500+ Practice Questions For The New SAT

From America’s
The
MOST POPULAR Princeton
college prep company Review,
Specifically designed to help yqu

successfully prep for the New SAT.
CREATED FOR THE
S An introductory guide to the major changes
made to the SAT REDESIGNED
S Practice for all question types, including 2016 EXAM
brand-new formats
S Detailed answer explanations for every
practice problem
S Fundamental strategies for scoring success
By the Staff of The Princeton Review

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500+ PRACTICE QUESTIONS

FOR THE NEW
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PrincetonReview.com
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/nReview.
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The Princeton Review Editorial

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( ..
Acknowledgments
Project Managers
Claudia Landgrover
Kathryn Menefee
Authors
Aaron Lindh
Amy Minster
Alice Swan
Brian Becker
Lisa Mayo
Elizabeth Owens
Erik Kolb
Zoe Gannon
Reviewers
Cara Fabre
Cat Healey
Spencer LeDoux
Joelle Cotham
Shannon Thompson
Steve Voigt
National Content Director
Jonathan Chiu
Contents
Parti: Orientation . 1
1 Your Guide to Getting the Most Out Of This Book . 3
2 What You Need to Know for the New SAT . 7
Part II: Writing and Language . 15
What Can You Expect to See on the Writing & Language Test? . 16
3 Writing and Language Drills . 23
4 Writing and Language Answers and Explanations . 49
Part III: Math . 67
What Can You Expect to See on the Math Test? . 68
5 Heart of Algebra Drills . 73
6 Heart of Algebra Answers and Explanations . 93
7 Problem Solving and Data Analysis . Ill
8 Problem Solving and Data Analysis Answers and Explanations . 133
9 Passport to Advanced Math . 147
10 Passport to Advanced Math Answers and Explanations . 165
11 Additional Topics . 183
12 Additional Topics Answers and Explanations . 191
Part IV: Reading . 197
What Can You Expect to See on the Reading Test? . 198
13 Reading Drills . 201
14 Reading Answers and Explanations . 237

3 9082 12649 0088
WAYNE PUBLIC LIBRARY

3737 S. WAYNE ROAD
' ' WAYNE, Ml 481 84-1 697
7832
Part I
Orientation
1 Your Guide to Getting the Most Out Of This Book
2 What You Need to Know for the New SAT
Chapter 1
Your Guide to
Getting the Most
Out Of This Book
What Is The Princeton
Review?
The Princeton Review is WHAT'S INSIDE
Hello, and welcome to 500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT! You’ve most likely
the nation's most popular picked up this book because you heard that the SAT is being redesigned, and you
test-preparation company.
We offer courses and
want to get a first look at what to expect. Congratulations: It’s never too early to
private tutoring for all of begin your test prep, and this is a good first step toward mastering the redesigned
the major standardized SAT. We’re delighted that you’ve chosen us for your needs!
tests, and we publish a
series of books to help in
In these pages you’ll find more than 500 questions to help you prepare for the
your search for the right
redesigned SAT. These questions showcase all the features of the new SAT, includ¬
school. If you would like ing its retooled subject areas: Writing & Language, Math, and Reading. Working
more information about
through these problems in conjunction with our detailed, technique-filled expla¬
how The Princeton Re¬
nations is a great way to familiarize yourself with the challenges of the redesigned
view can help you, goto SAT.
PrincetonReview.com or
call 800-2-Review.
HOWTO USE THIS BOOK

These drills are divided into each of the three tests: Writing & Language, Math,
and Reading. If you want to focus on one particular test, there’s no need to work
through the other material: the table of contents can direct you to your test of
choice and all the drills you can handle! The Math test is also divided into four
sections: Heart of Algebra, Problem Solving and Data Analysis, Passport to Ad¬
vanced Math, and Additional Topics. These subsections reflect the different Math
The Optional Essay question types that you’ll encounter on the redesigned SAT, and we’ve designed
multiple drills to help you master each type.
Keep an eye out for future
publications from us
with full-length practice The questions are broken into drills, which allows you to practice on your own
tests that include essay schedule and comfort level: as much or as little as you need at a given time. Taking
prompts. This book is a drill or two a day is a great way to build your SAT expertise over time, while tak¬
designed to introduce you ing several drills at once can help you prepare for the somewhat-taxing experience
to many of the fundamen¬ of taking the full-length test. We recommend you do both!
tal concepts that will be
necessary to successfully
attack the new SAT ques¬ Once you’ve finished a drill, don’t just close the book. Be sure to read over the de¬
tailed explanations following each drill to see what questions you missed and what
tions. As the essay is op¬
tional — check in advance you can improve upon next time. As with all other Princeton Review prep ma¬
whether the colleges you terials, these explanations showcase our powerful SAT strategies and techniques.
are applying to expect it— Even if you answered a question correctly, our explanation might show you a way
we have chosen to focus to solve it faster and more accurately!
on other preparations.
4 500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT

WHEN YOU TAKE A DRILL
Here are some suggestions for working through this book:
Keep track of your performance. Remember that the purpose of all

the work you’re doing now is to achieve a certain result when you
take the actual SAT, so all of this will be for nothing if you don’t
remember it. Use this opportunity to self-diagnose your weakest areas
and figure out the techniques and skills you need to work on.
* Focus on the areas where you need improvement, and practice until
you improve! By all means, work through all of the problems in this
book — the more you expose yourself to these questions and the
overall rhythm of the test, the more prepared you’ll be. But start by
going over the sections that you feel least comfortable with; you want
to give your mind as much time as possible to adapt to what you’re

learning.
• The redesigned SAT, like the old SAT, is a timed test. You may be a
star test-taker when you have all the time in the world to mull over
the questions, but can you perform as well when the clock is ticking?
Timing yourself on the drills will ensure you are prepared for the
constraints of the actual test.
Filling In Answers
On the actual SAT, you will have to fill in your answers on a separate scantron
sheet. However, because this is a book of drills, and because we’d rather have you
focus your energy on the questions themselves, our directions recommend that
you mark your answers directly in the book. (You can also use scrap paper, if that’s
more comfortable for you.)
Remember that this book is for your personal use; as long as you are able to self-
diagnose by checking our answers and explanations against your own, you can
mark it up however you please. You may even want to consider the sorts of marks
to make if you want to return to check a question or remember to bubble in a
question that you skipped.
That said, you should be aware of how to fill in a Student-Produced Response

question (that is, a grid-in). We have used small icons to represent these questions
in the book, like the one in the sidebar here. Here is how you would actually fill it
out on a scantron sheet:
Your Guide to Getting the Most Out Of This Book

£
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marking the circles in the special grid, as shown in the examples below. You may use any available space for scratch< work. D
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Columns not needed should be left
CD C67 blank.
• Mark no more than one circle in any column. • Decimal Answers: If you obtain a decimal answer
• Because the answer document will be machine- with more digits than the grid can accommodate,
D' CD-
scored, you will receive credit only ifC the circles it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must
are filled in correctly. fill the entire grid. For example, if you obtain
an answer such as 0.6666..., you should record
• Although not required, it is suggested that you
your result as .666 or .667. A less accurate value
write your answer in the boxes at the top of the such as .66 or .67 will be CD
scored as incorrect. (D
columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. CD
CD CD
CD CD CD
• Some problems may have more than one correct
CD ways
CD to grid — are: CD
answer. In such cases, grid only one answer. Acceptable
CD CD CD
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• No question has a negative answer. CD
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• Mixed numbers such as 3 - must be gridded as CD CD
CD CD CD CD
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STAYING AHEAD OF THE REDESIGNED SAT CD’

Because the first official test date for the Redesigned SAT is in 2016, it is possible
that the College Board will continue to make slight changes and tweaks to the
way the test is presented. The PrincetonReview.com/SATchanges page of our
website will always feature the most up-to-date information. You can also attend
free events at the Princeton Review — both in-person and online — to learn more
about the redesigned SAT and the other college prep resources we offer. Search on
our website for events taking place near you.
GOOD LUCK!
We know that the redesigned SAT
might seem intimidating, but you’re already
headed in the right direction. And we’ll be with you every step of the way.

Chapter 2
What You Need
to Know for the
New SAT
What Does the SAT Test?
First off, while the SAT may be changing, we at The Princeton Review understand
that certain fundamentals of a test always stay the same. As you begin your prep,
it’s useful to remember that the SAT is not a test of aptitude, how good of a person
you are, or how successful you will be in life. The SAT simply tests how well you
take the SAT. And performing well on the SAT is a skill, one that can be learned
like any other. The Princeton Review was founded more than 30 years ago on this
very simple idea, and — as our students’ test scores show — our approach is the one
that works.
In other words, no matter how well you want to do on the SAT, no matter how
much pressure you might be feeling, you don’t need to let the test intimidate you.
Just remember:
• It doesn’t measure the stuff that matters. It measures neither intel¬
ligence nor the depth and breadth of what you’re learning in high
school. It doesn’t predict college grades as well as your high school
grades do, and many schools are still hesitant to use the score from
your essay in their application decisions at all: that’s why it’s now
optional. Colleges know there is more to you as a student — and as a
person — than what you do at a single 3-hour test administered on a
Saturday morning.
• It underpredicts the college performance of women, minorities,

and disadvantaged students. Historically, women have done better
than men in college but worse on the SAT. For a test that is used to
help predict performance in college, that’s a pretty poor record.
Who Writes the SAT?

Although colleges and universities are the primary users of SAT results, they’re not
the ones who write it. That’s actually the job of Educational Testing Service (ETS),
a nonprofit company that specializes in writing tests. You probably know them
best for their work on the SAT and GRE, but they also write for groups as diverse
as butchers and professional golfers. (Who knew?)
ETS is often criticized for the SAT. Many educators have argued that the test
does not measure the skills you really need for college, as we mentioned above. In
2005, this led them to overhaul the entire test, shifting from a 1600 to 2400 point
scale — the test with which you’re most likely familiar. Beginning in 2016, that
test will have changed again. The important takeaway here is that the people who
write the SAT are professional test writers, not necessarily professors or superhu¬
man geniuses, and if you understand what they’re testing, you can beat them at
their own game.
500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT

What's New on the SAT
The Redesigned SAT
Changes The Current SAT
- (coming spring 2016) (and What's Eliminated)
In a nutshell, while the
• Math current SAT is 3 hours
SECTIONS 3 sections
• Math 2 sections
and 45 minutes of testing
• Critical Reading • Evidence-Based
Writing time, the new SAT will be
• Writing Skills Reading and
3 hours and 50 minutes —
and only 3 hours without
the optional essay.
Composite score Composite score
SCORING (600-2400) (400-1600)
• 3 section scores • 2 section scores
(200-800) (200-800)
• 3 test scores (10-40)
• 7 sub-scores
(1-15)
• 2 cross-test scores
LENGTH OF 3 hours, 43 minutes 3 hours (without essay)

TEST (WITHOUT
BREAKS) 3 hours, 50 minutes
(with essay)
ANSWER 5 answer choices per 4 answer choices per

CHOICES
question
INCORRECT question
1/4 point off for each No penalty for incorrect
ANSWER incorrect answer on multiple-
answers
PENALTY choice questions
FORMAT OF TEST Paper and pencil only Paper and pencil AND a
computer-based option
• Two tests:
READING AND • Two sections:
WRITING
• Critical Reading • Reading Test
• Writing Skills • Writing and Language

Test
• Vocabulary tested by sen¬ • No more sentence comple¬
tence completion questions;
tions; focus on multiple¬
famous for “SAT Words,” meaning words
often considered obscure
• Passages will draw from
• Passage-based questions,
significant historical or
with passages drawn from scientific documents - may
random topics
include informational graph¬
ics, such as charts
• The reading passages will

include complex structure
and vocabulary
• Passage-based grammar -
including punctuation
What You Need to Know for the New SAT

MATH Covers: Focuses on:
• Arithmetic
• Application-based, multi-
•• Algebra
GeometryI
step questions
• Higher-level math, in¬
• Some Algebra II
cluding trigonometry
• One “extended-thinking”
grid-in question (worth 4
points);
• Core math competencies
(translating math into
English and
English into math)
• A deep understanding of
the theories behind math¬
ematical principles, such
as building equations
CALCULATORS Calculators permitted in Calculators only allowed in

every math section the longer of the two math
sections
THE ESSAY Required first section of the The essay is optional

test (50 minutes, timed)
(25 minutes, timed)
Students will be provided a
Students respond to a short substantial passage (600—700
words) and will then be asked
prompt by providing per¬
sonal opinion with support¬ to analyze how the author
built their argument; students
ing evidence will need to understand the
techniques authors used to
write persuasively
The More You Know...

In addition to the obvious changes listed on the table above, such as the shift from
These changes may be
intimidating, but adopting five answer choices to four, the RSAT suggests that it has increased the complex¬
a careful approach after ity of questions across the board. For the Reading and Writing & Language sec¬
tions, this refers in part to the way in which all questions are now connected to
mastering your fundamen¬
tals will help you to do full passages, which are themselves aligned with what introductory college courses
well on the new SAT!
and vocational training programs offer. This means that there’s an increase in His¬
tory and Science-based reading material, if you’re wondering what sort of texts
you might want to familiarize yourself with. More importantly, there are no more
fill -in-the-blank Sentence Completion questions, nor stand-alone sentence-editing
questions: instead, students will be tested on their ability to demonstrate a full
understanding of the source’s ideas.

Ji *
While it’s hard to predict when and where breaks between sections will be provid¬
ed, it’s a good guess that the Writing test’s four passages, for which 35 minutes are
allotted, will be presented in one go, as will the Reading test’s five passages, which
are designed to take a total of 65 minutes.
...The Less to Study

The math has also shifted, and not just in the number of questions (from 54 to
57). The actual scope of the content now focuses on a more specific set of problem¬ While higher-level math
solving and analytical topics, and includes higher-level content (like trigonometry). may sound scary at first,
continued practice can
Students are also likely to encounter more grid-in questions, and will face topics
drastically reduce the
that are both specifically geared to test a student’s ability to use a calculator and math complexity for many
for which calculators are not permitted.
questions.
While higher-level math may sound scary at first, that also means the scope of
the test is on a narrower swath of subjects. In other words, there are fewer things
to study, which gives you more time to really master these subjects. (And that’s
where we at The Princeton Review come in.)
The Math Test will be divided into two sections, one with the calculator, with 37
questions over the course of 55 minutes, and one without, with 20 questions ad¬
ministered in 20 minutes. Because of the tight time limit, particularly in the non¬
calculator section, it’s important that you review the explanations for the problems
in this book that you solved correctly, as you may discover techniques that help
to shave seconds from your solutions. A large part of what’s being tested is your
ability to use the appropriate tools in a strategic fashion, and while there may be
multiple ways to solve a given problem, you’ll want to focus on the most efficient.
When Is the SAT Given?

Stay on Schedule
The schedule for the SAT changes from year to year, but it’s always found on the
College Board website at www.collegeboard.com. Take advantage of "super¬
scoring" on the SAT in
which colleges will take
your best subject scores,
Try to sign up for the SAT as soon as you know when you’ll be taking the test, es¬
regardless of test date.
pecially if you’re planning to take the first iteration of the new SAT in Spring 2016,
or the last iteration of the old SAT before that, as those are likely to fill up very Taking the SAT a couple of
times can boost your
quickly. If you wait until the last minute to sign up, there may not be any open
college application
spots in the testing centers closest to your home, and there’s nothing like making a
longer commute to an unfamiliar area to throw off your test-taking day.
portfolio.
Additionally, if you require any testing accommodations (such as extra time), the
College Board website provides more information about the qualifications re¬
quired. You don’t want to leave anything to chance in the approval process, so
make sure you leave at least six months between your application date and ideal
testing time so that you can lock it in and spend more time focusing on your
school assignments and SAT preparation.
11
Scoring on the SAT
Another major difference has to do with the way that the test is scored. While
the return to a 1600 point composite score isn’t new to the SAT, the inclusion of
subscores and cross-test scores is. The intent of these scores is to help students and
teachers better understand what specific skills and topic areas need to be improved
(as opposed to just “Math” in general). In addition, wrong answers will no longer
be penalized, so you’re advised never to leave a question blank — even if that means
blindly picking a letter and bubbling it in for any uncompleted questions before
time runs out.
As always, you’ll want to check with colleges to see what sort of scores they’re most
interested in, but so that you’re aware, here are the extra categories that are now
reported:
An Analysis in History/Social Studies and Analysis in Science cross-test score

is generated based on questions from all three of the subject tests (Math includ¬
ed!) and these assess the cross-curricular application of the tested skills to other
contexts. Relax! This doesn’t mean that you have to start cramming dates and
anatomy — every question can be answered from the context of a given reading
passage or the data included in a table or figure. The only changes have to do with
the content of the passages and questions themselves.
Additionally, the Math test is broken into several categories, as we’ve done in this
book. The Heart of Algebra subscore looks specifically at how well students un¬
derstand how to handle algebraic expressions, work with a variety of algebraic
equations, and relate real-world scenarios to algebraic principles. Problem Solv¬
ing and Data Analysis focuses more on interpretation of mathematical expres¬
sions, graphical analysis, and data interpretation. Your ability to not only under¬
stand what a problem is asking, but to represent it in your own words, will come in
handy here. Finally, Passport to Advanced Mathematics questions showcase the
higher-level math that’s been added to the test, from quadratics and their graphs
to the creation and translation of functions.
(We’ve also included an Additional Topics section that’s filled with what you
might consider wild-card material. Although these questions might not correlate
directly to a subscore, 6 of these miscellaneous types will show up on the rede¬
signed test, so you should try to prepare for all of them. At the very least, being
able to solve these problems will help to flex other muscles in your brain, and that
sort of elasticity always comes in handy on a lengthy exam.)
Because the English portions of the text are passage-based, we chose not to break
out the drills by subscore. However, you’ll find that our questions in those sections
align to these topics. On the Reading test, the Command of Evidence subscore
measures how well students can translate and cite specific lines that back up their
interpretation, while Relevant Words in Context ensures that students can derive
a proper and specific definition from the words in a passage. The Writing test ad¬
ditionally measures Expression of Ideas, which deals with revising language in
order to make more logical and cohesive arguments, and Standard English Con-

ventions, which assesses a student’s ability to conform to the basic rules of English
structure, punctuation, and usage.
That said, the big numbers are still the main composite scores — the Reading and
Writing & Language sections are tallied together to arrive at a score between 200
and 800, and the Math sections are tallied in the same way. That means the final
scores are now between 400 to 1600, with the optional essay reported separately.
Process of Elimination (POE)

Given that there’s no longer a big bad guessing penalty, and that the number of
answer choices has been reduced from five to four, it’s now very much to your ad¬
vantage to answer every question. If you can eliminate some of the wrong answers,
the odds grow ever more in your favor. In other words, you can answer some ques¬
tions without knowing the correct answer, so long as you can identify the obvi¬
ously wrong ones. For instance:
1 . The capital of Qatar is
A) Paris
B) Dukhan
C) Tokyo
D) Doha
Paris and Tokyo are likely to be familiar answers to you, ones that you know are
the capitals of other major countries (France and Japan). Just like that, a question
with four answer choices becomes one with only two options, and while you cer¬
tainly don’t want to gamble your college futures on the constant flipping of a coin,
this technique can help you out in a pinch.
Moreover, because the Reading and Writing sections are now largely based on
context, you can almost always go back to the passages after narrowing down the
choices. A choice that didn’t leap out before may suddenly become obvious when
given a second look. As another example:
2. The Sun is
A) a main-sequence star
B) a meteor
C) an asteroid
D) a white dwarf star
A first glance through the passage may stress that the Sun is a star, eliminating (B)
like “main-
and (C). Reading through a second time, looking specifically for terms
sequence” or “white dwarf” may give you the extra information to solve a problem
that you otherwise know nothing about.
13
ft**
*
v
;
Part II
Writing and
Language
What Can You Expect to See on the Writing and
Language Test?
3 Writing and Language Drills
4 Writing and Language Drills Answers and Explanations
WHAT CAN YOU EXPECT TO SEE ON THE WRITING
AND LANGUAGE TEST?
The SAT Writing test has changed significantly. If you’re familiar with the ACT,
then you know what to expect, but if you’re not, the news is good! Traditionally,
the SAT has featured three question types: Improving Paragraphs, Improving Sen¬
tences, and Error ID. Those designations are gone, and now you’ve got a single
task: make a passage better. The passages will be the length of a short essay and all
the questions will be distributed across four passages.
A Sample Passage
Here’s a sample of what a new passage will look like:
[1] Studying grammar rules © seem to be a thing of the past. [2] Instead, most
English classes are © focus on reading and writing today, with the implicit claim
that one learns to write by writing. [3] Also implicit in this claim is the idea that
grammar no longer has the practical, © objective or. egalitarian cachet that it once
did. [4] “Proper speech” does not exist in and of© itself: proper speech, instead,
is the province of those who consider themselves proper. [5] The age of diagram¬
ming sentences and laboring over the difference between direct and indirect objects
is gone. © © [6] For all that people complain about it. what is the difference
between “who” and “whom” anyway?
1 . A) NO CHANGE
B) seems
C) will seem
D) seemed
2. A) NO CHANGE
B) being focused
C) focused
D) having focus
3. A) NO CHANGE
B) objective or egalitarian,
C) objective, or egalitarian,
D) objective, or egalitarian
4. A) NO CHANGE
B) itself proper
C) itself, proper
D) itself proper,
5 . The best placement for sentence 5 would be
A) where it is now.
B) after sentence 1 .
C) after sentence 2.
D) after sentence 4.

6. Which of the following questions would best conclude the paragraph by
summarizing one of its main points?
A) NO CHANGE
B) Who is to say, after all, that the speech of a particular race, class, or
region is any “better” than any other?
C) Kids hate learning grammar, and teachers hate teaching it, so why
bother?
D) Why is grammar so difficult for native English speakers?
APPROACH THE QUESTIONS

Think of this as a peer-editing exercise. You’re editing a classmate’s paper. As you
do so, keep two things in mind:
r ^
On the questions that don’t have stems, check the differences among the
answer choices. This will tell you what the question is testing.
On the questions that do have stems, read as literally as you can. This sec¬
tion of the test is not interested in reading comprehension, so look for cues
in the language or punctuation to point toward the correct answer.
V_ __ J
CHECK THE ANSWERS
The SAT can test any of about 40 different grammar concepts, and usually the
test writers don’t state explicitly which concept they’re testing. SAT isn’t quite nice
enough to say things like “Use commas correctly here!” or “Should this be in the
present tense or the past tense?”
However, SAT tells you more than you may realize. If we look only at the answer
choices from the first question above, we’ll see a certain pattern:
1 . A) NO CHANGE
B) seems
C) will seem
D) seemed
In this case, every answer choice contains the conjugation of a single verb, to seem.
Accordingly, these answer choices are hinting that we’ll need to choose the correct
form of this verb. We can empty our minds of all the comma and punctuation
rules because we know that this question is not asking about them.
That said, let’s look at the third question.
3. A) NO CHANGE
This time, the words aren’t changing at all, but the commas are! So this time, we
know that the question is asking about where the commas go. We can ignore the
words and just focus on the punctuation.
These tips are intended
for the Writing test. The This may seem like an obvious point, but on a test with so many questions asking
Reading test requires about so many things, you need something to help anchor your approach. Check¬
different skills, and while ing the differences among the answer choices provides exactly that anchor.
both are based on pas¬
sages, each test has its
own unique approach.
Don't Think: Read the Cues

For the questions that do have questions, however, don’t look for implicit mean¬
ings. The questions will typically tell you exactly what to look for. We will look
more at the questions from the passage below, but for now, look at this question
from another passage entirely.
15. Which of the following provides the most specific information regarding the
range of Montaigne’s subjects?
A) some of the best-loved essays in the history of French literature
B) topics that are still of interest to twenty-first century readers
C) a variety of subjects relevant to a sixteenth-century gentleman
D) everything from gallstones to great historical events
In this case, the answer MUST be (D) because it is the only one that provides
specific information regarding the range of Montaigne’s subjects. The others are gram¬
matically correct, and possibly relevant in other contexts, but they don’t fulfill the
question’s basic requirements.
Sometimes these very specific cues can appear in the answer choices as well. Con¬
sider this question, also from another passage.
22. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined portion would be

LEAST acceptable?
A) However,
B) Nevertheless,
C) Therefore,
D) Even so,
Notice that each of these answer choices provides some transition word. Choices
(A), (B), and (D) are contrasting transitions, and (C) is a continuing transition.
Since there is only one answer per question, the only one that can possibly work
here is (C) because it’s the odd one out.

Words, Punctuation, Questions There can only be one cor¬
rect answer per question.
If two choices seem like
The SAT’s questions can be broken down into three main categories, of which they are both correct, they
there are two each in the previous paragraph. Let’s see that paragraph and ques¬
tion set again. are probably both wrong!
[1] Studying grammar rules © seem to be a thing of the past. [2] Instead, most
English classes are © focus on reading and writing today, with the implicit claim
that one learns to write by writing. [3] Also implicit in this claim is the idea that
grammar no longer has the practical, © objective or. egalitarian cachet that it once
did. [4] “Proper speech” does not exist in and of© itself: proper speech, instead,
is the province of those who consider themselves proper. [5] The age of diagram¬
ming sentences and laboring over the difference between direct and indirect objects
is gone. © © [6] For all that people complain about it. what is the difference
between “who” and “whom” anyway?
1. A) NO CHANGE
B) seems
C) will seem
D) seemed
2. A) NO CHANGE
B) being focused
C) focused
D) having focus
3. A) NO CHANGE
4. A) NO CHANGE
B) itself proper
C) itself, proper
D) itself proper,
5. The best placement for sentence 5 would be
A) where it is now.

A) NO CHANGE
bother?
Introduction
Words
B)
Remember C) the answer choices before you get started. When

to check you do so for
D)
the first two questions, you’ll find that these are testing the use of words.
1. A)
NO CHANGE
B)
seems
C)
will seem
D)
seemed
2. A)
NO CHANGE
being focused
focused
having focus
As mentioned above, question #1 has four answer choices that vary the conjuga¬
tions of the verb to seem. We will therefore need to use the context to find the one
that works. First, all the surrounding verbs are in the present tense, so (C) and (D)
can be eliminated.
Then, the subject of the verb is studying (not rules'), which is singular, and requires
the singular verb seems, or (B).
As for question #2, this one is changing forms of the verb to focus. Choices (B) and
(D) are unnecessarily wordy, so they can be eliminated. Then, we have to choose
between the present tense focus and the past focused. Don’t trust your ear! These
words sound awfully similar, so follow the rules. The word has the helping verb are
in front of it, so it must be the participle focused, (C).
Punctuation
Your ear is a valuable tool, SAT can also test your knowledge of punctuation. Use the same method that you
but it won't get you all used for the Words. Punctuation is a bit tougher because you can’t always hear the
the points you need. Your
different punctuation marks. (Say the previous sentence out loud. Could you hear
ear may help you to spot
errors, but make sure you the apostrophe in can’t)
can cite the rules that
make something correct or So let’s look at some of the ways that SAT can test punctuation.
incorrect.
3. A) NO CHANGE
4. A) NO CHANGE
B) itself proper
C) itself, proper
D) itself proper,
20 | 500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT

In question #3, notice how the words are not changing, but the commas are.
In this case, the words are part of a series — practical, objective, or egalitarian. It
doesn’t actually matter all that much if you don’t know what the words mean in
this case because you don’t have to decide between them. All you’ve got to do is
put the commas in the right place, as only (D) does. Place commas after every
item in a list, but don’t insert new commas unnecessarily!
In question #4, the words are again identical, but this time, you have to choose
between a colon and a comma. Notice that the ideas on both sides of the punctua¬
tion (“Proper speech” does not exist in and of itself and proper speech, instead, is the
province of those who consider themselves proper) are complete, so a comma is insuf¬
ficient to separate them. From the available answers, only a colon will work, as in
choice (A). If you thought this could be a period or semicolon, you’re right! But
this is why we check the answers first: if we fix things in our heads, we may not fix
them in the way that SAT wants or makes available.
Questions
About half the problems on an SAT Writing and Language test will have question
stems. With these, read as literally as you can, and do exactly what the question
asks. Let’s see the two from the passage above.
5 . The best placement for sentence 5 would be
A) where it is now.

A) NO CHANGE
bother?
For question #3, read as literally as possible! Sentence 5’s main idea is that the age
of learning grammar has passed. Which other sentences discuss similar things?
Sentence 1 states a similar idea, and sentence 2 begins to show how things are
changing. As a result, sentence 5 should go between these two sentences. The links
are very literal: [1] a thing of the past, [2] the age. . . is gone, [3] instead. . . today. No
reading comprehension or deep thought necessary here! Just follow the words!
For question #6, again, read as literally as possible. We want the question that
summarizes the paragraph’s main point. The paragraph has so far discussed how
grammar is no longer frequently taught because of the emphasis in English classes
on other things. The paragraph then goes on to talk about how “proper’ speech
is a hotly contested category. The concluding remark should include something
about both of these ideas: (A) is too specifically focused on grammar, and (C) and
(D) focus on topics not mentioned elsewhere in the passage. Only (B) remains,
and notice how “better” is being used to echo the word “proper” in the previous
sentence.
Conclusion
As you work through the exercises in this book, pay close attention to the explana¬
tions. They will provide detailed reasoning for each answer choice’s correctness or
incorrectness.
In general, remember the two big precepts: look for what’s changing and read as
literally as possible. The first step in particular will anchor your strategy and will at
least give you something specific to think about as you try to work the questions.
You’d be surprised how often the right answer emerges from eliminating all the
wrong ones!

Chapter 3
Writing and
Language Drills
Writing & Language Drill 1
For each question in this section, circle the letter of the best answer from among the choices given.
Questions 1-11 . Read the following passage carefully before you choose your answers.
A Familiar Voice From Across the World
Even among those who know twentieth-century When Mishima was 18, during World War II, he
literature ® well. Japanese literature in this period can received a draft summons from the Imperial Army. On
be a bit of a blind spot. Only two Japanese authors, for that day, however, Mishima had a cold, and the doctors
instance, have ever won the Nobel Prize in Literature, and declared him unfit for duty, © naming his slight wheeze
today, it can be difficult to find books by ©those authors. as tuberculosis. After this disappointing error, Mishima
Kenzaburo Oe or Yasunari Kawabata in print. It is dif¬ devoted himself more intensely to his studies and eventu¬
ficult to know how to explain this lack of cross-cultural ally obtained a government position, all while writing in
knowledge.
secret at night. © Mishima’s first novel. Thieves, was
© Whatever the cause may be. there is a wealth of published shortly before he was rejected by the Imperial
fascinating material from Japanese novelists, poets, and Annv for service in World War II.
playwrights. One of the most curious of Japanese cultural
The many influences in Mishima’s life combined and
figures, Yukio Mishima, wrote in all three of these media, intersected until the end. He wrote 34 novels and many
and worked in many more besides. Known to contempo¬ short stories, © Mishima starred in some well-known
rary Japanese readers not only as a great novelist, but also Japanese films, and became a public persona as both a
as a political extremist, © actor, and bodybuilder. Yukio model and a bodybuilder. At the same time, however, his
Mishima offers a fascinating combination of many strains political views were radicalizing, and in 1967, with a small
in Japanese culture. militia that he had founded, Mishima attempted (D) to
From a very young age, Mishima was pulled in many overthrow and remove from power the Emperor of Japan,
different directions. He fell in love with both contemporary whose views he saw as too liberal.
French and German poets and with Michizo © Tachihara. While Mishima’s life may have ended in tragedy, and
who was born thirty years before Mishima and died before while his reputation in Japan may be a checkered one, he
the war. While the literature of the East and West com¬ is, © nonetheless, a fascinating figure. Moreover, the
bined in his head, Mishima’s father disapproved of the many confused influences that inform his work make him
boy’s “effeminate” interests, and Mishima was forced to a wonderful entree to a world of Japanese culture that has
write in secret for many years lest his father find his © been curiously isolated from our own, despite its many
manuscripts, tearing it up. surprising correspondences.
1968
1937 1947
Nobel Prize
Enrolls in his Graduates in Literature
literary from the awarded to
University
school’s
society of Tokyo Yasunari
Kawabata
♦ ♦♦♦♦♦
1925 1944 1948
First story 1970
Bom Publishes Mishima
first novel, dies
Kimitake
published
under pen Thieves
Hiraoka in
Tokyo name Yukio
Mishima

1. A) NO CHANGE 8. Which of the following sentences contains
B) well; Japanese accurate data based on the graph?
C) well, Japanese
A) NO CHANGE
D) well, but Japanese
B) Mishima’s first novel was published the
same year that fellow Japanese author
2. A) NO CHANGE Yasunari Kawabata won the Nobel Prize.
B) those authors, Kenzaburo Oe, or Yasunari
Kawabata C) Mishima’s first novel was published when
he was only 23 years old, and by 24, he was
C) those authors Kenzaburo Oe or Yasunari a sensation in the Japanese literary world.
Kawabata
D) Mishima was very involved in literary
D) those authors, Kenzaburo Oe or Yasunari societies in school, and his first novel was
Kawabata,
published before he graduated from
University.
3 . Which of the following introductions to this para¬

9. A) NO CHANGE
graph best addresses the uncertainty expressed in
the last sentence of the previous paragraph? B) starred
C) and starred
A) NO CHANGE D) starring
B) Obvious to anyone who’s looking for it,
C) As in Europe or the United States, 10. A) NO CHANGE
D) Amid this economic and political conflict, B) to remove from his position as Emperor
C) to throw over and usurp
4. A) NO CHANGE D) to overthrow
B) actor and bodybuilder,
C) actor, and, bodybuilder 1 1 . Which of the following alternatives to the under¬
D) actor, and bodybuilder lined portion would NOT be acceptable?
A) furthermore,
5. Which of the following true choices best helps B) for all this,
to establish a contrast with the earlier part of the C) nevertheless,
sentence?
D) still,
A) NO CHANGE
B) Tachihara, a master of the classical Japanese
poetic form, the waka.
C) Tachihara, who is less known to Western
audiences than Mishima himself is.
D) Tachihara, who had also been a great reader
of the German poet Rilke.
6. A) NO CHANGE
B) manuscripts, tearing up in the process.
C) manuscripts, tearing them up.
D) manuscripts and tear them up.
7. A) NO CHANGE
B) eying
C) guessing
D) misdiagnosing
25
Writing and Language Drills
Questions 12-22. Read the following passage carefully
before you choose your answers.
Finding a Way
Have you ever wondered how it is that when you enter,

say, an airport, you seem to know exactly where to go?
You might get your gates mixed up; secuiTty might be a
huge hassle; and you might find the waiting areas mind-
numbingly boring. Still, ® going to the airport is frustrat¬
ing. whether you’re heading from your car to the ticketing
agent, from the ticketing agent to the gate, or from the gate
to the baggage claim. While we may take these paths for
granted, they are typically there by design, ® an environ¬
mental graphic designer.
Environmental graphic designers guide us through what
is called our “built environment,” the buildings and struc¬

tures that ® we occupy every day. Environmental graphic
design draws on many fields, including graphic design,
architecture, industrial design, and landscape architecture.
Because it navigates through so many different fields and
styles, its nickname, “wayfinding” speaks ©decibels. It’s

because of skilled environmental graphic designers that we
can © enter and step into just about any home, store, or
business and feel, “I know where I am.” In fact, it’s only

when the wayfinder has failed— when, for example, we
can’t find the bathroom in a restaurant— that we notice it at
all. Our paths through the built environment have been laid
out for us in ways that we’re never supposed to notice.

© Atlanta’s airport provides a notable instance. All
airports are full of signs— you can park here, but you can’t
park here; your gate is this way; drop your bags here — but
Atlanta’s has surprisingly © lesser. Instead, our experience
of Atlanta’s airport has been largely determined by these
way finders. When you walk in the door, the subtle design
of the lights and floors © lead to the gates. A long sight
line shows you where you need to go rather than directing
you there with signs. The angles of the ticket booths lead
to the airport gates by suggestion. ©
Atlanta’s airport is just the beginning. The work of

environmental graphic designers is all around ® us. still.
the profession is working toward more significant recogni¬
tion. There are no degree programs in environmental
graphic design yet. ® but organizations like the Society
for Environmental Graphic Design are growing rapidly.
In an age where workers are being encouraged to special¬
ize more and more to fill particular niches, environmental
graphic design is a breath of fresh air: “experience,” after

all, can’t be narrowed down to a single discipline. It takes
an imagination that can take in the multiplicity of the
human experience.

12. Which of the following best supports the ideas 20. Which of the following statements would
presented at the beginning of this paragraph? best summarize the information given in this
A) NO CHANGE paragraph?
B) it’s pretty rare to get lost inside an airport, A) We all know what it’s like to get our tickets
C) it’s a lot more fun to take the train, and then have no idea where to go.
D) I always prefer to drive when I can, B) The subtle cues do all the work of signs
without cluttering your field of vision.
13. A) NO CHANGE C) Now if only these wayfinders could make
B) that of an environmental graphic designer. our planes take off on time!
C) those of environmental graphic designers.
D) “Do this, don’t do that”: can’t you read the
D) environmental graphic designers. sign?
14. A) NO CHANGE 21. A) NO CHANGE

B) occupying
B) us, even so, the
C) you occupy
C) us still the
D ) one occupies D) us. Still, the
15. A) NO CHANGE
2
B) a lot. with the info give in the first part of the
rmat n
C) volumes. sent ion
ence
. ?
D) loudly.
A) NO CHANGE
16. A) NO CHANGE B) and
field it’s unlikely that it will ever be a major
of study.
B) establish a presence by entering
C) enter and go into C) though
field. obviously it’s a pretty important
D) enter
D) since it’s too complex for most people to
understand.
Whi
17. Which of the following most effectively ch
of t
introduces the topic of this paragraph? he foll
owin
g gi
A) NO CHANGE ves
the
best
cont
Signs block up the scenery and break one’s
B) mind. rast
C) Air travel is a major hassle these days.

D) Wayfinding is becoming a major in Georgia.
18. A) NO CHANGE
B) less.
C) few.
D) a few.
19. A) NO CHANGE
B) have lead
C) leads
D) led
27
The South, but New or Silent?
In 1865, the Southern states, formerly the Confederacy,

were at a major crossroads. They lost the war, and the
union of American states remain intact. ©
By the 1880s, some prominent cultural figures in the
South had begun to predict the fate of the “New South.”

© The term, in fact, was popularized by Atlanta-based
journalist Henry Gradv. who toured the country promising
that the South had learned from its mistakes and was ready
to be a newer, better version of itself. Grady pushed for the
New South to be an industrial powerhouse, a goal to which
he said the South was already very much on its way, ©
though it would still grow natural resources like cotton and
tobacco.
Grady did not speak for all © of them, however. In
fact, there were some who were deeply skeptical of the
“newness” of Grady’s plan. Grady © paid basically no

attention to the idea that the South still had a race problem.
He assured his northern audiences that “we have found out
that. . . the free Negro counts more than he did as a slave.”
Unfortunately, Grady’s new plan preserved many of the
old racial politics of slavery, and many skeptics insisted
that Grady’s “New South” was really just a mirror image
of the Old South. © After all, Grady was insistent that
the South had its “race problem” under control at exactly

the moment that violence toward African-Americans was
reaching its crudest heights.
Grady’s conception may have carried the day for much

of the late-nineteenth and early-twentieth centuries, but the
ideas of © others have been ultimately more influential in
how we understand the South today. George Washington
Cable, for example, argues not for the chest-thumping,
white-supremacist “New South” but for a “Silent South”
that is characterized by self-awareness and reflection and
takes some actual responsibility for the atrocities ® they
committed both before and after Emancipation.
While we may have a relatively straightforward view of
what the “South” meant during the Reconstruction period,
the dialogue between authors like Grady and Cable shows
that @ these were more complicated times. Many of the
tensions that erupted during the Civil Rights movement of
the 1950s and 1960s had been percolating since the previ¬
ous century. Although the loudest cultural and political
figures may be the ones whose voices we most remember,
it is in fact the “Silent South” figures like Cable ©who

have moved the region forward and continue to do so.

D)
28. A)
B)
23. A) NO CHANGE NO CHANGE
C)
D) remaining
just said whatever to
had remained was dismissive of
remained
completely didn’t pay attention to
24. Which of the following questions best introduces

29. The author is considering deleting the phrase “of
the subject that is to be discussed throughout the
the Old South” and placing a period after the
remainder of this essay? word image. Should the phrase be kept
or deleted?
A) What caused the Civil War in the first place?
B) How did the South lose the war when it A) Kept, because it is the only mention of the
seemed to have so much more motivation Old South in the entire passage.
than the North?
B) Kept, because it clarifies the metaphor
C) What kind of role would the Southern states presented in this sentence.
play in the new union? C) Deleted, because it presents information
D) What would happen to figures who had that appears elsewhere in the passage.
been prominent in the former Confederacy? D) Deleted, because creates an image that is
offensive to supporters of Grady.
25. A) NO CHANGE
B) The fact of the term’s popularity came 30. A) NO CHANGE

from base journalist Henry Grady
from Atlanta, touring the country and B) those
C) those others
learning mistakes for a better of himself.
D) his detractors
C) Henry Grady was the one from Atlanta-
based journalism who went around the 31. A) NO CHANGE
country with the promise of
learning mistakes from the B) one
South and ready to be a version of itself that C) it
was newer and better. D) some
D) Henry Grady himself, Atlanta journalist, 32. A) NO CHANGE
was the popularizer of the term in fact and B) times were more complicated than that.
promised the country the South had learned C) these times were troubled times.
from mistakes and would be newer and D) it was a more complicated time.
better.
33. A) NO CHANGE
26. Which of the following true statements best B) who are continuing
the forward future. the region’s move into
maintains the focus of this sentence?
C) who forward the region’s move and
A) NO CHANGE continue it.
B) as evidenced by Grady-promoted schools D) are moving the region forward and are
like Georgia Tech. continuing its movement.
C) and some high schools in the South today
are named after Grady.
D) a speech that Grady famously gave to a
crowd of New Englanders.
27. A) NO CHANGE
B) Southerners,
C) of us,
D) mankind,

The History of Digestion— Difficult to Stomach
The great period of “Enlightenment” came in the mid-

1700s, when intellectuals © (especially France! from all
over the world became interested in the workings of nature
and the body as observable phenomena. In this period, the
idea that we all hold as a basic truth, © that science can
explain and control the world as we experience it. was
bom.
This is not to say, however, that they had it all figured
out in the 1700s. © Many, scientific discoveries, were
still decades away. One such discovery has to do with the
mechanism of human digestion. Until the 1820s, digestion
was not well understood, and irregularities in digestion
were treated with a variety of wild, often unhelpful, meth¬
ods. Then, © after a series of strange events led to a major
breakthrough in the science of digestion.
In the 1820s, © William Beaumont was sent to
Michigan’s Fort Mackinac, a U.S. Army Surgeon. There,

in 1922, he encountered a patient named Alexis St. Martin.
St. Martin had been accidentally shot at close range,
and Beaumont was called in to treat his wounds. While
Beaumont did restore St. Martin to health, he also noticed
a curious hole, or fistula, in St. Martin’s ribs that had failed

to © shut up. The fistula was close to St. Martin’s stomach
and gave oddly direct access to his digestive tract.
Beaumont conducted a series of experiments wherein
he placed foodstuffs directly into St. Martin’s stomach and
watched © itls machinations. Beaumont would remove
the food periodically to observe the course of digestion.
These experiments showed Beaumont that there was a gas¬
tric fluid (what we now call “stomach acid”) breaking the
food particles down. Whereas before Beaumont, scientists
believed that digestion was a purely muscular process,
Beaumont showed that the process was in fact (D an
interesting one, propelled by this mysterious fluid. In fact,
Beaumont demonstrated that the stomach muscles were
relatively minor © players: he isolated samples of gastric
fluid in cups and allowed food to “digest” in those cups.
Beaumont and St. Martin would be tied to one another
for the rest of their lives, and not just by the strings
Beaumont used to pull his food samples out of © St.
Martin’s fistula. Unfortunately, Beaumont would abuse his

power over St. Martin, essentially turning his test subject
into a servant and making him “perform” his digestion for
crowds of onlookers. Even so, their collaboration is one of
those great accidents that moves science forward. While
we may imagine that scientific discoveries are made dur¬
ing controlled experiments in sanitary labs, the history of
digestion © is hilarious and weird!

D)
C)
40. A)
34. The best place for the underlined portion would NO CHANGE
A
be: its )
A) where it is now. B) C)
thereD
B) after 1700s and before the comma. )
they’re
C) after the word world.
D) after the word body. 41 . Which of the following choices best completes
A)B) set up in the first part of this
the contrast
sentence?
35. Which of the following statements most agrees
C)
with information presented in the previous NO DCHANGE
)
sentence?
digestively motivated,
a chemical one,
A) NO CHANGE A)
difficult to describe.
B) that you should do unto others as you would
have them do unto you,
42. B) C)D)
C) that book learning is less important than NO CHANGE
research in a laboratory,
players, he isolated
D) that the United States was founded on truly A)
players he isolated
scientific principles, B)
players, isolating
43. C)
36. A) NO CHANGE NO CHANGE
B) Many scientific discoveries, were still
decades, away. DSt.
) Martins
St. Martins’
C) Many, scientific discoveries, were still,
decades away.
D) Many scientific discoveries were still 44. St. Martin’
NO CHANGE
decades away. shows us otherwise.
is not so difficult to digest!
37. A) NO CHANGE puts science in perspective
B) as a series
C) really, a series,
D) a series
38. A) NO CHANGE
B) U.S. Army surgeon William Beaumont was
sent to Michigan’s Fort Mackinac.

