CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.

T PHARM32017-18

Chemotherapy exercises 4. Which is the most likely to cause

pancreatitis?
a) Lamivudine
b) Stavudine
Which one are a group of Anti- c) Zalcitabine
Commented [T1]: oDevelopment of alternative
metabolites? d) Zidovudine metabolic pathways
Eg: The production of a modified form of dihydropteroate
a) Aminoglycosides synthetase or of dihydrofolate reductase with less or none
affinity to drug explains why bacteria may respectively
b) Carbapenems 5. Which of the following group of become resistant to sulfamides or to inhibitors of DHFR
such as trimethoprim
c) Fluoroquinolones antibiotics show(s) time-dependent Commented [T3]: oConcentration dependent killing
agent
d) Polyenes killing? oBolus infusion achieves high peak levels, favoring rapid
killing.
e) Sulfonamide a) Aminoglycosides
oEg: aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones
b) Fluoroquinolones oSignificant increase in the rate of bacterial killing as the
concentration of antibiotic increases from 4- to 64-fold
the MIC of the drug for the infecting organism.
2. Which one of the following agents c) Macrolides
are narrow spectrum antibiotics? d) Penicillins Commented [T4]: oTime dependent killing agent
oEg:beta-lactams,lycopeptides,macrolides, clindamycin
oKilling effect is best predicted by the percentage of time
a) Aminoglycosides –that blood concentrations of a drug remain above the
MIC.
b) Cotrimoxazole 6. The symptoms of malaria can be –increasing the concentration of ATB to higher
multiples of the MIC does not significantly increase the
c) Fluoroquinolones alleviated by suppressing the blood rate of kill
–Eg., for penicillins and cephalosporins, dosing
d) Tetracyclines schizonticides. Which one of the schedules that ensure blood levels greater than MIC for
60 – 70 % of the time was showed to be clinically
following terms is used to describe effective.
oSevere infections are best treated by continuous
3. Which one of the following is a this? infusion of these agents rather than by intermittent
dosing.

protease inhibitor? a) Causal Prophylaxis

Commented [T2]: oTetracyclines are broad-spectrum
a) Enfuvirtide b) Radical Cure bacteriostatic antibiotics. They are active against many
gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including
anaerobes, rickettsiae, chlamydiae, mycoplasmas ; and
b) Lamivudine c) Suppressive Cure against some protozoa, eg, amebas.
oThe antibacterial activities of most tetracyclines are
c) Nevirapine d) Suppressive Prophylaxis similar except that tetracycline-resistant strains may
remain susceptible to doxycycline or minocycline, drugs
d) Saquinavir e) Terminal Prophylaxis that are less rapidly transported by the pump that is
responsible for resistance.
e) Zanamivir
7. Which one of the following anti-
malarial drugs is a blood
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

schizonticide against all four types a) Macrolide

of malarial parasites, is gametocidal b) Aminoglycoside
against all forms except Plasmodium c) Fluoroquinolone
Falciparum and is also used for d) Beta lactams
suppressive prophylaxis but is not e) Penicillins
active against liver stage malarial
parasites? 10. The following are involve in
a) Artemether microbial resistance except
b) Chloroquine a) Presence of inactivating
Commented [T6]:
c) Fansidar Enzymes
d) Mefloquine b) Normal host physiological
e) Primaquine changes
c) Reduction of antibiotic to
8. Which one of the following is a accumulate in the microbial
proliferation signal inhibitor? cell
a) Cyclophosphamide d) Alteration of the binding site
b) Muromonab e) Development of alternative
c) Prednisone metabolic pathways
Commented [T7]: 1)To provide broad-spectrum
d) Sirolimus empirical therapy in seriously ill patients.
2)To treat polymicrobial infections such as intra-
e) Tacrolimus 11. The following are the reasons of abdominal abscesses. The antimicrobial combination
chosen should cover the most common known or
Answers 1. e 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. c combination therapy in microbial suspected pathogens but need not cover all possible
pathogens.
3)To decrease the emergence of resistant strains. The
7. b 8. d treatment except value of combination therapy in this setting has been
clearly demonstrated for tuberculosis.
4)To decrease dose-related toxicity by using reduced
a) To provide broad-spectrum doses of one or more components of the drug regimen.
5)To obtain enhanced inhibition or killing.
empirical therapy in seriously
Commented [T5]: oPost antibiotic effect
ill patients. oA persistent suppression of microbial growth that occurs
after levels of antibiotic have fallen below the MIC.
oAntimicrobial drugs with a long PAE (several hours)
9. Which of the following are known often require only one dose per day.
–Eg., aminoglycosides and fluoroquinolones,
with the post antibiotic effect particularly against gram-negative bacteria.
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

