo
B. Habeas corpus proceeding
92. A warrant issued by a court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing the jail or
prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for serving sentence.
A. commitment order B. mittimus C. commutation
Introduction to Criminology and

Psychology of Crime
1. It is a type of victims by HENTIG, it is victim who asked for it, often from his or her own family
and friends?
A. Imaginary victim C. Heartbroken
B. Tormentor D. Depressed
2. It is the typology of victims that pretends to be one due to a mental disorder?

A. Most guilty victim C. Imaginary victim
B. Victim more guilty than offender D. Victim with minor guilt
3. It is the undesirable consequence caused by some external forces, or by some individual group
or organization?
A. Victim C. Victimized
B. Victimization D. Victimology
4. This refers to a discipline or study which deals of the nature, causes of victimization, as well as
the programs for auditing and preventing victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimized
B. Victim D. Victimization
5. These victims are unsure of rules of conduct in the surrounding society;

A. The Dull Normals C. The Immigrants
B. The Mentally Defective D. The Young
6. Promiscuous persons would fall under this victim typology;

A. The Dull Normals C. The Depressed
B. The Wanton D. The Tormentor
7. They are often victims of racial prejudice or unequal treatment by the agencies of justice;
A. The Immigrants C. The Minorities
B. The Dull Normal D. The Acquisitive
8. These victims are always wanting for more and looking for quick gains;
A. The Acquisitive C. The Lonesome
B. The Wanton D. The Tormentor
9. They are incapable of physical defense and the object of confidence schemes;
A. The Female C. The Mentally Defective
B. The Old D. The Young
10. At times, the victim is one who asked for the act, often from relatives and friends. What types
of victim is this?
A. The Mentally Defective C. The Tormentor
B. The Wanton D. The Acquisitive
11. Anger, jealousy, or destructive impulses increase chances of being victimized. What type of
characteristics does this exemplify?
A. Target vulnerability C. Target antagonism
B. Target gratifiability D. Target hostility
12. Drinking, taking drugs, and getting involved in crime increase a person’s exposure to
offenders. This is based on what victimization theory?
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Deviant place theory
B. Lifestyle theory D. Routine activity theory
13. Victim’s physical weakness or psychological distress renders him incapable of resisting or
deterring crime. This typifies what type of victim characteristics?
A. Target vulnerability C. Target antagonism
B. Target gratifiability D. Target hostility
14. Some victims have possessions, skills, or attributes that an offender wants to obtain, use,
have access to, or manipulate. This refers to:
A. Target antagonism C. Target gratifiability
B. Target hostilioty D. Target vulnerability
15. According to this theory, victims do not encourage crime but are prone to victimization
because they reside in socially disorganized high-crime areas where they have the greatest risk
of coming into contact with criminal offenders.
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Deviant place theory
B. Lifestyle theory D. Routine activity theory
16. These individuals stay out of trouble, do not have peers that are criminal, are aware of their
surroundings, and attempt to take precautions so as not to become victims.
A. Low-risk victims C. High-risk victims
B. Moderate-risk victims D. Extremely high-risk victims
17. According to this view, some people may actually initiate confrontation that eventually leads
to their injury or death.
A. Victim precipitation theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Deviant place theory D. Lifestyle theory
18. A person that is stranded on s dark, secluded highway due to a flat tire, and accepts a ride
from a stranger would be a good example of this type of victim level risk.
A. High-risk victims C. Extremely high-risk victim
B. Moderate-risk victim D. Low-risk victims
19. This theory asserts that there are three variables of victimization – the availability of suitable
targets, the absence of capable guardians, and the presence of motivated offenders.
A. Deviant place theory C. Routine activity theory
B. Victim precipitation theory D. Lifestyle theory
20. Which of the following can be considered a high-risk potential victim?

A. A person stranded on a dark C. All Prostitute
B. A person who takes all precautions D. All of these
21. It is a stage of victim that describe the state of the victim prior to being victimized?
A. Pre-impact stage C. Post impact stage
B. Impact stage D. Behavioral stage
22. It entails the degree and duration of personal and social disorganization following
victimization, what stage of victimization is this?
A. Pre-impact stage C. Post impact stage
B. Impact stage D. Behavior stage
23. It is other types of victimization that do not come under the jurisdiction of the criminal law and
they are hard to detect.
A. Collective victimization C. Institutional victimization
B. Corporate victimization D. Multiple victimization
24. This type of victimization presents serious methodological problems, but may be of great help
in understanding certain types of victimization.
25. It is other types of victimization that victimization is directed at, or affecting the whole group,
members have nothing or not much in common, and the group as not targeted as a specific
entity.
26. This victimization in which the victim had been subjected to the same type of criminal
victimization several types.
A. Cross-crime victimization C. Repeated victimization
B. Instantaneous victimization D. Continuing victimization
27. This refers to households that experience different types of victimization during the
reference period.
A. Cross-crime victimization C. Repeated victimization
B. Continuing victimization D. Instantaneous victimization
28. It occurs when victims act provocatively, use threats or fighting words, or even attack first.
A. Victim precipitation C. Passive precipitation
B. Active precipitation D. Lifestyle theory
29. Which among the following have higher fear of crime?
A. Male C. Lesbian
B. Female D. Homosexual
30. It occurs when the victim exhibits some personal characteristics that unknowingly threaten or
encourage the attacker.
A. Victim precipitation C. Passive precipitation
B. Active precipitation D. Lifestyle theory
31. It refers to a social scientist who deals with the study of the causes of victimization and the
programs of preventing victimization?
A. Victimology C. Victimization
B. Victimologist D. Victimized
32. It refers to treat unfairly, to make into a victim or cause somebody to become a victim to cause
or suffer?
A. Victim C. Victimology
B. Victimize D. Victimization
33. It refers to somebody hurt or killed by somebody or something especially in a crime, accident
or disaster?
A. Victimize C. Victimologist
B. Victimization D. Victim
34. He coined the term victimology, through which he earned the title, “father of victimology” of
this sub-disciple of criminology;
A. Hans Von Hentig C. Benjamin Mendelsohn
B. Cesare Lombroso D. Andre Michel Guerry
35. This scientist wrote the book “The Criminal and His Victim,” which played the way to
understanding the victim’s role in crime occurrence;
A. Andre Michel Guerry C. Cesare Lombroso
B. Hans Von Hentig D. Benjamin Mendelsohn
36. Suicide victims are of this type?
A. Most Guilty Victim C. Victim with Minor Guilty
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
37. There is no provocation or facilitating behavior on the part of this victim;

A. Imaginary Victim C. Completely Innocent Victim
B. Victim with Minor Guilt D. Victim as Guilty as Offender
38. This type of victim places himself in a compromising situation;

A. Victim with Minor Guilt C. Victim as Guilty as Offender
B. Completely Innocent Victim D. Imaginary Victim
39. When the victim provoked or instigated the causal act, he is classified as what victim type;
A. Victim as Guilty as Offender C. Victim with Minor Guilt
B. Victim More Guilty the Offender D. Most Guilty Victim
40. What type of victim is one who started off as the offender and was hurt in return?
A. Victim More Guilty than Offender C. Most Guilty Victim B.
Victim as Guilty as Offender D. Victim with Minor Guilt
41. Who are most likely to suffer violent crime?

A. Child C. Male
B. Women D. Old
42. Who are more likely to be a victim of rape or sexual assault?

A. Male C. Female Old
B. Female D. Young female
43. When men are the victims of violent crime the perpetrator is a ___________?
A. Friend C. Acquaintance
B. Stanger D. Kumpadre
44. On social status, who are much likely to become a crime victims?
A. Lowest income C. Average people
B. More affluent D. Educated people
45. Poor individuals are most likely the victims of crime because they live in ______ areas;
A. Subdivisions C. Secluded area
B. Sub-urban area D. Crime prone
46. On marital status who are most often victimized by crime?

A. Divorced C. Married people
B. Widow D. Widower
47. As to the gender who are more fearful of crime?

A. Female C. Lesbian
B. Male D. Transgender
48. As to the income fear of crime victimization __________ with increasing family income?
A. Improve C. Decline
B. Increase D. Advance
49. The person’s fear in crime become low, when the level of the education become ________.
A. Moderate C. Lower
B. High D. Average
50. What is the basis of Victim Compensation Program?

A. R.A. No. 7039 C. R.A. No. 7930
B. R.A. No. 7390 D. R.A. No. 7309
51. Who advocated the classical school of thought;

A. Cesare Lombroso C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Enrico Ferri D. Alphose Bertillon
52. Who argued that the right act or policy was that which would cause “the greatest good for
the greatest number of people”;
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Enrico Ferri
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Cesare Lombroso
53. Study of the relationship between criminality and population;

A. Criminal Etiology C. Criminal Ecology
B. Criminal Epidemiology D. Criminal Demography
54. He agreed with Lombroso on the biological bases of criminal behavior, his interest led him to
recognize the importance of social, economic and political determinants;
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Cesare Beccaria
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Enrico Ferri
55. The study of the relationship between environment and criminality;

A. Criminal Epidemiology C. Criminal theories
B. Criminal Demography D. Criminal Ecology
56. It is the study of mental and behavioral disorders in relation to criminality?

A. Criminal psychology C. Criminal psychiatry
B. Criminal psychologist D. Criminal demography
57. This refers to the entire body of knowledge regarding crimes, criminals and the effort of the
society to prevent and repress them?
A. Criminalistics C. Criminal
B. Criminalist D. Criminology
58. The French anthropologist Paul Topinard used Criminology for the first time in French: thus,
the French word of Criminology is:
A. Crimenology C. Criminologie
B. Criminalogy D. Criminologia
59. It refers to an anti-social act that is injurious, detrimental or harmful to the norms of the
society; they are the unacceptable acts?
A. Offense C. Delinquency
B. Crime D. Misdemeanor
60. It is a principle believes that all individuals have freewill and make choices on that freewill?
A. Pain pleasure principle C. Freewill principle B. Atavism
principle D. Utilitarianism principle
61. It is a principle understood that dominant motive in making choices to be the seeking of
pleasure and the avoidance of pain, people can choose legal or illegal means to get what they
want?
A. Pain pleasure principle C. Freewill principle B. Atavism
principle D. Utilitarianism principle
62. An individual with a strongly self centered pattern of emotion fantasy and thoughts;
A. Delusion C. Masochism
B. Megalomania D. Hallucination
63. Who originated the system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurement;
A. George L. Wilker C. Alphonse Bertillon B.
Cesare Beccaria D. David W. Maurer
64. Morbid propensity to love and make love;

A. Erotomania C. Masochism B.
Necrophilism D. Megalomania
65. Uncontrollable morbid propensity to steal;

A. Necrophilism C. Kleptomania
B. Masochism D. Dipsomania
66. Transmission of physical characteristics from parents to offspring;

A. Delusion C. Inheritance
B. Hallucination D. Masochism
67. Mental disorder which the subjects thinks himself great or exalted;
A. Melancholia C. Autophobia
B. Megalomania D. Hallucination
68. A sexual perversion in which the subject derives pleasure from being dominated or cruelly
treated;
A. Masochism C. Necrophilism
B. Megalomania D. Erotomania
69. Morbid craving usually of an erotic nature for dead bodies;

A. Megalomania C. Masochism
B. Erotomania D. Necrophilism
70. It is a mental disorder characterized by excessive brooding and depression of spirits?

A. Megalomania C. Delusion
B. Melancholia D. Masochism
71. When a person commits a crime without intent, and offender does not know the nature of his
act, due to mental disease, he committed what crime?
A. Culpa or fault C. Irrational crime
B. Rational Crime D. Dolo or deceit
72. What is a crime that is committed only during a certain period of a year?
A. Seasonal crime C. Situational crime
B. Episodic crime D. Continuing crime
73. Those are committed only when given a situation conducive to its commission, this is what
crime?
A. Static crime C. Situational Crime
B. Instant crime D. Seasonal crime
74. What crime that can be committed by a series of act in a lengthy space of time?
A. Instant Crime C. Situational Crime
B. Episodic Crime D. Continuing Crime
75. These are highly skilled and able to obtain considerable amount of money without being
detected, what criminal is this?
A. Professional Criminal C. Organized Criminal
B. Situational Criminal D. Ordinary Criminal
76. A person who violates criminal law because of the impulse of moment, fit of passion or spell
of extreme jealousy, is what criminal?
A. Acute Criminal C. Criminality
B. Chronic Criminal D. Normal Criminals
77. Pedro killed Juan by stabbing killing the person instantly, after doing the crime he throw the
victim to the river, what crime Pedro commit?
A. Continuing Crime C. Instant crime
B. Extinctive crime D. Static Crime
78. Are those felonies that the commission of which the penalty of arresto mayor;
A. Light felonies C. Grave felonies
B. Less grave felonies D. Light crime
79. When a single act constitutes two or more grave felonies it is considered what crime:
A. Single crime C. Complex crime
B. Grave felonies D. Culpa or fault
80. What is crime that is committed by merely duplication of what was done by others?
A. Crime by passion C. Crimes by imitation
B. Crime by duplication D. Crime by copying
81. It is a crime that refers to crimes committed through rendition of a service to satisfy
desire of another.
A. Chronic Crime C. Static crime
B. Render crime D. Service crime
82. It is a crime committed by a government through mass destruction or annihilation of a human
population.
A. Political crime C. Transnational crime
B. Patriarchal crime D. Genocide
83. It is an act or omission that is punishable by the Revised Penal Code?