C) William Beaumont, a surgeon serving in
the U.S. Army, was sent to Michigan’s Fort

Mackinac.
D) surgeon William Beaumont was sent to

Michigan’s
Army. Fort Mackinac, of the U.S.
39. A) NO CHANGE
B) shut.
C) close.
D) end.

Questions 1-11 . Read the following passage carefully before you choose your answers.
A Change of Direction
Try to picture a film director: what do you see? Is it the

old-Hollywood man with his monocle and riding crop? ©
Or the brooding bearded guy guiding a series of confused
actors through the secret finished project in his mind?
Whoever you see, you almost certainly see a man. Film
direction has often been criticized for being a boys’ club,
but things may be slowly changing with the stunning ©
rise of director. Kathryn Bigelow.
In the long history of the Academy Awards, only four
female directors have ever been nominated for Best
Director. © Bigelow was the first to win, for 2008 ’s The

Hurt Locker. Since 1982, Bigelow has been producing
films of astounding quality, and the public has responded.
© Catherine Breillat and Chantal Akerman are critically
admired, few people know Fat Girl or Je Tu II Elle. A
much broader public knows about The Hurt Locker and
Bigelow’s most recent film Zero Dark Thirty , detailing

the lead-up to the capture of Osama Bin Laden. Bigelow
has certainly made a name for herself, and © bit by
bit, she may be changing the landscape of Hollywood
incrementally.
Bigelow was bom in San Carlos, CA, in 1951 , and
after high school, she © rolled in the San Francisco Art
Institute, where she learned © the ins and outs of the art
world. It was this interest in visual media that led her on
to the graduate program in film at Columbia University,
where she made many prominent contacts in film and film
criticism. A few years after finishing at Columbia, Bigelow
directed her first full-length feature, The Loveless (1982).
The film was the first in a series © with strong female pro¬
tagonists. so in addition to breaking down gender barriers
in the profession, Bigelow has also torn down the arbitrary
notion of what a “women’s film” might be expected to
look like. 0 After all, her most famous work is in the
military drama, and what could be more stereotypically
masculine than that?
Bigelow’s most important lesson to Hollywood has

been to show that great film © was neither masculine nor
feminine. “I can’t change my gender,” she has famously
insisted, “and I refuse to stop making movies.” Bigelow
hopes now that more women will get in to directing
and that the industry will catch up with a set of gender
standards that © are way different. With Bigelow as
inspiration, we can only hope that film can reach its real
potential without being shackled by old and meaningless
demographic categories.

7. A) NO CHANGE
keeping with the tone and theme of this paragraph?
B) art.
A) Or the nerdy guy with his round spectacles C) about art.
whining instructions to the actors? D) some of the arts.
. B) Or do you not know how important the role of

1 Which of the follow
ing senis?
the director actually tences would be mos
t in 8. Which of the following best completes the idea
C) This image comes from many of the German
expressed in this sentence?
emigre directors of the 1920s and 1930s.
D) Hollywood has long been filled with many A) NO CHANGE
eccentric directors. B) that were produced by a variety of studios,
C) interested in the structure of violence,
D) OMIT the underlined portion.
2. A) NO CHANGE
B) rise of director Kathryn Bigelow.
9. A) NO CHANGE
C) rise, of director, Kathryn Bigelow.
B) However,
D) rise, of director Kathryn Bigelow.
C) Come on,
D) Even so,
3. The writer is considering adding the phrase “while

all the other awards went to male directors” after
10. A) NO CHANGE
the word Director and before the period. Should the
writer add this phrase here? B) had been
A) Yes, because it adds an essential piece of C) were

information not given elsewhere in the passage. D) is
B) Yes, because the reader will not understand
11. A) NO CHANGE
Kathryn Bigelow’s achievements without it.
C) No, because it is already implied in the sentence B) changed long ago.
as it is written. C) couldn’t have been predicted.
D) No, because it suggests that female directors are D) are sure to be outdated to anyone who thinks
about it.
not capable of winning the award.
4. A) NO CHANGE
B) And Catherine
C) Because Catherine
D) While Catherine
5. A) NO CHANGE
B) one day at a time,
C) ever so slightly,
D) OMIT the underlined portion.
6. A) NO CHANGE
B) enrolled
C) unrolled
D) rickrolled
33
■a
Research With a Brain... and Another Brain

V)
As technology makes ® itls way into every facet of our 100

lives, more jobs reward expertise in a number of fields. Q.
O
=lt;
Bioinformatics, at the intersection of computer science and ■ Soybean - —
13 Cotton _ ill _
biology, is one such field that has already had a ® tremen¬ 13 80 4-
(0
£ 90 -H ■ Soybean
dous and large impact on the way we live today. Because
o 70
it requires technical proficiency in a number of fields, m
bioinformatics can seem © intimidating, but the field is C
(7)
always growing and can lead practitioners down a number D 60
U)
TJ
of fascinating paths. c
50
Bioinformatics made news early this century with what
is arguably one of the most remarkable scientific achieve¬ (0
>
ments of our age: © people have been talking about it
3
ever since. A process over twenty years in the making, the o
Human Genome Project was completed in 2003. This work
would not have been possible with traditional pen-and-
paper laboratory methods. Even with the many scientists
who worked on the project, the project required the sci¬
ence of © bioinformatics — biological research that uses
computers to track, store, and read the data. This project
has enabled to scientists to begin to understand the basic
blueprint of a human being, and this understanding has
already led to huge gains in disease control.
While the Human Genome Project may grab the head¬
lines, bioinformatics has a much more direct impact on
our lives for the advances it has enabled in the field of
agriculture. ® Genetically-modified agricultural products
are more or less the norm today, and the achievements in
genetically-modified agriculture © are all the work of
bioinformatics. Just as the Human Genome Project did
with humans, daily experiments work to map the genomes
of agricultural crops in order to understand how they grow.
This genomic information has been used, for example,
to increase some plants’ nutritional value or to enable
them to grow in poor soil. The effects on the crop yields
of © soybeans, cotton, and, maize over the last twenty
years have been undeniable. The percentage of cultivated
land devoted to these genetically-modified soybeans, for
instance, has shrunk to record lows in some cases.
There has been significant debate as to the ethical value
of bioinformatics and of genetically-modified crops and
meats. There is no question, however, that © it will con¬
tinue to grow, and this may well be because the potential
benefits so far outweigh the potential risks. The food we
eat may not be as nature intended it, but we are at least
more protected from many of the famines that decimated
historical populations. And beyond its influence in agri¬
culture, @ bioinformatics, neither discounted nor denied
with humans, records success.

B) its B) soybeans cotton, and maize
C) soybeans, cotton, and maize
C) its’ D) soybeans, cotton and maize,
D) one’s
13. A) NO CHANGE 20. Which of the following contains accurate data based
B) tremendous and not at all small on the graph?
C) tremendous, which is to say large,

D) tremendous A) NO CHANGE
B) been entirely replaced
C) been limited to three crops
14. A) NO CHANGE D) grown by over 900%
B) intimidating but the
C) intimidating, but, the
21. A) NO CHANGE
D) intimidating, the
B) bioinformatics
C) they
15. Which of the following gives the most specific infor¬

mation regarding the achievement mentioned in this D) plants
sentence?
22. A) NO CHANGE
A) NO CHANGE B) humans successfully deny and discount the
B) all of them worked really hard. record of bioinformatics and its science.
C) mapping the human genome. C) neither discounted nor denied, bioinformatics of
humans has been a recorded success.
D) it’s still not entirely complete.
D) bioinformatics has a record of success with
humans that cannot be discounted or denied.
16. A) NO CHANGE
B) bioinformatics biological
C) bioinformatics; biological
D) bioinformatics. Biological
17. The writer is considering deleting the phrase “in

the field of agriculture,” ending the sentence with a
period after the word enabled. Should the phrase be
kept or deleted?
A) Kept, because the remainder of the paragraph

does not clarify which field is being discussed.
B) Kept, because the sentence is vague without this
information and does not adequately introduce
the topic of the paragraph.
C) Deleted, because it limits the scope of the
achievements of bioinformatics.
D) Deleted, because it distracts from the
paragraph’s main focus on the Human Genome
Project.
18. A) NO CHANGE
B) is
C) can be
D) would have been
35
Questions 23-31 . Read the following passage carefully
The Study of Man and a Whole Lot Else
[1] [4]
Anthropology is built from roots that mean “the study Today, the effects of this empathy can be seen every¬
of man.” That may seem like a pretty grandiose title for where. Literary critics analyze texts and authors not
such a minor science. Most people are not even sure according to one golden standard but according to the
what anthropology is, let alone would consider it one of particular circumstances and contexts of each work. [C]
the central disciplines in how we understand human life. Public-policymakers advise not according to what should
Nevertheless, upon closer inspection, we see that anthro¬ work according to its success in their hometowns or coun¬
pology is at the core of © both the social sciences and the tries but to what should work in a particular place given
humanities as we understand those fields today. that © places need and population.
[2] [5]
Anthropology, unfortunately, was built, and it was at its Anthropology has shown us how to live, and like the
most popular exactly when it was at its most controver¬ best © anthropologists, it has done so quietly, not insist¬
sial © on shaky foundations. That image of a European ing on its own superiority but by showing us how ©
dressed in © their finery going out to gaze upon “the its work is a lot more interesting than the work of other
natives” of Africa was the norm at the birth of anthropol¬ disciplines.

ogy. [A] One of anthropology’s earliest contributions to [6]
the public imagination, in fact, was the stadial theory of
development— in other words, that European culture was Anthropology still has a central place in the way we
think, but anthropology shifted in the twentieth century.
at the highest “stage” of development and the natives of
Africa or the aboriginals of the United States were many With the idea of “cultural relativism,” German anthropolo¬
stages behind. Moreover, these anthropologists believed gist Franz Boas explained that other cultures were not
that we could essentially see our historical selves in © “less” anything; ® they were simply different. A single
these. How they live now was a version of how we our¬ standard of judgment was inappropriate for such a widely
selves must have lived when we were less civilized. varying field of cultures. [D] The early twentieth century
ushered in a new empathy, to the extent that we no longer
[3]
understood, say, African culture as a lesser culture but as
© After an inauspicious beginning, even so. the effects a different one, characterized by a cultural richness totally
on the world and its people were tremendous. [B] This separate from our own.
anthropological understanding influenced everything from
how European countries colonized “less civilized” parts
of the world to the wealthy classes treating the poor like
animals.

23. A) NO CHANGE 30. Which of the following best concludes this para¬
B) both the social sciences and the humanities, as graph and agrees with the main idea of the passage?
we understand those fields today.
C) both the social sciences, and the humanities, as A) NO CHANGE
B) it can work in our particular moment, location,
we understand those fields, today. and frame of mind.
D) both the social sciences and the humanities as
C) it has finally overcome its controversial
we understand those fields, today.
beginnings.
D) it should really get more credit for how
24. Assuming the punctuation were to be adjusted important it is.

accordingly, the best placement for the underlined
portion would be:
3 1 . Which of the following most effectively completes
A) where it is now. the idea presented in the first part of this sentence?
B) after the word unfortunately.
C) after the word built. A) NO CHANGE
B) they were beyond our comprehension entirely.
D) after the word popular.
C) they were “more” civilized than anyone else.
D) they were studying us the whole time.
25. A) NO CHANGE
B) they’re Questions 32 and 33 ask about the preceding

C) his
D) the passage as a whole.
26. A) NO CHANGE
B) this. 32. The best placement for Paragraph 6 would be:
C) them.
D) these native populations. A) where it is now.
B) after Paragraph 2.
C) after Paragraph 3.
27. A) NO CHANGE D) after Paragraph 4.
B) This beginning was inauspicious, but even then,
it had tremendous effects on how people saw the 33. Upon rereading the essay, the author concludes that
world. A)
the following information has been left out:
C) Inauspicious it may have been, but tremendous B)
Public-health
C)D officials figure out not how a
also was the effect of this beginning on the ) could be contained in the abstract but
disease
world.
within what the local conditions of the disease
D) The beginnings of this world were inauspicious,
outbreak will allow.
but the effects of them were tremendous.
The A.
sentence should be added at point:
B.
28. A) NO CHANGE
C.
B) place’ D.
C) places’
D) place’s
29. A) NO CHANGE
B) anthropologists. It has
C) anthropologists it has
D) anthropologists have
37
Questions 34-44. Read the following passage carefidly
A Chicken in Every Pot
[1] The American Dream has taken many forms: the Goldhaft would also aid in the disbursement of the
big lawn, the white picket © fence, including also the 2.6 laryngo-virus vaccine developed by Rutgers scientist Frank
children. [2] That man was Arthur Goldhaft, the unsung Beaudette. The two of them collaborated on a freeze¬
hero of twentieth-century poultry farming. [3] One of drying technique that would enable Beaudette to ship the
vaccine to whoever needed it.
these American Dreams, “a chicken in every pot,” has
very clear origins. [4] The scene is Vineland, New Jersey, © Goldhaft’s story is inspiring for any number of
where a recent graduate of the veterinary school University reasons. First, it shows that humble origins do not need
of Pennsylvania has moved with his wife and children for
to limit one’s potential successes. Second, it shows that
a more countrified lifestyle than © Philadelphia in the
education can truly make a difference in one’s life. And
1910s. © third, it shows that hugely influential events can begin in
Goldhaft was born in Philadelphia in 1886. He went
the most © remote place. A “chicken in every pot” may
to the Jewish Agricultural School in Woodbine, NJ. © have eventually been the promise of the Vineland Poultry
Suspecting that the school was one of the many reform Laboratories, but it was only really made possible by
schools the troubled Goldhaft was forced to attend as a a small-city veterinarian trying to feed his family. The
child, he © prayed to run away if necessary. In the end, he history of science is full of such © stuff, and it can be
did no such thing: the school taught Goldhaft and many comforting to think that many of the difficulties of contem¬
others the techniques of scientific farming, and it mapped porary life are just one chance discovery away.
the course of the rest of Goldhaft’s life.
In the 1920s, President Herbert Hoover promised a
“chicken in every pot,” but agricultural science had trouble

keeping the chickens alive long enough to be edible. ® A_
chicken typically needs to be about 6-10 months to get to
an edible size. Goldhaft came to the rescue. His Vineland
Poultry Laboratories developed a fowl pox chicken vac¬
cine, which saved billions of chickens from death. Then,
Goldhaft developed a reliable means for shipping the vac¬
cine to all parts of the world, thus ensuring that everyone,
not just those in Vineland, could have a “chicken in ©
their pot.” Since 1909, chicken consumption in the United
States © peaked in the 1960s and 1970s. as pork con¬
sumption has remained relatively constant.
U.S. MEAT CONSUMPTION

34. A) NO CHANGE 41 . Which of the following contains accurate data based
B) fence, and the on the graph?
C) fence, too, also the
D) fence, and some people thought of A) NO CHANGE
B) has decreased slightly,
C) has grown by nearly 500%,
35. A) NO CHANGE D) dropped precipitately in the 1980s,
B) Philadelphia would be
C) Philadelphia was
D) Philadelphia could provide 42. Which of the following best introduces the conclud¬
ing paragraph of this essay?
A) NO CHANGE
36. The best placement for Sentence 2 would be: B) What do you say we grab some chicken wings
A) where it is now. after this?
B) before Sentence 1 . C) If only Goldhaft could have lived to see the

C) after Sentence 3 . organic and free-range chicken movement.
D) after Sentence 4. D) Chicken has overtaken beef as the most
consumed meat in the United States.
37. The writer wants to add the phrase “when he was

43. A) NO CHANGE
15” to the sentence, adjusting the punctuation and
capitalization as necessary. Where should the writer B) remote places.
make this addition? C) remote of all places.
D) remote place in the world.
A) At the beginning of the sentence
B) After the word He
C) After the word School 44. A) NO CHANGE
D) After the word in
B) paraphernalia,
C) people and events,
D) like,
38. A) NO CHANGE
B) cursed
C) vowed
D) swore
39. Which of the following sentences best agrees with

the ideas in the previous sentence and leads most
effectively to the next?
A) NO CHANGE
B) Vegetarian consciousness had not yet gained a
foothold in the United States.
C) Pigs and cows were doing just fine.
D) A mysterious pox was killing chickens in droves.
40. A) NO CHANGE
B) his
C) my
D) they’re
39
Questions 1-11 .Read the following passage carefully before you choose your answers.
A Norwegian Struggle
Where is the line between fact and fiction? As an author,

for example, that Proust’s work seems less scandalous
if you write about your own experiences but give them to to us today because all of the people © on which it is
a fictional character, are the experiences truly © made up based are long dead? And come to think of it, nearly all
out of thin air? And what about those close to you? If the
of Knausgard’s readers don’t know the flesh-and-blood
mother of your main character bears a resemblance to your Gunnar, or Tonje, or Karl Ove any more than they would
own mother, where does © her responsibility lie?
fictional characters. Knausgard’s book has raised vital
Contemporary Norwegian © writer. Karl Ove questions as a result, the most important of which may be,
Knausgard. has built a literary phenomenon out of exactly
® why would he name his book after a horrible dictator’s
autobiography?
these questions. Knausgard’s mammoth autobiographical
work, My Struggle , contains over 3000 pages of detailed
autobiography, © with names and identities the same as
those from his own life. His father’s struggles with (and
eventual death from) alcoholism, the difficulty of his first
marriage, all of this and more feature in full, vivid detail
in the pages of Knausgard’s work. If Knausgard’s books

cannot be referred to as actual libel, they are nonetheless
more revealing than many of the book’s subjects, espe¬

cially Knausgard 's uncle Gunnar and ex-wife Tonje, deem
© appropriate.
My Struggle has a clear precedent in the early twentieth-

century masterpiece In Search of Lost Time , the multi- vol¬
ume novel by French author Marcel Proust. The difference
there, however, was that while Proust’s main character and
narrator was named “Marcel,” everyone else in the book
had been given fictionalized names. Proust’s great novel
is considered one of the masterpieces of twentieth-century
literature and the & definition statement on how memory
conditions human experience.
© The similarities are many between Knausgard’s and

Proust’s work. In contrast to the similarities, however, the
differences are telling as well. Knausgard’s title comes
from, of all places, Adolf Hitler, whose famous and trou¬
bling work Mein Kampf is quoted in the Norwegian Min
Kamp, or My Struggle. Knausgard’s critics wonder © with
its title why a book that already has the potential to anger
and offend many people with its contents should also do so.
But Knausgard’s success seems to be built on exactly

these objections. The fact that he is known as the
“Norwegian Proust” and not the “Norwegian Hitler” shows

that his borrowing of Hitler’s title has already done a good
deal to take away the power of Mein Kampf. © Moreover,
literature has always been rooted in reality, and readers
are free to interpret things as the wish. Isn’t it possible,

1. Which of the following choices fits most effectively 8. The best placement for the underlined portion
with the style and tone of the first paragraph? would be:
A) NO CHANGE A) where it is now.

B) straight off the dome? B) after the word book.
C) fiction? C) after the word offend.
D) coming from out of nowhere? D) after the word so (and before the period).
2. A) NO CHANGE
9. The author is considering deleting the phrase “and
B) your not the 'Norwegian Hitler’” from the preceding
sentence. Should the phrase be kept or deleted?
C) you’re
D) an author’s A) Kept, because it clarifies information presented
in the latter part of the sentence.
3. A) NO CHANGE B) Kept, because the sentence is not grammatically
B) writer Karl Ove Knausgard, has built complete otherwise.
C) writer, Karl Ove Knausgard has built C) Deleted, because it repeats information stated
D) writer Karl Ove Knausgard has built explicitly elsewhere in the sentence.
D) Deleted, because the mention of Adolf Hitler
could be offensive to some readers.
4. Which of the choices is best aligned with the ideas
presented in the first paragraph?
10. A) NO CHANGE
A) NO CHANGE
B) the six volumes of which are being released in B) on whom
the United States in 2015 and 2016. C) on who
C) which has been translated into many languages D) whom
beyond the original Norwegian.
D) which is a special and remarkable work by a 1 1 . Which of the following choices provides the best
great writer. conclusion to the essay by echoing themes presented
in the first paragraph?
5. A) NO CHANGE A) NO CHANGE
B) where does life end and fiction begin?
B) appropriated.
C) how a man in his 40s write such a long book?
C) appropriately.
D) can his family and friends ever forgive him?
D) appropriations.
6. A) NO CHANGE
B) definitional
C) definitive
D) definingly
7. How would these two sentences best be combined?
A) NO CHANGE
B) Both the similarities and differences between
Knausgard’s and Proust’s work are telling;
however, the differences are that much more so.
C) The similarities are many between Knausgard’s

and Proust’s work; nevertheless, the similarities
and differences are equally many and just as
telling.
D) The similarities are many between Knausgard’s

and Proust’s work, but the differences are telling
as well.
41

Whose Look Is It Anyway?
Most moviegoers love the actors. Film buffs love the Best Best
Design
directors. So who is left to love the production designers? Year/Film Best Pro¬
Picture Director duction
Production design (PD) has been an essential component
of film ever since Hollywood came into ® existence but
1960
cite the names of most PDs or Art Directors, and you’ll The
get a blank stare. ® Still, film is a visual medium, and
Story
it’s impossible to maximize that visual aspect without the Apartment
work of an accomplished Production Designer. 1961
West Side
When we praise the “look” of a film, we usually think
that we’re tipping our hats to the director. In fact, © we
admire equally the work of the PD, who guides the work
1962
of the costume designer, make-up stylists, special-effects Lawrence of
© director, locations manager. The colorful pallet of a Arabia
1963
movie like Finding Nemo (2003) would’ve been impos¬
sible without the art direction of Ralph Eggleston, © who
Tom Jones
made it happen, and the rich period authenticity of a movie
like 12 Years a Slave (2013) is the great achievement of 1964
both Adam Stockhausen and ® director Steve McQueen. My Fair
1965 Lady
In fact, from that crucial period from 1960-1975, © the
The Sound of
Oscar for Best Actress was awarded to remarkably few
Music
Best Picture actresses. This makes sense, if a film doesn’t
1966
have a distinctive “look,” what does it actually have?
A Man For
A production designer essentially “directs” all of those All Seasons
working on © the aspects of the film. © They’re account¬ 1967
able for the work of set designers, make-up artists, com¬
puter designers, storyboard illustrators, and numerous oth¬ In the Heat
of the Night
ers. He or she is involved in the set construction, in finding
or constructing the furniture, structures, or buildings 1968
necessary for the look of a film. In the many period dramas Oliver!
1969
that have become popular in recent years, from Downton
Abbey on TV to American Hustle in film, the production Cowboy
Midnight
designer consults with historians to ensure accuracy and
authenticity so that viewers can have a more powerful
1970
visual experience. Producing that vision is impossible
Patton
without the work of a good Production Designer. ®
As with many other aspects of film, Production Design 1971
The French
can be a fine-art major, and for those who go into the pro¬
fession, there is the Art Directors Guild of the International Connection
Alliance of Theatrical Stage Employees. Although produc¬ 1972

tion designers may not get all the accolades they deserve, The Godfather
1973
there is no question that the look of what’s in front of the The Sting
camera would be impossible without those working so
meticulously behind it. ® 1974
Ihe Godfather
Part II
1975
One Flew
Over the
Cuckoo’s Nest

B ) existence , but , cite
B) He or she is
C) existence, cite
D) existence, but cite C) Their
13. All of the following alternatives to the underlined D) One’s

21. The writers wants to add an introductory clause
portion would be acceptable EXCEPT: to this sentence that shows that the Production
A) Nevertheless, Designer’s job is often underappreciated. Assuming

B) However, that capitalization and punctuation are adjusted
C) Moreover, accordingly, which of the following would fit most
D) Even so, appropriately here?
A) Although many consider a film to be the result
14. A) NO CHANGE of a director’s “vision,”

B) While actors and actresses typically make all the
B) equally we admire money from a film,
C) we’re equally admiring C) Like the producer him- or herself, who typically
D) we have also admired finances the film,
D) While the counterpart in the theater is the art
director and set designer,
15. A) NO CHANGE
B) director and, the
C) director and the 22. The writer is considering ending the sentence at the
D) director, and the word impossible and ending the sentence with a
period. Should the writer keep the sentence as it is or
make the change?
16. A) NO CHANGE
B) who made the impossible into the possible, A) Keep the sentence as is, because the production
C) an accomplished production designer, designer receives no credit without the phrase.
D) DELETE the underlined portion. B) Keep the sentence as is, because the sentence
changes meaning without this phrase.
C) Make the change, because the information
17. A) NO CHANGE presented is presented earlier in the paragraph.
B) those of director D) Make the change, because a sentence
C) that of director should always be made more concise if it is
grammatically correct.
D) the director’s
18. Which of the following pieces of information from

the graph best supports the ideas presented in this
passage?
A) NO CHANGE
B) nearly half of all Best Picture winners have also
been Best Production Design winners.
C) the award for Best Director exists in almost a 1 : 1
ratio with the award for Best Picture.
D) there is an obvious disparity between the number
of Best Actor winners in Best Picture films and
Best Actress winners in Best Picture films.
B) those in
C) the visual aspects of
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
Writing and Language Drills 43

British Columbia’s Pre- and Future History
Vancouver. British Columbia, is Canada’s eighth most attention to. a gift-giving ceremony in which the wealthy
populous city, and it is known as one of the hotbeds of demonstrate their extreme affluence by the vast quantities
contemporary Canadian culture, alongside eastern cit¬ they are able to give away.
ies Toronto and Montreal. Still, while nearly everyone The survival of the potlatch and © the more general
knows about them, few know about the importance Kwakwaka’wakw is a minor miracle. Between 1830 and
of Native American culture within the coastal region
1 880, 75% of the tribe’s population was killed by violence
of British Columbia. A © small community, of the and disease. Canada outlawed the practice of potlatch
Kwakwaka’wakw people, in the Pacific Northwest, links in 1884, citing its wastefulness and expenditure as run¬
the area to its pre-European roots. Although the language, ning contrary to the “civilized” values of white Canada.
a collection of dialects known as Kwak’wala, is spoken by Policies like the potlatch ban ©> were instituted as part of
only about 250 people, the Kwakwaka’wakw continue to a broader project of assimilation, designed to turn native
be a relevant force in the region and an inspiring reminder populations into Canadians, not only by banning native
of an era that was cruelly uprooted in the early nineteenth practices but also by sending native children to harsh
century. © assimilationist schools.
© According to this mythological narrative, the
The population of Kwakwawa’wakw today is just
original settlers came to the area in animal form and over 5,000. ® However, the small community of
became human when they arrived at the places they would
Kwakwaka’wakw peoples remains committed to its tradi¬
settle. One of the major figures in this origin story, the tions, and in the late twentieth century, a move away from
Thunderbird, can still be seen in the many totems and assimilationist policies meant that the Canadian govern¬
carvings that remain, particularly from the late nineteenth ment was more willing to recognize and encourage cultiva¬
century. tion of its native heritage. Things today may be as good
Much of what we know about the nineteenth-century as they’ve been at any time in history: the population
Kwakwaka’wakw tribes © come from German-American of Aboriginal peoples in Canada from 2001-2006 @ has
anthropologist Franz Boas. In Boas’s analysis, we can see declined 20.1%. with growth in British Columbia peak¬
the importance of weaving and woodwork, particularly as ing at 42%. The Winter Olympics in Vancouver in 2010
displays of wealth and power within the community. In showed that Canada has finally begun to see the influence
fact, most-heavily studied aspect of Kwakwaka’wakw cul¬ of the Kwakwaka’wakw and others as integral to © ips
ture remains the potlatch , © which scholars devote much national character.
Percent
2001-2006 Aboriginal Population Growth,
50
by Province
42.1
NS Que PEI Ont Nfld Alta Man Yukon BC NWT Nvt Sask NB
Source: 2001 & 2006 Census of Canada

B) it B) that scholars devote much attention to,
C) one C) much scholarly attention being devoted to it,
D) Vancouver D) DELETE the underlined portion.

B) small community, of the Kwakwaka’wakw
B) the, more generally, Kwakwaka’wakw
people, in the Pacific Northwest
C) the Kwakwaka’wakw, more generally
C) small community of the Kwakwaka’wakw D) the Kwakwaka’wakw in general
people in the Pacific Northwest
D) small community of the Kwakwaka’wakw

people, in the Pacific Northwest, 30. A) NO CHANGE
B) have been instituted
C) are instituted
25. At this point, the writer is considering adding the D) had been instituted
following true statement:
The Cree, who live further to the east, have fared

31. A) NO CHANGE
much better, with a contemporary population of
over 200,000. B) Therefore,
C) On the other hand,
Should the writer make this addition here? D) Next,
i
A) Yes, because it shows that the Kwakwaka’wakw

should have moved further east. 32. Which of the following gives accurate information
based on the graph?
B) Yes, because it suggests that Canada’s history is
not as checkered as the rest of the passage states.
C) No, because it adds an unnecessary detail to the A) NO CHANGE
B) was just over 20%, with growth in some
passage’s discussion of the Kwakwaka’wakw. provinces reaching as much as 42% .
D) No, because it minimizes the difficulties that
C) has declined 20.1%, with growth in Alberta
the Kwakwakwa’wakw have faced throughout keeping pace with the national average.
history.
D) was just over 20%, with growth in Ontario
seeing the most significant increase.
subject matter of this paragraph?

33. A) NO CHANGE
A) There is little documented history of the
B) its
Kwakwaka’wakw before the eighteenth century,
but a rich oral history exists. C) their
B) Most Native American documented history
D) they’re
comes from archaeologists and living oral
historians.
C) Like English settlers in the United States,

English settlers in Canada killed off Native
Americans in tragically high numbers.
D) Using animals to explain prehistoric human
behaviors has been a common practice
throughout history.
B) comes
C) are coming
D) came
45
A Sweet Invention in the Big Easy
© Born in New Orleans. LA. on March 17. 1806. was

As historians of science learn more about the eigh¬
a man named Norbert Rillieux. Rillieux was the son of teenth and nineteenth centuries, they uncover more and
Vincent Rillieux and Constance Vivant. Because Vivant
more odds-defying work from men and women who
was a free woman of color and marriages between the were not given proper rights and recognitions in that era.
races were outlawed at the time, Vivant became Rillieux ’s There’s much more to this period, it seems, than George
placee, or common-law wife. Race relations were slightly Washington Carver.
less restrictive in Creole Louisiana © than in other parts
of the American South. © Norbert might have been born
into constricting circumstances elsewhere in the South;
Creole Louisiana afforded him recognition as his father’s

son and access to education not available to other free
blacks or slaves.
The young Norbert attended Catholic schools in
Louisiana, and in the early 1820s, he went to Paris to study
at the Ecole © Centrale. there he learned physics, mechan¬
ics, and engineering, and © became a noted expert in
steam engines. This remarkable education led to Rillieux’s

eventual achievements in sugar refining and cemented his
place as one of the first African-American inventors in the
United States.
While studying at the Ecole Centrale, © sugar refining
emerged as an urgent concern for Rillieux. At that time,
Louisiana was a central hub in the sugar trade, but the pro¬
cess of refining that sugar was © little understood. Until
then, sugarcane juice would be pressed from the cane, and
the juice would be heated until the water boiled, leaving
a (D gunkv residue. This residue was then poured into
smaller and smaller pots until it achieved its maximum
thickness. The problem with such a method was that sugar
was lost at every step, and much of the sugar would burn
away because the heat was difficult to monitor.
After a failed attempt to start a sugar refinery with his
brother Edmond, Norbert patented his new sugar-refining
machine in 1843. The new machine addressed both major
issues with the old method of sugar © refining. All the
while making the process significantly safer for those men,
mainly slaves, who worked the machines. The machine
used vacuum pressure to lower the boiling point of the
relevant liquids. Heat can be easily controlled because it
comes from only one source— most of the © systemic
heat is recycled steam. That steam cycles through stacked
pans, where the sugarcane could essentially refine itself,
rather than require the workers to transfer the scalding
hot liquids by hand. By 1849, Merrick and Towne, the
Philadelphia manufacturers who sold Rillieux’s new inven¬
tion, could guarantee purchasers previously unheard-of
yields: © up to 18,000 pounds of sugar a day.

D)
41. A) B)
34. A) NO CHANGE NO CCHANGE
)
syruD
py)
B) Norbert Rillieux was bom March 17, 1806, in
New Orleans, LA.
C) On March 17th in 1806, Norbert Rillieux was bituminous
born in Louisiana in New Orleans. gross
42. A) B)
D) Born in New Orleans, March 17th was the
birthday of Norbert Rillieux in 1806. NO CCHANGE
)
refining;
D) all
refining all
refining, all
35. A) NO CHANGE
B) then were relations in
C) than the race relations were in 43. A)
D) than those of blacks and whites in NO CHANGE
36. A) NO CHANGE
B) However, Norbert system’s
systems
C) Because Norbert
D) While Norbert systems’
44. Which of the following would be support the state¬
ment made in the first part of this sentence?
37. A) NO CHANGE A) NO CHANGE

B) and they could be on the cutting edge of
B) Centrale there technology, too.
C) Centrale. There
C) hiding the identity of the inventor all the while
D) Centrale, there,
D) how could anyone afford not to buy this
machine?
38. Which of the following best maintains the focus

established in this sentence and paragraph?
A) NO CHANGE
B) lived a traditionally French lifestyle.
C) did not have to contest with racial prejudice.
D) became a teacher at the young age of 24.
39. A) NO CHANGE
B) Rillieux’s concentration led him to the process

of refining sugar.
C) his background in chemistry led him to a new
way of refining sugar.
D) Rillieux began to work on the chemical process
of refining sugar.
40. Which of the following would best maintain the

focus on the problems with refining sugar in the early
eighteenth century?
A) NO CHANGE
B) a popular process.
C) costly and inefficient.
D) the “sweetest” job in town.
47

Chapter 4
Writing and
Language Answers
and Explanations
ANSWER KEY
23. A 12. D
Writing & Language 34. C
Drill 1 24. C
35. A 13. C
l.C 25. C 14. C
36. D
2. D 26. D
37 D 15. D
3. A 38. B 27 B 16. D
4. A 28. D
39. C 17 A
5. B 40. B 29. A 18. B
6. D 41. C
19. C
30. B
7. D 42. A 20. B
31. A
8. C 21. A
43. A 32. C
9. B 44. B 22. B
33. C
10. D
11. A
34. B 23. D
Writing & Language 24. C
12. B Drill 2 35. D 25. C
l.A 36. D
13. B 26. A
14. A 37 A 27 B
2. B 38. C
15. C 28. D
3. C
16. D 4. D 39. DB
40.
29. D
17 A 41. C
5. D
18. C 6. B 42. A 30. A
19. C 43. B 31. A
20. B 78. AC 44. C 32. B
21. D 33. B
9. A
22. A 10. D
11. B 34. B
Writing & Language
Drill 3
23. D 35. A
24. C l.C 36. D
12. B
25. A 2. B 37 C
13. D
26. B 14. A 38. A
27 B 3. AD
4. 40. C
15. C 39. D
28. C 16. A 41. C
29. B 17 B 5.
6. AC 42. D
30. D 18. A
43. B
31. C 19. C 78. DD 44. A
32. D 20. D
21. B 9. A
33. A 10. B
22. D 11. B

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS FOR WRITING & LANGUAGE DRILL 1
Passage I
1. C The idea before the punctuation, Even among those who know twentieth-century literature well, is
incomplete, so it cannot end with either a period or semicolon, eliminating (A) and (B). Choice (D)
can also be eliminated because it introduces a contrast where none exists. Only (C) is correct.
2. D If the ph rase Kenzaburo Oe or Yasunari Kawabata were removed, the meaning and completeness of
the sentence would not change. The phrase is therefore not essential to the meaning of the sentence
and should be set off with commas, as (D) indicates.
3. A Read the question carefully. It asks for a choice that addresses the uncertainty expressed in the last
sentence of the previous paragraph. Only (A) notes this uncertainty, with the others either dismissing or
ignoring the uncertainty mentioned in the previous sentence.
4. A There should be a comma after every item in a list— in this case, political extremist, actor, and body¬
builder. This eliminates (B). Then, because the list is part of an introductory idea, there should also be
a comma after the word bodybuilder, making (A) the correct answer.
5. B The previous sentence indicates that Mishima was pulled in many different directions. The first part
of this sentence refers to contemporary French and German poets, so the second part of the sentence
should emphasize another influence that came from somewhere else. Choice (B) provides the best
emphasis, explaining that Tachihara was a Japanese poet who worked in a classical form.
6. D The verb in the underlined portion should agree with the other verb in this part of the sentence, find.
Only (D) does so, with the other three choices using the form tearing.
7. D The following sentence refers to a disappointing error. The most precise word in the underlined portion
is therefore misdiagnosing, or (D).
8. C Use POE by comparing the answer choices to the information presented in the timeline. Choice (A)
can be eliminated because Thieves was published when Mishima was 23, and he had been rejected
from military service at 18. Choice (B) can also be eliminated because Thieves was published in 1948
and Kawabata won the Nobel Prize in 1968. Choice (C) is correct about the publication date of
Thieves. Choice (D) can be eliminated because Mishima graduated in 1947, and his first novel was
published in 1948.
9. B Keep the items in the list parallel! This list refers to a series of actions: wrote. . . starred. . . became.
There’s no need to add anything else, making (B) the correct answer.
Writing and Language Answers and Explanations
51
10. D All four answers mean essentially the same thing, so choose the shortest that makes sense in the
context. In this case, that is (D), to overthrow.
11. A Look at the direction of each of the transitions. Choices (B), (C), and (D) each establish a contrast in
the sentence. Choice (A) does not and must therefore be the one that is NOT acceptable in the given
context.
Passage II
12. B The idea presented at the beginning of the paragraph is that air travel can be frustrating, but in an
airport, you seem to know exactly where to go. Choice (B) best paraphrases this idea.
13. B The portion of the sentence before the underlined portion ends with by design, so the underlined
portion must refer back to this somehow. Choices (A) and (D) do not correctly modify the word
design, and (C) implies a plural noun where there is none. Choice (B) is the only acceptable choice,
suggesting that the design is that of an environmental graphic designer.
14. A This sentence refers to how environmental graphic designers guide us through, so the word we is appro¬
priate in the underlined portion, unlike the pronouns given in (C) and (D). Then, (B) makes the
sentence incomplete. The sentence is therefore correct as written.
15. C The conventional phrase is speaks volumes. Although some of the other words may have similar-
seeming meanings, they do not work in this conventional phrase. Only (C) works in this context.
16. D All four answers mean essentially the same thing, so choose the shortest that makes sense in this
context. In this case, that is (D), enter.
17. A This paragraph describes Atlanta’s airport as a classic example of environmental graphic design. Choice
(A) is therefore the best choice to introduce the paragraph; the others do not refer to Atlanta’s airport
at all.
18. C The first part of this sentence says that airports are typically full of signs. Atlanta’s airport, by contrast,
has few signs, as (C) suggests. Choice (D) changes the meaning, and (A) and (B) use less, which is
typically for non-countable objects.
19. C This paragraph is mainly in the present tense, so the verb in the underlined portion must be in the
present tense as well, eliminating (B) and (D). Then, (A) can be eliminated because the subject of the
verb, the subtle design of the lights and floors, is singular. Only (C) remains as the correct answer.

20. B The paragraph as a whole describes the ways that the environmental graphic design of Atlanta’s airport
makes for easy navigation. Choice (B) summarizes this description, where the others are off-topic.
21. D The sentence as written contains a comma splice. The first idea in this sentence (The work of graphic
designers is all around us) and the second idea {still, the profession is working toward more significant
recognition) are both complete. They should therefore be separated by a period or semi-colon, as in (D).
22. A The first part of the sentence mentions that there are no degree programs in environmental graphic
design yet, and (A) shows that this is changing. Choices (B) and (D) contain no contrast at all, and (C)
contains a contrast but a meaningless one.
Passage III
23. D Keep the verbs consistent. The other verbs in this paragraph are were and lost. This one should be keep
consistent with those, so it should be remained, (D).
24. C The remainder of the paragraph discusses certain intellectuals’ plans for the “New South.” The ques¬
tion here should be something along the lines of, What would the new South look like ? Or What was the
South going to do now ? Choice (C) best encapsulates these questions. Choice (D) may seem plausible,
but it places the emphasis on the wrong time period.
25. A Use POE! Choice (A) is the only one that communicates an actual idea. Choice (B) refers to the base
journalist Henry Grady, which nothing in the passage supports. Choice (C) refers to learning mistakes,
which doesn’t make sense. Choice (D) is close, but Henry Grady himself is awkward, and (A) is clearer.
26. B The first part of this sentence suggests that the South was already very much on its way to becoming an
industrial powerhouse. The underlined portion should agree with this idea, as only (B) does. Choices
(C) and (D) are off-topic, and (A) disagrees with the earlier part of the sentence.
27. B In the sentence as it is written, the word them is ambiguous. Only (B) clarifies the referent for them:
southerners.
28. C The sentence as written breaks with the formal tone of the rest of the essay. Choices (B) and (C) make
similar mistakes. Therefore, only (C) can work in the context.
29. B Without the phrase “of the Old South,” the idea of the mirror image is unclear. The sentence states that
the New South is the mirror image of the Old South. If the phrase is removed, the sentence changes its
meaning. The phrase should therefore be kept for the reason stated in (B).
30. D This sentence sets up a contrast between the ideas of Grady and the ideas of others. Choice (D), however,
provides the clearest sense of who those others were and is therefore the correct answer.
53
y'
31.
31. C
The pronoun they is currently ambiguous because it doesn’t seem to refer to anything in this sentence.
Instead, this sentence is discussing “the South” and the things that it did. The best answer is therefore
(C), which creates a pronoun referent that works.
32. D The time referred to here is the Reconstruction period., which is singular. Therefore, the correct answer
must refer to this as a time in the singular, as only (D) does.
33. A If all four answers say essentially the same thing, choose the shortest that preserves the meaning. In
this case, the best answer is (A), which lays the ideas out clearly and is free of awkward constructions,
as in (B), (C), and (D).
Passage IV
34. C France is a country, so the underlined portion should be placed somewhere in a discussion of places. In
this case, the only place that could work is after the sentence’s mention of intellectuals from all over the
world , or (C).
35. A The idea presented in the previous sentence has to do with nature and the body as observable phenomena.
The underlined portion should relate to this idea somehow, as only (A) does, even if the other choices
are true or plausible.
36. D
If you cannot cite a reason to use a comma, don’t use one! No commas are required for any reason in
this sentence, so the correct answer is (D).
37. D As written, this sentence is incomplete because of the conjunction after. Choice (B) contains the same
mistake. Then, (C) adds an unnecessary word in really, leaving only (D) as the correct answer.
38. B
As written, the sentence is awkwardly phrased, and it’s not clear what US. Army surgeon refers to.
When you are asked to shuffle through a bunch of nonsense sentences, start with the shortest. In this
case, the shortest is (B), which is also the one that states its idea most directly.
39. C A wound or hole on the body has to close in order to heal. Although shut and end may mean close in
other circumstances, the only word that works idiomatically here is close , or (C).
40. B
This part of the sentence refers to the stomach’s machinations. In other words, the sentence refers to its
machinations , as in (B). Choice (A) is the contraction for the words it is, so it cannot apply here.

This is a contrast in this sentence between a muscular process and something else. Choices (A), (B),
and (D) do not complete the contrast. Choice (C) accurately sets up the contrast between a muscular
process and a chemical one.
The idea before the punctuation {In fact, Beaumont demonstrated that the stomach muscles were rela¬
tively minor players) and the one after it {he isolated samples of gastric fluid in cups and allowed food to
“ digest ” in those cups) are both complete. A colon could therefore apply. The other choices either create
comma splices or run-on sentences, however, and should therefore be eliminated.
In this sentence, the fistula belongs to St. Martin. It is therefore St. Martin’s fistula. Choice (B) implies
a plural noun where none exists, and (C) and (D) eliminate the necessary possession altogether.
Be sure the ideas are in keeping with the tone of the passage. Choices (A) and (C) change the tone,
and (D) is essentially meaningless. Only (B) can work and completes the idea given earlier in the
sentence.
55
Passage I
1. A This sentence appears in a within a list of questions, so the sentence itself should be a question also,
thus eliminating (C) and (D). Then, the paragraph is about what you imagine when you imagine a
director, with which only (A) agrees.
2. B If you can’t cite a reason to use a comma, don’t use one. In this case, no commas are necessary, so
(B) must be correct. There should not be a comma before Kathryn Bigelow because the sentence is no
longer complete without these words.
3. C The words only four female directors suggest that all the rest of those nominated have been men.
Therefore, it is not necessary to add the proposed information because it is already implied in the
sentence.
4. D The sentence as written contains a comma splice. A word will need to be added to the beginning of
the sentence to eliminate this error. Then, the ideas in this sentence (critically admired. .few people
know ) are in contrast with one another, meaning that the sentence needs an opposite-direction transi¬
tion, such as the one contained in (D).
5. D The underlined words bit by bit are redundant with the non-underlined word incrementally, so (A)
should be eliminated. Choices (B) and (C) make the same mistake, so the best option is to eliminate
the underlined portion altogether, as in (D).
6. B The correct word here is enrolled, particularly as it applies to a school or program. The best answer is
therefore (B).
7. A Choose the most precise answer. In many cases, that will be the shortest answer, but in this case, the
most precise answer is the longest, (A). Choices (B), (C), and (D) are too vague or too general.
8. C The next sentence discusses the military drama, which indicates an interest in the structure of violence,
as in (C). While it may seem plausible that Bigelow’s films would have strong female protagonists,
there is no evidence for such a claim in the passage.
9. A The previous sentence states, Bigelow has also torn down the arbitrary notion of what a “womens film” or
“leading lady” might be expected to look like. This sentence gives evidence of that claim, so the transition
should signify some continuation of the idea. Choice (A) does this effectively, while the other choices
are either irrelevant or contrasting.