b) To treat polymicrobial g) Imipenem

infections such as intra- h) none
abdominal abscesses.
14. The following are not inhibitor of
c) To decrease the emergence of
last step (3rd) cell wall synthesis
resistant strains.
except
d) To decrease dose-related
toxicity by using single drug a) Cycloserine
regime b) Imipenem
e) To obtain enhanced inhibition c) Vancomycin
or killing. d) Penicillins
f) Only a and b are correct e) Bacitracin
g) All are correct f) b and d are correct
h) All are non-correct
15 the following is/are involves in
second step cell wall synthesis
inhibition

a) Peptidoglycan synthetase
b) Fosfomycin
12 the following drugs are the cell
c) Cycloserine
wall synthesis bacterial inhibitor
d) Vancomycin
except
e) a and d are correct
Commented [T8]:
a) Vancomycin f) all above are involves
b) Penicillins
16. The following is/are involved
c) Cephalosporins
in first step cell wall synthesis
d) Bacitracin
e) Fosfomycin a) fosfomycin
f) Aztreonam b) aztreonam
Commented [T9]:
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

c) pyrivyltransferase 20 T/F Penicillins V and G have

d) ciprofloxacin narrow sprectrum while meticillin
e) a and c are correct have broad spectrum.
f) none are correct
21. Regarding cephalosporins,the
17. The following are involves in pre- following statement are correct
step of cell wall synthesis except except

a) cycloserine a) Cephalosporins are similar to

b) phospholipase penicillins chemically, in
Commented [T11]:
c) bacitracin mechanism of action, and in
d) racemase toxicity.
e) transpeptidase b) Cephalosporins are more
f) all above stable than penicillins to many
bacterial β-lactamases and
18. The following is in the second
have a broader spectrum of
generation cephalosporin antibiotics
activity.
except
c) Cephalosporins are not active
a) cefepim against enterococci and
b) Cefaclor Listeria monocytogenes.
c) Cefprozil d) Cephalosporins can be
d) Cefuroxime classified into four generations,
e) Cefoxitin depending mainly on the
spectrum of antimicrobial
19 T/F penicillin V is orally activity. Commented [T10]:

administered while penicillin G is e) As a general rule, first-

injectable generation compounds have
better activity against gram-
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

negative organisms gram- d) cilastatin is used in Commented [T12]: oCephalosporins are similar to
penicillins chemically, in mechanism of action, and in
negative aerobic organisms combination therapy for toxicity.
oCephalosporins are more stable than penicillins to many
f) All are correct detoxification bacterial β-lactamases and therefore usually have a
broader spectrum of activity.
e) are responsible for phlebitis oCephalosporins are not active against enterococci and
22. Regarding Cephalosporins which Listeria monocytogenes.
oCephalosporins can be classified into four major groups
or generations, depending mainly on the spectrum of
is correct 24.T/F Ertapenem is less active antimicrobial activity.
As a general rule, first-generation compounds have better
than meropenem and imipenem activity against gram-positive organisms and the later
a) They are cross sensitized as compounds exhibit improved activity against gram-negative
against Pseudomonas aeruginosa aerobic organisms
penicillins to patient Commented [T13]: oSome orally, most IV or IM
and acinetobacter species and was because of their poor oral absorption.
b) They cross placenta and oAll distribute very well into body fluids
proven that not degraded by renal –adequate therapeutic levels in the CSF - only with the
known as teratogen third-generation
dehydropeptidase as aztreonam •ceftriaxone or cefotaxime effective in the treatment
c) They are commonly of neonatal and childhood meningitis caused by H.
influenzae ...
administered orally Commented [T15]: oMeropenem is similar to
imipenem but has slightly greater activity against gram-
d) Cefotaxime is indicated on negative aerobes and slightly less activity against gram-
positives.
25.T/F Bacitracin has serious toxic oErtapenem is less active than meropenem or imipenem
meningitis caused by H. against Pseudomonas aeruginosa and acinetobacter
effects on the kidney and is species. It is not degraded by renal dehydropeptidase.
influenzae oAdverse effects:
therefore only used topically for –nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea ...
e) a and d are correct Commented [T16]: oBacitracin inhibits cell wall
infections of mouth, nose, eye and
f) all above are true formation by interfering with dephosphorylation in
cycling of the lipid carrier that transfers peptidoglycan
skin subunits to the growing cell wall. There is no cross-
resistance between bacitracin and other antimicrobial
23. Regarding carbapenems drugs.
26. Regarding bacterial protein oIt is most active against G-pos. organisms including
imipenem which is incorrect staphylococci producing β-lactamase ...
synthesis which statement is true Commented [T14]: oBroad-spectrum including
penicillase producing G+/-, anaerobes and P. aeruginosa
a) they are responsible of oAdministered i.v., penetrates well into CNS.
a) chloramphenicol is responsible oExcreted by glomerular filtration : Dose adjust in renal
nephrotoxity for non- insufficiency
oImipenem undergoes cleavage by a dehydropeptidase
for peptidation
combination therapy found in the brush border of the proximal renal tubule to
form an inactive metabolite that is potentially
b) demoxycycline is responsible nephrotoxic – ...
b) dehydropeptidase enzyme is
Commented [T17]: oTetracyclines
for initiations
responsible for it toxicity –Doxycycline ,-Minocycline,-Demoxycyline,Tetracycline