A. Crime C. Felony
B. Omission D. Misdemeanor
84. It is the unlawful acts that interfere with the normal operation of society and the ability of
people to function efficiently?
A. Violent Crime C. Economic Crime
B. Public Order Crime D. White collar crime
85. It’s primarily committed to bringing financial gain to the offender?

A. Violent crime C. Public order crime
B. White collar crime D. Economic crimes
86. This means “wrong because it is prohibited”, it is an offense that are illegal because laws
define them as such, it lack universality and timelessness?
A. Mala in se C. Actus reus
B. Mens rea D. Mala Prohibita
87. It is any standard or rule regarding what human beings should and should not think, say or do
under given circumstances.
A. Deviance C. Norms
B. Crime D. Felony
88. It refers to conduct which the people of a group consider so dangerous or embarrassing or
irritating that they bring special sanctions to bear against the persons who exhibit it.
A. Norms C. Deviance
B. Felony D. Crime
89. It is latin word which refers to a criminal intent or a guilty state of mind;
A. Mala prohibita C. Mala in se
B. Actus reus D. Mens rea
90. This is the driving force, the reason why the accused committed the crime.
A. Motive or Desire C. Opportunity
B. Instrument D. Intent
91. It is an act against the unwritten social norms in a locality.

A. Sin C. Crime
B. Immorality D. Felony
92. It refers to the time and place of the commission of the crime.
A. Motive C. Desire
B. Instrument D. Opportunity
93. It is a form of sexual assault, involving sexual intercourse where a participants does not
provide consent?
A. Sexual abuse C. Rape
B. Sexual harassment D. Lascivious act
94. It is any unwanted contact caused by another person resulting in harm, injury and or
discomfort?
A. Physical abuse C. Sexual abuse
B. Sexual harassment D. Domestic violence
95. It is a form of domestic violence, a traditional practice involving the murder of a woman for
bringing shame upon a family?
A. Acid throwing C. Domestic violence
B. Sexual harassment D. Honor killing
96. It is an assault or abuse between spouses with the likelihood of victimization being more likely
between people sharing a bond of intimacy?
A. Honor killing C. Domestic violence
B. Stalking D. Acid throwing
97. It refers to the acquisition of persons by means of force, fraud or deception with the intent of
exploitation?
A. Sexual abuse C. Emotional abuse
B. Human trafficking D. Prostitution
98. It refers to the use of negative comments that are offensive, embarrassing or threatening?
A. Verbal abuse C. Physical abuse
B. Social abuse D. Sexual abuse
99. It deals with the types of violations that degrades one’s dignity, provoke from, and or inflicts
trauma on another person?
A. Verbal abuse C. Psychological/Emotional abuse
B. Social abuse D. Sexual abuse
100. It refers to any behavior resulting in the isolation and alienation of a woman from friends or
family, or any action that suggest she is inferior due to her gender or different socio-economic
background?
A. Physical abuse C. Sexual abuse
B. Social abuse D. Emotional abuse
CDI 2 – Final Exam
1. Mr X is an employee of Lucky Trading engaged in electronics and DVD

business, he was attracted to one DVD which is a hot buy on that day,
he wanted to see for his own consumption the content of such DVD, he
decided to conceal and steal the DVD. Mr X was craved for that DVD
because it is_____________.
Concealable
Removable
Enjoyable
Valuable
2. An art or process which deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person
who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and
evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to justice.
Custodial investigation
Crime science
Dactyloscopy
Criminal investigation
3. Pedro and Juan are both employee of Goodluck Delivery, upon passing thru
the x-ray machine of one balik-bayan box, they learn that it contains
electronic gadgets such as cellular phone, laptop, gaming devices, etc, they
decided to steal the cellular phone to sell, they craved for such items because
it is __________.
Enjoyable
Available
Disposable
valuable
4. Shall assume full responsibility over the crime scene during the conduct of
CSI.
Investigator-on-case
Criminal
Witness
Criminal Investigator
5. A person who is in-charge with the duty of carrying out the objectives of
criminal investigation.
First responder
Witness
Criminal Investigator
6. James is a juvenile offender, almost of his friends has a brand-new cellular

phone. One day when James is in a restaurant, he noticed a lady put her
latest model of Samsung cellular phone on top of the table while enjoying
her meal. James craved to steal that phone, so he sneakily went from
behind and able to bet the phone and he hastily went out of said restaurant.
James was attracted to get by phone because it is ___________.
Concealable
Disposable
Valuable
Removable
7. It is the conduct of processes, more, particularly the recognition, search,

collection, handling, preservation and documentation and Interview of
witnesses and the arrest of suspect/s at the crime scene.
Scene of crime
Crime scene investigation
Crime scene management
Scene of crime operation
8. To carry out the many responsibilities assigned to an investigator,

deductive logic is utilized. In this aspect the logical progression points to the
sequence of events from generic to specific.
Job of Crime Investigators
Job of Investigator-on-Case
Job of First Responder
All of the above
9. They are professional thieves, in the sense that they are highly skilled;
requiring unusual manual dexterity, knowledge of human behavior and
precision teamwork.
Group of organized thieves
Pickpockets
Pickpocketing
Shoplifters
10. Armando wanted to have more inheritance share from her grandmother
than his other relatives, by means of intimidation he compels his
grandmother to sign and execute a document in favor of him. Armando is
guilty of _______.
Grave Threats
Robbery with violence or Intimidation of Persons
Robbery in band
Intimidating a person
11. It is an entire and continuous cessation of the heart action and flow of blood
in the whole vascular system.
Cessation of respiration
Death from syncope
Cessation of Heart action and circulation
Apparent death
12. In gathering information, Birth Certificate is considered as _________?

Public record
Private record
Modus operandi file
None of the above
13. The places where the criminal, victim and witness moved during the
commission of the crime is a __________?
Continuing crime
Crime scene
Crime scene boundaries
All of the above
14. The following are the purpose of cordoning (police line) the area of the
crime scene, except.
Determine the boundaries of the crime scene
Secure the crime scene
Preserved the integrity of the crime scene
Collect and preserved the evidence
15. Based on the results of the initial investigation conducted, the investigator
shall conduct ________________ to identify and apprehend suspect/s.
Police Investigation
Police Operation
Surveillance
All of the above
16. In identifying the suspect can be done through the following, except.
Eyewitness testimony
Circumstantial evidence
Association of evidence
Confession
17. Sworn statement of complainant/s and witnesses must be taken immediately

due ______.
To meet the prescription period
To the incident is still fresh in their minds
To avoid being influenced of the opinion of other people
All of the above
18. The following are the main objective of a police investigator to gather all
facts, except_________.
Prove by evidence the guilt of the suspect/s.
Identify the criminal
Convict the criminal
Locate and apprehend the suspect/s.
19. Crime is an act or omission punishable by law. It is understood that act is

punishable under the Revised Penal Code while omission is punishable by
the ________.
Republic Act
Specialized Laws
Presidential Decree
Special Laws
20. A wound that is produced by the penetration of a sharp pointed-pointed and

sharped-edge instrument like a knife, saber, dagger and scissors.
Penetrating wound
Stab wound
Puncture wound
All of the above
21. These wounds are usually the result of blunt trauma or friction with other
surfaces that do not break through the skin.
Abrasions
Lacerations
Contusions
Non-penetration wounds
22. It refers to damage to the body caused by external force

Mutilation
Wound
Injury
Inflammation
23. Randy and his three (3) friends plan to rob a pawnshop, on the occasion of
their execution, one of the customers in the pawnshop is a
Police. However, Randy was able to shoot the police and killed prompting the
group of Randy to abort their plan. Is Randy and his group guilty of a crime of
Robbery with violence or Intimidation of persons?
No, because they failed to execute the robbery.
Yes, because they executed it but was aborted only when they
killed police.
No, the case must be Homicide only
Yes, because they planned to rob the pawnshop.
24. A public school has its store house beside the Industrial Arts building, where
all the school supplies are kept. Ramon, a janitor of said school and his four
(4) friends robbed the said store house. Is Ramos and his friend guilty of the
crime of _______.
Robbery
Robbery in band
Robbery in uninhabited place and by a band
Robbery in the dependencies of building
25. A right-angle approach of the bullet will make the wound of entrance
circular shape, except when the missile is deformed or the fire is in
contact or near.
Range
Direction of fire
Deformity of the bullet that entered
Acute angular approach of the bullet
26. It is a criminal act of disabling, disfiguring or cutting off or making useless

one of the members (leg, arms, hand, foot, eye) of another.
Serious physical injuries
Mayhem
Mutilation
Physical injuries
27. It is a cause of death in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or to the
tissues or both has been reduced below normal working level.
Death from coma
Somatic death
Death from Asphyxia
Death from syncope
28. When the accused died during the pendency of his trial for “Non-payment
of just debt”, the criminal and civil liability must _____________.
Be assumed by the heirs
Be extinguished by death
Be archive by the court
All of the above
29. It is a kind of death wherein the condition is not really death but merely a
transient loss of consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital functions
of the body on account of disease, external stimulus or other forms of
influence.
Apparent death
Cellular death
Clinical death
Coma
30. If in consequences of the physical injuries inflicted, the injured person shall
become insane, imbecile, impotent or blind the acts committed are
considered as Serious Physical Injuries.
True, because it is stated in the Revised Penal Code
False, it must be Frustrated Homicide or Murder
True, because the injuries are severe
False, because the injured can still recover from illness
31. One of the characteristics of puncture wound is that the opening on the skin
is narrower and may become unnoticeable because of clotted blood and
elasticity of the skin.
True, because puncture wounds are cause by a sharp pointed object
False, because it can be noticeable due to signed of blood clot.
True, because it penetrates the skin and make a deep wound
False, because it cannot be determined if it is a wound
32. A blow on the forehead may cause contusion at the region of the eyeball
because of the fracture on the papyraceous bone forming the root of the
orbit.
Contre-coup injury
Extensive injury
Locus minoris Resistencia
Coup injury
33. When a defense wounds are present and the incised wounds are deep,
multiple and involved both accessible and non-accessible parts of the body
to the hands of the victim is called __________.
Suicidal wounds
Homicidal wounds
Accidental incised wounds
All of the above
34. It appears during the later stage of its formation when the blood has
coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused into the tissues of the
body.
Hypostatic lividity
Diffusion lividity
Livor Mortis
Cadaveric spasm
35. If in the crime scene, the cadaver tightly grasped the wounding weapon, it
may indicate that the incident happened is a _____________.
Homicide
Murder
Suicide
Drowning
36. This is a kind of evidence that encompasses any and all objects that can
establish that a crime has been committed or can provide a link between a
crime and its victim or a crime and its perpetrator
Associated evidence
Physical evidence
All of the above
37. It is legally submitted to a competent tribunal as a means of ascertaining the

truth of any alleged matter of fact under investigation before it.
Evidence
Physical evidence
Associated evidence
38. It is a flow of responsibility of transporting evidence from crime scene to
Crime Laboratory.
Evidence custodian
Chain of custody
Scene of Crime Operation.
39. It is a Protocols in Police Investigation that the Police Station in an area

where the crime incident was committed, shall immediately undertake the
necessary investigation and processing of the crime scene
Territorial Unit
Jurisdictional investigation
Area of Jurisdiction
Area of Responsibility
40. It refers to the investigation of the dead body which is performed by a