Bigelow is working today, so this sentence should be in the present tense. Also, in the terms of this
sentence, her achievement has been to show that film is genderless. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are all in
the past tense (in addition to their other faults), so (D) is the best answer.
Since all four answers say similar things, choose the shortest that works in the given context. Choice
(A) is the shortest, but it is not specific, and it is not in keeping with the tone of the rest of the best
passage. The best option comes in (B), which is concise, specific, and tonally appropriate.
Passage II
12. B The antecedent for the underlined pronoun is technology, so technology’s way into every facet of our lives
should be rewritten with the pronoun its. Choice (A) gives the contraction it is, and (C) is grammati¬
cally incorrect.
13. D All four answer choices say essentially the same thing, so choose the shortest that works in the given
context. In this case, that answer is (D), which contains all the necessary information but presents
that information in the most concise way.
14. A The ideas before and after the punctuation are complete, so they should be separated with either a
period, semi-colon, or comma-plus-coordinating-conjunction. In this case, that conjunction is but ,

making (A) the correct answer. Choice (C) cannot work because it adds an unnecessary comma after
the word but.
15. C Only (C) presents a specific achievement. Choices (A) and (B) describe successes of a sort, but those
are not as specific as (C).
16. A The idea before the punctuation is complete, but the idea after it is incomplete, thus eliminating (C)
and (D). There must be something to separate the ideas, however, which also eliminates (B). All that
remains is (A), which is appropriate because a long dash can be used after a complete idea, as it is here.
17. B If the writer were to delete this phrase, this sentence would contain no specific information, and it
would not effectively introduce the idea of this paragraph. The part in question should therefore be
kept, and for the reason stated in (B).
18. A The subject of this verb is achievements, thus requiring a verb agreeing with a plural noun. Choices (C)
and (D) do so, but they change the meaning of the sentence. Choice (A) is therefore the best of the
available answers.
57
i*-
19.
19. C is required after every item in
These three items form a list of soybeans, cotton, and maize. A comma
the list, thus eliminating (B) and (D). Then, because there should not be a comma after the word and,
only (C) can work as the correct answer.
20. D
According to information presented in the figure, the percentage of cultivated land devoted to
soybeans has grown from under 5% to over 90% since 1996. This is an increase of more than 900%,
making (D) the correct answer.
21. B In the sentence as written, the pronoun /V is ambiguous because it could refer to a number of different
things. The pronoun they in (C) is also ambiguous. Choice (D) clarifies the pronoun, but it does so
incorrectly. Bioinformatics as a field will continue to grow, so the correct answer must be (B).
22. D Find the clearest statement. Choice (A) cannot work because records success is meaningless. Choice (B)
is ambiguous because the words successfully deny and discount does not have a clear meaning. Choice
(C) does not make sense in the given context. Only (D) correctly clarifies the syntax of this sentence
and puts ideas in their proper relation to one another.
Passage III
23. A
If you cannot cite a reason to use a comma, don’t use one. There is no good reason to use a comma in
the underlined portion, so the best answer is the one with no commas, (A).
24. C
The word foundations should go near the word built to complete the phrase built on shaky foundations.
The modifier on shaky foundations does not make clear sense in any other part of the sentence.
25. C The pronoun in the underlined portion refers back to a European, which is singular. The best answer is
therefore (C), which contains a singular pronoun referring to this European.
26. D The word these in the underlined portion is ambiguous, so (A) can be eliminated. Choices (B) and (C)
do not fix the problem. Only (D) is adequately specific and is therefore the correct answer.
27. B In the sentence as written, the words even so appear awkwardly in the middle of the sentence. Choice
(A) can be eliminated. Choice (C) is a sentence fragment, and (D) inserts the ambiguous pronoun
them. Only (B) contains a relatively clear meaning in which all words have a clear place.
28. D
This portion of the sentence could be rewritten to say the need of that place, or that place’s need. Choices
(A) and (B) do not indication this possession, so they can be eliminated. Choice (C) uses the plural
places, which cannot work with the word that. Only (D) can work in the given context.
29. A The first idea in this sentence (Anthropology has shown us how to live, and like the best anthropolo¬
gists) is incomplete, so it cannot end with a period. Instead, the words like the best anthropologists
serve as an introductory idea, which should be separated from the remainder of the sentence. Only (A)
can work in the given context.

30. B-V
An earlier part of this sentence as not insisting on its own superiority but. . . suggesting that the subse¬
quent idea will need to be in contrast. Choice (A) gives no such contrast, nor does (D). Choice (C) can
also be eliminated because the controversial beginnings are only a minor detail. Only (B) works in
contrast with the first part of the sentence and agrees with the main idea.
31. A
In order to clarify what will contrast with the idea that other cultures were not “less” anything, check
the following sentence: A single standard of judgment was inappropriate for such a widely varying
field of cultures. There should therefore be a word that signifies that other cultures are widely varying.
Choice (A) would work in this context, and while (B), (C), and (D) might sound fine, there is no good
reason to place them here in the passage.
32. C Paragraphs 2 and 3 discuss the nineteenth century, and Paragraph 6 shifts to discuss the twentieth
century. Therefore, chronologically, Paragraph 6 should be placed after Paragraph 3, as (C) suggests.
33. C
The sentence in question describes one of anthropology’s influences in the present day. Paragraph 4
discusses how literary critics and public-policymakers use anthropology, so a discussion of economists
use it would be appropriate here as well. Point C within Paragraph 4 is the best of the available options.
Passage IV
34. B The items in this sentence appear in a list, so it is essential to keep them parallel. Choices (A), (C), and
(D) add unnecessary words, but (B) keeps the items in the list parallel.
35. D As written, the sentence compares the countrified lifestyle of Vineland with Philadelphia. A lifestyle
cannot be compared with a city, so (A) gives a faulty comparison. Of the remaining choices, only (D)
fixes the comparison.
36. D Sentence 2 begins with That man, so the sentence that precedes it should mention a man. Sentence 4
provides the referent with a recent graduate, so Sentence 2 should be placed after Sentence 4, as (D)
suggests.
37. A
The unit the Jewish Agricultural School in Woodbine, NJ must be kept intact, so Goldhaft’s age cannot
be inserted anywhere there, thus eliminating (C) and (D). Choice (B) creates an awkward phrase, He
when he was 15, so the underlined portion can only be placed appropriately at the beginning of the
sentence, as (A) suggests.
38. C The choices all contain words with similar meanings, but the sentence refers to some hypothetical
future action. The best word in the context is therefore vowed, as in (C). Choice (D) holds the appro¬
priate meaning, but the word swore does not work idiomatically with the word to.
Writing and Language Answers and Explanations | 59

I
39. D The sentence before the underlined portion refers to Herbert Hoover’s promise of a chicken in every
pot.” The sentence after the underlined portion says that Goldhaft came to the rescue. The inter¬
vening sentence should therefore discuss some complication to Hoover’s promise, which Goldhaft will
then resolve. Choice (D) provides that complication, suggesting that “a chicken in every pot’ would
not be possible as long as chickens were dying uncontrollably.
40. B The antecedent for the underlined pronoun is everyone, which is singular. Choices (A) and (D) refer to
plural nouns, and (C) changes the meaning. Only choice (B), his, can work in the given context.
41. C According to the graph, chicken consumption has increased steadily since about 1935. Choices (B) and
(D) are therefore untrue, and (A) describes a meat other than chicken. Only (C) accurately reflects the
information in the graph.
42. A The final paragraph describes the significance of Goldhaft’s achievement. Choice (B) is hilarious but
does not introduce this topic. Choices (C) and (D) do not address Goldhaft’s achievements at all.
Only (A) effectively introduces the topic of this paragraph.
43. B This sentence discusses influential events , which must occur in places, rather than one particular place.
Choices (A) and (D) are singular, so they can be eliminated. Choice (C) could work, but (B) is more
concise, so (B) is the correct answer.
Choice (B) makes the same mistake. Choice (D) does not work in the given context, so only (C)
remains as the correct answer.
4
Passage I
1. C Since all the answers communicate essentially the same thing, choose the shortest that fits with the
tone. In this case, that is (C ),fiction, as all the others are unnecessarily informal.
2. B This sentence is in the second person, about your responsibility as an author, so the pronoun in the
underlined portion must match. The only choice that does so is (B). Choice (C) gives the contraction
you are , and (D) changes to the third person.
3. D The author’s name is essential to the completeness of the sentence. In order to see this clearly, take
out the words Karl Ove Knausgdrd. You’re left with Contemporary Norwegian writer has built a literary
phenomenon out of exactly these questions. The sentence requires the words, so they should not be set off
with commas. Choice (D) is the only one without commas, and is therefore correct.
4. A The first paragraph discusses the blurring of fact and fiction and how “fictional’’ real events and
personages can be. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are all true, but they do not address this topic at all.
Only (A) does, making it the correct answer.
5. A If something is considered appropriate, then appropriate describes something. If something is considered

appropriately, then appropriately describes considered. In these case, the word appropriate describes how
revealing the books are. Choice (A) is therefore correct.
6. C The underlined word describes the noun statement, so it must be an adjective, eliminating (A) and (D).
Then, the word definitional is not frequently used and means “relating to a definition,” where the word
definitive means “done decisively and with authority,” which is the more appropriate meaning here.
7. D When combining sentences, make things as concise as possible. There’s no reason to combine sentences
if you’re not shortening them! Choice (D) is the best answer here because it does not repeat the words
similarities and differences unnecessarily.
8. D The phrase with its title should act in parallel with the phrase with its contents. The best place for the
underlined portion is therefore after the word so, (D), as to complete the comparison to anger and
offend many people with its contents should also do so with its title.

61
9. A
The latter part of the sentence goes on to discuss Hitler, so the earlier part of the sentence can not only
talk about Proust. In other words, the phrase under consideration should be kept because it clarifies
what is being discussed at the end of this particular sentence, as (A) suggests.
10. B
People requires who or whom, which eliminates (A) immediately. The word on is necessary here with
the verb based, which also eliminates (D). Then, (B) must be correct because whom is the object of the
preposition on. In less grammar-jargon-ish terms, you’d say on them rather than on they, so use whom
when you’d use them.
11. B The first paragraph is all about the blurring between fact and fiction. Choices (A), (C), and (D) present
some interesting questions, but the only one that deals with the subject matter of the first paragraph is
(B).
Passage II
12. D The first idea of the sentence (.Production design (PD) has been an essential component of film ever since
Hollywood came into existence) and the second (cite the names ofmostPDs or Art Directors, and you’ll get
a blank stare) are both complete. Therefore, a comma is required before the coordinating conjunction
but , as in (D). Choice (B) has too many commas, and (C) creates a comma splice.
13. C
The word in the underlined portion, Still, when used in this way, is an opposite-direction transition.
Therefore, other opposite-direction transitions would be acceptable, as in (A), (B), and (D). The only
one that would NOT be acceptable is Moreover, (C), because that is a same-direction transition.
14. C This verb should be parallel with the verb in the previous sentence, are tipping. The only combination
that works among the answer choices comes in (C). The others might be correct in other contexts, but
in this case, those verbs are not parallel with the surrounding verbs in this paragraph.
15. D The underlined portion appears at the end of a list of costume designer, make-up stylists, special-effects
director, and locations manager. The final comma should go before the word and, as in (D).
16. D
When the option to DELETE appears, give it special consideration. There must be a VERY good
reason not to pick it. In this case, there is no such reason because the information presented in the
underlined portion is implied earlier in the sentence. The best answer is therefore (D).
17. A When the answer choices seem to say the same thing, find the shortest. In this case, the shortest is
(A), which contains all the information that the others do in the fewest amount of words. The relative
pronoun that is not necessary because of the word both that appears earlier in the sentence.

18. B All the answer choices give true statements based on the graph, but this passage is about Production
Designers, so only (B) can work in this passage.
19. C When the option to DELETE appears, give it special consideration. There must be a VERY good
reason not to pick it. In this case, there is such a reason: the sentence is not adequately specific without
the underlined portion. Without the underlined portion, it sounds like the PD is directing the film
itself, when in fact he directs those working on the visual aspects of the film, thus making (C) the best
of the available answers.
20. B
This pronoun refers back to A production designer in the previous sentence. The pronoun should there¬
fore be singular, eliminating (A). Choice (D) can also be eliminated because it is too impersonal for
such a specific subject. Only (B) can work in the context.
21. A The sentence as written contains the words that vision , so the first part of the sentence should given an
indication of what that vision is, as only (A) does. In addition, (A) suggests that many people overesti¬
mate the role of the director and downplay that of the PD.
22. B If the phrase were removed, the sentence would essentially state that no films are ever made because
doing so is impossible. Therefore, keep the sentence as is, and for the reason stated in (B).
Passage
23. D It is unclear whether the word them refers to Vancouver, Toronto, Montreal, or some combination
of those cities. The only choice that clarifies this ambiguity is (D), which states the exact city being
discussed.
24. C
If you cannot cite a reason to use a comma, don't use one. In this case, no commas are necessary, so
the best answer must be (C).
23. C While the information given in this sentence is true and interesting, it does not have a place in this
passage, which is about the Kwakwaka’wakw. The best answer is therefore (C), because the sentence
should not be added.
26. A
This paragraph is about the “history” of the Kwakwaka’wakw before written history. It outlines some
of the basic myths of the tribe. Choices (B), (C), and (D) do not address this mythology at all, but (A)
does, with its mention of oral history.
27. B The subject of the sentence is Much, which requires a singular verb, thus eliminating (A) and (C).
Then, because the earlier part of this sentence and the next sentence’s discussion of Boas are in the
present tense, this verb should be as well. The best answer is therefore (B).
Writing and Language Answers and Explanations | 63

28. D When the option to DELETE appears, give it special consideration. There must be a VERY good
reason not to pick it. In this case, there is no such reason because none of the answers add anything
that is not already implied in the words most-heavily studied. The best option is therefore to DELETE
the underlined portion, as (D) suggests.
29. D The meaning of the underlined portion is not clear. Choice (D) is the idiomatic pairing that works
best in this sentence, which refers to the potlatch (one aspect of Kwakwaka’wakw culture) and the
Kwakwaka ’ivakw in general.
30. A This sentence is discussing a historical event, so it should be in the past tense. Only (A) and (D) are
in the past tense, and (D) suggests that the bans were discontinued, when information in the passage
makes it clear that they continue to this day. The best answer is therefore (A).
31. A The sentence is correct as written. Choice (B) suggests that the remaining Kwakwaka’wakw remain
true to their traditions because of their small population, which doesn’t make sense. Choice (C)
cannot work because it would need to follow on the one hand. Choice (D) cannot work because it
implies a sequence where none is present. Only (A) works in the context by suggesting that despite the
small population, that population continues to defend its traditions fiercely.
32. B The line down the center of the graph gives the population growth among aboriginals in Canada as
a whole, which was approximately 20.1%. The highest growth in a single province is that of Nova
Scotia at 42%. While the second part of (C) is true, this graph shows population increases, so it
cannot be said that the aboriginal population in Canada has declined 20.1%.
33. B The referent for this pronoun is the word Canada, which is singular. The pronoun must therefore be
singular as well, eliminating (C). Then, (A) and (D) because these are contractions, not possessive
pronouns. Only (B) can work in the context.
Passage IV
34. B Although the answers are technically grammatically correct, so choose the one that is clearest. Choice
(B) is the most concise and puts all the terms in the sentence in the clearest relation to one another.
Choices (C) and (D) each add some unnecessary word or piece of information.
35. A All the choices give essentially the same information. Choice (A) would seem to be the least specific,
but in fact it contains all the information that the others do. Therefore, since it is the most concise, (A)
is the best answer.
36. D As written, this sentence contains a comma splice — that is, two complete sentences separated by a
comma. Choice (B) does not fix the problem. Choice (C) removes the obvious contrast between the
two ideas. The best answer is therefore (D), which correctly subordinates the first idea in the sentence
and shows that it contrasts with the second idea.

The ideas before and after the punctuation are both complete. Therefore, a comma is insufficient
punctuation. Choice (B) is worse, and (D) adds an unnecessary comma. Only (C) separates the ideas
appropriately with a period.
To this point, this paragraph is most concerned with Rillieux’s education. Choices (B), (C), and (D)
are all true, but only (A) maintains the focus of the paragraph.
Note the modifier at the beginning of this sentence: While studying at the Ecole Centrale. This is clearly
talking about Rillieux, so his name must follow the modifier. Only (D) fixes this error. Choice (B)
suggests that his concentration was studying at the Ecole Centrale, and (C) suggests that his background
was doing so.
The paragraph goes on to describe how Rillieux’s new sugar refining machine addressed the wasteful¬
ness and inefficiency of traditional sugar refining methods. Choice (C) is therefore best in keeping
with the tone of the paragraph. Choices (A) and (B) are not adequately specific, and (D) is hilarious
but is, alas, not in keeping with the tone of the paragraph.
Choices (A) and (B) are too informal for the context, and (D), even if you’re not sure what it means, is
far too technical. Bituminous typically refers to a kind of soft coal, so it actually doesn’t have anything
to do with what’s being described here. Only (C) can work, as it actually gives a specific descriptor of
what is happening in this process.
The idea before the punctuation (The new machine addressed both major issues with the old method of
sugar refining) is complete, but the idea after it (all the while making the process significantly safer for
those men, mainly slaves, who worked the machines) is not. Therefore, the punctuation in (A) and (B)
cannot be used. There should be some pause here, however, which eliminates (C). Only (D) remains
as the correct answer.
This sentence discusses the heat belonging to the system. Therefore, it should refer to the system’s heat,
as in (B). Choice (A) does not make sense, and (D) eliminates the possession required in the sentence.
Choice (C) refers to multiple systems, where the sentence only indicates one.
There should be some mention of previously unheard-of yields. Only (A) gives any such mention in
suggesting that the machines could yield up to 18,000 pounds of sugar a day. Choices (B), (C), and (D)
may be grammatically correct, but they do not make sense in this particular context.
65
Part III
Math
What Can You Expect to See on the Math Test?
5 Heart of Algebra Drills
6 Heart of Algebra Answers and Explanations
7 Problem Solving and Data Analysis
8 Problem Solving and Data Analysis Answers and
Explanations
9 Passport to Advanced Math
10 Passport to Advanced Math Answers and
Explanations
11 Additional Topics
12 Additional Topics Answers and Explanations
WHAT CAN YOU EXPECT TO SEE ON THE MATH
TEST?
Some of the changes to the redesigned SAT are more obvious than others, espe¬
cially if you’ve taken the previous version of the SAT, so here’s a brief description
of the differences to anticipate. To begin, there are now only two math sections
(as opposed to three). This means that, in one section, you’ll have to solve 37 ques¬
tions in 55 minutes, so you’ll want to practice working at this pace without inter¬
ruption. In addition, as the second Math section must be completed without the
use of a calculator, we have indicated questions in the upcoming drills that you
should practice with nothing more than pencil and paper. To top off, there will
now only be FOUR answer choices for multiple-choice problems as opposed to
the traditional five choices!
The questions themselves have also gotten harder, both in subject matter — for
example, trigonometry is now tested — and in presentation, where a single set of
data might stretch across several problems, or where an extended-response grid-in
question might have multiple parts. Because of these new aspects, mastering core
concepts and understanding the theories behind fundamental mathematical prin¬
ciples - such as equation construction - will be critical. This book, then, will help
to literally put your knowledge to the test. If practice makes perfect, then these
questions, which have been expertly constructed to represent what you will see on
the redesigned SAT, are the perfect practice.
Note that this book is not meant to serve as a library of test-taking techniques or
content review — you can check out our upcoming Cracking the New SAT for that.
However, we have included a few of our most successful strategies for tackling
these new multiple-choice problems.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE STRATEGIES FOR THE

MATH TEST
Plugging In
One of the most powerful techniques for the Math sections of the Redesigned
SAT is what The Princeton Review calls Plugging In. This technique is great for
turning complicated (or complicated-looking) problems into more straightfor¬
ward questions.
Plugging In with Variables

You can Plug In on RSAT questions that use variables. To Plug In on these ques¬
tions, you assign numerical values to the variables and solve the problem. The nu¬
merical answer to the question is the target. Then you Plug In the assigned value

to the variables in the answer choices and eliminate each response that does not
equal the target. If you have only one answer choice remaining, that’s the correct
response. If you have more than one answer remaining, change the numbers and
Plug In again until only one choice remains. Given that the SAT is now four an¬
swer choices instead of five, this strategy takes even less time to apply and execute.
Let’s see an example:
6. Xerxes is x years old and 4 years older than Zara. How old was Zara
7 years ago?
A) x- 3
B) x-4
C) x-1
D) x-n
To Plug In on this problem, assign a value for the variable, x. Choose a value that
will make the math straightforward. A good rule of thumb to remember when
plugging in is to avoid using numbers that are also in the problem (either the ques¬
tion or answer choices), as well as the numbers 0 and 1. Make x = 20 by crossing
off x in the problem and writing “20” in its place.
Now the problem looks like this:
6. Xerxes is 20 years old and 4 years older than Zara. How old was Zara
7 years ago?
This is now a comparatively straightforward arithmetic problem. If Xerxes is 20

and 4 years older than Zara, then Zara must be 16 years old. If Zara is 16 now,
then 7 years ago she was 9. The answer to the question is 9, so this is the target.
Circle your target value of 9.
Now, take your value for the variable, x = 20, and replace x with 20 in each an¬
swer choice. Eliminate any answer choice that doesn’t equal your target, 9. Always
check each answer choice with variables; sometimes you may pick a value for your
variable that makes more than one choice work:
A) 20 - 3 = 17: eliminate
B) 20 - 4 = 16: eliminate
C) 20 - 7 = 13: eliminate
D) 20 - 1 1 = 9: keep
Because you’re left with only one choice, you know that (D) must be the answer.
You can Plug In even if there’s more than one variable in the problem. When there
are multiple variables, you need to check for relationships between the variables,
because that will affect how you Plug In.
A)
For example:
B) C)
15. Three times x is two more than half of y. What is the value of >’?
D6x
) + 4
3x-2
4
6x - 2
6x-4
Here, the two variables are in a relationship with each other. In other words, the
value of one variable will change depending on what the other variable is, so Plug
In for one variable and then solve. Make x = 4 in order to avoid any numbers
already in the problem. Working the problem, “Three times x” becomes “Three
times 4,” or 12. Because 12 “is two more than half of y,” then “half of y” must be
10. If half of y is 10, then y must be twice 10, or 20. The question is asking for the
value of y, so 20 is your target; circle it.
Next, make x = 4 in each answer choice and eliminate those that do not equal 20:
A) 6(4) + 4 = 28: eliminate
B) - — — = 2.5: eliminate
4
C) 6(4) - 2 = 22: eliminate
D) 6(4) - 4 = 20: keep
Choice (D) is the only choice which remains, so it must be your answer.
Hidden Plug Ins

The previous problem showed how you can Plug In with variables when the vari¬
ables are in relationships with each other. You can also Plug In when there’s a
relationship even if there are no variables in the problem.
Let’s see how this works:
33. The number of bacteria in petri dish A doubles every 10 minutes. The number of
bacteria in petri dish B doubles every 6 minutes. If both petri dishes begin with
the same number of bacteria, how many times greater will the number of bacteria
in petri dish B be than the number of bacteria in petri dish A after one hour?
(1 hour = 60 minutes)
This question is about the relative numbers of bacteria in each petri dish. This
problem would be much easier if you knew the number of bacteria in each dish, so
Plug In a number. Let’s make the starting number of bacteria in each dish 4 (once
again avoiding numbers in the problem).

Petri dish A doubles the number of bacteria every 10 minutes. Therefore, if it starts
with 4 bacteria, there would be 8 bacteria after 10 minutes, 16 after 20 minutes,
32 after 30 minutes, 64 after 40 minutes, 128 after 50 minutes, and 256 bacteria
after 60 minutes or 1 hour.
Petri dish B doubles the number of bacteria every 6 minutes. If it starts with 4
bacteria, there would be 8 bacteria after 6 minutes, 16 after 12 minutes, 32 after
18 minutes, 64 after 24 minutes, 128 after 30 minutes, 256 after 36 minutes, 512
after 42 minutes, 1024 after 48 minutes, 2048 after 54 minutes, and 4096 bacte¬
ria after 60 minutes or 1 hour.
Finally, to find how many times greater petri dish B is than petri dish A, you can
divide B by A: 4096 -s- 256 = 16, which is your answer.
Any time you have a relationship but no numbers provided, you can Plug In for
the unknown values and work the problem using real numbers. Look for opportu¬
nities to do so, especially on questions involving percentages, ratios, or geometry.
Plugging In the Answers (PITA)

When the answer choices provided are values (not variables) and the question is
asking something like “How much...,” “How many...,” or “What is the value
of...,” you can Plug In the Answers (PITA). You know that the answer to the
question must be one of the four given responses. In many cases, it’s easier to test
the answer choices rather than work the question “the right way.”
Let’s look at an example:
-7
(x + 6)
28. IfA) -5
x + 5 , then x =
B)
C)
D)
0
7
This question wants the value of x, so you can Plug In the Answers. Label the an¬
swers with what the question is asking; in this case, the answers are x. Next, try
an answer in the problem. Start with a middle value; on many questions, if the
answer doesn’t work, you’ll know whether you need a lesser or greater value. Start
with choice (B); make x = -5:
(-5 + 6)2 _ 1
-5 + 5 _ -5 + 5
ar = i
0 0
Well, this is interesting. You cannot divide by 0, so the answer cannot be (B);
eliminate it. (If you see this before you Plug In, don’t bother trying the answer:
just eliminate it!) Furthermore, this doesn’t help you decide whether you need a
lesser or greater value for x, so try the other middle answer, (C):
(0 + 6)2 _ 1
0 + 5 ~ 0 + 5
36 _l
5 ~ 5
This isn’t true; eliminate (C). You need to make the left numerator less, so you
need a lesser value for x: choose (A). If you aren’t sure which direction to go, keep
Plugging In!

Chapter 5
Heart of Algebra
Drills
*fc
••V*' V
i
Heart of Algebra Drill 1
For each question in this section, solve the problem and circle the letter of the answer that you think is the best of the
choices given.
1. Each student at a high school throws away two

pounds of garbage a day. If there are s students at the 3. If# = — 3— ,then<? =
school and the non-students at the school throw away
A) 2
a total of 350 pounds of garbage a day, which of the
B) 3
following expressions represents how many pounds of
C) 5
A)
garbage are thrown away at the school each day?
D) 6
B)
20+ 175)
C)
20 + 350)
D)
350(5 + 2)
3505
4. What is the value of z if 2 (z + 3) = 6?
A) -6
2. IfA)2x- 2 = -1, then x = B) 0-3
D)
B)
1 C) -2
C) -
-1.53
0.5
D)

2x + 1 4
: ~ , then x -
A) 3 3 7. B) 3= 0,thenz+
If“^~ 1
B)If-
1
C)
1.33 1
D)
1.5 A) -1
3
C) 0
D) 2
A) 2
x + 2
6. If -3 = 2,thenx = B) 2
8. If 4(k + 1) = k + 10, then 3k =
A) 2 3
B) 4
C) 6
5
D) 8
C) 2
D) 6
Heart of Algebra Drills

— ?
3a + 2 1
9. If = 11, then what is the value of
A)
41
B) 4
C) 8
D) 11
a '
A)
10. What is the value of p if — — — 1 = 0?
1
B)
5
9
C)
5
D) 4
9
5

choices given.
1. If 3w < 27, then which of the following describes all 3.

If x > 6(x - 5), then which of the following must be
possible values of w ? true?
A) w > 9
B) w > 7 A) x> 6
C) w < 8 B) x > 5
D) w < 9 C) x < 6
D) x < -6
2. If 6t + 2 < 26, then which of the following is a pos¬ 4. If -13 < -2z - 3 < 1 , then which of the following
sible
A) value for t ? describes all possible values of z ?
B) 3.5
C) 4 A) -5 < z < 2
D) 4.5 B) -2<z<5
5 C) 2<z<5
D) -5<z<-2
Heart of Algebra Drills 77

5. If Is - 14 < 4 + 6s, which of the following must be
A)
true? - 1 , which of the following inequalities
B)
s > 17 C)
C) must be true?
D) ss 18 1
5 < 19
4
5< 18
1
A) d< 2
4 4
B) d <-
1 j 1
2 2
D) — <d<-
6. If 8 < -16 - 3c, which of the following describes all

A)
possible values of cl
B)
c > 8
C)
D) c > 9
c < -9
c < -8
8. For all z such that z > 0, the square of one-half z is

greater than 1 but less than 4. Which of the following
inequalities gives all possible values of z ?
A) 2 < z < 4
B) yfl < Z < yfS
C) 1 < z < 16
D) 2 < z < 32

9. When selecting a scarf pattern to knit, Victoria will
only choose a pattern that requires at least 480 rows
and no more than 520 rows. If r represents a number
of rows that she will not knit, an inequality that
represents all possible values of r is
A) I r- 20 I >20
B) I r - 500 I > 20
C) I r- 500 I <20
D) I r + 100 I > 20
79
choices given.
1. Andy runs and eats breakfast every morning before 3.

Sam saved his money until he had $10,000 to
work. When he runs, he burns 160 calories per mile invest. He invested x dollars into a certificate of
for the first 3 miles. When he runs more than 3 miles,
deposit (CD) with an annual interest rate of 2.0%,
he bums 98 calories per additional mile. On Tuesday and the remaining y dollars into a mutual fund with
morning, Andy runs an additional x miles over 3 an annual interest rate of 1 .5%. If his total interest
miles and then consumes y calories for breakfast. earned from both accounts after one year was $193
Which of the following functions, /, models the net dollars, which of the following is the value of y?
number of calories Andy has lost after running and
eating breakfast on Tuesday morning? A) $9,807
B) $8,600
A) fix, y) = 98* - y
C) $1,400
B) f(x, y) = 160* + 98x - y
D) $350
C) f(x, y) = 480 + 98x + y
D) f(x,y) = 480 + 98x - y
4. Hap is driving on the highway when his gasoline

tank begins to leak. When he has one gallon left in
2. Sheila walks dogs on the weekend for extra income. his tank, he finds a gas station to pump more gas into
For every dog she walks, she charges a flat rate of the tank. As he pumps, he loses one-fourth of a gal¬
$20.00 for the first hour. For every additional minute lon every ten minutes. If he pumps g gallons of gas
of walking a dog, she charges an additional fee. If over a period of m minutes, which of the following
Sheila is asked to walk a dog an additional a minutes models the total amount of gas, in ounces, he has in
after the first hour, and she charges b dollars per his tank? (Note: 1 gallon = 128 ounces)
additional minute, which of the following functions,
A) f(g,m)= 128(g) + g + m(g)
d, models how much she will earn in terms of a and
bl
B) f(g,m)= 128+ 128(g) - 32^j
A) d(a, b) = 20 + a + b
10/
B) d(a, b) - 20 ab
C) d(a, b) = 20 + ab C) f(g,m)= 128 + 128(g) -128^
D) d(a,b) = 20 + 2(ab)

5. An airplane flies at a constant altitude of 40,000 feet
above sea level. As it starts to land, it descends at a
constant rate of x feet per minute. At what altitude is
the plane y minutes after it begins to descend?
A) f(x,y) = 40,000 -xy

B) f(x,y) = 40,000 - 60xy
C) fix, y) = 40 ,000 -x — y
D) f{x, y) = 40,000 - 60x - y
6. Sara has ajar filled with 135 coins, which consist

only of quarters and nickels. If Sara has a total of
$22.75 in the jar, which of the following is the num¬
ber of nickels Sara has in the jar?
A) 25
B) 55
C) 80
D) 130
81
choices given.
-4<x<2
A)
1 . If 1 < r < 4 and 0 < s < 5, then what is the range of -1 <y < 3
r + 5?
A) -4 < r + s < 1
B) 1 < r + 5 < 9 3. Given the inequalities shown above, if x and y are
C) 0 < r + s < 5
integers,
B) C) then which of the following expresses all
D) 0 < r + s < 10 x x
the possible values of — , where — is defined?
D) y y
X
-12<“<6
x 2
— 4x2
<- <~
3 y 3
-2<-<-
-3 < —X < 1
y
y 3
2. If - = x then what is the value of x?

4
3 x - 2
T
A) -2
C) 0
B)
3
1
D) 2
4. What is the value of x + 2 if 3+ _ jq ?

A) 1
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

5. If -7 < p < 8 and -3 < q < 9, which of the following
7. What is the value of x - 1 if = 9 ?
expresses all possible values of p - q ? 4
A) 2
A) -4 < p - q < -1
B) —10 < /? — <7 < — 1 B) 8
C) -10 <p - q < 11
D) -16 <p-q < 11 C) 12
D) 13
3(x + 2) x
4 — x
8. What are all possible values 6
of x if 2 — 1?
6. If — 1 , then which of the following expresses
all the possible values of x?

A) x.x-2
B) x: x = -2, 2
A) x: x = -1
B) x: x = 0 C) x:
D) x: All
x = real
1 numbers
C) x: x 1
D) x: No real numbers

This section contains two types of questions. For multiple-choice questions, solve each problem and circle the letter of the
answer that you think is the best of the choices given. For Student-Response questions, denoted by the grid-in icon, write
your answer in the blank space provided.
3. The sum of a and 10 is twice as large as b, where

both a and b are integers. If the sum of a and b is
If 3x + y = 11 and 2x + y = 7, then x = divisible by 4, which of the following CANNOT be
the value of bl
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 14
2. If x + y = 9, and 8(x + 3y) = 120, what is the value of

x-y?
A)
A) 0
B) 3
4. Chloe is purchasing different types of yam. She
C) 7 B) a skeins of alpaca yam for $3.49 each,
purchases
D) 9
and 5 skeins of silk yarn for $5.52 each, after taxes.
If Chloe purchased a total of 14 skeins of yam and
spent aC)total of $73.22, which of the following sets of
D)
equations is tme?
a + s = 14
$5 ,52a + $3 ,49s = $73.22
2 a + 12s = 14
($3.49 + $5.52)(a + 5) = $73.32
a + s = 14
$3 .49a + $5,525 = $73.22
as = 14
$3.49a + $5,525 = $73.22

5.
If Ae -/= 9 and -2e +/= 5, what is the value of e ?
* + 3y = -7
A) 7 2x-3y= 13
B) 8
7. Based on the system of equations above, what is the
C) 11 x
D) 14
value of —y ?
18
B) 13
C) -3 3
A)
D) 2
6. If lx + 12y = 10 and 3x - 2y = 5, what is value of

5x + 5y ?
_2
A) 5 7 4 „
B) 7.5
C) 10.5 — x+— y = 4
D) 15
21x = 8(3-y)
8. What is the solution set, if any, of the system of

equations shown above?
3'
9 2
A) (2,-)
B) (0,3)
C) No solutions
D) Infinitely many solutions
85
t*
choices given.
1. If 2s + lOr = 2(2 s - 5 r) = 42, then what is the value

3. If q = p - 3, and (4p + 4)/(2 q) =10, what is the value
of r ? of pi
A) 0
A) 1
B) 1
B) 2
C) 1.4 C) 3
D) 14 D) 4
A)
2. Line m contains the points (4, 16) and (0, 8). At 4. A yogaB)studio charges $8 dollars per student for its
what point will line m intersect with line n if the C) class and $16 dollars per student for its
morning
equation of line n is -8x +- 4y = 24 ? D) class. Three times as many students attended
evening
the evening class as attended the morning class. If
A) (0,0)
the yoga studio earned $2,520 on Friday, how many
B) (-4,0)
people attended the morning class?
C) These lines do not intersect
D) These lines intersect at infinite number of points 15
56
45
135

5. 2x-3y= 17
If x - y = 4 and 2x + 3y = 10, what is the value of
3* + 2y ? -2x + 4 y = -20
A) 4 7. Based on the system of equations above, which of
B) 6 the following is a possible solution?
C) 10
D) 14
A) (-4,-3)
B) (-3,4)
C) (3,4)
D) (4,-3)
4x- ly= 10
-4x+ ly = -10
6. Based on the system of equations above, which of

the following must be true?
A) There is no solution to this system of equations.

(120,) 20,-5)
(
D) There is an infinite number of solutions to this

system.
87
Jf/
choices given.
1. At 7:00 a. m., a sewage treatment tank contains 3. Bombast Cable Company charges a flat monthly rate
3,000,000 gallons of water. Starting at 7:00 a.m.,x of $22.95 for its basic cable package. For every addi¬
gallons per minute flow into the tank, and y gallons tional 10 channels added, a customer has an addi¬
per minute flow out of the tank. No water enters or tional monthly charge of $1 .25. Additional channels
leaves the tank otherwise. Which of the following can only be purchased in groups of 10. For example,
functions, /, models the number of gallons of water if a customer wants to add 12 channels, the customer
in the sewage treatment plant at 8:00 a.m.? (Note: 1 would actually be charged for 20 channels or two
hour = 60 minutes) groups of 10 channels. If a customer adds x channels
to the package then, in terms of x, what is the charge
A) fix, y) = 3,000,000 + 60xy after one year?
B) f(x, y) = 3 ,000,000 - 60(x + y)
C) f(x, y) = 3 ,000,000 + 60(x - y)
A) 22.95 + 1 .25
D) fix, y) = 3,000,000 + x - y
B) 12(22.95) + 12(1. 25) [—
C) 12(22.95) - 12(1.25)
12(1.25)
D) 22.95 + x_
10
2. When a solute is added to a solvent to create a solu¬

tion, the change in freezing point can be determined
by using the formula AT = Kfx m x i, where AT -
freezing point of pure solvent - freezing point of
solution, in degrees Celsius; Kf is the freezing point
depression constant for the solvent; m is the concen¬
tration of solute in molality, and i is the van ’t Hoff 4. Marguerite and Whitney are collecting canned goods
factor. Pure water has a freezing point of 0°C. Solute for their neighborhood ThanksGiving-a-Can can
NaCl (van ’t Hoff factor = 2) is added to the solvent drive. For each house they visit when collecting, they
water to create a 0.1 molal solution with a freezing
receive an average of 2 canned goods. If Whitney
point of -0.372°C. Which of the following equations, started with 4 cans from her own kitchen for the
if solved, would accurately determine the freezing
drive while Marguerite started with none, which of
point depression constant of water, given the pro¬ the following situations is correct at a given point
vided information?
during their can drive?
0- (0.372)
A> K<= A) When Marguerite has 4 cans, Whitney has
lyi
m 4 cans
B)
(0-0(2)
Kf~ 0- (-0.
B)
12 cans
When Marguerite has 8 cans, Whitney has
20 cans
372)
C) When Marguerite has 12 cans, Whitney has
C) Kf= [0- (-0.372)] (0.1) (2)
D) When Marguerite has 16 cans, Whitney has
24 cans
f 2-0.1
D) (0)^372)

5. Chad and Julia run a life-coaching business, Go Get
‘Em, that charges $150 per hour per client. They each
have a weekly schedule of 20 clients who have 1-hour
sessions each. Chad and Julia meet their students in an
office for which they each pay $500 in monthly rental
fees. If r represents the hourly rate that Go Get ‘Em

charges its clients, which of the following represents Go
Get ‘Em’s profit, P, in one month? (Note: 1 month = 4

weeks)
A) P = 80r - 500
B) P = 80r- 1,000
C) P = 1 60r - 500
D) P= 160r- 1.000

89
y
rt*
choices given.
3x-7y = 28? q has a slope that is undefine and an x-interce of 3.

d p
2 What is the distance between the origin and thet point
of intersect b t t l
. ion etween hese wo ines?
B) 43>/2
LinA)
e p has
a slope
of zero
D) 5 and a y-
intercep t of 4.
. c) 4V2 Line
1 Which of
the follo
wing lines is p
erpendicu
la r to
me of the slo of OA OB OC OD and OE

an pes , , , , 1
)
A)
C) 0-5
D) 1 sJr
B) -1

In
the
fig
ure
abo
ve,
w
lAi)nes d and e in the x=y-10
coordi plane above? 1
6
nate
line d: 5x + 2 y is defined by d(x) =J{~x- 1), what is the value of
B) line e\ + II d{ 6)?
6
15
v;
line d: x + 5y =
. C) line e\ ’= 10
3x - y = = 6
-3x + 4y B) 1
2x + 2y :
line d: A)
D) =2 C) -1
3
line e: D) 5
line d: 2x - 4y = = 18
line e: 3x + 6y :
The
grap
h of
yfx)
is s
hown
abov
e. I
f the
func
tion
d
.
Which
of the fo
llowing sy
stems of e 31
quatio _4
ns define A)
s
( ’
63
B)
4 5
Line mC)is defined by the equation y - ~^jx + ^ •

What is the point of intersection of line / and line m ?
D) 1
(0,9)
5
(O-7)
4

Li
ne
/ 91
pa
ss
es
J
-?
i
Chapter 6
Heart of Algebra
Answers and
Explanations
1
1
ANSWER KEY
.
Heart of Algebra Drill 1 Heart of Algebra Drill 3

1. A 1. 4
2. B 2. B
3. B
4. D C 4.
3. CB
5. C
6. B 5.
6. AB
7. C
8. D 8. CD
7.
9. B
10. D
C
Heart of Algebra Drill 2 2. C

1. D
2. A 3. D
4. B
3. C
4. B 6. D
5. D
5. B
6. D 7. D
7. D Heart of Algebra Drill 7

8. A
2. A
9. B
Heart of Algebra Drill 3 4.

3. B
1. D
2. C 3. D
3. C Heart of Algebra Drill 8

4. B 1. D
2. D
5. A
6. B
4. D
3. B
5. C
1. B
6. A
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. C
8. D

J)
HEART OF ALGEBRA ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1. A Plug in! Make s = 5. If there are 5 students at the school, the students will throw away
5x2 = 10 pounds of garbage. The non-students throw away 350 pounds, so in total there
will be 10 + 350 = 360 pounds of garbage. This is your target. Plug In s = 5 and eliminate
any choice which does not equal 360. The only choice which works is (A).
= 1
2x — 2 = — 1
+ 2 +2
2. B Start by combining like terms. Add 2 to both sides:
2x
2x 1
Then divide both sides by 2: — = ~^x = 0.5, which is (B).
3. B Start by getting rid of the fraction. Multiply both sides by 3, which will cancel with the
denominator of the fraction: (3)q = (3)^—3— , 3q = q + 6.
Next, combine like terms by subtracting q from both sides, which leaves you with 2 q - 6.
Finally, divide both sides by 2, and you find that q = 3, which is (B).
2(z+3) _ 6
4. D Rather than distributing the 2 on the left side of the equation, you can divide both sides by
2 (which will cancel the 2 on the left side) and save yourself a couple of steps: ^ ~ ^>
a + 3 = 3. Then subtract 3 from both sides, and you find that z - 0, which is (D).
5. C Start by multiplying both sides by 3 to cancel out the denominators. You are left with 2x +
1 = 4. Then subtract 1 from both sides, so you have 2x = 3. Finally, divide both sides by 2,
and you find that x = 1.5, which is (C).
x -f- 2
6. B Start by multiplying both sides by 3 to eliminate the denominator: (3) — ~ = 2(3)
x + 2 = 6. Next, subtract 2 from both sides: x = 4. This is (B).
z~^~ 1
7. C Multiply both sides by 3: (3)— j- = (3)0 ,2+1 = 0. Note that the question is asking for
the value of z + 1, so you’re done!
like terms by subtracting k from both sides: 3k + 4 = 10. Last, subtract 4 from both sides:
3k = 6, which is (D).
Heart of Algebra Answers and Explanations

95
3i±2 =(^11,3^2= ll*
9. B Multiply both sides by the denominator, a\ {a) a
3a + 2 = 11 a
Combine like terms by subtracting 3 a from both sides: -3 a -3a
l 2=8 a l
Divide both sides by 8, so a = ^ . However, the question asks for the value of a, so you need to take
the reciprocal of both sides and find that a - 4, which is (B).
10. D
M-, = o
This problem can be solved by starting with adding 1 to both sides:
4
+ 1 +1
5(l-D
= 1
4
Next, eliminate the denominator by multiplying both sides by 4:
(4)^T^ = (4)1. 5(/>- 1) = 4
Next, divide both sides by 5:
5{p - 1) _ 4 4
3 ~~ 5 ’ P~X = 5
Finally, add 1 to both sides:

4 9
/>—! + != y+ 1 , p = ^ That matches (D).
Drill 2
1. D To solve, divide both sides of the inequality by 3. This results in w < 9, (D).
2. A To solve, subtract 2 from both sides of the inequality to get 6t < 24. Then divide both sides of the
inequality by 6 to get t < 4. The only answer that is less than 4 is (A); the rest are too large for this
inequality to be true.
3. C To solve, distribute the 6 on the right side of the inequality to get x > 6x - 30. Then subtract 6x from
both sides to get -5x > -30. Divide both sides by -3, making sure to flip the inequality sign since you
are dividing by a negative number. This results in x < 6, (C).