c) streptomycin is responsible for oMacrolides

c) it is broad spectrum antibiotics –Erythromycin,-Clarithromycin
decodation –Azithromycin,-Telithromycin

oLincosamides
–Lincomycin,-Clindamycin ...
CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

d) erythromycin is responsible for exceeding 50 mg/kg/d after

translocation 1–2 weeks
e) clindamycin is responsible for c) Newborn infants lack an
elongations effective glucuronic acid
f) all statement are correct conjugation mechanism for
g) all statement are incorrect the degradation and
detoxification of
27. T/F Tetracyclines cross the
chloramphenicol
placenta to reach the fetus and
d) when infants are given
are also excreted in milk. As a
dosages above 50 mg/kg/d,
result of chelation with calcium,
the drug may accumulate,
Tetracyclines are bound to and
resulting in the gray baby
damage growing bones and teeth.
syndrome

28. T/F Chloramphenicol is a e) all statements are correct

potent inhibitor of microbial
protein synthesis acting on
peptidyl transferase 31. T/F There is no reports on
linezolid inhibition of MAO activity Commented [T18]: oChloramphenicol is a potent
30. Regarding chloramphenicol inhibitor of microbial protein synthesis. It binds reversibly
thus patients are cautioned not to to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. It inhibits
,select the right answer the peptidyl transferase step of protein synthesis.
consume large quantities of oChloramphenicol commonly causes a dose-related
reversible suppression of red cell production at dosages
a) binds reversibly to the 50S tyramine-containing foods (early exceeding 50 mg/kg/d after 1–2 weeks. Aplastic anemia is
a rare consequence of chloramphenicol administration by

subunit of the bacterial oxazolidinones showed to inhibit any route. It is an idiosyncratic reaction unrelated to
dose, though it occurs more frequently with prolonged
use. It tends to be irreversible and can be fatal.
ribosome MAO activity, reversible increase in oNewborn infants lack an effective glucuronic acid
conjugation mechanism for the degradation and
b) Chloramphenicol commonly the pressor effects of detoxification of chloramphenicol. Consequently, when
infants are given dosages above 50 mg/kg/d, the drug
causes a dose-related pseudoephedrine was shown). may accumulate, resulting in the gray baby syndrome,
with vomiting, flaccidity, hypothermia, gray color, shock,
and collapse.
reversible suppression of red o To avoid this toxic effect, chloramphenicol should be
32. T/F Clarithromycin is derived used with caution in infants and the dosage limited to 50
cell production at dosages mg/kg/d or less (during the first week of life) in full-term
from erythromycin by addition of a infants and 25 mg/kg/d in premature infants.
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