Medico Legal Officer or by a trained physician employing recognized
dissection procedure and techniques.
Non-official autopsy
Crime scene investigation stage
Official autopsy
Autopsy stage
41. The following are the points to be considered which may infer the position
of the body at the time of death. Which is not?
Posture of the body when found
Post-mortem hypostasis
Cadaveric spasm
Entomology of the cadaver
42. It is a modification of the putrefaction process characterized by the

dehydration of the cadaveric tissues.
Mummification
Putrefaction
Maceration
Saponification
43. It refers to the modification of putrefaction process which involves

hydrolysis and hydrogenation of fatty issues into a yellowish greasy, rancid,
wax-like substance called adipocere.
Mummification
Putrefaction
Saponification
Maceration
44. Pedro wanted to burned the house of Juan his enemy, one evening when
the family of Juan is already asleep, Pedro took a rag, soaked into a
gasoline and went into the combustible portion of the house, and when he
is on the act of lighting his lighter to burn the rag, he was arrested by the
patrolling barangay tanod. Pedro is liable for the crime of _______.
Frustrated Arson
Attempted Arson
Consummated Arson
Arson
45. This robbery’s style is based on the moment of surprise and does not
require specific planning.
Robbery by ambush
Robbery by raid
Robbery by band
None of the above
46. It refers to the all-interior courts, corrals, water houses, granaries, barns,
coach-houses, stables or other departments or enclosed places contiguous
to the building or edifice, having an interior entrance connected therewith,
and which form part of the whole.
Inhabited house/building
Uninhabited house
Dependencies of the house
Private building
47. A person who enters or remains on the premises of another without

effective consent of the owner for the purpose of committing a felony or
theft.
Brigandage
Burglary
Robbers
Opportunistic or amateur robbers.
48. They are robbers who do not plan their robberies, target low risk victims, do
not typically use firearms and work independently.
Unarmed robbers
Street robbers
Opportunistic or amateur robbers
Substance-habituated robbers
49. Primo, while having a widow shopping inside the mall, he saw an imported
chocolate and he cannot resist his urges to steal, when he has the
opportunity, he took and carted away said chocolate for his pleasure
gratification. Primo is a _______.
Opportunistic or amateur robber
Kleptomania
Shoplifter
Thieve
50. The most frequently cited emotional problem associated with shoplifting is
________.
Economic problem
Kleptomania
Depression
Trill-seeking
51. It refers to theft of a few pieces or a small quantity of a relatively large
shipment.
Theft
Robbery
Pilferage
Larceny
52. It is an act of stealing wallets, passports and sometimes other valuables

from people’s clothing and baags as they walk into or in a public place.
Snatching
Pickpocketing
Dipping
lifting
1. It refers to the study of the general practices, methods and steps in taking pictures of the
crime scene physical things and other circumstances that can be used as criminal
evidences or for law enforcement purposes.
A. Police photography C. Forensic photography
B. Surveillance photography D. Aerial photography
2. It is the art or process of producing images of objects on sensitized surfaces by the
chemical action of light.
A. Photography C. Forensic photography
3. It is a factual reproduction and accurate record of the crime scene because it captures
TIME, SPACE AND EVENT
A. Picture C. Photograph
B. Evidence D. Motion Picture
4. It is a method of recording images by the action of light or related radiations on a
sensitive material
A. Macrophotography C. Photography
B. Photomicrography D. All of the foregoing
5. He was the first person to coin the word CAMERA OBSCURA IN 1604, and in 1609, he
further suggested the use of a lens to improve the image projected by a Camera
Obscura.
A. Isaac Newton C. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. William Henry Fox Talbot D. Johannes Kepler
6. The field of photography covering the legal application of photography in criminal
jurisprudence and criminal investigations.
7. It is an image produced through the action of light.
8. It is a representation or image on a surface especially as a work of art. Example:
painting, drawing, print or photograph.
9. It is the type of photography which focuses on the preparation of photographic evidence
needed by prosecutors and courts of law
10. It is the process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object without the use of
a microscope, by using a short focus lens or macro lens/close-up lens and a long bellow
extension.
A. Macrophotography C. Photomacrography
B. Photomicrography D. Microphotography
11. It is the production of photographs in which the image of an object is reproduced much
smaller than it actually is, it is the opposite of photomicrography.
A. Macrophotography C. Photomacrography
B. Photomicrography D. Microphotography
12. It refers to the recording of images formed by infrared radiation. This type of
photography uses a special type of film that is sensitive to infrared radiation.
A. Infrared photography C. Photomacrography
B. UV photography D. Microphotography
13. The type of photography that is best used in aerial surveillance since it allows the viewer
to see things clearly even in bad weather conditions.
14. It is the process that records the glow or visible light given off by certain substances
when they are irradiated by ultraviolet rays.
15. A photograph of the crime scene is a factual reproduction and accurate record of the
crime scene because it captures __________.
A. Time C. Event
B. Space D. All of the foregoing
16. It is a branch of forensic science dealing with the preparation of photographic evidence
needed by prosecutors and courts of law.
A. Photography C. Infrared photography
B. Police photography D. Forensic photography
17. A photograph of the crime scene is capable of capturing the event that happened. What
does EVENT pertains to?
A. The WHERE of the Crime C. The WHAT of the Crime
B. The WHEN of the Crime D. The HOW of the Crime
18. The word PHOTOGRAPHY was derived from the Greek word Phos which means to
light, and the word Graphos which means __________.
A. To draw C. To see
B. To Graph D. To click
19. It is the process of taking photographs of the suspect/s in full length, half body, right and
left side views, and two quarter views.
A. Investigation C. Mug-shot Photography
B. Aerial Photography D. Personal Identification
20. It is the art or science of photographically documenting a crime scene and evidence for
laboratory examination and analysis for purposes of court trial.
A. Police photography C. Surveillance photography
B. Forensic photography D. Aerial photography
21. An evidence that is presented in court once accepted will become known as
__________.
A. Evidence C. Proof
B. Exhibit D. Photographic Evidence
22. Before an evidence is accepted in court, it is a requirement that they must first satisfy the
basic requirements of admissibility which is __________.
A. Relevancy D. Both A and B
B. Competency E. None of the Above
23. Which of the following is best used in the examination of questioned or disputed
documents?
A. Infrared Photography C. Photomicrography
B. UV Photography D. X-ray Photography
24. The word forensic was derived from the Latin word ___________ which means “a
market place” where people gathered for public discussion.
A. Forens C. Forum
B. Forensis D. Legal
25. It is the mechanical and chemical result of Photography.
26. It is generally known as the birth year of photography.
A. 1604 C. 1827
B. 1609 D. 1839
27. It is the process of taking photograph of a far object with the aid of a long focus and
Telephoto lens.
A. Photomicrography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Telephotography
28. The process of photographing unseen objects with the naked eye with the use of ultra-
violet rays and filters.
A. UV Photography C. Macrophotography
B. Microphotography D. Infrared Photography
29. The use of photography from which reproduction of the evidence can be made in any
number giving unlimited opportunity for its examination without compromising the
original.
A. For Identification C. For Communication
B. For Reproduction and Copying D. For Preservation
30. Refers to the zone of acceptable sharpness or the area or zone of a photograph, from
front to back, which is in focus.
A. Depth of Focus C. Focal Point
B. Depth of Field D. Hyperfocal Point
31. Refers to the range of distance in a scene that appears to be in focus and will be
reproduced as being acceptably sharp, it could be shallow or greater.
32. In the relationship between the f-number, lens opening and the depth of field, the higher
the f-number, the _________ the lens opening, the _________ depth of field.
A. Larger; Shallow C. Smaller; Greater
B. Larger; Greater D. Smaller; Shallow
33. This refers to the zone of focus in the camera.
34. Refers to the distance between the focal point of a lens and the film plane when the lens
is focused at infinity.
A. Hyperfocal Distance C. Focal Length
B. Hyperfocal Point D. Focal Point
35. The central or principal point of focus.
36. When the lens is focused on infinity, the distance of the nearest object in a scene that is
acceptably sharp is called ___________?
A. Depth of Focus C. Hyperfocal Point
B. Hyperfocal Distance D. Focal Point
37. When the lens is focused on infinity, the nearest point to the camera that is acceptably
sharp is the __________.
A. Depth of Focu10s C. Hyperfocal Point
B. Hyperfocal Distance D. Focal Point
38. A piece of glass, plastic or any transparent substance bounded by two surfaces of different
curvature, generally spherical, by which rays of light may be made to converge or diverge.
A. Lens C. Mirror
B. Prism D. Viewfinder
39. A very important part of the camera which controls the amount of light that reaches the
film. It also controls the magnification of the image.
A. Prism C. Mirror
B. Lens D. Viewfinder
40. A type of lens which diverge light and produce a virtual or real image. Also called a
diverging lens.
A. Chromatic Lens C. Concave Lens
B. Process Lens D. Convex Lens
41. A camera lens which has a focal length of 24mm-35mm is categorized as _________?
A. Ultra-Wide Angle Lens C. Normal Lens
B. Wide Angle Lens D. Telephoto Lens
42. It refers to the failure of light rays to focus properly after they pass through a lens or reflect
from a mirror.
A. Aberration C. Curvature of field
B. Coma D. Astigmatism
43. This lens defect arises from a variation of magnification with axial distance and is not
caused by a lack of sharpness in the image.
A. Barrel Distortion C. Distortion
B. Wave Distortion D. Pincushion Distortion
44. A type of distortion which is present when straight lines running parallel with the picture
edges appear to bow inward.
A. Barrel Distortion C. Distortion
B. Wave Distortion D. Pincushion Distortion
45. It is a tinted glass, gelatin or plastic disc, squares or rectangles that modify light passing
through them.
A. Filter C. Haze Filter
B. Lens D. Viewfinder
46. When using a red filter, what colors of light will be absorbed?
A. Blue C. Green and Blue
B. Red D. Red and Green
47. A filter that absorbs atmospherically scattered sunlight. This filter affect the gray tone of
colored objects.
A. Haze Filter C. Neutral Density Filter
B. Skylight Filter D. Polarizing Filter
48. It is a transparent cellulose nitrate or cellulose acetate composition made in thin, flexible
strips or sheets and coated with a light sensitive emulsion for taking photograph.
A. Filter C. Photographic Paper
B. Film D. Top Coating
49. A black dye applied on the rear surface of the film used to absorb light that may penetrate
the emulsion layer, preventing it to reflect back to the emulsion.
A. Top Coating C. Emulsion Layer
B. Anti-Halation Backing D. Film Base
50. It is an over coating of a thin layer of hard gelatin which helps protect the silver halide
emulsion from scratches and abrasions.
51. It is the light sensitive portion of a film or paper that records the image.
52. A film which is sensitive to all colors and are further subdivided according to their degree
of sensitivity to each color.
A. Orthochromatic Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Infrared Film D. Non-Chromatic Film
53. It is the most commonly used film in investigative photography because it produces the
most natural recording of colors.
A. Orthochromatic Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Non-Chromatic Film D. Infrared Film
54. This refers to the heart of a digital camera.
A. Film C. Lens
B. Sensor D. Battery
55. It is that sensitized material that will record the visible image in the final development and
become the photograph.
A. Film C. Photographic Filter
B. Photographic Paper D. Sensor
56. In the chemical processing, this refers to the process necessary for reducing the silver
halides to form the image.
A. Development C. Fixation
B. Stop Bath D. Developer
57. In the development of the negative, what is the main developing agent being used?
A. Elon Hydroquinone C. D-76
B. Dektol D. Acetic Acid
58. Under the stages of development, this refers to the process by which all unexposed silver
halides are dissolved or removed from the emulsion surface making the image more
permanent.
59. In the process of fixation, this is the commonly used fixing agent to make the image in
the film permanent.
A. Elon Hydroquinone C. D-76
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Acetic Acid
60. The development stage normally composed of water with a little amount of dilute acetic
acid that serves as a means to prevent contamination between the developer and the acid
fixer
61. This refers to the gradual fading of the image towards the side through skillful
adjustment on the dodging board.
A. Dodging C. Cropping
B. Dye-toning D. Vignetting
62. A darkroom technique which refers to the process of eliminating unwanted portion of the
negative during enlarging.
63. It refers to the addition of exposure on a desired portion of the negative used for
purposes of making a balance exposure
B. Dye-toning D. Burning-in
64. The process of omitting an object during the process of enlarging and printing.
65. It refers to the sensitivity of the film emulsion to light, which is measured and expressed
in a numerical rating called ISO, formerly known as ASA/DIN.
A. Film Speed C. Lens
B. Emulsion Layer D. Camera
66. It is the crime scene view which establishes or shows the general location and condition
or the overall view of the crime scene to include reference point.
A. Close-up View C. Birds’ Eye View
B. Midrange View D. General View
67. In the conduct of crime scene photography, what “crime scene view” is needed to be
taken first?
A. General View C. Midrange View
B. Close-up View D. Birds’ Eye View
68. A crime scene view which is utilized to facilitate identification or to show the extent of
damage or injury caused by the suspect.
A. Close-up View C. Birds’ Eye View
B. Midrange View D. General View
69. The requirement in crime scene photography wherein photographs taken must show its
purpose and photograph must for a set together related to the scene as a whole.
A. Admissibility C. Consistency
B. Clarity D. Scale
70. It is a requirement in crime scene photography that is applied to determine the actual
measurement/size of the object being photographed.
A. Admissibility C. Consistency
B. Clarity D. Scale
71. If in the crime scene a street sign or the building name is not present to orient its
location, the following can be used as reference point to orient the viewer of its general
location, except:
A. Known Building C. Natural Feature in the Area
B. A Car Parked D. Streetlight Post
72. What is the reason why the entire exterior of the building should be photographed?
A. To establish location of the crime scene
B. To determine possible entrance and exits of perpetrators
C. To locate possible offenders
D. To show the appearance of the crime scene
73. Which of the following is a disadvantage of diagonal view in capturing an overall exterior
of a building?
A. The near side and the far side have the same perspective
B. The façade has a better view
C. Flash cannot light all areas equally
D. It can identify possible entrance and exit in the building
74. In capturing the overall exterior of a large building, what type of lens is best applicable?
A. Fisheye Lens C. Normal Lens
B. Telephoto lens D. Wide Angle Lens
75. Once inside the crime scene room, take a complete set of “interior overall photographs”.
The phrase “interior overall photographs” means __________________.
A. All kinds of documentation C. All crime scene view of the room
B. The overall exterior view D. Full 360° view of the room
76. To eliminate shadow of objects when photographing a dim crime scene, what should the
photographer do?
A. Detach flash C. Use bounce flash technique
B. Use direct flash technique D. Add more light intensity to the flash
77. Which of the following would depict a fair and accurate relationship between the distance
of a subject and the reference point?
A. Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Parallel View
B. Linear Point of View D. Diagonal Point of View
78. It is a cardinal rule in crime scene photography whereby only the subject matter at hand
should be seen in the photograph. All other extraneous elements should be excluded
from the photo.
A. Use Isosceles Triangle Point of View C. Maximize depth of field.
B. Fill the Frame D. Keep the film plane parallel
79. If the relationship of the evidence to a fixed feature of the scene is the only story that
should be told in a particular photograph, everything else that does not contribute to this
goal should be eliminated from the field of view. This pertains to the cardinal principle
which is to _________________.
80. In the documentation of wounds especially on the sensitive portion of the female body,
the foremost requirement before taking photographs is the _____________.
A. Wounds Sustained C. Victims’ Consent
B. Relation to the Suspect D. Skill in Photography
81. It is a lighting technique which uses normal copy lighting with one or more light sources
at a 45-degree angles.
A. Bounce Lighting C. Oblique Lighting
B. Direct Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
82. It is a lighting technique in which an opaque material is placed between the light source
and the subject to diffuse the light. This usually results in even lighting with reduced
reflections and hot spots.
B. Direct Lighting D. Diffused Lighting
83. It is a cardinal rule in photography, which means that the photographer must aligned
himself perpendicularly to subject being photographed.
84. Under the evidence close-up photography, it is a special technique that is commonly uses
a light source at a low angle, usually to show detail by creating shadows in the subject
surface. It is commonly used when photographing impressions, tool marks and certain
types of fingerprints.
B. Direct Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
85. It is a lighting technique that is applied when the subject is transparent. The light source
is transmitted through the subject toward the lens.
A. Direct Lighting C. Bounce Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Direct Reflective Lighting
86. It is an evidence close-up photography technique that is best applied and is effective
when photographing fingerprints on mirrors and into glasses or cups to eliminate or
minimize reflection.
A. Diffused Lighting C. Direct Reflective Lighting
B. Transmitted Lighting D. Front Directional or Axis Lighting
87. If during the investigation, there is a presence of soot in the surroundings of the gunshot
wound, this is in indication that _____________________.
A. The shot was fired 10 meters away from the victim
B. The shot was fired at a distance
C. The shot was fired in contact with the victim
D. None of the above.
88. In taking photographs of wounds and injuries sustained by live victims on the sensitive
portions of the body, what should be the considered?
A. Include in the photograph the face of the victim to facilitate identification
B. Include the fix features of the body to locate the injury
C. Only the injuries/wounds that are significant should be photographed
D. All of the above
89. It is the law which established the rules on electronic evidence in the Philippines. It is
also known as the E-Commerce Law.
A. RA 10175 C. RA 8792
B. RA 8551 D. RA 6539
90. In the rules of admissibility, evidence must have such a relation to the fact in issue as to
induce belief in its existence or non-existence. This means that the evidence must be
___________.
A. Competent C. Material
B. Relevant D. Accurate
91. An evidence is said to be ___________ when it is not excluded by the rules of court or
by the law.
92. In the rules of admissibility, pictures must not emotionally influence the judge and the
witnesses as to the facts of the case. This means that photographs should be ________.
A. Competent C. Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion
93. In the rules of admissibility of evidence, the photograph should depict that a crime was
actually committed and what crime was committed.
94. In the rules on electronic evidence, who has the burden of proving the authenticity of the
evidence to be presented?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Prosecutor on Case
B. The Offended Party D. The Person Seeking to Introduce the Evidence
95. Under Philippine law, evidence is competent when it relates directly to the fact in issue
as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.
A. True C. Partly True
B. False D. Partly False
96. If the person who made the recording is not available during the presentation of the
electronic evidence, who may prove its authenticity?
A. The Judge of the Court C. The Witness
B. Other Persons Competent to Testify D. The Prosecutor of the case
97. The principal requirements to admit a photograph either digital or film-based into
evidence are:
A. Free of Distortion and Accuracy C. Relevance and Authentication
B. Material and Relevant D. Competency and Relevancy
98. In this method of proving authenticity, the affiant shall be made to affirm the contents of
the affidavit in open court and may be cross-examined as a matter of right by the
adverse party.
A. Cross-Examination of the Deponent C. Interview the Witnesses
B. Affidavit of Evidence D. Testimony of Witnesses
99. If the electronic evidence presents a faithful and clear representation of the subject, it
means that the evidence is ___________.
A. Competent C. Material and Relevant
B. Non-Inflammatory D. Free from Distortion and Accurate
100. Mr. X is seeking to introduce an evidence of a decomposed body in the court. He
was denied to introduce evidence because it is so smelly. This denotes that the
evidence is ___________.
A. Not Competent C. Irrelevant
B. Inflammatory D. Not Accurate
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION 1
1. It is the manner or practice of managing or controlling places of confinement of as in jails