4. B Solve one half of the inequality at a time. Start with — 13 < —2 z — 3. Add 3 to both sides of the
inequality to get -10 < -2 z. Divide both sides by -2, making sure to flip the inequality sign since you
are dividing by a negative number. This results in 5 > z.
Now solve -2z - 3 < 1. Add 3 to both sides of the inequality to get —2z < 4. Divide both sides by -2,
making sure to flip the inequality sign since you are dividing by a negative number. This results in
z > —2. Eliminate (A) and (C), leaving (B).
3. B Start by combining like terms. Add 14 to both sides of the inequality to get Is < 18 + 6s. Subtract 6s
from both sides to get s < 18. This makes (B) the correct answer.
6. D Add 16 to both sides of the inequality to get 24 < -3c. Divide both sides by -3, making sure to flip the
inequality sign since you are dividing with a negative number. This results in -8 > c. Since c has to be
less than —8, only (D) works as a correct answer choice.
2 Ad2 _ 2 ,2 1
7. D Multiply the left side to get ^ — . Simplify the fraction: Ad" < 1. Divide by 4. _ ^ . Now take
the square root of both sides, but be careful: Since d can be positive or negative, there will be two
solutions, and for the negative solution, you will need to flip the sign. The two solutions are d < —2 and
1
d> ~ — , so the correct answer is (D).
Translate the English into math: 1 < 9 < 4 . Square the fraction in the middle: 1 <lz ?< 4 . Multiply
all parts of the equation by 4: 4 < z2 < 16. Finally, take the square root of all three parts of the equa¬
tion: 2 < .z < 4. The correct answer is (A).
9. B Plug In! The question wants to know which inequality represents the number of rows Victoria will not
knit. Since the restrictions are 480 rows to 320 rows, select a number that is outside of that range and
eliminate any answer choices that are not true. For example, if r = 530:
A) 1530 - 20|> 20 - NOT true
B) |530 - 500|> 20 - True

C) |530 - 500|< 20 - NOT true
D) |530 + 100|> 20 -True
Eliminate (A) and (D). Next, try plugging in with a number that shouldn’t work. If we try r = 500,
the inequalities should not work since that is a number of rows Victoria would knit:
Answer B: |500 - 500|> 20 - NOT True
Answer D: |500 + 100 1> 20 — True

Since (B) didn’t work with r = 500 and did work with r = 530, this is the best answer choice.
Heart of Algebra Answers and Explanations

t 97
Drill 3
1. D Plug In! Andy runs on Tuesday morning, so plug in an arbitrary value for x, such as x = 2. That means
that Andy has run a total of 5 miles, after adding on the initial 3 miles. Therefore, Andy burns 160
calories per mile for the first 3 miles for a total of 480 calories, and he burns 98 calories per mile for
the additional 2 miles for a total of 196 calories. Thus, the total number of calories he burns is 480
calories + 196 calories = 676 calories.
However, don’t forget to read the full question as it asks for the net number of calories Andy has lost.
Similar to plugging in for the variable x, also plug in for y. If plugging in y - 100 calories, subtract
that number from the calories burned as Andy is gaining calories instead of burning calories. Thus,
676 - 100 = 576, which is the target number for the answer choices. Plugging inx=2 andy = 100, (A)
equals 96, (B) equals 416, and (C) equals 776. Thus, (D), which is equal to 576, is the correct answer.
2. C Plug In! Assign arbitrary values such as a = 5 for the additional minutes she walks a dog and b - 2
dollars for each of those additional minutes. Thus, for the 5 additional minutes, Sheila charges a total
of $10 (5 additional minutes x 2 dollars per minute). Since she charges $20.00 for the first hour, she
will then charge a total of $20 + $10 = $30, which is your target number. Thus, (C) is the correct
answer.
3. C While this problem seemingly needs equations to solve, plugging in the answers can be a more effec¬
tive approach. Because the question asks for the value of y, label the answer choices with a column
header of y and begin with either (B) or (C). If beginning with (B), Sam has invested $8,600 in
a mutual fund (y). The mutual fund earned an interest rate of 1.5%, so (0.015) x $8,600 = $129.
Because Sam invested $8,600 in the mutual fund, he invested $1,400 in the CD since $10,000 -
$8,600 = $1,400. The interest rate earned on the CD was 2.0%, so (0.02) x $1,400 = $28. Since Sam’s
total amount of interest earned was $193 and $129 + $28 = $157, (B) is not the correct answer. Since
we need a larger amount of total interest, the amount invested in the account with the lower interest
rate must be smaller. Therefore, plug in $1,400 in (C) for the amount invested in the mutual fund
O') and repeat the same steps as done for (B). With an interest rate of 1.5%, the $1,400 in (C) would
result in an interest amount of $21. Then, $8,600 would have been invested in a CD, and with a 2.0%
interest rate, the CD would have earned an interest amount of $172. Therefore, with the $21 from the
mutual fund and $172 from the CD, Sam would earn a total interest amount of $193 by investing
$1,400 in a mutual fund, making (C) the correct answer.
4. B Plug In, and choose numbers that will make the arithmetic as straightforward as possible. Since the
question states that Hap loses lA of a gallon every ten minutes, plug in g - 2 and m = 10. If he pumps 2
gallons of gas in 10 minutes, he is losing !4 a gallon of gas during that total time. Since 1 gallon - 128
ounces, Hap pumps in a total of 256 ounces of gas (2 gallons x 128 ounces), and he loses 32 ounces
(1/4 x 128 ounces). 256 ounces pumped - 32 ounces lost = 224 ounces. Now, don’t forget that Hap
still has 1 gallon of gas in his tank. Therefore, his total amount of gas in ounces is the 224 ounces he
retained while pumping, plus an additional 128 ounces for the gallon already in his tank. 224 + 128 =
352 ounces total, so 352 is your target number. Therefore, the correct choice is (B).

Jf
5. A
By plugging in x - 5 andy = 10, the plane descends 5 feet per minute over ten minutes, giving a total
descent of 50 feet. Since the plane’s previous altitude is 40,000 feet, its altitude after ten minutes is
40,000 feet — 50 feet, or 39,950 feet. Thus, the correct choice is (A).
6. B
We can effectively solve this problem by plugging in the answers. Label the answers as “# of nickels”
and start with (B). If Sara has 55 nickels in the jar and she has a total of 135 coins, then she must
have 80 quarters (# of quarters is the second column header) in the jar. Since 55($0.05) + 80($0.25) =
$22.75, (B) is the correct answer.
Drill 4
1. B When adding two inequalities, the inequalities can sometimes be stacked as follows:
1 < r <4
+0 < s < 5
1 < r + s < 9
Thus, (B) is correct.
2. A You want to start by getting rid of the fraction. To do so, you multiply both sides by the denominator
of the fraction. Therefore, begin by multiplying both sides by 4:
3x-2
(4)^——— = (4)*
4
3x — 2 = Ax
Next, you want to collect all the x terms on one side of the equation, so subtract 3x from both sides:
3x — 2 = Ax
—3x — 3x
—2 — x
The answer is (A).
Heart of Algebra Answers and Explanations | 99

3. D
If x and y are integers, the possible values for x are -3, -2, -1, 0, and 1, and the possible values of y
x
are 0, 1, and 2. However, you are looking for the range of values where y is defined. An expression
x
divided by 0 is undefined, so y can only equal 1 or 2. To find the range of y, rnake a chart testing the
-3 possible values of y:
extremes of x with the
-3 X
X y
y
-3
3
2
2
1 1 1
1
1 2
2
Therefore, the range of values is -3 < — < 1, (D).
4. D Start by getting rid of the fraction. Multiply both sides by the denominator, 3:
5(x + 2)
(3) = (3)10
5(x + 2) = 30
You could distribute the 5 to the terms in the parentheses, but if you divide both sides by 5, the equa¬
tion will be easier to deal with:
5(x + 2) _ 30
5 ~ 3
x + 2 = 6
This is your answer. Be careful! The question is NOT asking for the value of x, so you’re done!
3. D Be careful here. If you simply stack and subtract the two equations, you’ll get (A), which is incorrect.
A better approach is to subtract both the upper and lower limits of q from both the upper and lower
limits of p. This gives you four possibilities:
-7- (-3)= -4
-7 - 9 = -16
8 -(-3) = 11
8 - 9 = -1
The range of p-q will be defined by the smallest and largest of these four options, so -16 <p- q < 11,
which is (D).

Because the question is asking for the value of x, you can Plug In the Answers. Test (A) by making
x = -1:
4 -(-!) _
t
-2
-1-1
This is not true, so you can eliminate (A). You can also eliminate (C), because (C) would let x equal
anv number that isn’t 1 . Next, trv x = 0:

1^~1
*-~
0-1
1
i
This is also incorrect, so eliminate /Bj and choose (D).
You can also approach this problem algebraically. Start by multiplying both sides of the equation by
the denominator x— 1:
(x 1)———— (x 1)( 1)
x— 1
4— x= 1 -x
Add x to both sides, and you’re left with 4=1. This is obviously incorrect in all possible cases, which
means that no values of x solve the equation. Choose (D).
Start by eliminating the fraction. Multiply both sides by the denominator, 4:
(4)^T^
4 = (4)9
3(x- 1) = 36
You could distribute the 3 to the terms in the parentheses, but if you divide both sides by 3, the equa¬
tion will be easier to deal with:
3(x-l) 36
x- 3 ” 3
1 = 12
This is your answer, (C). Be careful! The question is NOT asking for the value of x, so you’re done!
Heart of Algebra Answers and Explanations 101

8. D
Test x = 2, as it shows up in three answer choices (2 is a real number, so it would
= 1
Plug In the Answers!
be included in (D)):
3(2 + 2) 2
6 2
3(4)
1= 1
6
2-1 = 1
1 = 1
This works, so 2 needs to be part of the answer; eliminate (C). Next, try -2:
3(-2 + 2) -2
6 2
3(0)
6 (-0 = 1
1 = 1
This also works; eliminate (A). Finally, try any other real number. Make x = 0:
3(0 + 2) 0
3(2)
_ i
6 2~
6
1 = 1
This also works; choose (D).
If you want to approach this question algebraically, start by getting rid of the fractions. If you multiply
both sides by 6, -the
6(1)fractions will clear:
3(x + 2) x
6 2
3(x + 2) - 3 x = 6
Next, distribute the 3 on the left side of the equation: 3x + 6 - 3x = 6

Finally, combine like terms: 6 = 6
The x terms cancelled each other out; therefore, any value of x will work in the equation.

,.y
Drill 5
1. 4
You want to isolate x. If you stack the equations and subtract, the y terms will cancel and you will be
left with x:
3x + y = 11
-[2 x+y = 7]
x =4
2. B
In order to solve this system of linear equations, one of the equations must be re-arranged so that it
can be plugged in to the other equation. Therefore, start with the first equation, solving for x results in
x = 9 — y. Now, plug this expression of x into the second equation and solve for y:
8(9 -y + 3y) = 120

Divide both sides by 8:
9 ~y + 3y = 15
Subtract 9 from both sides:
- y + 3y = 6
2y = 6
7=3
Thus, if7 = 3, then x = 6. Finally, since the question asks to solve for the expression x -y, we can plug
in the values for x and 7, respectively, to get 6 - 3 = 3. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
3. B First, start by translating the problem from English into Math. The first equation can be written as
a + 10 = 2b. We can use this information to now potentially eliminate some answer choices before
proceeding in the problem.
For (A), if b = 6, then a -2. The sum of a and b, or 8, IS divisible by 4, so eliminate this answer choice.
For (B), if b = 8, then a = 6. The sum of a and b, or 14, is NOT divisible by 4, so this is the correct
answer choice. For (C), if b - 10, then a = 10. The sum of a and b, or 20, IS divisible by 4, so (C) is
eliminated. For (D), if b = 14, then a = 18. The sum of a and b, or 32, IS divisible by 4, so (D) is also
eliminated.
4. C This is a great question to illustrate process of elimination (POE). Since the question states that a total
of 14 skeins of yarn are purchased, some of alpaca and some of s, then a + s = 14. Thus, eliminate (B)
and (D). The problem then states that each skein of alpaca was purchased for $3.49, and each skein of
silk was purchased for $5.52. This leaves (C) as this information is reflected in the second equation of
that answer choice. Choice (A) has the values corresponding to the incorrect type of yarn.
S*
N A to most ettcctivclv solve this problem, employ the St.icx .i.td-Sooe method by st.u x. ig me equ.;:to:rs
Once stacked, the equations can either he added or subtracted \\ e see that. bv sta. x.ng. tee vat table
can be eliminated it we add the two equations together as follows:
4*-/»9
+ -de +/= S
dr ~ = 14
Dh kling both sides ot the resulting equation dc h- g es as e - ~ Ihus, (A) is oonet l
O. B Again, stacking and adding these questions will result in the tbllow mg solution
7,v + 12y » 10
+ AV — 2y - 5
Hlv + lV=lS
Since the question asks tor the value ot Ac + m. di\ ide both, sides h\ ' to cot Ac - S
Ihus. vB'' is correct.
C
Start by isolating one ot the variables. It you ade. the two equations together. the • terms will cancel
and vou can solve tor v:
a* + 3jr =
+ [2x- 3> = 13 :
Ax =6
hoc- can do ice corn sices S h. and \ on hue that \ d Next, to deter u ie the \a tie ot >■. hst true
v = 2 in the hrst equation and solve:
A‘ J
v 3
It .v = d and ) = -3. then = — ~ =, (C).
7•» 4
v
— ,v+ — r = -t
dl.v = 8(3 - v)
8. D In rhe hrst equation, we have denominators of 2 and A so cancel the : «c tbn by multiplying every-
thing he the product ot'd and 3. which is o:
6(y*+ v r)=6(4)
21 a- + Sr = d-i
For the second equation, distribute the richt side:

dl.v = d4 — 8y
Add 8> to both sides, so that the two equations will be in the same torn*,
dl.v + 8y = d4
As you can see. the tw*o equations are identical. It two equations are* the same, there w ill be
an inh ere
number ot solutions, which is (DX
104
500* A act cc d jest ens v : *c \e,\ SAT
Y
-V
Drill 6
1. C To solve for r, separate the two equations:

2*+ 10r = 42 and 2(2/ — 5r) = 42. Distribute the second equation: As — 10 r = 42.
Now stack and add the equations:
2s + lOr = 42
+ 4/ — 1 Or = 42
6s =84
Divide both sides by 6 and solve: / = 14. Plug that value back into one of the equations for / and solve
for r. 2(14) + lOr = 42. Therefore, r = 1.4, and the correct answer is (C).
2. C In order to solve this problem, first put line n into slope-intercept form by adding 8.x to both sides and
then dividing both sides by 4. Ibis will result in y = 2x + 6. You now know that the slope of line n is 2
and the ^-intercept is 6. Since you also know thej'-intercept of line m as it is given in point (0, 8), you
know these are not the same lines. Eliminate (D).
To determine whether or not (C) will be the answer, find the slope of line m by using the slope
formula:
8-16
0-4 sloPc = 2
Since both lines m and n have a slope of positive 2, they are parallel and will never intersect. Thus, (C)
is correct.
3. D 'Ihe question tells you that q = p- 3, so substitute p - 3 for the variable q in the second equation:
(Ap + 4)/(2(p - 3)) = 10

Distribute the 2 in the denominator:
(Ap + A)l(2p -6) = 10

Multiply both sides by 2p - 6:
Ap + 4 = 20/> — 60
Combine like terms:
64 = \6p
Divide by 16 to get p = 4. 'The correct answer is (D).
4. B You can solve this problem either by plugging in the answers or by writing out equations and
substituting.
To solve by plugging in the answers, start by labeling your answers as the morning class, and begin
to work the problem with (B) or (C). If you use (B), then it is assumed there are 43 students in the
morning class. The question states that there are 3 times as many attendees of the evening class than
the morning class, so the evening class would have 135 attendees. The question says that the studio
charges $16 for the evening class, $8 for the morning class, and earned a total of $2,520 total. So we
need to multiply the 135 evening attendees by $16 and the 45 morning attendees by $8. This equals a
total of $2,520, so you can select (B) and stop.

5. D All you have to do here is stack and add the equations.
x - y = 4
+ 2x + 3y = 10
3x + 2y = 14
Since the question asks for 3x + 2y, the answer is (D).
6. D Stack and add the system of equations as follows:

Ax - \y - 10
+ —Ax + 1y =—10
Ox + Oy = 0
Since these equations cancel each other out, they are the same lines. Thus, this system of equations has
an infinite number of solutions, making (D) the correct answer.
7. D Stack and add these equations:

2x—3y= 17
+ -2x + Ay =—20
Since y = -3, -3
y= eliminate (B) and (C). Now plug in y = -3 to the other equation to solve for x.
2x- 3 (-3) = 17
2x + 9 = 17
2x = 8
x = 4
Thus, (D) is the correct answer.
Drill 7
1. C Plug In! Make x = 5 andy = 2. If 4 gallons per minute flow into the plant, then over an hour (60
minutes), there will be 5 x 60 = 300 gallons added to the plant. If 2 gallons per minute flow out of the
plant, then over an hour there will be 2 x 60 = 120 gallons removed from the plant. Therefore, after an
hour there will be 3,000,000 + 300 - 120 = 3,000,180 gallons in the plant. This is your target. Plug
x = 3 andy = 2 into each answer and eliminate any choice which doesn’t equal 3,000,180. The only
choice that works is (C).
2. A The freezing point depression constant is represented in the formula by Kf , so start by taking the
formula A T = Kfx m x i and solving it for Kf . Divide both sides by m x i and you’ll get £ _ ^
Now you can start filling in what you know about those variables. AT = freezing point of pure solvent
- freezing point of solution; here the freezing point of pure water is 0, and the freezing point of the
solution is -0.372, so AT = 0 - (-0.372). That should be in the numerator of your answer; that alone
gets you to choice (A). As for the rest of the variables, m is the molality of the solution, here given as
0.1, and i is the van ’t Hoff factor, here given as 2. Therefore, the denominator of your answer should
have (0.1)(2), which is also true only of (A).

Jj
3. B Plug in numbers to see which equation works. If the customer wants 37 channels to be added, he
would actually be billed for 40 channels, as per the company’s policy, so x = 40. Thus, the customer
has four additional monthly charges of $1.23, or a total additional monthly charge of $5.00. This
surcharge will be added to the monthly rate of $22.95. Finally, the question asks for the yearly cost, so
multiply the monthly charges by 12 for the yearly cost: 12($22.95) + 12($5.00) = $335.40, which is
your target answer. Therefore, (B) is the correct answer.
4. B
These scenarios can be re-written so that the numbers of cans that Marguerite and Whitney have,
respectively, can be represented as an ordered pair. Therefore, at the beginning of the can drive, when
they have yet to visit any homes, (0, 4) correctly illustrates that Marguerite has zero cans and Whitney
has four cans. In a graphical sense, this point would represent the y-intercept. Because they receive
an average of 2 cans per house, the equation y - 2x + 4 models the described scenario in the question.
Therefore, after plugging in all of the answer choices for which Marguerite’s number of cans represents
x and Whitney’s number of cans represents;/, (B) is the correct answer.
5. D
Because of the many nuances, it is best to solve this problem using bite-sized pieces. Let’s take Chad’s
weekly clientele. He will meet with 80 clients in one month if he has a weekly schedule of 20 clients.
To account for Julia’s clientele as well, multiply 80 by 2 to get 160. Therefore, (A) and (B) can be
eliminated as they have a coefficient of only 80 in front of the hourly rate r. Then, the total rent for the
month of $1,000 (“...each pay $500...”) must be deducted from the overall revenue, so (C) is elimi¬
nated. Thus, (D) is the correct answer.
Drill 8
1 D
In order to solve this problem, re-write the equation in slope-intercept form:
3
3x-7y = 28-y = (7)x-4
3
Therefore, the slope of this line is — . In order for a line to be perpendicular, it must have a slope that
is the negative reciprocal of the slope of the given line. For (A), the line is 3 x-7y = 28, so it is elimi¬
nated. Choice (B) has a positive slope, so it cannot be correct. Eliminate it as well.
Choice (C) has a slope that is the opposite sign of the equation in the problem, but it is not the recip-
7
rocal. Eliminate it. Choice (D) has a slope that is 3 which is the negative reciprocal of the original
line, making (D) the correct answer.
2. D
Draw both lines on an x, y-coordinate plane and solve. If line p has a slope of 0 and ay-intercept of 4,
then it is a horizontal line that lies ony = 4. If line q has a slope that is undefined and an x-intercept of
4, then it is a vertical line that lies on x = 3. These lines, therefore, intersect at point (3, 4).
Now draw a line from point (3, 4) to (0, 0) to form a right triangle with sides of 3 and 4. Therefore,
the length of the hypotenuse is 5, making (D) correct.
rv*
3. B This question is straightforward, but takes a bit of work, as to find the average, you 11 first have to find
the slope for each of the lines. Since you are given both end points of each line, the origin and the end
y2— y i ,
point written on the graph, apply each set of points to your slope formula, m = x _ x • Line OA s
slope = —4, line OB’s slope = 2, line OC’s slope = 1, line OD’s slope = —1, and line OEs slope = —3.
Now find the average of the slopes: ^ 4 + 1 + 2+ — 1+ 3) _ _ Thus, (B) is the correct answer.
4 D Two strategies could be used to solve this problem: Plug in values for x and y, or re-write the equations
in the answer choices in slope-intercept format and use process of elimination.
To plug in, use point (5,2) for line d and (0,3) for line e to find the following:
A) line d\ 5(5) + 2(2) = 10 — >■ NOT true

line e : 4(0) + (3) = 6 — » NOT true
B) line d: 5 + 5(2) = 15 — » True
line e: 3(0) - 3 = 6 — » NOT true (careful! Make sure to check all five answer choices)
C) line d: -3(5) + 4(2) = 10 — > NOT true
line e: 2(0) + 2(3) = 6 — > True (careful! Make sure to check all five answer choices)
D) line d: 2(5) - 4(2) = 2 — > True
line e: 3(0) + 6(3) = 18 — » True
Thus, the correct answer is (D).
1
5. C First, plug in 6 into the expression for f. d(6) - f[ ~ (6 ) — \)=f{2). Then find 2 on the x-axis in the
graph provided. Draw a line up until you hit the/(x) line. Draw another line horizontally to they-axis.
They value for/{2) is 3, so (C) is correct.

6. A Use the slope formula to find the equation of line /: m - —*2
2 1 , so wz = 9 — 0 9
4 y1— y
You already know they-intercept of line / from the point (0, ~~), so the equation of line / is
5 4
7 — - To find the point of intersection, put the non-y sides of the equations equal to each other
and solve:
5 4 4 5
— x - = - x + —
9 7 7 9
71 _ 71
63 63
x = l
Only choice (A) has an x value of 1, but if needed, you can then plug x = \ into the equation for either
line and solve fory.
Another way to find the point of intersection is to graph both lines on your calculator. You’ll be able to
see that the lines intersect right at x - 1, which eliminates all answers other than (A).
You can also use Process of Elimination to Ballpark a few answers away. The y-intercept of line / is
4 5
(0, - ), so (0, ~ ) won’t be on line /; eliminate choice (B). The y-intercept of line m is given by the b
5 4
term: (0, — ). (0, - ) will therefore not be on line m\ eliminate choice (D). Finally, use the given equa-
_
tion of line m and Plug In the Answers. Making x = 1 will be much easier than making x = so test
choice (A). When x = l,y ^ on line m, so choose (A).

Chapter 7
Problem Solving
and Data Analysis
Problem Solving and Data Analysis Drill 1 and circle the letter of the
This section contains two types of questions. For multiple-choice questions, solve each problem
the grid-in icon, write
answer that you think is the best of the choices given. For Student-Response questions, denoted by
Different Types of Light Bulbs

3. Target heart rates for various health benefits are
Cost Life Span calculated by taking different percents of a per¬
Type of Bulb son’s maximum heart rate, defined as the difference
Incandescent
Approximately between 220 and the person’s age. A heart rate in
$0.50
1 ,000 hours the aerobic zone is about 75% of the maximum
heart rate and a heart rate in the fat-burning zone is
Compact Florescent Approximately
$1.50 about 55% of the maximum heart rate. What is the
Lamp (CFL) 10,000 hours
difference between the fat-burning heart rate and the
Light Emitting Diode Approximately aerobic heart rate of a person who is 35 years old?
(LED) $10 25 ,000 hours
A) 37
1. The table above shows the cost of the life span of B) 44
several different types of light bulb. What is the ratio C) 51
ofA)the cost, in cents per hour of life span, of a com¬ D) 55
pact florescent lamp to that of a light emitting diode?
B)
C) 1 .5 to 5
D) 3 to 8
3 to 10
4 to 5
Original Thrift Store Prices
Cost of items Cost of items

Monday
Wednesday
purchased on purchased on
$1.50 $0.98
$2.99 $1.99
$2.99
$2.55
$3.49 $4.98
$3.99
2. A graphic designer creates an image for a t-shirt

that measures 8 inches tall and 10 inches wide. She 4. Anya shops at a thrift store only on sale days. On
Mondays, members with a savings card receive a
can use this image for small and medium t-shirts,
25% discount on all items. On select Wednesdays,
but she must increase the size for a large t-shirt.
members receive a 30% discount on all items. The
She wants her final image for the large t-shirts to
measure 9 inches tall and 1 1 .25 inches wide. At what chart above shows the original costs of the items
Anya bought one week that included the special
percent must she print out the image to obtain these
measurements? Wednesday discount. A tax of 6.25% of the total pur¬
chase is applied to the total after all discounts. What
A) 88.89% is the total amount Anya spent at the thrift store this
B) 107.5% week, including tax?
C) 112.5%
D) 125%
A) $17.41
B) $18.57
C) $19.49
D) $19.73
Density of Substances
Density
Substance
Aluminum /cm3)
(g1.71
Copper
9.0
Iron 7.87
Lead 11.4
Osmium ?
Silver 10.5
The densities of various substances are

© ©
listed in the table above. The ratio of the
© © © ©
© © ®
® ® 3
density of aluminum to the density of lead
4 © 5 ©
© © © 1 is 3 to x. The ratio of the density of osmium
© 6 © 6
® ® ® z
8 8 1
to the density of copper is x to 8 . What is
© © ®
the density of osmium in grams per cubic
centimeter?
Problem Solving and Data Analysis 113

r
Problem Solving and Data Analysis Drill 2
your answer in the blank space provided. C)
A)B)
The density of silver is 10.5 grams per cubic 3. D) of copper weighs 2,230 grams and measures
A block
(T) © cB Q centimeter. If a nugget of silver weighs
CD © ® 10 cm by 5 cm by 5 cm. Given that density is mass
© 1
CD 2
2,100 grams, what is the volume of the nug¬ divided by volume, what is the density of copper in
4 4
© © get, in cubic centimeters? grams per cubic centimeter?
6 © 6
CD
©
® © 0.11
9 © 9
8.92
44.6
89.2
2. One liter of water has a mass of 1000 grams. If there

are 1000 milliliters in a liter, and 1 milliliter is equal
to 1 cubic centimeter, what is the density of water, in
A)
grams per cubic centimeter? 4. One match releases approximately 1 ,100 joules of
B)
1 heat energy when it is lit. If 1 joule equals 0.239
C)
1.1 calories, how many of these matches must be lit to
D) produce 2,100 calories of heat energy?
10
11 A) 2
B) 3
C) 8
D) 62

A)
5. A certain 3D printer creates objects by building 7. A typical
B) race car is travelling at its maximum speed
layers on top of each other. The average layer thick¬ along a straight section of track. The distance it
ness is 102 jam (micrometers). There are 1,000,000 C)D)in 1 second is equal to the length of a football
covers
micrometers in a meter, and 1 inch equals 0.0254 field, which is 120 yards or 360 feet. Given that there
meters. Approximately how many layers are needed
are 5,280 feet in a mile, what is the race car’s maxi¬
to print an object one inch thick? mum speed, in miles per hour?
A) 250 27
B) 630 82
C) 2,540 245
D) 4,015 528
6. A certain 3D printer has a maximum build volume 8. DuringA) the typical Indy 500, the average pit stop is
of 230 mm x 170 mm x 200 mm. If 1 inch equals B) C) long and involves 6 crew members. Each
15 seconds
25.4 millimeters, which of the following is the best of the 33 cars that race makes an average of 5 stops
per race. If all cars finish the race, using full crews
approximation of the printer’s maximum build vol¬
ume in cubic inches? and making the expected number of pit stops, what
D) total number of active work hours put in by the
is the
A) 782 crews during pit stops?
B) 477
4.125
C) 308 41.25
D) 148
206.25
247.5
115
Problem Solving and Data Analysis
^ sr
9. Superman can run so fast that he can run on water as
well as land, and he never gets tired. His average run¬
ning speed is Mach 4, or 4 times the speed of sound.
For fun, he decides to run around the Earth’s equator, a
distance of 40,075 kilometers. If the speed of sound is
340.29 meters per second, and there are 1 ,000 meters in
a kilometer, approximately how many hours will it take
A
for) Superman to complete his run?
B) 1.5
C)
8
D)
29
118

Questions 1 through 5 refer to the following graph. 3. The scatterplot to the left shows the income, in thou¬
sands, of all the employees of Company X, based on
years of experience in the industry. Based on the line
Income Based on Years of Experience at Company X
of best fit to the data represented, which of the fol¬
lowing is the expected income of an employee with
35 years of experience?
A) $61,800
B) $65,000
C) $83,000
D) $96,000
0 5 10 15 20 25
Years of Experience
The scatterplot above shows the income, in

m thousands, of all the employees of Company
<T: 1 CO) i
2 CD 2 X, based on years of experience in the indus¬ 4. The scatterplot to the left shows the income, in thou¬
C34 3 cr> 3
2 (4) c?)
(5)
C5)
w
4 4
5
try. Based on the line of best fit to the data sands, of all the employees of Company X, based
6 6 6 6
C1)
3
represented, what is the minimum starting sal¬ on years of experience in the industry. Based on the
®
l1 ary, in thousands of dollars, at Company X? line of best fit to the data represented, which of the
following is the closest to the average increase in
income per additional year of experience?
A) $900
B) $1,800
C) $4,500
D) $9,000
2. The scatterplot above shows the income, in thousands,

of all the employees of Company X, based on years
of experience in the industry. Based on the line of
best fit to the data represented, which of the follow¬
ing is the closest to the expected number of years of
experience of an employee whose income is $30,000?
A) 5
B) 5.55
C) 37
D) 74

5. The scatterplot on the previous page shows the
income, in thousands, of all the employees of
Company X, based on years of experience in the
industry. Which of the following could be the equa¬
tion of the line of best fit to the data represented, as
shown on the graph?
A) y = 1 .8x + 20
B) y = 2x + 20,000
C) y = 10x + 25
D) y= l,800x + 20,000
6. A chemistry student is studying the effect of a

catalyst on a chemical reaction. She heats solid
potassium chlorate (KCIO,), which becomes potas¬
sium chloride (KC1) and oxygen (02). She runs the
reaction again, adding solid manganese dioxide
(Mn02) as a catalyst. She graphs the potential energy,
in kilojoules, as a function of time. Which of the fol¬
lowing statements is true of the graph above?
A) The potential energy of the reactants was less

than that of the products.
B) The potential energy of the reaction was lowest
during the transition state.
C) The addition of the catalyst lowered the potential
energy of the reaction during the transition state.
D) The addition of the catalyst had no effect on the
potential energy of the reaction.

Annalee
cL_n
2,
cCD
E
to
0
>
o
0
_c
M—
£
_3
Time (years)
7. Annalee and Bethany start investing at the same time

in accounts that will earn interest compounded annu¬
ally. Both women intend to leave their investments
in place until the total value reaches $250. After the
initial deposit (t - 0), Annalee and Bethany check and
record the value of their investments once every year.
The value of the two investments was graphed and fit¬
ted with a smooth curve, as shown above, where each
curve represents the value of one investment, in dollars,
as a function of time, in years. Which of the follow¬
ing is a true statement regarding the investment values
shown above?
A) For the first 15 years, Bethany’s investment is

growing at a higher average rate than Annalee’s
investment.
B) At t = 0, both investments are worth $100.
C) At t - 0, the value of Annalee’s investment is
200% that of Bethany’s investment.
D) At / = 0, Annalee has reached 10% of her goal and
Bethany has reached 20% of hers.
1. When the vapor pressure of water at various temper¬ Questions 2 through 4 refer to the following
atures is graphed, the values for the pressure increase
information.
slowly at lower temperatures. As the temperatures
increase, the vapor pressure grows more rapidly. As A researcher is measuring the effects of anxiety
on performance of a certain task completed in the
the water reaches the boiling point of 100°C, the
vapor pressure reaches 1 atm, or one standard atmo¬ workplace. Subjects are asked to rate their subjective
sphere. If 760 mmHg is equivalent to one standard feelings of anxiety about the task on a scale of 1 to 10.
atmosphere, which of the following could be the The researcher measures their performance on the task
graph of the vapor pressure of water? based on an objective set of criteria. The curve of best
fit for the resulting data is shown below.
What level of anxiety could result in a per¬

©
0 formance score of 4?
© i 1 ©
? ® 2 2
© ® 3 ®
Temperature (°C) 4
5
© 4
5
4
© ®
6 6
7 7
© ® ®
9 9
3. What would be considered the optimal level of anxi¬

ety an employee should feel to perform at her best on
this task?
A) 0
B) 5
C) 5.5
D) 10

4. More than one level of anxiety can result in a given Questions 5 through 7 refer to the following
performance score. Which of the following pairs of information.
numbers indicating anxiety levels would result in the
A)
same performance score? Two softball players are standing in a field facing
B) each other. One player throws the ball up into the
2.5 and
C) air and the other player catches it. A third player
3.5 and
D) 4 and 6 videotapes the throw and catch, and the three players
analyze the film. They make the following graph of
4.5 and
the ball’s height above the ground as a function of
time.
5. According to the graph, what is the height above the
ground of the ball as it left the first player’s hand?

A) 0
B) 3
C) 4
D) 13
ffi*
6. If a point on the graph is to be defined as (x, y), 8. A hot new product, the Dadget, comes on the market
where the x-coordinate is the time in seconds and the at the beginning of the year. Sales quickly take off,
j-coordinate is the height of the ball in feet, which of until it is discovered that the Dadget tends to catch
the following shows the coordinates of the maximum fire easily. Sales plummet as the word spreads, while
height attained by the ball during its flight? engineers scramble to correct the problem. They finally
fix the issue, and sales increase once more, but lack of
A) (1.5,13)
B) (4,3) confidence in the Dadget prevents the company from
C) (8,1) reaching previous sales levels. Which of the following

could be the graph of sales of the Dadget for the year?
D) (13,1.5)
C)
7. According to the graph, what is the average change
in the height of the ball, in feet per second, during
the first third of its flight?
“O
A) 4
CD
B) 8
C) 9
D) 12
TJ
TO
C/3
D03
CD
C/D
03
D) U Time
C0
03
C/3
003
t o
03
0
*4—
Time

9. A student is graphing the potential energy, in kilo¬ 10. A chemistry teacher is giving a lesson on the kinetic
joules, of a certain chemical reaction. At the start molecular theory of gases. She explains to her students
of the reaction, the reactants have a constant level that they will be making graphs of the distribution
of potential energy. As the reactants reach their of different speeds of molecules of an unknown gas
transition state, the potential energy increases and at varying temperatures. At a given temperature, the
then drops off as the reaction nears completion. The graph peaks at the speed at which most molecules are
resulting products have less potential energy than moving. As the temperature is increased, the most
the reactants did. Which of the following could be probable speed increases, but the curve becomes
the graph of the potential energy of this chemical broader as the spread of speeds increases. Given this
reaction? information, which of the following graphs could
represent the distribution of the molecular speeds of
the unknown gas at various temperatures?
Velocity (m/s)
123
Problem Solving and Data Analysis Drill 5 A)
your answer in the blank space provided. B)
Questions 1 through 5 refer to the following 3. According to the information in the table to the left,
information. C)
approximately what fraction of the jobs added in the
top five states for job growth were added in Utah?
Top Five States for New Job Growth per Capita, 25
1
D)
2011-2013
1
North
California Colorado Texas
Dakota Utah 20
Total 1
Jobs 5
904,500 146,325 65,450 794,250 98,600
Added in 9
State
20
New
Jobs per 275
235 300 330
10,000 945
Residents
1. According to the information in the table above,

what was the approximate population of California
from 2011-2013?
A) 3.8 million
B) 21.2 million
C) 38.5 million
D) 90.5 million
According to the information in the table

to the left, the population of Colorado was
how much greater than the population of
Utah from 2011-2013, in millions?
2. According to the information in the table above,

which of the following is the closest to the ratio of
job growth per capita in North Dakota to job growth
per capita in California?
A) 1 to 4
B) 2 to 9
C) 3 to 1
D) 4 to 1

Further data was gathered regarding the job growth Questions 6 and 7 refer to the following information .
in Texas by industry. The following chart shows the
results. A media market research company surveyed 200,000
randomly selected people in each of 6 age groups
New Jobs by Industry per 150.000 Jobs Added
regarding the ways in which they receive their news.
Energy Business
25,000 Participants were asked if they received their news
Services 5,000
on the preceding day through traditional media
Finance/ (newspapers, television, and radio), through digital
Construction 10,000
Real Estate 5,000 media (Internet, E-mail, social media, or podcasts),
Information through both traditional and digital media, or if they
Trade 15,000 30,000
did not get news from any of these sources. The
Systems results are shown in the table below.
Manufactuting 20,000 Other 40,000
How Americans Get Their News by Age Group

5. According to the information on both tables, how (in thousands)
many new jobs in Texas were added in the manufac¬
Both
turing industry from 2011 to 2013? Traditional Traditional
Media Only Media Only No News
Digital and Source
A) 19,500
B) 52,950
Digital
C) 105,900 40 32 66 62
42
18- 10 24-
D) 120,600
year olds
25- to 29- 60 30 68
year olds 50 90 36
30- to 39-
year olds 24
40- to 49- 78 16 24
year olds 82
50- to 64- 88 12 78 22
year olds
124 2 42 32
65 years
and older
A)
6. Based on the information in the table, people in
which of the following groups are most likely to
B)C)news from both digital and traditional
receive
sourcesD) and which are most likely to have no news
source at all?
Both Traditional and

No News Source
Digital Sources
50- to 64-year-olds
65 years and older
30- to 39-year-olds 1 8- to 24-year-olds
25- to 29-year olds 40- to 49-year-olds
1 8- to 24-year-olds 30- to 39-year-olds
125
7. Based on the information in the table, which type of
news source is inversely associated with age?
A) Traditional only
B) Digital only
C) Both traditional and digital
D) No news source

choices given.
Questions 1 through 3 refer to the following information.

age group were surveye W of the followi is
A media market research company surveyed 200,000 d . hich n
g
2 randomly most likely the number of people from the follow-
selected people in each of 6 age groups up
.regarding the ways in which they receive their news. survey that reported they receive their news exclu¬
d
sively from traditio m
Participants were asked if they received their news nal edia?
on the preceding day through traditional media
A) 375
(newspapers, television, and radio), through digital An addi
tio
media (Internet, E-mail, social media, or podcasts), B) 585nal 1 ,500 peo
ple in
the 40-
through both traditional and digital media, or if they C) 615 to 49-ye
ar-old
did not get news from any of these sources. The D) 660
results are shown in the table below.
How Americans Get Their News by Age Group

(in thousands)
Both
Traditional Traditional No News
Digital
Media Only Media Only Source
and
Digital
66
18- 10 24- 40
32
year olds
62
25- to 29- 60 30 68 42
year olds
30- to 39- 50 36
year olds 24 • 90
40- to 49- 16 82 new was tra med 1 ,00 wer sel
s dit ia, 0 e ect
year olds
78
24 at ran to doionaanl add sur in whi edthe
dom iti vey ch y
wer ask wha tra ona me the pre
50- to 64- 88 12 78 22 e ed t dit l di y f
ion a e r
year olds The wer 375 peo ianl thi fol sur red. wh
re e ple s low vey o
sai the pre pri m and -uthpe oth 6
65 years 2 42 32 d y fer nt edia er 25
and older 124 pre a dif red tra , m Usi the
fer fer dit edi ng
a
dat frredo bot seunrt whioina of the. fol is
a m h vey chl low
mos l t b a a, s sta i ng
t ikely o e n ccura tem
te ent
A) About 16,500 people 50 to 64 years ? old would
report preferring print media for their news
sur inc app 21 mill p source.
vey lud
e rox
ima ion eople
age 25 to 29, d app h
tel ow m any p eop age B) About 24,250 people 50 to 64 years old would
s rox y le s
i m
25 to 29 got new fro atdeigi m o a typi d report preferring print media for their news
s m lytal edia 3n cal ay
at that tim Of source.
e? the
50- C) About 33,000 people 50 to 64 years old would
A) 10.3 million to
64-
yea report preferring print media for their news
B) 7.14 million r-o
lds source.
C) 6.3 million who
sD)
e o About 55,000 people 50 to 64 years old would
D) 3.15 million nly
report
sou preferring print media for their news
rce
source. of

Top Five States for New Job Growth per Capita,
2011-2013
North
California Colorado Texas
Dakota Utah
Total
Jobs
904,500 146,325 794,250
Added in 65,450 98,600
State
New
Jobs per
235 275 945 330
10,000 300
Residents
4. According to the information given in the table above,

which of the following conclusions can be drawn
about per capita job growth in the top five states?
A) Job growth was greatest in North Dakota because

it had the greatest number of jobs added per
10,000 residents.
B) Job growth was greatest in Texas because it had
the greatest number of total jobs added.
C) Job growth was lowest in North Dakota because it
had the fewest number of total jobs added.
D) Job growth was lowest in Colorado because it
had the fewest number of jobs added per 10,000
residents.

answer that you think is the best of the choices given. For Student- Response questions, denoted by the grid-in icon, write
Questions 1 through 7 refer to the following 2. Which of the following ages has the greatest range of
information . values for fruits and vegetables consumed daily?
A) Age 5
A dietician working in a pediatrician’s office is exam¬
ining the diets of the patients seen there. She has the B) Age 7
C) Age 9
parents of each patient record their child’s consump¬
tion of fruits and vegetables each day for four weeks. D) Age 12
She then averages the values for each child to find the
grams of fruits and vegetables consumed daily by that
child, rounded to the nearest quarter of a thousand.
Each child’s average consumption is marked as a dot

on the graph below.
Fruits and Vegetables Consumed by Age
M
(1) 6000-
X]
n
i
4-> DUUU
m
► •
> re ► 4►
■o <=> 4000-
re (D = > 4* 4> 3. The median consumption value for 8-year-olds is
</> E1 41 » 4» 4> how much greater than the median consumption
~ §
f.
► 4*
* --4 value for 1 3-year-olds?
P t/> oUUU ►
4►
<
io
•
•k • »
O O TV i !">» 4
4 •
» 4► 4
4>
L A) 2,750
(B zUUU «f <» »— " » B) 2,000
g-
» • < ►
o 4»> 4
C) 1,250
_ <
1UUU D) 750
• >
* . . T4... . .
Tj
»» 4
i— J -
5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Age
1 . What is the mode of the data gathered, in

grams of fruits and vegetables, consumed
daily?

A)
B)
C)
D)
4. Which of the following children has an average daily 6. Which of the following is the closest to the mean
consumption of fruits and vegetables, in grams, that consumption of fruits and vegetables, in grams, of
is farthest away from the mean for his age group? children over years nf acre?
A) The 7-year-old whose average consumption is

1 ,750 grams daily 1,500
1,650
B) The 9-year-old whose average consumption is
1 ,000 grams daily 2,350
3,000
C) The 12-year-old whose average consumption is
3,500 grams daily
D) The 13-year-old whose average consumption is
3,500 grams daily
7. Based on her data, she concludes that children in the

United States who are 13 to 15 years old consume
fewer fruits and vegetables than children who are 7
to 9 years old. Is her conclusion a valid one, based
5. For which of the following age groups is the median on the information in the graph?
value for daily consumption of fruits and vegetables,
A) Yes, because the average of the values for those
in grams, closest to the mean of that group?
in the 13 to 15 age group is lower than that of
the 7 to 9 age group.
A) The 6-year-old group
B) The 10-year-old group B) Yes, because the range of values for those in the
C) The 13-year-old group 13 to 15 age group is smaller than the range for
those who are 7 to 9.
D) The 15-year-old group
C) No, because the sample is only drawn from a
group
office. of patients at one specific pediatrician's
D) No, because the data was provided by the
children’s parents and not the children
themselves.

Questions 1 and 2 refer to the following information. Questions 3 through 5 refer to the following
information.
An online payment system allows users to purchase a
virtual currency called “Dabcoin” with any legal cur¬ John is conducting an experiment for his Economics
rency, such as U.S. dollars or Japanese yen. When the class. Each morning on eight consecutive days, he
user purchases Dabcoins, the online payment system sells homemade waffles in front of the school cafete¬
converts the user’s home currency into Dabcoins at ria. On the first day, he charges $1 per waffle, and he
the daily exchange rate, and then charges a customer raises the price by one dollar per day for the duration
service fee that is 5% of the value of the customer’s of the experiment. He records both the price and his
Dabcoins.
net profits per day in the table below, but neglects to
fill in his profits on days 2 and 7. To find the missing
values for days 2 and 7, he writes a quadratic equa¬
tion that accurately models the relationship between
On Monday, the official exchange rate,
Q price and net profits.
T. in U.S. dollars per Dabcoin, is $34. If a
customer can spend a maximum of $750 on
Price per waffle
Dabcoins and is charged the 5% fee, what Net profits
(in dollars) (in dollars)
is the greatest number of Dabcoins the cus¬ 1 7
tomer can purchase, rounded to the nearest
whole number? 2
3 15
4 16
5 15
6 12
8 0
3. What is the sum of the net profits, in

dollars, that John earned on days 2 and 7?
(Disregard
answer.) the $ sign when gridding in your
2. On Tuesday, the customer service fee was

increased to 11 .6% of the value of the cus¬
tomer’s Dabcoins. If the maximum number
of Dabcoins that could be purchased for
$750 on Tuesday is equal to the number of
Dabcoins that could be purchased for $750
on Monday, what was the exchange rate,
in U.S. dollars per Dabcoin, on Tuesday?
(Round your answer to the nearest whole
number.)