methyl group and has improved acid a) amphotericin

stability and oral absorption b) sulfonamide
compared with erythromycin. Its c) Erythromycin
mechanism of action is the same as d) trimethoprim
that of erythromycin e) ciprofloxacin
f) quinolone
33. T/F Spectinomycin is an
g) a and c
aminocyclitol antibiotic that is
structurally related to
aminoglycosides, lacks amino
36. The following are active in
sugars and glyosidic bonds
antibacterial activity for bacteria
Commented [T20]: o
34. Regarding gentamycin depend on exogenous sources of o
o
antibiotics which is not correct folate except. oSusceptible microorganisms require extracellular PABA
in order to form dihydrofolic acid an essential step in the
production of purines and the synthesis of nucleic acids.
oSulfonamides are structural analogs of PABA that
a) it is in aminoglycoside class a) Trimethoprim competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase. They
inhibit growth by reversibly blocking folic acid synthesis.
b) penetration through the cell b) Quinolones Mammalian cells (and some bacteria) lack the enzymes
required for folate synthesis and depend upon exogenous
membrane of the bacterium c) Sulfonamide sources of folate; therefore, they are not susceptible to
sulfonamides.
depends partialy on oxygen- d) Pyrimethamine oSulfonamide resistance may occur as a result of
mutations that cause overproduction of PABA, cause
dependent active transport e) Paracetamol production of a folic acid-synthesizing enzyme that has
low affinity for sulfonamides, or cause a loss of
permeability to the sulfonamide.
c) its dosage interval are f) c and e oSulfonamides inhibit both gram-positive and gram-
negative bacteria, nocardia, Chlamydia trachomatis, and
estimated reffering to some protozoa. Some enteric bacteria, such as E coli,
klebsiella, salmonella, shigella, and enterobacter, are
creatinine clearance inhibited.
oInterestingly, rickettsiae are not inhibited by
d) all statement are false 37. Short answer about drugs and
sulfonamides but are actually stimulated in their growth.

e) all statement are true enzymes inhibitions Commented [T19]: oCLGE is highly correlated with CLCR
oCLCR or creatininemia is used for prediction of the
individual dosage regimen in patients with renal
35. The following antibiotics inhibit a) drug inhibit DNA Gyrase
impairment
oAnother possibility how to predict the dosage regimen is
TDM (therapeutic drug monitoring - see below)
the bacterial protein synthesis b) drug inhibit DHFR oThe dose is calculated according to the body weight
(mg/kg), the interval between the doses is adjusted
except c) drug inhibit transpeptidase according to clearance of creatinine (CLcr) or
creatininemia
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

d) drug inhibit DHPS daughter cells during cell

e) drug inhibit pyrivyltransferase division.
f) drug inhibit peptidoglycans d) Earlier quinolones (nalidixic
synthase acid, oxolinic acid,
cinoxacin) achieve systemic
38. What is the combination therapy
antibacterial levels. Commented [T21]: oCombination (AntiPABA+ IDHFR)
of the component of the following? –Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim (BactrimR,
e) Fluorinated derivatives cotrimoxazole)
–Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine (FansidarR)
a) Bactrim (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin,
b) Augmentin and others have greatly
c) Cotrimox. improved antibacterial
activity compared with
39. Regarding quinolones, choose nalidixic acid and achieve
Commented [T22]: oQuinolones block bacterial DNA
the incorrect statement bactericidal levels in blood synthesis by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerase II (DNA
gyrase) and topoisomerase IV.
oInhibition of DNA gyrase prevents the relaxation of
and tissues
a) Quinolones block bacterial positively supercoiled DNA that is required for normal
transcription and replication.
DNA synthesis by inhibiting 40.T/F Fluoroquinolone are
oInhibition of topoisomerase IV interferes with
separation of replicated chromosomal DNA into the
respective daughter cells during cell division.
bacterial topoisomerase II routinely recommended for use in oEarlier quinolones (nalidixic acid, oxolinic acid,
cinoxacin) did not achieve systemic antibacterial levels.
and topoisomerase IV. patients under 18 years of age. oThese agents were useful only for treatment of lower
urinary tract infections; nalidixic acid and cinoxacin are
b) Inhibition of DNA gyrase still available.
Fluorinated derivatives (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, and
prevents the relaxation of 41.T/F.Enter the bacteriua by others have greatly improved antibacterial activity
compared with nalidixic acid and achieve bactericidal levels
positively supercoiled DNA passive diffusion in blood and tissues

that is required for normal

42.T/F Fluoroquinolones are
transcription and
effective in treatment of both
replication.
Gonorrhea and syphilis
c) Inhibition of topoisomerase
IV interferes with separation 43.T/F.The second, third- and
of replicated chromosomal fourth-generation inhibition of drug
DNA into the respective metabolism - may raise the serum
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

levels of warfarin, theophylline, e) Ethambutol

caffeine, and cyclosporine. f) Streptomycin
44.T/F.Cimetidine interferes with
46. the most powerful anti-TB drug
elimination of the fluoroquinolones.
in combinations are:

a) Isoniazid
45. Regarding nitrofurantoin, b) Ciprofloxacin
choose incorrect statement. c) Rifampin
d) Pyrazinamide
a) no cross-resistance
e) Ethambutol
b) bacteriostatic and bactericidal
f) Streptomycin
c) antagonist of nalidixic acid
g) a and c are correct
d) all are correct
47. Regarding the tuberculosis
treatment, choose the correct