or prisons including the execution of punishment.
A. Correction C. Penal Management
B. Penology D. Protection
2. It refers to the study of punishment for crime or of criminal offenders.

B. Penology D. Punishment
3. It is a branch of Criminal Justice System concerned with the custody, supervision, and
rehabilitation of criminal offenders.
4. It is the task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not commit another
crime in the future.
A. Protection C. Expiation
B. Rehabilitation D. Correction
5. A division of criminology that deals with the prison management and treatment of
offenders, and concerned itself with the philosophy and practice of society in its effort to
repress criminal activities.
6. It is the redress that the state takes against an offending member of society that usually
involves pain and suffering.
A. Penology C. Rehabilitation
B. Correction D. Punishment
7. It refers to the infliction of death penalty upon persons convicted of serious crime.
A. Punishment C. Corporal Punishment
B. Correction D. Capital Punishment
8. A branch of criminology concerned itself with the management of prisons and treatment
of offenders. It is also known as penal science.
B. Penology D. Protection
9. It refers to the infliction of physical pain upon a convicted criminal.

A. Punishment C. Corporal Punishment
B. Correction D. Capital Punishment
10. The word PENOLOGY was derived from the Latin word _________.
A. Peno B. Poena C. Pionu D. Poines
11. The Correction pillar is said to be the weakest pillar because _______.
A. It fails to punish the individual
B. It punishes the innocent
C. It has no budget to provide adequate jail facilities.
D. It fails to reform and rehabilitate the individual
12. A penalty is correctional if _____________________.

A. It is prescribed by law
B. It punishes only the person who committed the offense
C. It has the same gravity for the offense committed.
D. It can change the behavior of an individual
13. A penalty is said to be legal if _____________________.

A. It is prescribed by law
B. It punishes only the person who committed the offense
C. It can change the behavior of an individual
D. It has the same gravity for the offense committed.
14. It describes a wide range of diversified programs, agencies, and institutions as well as
their respective philosophical goals, ideals and theory about the nature of human’s
society, crime and criminal offender.
A. Penology C. Punishment
B. Correction D. Correctional Management
15. It refers to the justification that considers punishment as a social defense wherein the
society would be safer if criminals are placed behind bars.
A. Atonement C. Reformation
B. Protection D. Retribution
16. He was the first Filipino to be meted the death penalty via lethal injection on February 5
1999 for the case of rape.
A. Baby Lakay C. Leo Echegaray
B. Marcial Perez D. Andres Bonifacio
17. An agency under the Department of Justice tasked to effectively sake-keep and
rehabilitate national prisoners - those sentence to three year and one day and above.
A. BJMP B. BUCor C. DILG D. DSWD
18. It is the law called as the Bureau of Corrections Act of 2013

A. RA 10575 B. RA 9263 C. E.O. 292 D. RA 6975
19. It pertains to personnel employed in the implementation of reformation programs and

those personnel whose nature of work requires proximate or direct contact with inmates.
A. Corrections Technical Officers C. Escort Platoon
B. Custodial Officers D. Reformation Officers
20. The Bureau of Correction is headed by a Director with the position and title of
________________________________.
A. Director of Prisons C. Head of the Bureau of Corrections
B. Director General of Corrections D. Prison Director
21. The BuCor is headed by a director with the rank of _______________________.

A. Chief Superintendent C. Undersecretary
B. Director General D. Superintendent
22. That the Director and the Deputy Directors of the BuCor shall serve a tour of duty of
_____________________ from the date of appointment.
A. 3 Years C. 4 Years
B. More than 6 Years D. Not Exceeding 6 Years
23. The Director and Deputy directors of the BuCor is appointed by _____________.
A. Civil Service Commission C. President
B. DOJ Secretary D. Director of the BuCor
24. It is considered as one of the most open penal institution in the world or "The Prison without
Walls”.
A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm C. New Bilibid Prison
B. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm D. Leyte Regional Prison
25. Camp Bukang Liwayway under the NBP is considered as what type of prison according
to degree of custody?
A. Minimum Security C. Maximum Security
B. Medium Security D. Super Maximum Security
26. It refers to those detained for investigation, preliminary hearing, or awaiting trial.
A. Detention Prisoners C. Sentenced Prisoner
B. Prisoner D. Prisoner who are on Safekeeping
27. It refers to under the law as insular prisoners. They are those whose sentence is more
than three years of imprisonment and are sent to BUCOR.
A. Municipal prisoner C. City Prisoners
B. Provincial Prisoners D. National Prisoners
28. It includes highly dangerous or high security risk inmates as determine by the classification
board who require a high degree of control and supervision.
A. Super Maximum Security Prisoner C. Medium Security Prisoner
B. Maximum Security Prisoner D. Minimum Security Prisoner
29. A small portion of any prison institution population consisting of incorrigibles, recidivist,
escape artist and chronic trouble makers.
A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners C. Medium Security Prisoners
B. Maximum Security Prisoners D. Minimum Security Prisoners
30. An inmate wearing blue color of uniform is classified as _________________.