131
rn
a
2 iff
2
3
C43
® 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
(9) B 8
9
B
9
John discovers that the quadratic equation
that accurately models his results is of
the form N = -{p - a)2 + c, where p is the
price, N is the net profits, and a and c are
constants. What is the value of a + c ?
0
1 i
CT:
22 w 2
33 (3) 3
44 4 4
55 5 5
6
C6> <6> 6
77 m
e
i 9
Suppose that John added a ninth day to the
experiment, and raised the price of waffles
to $9 per waffle. If the quadratic equation
he wrote is accurate, what would John’s net
loss be, in dollars, on day 9? (Disregard the
$ sign when gridding in your answer.)

Chapter 8
Problem Solving
and Data Analysis
Answers and
Explanations
1
1
1
1
CANSWER KEY
.
Problem Solving and Data Analysis Drill 1 Problem Solving and Data Analysis Drill 3
.
1. B
2. C 2. D
3. A A
4. D 4. 2.3 or 2.33
3. B
5. 22.3
5.
6. CD
1.200
7. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
2. B
5. A
6. B 4.
3. AC
7. C
C
8. A Problem Solving and Data Analysis Drill 7

9. B
2,
2. A
25
0

1.20 3. BD
4.
2. B
3. C 5.
6. BA
4. B
7. C
5. D
6. C
7. D Problem Solving and Data Analysis Drill 8

1.21
2.32
3. 19
2. 2 or 9 4. 20
5.9
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. B
10. B

PROBLEM SOLVING AND DATA ANALYSIS
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Drill 1
1. B
Start by calculating the cost of the CFL in cents per hour by dividing the cost, $1.50 or
150 cents, by the life span, 10,000 hours. 150 cents -s- 10,000 hours = 0.015. Do the same
for the LED: 1,000 cents 25,000 hours = 0.04. Now make the ratio of CFL cost to LED
cost: 0.015 to 0.04. This is not one of the choices, though, so you need to manipulate
0.015 the
ratio a bit. You can write ratios as fractions as well, so this one would be ^ , which
equals 0.375. Check the answer choices to see which one also equals 0.375 when written
as a fraction. Choice (B) does, so it is correct. Another approach could be to multiply the
ratio of 0.015 to 0.04 by 1,000 to get rid of the decimal. The new ratio is 15 to 40, which is
divisible by 5, simplifying to 3 to 8.
2. C The large shirts need a larger image, so the correct answer must be greater than 100%.
Eliminate (A). Now, Plug In the Answers, starting with (B). If the original height of 8
inches is printed out at 1075%, the result will be 8 x 1.075 = 8.6. This is not the required
height of 9, so eliminate (B) and try (C). Since 8 x 1.125 = 9, (C) has the correct height.
There is no need to try the width, since it must work; (D) would make both dimensions
too large.
3. A Find the maximum heart rate first. The difference between 220 and 35 is 185. The aerobic
75
rate is 75% of this number, so multiply by 185 to get 138.75. The fat-burning rate is
55% of 185, or (185) = 101.75. Now find the difference between these two heart rates:
138.75 - 101.75 = 37, which is (A).
4. D
Start by finding the total cost of the items purchased on Monday, then apply the discount
to them all at once. Add all 5 items for a total 75 of $14.96. The discount for these items
was 25%, so Anya paid 75% of their total cost. ($14.96) = $11.22. Now do the same
for Wednesday’s items. The total is $10.50. The discount is 30%, so Anya pays 70%, and
70 ($10.50) = $7.35. Add the totals for the two days and apply the tax all at once. $11.22
1 00
g 25
+ $7.35 = $18.57. Multiply this by to get an additional $1.16 in tax (once you round
down a bit), so the total bill is $18.57 + 1.16 = $19.73. This matches (D).
Problem Solving and Data Analysis Answers and Explanations | 135

5. 22.5 Explanation: Ratios can be written as fractions, so start 1. 71 _the3 ratio of the densities of aluminum
with
and lead. Find the numbers you need from the chart, 1.71 and 11.4 respectively, and write them as a
fraction set equal to the given ratio of 3 over x, like this: — —
Cross multiply to get 1.71x = 34.2, then divide both sides by 1.71 to get x = 20. Now use this value in
osmium _ 20
the second ratio: - — —

9.0 8
Cross multiply to get 8(iosmium ) = 180, then divide both sides by 8 to get osmium - 22.5.
Drill 2
1. 200 The density of silver is given in “grams per cubic centimeter.” Even if you don’t remember that density
= mass + volume, you can figure out that you need to take the value in grams and divide it by the
value in cubic centimeters. Plug In the values you know and solve for the volume.
volume
2)100
10 5 = volume = 2,100 +• 10.5 = 200 cubic centimeters.
Therefore,
2. A The liter of water will be equivalent to 1,000 milliliters of water. Each of those milliliters is equiva¬
lent to one cubic centimeter, so the liter of water is equivalent to 1,000 cubic centimeters. Density is
defined as the mass divided by the volume. Even if you forget that, you are asked for the density “in
grams per cubic centimeter.” This means that the 1,000 grams get divided by the 1,000 cubic centi¬
meters, which equals 1.
block. Volume = length x width x height, so the volume of the block is 10 x 5 x 5 or 250 cubic centi¬
meters. Now Plug In what you know to find the density.
2, 230 grams
Density = 250 cm3 = 8.92 grams Per cubic centimeter.
matches. Together, the energy produced by the 3 matches equals 3 x 1,100 joules = 3,300 joules. Each
joule equals 0.239 calories, so multiply 3,300 by 0.239 to get 788.7 calories for the 3 matches. This
is not nearly enough, so eliminate (B) and the smaller answer in (A). Choice (B) produc
ed an answer
that was about a third of the required amount of 2,100 calories, so (C) is likely correct. Use the same
steps to calculate that 8 matches would produce 8,800 joules or 2,103. calories just slight
2 , ly more
than required. Therefore, (C) is the credited response.

5 A When asked for a specific amount, Plug In the Answers. Start with (B) and assume there are 630
layers. If each layer is 102 |lm thick, then the total thickness is 630 x 102 = 64,260 pm. Since an inch
equals 0.0234 meters, convert that to micrometers by multiplying by 1,000,000 to get 25,400 pm in
one inch. The total thickness of 630 layers is much more than that, so (B) can be eliminated. Choices
(C) and (D) are too big as well, so (A) is the credited response. 250 layers would have a thickness of
about 25,500 pm, which is very close to the given value.
6. B
Convert each of the dimensions given in millimeters to inches, using the conversion rate given, starting
with 230 mm.
25.4 mm _ 230 mm
1 inch x
/
Cross-multiply and solve for x to find that 230 mm equals about 9 inches. Follow the same method to
convert 170 mm to 6.7 inches and 200 mm to 7.9 inches. Since the question asks for an approxima¬
tion and the answers are not too close, you don’t have to get too specific with your decimals. Volume =
length x width x height, so multiply the three dimensions in inches to get the volume in cubic inches.
9 x 6.7 x 7.9 = 476. 37, so (B) is the closest approximation.
7. C The question gives the distance travelled in 1 second in both yards and feet. Since the other informa¬
tion in the problem regards feet per mile, focus on the measurement in feet. There are 60 seconds in
a minute, and in each the car travels 360 feet, so it travels 360 feet x 60 seconds = 21,600 feet in one
minute. There are 60 minutes in an hour, so multiply by 60 again to find that it travels at 1,296,000
feet per hour. Now set up a proportion to find out how many miles that would be:
1 mile _ x
5,280 feet ~ 1,296,000 feet

Cross multiply and solve for x to find that the car’s speed is about 245 miles per hour.
8. A There are a few ways to solve this problem. You could calculate the time spent by one crew on one stop
and multiply that by the number of stops and cars racing. If 6 men work for 15 seconds each on one
pit stop, that stop totals 90 seconds of work time. Convert this to 1.5 minutes and multiply that by the
5 stops for that car to get 7.5 minutes. There are 33 cars, so 7.5 minutes x 33 cars = 247.5 minutes total
time. The question asks for work hours , and there are 60 minutes in an hour, so divide 247.5 by 60 to
get 4.125 hours of work time. You could also do the steps in a different order, converting 15 seconds to
0.25 minutes first, or finding the total number of crew members before calculating the time, but any
method should end up at the same answer if you calculate carefully.
137
Problem Solving and Data Analysis Answers and Explanations
9. B
Start by calculating Superman’s speed: Mach 4 = 4 x 340.29 = 1,361.16 meters per second. The
distance he plans to run is in kilometers, so multiply 40,075 kilometers by 1,000 to get a total distance
of 40,075,000 meters. Distance = rate x time, so 40,075,000 m = (1,361.16 mis) x time. Solve this to
get a time of 29,441.8 seconds. There are 60 seconds in a minute and 60 minutes in an hour, so one
hour has 3,600 seconds. Set up a proportion to find out how many hours 29,441.8 seconds equals:
1 hour _ x
3, 600 seconds 29,441.8 seconds
Cross multiply and solve for x to get 8.18 hours, which is closest to (B).
Drill 3
1. 20 X will make $20,000. No salaries are less

Even with 0 years of experience, an employee at Company
than this, so it can be assumed that this is the minimum starting salary. Expressed in thousands of
dollars, this will simply be 20, just as it’s written on the graph.
2. B Income is shown on the vertical axis of the graph, given in thousands of dollars. Look for the mark
indicating 30, or $30,000, on this axis, then draw a horizontal line from the mark at 30 to the line of
best fit. Once you hit it, draw a vertical line straight down to the horizontal axis. It should hit just to
the right of the mark for 5 years of experience. Therefore, (B) must be correct, since it is just slightly
more than 5. Draw your lines carefully, using your scantron sheet as a straightedge if necessary, to
avoid trap answers like the close-but-not-quite (A).
3. C The graph does not show employees with 35 years of experience. However, the line of best fit can be
expected to continue to fit the data once it goes off the end of the chart. At the high end of the data
shown, an employee is already making $65,000 with 25 years of experience. Therefore, with 10 more
years of experience, that employee should be making more than $65,000. Eliminate (A) and (B). You
can use some Ballparking now, if you continued the line of best fit off the right side of the graph, it
would hit somewhere just above $80,000 at 35 years of experience. Choice (D) is much too large, so
(C) must be the credited response. You can also solve for it more precisely by calculating the slope of
the line of best fit. Since the starting salary is $20,000 and the salary for an employee with 10 years of
experience is $38,000, we know that for every ten years of experience, the salary increases by $18,000.
Add $18,000 to the $65,000 salary for an employee with 25 years of experience to get $83,000.
4 B
At 0 years of experience, an employee makes $20,000, and at 25 years of experience, an employee
makes $65,000. That is an increase in income of $45,000 for an additional 25 years of experience. To
find the increase in income per year of experience, divide $45,000 by 25 years to get $1,800 per year.
3. D Pick a point on the line of best fit and Plug In the x- and y-values into the equation in each answer
choice. The correct equation will be true with the given values. Avoid using the point at which x = 0,
as the answer choices are usually written so that more than one will be true with those values. Try the
point (25, $65,000) and check all 4 equations. Choice (D) is true, so it is the credited response. Be
careful with (A) - Plugging In 25 for x gives you 65, but the graph shows incomes in the thousands, so
you want 65,000, not 65.

J#
6. C
Check out each statement one at a time to see if it is supported by the graph. Choice (A) compares the
potential energy, read on the vertical axis, of the “reactants” and “products.” The section of the graph
labeled “reactants” has a higher potential energy than the section labeled “products,” so eliminate
(A). Choice (B) refers to the “transition state,” which is indicated as the rise in potential energy in the
middle of the reaction. This means the reaction’s potential energy is the highest in this state, not the
lowest, so eliminate (B) as well. Choices (C) and (D) refer to the reaction with the catalyst, which the
key indicates is the dashed line. This line definitely differs from the solid line graphing the potential
energy without the catalyst, so (D) can be eliminated. Choice (C) is the credited response, as the
potential energy is slightly lower during the transition state with the catalyst.
7. D Three of the four answer choices refer to t = 0, so look at that time on the graph. Time in years is on
<*
the horizontal axis, and t - 0 is all the way to the left of the graph. At this time, Annalee’s investment
was $25 and Bethany’s investment was $50. Be sure to read the lines carefully, since they cross each
other, to avoid mixing up the two amounts. Now check out the answers that refer to these values.
Choice (B) can be eliminated, since it is not true. Choice (C) indicates that Annalee’s investment has
twice the value of Bethany’s investment, but this is the opposite of what the graph shows, so eliminate
(C). Choice (D) refers to goals, which were $250 for both women. Annalee’s initial $25 investment is
10% of her $250 goal, and Bethany’s initial $50 investment is 20% of her $250 goal. Therefore, (D) is
the credited response. Choice (A) is false, since the curve of Annalee’s investment goes up faster than
that of Bethany’s, increasing about $75 in the first 15 years while Bethany’s only increases about $50.
Drill 4
1. C
The description of vapor pressure in the question says that it starts increasing slowly at first, and it
grows more rapidly as the temperature increases. This is describing an exponential relationship, not
a linear one, so the graphs with straight lines can be eliminated. This means the correct answer must
be (A) or (C). Now, look up the one specific value given in the question. At a temperature of 100° C,
the vapor pressure should be about 760 mmHg. The graph in (A) shows a temperature of 760° C
corresponding to a pressure of 100 mmHg. In other words, the numbers on the axes are reversed.
Eliminate (A) and choose (C), which has the correct values where they belong.
2. 2 or 9 Find the performance scores on the vertical axis and look for the mark indicating a score of 4. Draw
a horizontal line from this mark, using your scantron sheet as a straightedge if necessary, until you
intersect the graph. If you draw the line all the way across, you will hit the graph twice. Pick either
one of these points of intersection and drop a vertical line down from it to the horizontal axis, where
anxiety levels are measured. One point of intersection gives an anxiety level of 2 and the other gives
an anxiety level of 9. Either choice is correct.
3. C The highest level of performance is shown at the peak in the middle of the graph. This peak indicates
a performance level of just over 10. Use your scantron sheet as a straightedge to see the corresponding
anxiety level for a performance of just over 10. It should hit between the marks for 5 and 6, making
(C) the credited response.
Problem Solving and Data Analysis Answers and Explanations | 139
ft**
(A) and
4. A Get out your scantron sheet for use as a straightedge and start drawing some lines. Start with
over to
an anxiety level of 2.5, read on the horizontal axis. Draw a vertical line up to the graph, then
level
the vertical performance axis. You should hit this axis at about 5.5. Do the same for the anxiety
are the
of 8.5, which should also hit at a performance score of 5.5. Since the two performance scores
None of
same, (A) is the credited response. Check out the other answer choices, just to be certain.
them give the same performance score.
5. C It can be assumed that the ball left the player’s hand at a time of 0. From there, it goes up and then
comes back down. At a time of 0, the height of the ball is 4 feet above the ground.
6. A The maximum height of the ball on the graph is 13 feet. Height is the y-coordinate, so eliminate all
answer choices except (A). Choice (D) is the trap — it switches the coordinates of the point in question.
7. B The ball is in the air for 3 seconds, so the time in question is the first third of that, or simply the first
second. At a time of 0, the ball was at a height of 4 feet above the ground. After one second, the height
had increased to 12 feet above the ground. This is a change in height of 8 feet. To find the average
per second, you need to divide the distance in feet by the number of seconds. 8 + 1 = 8, so (B) is the
credited response.
8. D The question describes an initial rapid increase in sales, so (A) can be eliminated. The increase in (C) is
not steep enough initially, so it can be eliminated as well. Choice (B) shows a steep initial increase and
the sharp drop in sales after the problem was discovered, but it doesn’t show the sales numbers going
back up. Therefore, (B) can also be eliminated, and (D) is the credited response.
9. B Following the description in the question, the reaction starts out with a constant level of potential
energy before it increases. Therefore, (C) and (D) can be eliminated, as they feature a drop in poten¬
tial energy, not an increase. The question also states that the “resulting products” have less potential
energy than the “reactants” at the start of the reaction. This means that the end of the line should be
lower than the start of the line, so (B) is the credited response.
straightforw
ard information is that the curves get broader as the temperature increases. This means
that the line for 900K should be wider than the one for 300K, which should have the skinniest peak.
Eliminate (A) and (D). The question also states that as the temperature increases, the most probable
speed increases. This means that the peak for 300K should be with the lower velocities on the left and
the peak for 900K should be further to the right, where the higher velocities are. Eliminate (C) and
choose (B).

>
Drill 5
dents in that state. Use that information to set up a proportion that can be used to solve for the popu¬
lation of California. It should look like this:
235 _ 904,500
10,000 population
1. C Now,chart
The cross-multiply to get 235 [population) = 10,000(904,500) = 9,045,000,000. Now divide both
shows the total number of jobs added in the state and the number added
per 10,000 resi¬
sides by 235 to get population = 38,489,361 or 38.5 million.
added. North Dakota’s per capita growth was 945, and California’s per capita growth was 235. The
ratio is 945 to 235, or approximately 4 to 1, making (D) the correct answer.
98,600
904,500 = 2,009,125. Of this total, Utah accounts for 98,600 jobs, so the fraction is 2 009 125‘
doesn’t simplify to any of the answers, but the decimal value is 0.049, which rounds to 0.05. Of the
given fractions, (B) is the closest.
\
4. 2.3 or 2.33
The chart shows the number of jobs added in total and the number per 10,000 residents in that state.
Use that information to set up a proportion that can be solved to find the population of Colorado. It
should look like this:
2.
D Get the data you need from
the chart, making sure to loo
275 _ 146,325 k at per capita numbers and
not total jobs
10, 000 population
Now, cross-multiply to get 27 ^{population) = 10,000(146,325) = 1,463,250,000. Now divide both
sides by 275 to get population = 5,320,909. Now do the same for Utah to get a population of 2,987,878.
The difference between the two populations is 2,333,030, or 2.33 million. When rounding on grid-
ins, make sure to do it at the last step to get an answer that is as accurate as possible.
35. C Use the data on the second table to figure out what portion of the new Texas jobs were in manufac¬
.
B Add up all the values for
the total job s add new Texas jobs were in manu-
turing jobs. The second chart tells youed that 20,000
in the five sta . 65, 150,000
oftesevery
20,000 450 2 + 98,600 + 794,250 + 146,325 +
facturing. That part of the proportion would be 0Q0 or The total number of jobs created in
2 ’ _2
Texas was 794,250, so — of those are manufacturing jobs. Multiply ^ by 794,250 to get 105,900
jobs.

141
6. D
There are two parts to each correct answer, so there are two chances to use Process of Elimination.
Start with the “No News Source’’ column in the answers. This corresponds to the column all the way
to the right on the table. Since the number of people questioned in each group is the same, you just
need to find the one with the largest number in this column. The 18- to 24-year-olds have the largest
number and are therefore more likely to have no news source. From this, you can eliminate every
choice but (D), which must be correct. Be careful not to mix up the two columns and choose (B)
accidentally.
7. B To determine association of variables, you want to look for a pattern in the data. Look at the trends
in each column to see if the numbers are increasing, decreasing, or show no patterns. For (A), the
numbers in the Traditional Only column are kind of all over the place. There is no clear pattern and
no association. For the Digital Only column, the numbers decrease with increasing age. This is a
definite association, and an inverse one since the numbers go down as the age goes up. Check out (C)
and (D), just to be sure. The No News Source numbers go down for the most part, but they increase
slightly again with those 65 and over, so (B) is the best choice.
Drill 6
1. A Look at the row for 25- to 29-year-olds on the table. Those that got their news digitally are included
in both the Digital Only column AND the Both Traditional and Digital column. Those numbers
are 30 and 68, respectively, and those are in thousands, so 98,000 total people in this age group got
their news digitally. That is about half of the total 200,000 surveyed, so about half of all 21 million
25- to 29-year-olds would get news digitally. Use Ballparking to see that (A) is the closest to half of 21
million. To calculate exactly, divide 98,000 by 200,000 to get the portion of the age group you want,
then multiply that portion by the total 21 million people in the group. You get 10,290,000, which
rounds to 10.3 million.
2. B In the initial survey, 78,000 out of 200,000 people in this age group reported getting their news
from traditional media. If another 1,500 people were surveyed, the same portion is likely to also use
only traditional media. Set up a proportion with the given numbers and solve it for the number of
traditional-media-users in the new sample.
78,000 x
200,000 ~~ 1,500
Cross-multiply to get 200,000x = 117,000,000, then divide both sides to get x = 585.
3. C
In the follow-up survey, 375 out of 1,000 people in this age group (37.5 percent) preferred print media
for their news source. Since these people were selected randomly, their views should reflect the larger
group of 50- to 64-year-olds in the initial survey. One could expect that the same percent of all the
people in this age group would also prefer print media. Take 37.5 percent of that total, 88,000, to get
33,000 of the original group that prefer print media. Therefore, (C) is correct.

-V
4. A
Start by eliminating any choice that is definitely contradicted by the data. Choice (B) is false, since
California added the greatest total number of jobs. Choice (D) is false — California had the lowest
per capita number. Between (A) and (C), (A) is a better conclusion since the question asks about per
capita job growth, not the total number of new jobs. Eliminate (C) and choose (A).
Drill 7
1. 2,250 The mode of a set of data is the number that appears on the list most frequently. To find the mode in
grams of fruits and vegetables consumed, look along each horizontal line representing one value in
grams and see which one has the most dots on it. For example, the line for 1,000 grams has 5 dots on
'
it, one for each of the ages 9, 10, 12, 13, and 15. Use your scantron sheet as a straight-edge to check
the values between thousands, as the ones off the gridlines are harder to see. For 2,250 grams, there
are 6 dots, meaning 6 kids had that average consumption. No other value has more dots, so 2,250 is
the mode.
2. A For each of the given ages, look up the largest consumption value and the smallest one. The range will
be the difference between the two values. For 5-year-olds, the largest value is 5,000 and the smallest is
1,500, so the range is 5,000 - 1,500 = 3,500. For 7-year-olds, the high value is the same as the one in
(A), but the low value is greater, so the range will be smaller. Eliminate (B) and try (C): the values for
9-year-olds are 4,250 and 1,000, and the range is 3,250, so (A) is still the greatest. Eliminate (C) and
move on to (D): for 12-year-olds the values are 3,500 and 250 for a range of 3,250. Eliminate (D) and
choose (A).
3. D Look up the values for 8-year-olds: they are 2,000, 2,250, 2,500, 3,000, 3,500, and 4,000. The median
is the middle number in a set, but this set has an even number of data points. In this case, average the
two middles ones (2,500 and 3,000) to get the median of 2,750 for the 8-year olds. The 13-year-olds
are easier: the middle number of the 5 values is 2,000. Make sure you don’t miss that outlier at the top.
The difference between these two medians is 2,750 — 2,000 = 750, which is (D).
4. B This is a question that might work for Ballparking, depending on the distribution of the data points. If
any one of these age groups had a cluster of data points in the middle, with one outlier point far away
from the rest, then that would be the likely answer. The 12-year-old group’s values seem pretty evenly
distributed and close together, so eliminate (C). The other three age groups have one outlier point, and
these points are the ones listed in the answer choices. The high value for the 13-year-olds seems closer
to the rest in that group than the lowest values in the 7- and 9-year-old groups, so that is not likely to
be the answer. Eliminate (D) and try (A) and (B). Check out each answer choice by calculating the
mean consumption for that group, then seeing how far away the given child is. For 7-year-olds, add
up all 7 values (1,750, 2,750, 3,250, 3,750, 4,000, 4,500, and 5,000) to get a total of 25,000. Divide
that by 7 to get an average of 3,571.4 grams daily for 7-year-olds. Tfie child in (A) consumes 1,750
grams, so he is 1,821.4 away from his age group’s average. Follow the same steps for 9-year-olds to find
that their average is 2,857.1. The child in (B) consumes 1,000 grams, for a difference of 1,857.1. This is
greater than the value for (A), so (B) is correct.
143
rft*
5. B This is a question that might work for Ballparking, depending on the distribution of the data points.
If any one of these age groups has a symmetrical spread of data points, with one right near the middle,
then that would be the likely answer. The 6-year-old group’s values are not evenly distributed, and
there is not one point right in the middle, so eliminate (A). The same is true of the 13-year-olds, so
eliminate (C). The other two age groups are both symmetrically distributed about a central value.
Check out each answer choice by calculating the mean consumption for that group, then seeing how
close that is to the median value. For 10-year-olds, add up all 7 values (750, 1,000, 1,500, 2,000,
2,250, 2,750, and 3,500) to get a total of 13,750. Divide that by 7 to get an average of 1,964.3 grams
daily for 10-year-olds. The median, or middle, value for 10-year-olds is 2,000, so the median and the
mean differ by 35.7 grams. Follow the same steps for 15-year-olds to find that their average is 1,050
grams daily. The median value is 1,000, for a difference of 50 grams. The difference for the 15-year-
olds is greater than the difference for the 10-year-olds. Therefore, (D) can be eliminated, and (B) is
correct.
6. A Very carefully look up and add all the values for children over 11 years of age — that is, those 12-15
years old. There are 23 values on the list, so take your time and enter them slowly and carefully into
your calculator. Once you get the sum, which is 34,500, you divide by the number of children, 23, to
get the mean. 34,500 +■ 23 = 1,500, which is (A). Another way to approach a tedious question like this
would be to Ballpark. If you don’t have time to add up all 23 numbers, look at what might be reason¬
able for the average or mean. All these values are between 250 and 3,500, and they are pretty evenly
distributed in that range. Choices (C) and (D) seem much too high for the mean of the data for kids
over 11, so guess (A) or (B) and keep moving.
7. C Start with Process of Elimination and get rid of answers that aren’t true. Just by looking at the graph,
choice (A) seems to be true, so hang on to it for now. Choice (B) is false, because the range for 8-year-
olds (2,000) is equal to that of 13-year-olds. Eliminate (B). Choices (C) and (D) are both possible, but
(D) is less likely to cause a problem with the conclusions. It is more likely that parents would accurately
record fruit and vegetable intake than 5- and 6-year-olds would. Eliminate (D). Between (A) and (C),
(C) is a better reflection of what one must do to draw conclusions about the general population. If the
dietician truly wants to draw conclusions about children in the United States as a whole, she needs to
study children from more than just one pediatrician’s office. The best she can conclude with the infor¬
mation in (A) is that, at this particular location, children who are 13 to 15 eat fewer grams of fruits and
vegetables than children who are 7 to 9 years old. Choice (C) is the best answer.

/
Drill 8
1. 21
Let jc equal the number of Dabcoins. Then write an inequality: 34x + — — (34x) <750. Simplify to get
35. 7x < 750, and solve to get x < 21.008. Rounding to the nearest whole number, we get x = 21.
2. 32 This question requires that the previous question be solved correctly. Since the number of Dabcoins is 21 on
both days, we can write a new inequality: 2\y+ (2 \y ) < 750 . Simplify: 23.436jy < 750. Then solve:
y < 32.002, so the nearest whole number is 32.
3. 19 Since the data can be represented by a quadratic equation, the graph of the data will be a parabola. A
parabola is symmetrical around its vertex, and day 4, the highest value, represents the vertex of this
parabola. Therefore, the profits on day 3 will equal the profits on day 5, the profits on day 2 will equal
the profits on day 6, and the profits on day 1 will equal the profits on day 7. The missing values are 7
and 12, so the sum is 19.
4. 20 The part of the equation that is squared can never be negative; it must be 0 or positive. Therefore, at
the vertex, which is day 4, {p - a) will be 0, which means c = 16. Since (p - a) = 0 on day 4, 4 — a = 0
and a = 4. Finally, 16 + 4 = 20.
5. 9
Plug the values generated from the previous question into the given equation: N = -(9 - 4)2 + 16.
N = -9, so the net loss is $9.
145
n
Chapter 9
Passport to
Advanced Math
Passport to Advanced Math Drill 1
choices given.
1. Polymerase chain reaction is a technique used to 3. At launch, a space shuttle achieves an acceleration
copy a portion of DNA. An enzyme is added to a
of 3 g (where g = 9.8 m/s2). Which of the following
sample of DNA. The resulting mixture is then sub¬ functions, /, represents how far the space shuttle has
jected to a cycle of temperatures. During each cycle, traveled, in meters, after t seconds of accelerating at
each strand of DNA is copied, resulting in twice the this rate?
number of strands in the mixture. Which of the fol¬
(Note: to find displacement, use the equation
lowing equations accurately represents the resulting
number of strands in a sample with 5 initial strands
after c temperature cycles? selapsed.)
= 2<V2, where a is acceleration and t is time
A) V
2C“')
s(20 A) f(t) = 3t
C)
B) s(
D) sc /(/) == 29
B) f(t) .4t2
C) 14.7F
D) /(/) = 9.8F
A)
B) C)
2. What is the vertex of the parabola defined by the 4. The vertex form of 4afparabola’s equation is
equation y = x2 + 4x- 12? y = (x D--) 2x
h)2 ++ k, where point (h, k ) is the vertex of the
parabola. What is the vertex form of the parabola
A) (0,-12) represented by the standard form equation
B) (-6,0) 8?
C) (-2,-16)
+ 7
D) (2,-12)
+ 1
= (jc + + 8
x2 =- (*-
= (*-
= (*-
y=
y=
I)2
l)2
l)2
y= y--
y~-

5. Bacteria grow asexually by a single bacterium dividing
into two bacteria. These bacteria can themselves divide
again and again. Assume a petri dish contains a single
bacterium that divides exactly once per hour. Which of
the following functions, /( t), represents the number of
bacteria in the petri dish after t hours?
A) /(f) = 2*
B) f(t) = 2'
C) /(f) = (f+ l)2
D) /(f) = t2
6. Which of the following accurately expresses
32+l . 51 2 jn the form A • B'l
D) 15-(Vl5)'
Passport to Advanced Math 149

choices given.
3.
1. Cube A has a volume of 3 ft3. Cube B has a volume 4^+ 12x+ 14 =

of 9 ft3. Which of the following expresses the ratio
of the side length of cube A to the side length of
cube B? A) (2x + 6)2 - 1 8
B) (2x + 3)2 + 5
j_
C) (4x + 3)2 + 5
D) (2x- 3)2 + 5
32 : 32
2
A)
B) 3i: 3 33
C) 33 : 3 3
D) 33 : 35
4. The standard form of the equation of a circle is

(x - h)2 + (y - k )2 = r2, where the center of the circle
is at point (h , k) and the radius of the circle is r. What
is the standard form of the equation of the circle
defined by the equation x2 + y1 - 6x + 8_y = 0?
2. 2x3 + 4x2 + 2x =
A) (x - 6)2 + (y + 8)2 = 0
A) 2x(x- l)2 B) (x + 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 25
B) 2(x + l)3 C) (x - 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 25
C) 2x(x + l)2 D) (x - 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 5
D) x(x + 2)2

x
5
6
6
2 5 *
7. Which18x12
x24- of the following is equivalent to
+ 82?
A)
+8 y 3 =
X3
Vx
B) A)
2+
B)(x12x24+ 18x12- 18x,2 + 82

8
-
C) 3Vx2+512 y5 yfl
S )+ 1
C) (x12 - 9)2 2+
82
3V7+3V5127 D) (x2 - 9)12 + 1
D)
3V?727
5
_
5 5^
_
A)
4 9Y
B)
8 . Which of the following accurately rewrites the
6. Which of the following expressions is NOT equal to expression - — in the form A ■ B'l
4x2 - 32x + 64? C)
6 -2
A) 4(x2 - 8x + 16) D)
6
B) (2x-8)2 J,
C) 4(x + 4)(x-4)
4(x - 4)2 4 k2)

D) '-1
5 • 32
36 f 37 9 v
\2y f
_5_
36
Passport to Advanced Math

151
If x2 - \2x = -11, and x> then x = 3. [x3-2x + 3] + [2x2 + 2x-4] =
A) x3-2x2-4x + 7
C)
B) 2x5
x3 + + 2x2
2x4-Sx3
-\ + Wx2 + 14x- 12
D) 3x2 - 1
2. What is the positive difference between the roots of 4. For which value of c does the equation 2jF + c = 8.v
the equation (x + l)2 = 16? have exactly 1 value for x?
A) 2
B) 5 B) 0
C) 8 A) 2-8
C)
D) 16 D) 8

-2
5. If lx + 3 = -x2, then a- =
A)
-7 ± V6T
B) -7±V37
2
C)
-3±V-19
14
D)
3±V37
2
6. (5 z8 - 2 z3 + z) - (-4Z4 + 2z 3 + z) =
A) 5z8 + 4-z4
B) 5z*-4** + 2z
C) 5z® - 4z* - 4 z3 + 2z
D) 5z8 + 4Z4 - 4z3
,A
I**
x2 + 3x - 10 3. Which of the following is an actual solution to the

1. If = 3 , then x =
x-2
equation \lx + 7 - x = 1 ?
A) -5
B) -4 A) -3
C) 2
C) -2 B) 3-2
D)
D) 2
x2-x _ jc + 24
CD
2. If 3Jx + 3 = 2 ,thenv = Cfl)
(T)
If x+4
— t -
x+4 T , then what is the value of
o
xl
o
A) 5 cf) 1
2 2 2
S ft) a 3
B) 1 4
5
4
(2)
5
4
5 5
6 6 0 6
2 (7) 7 7
C) -1 a 8
m
8
D) -3

5. Which of the following most completely expresses the
x + 12 _ x2
solution set of the equation -x- —3 - x- 3- ?
A) x = -4
B) x = -4, 3
C) x = -3, 4
D) x = 4
155
If x - y = 3 , then x 2 - 2 xy + y2 = 3. Ifx2-y2= 18,andx + y = 3,theny-x =

1 1 1
2 (f)
2 2
2
9.
3 3
4: 3 5
3 4 4
C5)
5 5 5
6 6 6 6 C)
A) 3-6
o'
7 7 7
8
3
8
3
8 8
9
D)
B) 6-3
A) -7
B)C)
D)
2. (2x-3)(x + 4) = 4. If x +49y = 7 and x2 + y2 = 42, then xy =
A) 2x2 + 5x- 12 7
B) 2x2 + x - 1 2 3.5
C) 2x2 + 1 lx +- 12
D) 3x + 1

A)
6. Which of the following graphs could be used to

36jc7+36^4 _
5. Where solve the system of equations
defined, 4Sxt+24x* ~
3x + 9 y = 2.x + 3 and x2 + y2 = 9?
A) 10
3(
24
x33
+6lx " B)
)
(2 + x10)
’x2+l
)
2(:
23(
2x3+x2)2
C)
D)
157
A) 24
B) ^
x4-7x3+21x2- 30x + 18 9. If x2 - y2 = 13 and x — y = 12, then x
7. Where defined, x2-4x + 6
157
C> 12
A) x2 - 3x + 3
B) X2- llx+ 17 D131
) 12
C) x4 - 7x3 + 3 1 .5
D) x2 - 3x - 3 157
13
x-2x-8x‘+2x + 4
8. When x * -2, x + 2
A) x3 - 4x2 + 2
B) x3 - 8x + 5
C) x3 - 2X2 - 8x + 1
D) x3 - 4x + 2

choices given.
y = ax2 + bx + c = 0. Which of the following must be pounds, exerted on an object by a wind can be found
3true of the graph of a quadratic equation when a < 0? using the equatio F - Ax (0.0025 x V2) x Cd,
n 6
. where A is the area of the object, V is the windspe
A) The parabola graphed opens downwards. e d
in miles per hour, and Cd is the drag coeffici of
B) The parabola graphed opens upwards. ent
the object. A boat has a square sail with a drag coef¬
C) There are two ^-intercepts.
ficie of 2. If the sides of the sail were halved, the
D) The slope of the graph is undefined for all values The gen nt
e r i c
velocity offortmhuelawind doubled and the drag coeffici
of x. for dete , ent
remaine t s t rwmini w b t c
d he ame, hen hat ng outlhde foerce,he hange
in force on the sail? F, in
.
1 The stan
dard for
m of a q A) The resulting force would be one-quarter the
uadratic
equation
is original force.
B) The resulting force would be one-half the
original force.
C) The resulting force would be equal to the
original force.
D) The resulting force would be double the original
force.
of its fact W of the foll must be true

ors. hich owin
abou the grap of /(x) g
t h ?
A) /(x) includes the point (2,0)
B) /(x) includes the point (0,2)
C) /(x) includes the point (-2, 0)
D) f{x) includes the point (0, -2)
lo ac re the fu /(
wi cu pr nc x)
ng ra es ti ?
te en on
ly t
A) fix) = x(x + 3)(x + 4)s
B) fix) = (x - 3)(x - 4)
C) fix) = (x + 3)(x-4)
D) fix) - x(x - 3)(x - 4)
159
graph of the function /(x) contains the points
6. The
could /? 0), and (3,0). Which

(-2, 0),be (|, of the following
A) /(x) = 2x3 + 3x2-17x + 30

B) f(x) = 2x3 - lx2 - lx + 30
C) /(x) = lx3 + lx2 - lx - 30
D) /(x) = 2X3 + 3x2 - 17x - 30
5. The equation y = (x - 2)2 + 3 is shown in the graph
above. Which of the following shows the graph of y
= 2(x- 2)2 + 3?

7. The value of the function / at every point .x is the sum
of the cube of x, x, and 3 . Which of the following
could be the graph of f(x)l

of the answer that you think is the best of the
For each question in this section, solve the problem and circle the letter
choices given.
A) -1-8
2
3 B) -4
C)
D)
.16
.
1 If /(a)
= 0.5 a3
- 4x2 +
x - 2, If g(x) = -/(a) + 1 , then which of the following
then /( could be the graph of g(a)?
2) =
The
gra
ph
of
/(a
)i
ss
how
n a
bov
e.
dolla a his credi card. Jerry mode h i

rs gains t ls is nitial
debt as follo t
ws:
x + y= 10,0
00
Jerry continues to use his line of credit and his credit
card, paying back the debt when his finances allow.
Six months later, Jerry’s debt can be modeled as fol¬
lows:
1.24a- + 0.76y= 10,480

Which of the following must be true?
A) The amount Jerry owes on his line of credit

increased over the six month period.
B) The amount Jerry owes on his credit card
increased over the six month period.
C) Initially, Jerry borrowed the same amount
against his line of credit as he borrowed against
his credit card.
D) After six months Jerry owed more on his credit
card than on his line of credit.
y bo
rrow
s x dol
lar s ag
ain st a
line
of cr
edit
and
y
3^|
5,
— +
2 3
Kinetic energy, K, in Joules (J), can be found using
1
( A f 3) + + can
5. The value of 1 +
the equation K — — mv , where m is the mass in
l 5J
kilograms (kg) and v is the velocity in meters per
, 5) v 5, ( *)
second (m/s). Which of the following equations rep¬ l 5the equation
be determined using T
1 — —
resents the velocity of a 17 kg object with a kinetic
energy of 19,763 J? s is theA) sum of the infinite geometric sequence , with
where
a common ratio less than 1 . Which of the following
2^19,763 equations could be used to determine the value of
17
A) v =
4 16 64 256 ?
^2 x 19,763 l + l + ± + *l+*L
17 1 s =
B) v =
2x19,763
4
17
C) v =
Vl7x 19,763
B) ^ 3
= 4
D) v
Q S=1+3
3
D) i_3
4
S = _J_

Chapter 10
Passport to
Advanced Math
Answers and
Explanations
1
1
5
5
7
1
1
1
3
1
.. .
.
ANSWER KEY
.
C
.
.
Passport to Advanced Math Drill 1 1.9

.
2. C
2. A
.
3. C
C
4. C
4. A 3. A
A
B
5. C
6. A
6.
A
C B
Passport to Advanced Math Drill 2 8. A

7. A
2. C 9. A
A
3. B Passport to Advanced Math Drill 6

4. C
2. C
5. C
6. C
C
3. C
4. D
8. D
6. AB
5.
11
7 D
2. C Passport to Advanced Math Drill 7
3. B
4. D 2. A
6. D 4. C
3. B
Passport to Advanced Math Drill 4 5. B
2. A
3. C
4.6
C

PASSPORT TO ADVANCED MATH ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Drill 1
make s = 4 and c = 3. Each cycle doubles the number of strands in the mixture, so if the
mixture starts with 4 strands, then after the first cycle there will be 8 strands. After the
second cycle there will be 16 strands, and after the third 32. This is your target. Make s = 4
and c = 3 in each answer choice. Only (C) equals 32.
quadratic function in the form y = a2 + bx + c, the x-value of the vertex is at - 2 . In this

1. case, a = I and b = 4, so the vertex will be at the point when x = -2. Only (C) fits.
C Plug In! Because 2 is in a couple
of the answer choices, avoi usin
If you don’t remember that formula, you can also find the d vertex g by
thatremembering
number. Instthat
ead, a
parabola is symmetrical. If you find the x-values for a given y-value, the midpoint between
the x-values will be the same as the x-value at the vertex. The easiest point to find is when
y = 0. You can factor x2 + 4x — 12 = 0 as (x + 6)(x — 2) = 0. Therefore, x = -6 or 2; the
midpoint is the average of the x-values: = -2 . Only (C) has an x-coordinate of -2.
3. C An acceleration of 3 g is equal to 3 x 9.8 = 29.4 m/s2. This is your aa value for the displace¬
ment equation. The variable t represents time both in the function and the displacement
1
equation. Therefore, the function should be f(t) = ^ (29 A)(f), or \4.7t2. This matches (C).
2.
4.C A Iher
You are alooking
e are for an
few ways equation which is equivalent to the equation y = x2 - 2x + 8, so if
to sol ve this oblem. Th
you Plug In a value for x into this pr e answer
equation, the easiest will
is togive you
reme the same value for y.
mber that, given a
Make x = 2, and you findy = 22 - 2(2) + 8 = 8. That’s your target. Make x = 2 and elimi¬
nate choices which do not equal 8. The only choice which works is (A).
Algebraically, if a quadratic function is shown in the standard form ax2 + bx + c = 0, then
the vertex has an x value equal to ~ 2 a , so x2 - 2x + 8 has a vertex °f _ 2 (1) ^

means the vertex form of the equation should include (x- lj2 (note the vertex form is (x-
hf + k, so you need to subtract lj; eliminate (Bj and (Dj. To find they value of the vertex,
plug x = 1 into the equation: y= l2 - 2(1) + 8 = 7, so the vertex form should bey = (x- l)2
+ 7, (A).
5. B Plug In! In a case like this, where the growth is exponential, it’s best to start at t = 0 and
determine the first few values of f(t) one at a time. When t = 0, you’re at the start of the
experiment, so there’s only 1 bacterium in the petri dish. Choice (A) equals 0 when t =
0, so eliminate it. At t = 1, the bacterium has split into 2 bacteria, so /( 1) = 2. Out of the
remaining choices, only (Bj equals 2 when t= 1.
Passport to Advanced Math Answers and Explanations

6. A Remember your MADSPM exponent rules: you Add exponents when you re Multiplying, and
you Subtract exponents when you’re Dividing. In addition, when everything is multiplied together,
you can gather the terms in one fraction. Therefore, you can rewrite the expression as follows.
-+1 1—
32 -5 2= 32 -3 552 32-3-5
. 5
To simplify the fractions in the exponents, rewrite using parentheses:

^iV ■3-5
( jy
32 -3-3 vr )
\ / A
Rewrite the exponent of 9 as a square root, and combine the terms with no exponent and the terms to
the exponent of t: \3“
f >Y
V 3-5 (Sj "3 Y
= 3 • 5 • V— =4= 152
3 V'5 )
( fY
V )
This is (A).
52 '
(75)
Drill 2
1. C The relationship between volume and side length in a cube is given by the equation V= s3. If Cube A
has a volume of 3, then 3 = s3. If you take the cube root of each side, then you find that the side of Cube
A is V3. Similarly, the side of cube B is x/9. The ratio of side lengths is therefore s/3 : x/9 . However, the
answer choices have fractional exponents. The cube root of a number is the same as that number to the
power of t . So, you can rewrite ^5 : as 33 ; 9 3. Closer, but you still need to get rid of that 9. 9 is
equal to 32, so you can substitute that into your ratio to get 3 3 : (32 ) 3 • The exponents rules tell you to
multiply exponents when there are parentheses; doing so gives you a ratio of 33 ; 3 3, which is (C).
2. C One approach is to Plug In! Make x = 3: 2(33) + 4(32) + 2(3) = 2(27) + 4(9) + 6 = 54 + 36 + 6 = 96. This
is your target. Make x = 3 in each answer choice and eliminate any choice which doesn’t equal 96. The
only choice which works is (C).
Another approach is to factor. All the terms are divisible by 2x, so you can factor that out, and you get
2x(a4 + 2x + 1). The quadratic expression in the parenthesis is the common quadratic x2 + 2 xy + yr =
(x + y)2, so you can factor the quadratic expression: 2x(x + l)2.