44.write the mechanism of action of statement

the following
a) the first line anti-TB drug
a) metronidazole combination used are isoniazid
b) fusidic acid ,rifampicin ,pyrazinamide and
Commented [T23]:
kanamycin or ethambutol 1st line
oIsoniazid 300 mg/d
45. Regarding anti- TB drug, the b) the most powerful anti-TB in oRifampin 600 mg/d
oPyrazinamide 25 mg/kg/d
following are first line anti-TB drug combination are Rifampin and
oEthambutol 15–25 mg/kg/d
oStreptomycin 15 mg/kg/d
except pyrazinamide that cure up to 2nd line
oAmikacin 15 mg/kg/d
98% patient oAminosalicylic acid 8–12 g/d
a) Isoniazid oCapreomycin 15 mg/kg/d
c) Ethambutol is an inhibitor of oCiprofloxacin 1500 mg/d
b) Ciprofloxacin oClofazimine 200 mg/d
oCycloserine 500-1000 mg/d
mycobacterial arabinosyl
c) Rifampin oEthionamide 500–750 mg/d
oLevofloxacin 500 mg/d
transferases, which are
d) Pyrazinamide oRifabutin 300 mg/d2
oRifapentine 600 mg once or twice weekly
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

encoded by the embCAB treatment in first two Commented [T24]: oIsoniazid (INH), rifampin,
pyrazinamide, ethambutol, and streptomycin are the
operon months(resistant case) five first-line agents for treatment of tuberculosis .
oIsoniazid and rifampin are the two most active drugs. An
d) addition of pyrazinamide to an c) in last months of 6month isoniazid-rifampin combination administered for 9
months will cure 95–98% of cases of tuberculosis caused
rifampin-pyrazinamide treatment period ,rifampicin by susceptible strains.
oThe addition of pyrazinamide to an isoniazid-rifampin
combination for the first 2 and isoniazid combination is combination for the first 2 months allows the total
duration of therapy to be reduced to 6 months without
months allows the total taken twice per week loss of efficacy.
oIn practice, therapy is initiated with a four-drug regimen
of isoniazid, rifampin pyrazinamide, and either
duration of therapy to be d) 3rd month of 8months ethambutol or streptomycin until susceptibility of the
clinical isolate has been determined.
reduced to 6 months without treatment period is a copy of 2 oEthambutol is an inhibitor of mycobacterial arabinosyl
transferases, which are encoded by the embCAB operon.
loss of efficacy first month of the 6months Arabinosyl transferases are involved in the
polymerization reaction of arabinoglycan, an essential
e) therapy is initiated with a five- treatment period component of the mycobacterial cell wall. Resistance to
ethambutol is due to mutations resulting in
overexpression of emb gene products or within the embB
drug regimen of isoniazid, e) All are correct structural gene.
oMost patients with tuberculosis can be treated entirely
rifampin pyrazinamide, f) All are incorrect as outpatients, with hospitalization being required only
for those who are seriously ill or who require diagnostic
ethambutol and streptomycin evaluation.
49.give the drug used in leprosy tx
for 6 month treatment period Commented [T26]: •Dapsone & Other Sulfones
•Clofazimine

48. Regarding the treatment of

tuberculosis choose the incorrect
statement 50. Regarding the viral
chemotherapy choose the correct
a) for the 6 month treatment , the
statement
4 drug combination rifampicin,
isoniazid, pyrazinamide and a) Both HIV1 and 2 are
ethambutol initiate the responsible for CD4 cell
treatment in 2months. reduction
b) for eight month treatment b) The people without cd4 cell are
period rifampicin, isoniazid not get opportunistic infection
,pyrazinamide ,ethambutol and caused by HIV virus
streptomycin initiate the