A. Detainee C. Medium Security Prisoners
B. Maximum Security Prisoners D. Minimum Security Prisoners
31. A special unit of prison where new prisoners undergo diagnostic examination.
A. Receiving area C. Quarantine Cell
B. Reception and Diagnostic Center D. Half-way House
32. A written order of the court or other competent authority consigning an offender to a jail or
prison for confinement.
A. Commitment Order C. Carpeta
B. Mittimus D. Prison record
33. A warrant issued by a court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing the
jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for the service of sentence
imposed therein or for detention.
34. The BJMP was created under R.A. 6975 and was further organized under ___________.
A. RA 8551 B. RA 9165 C. RA 9263 D. RA 10575
35. The Bureau (BJMP) shall be headed by a chief with the rank of __________.
A. Director C. Chief Superintendent
B. Chief of BJMP D. Chief Inspector
36. It refers to the inmate record or jacket. It contains the personal and criminal record of the
inmate
37. It pertains to the Surprise inspection utilized in searching the prisoner for possession of
contrabands inside the prison cell and compound maybe checked at anytime
A. Shakedown C. Strip search
B. Visual Cavity Search D. Greyhound Operation
38. It is the process or result of formal training in school or classrooms intended to shape the
mind and attitude of prisoners towards good living upon their release. It is the cornerstone
of rehabilitation.
A. Counselling and Casework C. Education Program
B. Work Program D. Recreational Program
39. The purpose of this program is to change the attitudes of inmates by inculcating religious
values or belief
A. Medical and Health Services C. Education Program
B. Religious Program D. Counselling and Casework
40. In this treatment program, Inmate is given on-the-job training and observation to determine
his vocational interests and abilities and to determine his attitude toward work.
41. The only program that is conducted during free time schedule
42. An administrative device of correctional institutions of providing varied and flexible types
of physical plants for the more effective custody, security and control of the treatment
programs of its diversified population.
A. Classification C. Diversification
B. Segregation D. Separation
43. It is the principle of separating homogenous type of prisoners. It deals with the
separation of inmates according to age, sex, medical or mental condition and degree of
custody.
A. Classification C. Separation
B. Diversification D. Isolation
44. It refers to the state of good order and behavior. It includes maintenance of good
standards of works, sanitation, safety, education, health and recreation.
A. Prison Discipline C. Security
B. Preventive Discipline D. Control
45. It involves safety measures to maintain the orderliness and discipline with in the jail or
prison.
46. It is a process of determining the needs and requirement of prisoners for assigning them
to programs according to their needs and existing resources.
A. Classification C. Separation
B. Diversification D. Isolation
47. It refers to the guarding or penal safekeeping. It involves security measures, locking and
counting routines, procedures for searching prisoners and their living quarters, and
prevention of contraband.
A. Prevention B. Security C. Control D. Custody
48. It is the prompt correction of minor deviations committed by prisoners before they
become serious violations.
49. It involves supervision of prisoners to ensure punctual and orderly movement from one
place work program or assignment to another.
50. How many times a Jail Officer should conducts headcount per day?
A. At least twice a day C. At least four times a day
B. At least thrice a day D. At least five times a day
51. A surprise inspection utilized in searching the prisoner for possession of contrabands
inside the prison cell and compound maybe checked at any time.
A. Operation Bakal C. Greyhound Operation
B. Strip Search D. Shakedown
52. The anti-riot group that is composed of guards trained on proper handling and use of
firearms who shall be ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in peril on orders of
the Officer-in-Command.
A. Custodial Force C. 2nd Group
st
B. 1 Group D. 3rd Group
53. What is the main objective of the 1 st anti-riot group?

A. To disperse the rioters and get their leaders
B. To serve as backup force
C. To disable at designated targets
D. None of the above
54. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately issued
firearms and assigned to critical posts to _______________.
A. To serve as backup force
B. To disperse the rioters and get their leaders
C. To disable at designated targets
D. To block the escape routes
55. The anti-riot group which serves as a backup force and are equipped with tear gas, guns
and grenades.
A. Custodial Force B. 1st Group C. 2nd Group D. 3rd Group
56. The following are modes of promoting security and control in the jail facility except:
A. Maintain strict control of firearms
B. Conduct regular headcounts of inmates
C. Maintain cleanliness inside the cells
D. Conduct frequent inspection
57. Which of the following is not a function of the custodial force?

A. Insure custody and safety of inmates
B. Censor inmate’s mail
C. Inspect security devices
D. Request for the transfer of an inmate
58. In case of emergency in the jail facility, what is the first thing to do by a custodial officer?
A. Sound the alarm C. Implement Lockdown
B. Inform the Warden D. Escort the Inmates out of the Jail
59. If a custodial officer has detected any infringement or violation of the jail rules and
regulation, what must the officer do?
A. Sound the alarm C. Implement Lockdown
B. Inform the Warden D. Punish the violator immediately
60. If the total jail count does not tally with the total jail population in the first count, what must
the custodial officer do?
A. Conduct another count C. Report Immediately to the Warden
B. Notify the Nearest PNP D. Conduct hot pursuit operation
61. It refers to the process of inspecting and opening all incoming and outgoing letters to
determine if there are detrimental contents to the security and lives of the inmates.
A. Strip Search C. Cavity Search
B. Operation Greyhound D. Censoring Mails
62. In censoring inmates’ mail, what must be done by the censor officer if intercepted cash,
checks and other contraband inside the mail?
A. Confiscate Contrabands C. Inform the Warden
B. Notify the PNP D. Torture the inmate
63. What must first be done by the censor officer if a mail has been received?
A. Censor the mail C. Immediately distribute the mail to the addressee
B. Release the Inmate D. Burn the Mail
64. If during the censoring of mails, a bundle of money was confiscated inside the mail, what
must be first done by the Censor Officer?
A. Sound the alarm C. Immediately punish the offender
B. Deposit the money to BPI D.Deposit said money to the Trust Officer
65. The following are instances whereby prisoners and detainees may be moved or
transferred safely and humanely by trained personnel who shall adopt the necessary level
of security, supervision, and control to ensure public safety except:
A. To appear, as witness before any court of justice or prosecutor’s office
B. To appear as witness in any investigation or formal
C. To visit relatives birthday party
D. To undergo medical examination or treatment in a hospital or clinic.
66. An inmate may be transferred to another institution only upon specific order of the court
having jurisdiction over him/her, EXCEPT:
A. When in cases of serious illness C. When there is a rot
B. When the inmate is high profile D. When there is an emergency
67. Viewing of the remains of the deceased relative can only be made within what degree of
affinity or consanguinity?
A. 1st Degree C. 3rd Degree
nd
B. 2 Degree D. 4th Degree Affinity/consanguinity
68. The following are instances a jail warden can oppose the court order allowing the inmate
to view the remains of a deceased relative, except:
A. If the deceased lying-in state is beyond 30 kilometer radius
B. The inmate has a record of escape or attempted escape
C. The inmate is high profile, high risk or violent extremist
D. None of the Above
69. If an inmate was given an approval to visit the remains of his/her relative, for how long can
he stay in the place where the remain of the deceased lie in state?
A. Not more than 3 hours C. Not more than 6 hours
B. Not more than 5 hours D. Not more than 8 hours
70. In any emergency like riot or other jail disturbance that happens on a weekend and when
the immediate transfer to other BJMP-manned jails of inmates involved is necessary, can
the warden recommend the transfer of the inmate?
A. No, there must be an approval of the court
B. No, it will escalate the emergency situation
C. Yes, with first notifying the regional director
D. Yes, to ensure security in the jail
71. The following are circumstances an inmate maybe brought out of jail, which is not?
A. To appear, as witness before any court of justice or prosecutor’s office during
preliminary investigation, arraignment or hearing of a criminal case;
B. To appear as witness in any investigation or formal inquiry being conducted by a
government agency;
C. To view the remains of a deceased relative within the second degree of affinity or
consanguinity; and
D. To undergo baptism in the church
72. If the total jail count does not tally with the total jail population after conducting a recount,
what must the custodial officer do?
A. Conduct another count C. Report Immediately to the Warden
B. Notify the Nearest PNP D. Conduct hot pursuit operation
73. In transporting inmates, what is the primary reason the Jail personnel should not discuss
the transportation plans, schedules and equipment to be used during the transport?
A. To prevent the escape of the inmate
B. To avoid compromise during the transport
C. To discourage the inmate from escaping
74. Upon arriving at the destination, who should first disembark the vehicle?
A. The driver C. The Escort personnel
B. The Inmates D. The passenger
75. The following are rules to be followed when transporting inmates, except
A. Transfer shall be made only during daytime
B. The shortest and direct route to the destination shall be taken
C. Use rented vehicle to avoid compromise
D. The escort personnel shall not discuss the transportations plans to the inmates
76. If in case during the transport the vehicle sustain mechanical problems, what should the
escort personnel do?
A. Call for immediate back up
B. Inform the headquarters immediately
C. Ignore the problem and continue
D. Repair the damage immediately
77. In the event that the vehicle sustain serious vehicular problem during escorting and the
radio and the mobile phone communication is not possible, what should the escort
personnel do?
A. Kill the inmates C. Flag down any motorist and ask for help
B. Release the inmates D. Contact the headquarters immediately
78. If during the transport the inmate escaped, what should the escort personnel do?
A. Immediately apprehend the escapee
B. Call the ambulance
C. Notify the nearest law enforcement unit
D. Stay in the vicinity until reinforcement arrives
79. The following are rights of inmates, which is not included?

A. To be treated as a human being
B. To avail medical, dental and other health services
C. To be entitled to Good Conduct Time Allowance (GCTA) as provided by law
D. To vote unless disqualified by law
80. An inmate has the right to read books and other reading materials available in the
library.
A. True B. False C. Yes D. No
81. It refers to an inmate who requires less supervision than other inmates usually assigned
with special tasks, he/she has no special privileges, and is not allowed to work alone nor
exercise any authority over other inmates.
A. Escort Personnel C. Jail Aide
B. Detainee D. Trustee
82. The following are instances where an inmate may request a leave from jail, except
A. Death or serious illness of family members
B. Immediate medical attention is needed
C. Inmate is seriously ill or injured
83. A mode of securing the release of any person in custody or detention for the commission
of an offense who is unable to post bail due to abject poverty. The court may release an
inmate to the custody of another or to a qualified individual where the inmate resides
A. Bail B. Recognizance C. Probation D. Parole
84. If the convict has no property with which to meet the fine imposed to him, he shall be
subject to a __________at the rate of one day for each amount equivalent to the highest
minimum wage rate prevailing in the Philippines at the time of the rendition of judgment
of conviction by the trial court.
A. Parole C. Subsidiary penalty
B. Probation D. Recognizance
85. A privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a deduction of his term of
imprisonment.
A. GCTA B. Recognizance C. Probation D. Parole
86. The controversial GCTA law of the philippines
A. RA 8551 B. RA 10592 C. RA 10591 D. RA 10575
87. As stated under the GCTA law, during the first two years of imprisonment, an inmate
shall be allowed a deduction of _________ for each month of good behavior during
detention
A. 5 days/month C. 25 days/month
B. 20 days/month D. 23 days/month
88. It refers to the deduction of sentence by which after the inmate has escaped during the
conflagration has submitted himself again for custody.
A. GCTA C. Probation
B. Recognizance D. Special Time Allowance
89. If an inmate has evaded the service of his sentence on the occasion of disorders due to
conflagrations, earthquakes, or other calamities and then gives himself up to the
authorities within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the
passing away of the calamity or catastrophe to in said article. He is entitled to a
deduction of __________.
A. ½ of his sentence C. 1/8 of his sentence
B. 1/5 of his sentence D. 20 days/month
90. If Mr. B detained Mr. C for the violation of a light offense, how much time is given to him
to deliver the detained person to the proper judicial authorities?
A. 12 hours B. 15 hours C. 18 hours D. 36 hours
91. If Mr. X helps in the escape of such a detained person, what crime is he liable at?
A. Delay in the delivery of detained person
B. Delivery of prisoners from jail
C. Evasion of service of sentence
D. Delaying release
92. If an inmate escaped during the occasion of conflagration, within how many hours
should he give himself up for him to be entitled a special time allowance?
A. Within 24 hours C. Within 48 hours
B. Within 36 hours D. Within 72 hours
93. Mr. Bano was arrested for the murder of his neighbor and was detained in the police
station by SPO1 Banak for 72 hours without proper disposition. What case can be filed
against SPO1 Banak?
D. Delaying release
94. A crime committed by a public officer or employee who delays for the period of time
specified in Art 125, the performance of any judicial or executive order for the release of
a prisoner or unduly delays the services of the notice of such order to said prisoner.
D. Delaying release
95. Under Art. 125 of the RPC, how many hours shall a public officer or employee deliver
the arrested person to the proper judicial authorities for him not be liable for delay in the
delivery of detained person if the crime committed is a capital offense?
A. Within 12 hours C. Within 36 hours
B. Within 18 hours D. Within 48 hours
96. As provided under RA 10592 (GCTA Law), if an inmate is performing good behavior
during the third to the fifth year, inclusive of his imprisonment, how many days shall be
deducted to his sentence?
A. 5 days/month C. 23 days/month
B. 20 days/month D. 25 days/month
Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions
1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Qualified Homicide Answer: B
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms
in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing Answer: B
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her first husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Qualified Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
Answer: B
4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion Answer: B
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public Officials
D. Qualified Bribery Answer: D
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made

under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
Answer: D
7. Factum probans means __.
A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. sufficiency of evidence Answer: C
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture Answer: C
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

first instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction Answer: C
10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

A. Counsel de officio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel Answer: A
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary

Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of traffic laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment Answer: C
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench Answer: C
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975 Answer: C
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to

gain, by means of force and intimidation.
A. qualified theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief Answer: B
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of

force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,
whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed Answer: B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants Answer: D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant

noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal Answer: B
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another

person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault Answer: C
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention Answer: A
20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal

knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality Answer: C
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old Answer: C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of

the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories Answer: A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute

the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty Answer: D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty

is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve Answer: D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes Answer: A
26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an

act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. qualified bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery
Answer: B
27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of
affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsification
C. perjury
D. slander Answer: C
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty Answer: B
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted
together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy Answer: C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act Answer: C
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation Answer: B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
Answer: C
33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.