All of the answer choices are created by completing the square. You can tell because each answer
choice has a binomial squared. In this case, because the coefficient with x2 is not 1, completing the
square will be a pain. Instead, Plug In. Make x = 2. This makes the original expression 4(2)2 + 12(2)
+ 14 = 16 + 24 + 14 = 54. This is your target. Make x = 2 in each answer choice and eliminate what
doesn’t equal 54. Only (B) works.
Start by rewriting the equation with the x terms andy terms listed together:
x2 — 6x + y2 + 8y = 0
Next, to get the equation into standard form, you want to complete the square. Start with the x terms.
Take half of the coefficient on the x (-6), square it, and add that to both sides. Half of -6 is 3, and 32
is 9, so add 9 to both sides of the equation:
x2 — 6x+9+y2 + 8y=9
Now x2 - 6x + 9 is a perfect square; it factors into (x - 3)2, so you can rewrite the equation:
(x - 3)2 + y2 + 8y = 9
You can do the same to they terms. Half of 8 is 4, and 42 = 16, so add 16 to both sides of the equation:
(x — 3)2 + y2 + 8y + 16 = 9+ 16
Nowy2 + 8y + 16 is a perfect square; it factors into (x + 4)2, so you can rewrite the equation again:
(x- 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 25
That matches (D). Note you do not need to take the square root of 25; that would change the value of
the equation. Instead, the radius is left squared.
The easiest way to approach this problem is to Plug In. Exponents with a denominator of 3 are the
same
2 as cube
5_ roots, so pick numbers which are easy to take the cube root of. Make x = 27 andy = 8:
273 + 8 (8)3 = (
^27 )2 +8 (^8 )5 = 32 +8 (25 ) = 9 + 256 = 265
265 is your target. Next. Make x = 27 andy = 8 in your answers. The only answer which works is (C).
Alternatively, you may remember your rules with regards to radicals: you can combine with addition
and subtraction only if the stuff within the radical is the same. In this case, the first term will have an
x in the radical, the second term ay. The radicals aren’t the same, so they can’t be combined. The only
choice which doesn’t combine the radicals is (C).
Plug in! Make x = 2. 4(22) - 32(2) + 64 = 16. This is your target. Make x = 2 in each answer choice and
look for the choice that does NOT equal 16. Choice (C) is your answer; it equals -48 when x = 2.

7. C One approach to this question is to Plug In. Make x = 2: 224 - 18(2’ 2) + 82 = 16,703,570. This is your
target. Make x = 2 in each answer choice and eliminate what doesn’t equal 16,703,570:
A) (212 - (2) 6 Vl8)2 + 82 = 14,626,660.4

B) 224 + 18(2)12 - 18(27 2 + 82 = 16,777,134
C) (212 - 9)2 + 1 = 16,703,570
D) (22 - 9)12 + 1 = 244,140,626
Only (C) works.
Another approach is to take each answer choice and expand it out. Choice (B) is the most easily elimi¬
nated, as 18x12 - 18x12 = 0, leaving you with x24 + 82, which won’t equal x24- 18x12 + 82. Choices
(A) and (C) are more easily evaluated if you remember the common quadratic (x - y)1 = x2 - 2 xy + y2.
Choice (A) therefore expands to x24 - 2x18 >fl8 + 18x12 + 82; not what you want. Choice (C) expands
to x24 — 18x12 + 81 + 1, or x24 — 18x12 + 82. Choose (C).
Choice (D) is nasty: (x2 - 9)12 is the same as (x2 — 9) (x2 - 9) (x2 - 9) (x2 - 9) (x2 - 9) (x2— 9) (x2 - 9)
(x2 - 9) (x2 - 9) (x2 - 9) (x2 - 9) (x2 - 9), which expands out to 13 separate terms. Definitely not what
we’re looking for.
Finally, you can try factoring the original expression. The trick here is recognizing that x24 - 18x12
+ 82 is almost x24 — 18x12 + 81, which, as discussed before, is (x12 — 9)2. Therefore, you’re looking for
(x12 - 9)2 + 1, which is (C).
8. D To put the expression in the form A • B' you need to separate the t exponents from the rest of the
expression. To do so, remember your MADSPM exponent rules. When you divide, you subtract
exponents, so the expression 32t 1 in the numerator is the equivalent of ~ . You multiply exponents
when you have parentheses, and you want to isolate the t as the only exponent in the expression to
get to A ■ B‘ form. Therefore, you can rewrite 32t as (32)', or 9‘. Therefore, 32t_1 = Similarly, in the
denominator, 2t + 1 = 2C + 2. \2t
With these factors in mind, we can turn to the original expression. Use the above equations and
substitute in to the expression:
5-3 2t-\
6-2 6- 2‘ ■ 2 cp
Move the 3 in the denominator of 7^ to the denominator
of the primary fraction and rearrange the
terms so the terms to the power of t are to the right of the terms that are to no power:
5
9‘
6-2' -2 2 -3-6 -2'

Finally, multiply terms to no power together and rewrite everything as the product of two fractions:
5 -9* 5 (9^
9'
5-9' 5-9f
2- 3-6-2' 36-2' \2)
36
This is (D).

Drill 3
1. 11 The given equation is a quadratic. Start by setting the quadratic equal to 0: x2 - 12x +11=0. Next,
factor the quadratic. 11 is prime; it only has integer factors 1 and 11. Those equal to 12, so you can
factor this quadratic to (x — ll)(x- 1) = 0. This means that x = 11 or x = 1. However, the question indi¬
cated that x > 1, so the only possible value of x is 11.
2. C There are a few ways to approach this question. One way is to manipulate the quadratic equation into
the form ax1 + bx + c = 0 then factor or use the quadratic formula to solve. However, an easier way is
to begin by taking the square root of both sides:
-y/(x+l)2 = VT 6
x + 1 = ± 4
That means the two roots are when x + 1 = 4 and x + 1 = -4. Solving these two equations, you find
that the roots are at x = 3, -3. The difference between the roots is therefore 3 - (-3) = 8, (C).
3. B One approach to this question is to Plug In. Make x = 2. The question then becomes [23 - 2(2) + 3] +
[2(22) + 2(2) — 4] = [8 — 4 + 3] + [8 + 4 - 4] = 7 + 8 = 15. That is your target. Make x = 2 in each answer
choice and look for the choice which equals 15.
You can also add the terms together. Addition can be done in any order, so it’s best to start by rewriting
the terms in order from greatest to least degree:
x3 + 2X2 — 2x + 2x + 3 — 4
Then combine like terms:
x3 + 2X2 + Ox — 1
Remove the Ox term, and you get x3 + 2X2 — 1, which is (B).
4. D The first step is to recognize that the equation is a quadratic function. As with all quadratic equations,
set the equation equal to 0:
2X2 + c - 8x
— 8x — 8x
2X2 — 8x + c = 0
Now, there are a few ways you can approach the problem at this point. First, you can Plug In the
Answers. The question wants the value of c, so start by testing (C) and making c = 2:
2x2 — 8x + 2 = 0
Now, solve the quadratic and determine whether there’s only one value of x. If you try to factor, you’ll
find that the quadratic doesn’t break into nice binomials; this is probably not the answer, so test
another answer. Try (D), c = 8:
2X2 — 8x + 8 = 0
Factor out a 2 then factor:
2(x2 - 4x + 4) = 0
2(x-2)(x-2) = 0
x— 2 = 0, sox=2
There’s only one value for x, so (D) is the answer.
Passport to Advanced Math Answers and Explanations | 171

c
Alternatively, you can use the discriminant. In a quadratic function, the discriminant is b1 — 4ac,
when the quadratic is in the form ax1 + bx + c = 0. A quadratic will have exactly one value of x when
the discriminant is equal to 0.
Using the equation given, you can put in the values of a and b and solve for c:
(-8)2 - 4(2)(c) = 0
64- 8c = 0
-8c = -64
c = 8
This is (D).
B To solve this quadratic equation, first set the equation equal to zero by adding x1 to both sides; you
get x1 + lx + 3 = 0. This won’t factor nicely; 3 only has integer factors 1 and 3, which don’t add up to
7. Furthermore, the answer choices give away that the result isn’t pretty. In this case, use the quadratic
2 a
formula: x = — , when the equation is in the form ax1 + bx + c. In this case, a - 1 , b - 7,
and c = 3. Plug in these values and solve:
2(1)
_ -7± V?2 -4(1)(3)
x =
-7 ± V49-12
2
x = -7±V37
This
X =
is (B).
6. D Start by distributing the negative in the second set of parentheses by switching all the “+” signs to
signs and vice versa:
(5z8 — 2 z? + z) — (-4z 4 + 2z 3 + z) - (5zH - 2zi + z) + (+ AzA - 2z? - z) =

Next, list the terms in order of greatest to least degree:
5z? + AzA - 2 z1 - 2z 3 + z-z
Combine like terms:
5z? + 4z4 — 4z?

This is (D).

rSj
Drill 4
= 3
ence of 3. 2 and 3 work. Because the b term (3x) is positive, make the larger factor positive:
(x + 5)(x-2)
x — 2
You can then cancel (x — 2) in the numerator and denominator, so you’re left with x + 5 = 3. Subtract
5 from both sides and you find that x = -2, which is (C).
Note that you can eliminate (D) immediately, as you cannot have a value of x which would cause the
1.C Factor the numera
denominator of ator
fraction
of thetofraction
equal .0. You want two numbers which are factors
of 10 and have a differ¬
(7771)3=23
x + 3 = 8
Subtract 3 from both sides:
x= 5
This is (A).
equation:
yll + 7 -2 = 1
79-2 = 1
3 - 2 = 1
2 1 = 1
.
A To clearThis works, so choose (C).
a cube r
oot, cube
both sid
es here’s
of the how go about this question. Start by adding x to both sides to
If you want to use algebra, equatto
ion:
isolate the radical:
y/x + 7 =X + 1
Square both sides to clear the radical. Don’t forget to FOIL the right side of the equation:
x+7 = x2 + 2x+ 1
Because you’re solving a quadratic equation, set the equation equal to 0:

0 = x? + x— 6
Factor to find the values of x:
0 = (x+ 3)(x— 2)
*=-3,2
Because your original equation contains a radical (and you’re stuck between two answers), you need to
check for extraneous solutions. You saw what happens when you plug x = 2 into the equation; see what
happens when * = -3:

7-3 + 7 -(-3) = 1
2 + 3=1
3C . 5 = 1 (?!?)
Plug In the Answers!
Negative numbers
are tricky to work wit
This obviously isn’t true; * = -3 is an extraneous solution h, so staequation.
to this rt with (C). Make
x = 2 in the
173
Passport to Advanced Math Answers and Explanations |
4. 6
Start by multiplying both sides by x + 4 to clear the fractions. You’re left with x2 - x = x + 24. This is
a quadratic, so set it equal to 0. This results in the equation x2 - 2x - 24 = 0. Factor this equation to
solve. 24 has factors 4 and 6 that have a difference of 2, so you can factor this equation as (x + 4)(x—6)
= 0. This means that x = -4, 6. Tfowever, your original equation has x + 4 in the denominator of both
fractions. If x = -4, then you are dividing by 0, which is not allowed. Therefore, the only actual solu¬
tion to this equation is x = 6.
5. C Begin by multiplying both sides by x— 3 to clear the fraction:
x + 12 = x2
Because this equation is a quadratic, set it equal to 0:
x2 -x - 12 = 0
Factor. 12 has factors 3 and 4 which have a difference of 1, so the quadratic factors as follows:
(x + 3)(x- 4) = 0
This means that x equals -3 or 4. Because your initial equation had fractions with variables in the
denominator, you need to check against the original. Neither -3 nor 4 make the denominators of the
original fractions equal to 0, so both are actual values of x.
Drill 5
1. 9 There are a couple ways to approach this problem. One would be to Plug In. Use the first equation and
make x = 5 andy = 2. Plug these values into the second equation and you get 52 - 2(5)(2) + 22 = 9.
Another approach is to recognize the common quadratic (x - y)2 = x2 - 2xy + y2. Therefore, if x-y = 3,
then x2 - 2 xy + y2 = (x~y)2 - 32 = 9.
2. A One approach is to use the FOIL technique: First, Outside, Inside, Last. In other words, you multiply
the first terms, then the outside terms, then the inside terms, then the last terms, then add the prod¬
ucts. Be careful with negatives:
(2x)(x) - 2X2
(2x)(4) - 8x
(-3)(x) = -3x
(-3) (4) = -12
2X2 + 8x + (-3x) + (-12) = 2X2 + 5x— 12
This is (A).
Alternatively, you can Plug In. Make x = 2, so (2(2) - 3) (2 + 4) = (1)(6) = 6. This is your target. Make
x = 2 in each answer choice. The only choice which equals 6 when x = 2 is (A).

3. The quadratic x2 - y 2 factors into (x + y)(x-y). You can substitute x + y = 3 in for the first factor, so you
get 3 (x — y) = 18. Divide both sides by 3, and you find that x—y = 6. If you multiply both sides of this
equation by -1, you find that — x + y = -6, which can be written as y — x - -6, which is (A).
4. C This question is testing your knowledge of the common quadratic (x + y)2 = x2 + 2 xy + y2. The key
to recognizing this is noticing that the question is asking for xy, which is half the middle term that
results when you square the first equation. The xy term is also conveniently left out of the second equa¬
tion; this is another clue that the common quadratic may be useful.
To solve this problem, square the first equation. You get x2 + 2 xy + y2 = 49. Now you can stack this
equation with the second equation and subtract to isolate the xy term:
x2 + 2 xy + y2 = 49
-[x2 +/=42]
2 xy = 7
To solve for xy, divide both sides of this equation by 2. You find that xy = 3.5, which is (C).
5. C Start by factoring the numerator and denominator of the fraction. Look for the greatest factors of the
terms; that way you determine the simplest form of the fraction. The greatest factor of 36x7 and 3 6x4 is
36x4, and the greatest factor of 48x6 and 24x4 is 24x4. You can use the Distributive Property to factor
36x4 from the numerator and 24x4 from the denominator:
36x7 + 36x4 _ 36x (x3+l)

48x6+ 24x4 24x4 (2x2+l)
Now you can reduce the fraction. The parenthetical expressions cannot be reduced, but you can
36x4 _ 3 36x4 (x3+l) 3(x3+l)

reduce the terms in front. 2^4 ~~2> so 7ou can simplify 24x4 ^2x2+l) t0 2 (^xN-T) ’ w^ic^ is
6. A Start with the easiest piece of information first. You need the line y = 2x + 3 as part of your answer.
This equation is already in y = mx + b form, so you can look for the features of the line right from this
equation. This line has a positive slope of 2, so the line should go from bottom-left to upper-right;
eliminate (D). Next, the line has ay-intercept of 3, so it needs to cross they-axis at (0, 3); eliminate (B).
The other equation, x2 + y2 = 9, describes a circle centered on the origin using the circle equation
x2 + y2 = r2, where r is the radius of the circle. In this case, r2 = 9, so r = 3. Therefore, the point at the
top of the circle should be 3 units from the origin; in other words, point (0, 3), not (0, 9). Eliminate
(C) and choose (A). If you don’t remember how this formula works, plug the given points into the
equation and eliminate choices which are not true with those points.
175
7. A The easiest way to approach this problem is to Plug In. Make x -2\
24 -7(2)3 + 21(2)2 - 30(2) + 18 _ 16-56 + 84-60 + 18 _ 2
22- 4(2) + 6 ~ 4-8 + 6 ~ 2

1 is your target. Make x =2 in your answers and eliminate choices which do not equal 1.
Only (A) works.
8. A Plug in! Make x = 2. The problem then becomes:
24 — 2(2)3— 8(2)2 +2(2) + 4 _ -24 _

2 + 2 4
-6 is your target. Make x = 2 in each answer choice and eliminate any choice that doesn’t equal -6.
The only answer choice which equals -6 when x = 2 is (A).
9. A The first equation is the difference of squares. Factor the left side:
(x + y)(x—y) = 13
You can then substitute x—y = 12 for the right set of parentheses:
(x + y)(12) = 13
13
x+y= X2
You now have two linear equations. To isolate x, you can stack the two equations and add; they terms
will cancel:
13
x—y = 12
+ x+y= 13
12
2x - 12 + x2
13 157 144 13 137

To add 12 and \2 > make 12 into a fraction over 12; 12 = \2 » so 12 +\2 ~ 12 • Be careful! This is
the value of 2x; to find x, divide by 2. You find that x = 24 > (A).

Drill 6
1. A
Plug In! It’s easiest to graph a quadratic if you make the equation as simple as possible. Make a - -1, b
= 0, and c - 0, so the equation is simply y - -x2. If you have a graphing calculator, you can graph it, or
you can sketch out points on a rough xy coordinate plane. Either way, you end up with a graph like
this:
This opens down, so keep (A) and eliminate (B). The parabola touches the x-axis only at point (0,
0), so (C) is also incorrect. Finally, an undefined slope is a vertical line; this graph isn’t vertical at all
points, so eliminate (D) and choose (A).
If (x + 2) is one of the factors of fix), then fix) = 0 when (x + 2) = 0. Solving (x + 2) = 0 for x shows you
that x = -2. This means that, on the graph of fix), when x = -2, y = 0. Point (-2, 0) therefore must be
included in the graph of fix)-, this is (C).
3. C
Because you have a square sail and the sides of the square are changing, you can substitute s2 for A in
the original equation. Because everything in the equation is multiplied, you can rearrange the terms
in the equation. Substituting A = s2 and Cd- 2 into the equation and moving the variables to the front,
the original force is as follows:
A=Ax V2 x 0.00236 x 2
r
The side of the sail is halved, so if the original side is s, the new side is ^ . Similarly, if the velocity is
doubled and the original velocity was V, the new velocity is 2V. The equation for the new force is as
follows:
F
f s /f2x (2 VO2 x 0.00256
vz x 2
Square both terms:
F= 4V2 x 0.00256 x 2
The 4 coefficient on V cancels with the denominator of 4, so you’re left with:

F=Fx V2 x 0.00256 x2
This is what you started with, so the force on the sail hasn’t changed.
Passport to Advanced Math Answers and Explanations 177

4. D
Every time the graph of /(x ) crosses the x-axis, there is a zero of the function at that point. The answer
choices are in factored form, so you can simply look for the answer choices which have the zeroes
you need. The function goes through the origin, point (0,0). That means the function should include
(x + 0), or x, as a factor. Eliminate (B) and (C). The function also crosses the x-axis at (3,0) and (4,0).
You would therefore have factors (x - 3) and (x - 4). The factors have a minus sign because when you
plug in the values ofxat the zeroes, the factor itself becomes zero. For instance, when x = 3, the factor
(x - 3) becomes (3 - 3) or 0. Therefore, your answer is (D).
If you don’t remember these rules, you can also Plug In on the question. The graph includes the points
(0,0), (3,0), and (4,0). Input those values for x in each function and eliminate the answer if the func¬
tion does not equal 0 when x equals 0, 3, or 4.
5. A The given equation is in the vertex form of a quadratic: y = a{x — h)2 + k. In this form, the vertex of the
equation is at point (h , k). The graph you’re looking for in the answers doesn’t change the vertex of the
original equation; eliminate (C) and (D), because they change the vertex. The variable a in the vertex
form makes the graph become wider or narrower. If a > 1, the graph becomes narrow; choose (A).
Choice (B) flipped the graph, which requires a negative value for a.
6. B
Plug In the points given into the answers. Make x = -2 into each answer and eliminate the choices
which do not equal 0:
A) /(- 2)= 2(-2)3 + 3(-2)2 - 17(-2) + 30 = 60

B) /(- 2)= 2(-2)3 - 7(-2)2 - 7(-2) + 30 = 0
C) /(- 2) = 2(-2)3 + 7(-2)2 - 7(-2) - 30 = -4
D) /(- 2) = 2(-2)3 + 3(-2)2 - 17(— 2) - 30 = 0
Eliminate (A) and (C), because they do not equal 0 when x = -2. Try another point in the remaining
3
answers. ^ h unpleasant to deal with, so make x = 3 in (B) and (D):
B) /(3)= 2(3)3 - 7(3)2 - 7(3) + 30 = 0

D) /(3) = 2(3)3 + 3(3)2 - 17(3) - 30 = 0
5
Ugh. Gotta try ^ :
5
B) /(f)= 2(f)3
7(^)5 + 30 = 0
7(T)2
D) /( “ ) = 2( - )3 + 3( 2 )2 - 17( 2 ) - 30 = -22.5
The answer is (B).

Start by determining the expression of fix). Translate English to math. “The value of the function / at
every point x” is just a fancy way of saying “/(%)”. The word “is” represents the equals sign. “The sum
of” means to add the terms that follow. “The cube of x” is x3, and “x and 3” are, well, x and 3. This
therefore translates to fix) - x3 + x + 3.
Now, you need to determine what the graph is going to look like. The degree of this function is 3
because the highest exponent on the variable is 3. The variable with the degree of 3 has a coefficient of
1. This means the graph should start out on the bottom-left and go upward as it goes right. Eliminate
(C), as it goes upward both to the left and to the right (this graph likely has an even degree). Next,
Plug In using the function. It’s probably easiest to start with x = 0, because /(0) = 03 + 0 + 3 = 3. Your
graph needs point (0,3), so eliminate (A). Comparing (B) and (D), the graphs most obviously differ
in the negative range, so choose a negative number. Make x = -2, so /(- 2) = (-2)3 + (-2) + 3 = -8 - 2
+ 3 = -7. Point (-2, -7) should be on the graph. Choice (B) does not have a negative value for /(- 2), so
eliminate it and choose (D).
To find the value of /(2) when given the equation of fix), you need to make x = 2 every time it appears
in the function:
/(2) = 0.5(23) - 4(22) + 2 -2

/(2) = 0.5(8) -4(4) + 2-2
/(2) = 4-16 + 2-2
/(2) = -12
This is (A).
179
2. A Use the two equations provided, keeping in mind that x represents the initial amount on the line of
credit andy the initial amount on the credit card. The initial equation shows that x + y - 10,000, so
the debts of the line of credit and the credit card must add up to 10,000. The second equation has
the x value multiplied by 1.24. This must mean that the amount owed on the line of credit, x, is 1.24
times greater than the initial amount on the line of credit. Therefore, the amount Jerry owes on the
line of cred it must have increased, so choose (A).
Choice (B) cannot be true by using similar logic. Initially, Jerry owedy dollars on his credit card. After
six months, the value is 0.76y. The amount owed on the credit card after six months is 0.76 times
the initial amount. Because 0.76 is less than 1, the amount owed on the credit card decreased, not
increased, over the six month period.
Choices (C) and (D) require solving the system of equations. On the test, save answers like these until
you’ve considered all the other choices, as either one of the answers is definitely true (such as (A) here),
every answer but one is false (which makes the remaining answer correct), or multiple choices require
some work. We can use the work for (C) to work (D) here.
To solve the system of equations, you have a few options. Often it’s best to stack the equation and add
or subtract to cancel out a variable. Here, you can’t simply stack; you have to multiply one equation
first. Cancel out the x terms by multiplying the first equation by 1.24, then stacking and subtracting:
1.24 [x+y= 10,000] -> 1.24* + 1.24y = 12,400

Now stack and subtract:
\.24x + 1.24 y= 12,400

- n.24x+0.76y= 10.4801
0.48y = 1,920
Divide both sides by 0.48 and you find that y = 4,000. Substitute y - 4,000 into the equation x + y =
10,000 and you find that x + 4,000 = 10,000, or x = 6,000. Therefore, initially Jerry owed 6,000 on
his line of credit and 4,000 on his credit card. This disproves (C). Six months later, he owes more on
his line of credit and less on his credit card, so (D) is definitely false as well.
3. B The transformations represented by g(x) = -fix) + 1 are as follows. The negative sign in front of fix)
means that gix) is flipped upside-down from fix); eliminate (C), as it’s the same direction as fix). The
“+ 1” moves the whole graph up one unit. The easiest point to look for is they-intercept. They-intercept
of fix) is at 0; the graph of g(x) therefore has ay-intercept of 1. Out of the remaining answers only (B)
has ay-intercept of 1.

4. C
Plug in the values you are given. The units let you know what value goes where: 17 kg gives you m,
and 19,763 is K. This makes the equation the following:
19,763 = ~(l7)y2
Now you want to isolate v. Start by multiplying both sides by 2 to clear the fraction:
2 -19,763 = 17v2

2-19,763 2
-
17 = v
Finally, take the square root of both sides. Be sure to take the square root of both the numerator and
denominator of = vthe fraction:
2-19,763
V 17
This is (C).
5. B There are a couple of ways to go about this question. One way is to grab your calculator and find the
3 9 27 81
value of 1 + ~ ~ + 2^, (stopping there and not going on forever). You find that it equals 3.05.
Because you stopped the sequence early (i.e. before the infinite term), you know the answer needs
to be greater than 3.05. Choice (A) equals 1.33; you can eliminate that answer. Choice (B) equals 4.
That’s greater than 3.05 (actually, a lot greater); it may seem too big, but it’s worth keeping for now.
’
16
Choice (C) equals 0.57; definitely too small, so eliminate it. Choice (D) equals 3; that’s close to 3.05,
but you know the answer MUST be greater than 3.05, so (D) can’t be the answer. Eliminate (D) and
choose (B).
Another approach is to use the equation provided and see how it applies to the second scenario. The
( 3
-\\ ( 3a\2 ( 3 2\3 ( a\4
first scenario, 1 + + + + , has the sum of a sequence in which the terms after
V 57
k 57 k 57
V 5,
_3 _3 ( a V 9
the first are consecutive powers of ^ . In the equation given we see the ^ in the denominator
3
'3 V 3 9 27 81 3 is equal
being subtracted from 1. In the new scenario, 1 + — + “ + — + 256 ’ 4 *S eclua^ to k 4 y
3
to
<4 , and so on. Therefore, all the terms after the first are consecutive powers of ^ . Our equation
1
to find the sum of this sequence should therefore be 5 3 , which is (B).
1-
181
\
Chapter 11
Additional Topics
Additional Topics Drill 1
'?
A) B)
C)
D)
3. The figure above shows A ABC. If ZACB = 20°,

BC
which of the following is closest to the length of
30
33
31
34
Roy has a block of wood in the shape of a

rectangular solid with a width and height of
3 inches and a length of 12 inches. For the
purpose of shipping, he places the block of
wood in a cylindrical cardboard tube with
an inside length of 12 inches, such that the
four long edges of the block of wood touch
the inside of the tube, as shown in the figure
above. What is the inside volume, in cubic
inches, of the tube before the block of wood
is inserted? (Round your answer to the near¬
est cubic inch.)
Y
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

2. A cylindrical water tank has a diameter of 20 meters
and a height of 20 meters. If the tank currently holds 4. In AXYZ shown above, ZXYZ = 54°, ZYZX = 36°,
1600 cubic meters of water, what is the approximate and YZ = 12. What is the length of XY ?
depth of the water in the tank?
A) 5 m
A) 7.05
B) 10 m
C) 15 m B) 8.71
D) 20 m C) 9.72
D) 13.93
5. If r = -1 and (4 + 2/)(6 - ki) = 30, what
is the value of k ?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
6. What is the value of (3 + 4/)(3 - 4z)?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 9
D) 25
Additional Topics 185
S'
choices given.
- Jt
X
1. If 0 < x < —2 and sinx = y, what is the value of 3 . Points A and B lie on circle O as shown below.
-y
(Jt \
'ZBOA is 45°. If the area of circle O is 64 jt, what is
cos — in terms of y ?
the length of minor arc AB1
A) u )
B
B)
C)
D) y
f
f
l-
B) 4jt
C) 8ji
D) 16jc
2. Minor arc PQ in circle O below is 2jt. If

ZPQO is 45°, what is the area of the shaded
region?
P
4. In the figure below, QS and PT are parallel. If

RS - 8, PR = 16, and PT = 10, what is the length
of QS 2
R
B) 4it
C) 8ji
D) 1 6jc
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16

5. Right triangle ABC, shown below, has a base of 4 6. Lines / and m, shown below, are parallel. Lines a and
inches and a hypotenuse of 8 inches. If the height of b intersect as shown. If segment DE is 12 and CE is 6,
the triangle is between 4 in and 8 in, what is the angle which is the length of AB if AC is 1 8?
measure of ZC?
8
B) 45 B) 18
C) 60 C) 24
D) 90 D) 36
e
B)
For each question in this section, solve the problem and circle the letter of theA)answer that you think is the best of the
choices given.
C)
1. In rectangle PQRS, shown below, the diagonal PR 3. A child sits in a tree 9 meters off the ground. His line
is 15 meters. If the sine of ZSPR is 7/10, what is the D)
value of RS7 of sight to the ground forms a 36° angle with the tree
If he is looking at a cat on the ground, approximately
how far is the cat from the base of the tree in feet?
6.5
11.0
13.8
15.0
A)
B)
C) 0.01
D) 0.70
7.0
10.5
4. In the xy-plane, a circle is centered on the

origin and the point (p , q) lies on the circumfer¬
ence of the circle. What is the radius of the circle,
in terms of p and q ?
A) p + q
B) p-q
2. In the figure below, ABC is an isosceles triangle. The
height of the triangle, BD, is 8 cm. AB = BC = 10.
What is the value of tan C? C) p2 + q 2
D) V/ + T
B
A) 10/6
B) 6/8
C) 8/6
D) 6/10

1
5. The diameter of the circle falls on the line y-^x+A.
If the radius of the circle is 4, which of the following
could be the equation of the circle?
A) (x + 4)2+(y + 6)2=4
B) (x- 2)2 + (y - 5)2= 16
C) (x - 2)2 + (y + 3)2 = 4
D) (x + 2)2+ (y + 5)2= 16
6. What is the radius of a circle represented by the

equation x2 + y2 - 6x + 4y = 12?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
p*c
Chapter 12
Additional Topics
Answers and
Explanations
1
.
ANSWER KEY

170
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. D

1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
3. C
6. D

1. D
2. C
3. A
4. D
3. B
6. A

ADDITIONAL TOPICS ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
Drill 1
1. 170
Draw a diagonal line connecting opposite corners of the end of the rectangular solid. This
diagonal divides the 3x3 square into a pair of 45°-45°-90° right triangles, so the diagonal
is 3V2 . The diagonal is also the inside diameter of the tube, so the radius is
3V2 . The
formula for the volume of a cylinder is ter2/?, so the volume is n (12) = 169.64,
which rounds up to 170.

2
a/ty
2. A
The height of the water tank doesn’t matter in this problem. Simply use the formula for
2
volume of a cylinder {V = n fh ) and plug in the information you have.l It should look like
this: 1600 = (3.14)(102)A When you solve for h, you get a number very close to 5. Since the
question asks for the approximate depth of the water, (A) is the best answer.
3. D
Use SOHCAHTOA to find the trig function you need. For ZACB , we have the adja-
cent side, and we need the hypotenuse, so cos 20°= — . Rearrange this equation to get
32 *
0 32
A ~~ cos( 20° ) > then use y°ur calculator to find that x is just a tiny bit more than 34.
4. A
Start by findingXYZYXZ. It’s 90°! That makes things easier! To find XY, use the sine func-
tion: sin 36°= — , therefore (12) (sin36°) = 7.05. Remember not to trust the figure if it’s
not to scale.
3. A
Start by multiplying the equation out: 24 — Aki + 12 ki — = 30. Since , = —2k, and 24 — Aki
+ 12 ki - (-2k ) = 30. The only way that the left side of the equation can equal 30 is if all the
imaginary parts of the equation cancel out. Therefore, we can discard the remaining terms
that contain i, leaving 24 + 2k = 30. Solve this to get k=3. Alternatively, if imaginary parts
cancel out, we could set them equal to 0, so —Aki + 12 i = 0, and Ak = 12; therefore k - 3.
6. D
Use FOIL to multiply the expression to get 9 + 12/ - 12/ - 16/2. Since 1= -1, and the two
\2is cancel out, you are left with 9+16, which is 25.
Additional Topics Answers and Explanations | 193

Drill 2
is equal to the cosine of the other. Since 2 radians = 90°, these two angles are complementary, and
71
therefore the sine of x is equal to the cosine of T/ ~ x .
That makes ZPOQ 90°, so arc PQ is lA the circumference of the circle. That makes the circumference
1. B The answer is (B). When two angles are complementary (meaning they
add up
871. From there, you can find the radius of the circle, which is 4, making the toarea
90°),of the
the sine of one
circle 1671.
Since the shaded region of the circle is lA of the circle, the area of the shaded region is 47t.
I671. Since Z.BOA is 43°, which is 1/8 of the 360°of a circle, the length of arc AB will be 1/8 of the
circumference. 1/8 of 1671 is 2n, (A).
4. A Because QS and PT are parallel and both triangles share ZP, you know the two triangles are similar.
8 _ x
2. Therefore, the sides are proportional. Set up a proportion using similar sides: ^ — ^ q . Solve for x and
B Because OP and OQ are radii, triangle
you get 5. POQ_ is isosceles. This means that if
Z.PQO is 45°, so is z '.PQO .
5. C First label your figure. Since the missing side is between 4 and 8, you know ZC has to be larger than
AB but less than 90. Eliminate 90 and 30. Because the sides aren’t equal, the angles will not be equal
either, so you can eliminate (B). That leaves (C). You may also recognize that a right triangle with
a hypotenuse twice that of one of its sides is a 30-60-90 triangle, with the 60° angle opposite the
middle-length side.
6. D ZABC is equal to Z.CDE because they are formed by line b intersecting two parallel lines. Angles
BAC and CED are equal for the same reason. The 12two opposite angles at point C are equal, so triangles
3.
A You know the area is 647
t, so you can solve for
the radius, which is 8.
CDE and ABC are similar. Set up a proportion: ~ ~ . When you Thatsolve
makfor
es x,theyoucirfind thatencAB
cumfer is
e
36.

>
Drill 3
1. D If the sine of Z SPR is 7/10, that would mean the diagonal of the rectangle is 10. We know that it’s 15,
7 _ x
not 10, so we need to set up a proportion. Your proportion should look like this: ~ When you
solve for x, you get 10.5 meters.
2. C The height of the isosceles triangle forms a right angle with the base. Because you know BD is 8 and
BC is 10, you can either use the Pythagorean Theorem or Pythagorean triples to determine that CZ) is
6. Tan C is opposite/adjacent, which would be 8/6.
3. A Draw a diagram. It should look something like this:
base
The distance between the cat and the tree is the base of triangle. Set up an equation: tan 36 = 9
When you solve for the base, you get approximately 6.5 meters.
4. D The equation of a circle centered at the origin is x2 + y2 = r, where x and y are any ordered point in the
circle (x, y ), and r is the radius. To solve for r, all we need to do is take the square root of both sides:
^1 x2+y 2 -yfr2 = r.
5. B Because you know the radius is 4, you can use POE to get rid of (A) and (C). Then use the center
points from the two remaining equations to see if they plug in to the original equation and give a true
statement. When you plug in the point from (B), (2, 5), your equation is true. It is not true for (D).
6. A In order to find the radius, you need to get the equation into the format of {x - h)2 + (y - k)1 = r2. To do
that, complete the square. First rearrange the equation so it looks like this: x2 - 6x + _ + f + Ay
+_ =12. When you add the numbers to the left to complete the square, don’t forget to add the
same numbers to the right side. You’ll get this: x2 - 6x + 9+ / + Ay + 4= 12 + 9 + 4. When you factor
the left and add up the right, you get (x - 3)2 + (y + 2)2 = 25. Based on the equation, you can then solve
for the radius, which would be 5.
Additional Topics Answers and Explanations 195

*r
y'
✓
Part IV
Reading
What Can You Expect to See on the Reading Test?
13 Reading Drills
14 Reading Answers and Explanations
WHAT CAN YOU EXPECT TO SEE ON THE READING
TEST?
One of the biggest changes to the SAT is that there are no more context-based
Sentence Completion questions. Instead, every problem in this section is tied to
one of five reading passages. (Well, six, if you account for one of those being a du¬
al-passage set.) You may also have to take the entire section in one go, so whereas
the test itself once split your work on passages across 20-25 minute chunks, you 11
have to more carefully manage your timing if you choose to do all five of the
Reading passages.
Moreover, if you’re hoping to delve into excerpts from the latest vampire novel
or the most recent stats on your favorite football hero, you may be disappointed.
Instead, you’ll see one U.S. or world literature passage, two history or social stud¬
ies passages, and two science passages. Some of the passages — specifically one or
two of the history or social studies passages, and one of the science passages — will
contain charts or graphs. In other words, these can be challenging, dense passages
with each of the passages being 500-750 words in length. Here are some funda¬
mental tips to help you take advantage of the structure and nature of passage-
based questions.
Staying Focused
Not surprisingly, one of the biggest complaints that students make about the
Reading section is that staying focused on the passages is often difficult. Even if
you enjoy reading, perusing a passage on the eating habits of Japanese mice or on
the best way to translate the word “taste” from Farsi to English may cause your
eyelids to begin to droop.
That said, your purpose when you read on the SAT is very different from your
purpose when you read in school. When you read in school, you’re hoping to learn
something. You know that you may be tested on the information at some later
date, and therefore you will need to remember something about what you’re read¬
ing. When you read on the SAT, however, you’re not trying to actually discover
new information. You’re unlikely, for example, to walk out of the SAT thinking,
“Wow, I never knew that about phosphorescent fish!” Instead, you’re merely read¬
ing so that you can answer questions about the passage, and since the SAT is an
open-book test, you can always go back to the passage if you missed something.
Therefore, rather than reading the whole passage before you start working the
questions, try going straight to your questions and reading only what you need to
read. That way, you’re less likely to drift off mid-paragraph.

The Structure
Knowing how SAT Reading passages and questions are structured can help you
understand how to approach the test as well. The SAT provides you with the fol¬
lowing three key items that can help:
• Line references. About 80% of your SAT Reading questions will re¬
fer you to a specific line or set of lines. It’s important to note, however,
that you’ll need to read more than just the lines referenced; to get a
solid understanding of the context, read a window of about five lines
above and five lines below each line reference.
• Chronology. While a few questions in each passage set will refer to

the passage as a whole, the specific questions that follow will go in
loose chronological order through the passage. Therefore, if you find
the answer to question 6 in lines 20-25, and the answer to question 8
in lines 38-42, then you should find the answer to question 7 ap¬
proximately somewhere in the middle — that is, somewhere between
lines 25-38. Use chronology to answer questions that don’t contain

line references.
• Lead words. Lead words are words that are easy to find in the pas¬
sage. These may be words that are italicized, in quotes, or have capital
letters. If you’re working a question that doesn’t have a line reference,

look for a lead word that you’ll be able to easily spot in the passage.
The Approach
Once you’ve opened your test booklet and are looking at the Reading section,
what should you do? As you work through the practice passages in the pages that
follow, try out the approach below.
1. Start with the easiest passage. Not all passages are created equal.
You may find it easier to focus on a prose fiction passage about a
detective than on a science passage about causes of drought near the
Colorado River, for example. Additionally, questions with line refer¬
ences that tell you exactly where to find the answer in the passage are
often easier than those that simply refer to the passage in general, so
a passage that includes many line reference questions may be easier
than a passage that does not. Since you have a limited amount of time
on the test, focus on the easier passages first so that you can improve
your accuracy and thus your overall score. Rank your passages from
easiest to hardest, and work them in that order.
2. Read the blurb. Once you’ve chosen a passage, start by reading the
little italicized description at the beginning of the passage, as it will
help you understand the main idea of the passage.
3. Preview the questions. If you examine the questions before you go
to the passage, you’ll get a better sense of the topic of the passage, and
you’ll be able to determine the order in which you’ll work the ques¬
tions. Put a star next to any questions that contain line references,
and then go to the passage and mark the lines to which the questions
refer. Circle any lead words that appear in the questions.
4. Select and understand a question. The first few questions in each

question set will relate to the passage as a whole, while later questions
will focus on specific parts of the passage. Start with the specific ques¬
tions first, and save the general questions for later. Then, once you’ve
chosen a question, take the time to actually understand what it’s ask¬
ing. SAT Reading questions are often not in question format. Instead,
they often make statements such as, “The author’s primary reason for
mentioning the gadfly is to,” and then the answer choices will follow.
Make sure that you understand the question by turning it back into a
question — that is, back into a sentence that actually ends with a ques¬
tion mark.
5. Read what you need. Many questions will refer you to a specific set
of lines or to a particular paragraph, so you won’t need to read the

entire passage to answer those questions. If you read about five lines
above and five lines below each line reference, you should have the
information you need. Read carefully, however; you should be able to
put your finger on the particular phrase, sentence, or set of lines that
answers your question. If you save the general questions that relate to
the passage as a whole for last, then by the time you begin those ques¬
tions, you’ll have an understanding of the passage even if you haven’t
read it from beginning to end.
6. Predict the correct answer. SAT test writers do their best to distract
you by creating tempting but nevertheless wrong answers. However, if
you know what you’re looking for in advance, you’re less likely to fall
for a trap answer. Before you even glance at the answer choices, take
the time to think about how you would answer each question in your
own words based on the information in the passage.
7. Use process of elimination. Each answer has three incorrect answers,
and only one correct answer, so it’s much easier to find an incor¬
rect answer than it is to find a correct answer. If you can eliminate
the wrong answers, then whatever is left must be the correct answer.
Physically cross off wrong answers. Incorrect answers frequently con¬
tain the following:
• Information not mentioned in the passage
• Extreme language that goes beyond what is stated in the
passage
• Half-right but half-wrong information
Look to eliminate these types of answers!

Chapter 13
Reading Drills
Reading Drill 1
Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage. In the more than 35 years since NATO came into
This passage is adapted from Christine Amancoeur, The existence, there have been many changes in the conditions
Rise of the Superpower States. (C) 1983 by Milleson Press. underlying NATO and in the character of the alliance
itself. No longer does the United States possess a
NATO was formed in April 1949 because of a fear
monopoly of nuclear weapons, as it did until the 1960s.
by its original signatories— Belgium, Canada, Denmark, 50 During the Cuban missile crisis of 1962, the Soviet Union
France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands,
had about seventy long-range missiles that took 10 hours
Line Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United to fuel. This made Soviet missiles easily vulnerable to an
5 States— that the Soviet Union posed a major threat to American attack before they could be launched. Even as
their security. Its central provision is Article 5, which late as the Yom Kippur war of 1973, the United States had
states: “The parties agree that an armed attack against 55 a superiority of about 8 to 1 in nuclear warheads.
one or more of them in Europe or North America shall be
In addition, NATO’s membership grew. Greece and
considered an attack against them all.” Turkey joined the alliance in 1952, and West Germany
to NATO is a grand alliance. It is, however, a grand entered in 1955. West German entrance into NATO was
alliance different from earlier alliances. When grand the immediate cause of the establishment in 1955 of the
alliances were formed in the past— such as those that put 60 equivalent Soviet alliance defense organization— the
down Napoleon, Kaiser Wilhelm, and Adolph Hitler— they Warsaw Pact. In 1982, Spain became the sixteenth member
were formed after an act of aggression occurred. The of NATO.
15 purpose of NATO is twofold: deterrence and defense.
The very act of forming a peacetime alliance, it was
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to
believed, would serve to deter aggression by the Soviet
Union. If deterrence failed, however, the alliance would be A) portray the Soviet Union as an aggressive force
politically united and militarily strong so as to protect its that could be controlled only by an alliance of
20 members from a Soviet victory. world powers
Certain factors underlay the formation of NATO. B) describe the influence the Marshall Plan of 1947
had on the creation of NATO
These involved supremacy of the United States as
a nuclear power, the fear of Soviet policies, and the C) identify the conditions that led to the creation of
economic conditions of the Europeans. First, in April 1949, NATO and outline the subsequent changes it has
undergone
25 the United States had a monopoly of nuclear weapons.
The United States could carry those weapons to the D) question the necessity of the NATO alliance
Soviet Union itself by relying on its air bases in Western following the breakup of the Soviet Union
Europe and Africa. NATO members could believe that
the American nuclear forces offered a credible deterrent to
2. In line 15, the word “deterrence” refers to
30 Soviet aggression.
A) the discouragement of attack by other nations,
Second, it seemed to NATO members that the Soviet
especially the Soviet Union
Union in particular and communism in general posed a
B) the strength of the NATO member nations with
threat to Western security. The post-World War II period regard to the rest of Europe
was characterized by such apparent threats as a civil war
C) the possible aggressive behavior of the Soviet
35 in Greece, communist takeover in France and Italy, a Union
Soviet-inspired communist takeover of Czechoslovakia in D) the high moral purpose of earlier alliances as
1948, and a blockade of allied surface routes to Berlin in
opposed to the superficial purpose of NATO
1948.
Third, Western Europe was devastated by World War
40 II. It depended upon the United States for its economic
support. The Marshall Plan of 1947, in which the United
States committed nearly $15 billion of economic aid to its
Western European allies, was a reflection of that economic
bond.