Commented [T25]:
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

c) Infected CD4 has a half-life of b) Acyclovir

1.6 days compared to several c) Palivizumab
weeks for a non-infected. d) Oseltamivir
d) All are correct e) None

Regarding mechanism of antiviral 54. responsible for DNA polymerase

drugs inhibitor and RNA polymerase
inhibitor
51. The following is responsible for
reverse transcriptase inhibitor a) Saquinavir(tenofavir) and
oseltamivir
a) Zidovudine
b) Reverse transcriptase an acyclovir
b) Amantadine Commented [T29]: Zidovudine inhibits DNA polymerase
c) Foscarnet and zidovudine and the reverse transcriptase, thymidine
c) Fomivisen cannot be combined with members of the same class such
d) Acyclovir and Foscarnet as stavudine
d) Acyclovir
e) None above are correct.
e) Saquinavir Commented [T30]: lamivudine &adefovir &interferon
alpha 2b
55. Why antiretroviral monotherapy
Commented [T27]:
52. The following are responsible for
treatment is prohibited Commented [T31]: •Hepatitis c
fusion inhibition •Interferon alfa-2b
•Interferon alfa-2a
56. How can you confirm the change Interferon alfacon-1

a) Saquinavir Commented [T32]: Cmv

of treatment in a given patient Foscarnet , Cidofovir
b) Enfuvirtide
under antiretroviral therapy? Commented [T33]: Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, Cidofovir
c) Foscarnet
d) Oseltamivir 57. Give one drug each of the
e) Palivizumab following viruses

53.the following are responsible a) Hepatitis B

for antibody against viral b) Hepatatis C
infection c) CMV
d) VZV
a) Saquinavir
Commented [T28]:
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

e) HSV1 60.give indications for the following

f) HSV2 drugs
Commented [T34]: Anti influenza
g) Influenza virus
a) Quinine Amantadine Zanamivir and Oseltamivir
Palivizumab
b) Coartem
Commented [T36]: A=cerebral malaria/ blood
c) Primaquine schizonticid
B=blood malarial /blood schizonticid
C=liver malaria/ tissue schizontacid and gametocid
58. Describe 4 antifungal drugs you 61. Give the drug to treat the
Depend o location
know following Commented [T37]: A=metronidazole
B= Amphotericin , Paromomycin
C=metronidazole,tindazole
a) Amoebasis D= Suramin , Melarsoprol
E= Nifurtimox
b) Leishmaniasis
c) Trychomoniasis vaginalis
59. The following are target of anti-
d) sleeping sickness
parasite except
e) chaga,s disease
a) DNA damage
63. The following is artemisinin
b) Voltage ions channels
(Coartem) based combined therapy
c) Unique essential enzymes found
only in the parasite a) Arthemeter + lumefantrin
d) similar enzymes found in both b) Artesunate+ mefloquine
host and parasite but c) Artesunate + amodiaquine
indispensable for either parasite d) Artesunate+ piperaquine
or host to inhibit protein e) Artemether + pyronaridine
synthesis
Commented [T38]:
66.T/F Melarsoprol is a trivalent
e) Common biochemical or neuronal Commented [T39R38]:
arsenical , is first-line therapy for Commented [T35]: 1)Unique essential enzymes found
functions found in both parasite only in the parasite; or similar enzymes found in both
advanced central nervous system host and parasite but indispensable only for the parasite;
and host but with different inhibition of protein synthesis
African trypanosomiasis.
pharmacologic properties
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

67 T/F Pentamidine is an c) Metronidazole has been

alternative to suramin for the early reported to potentiate the
hemolymphatic stage of disease anticoagulant effect of
caused by Trypanosoma brucei coumarin-type anticoagulants
(especially T brucei gambiense d) Lithium toxicity may occur
when the drug is used with
68T/F Pentamidine is an alternative
metronidazole
to sodium stibogluconate for the
e) None.
treatment of visceral leishmaniasis

Commented [T41]:
68. The following drugs are
indicated in treatment of amoebiasis
in vegetative form except 70.what are the drug used in
treating the following
a) Paromomycine
b) Metronidazole a) Ascariosis
c) Chloroquine b) Ankylostomiasis
d) Tetracycline c) Filariasis
e) Tinidazole d) Oncocercosis
f) Secnidazole
71. Regarding the mechanism of Commented [T42]:
g) Ornidazole
action of the ant helminthes, Commented [T40]: Intestinal (Cysts)
h) a and c Diloxanide furoate
which is not true Iodoquinol
Paromomycine