A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation Answer: B
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender Answer: A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning
Answer: C
36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a

criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial Answer: B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,

furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
specified by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant Answer: C
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment
Answer: A
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment Answer: D
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining

whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded
belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining Answer: C
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence Answer: C
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence Answer: B
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived

from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
Answer: A
44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence Answer: D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an
offense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the
offense
C. subject of the offense
D. all of the above Answer: D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers Answer: B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of

human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in
death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not
organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be
ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous affray
Answer: D
49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question Answer: C
50. The RPC was based on the

A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code
Answer: A
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. impossible crime
B. mistake of facts
C. accidental crime
D. complex crime Answer: B
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Answer: D
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.

A. ignorantia legis non excusat
B. parens patriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
D. dura lex sed lex
Answer: A
54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime Answer: B
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
Answer: C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and
freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility Answer: D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its

owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability Answer: D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
although it comes about through some acts of our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny Answer: C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

offense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace
officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of
the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ Answer: C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice

and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as
human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination Answer: B
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,

practices,usages and rules of action which are not
recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws Answer: C
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

crime any of all the conditions that would make
an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability
there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating Answer: A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance

with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating Answer: C
64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim
suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism
Answer: B
65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced
in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism Answer: A
66. Alevosia means

A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty Answer: B
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law Answer: D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal Answer: C
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive
Answer: D
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive Answer: D
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay Answer: A
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of

persons alleged to have committed a crime, and
or their punishment in case of conviction
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence Answer: C
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years Answer: A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

A. Accomplices
B. Accessories
C. Instigators
D. Principals Answer: D
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act

which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another
person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor Answer: B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be

done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction Answer: B
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an

authorized magistrate or officer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D. affidavit Answer: D
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself

without authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. fictitious name
D. screen name
Answer: C
79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having

been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari Answer: A
80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?

A. Municipal mayor
B. Private School Teacher
C. Police Officer
D. Municipal Councilor Answer: C
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or

disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d’ etat Answer: A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days Answer: C
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public

officer or employee.
A. illegal detention
C. compulsory detention
D. unauthorized detention Answer: B
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person
who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason
B. espionage
C. rebellion
D. coup d’ etat Answer: A
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling Answer: D
86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right

and wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment Answer: D
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

A. Estafa
B. Murder
C. Rebellion
D. Rape Answer: C
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: D
89. It means mistake in the blow.

A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: A
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
answer: C
91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of
facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony Answer: B
92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.

A. Material
B. Formal
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing Answer: A
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are

malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable Answer: B
94. It indicates deficiency of perception.

A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference Answer: A
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

A. Offenses
B. Misdemeanors
C. Felonies
D. Ordinances
Answer: A
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons
who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive Answer: A
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
Answer: A
98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be

bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention Answer: C
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Qualified Theft
D. Simple Theft Answer: C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year
old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was
the crime committed?
A. Child rape
B. Qualified Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these Answer: C
Correctional Administration Review Questions
1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to
suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and
extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole
B.Executive clemency
C. Pardon
D.President’s clemency Answer: B
2. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:

A. Executive Department
B. P.N.P.
C. D.I.L.G.
D. D.O.J Answer: C
3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole

officer, which is not included?
A. The trick and treat techniques
B.The executive techniques
C.The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
D.The manipulative techniques Answer: A
4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.

A. Penology School
B. Classical School
C. Neo-classical
D. Positivist Answer: B
5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems

A. Meeting
B. Working
C. Recreation
D. Counseling Answer: D
6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming,

budgeting, accounting, and other activities related to financial
services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports and
related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in
the operational of the jail.
A. Budget and finance branch
B. General services branch
C. Property and supply branch
D. Mess services branch Answer: A
7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe

checked at any time. His bedding's, lockers and personal
belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his presence,
whenever possible. This practice is known as:
A. Check and balance
B. S.O.P.
C. Inventory
D. Operation Greyhound Answer: D
8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.

A. Murder
B. Brigandage
C. Rape
D. Impeachment Answer: D
9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of

sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism
D. City prisoner Answer: C
10. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance

and has not been convicted is a -
A. Detention Prisoner
B. Provincial Prisoner
C. Municipal Prisoner
D. City Prisoner Answer: A
11. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT

A. Commutation
B. Reform model
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon Answer: B
12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice

System charged with the responsibility for the custody,
supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
A. conviction
B. corrections
C. penalty
D. punishment Answer: B
13. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised?

A. before conviction
B. before trial
C. after conviction
D. during service of sentence Answer: B
14. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue

his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve
his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.
A. Amnesty
B. good conduct time allowance
C. probation
D. delayed sentence Answer: D
15. The following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT

A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Redress
D. Expiration or atonement Answer: C
16. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.

A. already convicted
B. not yet convicted
C. about to be convicted
D. serve the sentence Answer: A
17. The idea that punishment will be give the offender lesson by
showing to others what would happen to them if they have
committed the heinous crime.
A. Protection
B. Deterrence
C. Lethal injection
D.Stoning Answer: B
18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.

A. Punishment
B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment
D. Incarceration Answer: B
19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.

A. Recommendation from U.N.
B. Recommendation from C.H.R.
C. Application from C.H.R
D. Concurrence of the congress Answer: D
20. The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the

A. Director
B. Secretary of the DND
C. Chief of Executive
D. Prison Inspector Answer: A
21. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual
regeneration of the prisoner?
A. None of these
B.Work programs
C.Education programs
D.Religious programs Answer: D
22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted

to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius
therein specified, which shall not be more than 250 and not less
than 25 kilometers from the place designated.
A. Fine
B. None of these
C. P22.00/day
D. P19.00/day Answer: B
23. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to

others is the theory of
A. Self-defense
B. Social defense
C. Exemplary
D. Equality Answer: C
24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to

A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a
penitent offender
B. prevent the commission of offenses
C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender
by providing him with individualized treatment
D. All of these Answer: D
25. In the Philippines, the most common problem of the

National Prison is
A. Excessive number of escapes
B. Overcrowding
C. Disagreement about their mess
D. Lack of adequate funding Answer: D
26. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume

the suffering for a crime committed by others.
A. Justice
B. Personal
C. Legal
D. Certain Answer: B
27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;

A. Age of offenders
B. Mother of offender
C. Sex of offenders
D. Medical condition Answer: B
28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu,
makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks the food and
serves it to the inmates.It maintains a record of daily purchases
and consumption and submits a daily report to the warden.
A. General Services Branch
B. Mittimus Computing Branch
C. Budget and Finance
D. Mess services Branch Answer: D
29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines

Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the
A. Department of Justice
B. Judiciary
C. Chief Executive
D. Legislative Answer: C
30. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called

A. Reprieve
B. Pardon
C. Communication
D. Amnesty Answer: A
31. Parole is a matter of ___.

A. Privilege
B. Right
C. Grace
D. Requirement Answer: A
32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as

dangerous as the super security prisoners. They are not
allowed to work outside the institution.
A. maximum security prisoners
B. super security prisoners
C. minimum security prisoners
D. medium security prisoners Answer: A
33. Among the following, which has the authority to grant parole?
A. President
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Director of Prison
D. Court Answer: B
34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil

liability imposed upon him by the sentence.
A. partially exempted
B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted Answer: D
35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to

a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. none of these Answer: B
36. ___ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to

it as a matter of right.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. none of these Answer: B
37. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated

that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify
his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.
A. challenge
B. none of these
C. change
D. aggravate his behavior Answer: C
38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _____.

A. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Health Answer: B
39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three

(3) years is a _________________.
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Detention prisoner
C. National or Insular prisoner
D. City prisoner Answer: D
40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is also the

A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections
B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections
C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections
D. Warden Answer: B
41. What is the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?
A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails
B. City and Municipal Jails
C. Lock up Jails
D. Insular Jails Answer: B
42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the

American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the
said jails?
A. BJMP
B. Provincial Government
C. DOJ
D. Municipal or City Mayor Answer: B
43. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?

A. Rehabilitation and Reformation
B. To stand trial
C. Punishment
D. Socialization Answer: A
44. Which is a place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or

court action and where the convicted offenders serve short
sentences or penalty of imprisonment?
A. Jail
B. Lock-up
C. Penitentiary
D. Detention Cells Answer: A
45. Which is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or
detention?
A. Mittimus
B. Detention Mittimus
C. Sentence Mittimus
D. Detention Warrant Answer: C
46. The maintenance or care and protection accorded to people who

by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation
of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve
judgment is called –
A. custody
B. safe-keeping
C. classification
D. caring Answer: A
47. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders

according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health,
criminal record, etc.?
A. None of these
B. Custody
C. Security
D. Safe-keeping Answer: A
48. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible prisoners

in the Philippines is the
A. NBP
B. Medium Security Institution
C. Maximum Security Institution
D. Minimum Security Institution Answer: B
49. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the

state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the
law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President
thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is
called
A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Probation Answer: C
50. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison
uniform for maximum security prison is -
A. Orange
B. Brown
C. Stripe Orange
D. Blue Answer: A
51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission, it
means:
A. He has taken the process of identification, record,
fingerprint and photograph
B. He has been examined for contraband
C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
D. All of these Answer: B
52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he

A. earned good conduct time allowance credit
B. serve minimum sentence
C. earned good behavior while serving prison term
D. all of these Answer: D
53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its
latest objective, the
A. reformation of offenders
B. deterrence
C. segregation of offender
D. confinement of Offender Answer: A
54. In the New Bilibid Prison, all medium security prisoners are
confined at the
A. NBP Main Prison
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
C. Camp Sampaguita
D. Medium Security Prison Answer: C
55. Under the prison rules, who is charged for the hearing of
disciplinary cases in prison?
A. Classification Board
B. Parole Board
C. Administrative Board
D. Disciplinary Board Answer: D
56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a

prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon
B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Commutation Answer: C
57. In jails or prisons, which of the following is a function of

the Custodial Division?
A. Supervision of prisoners
B. Escort of inmates or prisoners
C. Keeping of records
D. None of the above Answer: B
58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting

the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring
the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is
referred to as:
A. Imprisonment
B. Trial
C. Conviction
D. Detention Answer: A
59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in

the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____.
A. Palawan
B. Zamboanga
C. Davao
D. Occidental Mindoro Answer: D
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, this is credited as the oldest

code prescribing savage punishment but in fact ___ is nearly.
100 years older
A. Hammurabic Code
B. Sumerian Code
C. Justinian Code
D. Code of Draco Answer: B
61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means
that:
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance
with law. Answer: B
62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison,
except:
A. Censor offender’s items
B. Escort inmates
C. Inspect security devices
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing Answer: D
63. As a rule, when a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has

just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately:
A. sound the alarm
B. locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. Notify the nearest police precinct
D. call the warden or the director Answer: A
64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force

shall immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
A. plug off the escape routes
B. to shoot the escapees
C. protect the other inmates
D. to give warning shots Answer: A
65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which

grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not
more than six (6) years?
A. PD 603
B. RA 698
C. PD 968
D. PD 869 Answer: C
66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and

probationer is known as –
A. Affiliation Guidance
B. Pre-sentenced Investigation
C. Supervision
D. Probation Guidance Answer: C
67. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation
Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison Answer: B
68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system has been

regarded the weakest pillar due to its failure to eliminate
recidivism and habitual offenders.
A. law enforcement
B. prosecution
C. court
D. correction Answer: D
69. The traditional goal of penology is

A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation Answer: B
70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of

punishment.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation Answer: B
71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she

may not commit another crime in the future.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation Answer: D
72. The idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the
mainstream of society rather than the usual abrupt re-entry
at the end of a prison sentence.
A. Reintegration
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation Answer: A
73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and

served as training schools for delinquent youths, provided
housing and support for older and poorer persons,
and detained vagrants.
A. House of Corrections
B. Workhouses
C. Common jails
D. Penal colonies Answer: B
74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation

of all district, city and municipal jails to implement a better
system of jail management nationwide
A. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: A
75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.