7.
3. The purpose of the second paragraph (lines 10-20) in As used in line 55, “superiority” most nearly means
relation to the rest of the passage is to
A) more refined skill.
A) introduce the factors underlying the formation of B) arrogance.
NATO
C) greater number.
B) highlight a factor distinguishing NATO from
D) indifference
other pacts
C) define the term “deterrence” relative to the 8. The Warsaw Pact is similar to NATO in that
functionality of NATO
A) its formation was a peacetime reaction to a
D) identify the aggressors prompting the formation
of NATO potential threat
B) it was formed as a response to aggressive
behavior on the part of many Western European
4. The author mentions Napoleon, Kaiser Wilhelm, and nations
Adolph Hitler (line 13) in order to emphasize which
C) Warsaw Pact member nations have a
point about the NATO alliance?
correspondingly
democracy strong commitment to
A) It was specifically intended to stop the barbarism
promoted by Adolph Hitler. D) it too was created as a reaction to imperialistic
B) It was a peacetime alliance established to deter maneuvering on the part of certain European
future aggression. nations
C) It was the first alliance in which both the United
States and the United Kingdom were members. 9. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
D) The military alliance was politically united and answer to the previous question?
militarily strong.
A) Lines 16-17 (“The very act . . . Soviet Union”)
5. In context, lines 21-38 suggest that the formation B) Lines 26-28 (“The United States . . . Africa”)
of NATO occurred for all of the following reasons C) Lines 53-54 (“This made . . . launched”)
EXCEPT D) Lines 57-61 (“West German . . . Warsaw Pact”)
A) democratic uprisings in France

B) European need for monetary support
C) apprehension about the spread of communism
D) belief that weaker members of NATO could be
defended by stronger members
6. The author uses the example of the Cuban missile

crisis (lines 50-54) in order to establish that
A) the United States’ superiority in nuclear

weaponry ended in the late 1960s
B) Soviet advances in nuclear technology were
considered a threat to NATO, but the United
States’ ingenuity saved the alliance

C) while the United States no longer had a
monopoly on nuclear weapons, it had a greater
number of them than the Soviet Union
D) the Cuban missile crisis marked the end of the
United States’ domination of world affairs
203
Reading Drills
rfl*
Passage 2
Questions 10-19 are based on the following passage.
35
When, O Catiline, do you mean to cease abusing our
In 63 b.c., after losing an election for the Roman senate,
patience? Do not the nightly guards placed on Palatine
the politician Catiline attempted, with the help of a band
Hill— does not the alarm of the people, and the union of
of co-conspirators, to take the office by force. When Cicero, all good men— does not the precaution taken of
the great Roman orator and philosopher who had defeated
assembling the senate in this most defensible place— do
Catiline in election, heard of this plot, he arrested and put not the looks and countenances of this venerable body
to death five of the conspirators. Catiline, however, had 40 here present, have any effect upon you? Do you not see
already fled. He escaped execution, but died in battle in
that your conspiracy is already arrested and rendered
Pistoia a month later. The first of the following passages
powerless by the knowledge which everyone here
is adapted from a speech by Catiline to his conspirators.
45
possesses of it?
The second is adapted from a speech against Catiline by You ought, O Catiline, long ago to have been led to
Cicero to the Roman senate.
execution by command of the consul. You are summoning
to destruction and devastation the temples of the immortal
Passage 1 gods, the houses of the city, the lives of all the citizens; in
As I have, on many remarkable occasions, experienced short, all Italy. Wherefore, since I do not yet venture to
your bravery and attachment to me, I have ventured to 50 do that which is the best thing, and which belongs to my
engage in a most important and glorious enterprise. I am office and to the discipline of our ancestors, I will do that
Line aware, too, that whatever advantages or evils affect you, which is more merciful if we regard its rigor, and more
5 the same affect me; and to have the same desires and the expedient for the state. For if I order you to be put to death,
same aversions is assuredly a firm bond of friendship. the rest of the conspirators will still remain in the republic;
My ardor for action is daily more and more excited 55 if, as I have long been exhorting you, you depart, your
when I consider what our future condition of life must companions, will be drawn off from the city too. Do you
be unless we assert our claims to liberty. For since the ask me, Are you to go into banishment? I do not order it;
w government has fallen under the power and jurisdiction but if you consult me, I advise it.
of a few, kings and princes have constantly been their For what is there, O Catiline, that can now afford you
tributaries; but all the rest of us have been regarded as 60
any pleasure in this city? For there is no one in it, except
a mere mob, without interest or authority. Hence all that band of profligate conspirators of yours, who does
influence, power, honor, and wealth, are in their hands; to not fear you— no one who does not hate you. What brand
15 us they have left only insults, dangers, persecutions, and of domestic baseness is not stamped upon your life? Is
poverty. To such indignities, O bravest of men, how long there one youth, when you have once entangled him in the
will you submit? 65
temptations of your corruption, to whom you have not held
But success (I call gods and men to witness!) is in our out a sword for audacious crime?
own hands. Our years are fresh, our spirit is unbroken; Since this is the case, do you hesitate, O Catiline,
20 among our oppressors, on the contrary, through age and to depart to some distant land? Make a motion to the
wealth a general debility has been produced. We have, senate and if this body votes that you ought to go into
therefore, only to make a beginning; the course of events 70
banishment, you say that you will obey. I will not make
will accomplish the rest. such a motion, it is contrary to my principles, and yet I
Will you not, then, awake to action? Behold that liberty will let you see what these men think of you. Do you not
25 for which you have so often wished, with wealth, honor, 75 perceive, do you not see the silence of these men? They
and glory, are set before your eyes. Let the enterprise itself, permit it, they say nothing; why wait you for the authority
then, let the opportunity, let your property, your dangers, of their words, when you see their wishes in their silence?
and the glorious spoils of war, animate you far more than one of the chief magistrates of the Roman Republic
my words. Use me either as your leader or your fellow
30 soldier; neither my heart nor my hand shall be wanting to
you. These objects I hope to effect, in concert with you, in
the character of consul*; unless, indeed, my expectation
deceives me, and you prefer to be slaves rather than
masters.

10. Which of the following best describes the contrast 15. It can be inferred from the passage that the orator in
between the portrayal of Catiline in Passage 1 and that
Passage
because 2 chooses not to call for Catiline’s execution
in Passage 2 ?
A) Passage 1 portrays him as a leader of men, while A) the execution of criminals and rebels is against
Passage 2 claims that even his co-conspirators his morals
do not subscribe to his beliefs. B) the senators have concluded that banishment is
B) Passage 1 portrays him as a proponent of more prudent than execution
peaceful change, while Passage 2 portrays him
as warlike. C) he fears that Catiline’s death could anger the
senate
C) Passage 1 portrays him as a liberator, while D) he believes that an alternative punishment is
Passage 2 portrays him as corrupt and more beneficial to the state
dangerous.
D) Passage 1 portrays him as selfless, while Passage 16. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
2 portrays him as one eager to rule. answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 41-44 (“Do you not . . . of it”)

11. Catiline’s question, “O bravest . . . submit?” (lines 1 6- B) Lines 49-53 (“Wherefore, since ... the state”)
17) is most likely intended to
C) Lines 57-58 (“I do not . . . advise it”)
A) determine how dedicated his listeners are to the D) Lines 70-72 (“I will not ... of you”)
rebellion
B) diminish the aggressiveness and pride of his 17. In line 59, “afford” most nearly means
audience
C) inspire his listeners to take action against their A) purchase
B) spare
oppressors
D) cast doubt on the bravery of his own countrymen C) promote
D) provide
12. The speaker in Passage 1 advances which of the 18. According to the orator in Passage 2, the “silence”
(line 75) of the senators indicates which of the
following as a reason for his belief that the rebellion following?
he urges will succeed?
A) Their hostility toward Catiline
A) The people in power have no honor or courage.
B) Their unwillingness to execute Catiline
B) Age and prosperity have weakened those who
C) Their concern with morality
govern.
C) A cause that is just must always prevail. D) Their disagreement with the orator
D) The government has fallen under the power of

19. The orator in Passage 1 would most likely respond to
kings.
the accusation in Passage 2 that “You are summoning
. . all Italy” (lines 46-49) by
13. What is the speaker of Passage 2 referring to when he
A) claiming that his goal was justice through
talks about the “countenances of this venerable body” nonviolent revolution
(line 40) ?
B) insisting on the right of citizens to arm
A) The powers possessed by Cicero themselves against oppressive rulers
B) The intelligence of the speaker C) demonstrating that the subjugation of his people
C) The expressions of the senators would inevitably lead to such drastic action
D) The conspiracy of Cataline and his followers D) swearing that his true allegiance lay with those
having power, honor, and wealth
14. The measures listed by the orator of Passage 2 in lines
36-44 serve to 20. Which of the following best describes the society
suggested by BOTH of the speeches?
A) demonstrate that the city has opposed itself to
Cataline’s conspiracy A) An uneasy society contemplating its current
B) exploit Catiline’s growing sense of isolation political situation

B) A polarized society divided along economic
C) alert the epeople of the city to Catiline’s lines
subversiv actions
C) A tyrannical society in which the expression of
D) appeal to Catiline’s remaining national pride
opinions is forbidden
D) Achange
society on the verge of sweeping political
205
Reading Drills
Questions 21-31 are based on the following passages. Passage 2
Passage 1 is adapted from John Richard Alden, George On April 14, 1789, Washington received formal
Washington. © 1984, by Louisiana State University
50
notification of his election. He set out in his coach “with
Press. Passage 2 is adapted from James Thomas Flexner, more anxious and painful sensations than I have words to
Washington: The Indispensible Man. © 1974 by Little,
Brown and Company. Among the worries that now bothered him was a
fear that the people might resent his return to public
express.”
Passage 1 office after his promise that he would never do so. The
55 enthusiasm with which he was greeted on the road not
At the end of his own time and for generations
thereafter, he was acclaimed at home and abroad as the only extinguished this fear but raised its opposite. As
founder of the American nation. He achieved sainthood in he moved, he could not see the countryside because
Line the minds of the Americans who came after him. There of the dust churned up by the horsemen who in relays
surrounded his carriage. At every hamlet there were
5 was a tendency to look upon him as an archangel who
60
possessed the genius of Caesar, the vision of Moses, and speeches; at every city he had to lead a parade and be
toasted at a sumptuous dinner; everywhere and always
the morals of Galahad. A change came. Later Americans
gave more and more attention to their rights, less and people were jostling him, shaking his hand, cheering and
cheering until his ears ached. Throughout the jubilations
less to the man who was the principal begetter of those
that stretched down the long days and late into the nights,
io rights. Scholars and teachers in America offered more
65
and more praise to men of the era of the Revolution Washington sensed a hysteria which he found “painful.”
How easily and with what frenzy could this irrational
who talked and wrote on behalf of liberty, to those
emotion turn, if the government did not immediately
who labored at European capitals for independence, to
those who remodeled American institutions, to Thomas please, “into equally extravagant (though I will fondly
hope unmerited) censures. So much is expected, so many
15 Paine, Thomas Jefferson, Benjamin Franklin, Alexander
70 untoward circumstances may intervene, in such a new and
Hamilton, and James Madison. There was also in the
critical situation that I feel an insuperable diffidence in my
twentieth century a school of biographical “debunkers”
who discovered that great men and women, American
own The
abilities.”
task which he was now approaching was both
as well as European, were inconstant and incontinent,
more uncertain and infinitely more important than that
20 addicted to profanity, and menaced by insanity. Among
75 which had lain before him when in 1775 he had ridden
them were writers who sought to destroy the hallowed
north to take command of the Continental Army. His
Washington, to reduce him to mortal or smaller
duty then had been to win military victory. Since such
proportions. They found sin in the saint. So doing,
victories had been won ten thousand times, there was no
they tended to make the Father of His Country into an 80
philosophical reason to doubt that success was possible.
25 important scamp. It was often forgotten that the sword can
And, if he did fail, the result would be sad for America,
be more potent than the pen, that the bayonet can speak
catastrophic perhaps for himself and his companions, but
more decisively than the tongue of the diplomat, that
no more than a tiny footnote in the history of mankind.
Washington was the one man essential to the triumph of
the Patriots in the War of Independence, to the creation of Washington’s present mission might change all history.
30 the American union, and perhaps even to the success of As he himself put it, “the preservation of the sacred fire
85 of liberty and the destiny of the republican model of
the democratic revolution throughout the world.
government are justly considered as deeply, perhaps as
It is no secret that Washington was not born to the
finally, staked on the experiment entrusted to the hands
imperial purple. Nor was he by birth a member of the First
Families of Virginia, the fabled Virginia aristocracy. He 90 of the American people.” He was on his way to lead an
enterprise which, if it succeeded, would prove to all the
35 opened his eyes without fanfare of trumpets, with modest
world, and for the future to time immemorial, the falsity
hereditary prestige, in a brick house near the junction of
of the contention that men were “unequal to the task of
Pope’s Creek with the Potomac River in Westmoreland
governing themselves and therefore made for a master.”
County, Virginia, at 10 a.m. on February 11, 1732— a day That contention had, down the ages, been accepted by
of the month that became February 22 when Britain and
many of the greatest thinkers. Supposing the failure of
40 the British empire afterward condescended to strike eleven
95 the American experiment should seem to prove them
days from their defective calendar to match it with that
of the remainder of the Western world. He was later duly right? How long would it be before this “awful monument”
to the death of liberty would be forgotten, before the
baptized in the Episcopal church. He was not christened
experiment was tried again? And if, through inability
after King George III, who came into the world six years
or misunderstanding, Washington contributed to the
45 later. It has been urged that he was named after a George
100 catastrophe, how deep and eternal would be his personal
Eskridge, a benefactor of Washington’s mother. It is not
unlikely that the parents had King George II in mind.
guilt?

21. As used in line 9, “begetter” most nearly means 26. In line 71 , the phrase “insuperable diffidence” refers to
A) owner.
A) Washington’s lack of self-confidence
B) procreator.
B) the disparity between Washington’s own beliefs
C) reformer. and the beliefs of his constituents
D) procurer.
C) Washington’s unwavering self-assurance in the
face of adversity
22. The author of Passage 1 objects to the attitudes of D) Washington’s firm convictions about how the
certain “Later Americans” country must be run
(line 7) for which of the
following reasons?
A) Their admiration for Caesar, Moses, and 27. The distinction between Washington’s potential
Galahad was unjustified. success in his “task” (line 73) and his command of the
B) They tended to ignore the achievements of Continental Army might be best expressed in which of
the following ways?
Washington.
C) Their misconceptions of Washington could have A) The first had historical precedent, the second did
been easily avoided. not.
D) They took their personal rights for granted. B) The first was more easily accomplished than the
second.
C) The first was as yet untried by Washington, the
23. According to the author of Passage 1 , the “biographical
second was familiar and possible.
‘debunkers’” described in lines 17-20 were responsible
for
D) The first was Washington ’s responsibility, the
second was not.
A) discovering the greatness of American and
European men and women
B) expanding awareness of such historical figures 28. Which pair of words best describes the author’s view
as Jefferson and Franklin in Passage 2 of Washington’s “duty” (line 77) in the
continental Army and Washington’s presidency?
C) writing inaccurate portrayals of Washington’s
patriotism A) Abrasive and contentious
D) reducing Washington to a less than heroic status B) Impartial and disinterested
C) Unremarkable and momentous
24. Which choice provides the best evidence for the D) Uncertain and doubtful
answer to the previous question?
29. According to the author of Passage 2, which of the
A) Line 7 (“There was . . . Galahad”)
B) Lines 10-16 (“Scholars . . . Madison”) following is true about the statement that men “were
‘unequal to the task of governing themselves and
C) Lines 20-23 (“Among them . . . proportions”)
therefore made for a master’” (lines 91-92) ?
D) Lines 25-31 (“It was often . . . world”)
A) It was not a commonly held belief.
B) It was believed only by pessimistic philosophers.
25. In lines 59-73, the author of Passage 2 implies that the
wildly supportive crowd C) It would be disproved if Washington was
successful.
A) could help Washington succeed by supporting
his policies D) It was Washington’s credo.
B) could quickly turn on Washington if he did not
satisfy their needs
C) would ignore Washington’s shortcomings

because of their overwhelming allegiance
D) would not endorse a president about whom they
knew so little
Reading Drills
207
*
fft
30. Which of the following best describes the primary
difference between Passage 1 and Passage 2 ?
A) Passage 1 describes the myths surrounding
Washington’s life, while Passage 2 presents

Washington’s view of his place in history.
B) Passage 1 presents an objective view of
Washington, while Passage 2 attempts to show
Washington as a perfect leader.
C) Passage 1 focuses on Washington's

achievements after the Revolutionary War, while
Passage 2 discusses his military successes.
D) Passage 1 gives a personal view of Washington,
while Passage 2 shows how academics have
recently changed their opinion of Washington’s

success as president.
31. With which of the following statements would the

authors of BOTH passages agree?
A) Washington’s failure may have caused the

United States to abandon a democratic system of
government.
B) Although not without flaw, Washington was
indispensable to the success of world democracy.
C) Washington, like other great men and women,
was often inconstant and incontinent.
D) Washington played a formative role at a pivotal
point in the history of the United States.

Jf
Reading Drill 2
Passage 2
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passages.
Passage 1 is adapted from Dwight McCabe, Little Boxes Difficult problems call for creative answers. Critics of
45 suburban growth point to a variety of problems caused by
and Big Boxes. © 2007 by Dwight McCabe. Passage 2 is
adapted from John Vespa, The Garden State Fights Sprawl. the seemingly quickening pace of so-called “sprawl,” a
©2011 by John Vespa. derisive term that refers to the spread of suburban housing
developments onto farms and unused plots of land. While
Passage 1 many of these complaints border on the histrionic, one
50 must concede that sprawl does detract from the beauty
Pull up to a traffic light in Anytown, U.S.A. and look
of the landscape and decrease the amount of open space
around. On one side sits a franchised burger joint or a
available for public use.
national clothing retailer; on the other, an expansive set of
Despite alarming forecasts enumerating the damage
Line cookie-cutter homes separated by perfectly trimmed lawns
to be wrought if growth is not stemmed, sprawl has
5 and wide streets named for bucolic features of the landscape
55 shown few signs of relenting, primarily because of the
long since obliterated. In front and behind lie endless
streams of red brake lights and bright white headlights public’s appetite for big suburban homes and easy access
emanating from blue, silver, and red hunks of steel. to shopping centers. In an attempt to address the problem
Welcome to Suburbia. While suburbs offer their of sprawl, the state of New Jersey proposed a program
intended to stem the tide of sprawl before it was too late.
10 residents convenient shopping and generally comfortable
60 The plan would allow the state to use taxpayer money
standards of living, they concomitantly promote a
uniformity that is a disservice to all. American suburbs to protect remaining open land— for years and years to
come— from mall builders, three-bedroom house owners,
arose in the 1940s as a way to effectively utilize large
or anyone else, for that matter.
tracts of land needed to house a booming population.
Through a statewide referendum, the state successfully
15 While the suburban building frenzy did make home
65 earned the support of its citizens to buy back up to one
ownership more accessible to the average American, the
million acres of land; the measure passed in 1998 with
resulting communities are mainly characterized by hyper¬
66 percent voter assent and was signed into law in June
organization and uniformity. But at what cost? Suburban
1999. For 10 years from the signing of the Garden State
culture and its principles of residential planning, instead
Preservation Trust Act, the state promised to spend
20 of improving our condition of life as intended, have in fact
70 $98 million a year to repurchase land. Residents, eager
diminished our standing as an inquisitive, expressive people.
to maintain the beauty of their areas, voted for the
Identical-looking, prefabricated houses have robbed us
referendum, despite the eventual increase in their own
of hundreds of years of original and beautiful home design;
taxes required by the act.
simple, efficient construction has trumped all. Suburban
25 sprawl has engulfed the natural landscape, a practice that
The “Garden State,” known as much for its boundless
75 suburban tracts as its beautiful beaches, farms, and
has laid the groundwork for a hotbed of consumerism made
pinelands, has demonstrated that it is possible to control
manifest in strip malls, gas stations, fast-food restaurants,
sprawl without unduly hurting economic growth or the
and chain music and video stores. Family-owned businesses fiscal health of the state. Homeowners are reminded
and independent merchants who specialize in the sale of
30 handcrafts and locally made products have been swept
through green-and-blue road signs that their tax dollars
80 are preserving the beauty of the state. The tourism
away, unable to compete economically against national and
industry has a new draw for visitors. And all residents
multinational corporate conglomerates. The ultimate results
of such rampant growth are communities with no center, no of the state may now rest assured that the state’s natural
charms will not soon disappear.
soul, few social bonds, and no reason to exist other than to
35 consume.
It is perhaps too much of a stretch to claim the growth
of suburbia is responsible for all of today’s problems;

crime, pollution, and other social problems constitute more
immediate and pervasive threats. Nevertheless, suburban
40 culture, with its emphasis on standardization and ubiquity,
has proven to be a sore spot for a culture hungry for
individual expression in the way it shops, dresses, lives, and
dreams. ^
209
Reading Drills
pll*-
1. In the first paragraph of Passage 1 , the author uses the 7. According to Passage 2, all of the following
term “Anytown, U.S.A (line 1) to statements about the “Garden State” are true EXCEPT
A) indicate that the described conditions are
A) Its governor authorized the repurchase of land
commonly found in the United States through executive order.
B) introduce the reader to a specific place B) It is well known for topographical features such
C) suggest that the description of the suburban
condition is mostly imaginary as pinelands.
C) Its implementation of an anti-sprawl effort has
D) imply that suburbia is common only in the been considered a success.
United States D) Evidence of a land repurchase program is visible
to the state’s residents.
2. In the context of Passage 1 , “concomitantly” (line 11)
most nearly means 8. The author of Passage 1 and the author of Passage 2
are similar in that both
A) simultaneously
B) in a widespread way A) argue the construction of typical suburban
C) with greedy intent houses has no benefit to homeowners
D) ostentatiously B) agree suburban sprawl has a negative impact on
the aesthetics of an area
3. The first sentence in the final paragraph of Passage 1 C) feel efforts to curb suburban sprawl have been
effective
(lines 36-39) serves to
D) feel suburban sprawl has been detrimental to
A) clarify the extent to which the author believes American culture
suburbs are a problem
B) exemplify the primary argument of suburbia’s 9. What would the author of Passage 2 most likely say
effects
about the arguments posed in the third paragraph of
C) summarize the collection of prior points about
Passage 1?
suburban sprawl
D) modify a previously made argument about A) They rely too heavily on a faulty premise.
standardized housing B) They make too many false assumptions.
C) They ignore the underlying problems associated
with the topic.
4. As used in line 39, “pervasive” most nearly means
D) They are excessively dramatic or emotional.
A) narrow.
B) physical.
10. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
C) widespread.
D) intrusive.
A) Lines 48-52 (“While many . . . public use”)
5. The author of Passage 1 asserts that, to some degree, B) Lines 60-63 (“The plan . . . matter”)
suburban sprawl is responsible for C) Lines 70-73 (“Residents ... the act”)
A) a desire for individuality D) Lines 81-83 (“And all . . . disappear”)
B) an increase in conformity
11. Which best describes the relationship between
C) air pollution
Passage 1 and Passage 2 ?
D) a million acres of farmland and open space
A) Passage 2 argues for changes described in
Passage 1.
6. Which of the following relationships is most similar
to that between the government of New Jersey and B) Passage 2 debunks the arguments made in
Passage 1 .
suburban sprawl legislation as described in Passage 2?
C) Passage 2 describes one solution to a problem
A) An adult lion protecting her cub described in Passage 1 .
B) A homeowner purchasing a fence to keep out
destructive animals D) Passage 2 provides a theoretical argument
that offsets the practical argument provided in
C) A man depositing money into his bank account Passage 1 .
D) A locksmith changing the lock on a door

Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. themes from black history: “Black, Brown, and Beige,”
This passage is adapted from Joachim-Emst Berendt and the tone painting of the American Negro who was “black”
Gunther Huesmann, The Jazz Book: From Ragtime to the 55 when he came to the New World, became “brown” in
21st Century. © 2009 by Lawrence Hill Books. the days of slavery, and today is “beige”— not only in his
color, but in his being as well; “Liberian Suite,” a work in
Duke Ellington’s Orchestra is a complex configuration six movements commissioned by the small republic on
of many spiritual and musical elements. To be sure, it
the west coast of Africa for its centennial; “Harlem,” the
was Duke Ellington’s music that was created here, but it
60 work in which the atmosphere of New York’s black city
Line was just as much the music of each individual member of
has been captured; “Deep South Suite,” which reminds
5 the band. Many Ellington pieces were genuine collective
us of the locale of the origins of jazz, or “New World
achievements, but it was Ellington who headed the
A-comin’,” the work about a better world without racial
collective. Attempts have been made to describe how discrimination.
Ellington recordings have come into being, but the process
65 Many critics have said that Ellington often comes
is so subtle that verbalization appears crude. Duke, or too close to European music. They point to his concern
to his alter ego, the late arranger and jazz composer, Billy with larger forms. But in this very concern is revealed
Strayhorn, or one of the members of the band would come
an insufficiency in the molding of these forms which is
to the studio with a theme. Ellington would play on the
certainly not European: an astonishing, amiable naivete.
piano. The rhythm section would fall in. One or another of
70 This naivete was also present in those medleys— long
the horn men would pick it up. Baritone saxophonist Harry series of his many successful tunes— with which Duke
is Carney might improvise a solo on it. The brass would again and again upset many of his more sophisticated fans
make up a suitable background for him. And Ellington at his concerts. Ellington simply failed to see why the idea
would sit at the piano and listen, gently accenting the of the hit medley should be alien to an artistic music.
harmonies— and suddenly he’d know: This is how the 75 The jungle style is one of the four styles identified
piece should sound and no other way. Later, when it was with Duke Ellington. The other three are (in a somewhat
20 transcribed, the note paper only happened to retain what
simplistic but synoptically clear grouping) “mood style,”
was, in the real meaning of the word, improvised into
“concerto style,” and “standard style,” which came rather
being.
directly from Fletcher Henderson, the most important
The dynamic willpower with which Ellington 80 band leader of the twenties, and initially did not contribute
stamped his ideas on his musicians, while giving them the much that was new. What it did have to offer, though, was
25 impression that he was only helping them to unfold and clothed in typically Ellingtonian colors and sounds. In
develop their hidden powers, was one of his many great addition, of course, there is every imaginable mixture of
gifts. Owing to the relationship between Duke and his these styles.
musicians, which can barely be put into words, everything 85 The history of Duke Ellington is the history of the
he had written seemed to be created for him and his
orchestra in jazz. No significant big band— and this
30 orchestra— to such a degree that hardly anyone can copy it. includes commercial dance bands— has not been directly
When Ellington was eighteen, he wanted to become or indirectly influenced by Duke. The list of innovations
a painter. By becoming a musician he only seemed to and techniques introduced by Ellington and subsequently
have abandoned painting. He painted not in colors but 90 picked up by other orchestras or players is unrivaled.
in sounds. His compositions, with their many colors of
35 timbre and harmony, are musical paintings. Sometimes
this is revealed by the titles: “The Flaming Sword,”

“Beautiful Indians,” “Portrait of Bert Williams,” “Sepia
Panorama,” “Country Girl,” “Dusk in the Desert,” “Mood
Indigo,” and so forth. Even as a conductor, Ellington
40 remained the painter: in the grand manner in which he
confronted the orchestra and, with a few sure movements
of the hand, placed spots of color on a canvas made of
sounds.
It may be due to this that he perceived his music as
45 “the transformation of memories into sounds.” Ellington
said, “The memory of things gone is important to a jazz
musician. I remember I once wrote a sixty-four-bar piece
about a memory of when I was a little boy in bed and
heard a man whistling on the street outside, his footsteps
50 echoing away.”
Again and again Ellington has expressed his pride in
the color tff his skin. Many of his larger works took their
Reading Drills 211

12. Which of the following best describes the working 18. Which of the following attributes does the author
relationship between Ellington and his band
mention? in response to the criticisms leveled in lines
65-66
members?
A) Ellington’s primary concern was to help his A) Ellington’s pride in the color of his skin
band members realize their full potential as
B) Ellington’s European sensibility
composers.
C) Ellington’s genuine innocence
B) Ellington and his band collaborated as equals in
D) Ellington’s ability to write hit songs
the development of new compositions.
C) Ellington used his band’s improvisations as

inspiration for his compositions. 19. According to the passage, some “fans” (line 72) of
Ellington were
D) Ellington based his compositions on early
recordings by his band members. A) critical
formats of one of Ellington’s presentation
B) unfamiliar with more classical forms of music

answer to the previous question? C) lacking in the naivete required to understand
Ellington’s medleys
A) Lines 9-12 (“Duke, or . . . theme’’) D) dismayed by Ellington’s use of European
musical forms
B) Lines 15-19 (“And Ellington . . . other way”)
C) Lines 34-35 (“His compositions . . . paintings”)
D) Lines 81-82 (“What it did . . . sounds”) 20. The author mentions all of the following as sources of
inspiration for Ellington’s work EXCEPT

14. In line 17, “accenting” most nearly means A) famous paintings
A) fashioning B) ethnic heritage
B) emphasizing C) orchestral improvisations
C) enunciating D) regional ambiance
D) reworking
21. It can be inferred from the passage that “Fletcher

15. The descriptions given in lines 52-64 provide the Henderson” (line 79)
reader with which of the following?
A) was a stylistic influence on Duke Ellington
B) composed in a style that was inspired by the
A) an understanding of Ellington’s youth
work of Duke Ellington
B) a sense of the momentum behind Ellington’s
earlier work C) was a contemporary of Duke Ellington
D) wrote music that had much in common with
C) a history of Ellington’s social conscience
D) the inspirations for some of Ellington’s Ellington’s jungle style
compositions
22. Which of the following questions could be answered
16. According to the author, which of the following is based on information in the passage?
true of “Black, Brown, and Beige” (line 53) ? A) At what age did Ellington achieve success as a
musician?
A) It tells the story of several major black historical
figures. B) By what process did Ellington develop his
B) Its title refers to color both literally and orchestral compositions?
metaphorically.
C) What are the characteristics of Ellington’s jungle
C) It is comprised of three distinct sections.
style?
D) It was written on commission for a national
D) What is considered Ellington’s best-known
celebration. composition?
“la for mos nea m

rge ms” t rly eans
r
A) songs played by an entire symphony orchestra.
B) upright basses, trombones, and tubas.
C) long songs made up of the melodies of many
shorter songs.
D) the most sophisticated European music fans.

Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. 55 contrast, can have that information instantaneously and
can even search within it for whatever bits of information
This passage is adapted from a book published in 2012.
seem relevant.
Google, Yahoo!, Bing, and other search engines To ask the question in the most simpleminded of
are all over the internet, seeming to promise us all the ways, are we smarter? All this information is now at our
information we could ever need. With such a profusion
60 fingertips, but can we really be said to have it? Those older
Line of information at our fingertips, we wonder how previous scholars and thinkers may have known what they knew
5 generations of scholars slaved away at libraries, pulling more intimately. They may have worked harder to acquire
dusty books from the shelves and hoping that those books
it. But there was simply less for them to know, and it’s
could reveal all the world’s secrets. no mistake that scholars from our own era are constantly
Because the internet search has become such an
65 improving upon and refining what those older scholars
essential part of our daily routines— because we can do it have done. They may have known everything there was to
to on our phones and TVs as well as our computers— we can know, but that was a very limited everything indeed. Still,
finally begin to assess how this information saturation has our own omniscience is not without its limitations. Rather
affected our minds. Now that we have all this information
than delving more deeply into this or that topic, we are
at our behest, are we smarter? Or, as one writer in the
70 much more likely to throw up our hands, to say that if we
Atlantic Monthly asked, “Is Google Making Us Stoopid?” can’t know everything, then it’s not worth it to try to know
15 In many ways, our informational field has reflected anything at all. How can we take seriously any attempt
our understanding of the universe: where we once thought
at knowing when the remainder of all that we don’t know
of the “heavens” as the things that we could see in the is there as a constant reminder? It is at the very least my
sky, we now theorize the universe as infinite, containing
75 hope— and the hope, I suspect, of many others— that there
literally countless numbers of worlds like our own in
must be some way between the two extremes. We don’t
20 literally countless figurations. Just as the universe is too want to return to the era of the very small world, nor can
large to conceptualize, there’s now too much information we allow ourselves to drift off into the infinite immensity
available for anyone ever to know. In the days of of the informational world that is available now.
traditional library research, the search for the appropriate
sources was itself part of the process. Researchers did
25 the selecting themselves and assimilated a good deal of
peripheral knowledge into the bargain. A scholar like
James Frazer, author of The Golden Bough (1890), could
be fairly certain that he was assembling all of the world’s

myths and folklore in a single book.
23. The first paragraph (lines 1 -7) most directly focuses
30 Now, we know that Frazer’s project was a very limited on the
one. A single Google search for the word “myth” will
show us how many billions of things he missed. In fact, A) death of true research in contemporary
scholarship.
projects like Frazer’s must necessarily have changed.
Because we know how much information is out there, B) distinction between topics of old scholarship and
new.
35 we can’t possibly dream of trying to assemble it all into
C) reduction of intelligence in the modern age.
anything as manageable as a single book. We instead
generate theories to support our impossible positions, as if D) contemporary availability of large amounts of
information.
to say that because there is too much information, nothing
can be knowable in any real depth.
40 Indeed, this shift from the finite to the infinite is
another version of the globalization that we experience 24. In context, the reference to previous generations of
every day: cars from Japan, electronics from Korea, and scholars (lines 22-26) is significant in that it
furniture from Sweden are parts of our daily lives, which
A) demonstrates the contrast between old and new
we no longer experience as foreign. Ours is truly a world methods of research.
45 community, where the lines between nations have become B) states that people from earlier eras had more
blurred and where people have more in common than ever time to spend reading.
before.
Because the whole world and all its information are at C) emphasizes the contemporary scholar’s
contempt for libraries.
our fingertips, how can we possibly begin to understand D) indicates the accuracy provided by basic internet
50 this new world that has grown up around us? How do we searches
evaluate something that we can hardly understand? The
researcher of a century ago spent many hours poring over
a single text, and often had to learn entirely new languages
to do so, -The computer-savvy researcher of today, by
213
Reading Drills
1*'
25. In context, the phrase “information saturation” (line 31. In lines 40-44 (“Indeed ... foreign”), the author notes
11) describes the
a parallel between
A) mode of thinking that has crippled contemporary A) contemporary research and the makeup of mall
research methods. food courts.
B) contrast between effective and ineffective B) the amount of information and the excesses of
methods of acquiring information. consumerism.
C) moment at which an intelligent human being can C) trends in research and preferences for foreign
no longer learn new information.
D) emerging situation in which information D) the range of available information and economic
becomes too much for one person to know. goods.
globalization.
26. As used in line 13, “at . . . behest” most nearly means

A) under our control. 32. The example of the computer-savvy researcher (line
B) in our books. 54) is primarily used to illustrate
C) available to us. A) rampant procrastination.
D) within our grasp. B) technological sophistication.
C) deep knowledge.
D) informational availability.
27. In line 16, “our understanding” represents a shift away
from
A) online databases.
B) universal knowledge.
C) faith-based interpretations. 79) is to
D) a knowable world. A) doubt that the new modes of acquiring
information will ever generate important
discoveries.
28. The author mentions researchers (line 24) and a
3 scholar (line 26) primarily to B) suggest that some compromise is possible
between old and new ways of acquiring
A) underline the importance of traditional modes of information.
. study.
C) long for an earlier mode of research that relied
B) warn against the dangers of traditional research.
on the deep study of long printed books.
C) compare the researchers of previous ages
D) outline the differences between those who use
unfavorably to those of today.
computers to access information and those who
D) demonstrate instances of one type of study. do not.
29. In context, the book cited in line 27 supports the The

prim
notion that ary
purp
ose
of t
A) the scope of contemporary research has changed. he l
ast
para
B) scholars no longer have ambitious research grap
h (l
ines
53-
goals.
C) the study of mythology has disappeared from
contemporary scholarship.
D) one particular book answers more questions than
the internet can.
30. The author suggests that “Now” (line 30) scholars

have become
A) hopeless.
B) collaborative.
C) inundated.
D) smarter.

•V?
Reading Drill 3
Questions 1-12 are based on the following passage. Passage 2

Passage 1 Music in Peril is hardly surprising in our era of
Music in Peril confirms most of our worst suspicions. apocalyptic surveys, yet more evidence that all the bad
40 things we suspect are worse than we even knew. These
The 201 1 survey gives an interesting but ultimately
surveys are the bread and butter of cultural critics, who
saddening assessment of the state of music in schools. In
Line a span of only thirty years, the number
are always looking for social-scientific support for their
of children playing
own suspicions. These critics were already speaking of
5 musical instruments has been cut in half. If you care about
“decline” and “death,” and now these surveys just give
sustaining cultural life in this country, you are probably as
worried now as many of the rest of us are. 45 more fodder to their calls for “reinvention” and “change.”
Now, for the first time in history, the story goes, fewer
Music in Peril is not the collection of urban legends
children are learning instruments than ever before.
that most of its critics will accuse it of being. It is a set
Nevertheless, Music in Peril misses the important fact
io of data collected from elementary and middle schools all
that music is as interesting as it has ever been, even if the
over the country. With schools represented from each of
the 50 states, it accounts for all the great diversity in this 50 average teen doesn’t know a Beethoven symphony from a
Chopin etude. In the age of the iPod, people are listening
country— not merely race and gender diversity, but class
and regional diversity as well. Given the broad reach of the to music all the time, even if they’re not doing it in quite
the ways or the places that musical conservatives want
15 survey, and the fact that it has collected its data in at least them to.
the five most populous towns in each state, Music in Peril
is a statistically sound document. Although the survey 55 It would be naive, however, to say that Music in Peril’s
findings are completely wrongheaded. Music programs
covers a wide range of topics relating to music education,
have been slashed at many public schools, and less than
the basic results go something like this: music education
half as many children today are learning instruments than
20 and instrument-playing have decreased dramatically
were the generations of forty or fifty years earlier. And
among all children aged 6-18, regardless of race, gender,
60 this statistical certainty is not limited to the less fortunate
or region, and this decrease is occurring at a higher rate
than in the past. areas of the country: “Indeed,” write the statisticians, “the
50 percent reduction is only the median. While some
Even if the data in the report are potentially disturbing
schools have seen more modest declines, many schools
25 these data are hardly unexpected, unless we did not realize
have cut out their music education and appreciation
just how widespread music education was in the past.
Music in Peril has simply put what everyone knows— that 65 programs is the entirely.”
So whatalmost lesson of the survey? The musical
state and federal governments have cut music out of public
landscape is changing, yes, but not in the distressing way
schools at an alarming rate— into the language of statistics.
30 The ability to play a musical instrument and to appreciate that Music in Peril wants to suggest. The survey can’t
capture the fact that classical music is not the only place
music is not inborn, even if some people seem to have
70 to find interesting, complex music anymore, except by the
“natural” talents. True musical proficiency is the result of most conservative, crustiest definitions. Listen to any of
many years of encouraging musical education, and not
the new experimental music in genres like post-rock, math
only for those who eventually become musicians. Ours is
35 a dire world indeed when not only have our musicians lost rock, and tech-noire, and you’ll see that classical music no
the ability to play but also the broader populace has lost longer has an exclusive hold on musical virtuosity. You’ll
75 see that, in surveys like Music in Peril, the only real
the discernment and ability to hear them.
decline is in musical categories that don’t apply anymore.
All that is happening is that the institutions of old are
trying to hold on for dear life and actually belong in the
same irrelevant pile as studies on the decline of cursive or
80 telephone conversations.
Reading Drills 215
/
6described should be considered
2 most likely consider another apocalyptic (line 39)
. idea?
A) rapid.
Which of the fo
B) suspicious. ll ing argues
A) An editorialowthat would that the
the au trend toward
thor of Passage
C) inevitable. the
text messaging has led to a decline in
1. Lines
D) 3-5 (“In a . . . half’) sugges
essential. number of E-mails sent per year
t that the situation
B) An article that shows that reading among
teenagers has increased since the popularization
2. The author of Passage 1 suggests that a set of data of e-readers
(lines 9-10) should ideally be C) A slideshow that details the 20 most

environmentally conscious cities in the United
A) taken from the same set as previous surveys.
States
B) diverse enough to reflect the group it represents.
D) A sociologist who argues that the use of
C) made up of elementary-school-aged children.
smartphones among teenagers will lead to a
D) comprised of equal numbers from each race.
significant increase in driver fatalities
3. The author of Passage 2 would most likely argue that

the reach of the survey (Passage 1, lines 14-15) is
aspe of the stati cert
ct stica aint
A) less representative of racial diversity than the l y?
7
author of Passage 1 promises. A) Its obviousness
B) less relevant to the study than the author of B) Its range
. Passage 1 believes. C) Its conservatism
C) drawn from a group that does not represent the D) Its bias
diversity that the author of Passage 1 assumes.
D) more similar to the reach of previous studies
than the author of Passage 1 knows.
ref in line is
ere
nce
d
A) characterized by a lack of expertise.
Line B) based on regional preferences and racial identity.
4. The final paragraph of Passage 1 (lines 24-37) serves s 55
. -65
primarily to (“C)
It woshifting and thus not possible to describe.
uld
D) no longer... e defined by its traditional parameters.
ntir
ely’
A) discount the survey’s findings by showing that ”) f
ocus
they are already well-known. on w
. hich
B) argue for a new approach that the survey’s
results show is inevitable.
C) take issue with the statisticians who collected A) most ineffective.
the data for the survey.
B) crudest.
D) suggest the cultural implications of the trend it is C) most inflexible.
describing.
D) filthiest.
The
auth
or
of P
ass
a ge
the fina two sen of Pas 1 (lin 3 to 2to inthe las st in Pa 2 (li 77 by
be l ten
ces sag es 2-37) ass dicat t tha atem ssa nes -8
0)
e ert es ge
ing hat t t ent
the
A) overstated. A) a survey of lmusical-education
and programs has
s
. B) ironic. broader cultural caimportance.
pe
C) shrewd. B) classical music is as essential to well-rounded
citizens as cursive.
D) dishonest.
As C) Music in Peril is one of the first studies of
use
di school-aged children.
n lin
e7 D) surveys like the one in Music in Peril are run by
1, “
cru respected statisticians.
sti
est
”m
ost
nea
rly
me
an
s
11. Which best describes the tone of the first paragraph
of Passage 1 and the tone of the first paragraph of
Passage 2, respectively?
A) Morose vs. elated
B) Sensitive vs. offensive
C) Conservative vs. dismissive
D) Concerned vs. skeptical
12. Which best conveys the primary relationship between

the two passages?
A) Passage 2 discusses some of the findings that
undermine the survey described in Passage 1 .
B) Passage 2 takes issue with some of the premises
that shape the argument made in Passage 1 .
C) Passage 2 offers the cultural context that adds
support to the conclusions drawn by the author
of Passage 1.
D) Passage 2 uses. the predictions offered in
Passage 1 as a way to argue for a revolutionary
change.
human personality seems more complex, then the method
of storytelling needs to be changed accordingly. Our need
55 for narrative will not allow us to abandon storytelling
The following excerpt is adapted from a 1985 book on the
altogether. Because after all that has come before us, and
role of storytelling in human understanding.
all that will come later, if we’re not part of the big story,
what are we?
We love to spin yarns, to tell tales, to chronicle events.
If we get even a few details about someone, we’ll start to

connect those details into some kind of narrative about
Line that person. We want any nearby dots to be connected.
5 Effect with no cause, correlation with no causation: we
can’t assimilate these ideas because they don’t have that

narrative structure. Our minds want stories, even if those
1 stories need to be twisted and mangled into existence.