69. Which is false statement. Intestinal(vegetative)

a) Unmyelinated motor neuron help Metronidazole
Tetracycline
a) Metronidazole is the treatment produce only neurotoxicity to the Tinidazole
Secnidazole
of choice for giardiasis parasite Ornidazol

Tissues (Liver,Lungs,Brain)
b) Metronidazole has a b) Muscle fibers are coordinated by Chloroquine
Dihydroemetine
disulfiram-like effect alternation of glutamate as
Combination also allowed
excitatory neuromediator and
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

GABA as inhibitory 74T/FThese genes contribute to

neuromediator unregulated cell division if they are
c) Cholinergic nerves are present in a mutant oncogenic form.
concentrated in the central The mutant proteins often retain
nervous system some of their capabilities but are no
d) Neurotoxicant anti-helmintics longer sensitive to the normal
must be administered control mechanisms.
systemically to mammalian hosts
75T/F Tumor suppressors produce
to reach the parasitic nematodes.
products that inhibit the division of
Therefore, if absorbed, they must
cells if conditions for growth are not
be nontoxic to the nervous
met (DNA damage, a lack of growth
system of the host.
factors or defects in the division
e) None.
apparatus).
72.T/F Mebendazole was among the Commented [T43]: –Carcinoma: a tumor derived
76.List the types of cancer from epithelial cells, those cells that line the surface of
first such anthelmintics found to act our skin and organs (80-90% of all cancer cases
reported)
primarily by blocking transport of 77.laydown the type of cancer txs –Sarcoma: a tumor derived from muscle, bone,
cartilage, fat or connective tissues.
secretory granules and movement of –Leukemia: a cancer derived from white blood cells or
their precursors.
other subcellular organelles in the –Lymphoma: a cancer of bone marrow derived cells
that affects the lymphatic system.
–Myelomas: a cancer involving the white blood cells
parasitic nematode Ascaris responsible for the production of antibodies (B
lymphocytes).
lumbricoides

73. What are the factors are

responsible for cancer induction
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

78. Cancer cells resist to 80.distinguish Adjuvant therapy

Commented [T44]: oAdjuvant therapy: courses of
chemotherapy by from Neoadjuvant therapy cytostatic drugs are given when the cancer has
apparently been destroyed by surgery or radiotherapy. Its
objective is to eradicate micrometastases.
a) reducing cellular uptake of 81. Cell cycle and specificity of oNeoadjuvant therapy: is defined as a preoperative
cytostatic treatment in patients with locally advanced
drugs anticancer drug choose the wrong solid tumors; The aims of neoadjuvant chemotherapy +
radiotherapy are: the potentiality of curative resection,
the reduction of surgical measures, and an increase in life
b) increasing cellular efflux statements span.

c) deletion of enzyme which activate

a) class 1 anticancer is non cell
the drug
cycle specific
d) increased detoxication of the
b) class 2 anticancer is cell cycle
drug
specific and phase specific
e) increased concentration of the
c) class 1 anticancer contain
target enzyme
alkylating agents
f) rapid repair of drug-induced
d) class 3 anticancer are cell
lesion
cycle specific and non-phase
g) decreased number of receptors
specific
for the drug
e) class 1 anticancer drug kill
h) All are true
normal and cancer cell
79 when high dose was given to
82. The following are antimetabolite
cancer patients, the following can be
anticancer drug except
done as Supportive therapy to
reduce toxicity a) methotrexate
b) 5fluorouracil
a) bone marrow transplantation
c) Thioguanine
b) growth factors
d) Mercaptopurine
c) antifolate
e) Cytarabine
d) donor of –SH groups
f) None
e) chelates iron
f) all above are possible
 CHEMOTHERAPY EXERCISES BY M.T PHARM32017-18

83. List 2 drugs indicated for chemotherapy= check more

Prostate cancer and 2 for ovarian from the note
cancer

84. Regarding alkylating

 PREPARED BY M.T.E
agents,choose the wrong statement.
 UNIVERSITY OF RWANDA
a) They are known as  CMHS
cancerogenic and metagenic  MEDICINES AND PHAR
b) The cross link the guanine and  PHARMACY
stope uncoil of DNA molecule  PHARMACY III, 2017-2018
c) Is the first class chemotherapy
agents
Thank you all
Success to you all,
happy New Year 2018

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well the anticancer drugs