A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: C
76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with

custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those
sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three
(3) years
A. BJMP
D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: B
77. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for Women
(CIW), Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and
Penal Farm are all under this agency.
A. BJMP
D. Department of Justice Answer: B
78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides

a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are
likely to respond to individualized community based treatment
programs.
A. BJMP
D. Parole and Probation Administration Answer: D
79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to capital
punishment are considered
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners Answer: D
80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners Answer: A
81. A prison model which sought penitence (hence the term

penitentiaries) through total individual isolation and silence.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses Answer: A
82. A prison model where incarcerated persons are allowed to work

outside the institution that houses them.
A. Pennsylvania Prison Model
B. Auburn Prison Model
C. Work Release
D. Halfway Houses Answer: B
83. An alternative to incarceration granted after a convicted person

served a part of his sentence and is allowed to complete a
sentence at large, subject to restrictions and supervision.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses Answer: C
84. An alternative to incarceration that allow convicted persons

to remain at large and under varying degrees of restriction
and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the
granting court.
A. Probation
B. Work release
C. Parole
D. Halfway houses Answer: A
85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain
persons awaiting trial or adjudication or confine convicted
offenders for a short period of time.
A. Halfway houses
B. Penal colonies
C. Jails
D. All of these Answer: C
86. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain

convicted offenders for longer or extended period of time,
including those who are waiting their death sentence.
A. Halfway house
B. Farm house
C. Jail
D. Prison Answer: D
87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.
A. RA 8551
B. RA 9165
C. RA 6975
D. RA 4890 Answer: C
88. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?

A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one
(1) day to three (3) years
D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3)years and one
(1) day up Answer: C
89. This theory in criminology states that people are totally

responsible for their behaviors and the stress is more on the
effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal.
A. Positivist Theory
B. Psychological Theory
C. Biological Theory
D. Classical Theory Answer: D
90. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires

the concurrence of congress?
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Parole Answer: C
91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers the _____

Correctional Program.
A. Institutional
B. Integrated
C. Community – based
D. Traditional Answer: C
92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is
referred to as
A. a corporal punishment
B. a determinate sentence
C. an indeterminate sentence
D. a capital punishment Answer: C
93. Pedro was required to provide financial remuneration for the

losses incurred by the victim. What is the type of penalty
described?
A. Bond
B. Retribution
C. Restitution
D. Remuneration Answer: C
94. What kind of program employs prisoners in various product or

good producing tasks?
A. Agricultural
B. Operational
C. Industrial
D. Administrative Answer: C
95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as

gambling, prostitution and drunkenness?
A. Complex Crime
B. Compound Crime
C. Blue Collar crimes
D. Victimless crimes Answer: D
96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and

qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole?
A. Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment
B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment
D. None of the above Answer: D
97. Which of the following should a probationer avoid?

A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den
C. Work regularly to support family
D. Stay away from bad associates. Answer: B
98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals

convicted and meted out the penalty of
A. 12 years 6 months and one day
B. Death
C. Life imprisonment
D. 6 years one month and one day Answer: B
99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal
disorders, chromosomes irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
A. None of these
B. Age Reform
C. Age of Discernment
D. Age of Reason Answer: A
100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting

trial?
A. Rehabilitation center
B. Jail
C. Halfway house
D. Prison Answer: B
101. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as

amended is known as
A. Correction Law
B. Jail Management Law
C. Prison Law
D. Parole and Probation Law Answer: C
102. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools or implement used

to hold back, keep in check or under control is the
A. Instrument of Restraint
B. Iron leg Lock
C. Handcuffs
D. Metallic chains Answer: A
103. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of information

and other data of every prisoner into a case study to determine
the work assignment, the type supervision and degree of
custody and restriction under which an offender must live in jail?
A. Classification Board
B . Board of Custody
C. Diagnostic Board
D. Treatment Board Answer: A
104. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate

of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for failure to pay a
fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to as
A. Subsidiary imprisonment
B. Secondary imprisonment
C. Preventive imprisonment
D. None of the above Answer: A
105. The meaning of the word oblivion is

A. forgetting completely
B. class of persons
C. abolish
D. community based treatment Answer: A
106. The process of determining the needs and requirements of
prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their
existing resources is called:
A. classification
B. quarantine
C. diversification
D. quality control Answer: C
107. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean:

A. public execution
B. social degradation
C. banishment
D. public trial Answer: B
108. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent
away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a
specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called:
A. Exile
B. Transportation
C. Banishment
D. Public trial Answer: C
109. One of the following represents the earliest codification of the

Roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian Code.
A. Twelve Tables
B. Burgundian Code
C. Code of Draco
D. Hammurabic code Answer: A
110. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory

movement were the major influences of today’s correctional
system. Alexander Macanochie was the one who introduced the __
of correction
A. Solitary system
B. Irish System
C. Marked System
D. Congregate system Answer: C
111. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction

during the Aquino administration in the Philippines?
A. E.O 727
B. E.O 292
C. E.O 645
D. E.O 104 Answer: B
112. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one (in
the primitive society). The concept follows that the victim’s
family or tribe against the family or tribe of the offender, hence
“blood feuds” was accepted in the early primitive societies.
Retaliation means:
A. Personal Vengeance
B. Tooth for a tooth
C. Eye for an Eye
D. All of these Answer: A
113. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property

with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’
training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as
the Manila City Jail, famous as the :
A. “ May Halique Estate”
B. “Tandang Sora State”
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail Answer: A
114. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and
fortune to prison reform.After his findings on English Prisons, he
recommended the following: single cells for sleeping, segregation
of women, segregation of youth, provision of sanitation facilities,
and abolition of fee system by which jailers obtained money from
prisoners.
A. John Howard
B. Robert Peel
C. William Penn
D. Manuel Montesimos Answer: A
115. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days
from the promulgation of the sentence, he escaped from his
place of confinement. He maybe
A. liable for evasion of service of sentence
B. considered as an escaped prisoner
C. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
D. All of these Answer: A
116. Ms. Bantog was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After
serving her sentence she committed again the same crime.Ms.
Ines Bantog maybe considered as a
A. recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinguent
D. mentally retarded person Answer: A
117. Ramon, a basketball player, arrested Berto for some legal ground
but he failed to file a complaint against the latter with in the
prescribed period of filing. What crime did Ramon committed?
A. arbitrary detention
B. illegal Detention
C. illegal arrest
D. no crime committed Answer: B
118. The Camp Sampaguita of the national Bilibid Prison houses

A. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
B. Maximum Security Prisoners
C. Medium Security Prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners Answer: C
119. The only early Roman place of confinement which was built
under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.
A. Bridewell Workhouse
B. Wulnut Street Jail
C. Burgundian House
D. none of these Answer: D
120. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction

is violated, to afford the society or individual the opportunity of
imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be
enforced. Offenders should be punished because they deserve
it.This is one justification of punishment called:
A. Atonement
B. Incapacitation
C. Deterrence
D. Retribution Answer: D
121. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:

A. do away with the miscarriage of justice
B. break the rigidity of the law
C. restore the political and civil rights of the accused
122. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves

the frisking of the prisoner.
A. Identification
B. Searching
C. Briefing/Orientation
D. minimum security prisoners Answer: B
123. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and
purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in
command or the __________ officer present shall assume the
command.
A. Veteran
B. Assistant
C. Most senior
D. Custodian Answer: C
124. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report, the

court shall resolve the application for probation not later than-
A. 60 days
B. 5 days
C. 15 days
D. 45 days Answer: B
125. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?

A. Jose Lacson
B. Juan Ponce Enrile
C. Antonio Torres
D. None of these Answer: D
126. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the
criminal justice under it’s common law, originated probation.
A. England
B. United States
C. Greece
D. France Answer: A
127. Which of the following does not belong to the common law
practices to which the emergence of probation is attributed?
A. Recognizance
B. Reprieve
C. Benefit of the Clergy
D. Penance Answer: D
128. Benefit of clergy, judicial reprieve, sanctuary, and abjuration

offered offenders a degree of protection from the enactment of
A. harsh sentences
B. soft sentences
C. criminal liabilities
D. code of Hammurabi Answer: A
129. In the United States, particularly in Massachusetts, different

practices were being developed. "Security for good behavior,"
also known as good aberrance, was much like modern bail.
A. Penalizing
B. Good aberrance
C. Paying in cash
D. Collateral Answer: B
130. Who among the following was the builder hospice of San
Michelle, a reformatory for delinquent boys
A. Montesquieu
B. Pope Clement XI
C. Samuel Romily
D. John Howard Answer: B
131. The advocate of ultimate prison known as “the Panopticon” was

A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Samuel Romily
C. Walter Crofton
D. John Howard Answer: A
132. The founder of the Classical School of Criminology and published

a short treaties “ On Crimes and Punishments” which contains
his reformatory ideas was
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Beccaria
D. Enrico Ferri Answer: C
133. Diversification means

A. Proper integration of prisoners
B. Proper classification of prisoners
C. Proper segregation of prisoners
D. Welfare of prisoners Answer: C
134. Filipino female national prisoners are confined at the

A. Mental hospital
B. CIW
C. Manila City Jail
D. Iwahig Penal Colony Answer: B
135. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity

immediately 48 hours after the pronouncement of the
passing away of calamity shall be granted
A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
B. ½ reduction of sentence
C. 2/5 reduction of sentence
D. 2/6 reduction of sentence Answer: B
136. What is the name of the prison institution situated in

Zamboanga, named after Capt. Blanco of the Spanish Royal
Army?
A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Sablayan Prsions and Penal Farm
C. San Ramon Prison & Penal Farm
D. Iwahig Penal Answer: C
137. A branch or division of law which defines crimes, treat of their

nature and provides for their punishment
A. Remedial law
B. Criminal law
C. Civil law
D.Political law Answer: B
138. One who investigates for the court a referral for probation or
supervises a probationer or both
A. police officer
B. probationer officer
C. intelligence officer
D. law enforcer Answer: B
139. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the

probation officer to the court within
A. 20 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days Answer: C
140. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the
A. determinate sentence law
B. Indeterminate sentence law
C. Board of pardon and parole
D. Parole and probation administration Answer: B
141. A detention jail in Philadelphia but it was converted into state

prison and became the first American penitentiary.
A. Auburn Prison
B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Pennsylvania Prison
D. Bride Well Answer: B
142. The system of prison were the confinement of the prisoners in

single cells at night and congregate work in stop during the
day.
A. Pennsylvania prison
B. Auburn prison
C. Elmira reformatory
D. Alcatraz prison Answer: B
143. Under the rules, the chairman of the classification board and
disciplinary board for jails should be
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C.Custodial officer
D. Security officer Answer: B
144. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable

and dangerous persons who are so difficult to manage inside
prisons.
A.Medium Security prisoners
B. Maximum security prisoners
C. Super maximum security prisoners
D. Minimum Security Prisoners Answer: B
145. One of the following is considered as the corner stone in

reformation n which includes all the life experiences which
shape a persons attitudes and behaviors.
A. Recreational program
B. Religious program
C. Educational program
D. Work program Answer: C
146. It involves supervision of prisoners to insure punctual and

orderly movement from the dormitories, place of work, hospital
and churches in accordance with the daily schedules.
A. Control
B. Custody
C. Discipline
D. Inspection Answer: A
147. It is a special unit in prison where by newly arrived prisoners
will be admitted for diagnostic examination, observation
A. Reception and Diagnostic Center
B. Medium Security Compound
C. Maximum Security Compound
D. Minimum Security Compound Answer: A
148. Under the jail rules, the following are authorized disciplinary
measures imposable to inmate offender except
A. Reprimand
B. Cancellation of visiting privilege
C. Cancellation of food allowance
D. Extra fatigue duty Answer: D
149. The principle of an “eye for an eye” “tooth for a tooth” doctrine
is common among ancient laws, specifically t
A. Code of Draco
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Summerian Code
D. Code of Solomon Answer: B
150. “Lex Tallionis” means

A. Punishment
B. Law of retaliation
C. Retribution
D. Suffering Answer: B
151. These were abandoned or unusable transport ships use to

confine criminals during the early period of treating criminal
offenders.
A. Hulks
B. Gaols
C. Transportation
D. Galleys Answer: A
152. He wrote his book “State of the Prisons” and he was also
considered as the great prison reformer.
A. John Howard
B. John Augustus
C. William Penn
D. Domets of France Answer: A
153. The first house of correction in London England was the

B. Walnut Street Jail
C. Mamertine Prison
D. Panopticon Answer: A
154. ___ - known as the “Rock” build in San Francisco Bay

A. Walnut prison
B. Alcatraz prison
C. New York prison
D. Red Rock penitentiary Answer: B
155. Anything that is contrary to prison or jail rules and regulations

are considered
A. Firearms
B. Contrabands
C. Greyhounds
D. Personal belongings Answer: B
156. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the

transgression of a law for the purpose of controlling criminals.
A. Prevention
B. Revenge
C. Penalty
D. All of the above Answer: C
157. Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of

the
A. Department of Finance
C. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. BJMP Answer: B
158. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation?

A. Formal
B. Summary
C. Due process
D. None of the above Answer: B
159. Which is considered the forerunner of parole?

A. Mark system
B. Solitary system
C. Benefits of a clergy
D. Congregate system Answer: A
160. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of

probation except
A. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
B. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute
C. Meet his family responsibilities
D. Cooperate with the program of probation Answer: C
161. The first convict in the Philippines, sentenced to death by

means of Lethal injection was
A. Baby Ama
B. Asiong Salonga
C. Leo Echagaray
D. Gregorio S. Mendoza Answer: C
162. In the 13th C, a criminal could avoid ________ by claiming
refugee in a church for a period of 40 days at the end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a road
or path
assigned to him.
A. Penalty
B. punishment
C. trial
D. conviction Answer: D
163. Long, low, narrow, single decked ships propelled by sails, usually
rowed by criminals, a type of ship used for transportation of
criminals in the 16th century. This referred to as the:
A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. Stocks Answer: B
164. The Classical School of penology maintains the “doctrine of

psychological hedonism” or __________. That the individual
calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and
regulates his conduct by the result of his calculations.
A. denied individual responsibility
B. free will
C. pleasures and avoiding pain
D. natural phenomenon Answer: C
165. History has shown that there are three main legal systems in the
world, which have been extended to and adopted by all
countries aside from those that produced them. Among the
three, it was the _____ that has the most lasting and most
pervading influence.
A. Mohammedan Law
B. Anglo-American Law
C. Roman Law
D. Hammurabic Code Answer: C
166. Hanging is for death penalty, maiming is for

A. Social degradation
B. Exile
C. Physical torture
D. Slavery Answer: C
167. Who is the Director of the English Prison who opened the Borstal
Institution for young offenders? The Borstal Institution is
considered as the best reform institution for young offenders
today.
A. Evelyn Brise
B. Manuel Montesimos
C. Zebulon Brockway
D. Walter Crofton Answer: C
168. The __________ is considered forerunner of modern penology
because it has all the elements in a modern system.
B. Elmira Reformatory
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Borstal Institution for Boys Answer: B
169. Capital punishment refers to:

A. Life imprisonment
B. Death Penalty
C. Reclusion Perpetua
D. All of these Answer: B
170. One of the following is not an administrative function exercised

by the executive branch of the government.
A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D. Amnesty Answer: A
171. Pardon granted by the Chief Executive

A. extinguishes criminal liability of offender
B. does not extinguish civil liability of offender
C. must be given After the prosecution of the offense
172. The enactment of Republic Act no. 6975 created the BJMP. It
operates as a line bureau under the Department of Interior and
Local Government (DILG). This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false Answer: C
173. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of

Director General, and assisted by Deputy Chief with the Rank of
Chief Superintendent. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false Answer: D
174. The group having the responsibility of providing a system of

sound custody, security and control of inmates and their
movements and also responsible to enforce prison or jail
discipline is the:
A. Security group for jails
B. Escort Platoon
C. Control Center groups
D. Warden Answer: A
175. A unit of the prison or a section of the RDC where the prisoner is
given thorough physical examination including blood test, x-rays,
vaccinations and immunity is the:
A. Quarantine cell
B. NBP
C. Death row
D. Control Area Answer: A
176. Imprisonment is not always advisable. Placing a person to

custodial coercion is to place him in physical jeopardy, thus
drastically narrowing his access to source of personal
satisfaction and reducing his self-esteem. This principle is based
on the ____ of community based treatment programs.
A. Restorative aspect
B. Humanitarian aspect
C. Managerial aspect
D. Legal aspect Answer: A
177. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that
the absolute pardon removes all that is left of the consequences
of conviction, and that it is absolute in so far it restores the
pardonee to full civil and political rights.
A. Cristobal vs. Labrador
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino
C. People vs. Galit
D. None of these Answer: A
178. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to

the following, except:
A. Pardon can not be extended to cases of impeachment.
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
violation of any election law may be granted without
favorable recommendation of the Commission
of Elections.
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Pardon is administered by the court Answer: D
179. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on conditional

pardon, the following points shall be considered as guides,
except:
A. The political, organizational or religious affiliation of the
prisoner should be disregarded.
B. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people in
the community from which he was sentenced.
C. The background of the prisoner before he was committed
to prison – social, economic.
D. Financial capacity of the prisoner. Answer: D
180. Prisoners who are nearly to leave the institution, awaiting

transfer,those in disciplinary status, and those who are
chronically ill with mental disabilities are considered:
A. unassignable prisoners to undergo prison programs
B. all of these
C. special group of offenders
D. minimum security prisoners Answer: D
181. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants it
as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This statement is:
A. partially true
B. partially false
C. true
D. false Answer: B
182. Every violation of jail/prison discipline shall be dealt with

accordingly. In extreme cases, where the violation necessitate
Immediate action, the warden or the Officer of the Day may
administer the necessary restraints and reports the action
taken to
A. an SOP
B. an emergency plan
C. a general rule
D. not applicable to prisoners Answer: C
183. Which of the following is a maximum security prison in Ossining,

New York, USA? It is located approximately 30 miles (48 km)
north of New York City on the banks of the Hudson River which
the Auburn Prison system was applied
A. Alcatraz prison
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Wulnut Street Jail
D. Silver Mine Farm Answer: B
184. A ___, also called a 'block' or 'isolation cell', used to separate

unruly, dangerous, or vulnerable prisoners from the general
population, also sometimes used as punishment.
A. Segregation Unit
B. Reception Unit
C. Quarantine Unit
D. Cell 45 Answer: A
185. What is the place in some prisons, or a section in prisons where

criminals are placed awaiting execution?
A. Execution room
B. Death row
C. Garotine
D. Galley room Answer: B
186. The Auburn system is a penal method of the 19th century in

which persons worked during the day in groups and were kept in
solitary confinement at night, with enforced silence at all times.
The Auburn system is also known as
A. Albany system
B. Irish system
C. New York System
D. None of these Answer: C
187. Bedford Hills Correctional Facility for Women is a prison in

Bedford Hills, Westchester County, New York, USA. It is the
largest women's prison in New York State and has hosted many
infamous prisoners. It is the only women's maximum security
prison in New York State. This statement is:
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Partially false Answer: A
188. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English

philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The concept of the design
was derived from the word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”.
“Opticon’ means:
A. to allow an observer to observe
B. with out the prisoner
C. avoid watching
D. To walk in military manner Answer: A
189. Elmira Correctional Facility, known otherwise as ___, is a

maximum security prison located in New York in the USA. The
prison is located in Chemung County, New York in the City of
Elmira.
A. “the school”
B. “the hill”
C. “the rock”
D. “the dungeon” Answer: B
190. Who among the following was given the title “father of Prison
Reform” in the United States?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Robert Peel
C. John Howard
D. Alexander Macanochie Answer: A
191. It is the idea that the moral worth of an action is solely

determined by its contribution to overall utility, that is, its
contribution to happiness or pleasure as summed among all
persons. It is thus a form of consequentialism, meaning that the
moral worth of an action is determined by its outcome—the ends
justify the means.
A. Hedonism
B. Positivism
C. Determinism
D. Penology Answer: A
192. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “probatio” which
means ___, has historical roots in the practice of judicial
reprieve.
A. walk with faith
B. live with integrity
C. testing period
D. out of prison Answer: C
193. In the history of capital punishment, what do they call this

frame, typically wooden, used for execution by hanging?
A. Galley
B. Gallows
C. Hulk
D. Double blade Answer: B
194. Lethal injection refers to the practice of injecting a person with

a fatal dose of drugs for the explicit purpose of causing the
death of the subject. The main application for this procedure is
capital punishment. Which of the following drug is injected to
stops the heart thus causing death by cardiac arrest?
A. Sodium thiopental
B. Pancuronium
C. Potassium chloride
D. Bicarbonate Answer: C
195. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is

an execution method originating in the United States in which
the person being put to death is strapped to a specially built
wooden chair and electrocuted through electrodes placed on
the body. In the Philippines, its first use was in :
A. 1924
B. 1976
C. 1972
D. 1918 Answer: A
196. Who was the British prison administrator and reformer, and
founder of the Borstal system?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Alexander Mocanochie
C. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
D. Sir John Watson Answer: C
197. Besides religious laws such as the Torah, important codifications

of laws were developed in the ancient Roman Empire, with the
compilations of the Lex Duodecim Tabularum.This law refers to
A. the Corpus Juris Civilis
B. the Twelve Tables
C. the Hammurabic code
D. lex taliones Answer: B
198. The first permanent system of codified laws could be found in

China, with the compilation of the
A. Tang Code
B. Wong Code
C. Ting Code
D. Chang Code Answer: A
199. Opponents of capital punishment claim that a prisoner's isolation

and uncertainty over their fate constitute a form of mental
cruelty and those especially long-time death row inmates are
liable to become mentally ill, if they are not already. This is
referred to as
A. death row phenomenon
B. Cruelty syndrome
C. Execution syndrome
D. None of these Answer: A
200. After individuals are found guilty of an offense and sentenced to

execution, they will remain on death row while following an
appeals procedure, if they so choose, and then until there is a
convenient time for __.
A. Execution
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D Amnesty Answer: A

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CRIMINOLOGY 2 Theories of Crime Causation

7. It involved weighing of pleasure versus pain?

8. Who is the main advocate of Classical school?

9. What is the fundamental notion of Neo-classical school?

54. Who among of the following is not a proponent of strain theory?

58. It refers to an emotional reaction which is also known as Adjustment Disorder.

65. What is the most basic human drive present at birth?

3. What is a judicial tribunal designed to administer justice?

4. A law enforcement function in order to preserve social and public order;

5. A local government together with society of individuals or institution refers to?

6. This refers to a person convicted by a competent court for committing crime;

12. It is “the body of knowledge regarding crime as social phenomenon.

21. Who has the power to define and punish crime?

22. What is the process by which we use or manipulate representation or symbols?

24. These provides the basis for due process of law;

26. The authority of the court to hear and determine a case;

29. The police is an agency of the ___________;

32. What department of the government defines and punishes an act?

33. If a crime is punished by the Revised Penal Code, it is called ____?

36. If a crime is punishable by special law, it is called?

37. If a crime is punishable by an ordinance, it is called?

38. What is the basis of the Criminal Justice System?

46. He is considered as the main character in the criminal justice system.

56. What is the basic ingredient of criminal due process?

61. The primary goal of Criminal Justice System is;

77. It is otherwise known as the Juvenile Justice Welfare Act of 2006

89. It is the absence of disorder.

91. Which is true about Police?

95. Who are the gate keepers of Criminal Justice System?

103. ___________ is the third major area of police functions.

105. What is the other term for a buy-bust operation?

110. What is the general rule in effecting an arrest?

111. What are the properties to be seized?

113. What is the main purpose of patrol?

117. What is the general rule in effecting search and seizure?

135. A ___________ postpones the execution of an offense to a later date.

140. It simply means the treatment of criminals.

150. Which of the following is not true about police patrol?

5. He heads the Lupon Tagapamayapa as prescribed in RA 7160.

25. It is the authority to hear and determine the cause.

26. It is the initiator of action in the Philippine Criminal Justice System.

28. It is a special investigate agency tasked to investigate highly controversial cases.

A. victimology B. penology C. sociology of crime

41. It is a Witness Protection, Security and Benefit Act of the Philippines.

45. An act providing the uniform system of preliminary investigation

47. He is known as the Superstar in the Criminal Justice System.

60. The main purposes of PI are the following; except

71. Is preliminary investigation a Constitutional rights?

76. The following are the classification of prisoner; except

Introduction to Criminology and

2. It is the typology of victims that pretends to be one due to a mental disorder?

5. These victims are unsure of rules of conduct in the surrounding society;

6. Promiscuous persons would fall under this victim typology;

20. Which of the following can be considered a high-risk potential victim?

37. There is no provocation or facilitating behavior on the part of this victim;

38. This type of victim places himself in a compromising situation;

41. Who are most likely to suffer violent crime?

42. Who are more likely to be a victim of rape or sexual assault?

46. On marital status who are most often victimized by crime?