This is how we give order to the chaotic world
to around us. Take any messy, complicated historical event,
3
A) strings.
something like the American Civil War: a bloody and long
.
conflict, and hopelessly complex when taken in isolation. B) tapestries.
Historians and onlookers alike have spent over a century C) narratives.
debating the causes, the effects, and the place of this event D) tails.
15 in the ongoing plot of American history. Neuroscientists
have referred to a “need for narrative,” both as an
explanation for the popularity of fiction and for how As u
sed (li 4) are det
people interact with one another. In the grander scheme, in lnie ails that
ne 1
the need for narrative may inform the way we understand A) are, “part
yams of the simplicity of the meaning of life.
”
20 ourselves. We’ll take anything conclusive as long as it’s
B) do not existmosint the
nearreal world.
consistent. ly
C) different personalities munderstand
eans in different
ways.
4 Personality is one of life’s great mysteries. It is too
large; it has too many components; it has too many D) may not be connected outside the human mind.
omissions. It changes all the time, from day to day or
.
25 hour to hour, and there are times that it can seem we’ve
got multiple personalities at once. Because it is too
many things to manage, we turn personality into a single (li 8 i o t
ne ) n rder o
narrative, a single “me” or “you.” I need my friend Jack to A) chastise readers for accepting simple solutions.
be the brainy one; I need my husband to be the comforting
B) show the historical roots of a human response.
30 one; I need my parents to be my sources of strength.
The C) identify why humans prefer certain types of
Understanding them as I do, as the stories that they are, I auth
. o r impl
ies personality.
simply forget whenever they do something that doesn’t D) thaunderline
t “n the need for a particular preference.
make narrative sense. It makes sense that in the earliest earb
y do
literary and historical texts we have, the main characters ts t
o be
conn
35 are defined by their cardinal attributes. Whether Odysseus ecte
d’
is characterized by his bravery, Penelope by her devotion,
15) ser t e the
or Oedipus by his tragic love, these complex characters are ves o mpha
si
made into simpler, more consistent wholes on the strength A) historical interest ze in conspiracy theories.
of narrative. B) challenge in uncovering historical mysteries.
40 In all eras of history, literature and art have been C) perceived relatedness of historical events.
filled with “characters,” whether the symbolic, Thallegorical D) human talent for creating fictional stories.
e a
characters of the Bible or the subjects of contemporaryuth
. or
biographical film. In the early twentieth century, the very use
s the
notion of “consistent” stories broke down, and characters phr
ase
45 became less rigidly defined as a result. Suddenly, amid “twas a tra be a di of
ist nsi tw sc
ed t ee us
a cultural shift away from religious certainty, one’s and ion n si
A) historical events and literary on texts.
man
environment, one’s historical era, one’s family history gle
could all come to bear on the maze of human personality. B) a contested d” theory and scientific certainty.
Psychologists began to spend entire careers studying C) a neuroscientist’s view and a psychologist’s
critique.
50 human personalities, but for all these changes, the goal
was still the same: contain the human experience, find the D) a general theory and a specific application.
story that can encapsulate all of human complexity. If the
In
con
tex
of the following would most likely be the title of a
study of human personality in the twentieth century?
A) The Tragic Flaw in Human Personality

B) Who We Are In Three Easy Steps
18. Based on
C) The inf ormatiand
Mirror on pre
the sen ted in linofes Personality
Labyrinth 22- 26, which
D) The Role of the American Civil War in History
account for
A) the historically consistent understandings of

personality.
B) psychologists’ desires to do away with

storytelling.
C) a general human distrust of psychological
theories.
D) the broad historical change in attitudes toward
personality.
9The.
auA)
thor hold.
refers to a
“c
B) understand. ultural shift” (line
46) to help
C) imprison.
D) restrain.
lines 56-58 (“Bec ... we?”)

ause ?
A) Our historical era is just as important as other
past eras.
B) People in the future will tell themselves different
stories from the ones we tell ourselves.
C) History is ultimately very similar to writing
fiction or poetry.
D) Life as we know it would be much different
without the need for narrative.
.
d in
line 5
1 , “co
n tain”
most
nearly
means
Reading Drills 219

Questions 22-33 are based on the following passage. of these marriages as interracial: particularly by the 1940s,
Toomer insisted that his race was “American” and by the
end of his life, he may have even identified as a white man.
In this passage, a literary critic discusses some of the
These scraps are all historians have.
issues he encountered while researching the life of Jean 50
By the 1960s, race activism reached its apex with
Toomer (1894-1967), an author from the early to mid- Futher King, Jr., and Malcolm X.
such figures as Martin
twentieth century. Most famous as the author of the Black and white artists alike joined together in the fight
seminal book Cane (1923), Toomer was also a deeply that became known as the Civil Rights movement. By
private individual, whose views of race were often in
that time, however, Jean Toomer was nestled in a deeply
conflict with those of others from his time. 55
private life in Doylestown, Penn., and was not one of the
voices in the fight for black equality. By then, and until his
death in 1967, Toomer was much more taken with local
Though lauded as a central figure in the Harlem
issues, and his main concern was with his church, the
Renaissance, Jean Toomer the man has remained a
mystery to literary historians. In an article published in 60 Friend’s Society of Quakers, and the high school students
whom he taught there.
Line The Crisis in 1924, race leader W.E.B. DuBois pointed to
If Toomer’s early literary output can be more
5 the mystery surrounding Toomer: “All of his essays and thoroughly understood than his later personal life, or his
stories, even when I do not understand them, have their
later racial identification, it can only be because Toomer
strange flashes of power, their numerous messages and
himself wanted it to be so. His own sense of race and
65
numberless reasons for being.” Essayist William Stanley personality was so complex that he likely did not want to
Braithwaite is unreserved in his praise for Toomer’s major become embroiled in debates that were literally so black
to book, Cane (1921): “ Cane is a book of gold and bronze, of
dusk and flame, of ecstasy and pain, and Jean Toomer is a and white. In a 1931 essay, Toomer announced that “the
old divisions into white, black, brown, red, are outworn in
bright morning star of a new day of the race in literature.” this country. They have had their day. Now is the time of
Toomer gained huge accolades from the white literary 70
world as well, and well-known authors such as Sherwood the birth of a new order, a new vision, a new ideal of man.”
15 Anderson and Waldo Frank considered him one of their Whether we consider Toomer’s view naive or not, there
can be no question that he thought himself a part of this
own. But Toomer’s full connection to the white world
“new order.” Because Toomer was such a truly great artist,
remains a mystery, and critics have begun to wonder
literary historians will always long for more information
whether Toomer is the paragon of racial representation 75
that he was initially represented, by Braithwaite especially, about his life. Unfortunately, there’s little hope more
information will emerge, and Jean Toomer the man must
20 to be.
remain an inscrutable piece in our understanding of Jean
For many black artists in the 1930s and 1940s, Jean
Toomer the artist. Perhaps such inscrutability is good for
Toomer was an inspiration. He helped to broaden the
us, too. We should be wary of the rigid categories that
definition of what “race literature” could be. He was not 80
Toomer fought against all his life, and if anything, perhaps
constrained, as many other black authors of the time were,
Toomer’s refusal to fit into these categories can help us to
25 to writing only about race oppression and race conflict. He
modify our own.
could incorporate influences from white as well as black
artists, and he melded them into an innovative style that
mixed poetry, prose, jazz, folklore, and spiritualism. He
showed that an African American author didn’t have to
30 be defined by his race but could enjoy, and even surpass,
the artistic freedom enjoyed by white artists. Furthermore,
he was able to cross over the color line to reach white
audiences, who, in the 1920s especially, remained 22. The author suggests that Toomer’s relationship with
the black community has remained a mystery to
widely uninformed about cultural production by African
35 Americans. literary historians (lines 2-3) because
Still, his relationship to civil rights and the African A) details of Toomer’s later life are insufficient to
American community has been difficult to determine. explain his personal attitudes.
After the success of Cane, Toomer contributed only a few B) Toomer’s fame in literary circles was not
more essays before withdrawing from the literary world acknowledged by white authors.
40 altogether. In the 1930s, he had nearly disappeared from
C) Toomer’s essays provide inconsistent
the literary scene, and his two marriages, in 1931 and representations of his views.
1934, were interracial, both to white women. Although D) evidence shows that Toomer worked against the
intermarriage between blacks and whites was still socially Civil Rights movement.
vilified at the time, Toomer’s attitude toward this social

45 restriction is vague. Toomer himself may not have thought

23. In lines 3-16, the author’s discussion of Toomer’s
contemporaries and later artists is used to
2 which aspect of Toomer’s approach to race issues?
9
A) show how one .
particular era viewed the role of A) His disapproval of broad social changes
race in art.
TheB) woHis
rd “t
ability
aken” to(lin
play both sides of an issue
C) His focus on smaller
e 57) mo st directly em
matters
B) give evidence of their views of Toomer’s phasizes
influence on black artists and thinkers. D) His eagerness to fight for broader causes
C) provide examples of Toomer’s literary mastery
and experimentation.
D) list the challenges faced by black artists in
contemporary society. about Toome
r ?
3 A) His contemporaries disparaged him for his

24.
0 As used in line 9, “unreserved” most nearly means cowering attitude toward social equality
A) vacant. . B) His attitude toward race was rooted in private
B) available. and philosophical concerns
C) garrulous. C) His public attitude toward race differed sharply
D) complete. from his private views
In line
sD)61-6His commitment to racial equality influenced his
7, the
politicalauviews
thor e on race
mphas
25. The author mentions Waldo Frank and Sherwood izes
which
Anderson (lines 14-15) as indications of the point
A) urgency with which Toomer courted a white

readership. 31. As used in lines 66-67, “black and white” most nearly
means
B) limited supply of published reviews of Toomer’s

first novel. A) faintly tinged.
C) types of influences upon which Toomer drew in B) socially progressive.

writing Cane. C) racially complex.
D) reductively simple.
D) appeal that Toomer had to both black and white
readers.
32. Which resource, if it existed, would be most helpful

26. The author most directly supports the statement in
for the task described in lines 75-78 (“Unfortunately
lines 21-22 (“For many ... inspiration”) by citing
... artist”)?
A) influences from which Toomer drew inspiration.
A) Accurate information about the progress of
B) the reception of Toomer’s work by contemporary social equality in the United States
black critics.
B) Toomer’s personal diary or autobiography
C) lists of Toomer’s most famous published works.
C) Records of household income kept by Toomer’s
D) aspects of Toomer’s art that showed a new way. wives
D) Statements from later authors about the
27. “These scraps” (line 49) most directly refer to importance of Toomer’s influence
evidence that
A) gives actual details of Toomer’s biography.

B) paints a complete picture of Toomer’s life. em whi of the fol poi
C) frees literary historians to speculate. ph ch low nts
as i ?
iz
D) reaffirms the messages found in Toomer’s work. A) es
Toomer identified as whitengat the end of his life
to distance himself from Civil Rights.
28. In lines 50-53, the author discusses race activism B) Those in the Civil Rights movement
were correct to dismiss Toomer as a
primarily to
counterproductive force.
A) demonstrate that Toomer’s racial attitudes were C) Toomer had more advanced views than most
atypical. African American authors from the 1920s.
B) praise the achievements of the Civil Rights
. movement. D) Toomer’s personal views on race remain
complex even in our own day.
C) refer to a major equality movement in American
history.
D) state that Toomer had no interest in

contemporary race relations.
Reading Drills 221
Reading Drill 4
Questions 1-12 are based on the following passage. as 2003, in a war that was billed as one of self-defense,
45 George W. Bush was promising Americans, “Helping
Iraqis achieve a united, stable, and free country will
This passage is adapted from a 2009 book looking at
Western (that is, European and American ) attempts to require our sustained commitment.”
Bush is the inheritor of a long tradition of this belief
modernize the Middle East and other regions.
in the power of Western influence. This influence, though,
50 has not been a pure force for good. While Western systems
The international history of the twentieth century of government were created as responses to nation states
is overflowing with Western projects to modernize and royal traditions, non-Western nations have their own
set of foundations and traditions. The earliest colonial
the Middle East. The United States, and England to a
governments in these non-Western regions were run by
Line lesser degree, have tried to bring freedom to oppressed
55 Westerners. But now that the colonial governments have
5 peoples throughout the region, and as the word “freedom” been kicked out, a system of rule by the actual people who
implies, this was a philanthropic mission. President
live in these non- Western nations must be something else.
Bill Clinton, for example, is still praised for his role in
Israeli-Palestinian peace talks, even as his other failures To take one example, the name “Iraq” is not quite
and accomplishments gained front page news in the mid- as applicable to all its citizens as the names “France,”
60 “Portugal,” or “The United States” are in their own
10 1990s. His even-handed, mediating role helped to save
regions. For many Westerners, nationality is a given
these warring states from total destruction. This attitude
and ultimately trumps the more local identifications of
toward non-Western regions, the belief that the West's town, city, or state. In Iraq, as the Bush administration
systems of government can help save the people of the
learned, religious distinctions are more meaningful than
Middle East, Africa, or Latin America, is a holdover from
65 national similarities. Approximately 65 percent of those
15 an imperial moment, when European nations conquered
living in Iraq are Shia Muslims, but does this make it a
these regions with militaries rather than diplomats. It may
Shia country? To an extent, maybe, but Sunni Muslims
be time to start asking, however, whether Western systems
represent a powerful and vocal minority, and the northern
of government are universally applicable. That is to say,
regions of Iraq comprise a semiautonomous region of a
perhaps the Western value of “freedom”— as it relates to 70 third group, the Kurds. The Western notions of nation-
20 markets, speech, and behaviors— is not one that is shared
by people outside the West. Unrest in the Middle East and above- all and religious coexistence can’t maintain in
this and other countries because the value systems have
other non-Western regions can only continue until new developed so independently of these notions.
systems of governance begin to emerge from the regions
themselves. As in many other parts of the world, “Iraqi freedom”
75 was defined by someone other than the Iraqis themselves.
25 These modernization projects bear an eerie
Western civilizing efforts have always been based on
resemblance to the “civilizing missions” of European the unfortunate premise that non-Westerners cannot
nations in the nineteenth century. These missions
govern themselves, often on no other evidence than
always begin with the premise that those in non-Western
nations are unable to govern themselves. In most cases, Westerners’ firm belief in the success of their own political
80 systems. The refusal to accept that the basic principles
30 the result is little more than a large-scale, prolonged
of democracy and free-market capitalism may not be
clash of cultures, in which prejudices toward the “poor universally applicable has always compromised efforts at
souls” who can’t take care of themselves only become Western modernization because these efforts have lacked
that much firmer in the minds of the un-self-conscious
the appropriate local perspectives. Certainly, Western
interlopers. The native peoples who are then forced to
85 nations are today more sensitive to cultural differences
35 live under the new government’s rule become extremely than they have ever been. It remains to be seen, however,
skeptical of it, as its supposed successes are measured
whether this new multicultural stance is a genuine change
by seemingly irrelevant metrics. Many ancient and
or a simple repackaging of an old product.
historical societies come from these regions, but since the
seventeenth century, these regions have been considered
40 almost universally backward. This notion persists in
contemporary politics, and in the United States, the idea
that the U.S. is making the world safe for democracy is
common among both major political parties. As recently

5. According to the author, what has changed since the
seventeenth century (line 39)?
East”), the phrase “overflowing with” suggests that
A) modernization is a common subject of A) Native citizens are now in open conflict with
conversation for Middle Eastern visitors to the Western-style governments.
West. B) Middle Eastern government officials look to the
1. In the context of lin
B) some Middle esEast
1-3countries
(“The inthave
ernatibeen
onal subject
... to West for models of how to govern.
more modernization efforts than others. C) Regions that were once considered model
C) there have been many attempts by Western civilizations are no longer thought of as ideals.
countries to modernize the Middle East.
D) People in non-Western countries are not
D) there are simply too many countries in the willing to compromise in a way that supports
democracy.
Middle East for historians to describe accurately.
6. The statement that Western influence has not been a

order to pure force for good (line 50) suggests that the author,
in general, believes that
A) cite one person who represents a certain
A) people in the Middle East would prefer to
perspective.
have their fellow citizens in high government
B) describe the rewards of one person’s courage
against difficult odds. positions.
B) people in the Middle East have not necessarily
C) state that those who have contributed to peace in
benefited from Western-style governments.
the region come from a variety of backgrounds.
C) voters in Middle East elections wish there were
D) show that Middle East peace was only one of
more candidates from the West.
Clinton’s minor accomplishments. D) forms of democracy in the Middle East are more
advanced than those in the West.
3. According to the passage, it is worth asking whether

Western systems of government are universally 7. As used Ain line 62, “trumps” most nearly means
)
applicable (line 1 8) because they
A) kicks out.
A) are too reliant upon ancient forms of non- B) B)
defeats by force.
.
The aut Western government. C)
hor men C) beautifies.
tions toB recognize the accomplishments of
B) refuse ill Clin D) isD)more important than.
ton (lin
diplomats like Bill Clinton. e 7) pri
marily
in
C) have as their only goal the introduction of
Western goods into non-Westem markets. 8. As used in line 7 1 , “maintain” most nearly means
D) may not be the most appropriate forms of work.
government for those outside the West. hang.
repair.
build.
4. Which of the following best states how the peoples
mentioned in line feel about West-influenced
governments?
ma in lin 7 (“ . . . th
A) They despise the governments because they are de es 4-75 As em
s
A) The Western influence in theelMiddle ve East has
hopelessly corrupt. s”
not been able to overcome internal ) divisions
B) They question the ability of their fellow citizens
amonggroups within Iraq.
to govern them.
B) Many representatives from the Middle East
C) They doubt that the governments have delivered have been crucial to developing the government
on all that they have promised.
systems that exist in the Middle East today.
D) They support the new regime because it
represents a change from old ways. C) Contemporary styles of government in the
Middle East can be traced back to principles
developed in Europe in the late 1700s.
D) Famous diplomats such as Bill Clinton have
continued to offer guidance to those in the
Middle East and elsewhere.
Reading Drills 223
1*
y'
10. Which of the following best describes the sentence in
lines 84-86 (“Certainly . . . been”)?
A) A response to critics of the author’s own

argument
B) An idea developed further in other works by the
author
C) A tangent that the author considers necessary for
his main point
D) A concession that contemporary trends are not
exclusively negative
11. The author uses the phrase “repackaging of an old

product” (line 86) primarily to
A) outline an analogy for an ideal approach.
B) suggest the type of reformulation necessary for
success.
C) express skepticism toward a certain
transformation.
D) criticize the financial interests of Western
governments.
approach to be a new strategy for the formation of

governments in the Middle East?
A) Allowing Western governments to shape

government policy in the Middle East
B) Breaking down cultural barriers within countries
to promote national unity
C) Increasing the authority of government officials
to implement Western democracy
D) Collaborating with local representatives to
determine which style of government is best for
a particular country
.
hor
woul
d mo
st likel
y co
nsid
er w
hich

V
inadvertently.
This situation leaves both the reader and the critic at an
This passage is adapted from Jennifer O’Sullivan,
Reflection or Reimagining: Examining Authorial Intent intriguing impasse: when can we know when a seemingly
55 autobiographical image in a fictional work is actually
in Twentieth Century Fiction.© 2013 by The Gazette of
Literary Criticism. meaningful? When, in Ulysses, Joyce’s literary alter
ego Stephen Dedalus muses on whether Shakespeare’s
The Irish author James Joyce (1882-1941) created characters were all based on actual people that he knew,
some of the most unique and personal, yet controversial is this an example of Joyce commenting indirectly on
and inaccessible, literature of the last century. With 60 Shakespeare, or of Joyce alluding to his own work?
Line his modernist, experimental narrative style, his close Regardless of how tempting it may be for the reader to
5 attention to the details of ordinary life, his novel technical read Ulysses or A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man
innovations, and his recurring themes of isolation and solely through the biography of Joyce, such a technique is
exile, Joyce created fictional worlds at once stark and fraught with danger, since we can ultimately never be sure
foreign, yet simultaneously rich and familiar. 65 exactly what any author means to express through his or
In order to better decipher the seemingly endless her art.
to conundrum of Joyce’s meanings and messages, it is

worth turning one’s attention to events in Joyce’s life
that may help the reader understand some of the sources
of his creative inspiration. While studies of Joyce have
considered the importance of Joyce’s years in exile to

15 his writing, few have made explicit the connections
between Joyce’s writing and the specific contexts of his

time abroad; Richard Ellman’s definitive 1959 treatment
and John McCourt’s more recent work are the exceptions
rather than the rule in this regard. The parallels between 13. The author mentions Joyce’s viewpoint (“Joyce
himself . . . autobiographically”) in lines 43-44 to
20 the reality of Joyce’s life and the fictional worlds he
created are too frequent to ignore. emphasize
Joyce first fled Dublin in 1904 with his lifelong love, A) how temptingof it
a reflection hismay
life be to read Joyce’s work as
Nora Barnacle, for reasons both personal and professional.
Joyce and Barnacle were then unmarried, and their B) that Joyce intended to fool the reader all along
25 relationship was the target of social condemnation. So, C) that Joyce had to fight with his critics to have his
work interpreted this way
too, was Joyce driven out of Ireland by the Catholic
D) that Joyce always spoke directly through one of
Church’s harsh criticism of his early writings in which
the characters in his books
he clearly rejected what he felt to be the Church’s
oppressive spiritual controls. For eleven years, the couple
30 lived in the major Mediterranean seaport of Trieste, 14. The author most nearly believes that Ulysses
then an Austrian imperial city. Trieste was a melting
A) is autobiographical in nature, and that Stephen
pot of mercantile, religious, and cultural activity, and Dedalus can be understood to represent Joyce
its language, Triestino (which Joyce came to speak himself.
beautifully) was an amalgamation of blended words
B) is pure fiction, and that nothing in the book
35 and sounds from many languages. Joyce’s exposure to represents anything that ever happened to Joyce.
Triestino directly influenced Joyce’s fashioning of his own
C) probably reflects elements of Joyce’s life, but
potpourri language for his final novel Finnegan’s Wake; that it is difficult to say exactly which details are
the composite dialect of the work harkened back to its
autobiographical.
English origins, but also incorporated diverse elements of D) is the most unique example of autobiographical
40 many tongues. fiction written in the Twentieth Century.
As Joyce’s most famous biographer, Ellman, notes,
every moment of an author’s waking life may manifest 15. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
itself in the author’s work, and Joyce himself encouraged answer to the previous question?
his audience to read his works autobiographically.
45 However, ferreting out the autobiographical elements from A) Lines 1 -3 (“The Irish author . . . last century”)
Joyce’s work involves much more than such a superficial B) Lines 19-21 (“The parallels . . . ignore”)
survey of literary images. The relationship between an C) Lines 41-44 (“As Joyce’s . . .
author’s writings and the author’s life experiences is not as autobiographically”)
transparent as it may seem. A writer’s life may be reflected D) Lines 61-66 (“Regardless of . . . her art”)
50 in his work, but this reflection is almost always distorted
to some degree, sometimes purposefully, and sometimes
Reading Drills 225

16. It can be inferred that Joyce left Dublin and went into
21. According to the ideas presented in the final
exile to
paragraph, which of the following is the most
A) find literary inspiration
appropriate interpretation of Dedalus’s claim
B) attain greater artistic and personal freedom regarding Shakespeare?
C) accept a job as a writer A) The character of Dedalus was a literary critic.
D) escape Nora’s parents’ disapproval B) Joyce expressed this controversial belief through
Dedalus to protect his career.
17. The description of Joyce’s work in the first paragraph believed

have based Shakesp eare’s
provides information about all of the following C) charactemay
Joyce rs were on real people.
EXCEPT D) Dedalus was based on a person Joyce knew
A) when Joyce wrote his first novel personally.

B) the style in which Joyce wrote
C) the degree of critical acclaim Joyce has received 22. All of the following could be considered
D) when Joyce lived autobiographical elements in Joyce’s writing

EXCEPT
18. In line 10, “conundrum” most nearly means A) themes of isolation and exile
B) a character who worked as a sailor in Trieste
A) conception
C) a character who is persecuted for his religious
B) intuition beliefs
C) parody
D) the character of Stephen Dedalus
D) puzzle
19. Which of the following best describes the

organization of the passage?
A) The author makes a specific claim, offers

evidence to support this claim, and ends by
expanding the discussion to a more general, but
related, idea.
B) The author states the main point, offers three
theories that may support this point, and ends
by selecting the theory that provides the best
evidence.
C) The author makes a claim, shows that other
writers also make this claim, and ends by
criticizing the others’ research methods.

D) The author summarizes scholarly literature about
James Joyce, then concludes that Joyce isn’t as

great a writer as originally claimed.
20. The comment in lines 51-52 (“sometimes

purposefully, and sometimes inadvertently”) suggests
that
A) writers are usually writing about themselves

B) writers may misrepresent an actual event in a
fictional work without realizing it
C) readers should not trust writers who write
autobiographically
D) readers don’t always interpret a novel the way

the author intended

v
Questions 23-32 are based on the following passage. in relatively calm denial of this possibility, until he had
This passage is adapted from Arthur Loman, Life of a 55 driven many more miles and passed several other turns.
Salesman. © 2007 by Arthur Loman. “This road doesn’t look like it goes the right way,” he
would grumble. “Too many other people are turning off
William was completely lost, that much he knew.
here; I don’t want to get stuck in traffic.” And maybe, just
Unfortunately, that was all he knew.
maybe, he hadn’t missed his turn, and it was going to
Of course, he hated to admit it when he was lost, so
Line 60 appear around the next bend in the road. “No way to find
much so that when he did get lost, it would inevitably
5 out but to keep on going.” Obviously, the sensible thing to
create a tragic episode of the grandest proportions, rather do would be to pull over, and consult a map, or perhaps
than a minor inconvenience. In a way, that made it easier use the cell phone to call for assistance. Neither of these
for him to explain his tardiness to others. It was certainly things was an option as far as William was concerned.
easier to evade responsibility for a huge, unforeseeable
65 The cell phone, as he put it, “should be used only in
mishap chan for a series of small, yet obvious, errors.
10 emergencies.” Since nothing that ever happened to him
These situations always started out the same way.
constituted an “emergency” in his mind, he never once
William would be setting out to drive to a business actually used the phone.
appointment. Before leaving he would verify that he had As to maps, he never carried one. He claimed that most
everything he needed for the day. First he checked to see
70 of them were useless to him, as they were “organized and
that he had his briefcase. He then checked and rechecked
15 planned so badly.” In any event, what need did he have
the contents of the briefcase to see that every possible for maps when he always had his directions written out so
carefully?
document he might need was there, not to mention extra
pens, notepads, a calculator, spare calculator batteries, his So on and on he drove, hoping that some type of
cell phone, and spare cell phone battery. 75 resolution would eventually reveal itself to him, that it
He even insisted upon carrying a miniature tape would suddenly occur to him where to turn around, what
20 recorder, and spare batteries for that, as well. The to do. On one occasion, he drove through three different
inclusion of this last item was particularly perplexing to states before finding his way back to the office, well after
his coworkers, as there was no possible use for it in his dark, his suit rumpled, but his blue necktie still flying
work. When casually queried about the tape recorder, 80 proudly.
William merely responded, “I might need it.” That much,

25 certainly, was evident, and they let the matter drop. To
be sure, his insistence on traveling with a tape recorder
for which he had no need was not the oddest thing
about William, as far as his coworkers were concerned.
Although his hygiene and grooming were impeccable, his
30 clothing seemed remarkably similar, if not identical, from
one day to the next. His coworkers surmised that he owned
several suits and ties, all of the same cut, in just two colors,
navy blue and brown.
As he began his trip, William would have the
23. The primary purpose of the passage is to
35 directions to his destination neatly written out in his own,
extremely precise handwriting (the only handwriting he A) recount the mishaps of a man driving to a
business meeting
could dependably read, he would say). The directions
would be hung on the dashboard within easy view, on a B) chronicle the idiosyncrasies of a traveling
businessman
miniature clipboard. William didn’t actually need the
40
directions at that point, since he had already committed C) provide a detailed description of a day in the life
them to memory. In fact, if you were in the car with him of a salesperson
on such occasions (a practical impossibility since William D) explain a man’s lateness to his co-workers
would never drive with anyone in the car during business
hours, not that anyone was anxious to, of course), you 24. The list of items in William’s briefcase (lines 15-18)
45
would hear him muttering a litany of lefts and rights; serves to
chanting his mantra, street names and route numbers in

A) give an indication of the compulsive nature of
their proper order.
William’s preparations.
Everything would be going fine until something
would distract William, perhaps a flock of birds flying B) illustrate the stupidity of William’s behavior.
C) show that William was a conscientious planner.
50
in formation, or an out-of-state license plate he didn’t D) describe all the items William might need while
recognize. Several minutes would pass, and he would at a business appointment.
slowly realize that he might have lost command of his
directions and missed a turn. He would remain, however,
Reading Drills
227
25. The attitude of William’s coworkers toward him can 31. The reference to maps (line 69) implies that William
best be described as
A) has much to learn about navigation
A) mildly curious relies more on instinct than reason
B)
B) coldly indifferent
C) overtly condescending C) questions the mapmaker’s eye for detail
D) does not trust the orderliness of most maps
D) deeply intrigued
32. The author refers to William’s “blue necktie” (line 79)

26. Which choice provides the best evidence for the in order to suggest
A) the importance William places on his hygiene
A) Lines 7-9 (“It was certainly . . . errors”) and grooming
B) Lines 25-28 (“To be sure . . . concerned”) B) his ability to display dignity despite his mistakes
C) Lines 53-55 (“He would remain . . . turns”) C) the lack of variety in his wardrobe
D) Lines 77-80 (“On one occasion . . . proudly”) D) his obliviousness to the fact the he caused his
own tardiness
27. William’s answer to his coworkers’ questions about

his tape recorder (lines 19-25) implies that he
A) knows much more about the applications of
technology in business than they do
B) records business conversations in order to have
proof of what was discussed
C) believes it is best to be prepared for any
contingency
D) feels that their questions are rude and intrusive
28. William’s preparations for his business meetings are

best described as
A) professional
B) careless
C) useful
D) fruitless
29. As used in line 44, “anxious” most nearly means

A) nervous.
B) eager.
C) uneasy.
D) stressed.
30. As used in lines 51-53 “command” most nearly means

A) power.
B) authority.
C) leader.
D) control.

Reading Drill 5
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. military and sought it in more disciplined fields such as
This passage is adapted from Marcantonio Raimondi , law, medicine, and business. The famous “Organization
From Reproduction to Objet: Printmaking in America. © Man” could hardly have had such success if this less
2011 by Art History Quarterly. independent group had not also made a major contribution
to post-war society.) In the late 1940s, then, one could
“Printmaker!” The connotation of this word, curiously so observe the beginnings of a phenomenal expansion of
absent from other languages, began to have some meaning art education in institutions of higher learning, where art
only after World War II. Surely, before the war, and often departments attracted returning G.I.s who had completed
Line
in the long, splendid history of prints, there had been their undergraduate work before the war, and in older,
5
artists who created nothing but prints. However, in most established art schools that were filled to capacity with
cases the artists drew a composition before going to the 55 those who had finished only high school. Students who fell
plate or block of stone, rather than working directly on under the spell of Lasansky during his first years at the
these materials exclusively. Even this is not the entire State University of Iowa went on to found print workshops
distinction between earlier artists like Callot and Meryon in other universities. Soon students of these workshops
10 and those followers of Hayter who could be called pioneered others, so that in a very short time there were
only “printmakers.” Callot and Meryon made prints that, 60 facilities for the study of printmaking in most universities
following the original object of working in a multiple in the United States.
medium, were meant to be printed in large numbers for The proliferation of places where printmaking was
wide distribution of the image. Indeed, many painters taught and the subsequent increase in the number of
15 made prints for this sole reason. But the printmakers of printmakers led to the birth of ancillary institutions: the
the second half of the twentieth century have found that
65 Brooklyn Museum’s annual National Print Exhibition,
creating in a print medium is itself totally satisfying; an open exhibition, in contrast with the traditional
they often care not at all if no more than a few copies invitational showings of the Society of Etchers (note
are made before they go on to the next image. It is the that these artists referred to themselves as etchers, not
20 complex techniques of printmaking that entrance them. In
printmakers) or the other one -medium groups such as
the words of Sylvan Cole, former Director of Associated 70 the National Serigraph Society; the International Group
American Artists (AAA, the largest print gallery in Arts Society, a membership/subscription organization the
America and publisher of over 1,500 prints since 1934), purpose of which was to publish and sell prints by new
“The change that was taking place was the breakup with artists of less conservative nature than those sponsored
25
the artist/painter (or Abstract Expressionist) who was not by AAA; and regional and international exhibitions
interested in printmaking, and out of this came a man 75 devoted exclusively to prints, such as the Northwest
called a printmaker, people like Karl Schrag, Peterdi, Printmakers Society, the Philadelphia Print Club, and
Lasansky, Misch Kohn— who built their reputations as international biennials of prints in Cincinnati, Ljubljana,
and Tokyo. Thus, in the United States and elsewhere, the
30 printmakers.”
Before the war, artists made considerable numbers of need to show and distribute the outpourings of the print
prints. This was their only work; no doubt it was often a 80 workshops produced new organizations that in turn further
matter of survival, not preference. Dozens of prints in a encouraged the creation of prints.
relatively new medium, silkscreen, were turned out for the
adornment of schools and other government buildings.
35 The G.I. Bill filled the colleges, universities, and art
schools of post-war America during a period of prosperity 1. Which of the following could be expected of a
that encouraged such institutions to enlarge their facilities disciple of Lasanky?
or open new ones, particularly those devoted to the arts.
Many veterans who would never have had the opportunity A) Viewing the intricacies of print production as a
40 necessary but uninteresting part of their art
to attend college if they had not been drafted had little
B) Focusing on the mass production or distribution
direction — were “lost,” so to speak — and found that the
of new prints
unrestrained atmosphere of the post-war art schools and
art departments represented just the sort of freedom they C) Forgoing the composition stage in the creation
of new art
needed after years of military conformity. (Many others,
45 D) Advocating that artists work in multiple medium
of course, had profited from the organized lifestyle of the formats
Reading Drills 229

7. In line 34, “adornment” most nearly means
A) inundation
A) Lines 5-8 (“However, in most . . . exclusively”) B) decoration
B) Lines 19-20 (“It is the . . . entrance them”) C) enjoyment
C) Lines 32-34 (“Dozens of prints . . . buildings”) D) construction
D) Lines 55-58 (“Students who fell . . .
universities”) 8. The purpose of the G.I. Bill, mentioned in line 35,
was to
3. In lines 11-14, the author asserts that Callot and
A) allow veterans to bypass college in order to
Meryon
concentrate on artistic pursuits
A) collaborated with Hayter in pioneering the role B) allow veterans to attend colleges or specialized
of “printmaker” schools by offering assistance after the war

B) were more concerned with producing large
C) provide the “lost” veterans with a place to study
numbers of prints than Hayter’s disciples had been D) open new facilities or strengthen already
D) found complete satisfaction in the creating art established art institutions
through a print medium
E) were difficult to distinguish from earlier artists,
9. In line 41 , “lost” most nearly means
like Hayter
A) unfound
B) desperate
4. The author contends that “printmakers of the . . .
C) aimless
twentieth century” (lines 15-16)
D) aberrant
A) were more concerned with the quantity of their
prints than with the intricacy of their work
10. The author attributes the “phenomenal expansion of
B) were often distracted from their primary
art education” (lines 50-51) primarily to
intention by the complexity of printmaking
A) increased membership in the military
C) were fulfilled by the act of printmaking itself,
B) the appeal of art departments both to veterans
while mass production was a secondary concern
who had graduated from college and to those
D) wanted to achieve international recognition for who had not
their groundbreaking work
C) the State University of Iowa’s groundbreaking
work in recruiting students
5. The author quotes Sylvan Cole in lines 24-29 in order to D) the influence in the late 1940s of the famous
A) demonstrate how Cole changed the art of
“Organization Man”
printmaking during the turn of the century
B) introduce the term “Abstract Expressionist” and 11. In the final paragraph, the author cites which of the
examine its place in the art movement
following effects of the “proliferation of places where
C) explain the relationship between printmaking
printmaking was taught” (line 63) in the United
and painting States?
D) provide support for his assertions about the new
A) The increased opportunities to display
developments in printmaking
printmakers’ work encouraged the production of
more prints.
6. The purpose of the second paragraph (lines 30-34) in B) The financial success of the AAA encouraged
relation to the passage is to
many businesses to establish their own
A) provide support for the idea that modem institutions.
printmaking emerged only after World War II C) Attempts to expose the public to the works of
B) acquaint the reader with the long established less conservative artists produced a backlash
history of printmaking as a distinct art form against all printmakers.
C) question the originality of such artists as Callot D) Increased publicity spurred a rise in public
and Meryton who claimed to have invented appreciation and financial support.
modem printmaking
D) argue for the recognition of artists who were
forced to create prints for the government

What troubles scientists most about these “perfect
Adapted from Bradley J. Phillips, Coronal Mass Ejections: storms” is not only their potential for interstellar mischief,
New Research Directions. Journal of Solar Research, 2009. but also the fact that they are so difficult to forecast. For
30 one thing, remarkable though these solar occurrences
The idea that the sun has an almost unambiguously might be, they are still a relatively rare phenomenon, and
benign effect on our planet appears, on the surface, to the few existing records regarding major CMEs provide
be an incontrovertible one. Few people realize, however, researchers with scant information from which to draw
Line that certain events on the sun can have disastrous conclusions about their behavior. Solar storm watchers
5 consequences for life here on Earth. The geomagnetic 35 are frustrated by yet another limitation: time. CMEs have
storm is one such phenomenon. These storms begin on the been known to travel through space at speeds approaching
surface of the sun when a group of sunspots creates a burst 5 million miles per hour, which means they can cover the
of electromagnetic radiation. These bursts thrust billions 93 million miles between the sun and the Earth in well
of tons of ionized gas, known as plasma, into space; under 20 hours. (Some have been known to travel the same
to scientists refer to these solar projections as coronal mass 40 distance in as little as 14 hours.) The difficulties created
ejections (CMEs). After this initial explosion, the CME by this narrow window of opportunity are compounded by
gets caught up in a shower of particles, also known as a the fact that scientists are able to determine the orientation
“solar wind,” that continuously rains down on the Earth of a CMEs magnetic field only about 30 minutes before
from the sun.
it reaches the atmosphere, giving them little or no time to
15 The last recorded instance of a major CME occurred in
45 predict the storm’s potential impact on the surface.
1989, when the resulting geomagnetic storm knocked out Some world governments hope to combat this problem
an entire electrical power grid, depriving over six million by placing a satellite in orbit around the sun to monitor
energy consumers of power for an extended period. As activity on its surface, in the hopes that this will buy
we become increasingly dependent on new technologies scientists more time to predict the occurrence and intensity
20 to sustain ourselves in our day-to-day activities, the 50 of geomagnetic storms. In the meantime, many energy
potential havoc wrought by a major CME becomes even providers are responding to the CME threat by installing
more distressing. Scientists conjecture that a “perfect voltage control equipment and limiting the volume of
storm” would have the potential to knock out power grids electricity generated by some power stations.
across the globe and create disruptions in the orbit of low-
25 altitude communication satellites, rendering such satellites
practically useless.
Geomagnetic Storm Activity as Measured by Change in Disturbance Storm index (DST)
Reading Drills
231
y tr
12. With which of the following statements would the
16. As used in line 33, “scant” most nearly means
author of this article be most likely to agree?
A) CMEs are a subject of interest but little practical A) limited.

B) exhaustive.
importance, because there is nothing that can be
C) excessive.
done to minimize their impact.
D) appropriate.
B) In the next decade, a perfect storm will
interrupt power supplies and cause extensive 17. The author first mentions geomagnetic storms in order
inconvenience and loss of services.
to illustrate which of the following claims?
C) We should learn more about the potential
dangers of CMEs, but few steps can be taken to A) Many energy companies are installing voltage
control equipment and limiting the amount of
alter such storms’ effects.
D) Each of us should view a significant CME as power used by power stations.
a real possibility but should also expect that B) Despite the widespread notion that the sun has
leaders will have effective protective measures apparently limited effects on Earth, certain
events on the sun can in fact have serious
in place before such an event.
consequences for our planet.
C) It is an incontrovertible fact that the sun has
13. Which of the following can most reasonably be
virtually no effect on our planet.
inferred about the significant CME that took place in
1989? D) Major CMEs are a relatively rare phenomenon,
despite the fact that they have been known to
A) Because of the hysteria caused by this storm, travel between the sun and the Earth in under 20
scientists and world leaders are more fearful of hours.
future storms than they are willing to express
publicly. 18. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
B) The next geomagnetic storm that occurs will be answer to the previous question?
much worse.
C) Its effects were limited to knocking out a power A) Lines 6-8 (“These storms . . . electromagnetic
grid, depriving customers of power for a week.
radiation.”)
D) A geomagnetic storm of similar magnitude B) Lines 8-11 (“These bursts . . . coronal mass
could easily cause more extensive damage and
C) ejections.”)
Lines 11-14 (“After this ... the sun.”)
hardship in today’s society.
D) Lines 15-18 (“The last . . . extended period.”)
14. The information presented in the graph above
supports which of the following claims made by the 19. The author uses the term “compounded by” (line 41)
to
author?
A) emphasize the fact that these researchers face
A) CMEs can travel between the sun and the earth
in under 20 hours. even more stringent time limits than those
already mentioned.
B) The last recorded instance of a major CME
occurred in 1989. B) assert that the scientists working to predict
CMEs are not given adequate time to do so
C) A perfect storm has the power to disrupt power successfully.
grids. C) disprove the notion that the orientation of CMEs

D) Geomagnetic storms thrust billions of tons of
affects the length of time available for scientific
ionized gas into space.
inquiry into this phenomenon.
D) caution readers that speculations of energy
15. According to the data in the graph above, which of
providers might heighten the uncertainty raised
the following can be inferred about the pattern in
geomagnetic storm activity between 1980 and 2007? by CMEs.
A) Geomagnetic storm activity increased each year.
B) Geomagnetic storm activity decreased each year.
C) Geomagnetic storm activity remained constant.
D) No pattern in geomagnetic storm activity can be
determined.

20. Which of the following were mentioned as factors
contributing to the difficulty of forecasting CMEs?
I. Limited available reaction time in which to

determine orientation
II. The tendency of voltage controls to be

overridden by electrical surges
III. Insufficient data upon which to base assessments

of past behavior
A) I only
B) I and II
C) I and III
D) II and III only
21. The primary purpose of this passage is

A) to describe the chilling potential effects of a
perfect storm.
B) to inform readers about CMEs and their effects
on electrical circuitry on Earth.
C) to persuade readers that CMEs are a problem
that both governments and individual citizens
need to combat.
D) to inform readers about a potentially dangerous
phenomenon and the difficulties in addressing
that danger.
Questions 22-32 are based on the following passage. Passage 2
40
Adapted from Maxwell Foltz, Stellar Bodies: An Astrophysicist Stephen Hawking has suggested the
Introduction. St. James Press, 1994 existence of mini black holes. There is no observational
evidence for a mini hole, but they are theoretically
Passage 1
plausible. Hawking has deduced that small black holes can
The concept of black holes is not new; it also arises in
seem to emit energy in the form of elementary particles
Newtonian gravity. Laplace pointed out in 1824 that if a 45
(neutrinos, etc.). The mini holes would thus evaporate and
star contains enough mass in a small enough package, the
disappear. This may seem to contradict the concept that
Line velocity needed to escape from its surface is greater than
mass can’t escape from a black hole, but when we consider
5 that of light. No light can get out, though light and matter
effects of quantum mechanics, the picture of black holes
can enter. Simply add the speed limit of c from special that we have discussed thus far is insufficient. Hawking
relativity, and you have a one-way ticket into the universe; 50
suggests that a black hole so affects the space near it that
nothing that goes in can ever get out.
a pair of particles— a nuclear particle and its antiparticle—
In general relativity, unlike Laplace’s case, the light can form simultaneously. The antiparticle disappears into
w does not just fall back. It simply travels on curved paths the black hole, and the remaining particle reaches us.
smaller than the size of the star. The star is thus plucked Emission from black holes is significant only for
out of space-time. 55
the smallest ones, for the amount of radiation increases
The density of matter required is phenomenal. Our sun
sharply as we consider less and less massive back holes.
would have to be only a few miles in diameter to become
Only mini black holes up to the mass of an asteroid would
is a black hole. The pressure generated by the nuclear “flame” have had time to disappear since the origin of the universe.
in its heart prevents it from collapsing. Even when the sun
Hawking’s ideas set a lower limit on the size of black holes
finally exhausts its fuel, we do not expect it to become a 60 now in existence, since we think the mini black holes
black hole but simply to collapse to a form called a white were formed only in the first second after the origin of the
dwarf. universe.
20 A star 5 to 10 times heavier than our sun would have
On the other extreme of mass, we can consider what
gravity enough to pull it through the white-dwarf stage a black hole would be like if it contained a very large
to the black-hole stage. Whether heavy stars actually do 65 number of solar masses. Thus far, we have considered
this is anyone’s guess. Stellar collapse usually leads to only black holes the mass of a star or smaller. Such black
an explosion. The greater part of the star’s mass is blown holes form after a stage of high density. But the more mass
25 away, and whether enough remains to make a black hole involved, the lower the density needed for a black hole to
is hard to say. We do know that enough often remains to form. For a very massive black hole, the density would be
form a neutron star; there is one in the center of the Crab 70 fairly low.
Nebula, the debris of a supernova recorded in 1054. Since Thus if we were traveling through the universe in a
the minimum mass for a black hole is not much greater
spaceship, we couldn’t count on detecting a black hole by
30 than for a neutron star, it is likely that they do sometimes noticing a volume of high density. We could pass through
form.
a high-mass black hole without even noticing. We would
For obvious reasons, a black hole is nearly impossible 75
never be able to get out, but hours on our watches could
to detect. Our best bet is to catch one that is absorbing pass before we would notice that we were being drawn
matter at a substantial rate. This can happen if the black into the center at an accelerating rate.
35 hole has a nearby binary partner and draws in hot gases
from its companion’s atmosphere. As they fall, the

acceleration makes the gases radiate light; the higher the
acceleration, the greater the frequency. A black hole has
strong enough gravity to make x-rays come out.
22. According to Passage 1 , all of the following are

reasons our own sun will not become a black hole in
the immediate future EXCEPT
A) its diameter is too large.

B) when it collapses, it will become a white dwarf
instead.
C) the “nuclear flame” at its core prevents it from

collapsing.
D) its gravitational pull is too strong.

V
23. As used in line 17, the word “exhausts” most nearly 29. In can be inferred that the emission from mini black
means
holes is significant only for the smallest black holes
A) uses up. (lines 57-58) because
B) squanders. A) the amount of radiation released by mini black
C) fatigues. holes is miniscule compared to that emitted by
D) emits. larger black holes.
B) nearly all notable astronomers have attempted to
24. The author of Passage 1 refers to the Crab Nebula in disprove the trend.
order to C) emissions from black holes are inversely
proportional to the size of black holes.
A) discuss relevant Chinese astronomers.
D) larger black holes disappear before they have a
B) prove the existence of black holes. chance to emit radiation.
C) give an example of what leftover star mass can
form.
30. The last paragraph of Passage 2 uses the spaceship
D) describe the process a star goes through to
scenario in order to
become a black hole.
A) prove the existence of a much-discussed

25. It can be inferred from Passage 1 that the best way to hypothetical phenomenon.
find a black hole is to B) illustrate an abstract theory with some concrete
details.
A) measure the density of a star.
C) warn future theorists of the danger of tenuous
B) search for x-ray emissions. evidence.
C) locate a white dwarf.
D) add credence to an otherwise flimsy hypothesis.
D) find two planets next to each other.
31. The authors of Passage 1 and Passage 2 would

probably agree that which of the following is an
identifying factor of a star capable of becoming a
black hole?
A) Lines 5-6 (“No light . . . can enter.”)
B) Lines 15-16 (“The pressure . . . from A) The number of asteroids nearby
collapsing.”) B) The pathway of the emitted light
C) Lines 24-26 (“The greater ... to say.”) C) The presence of quasars
D) Lines 38-39 (“A black . . . come out.”) D) Its mass and density
27. The primary purpose of Passage 2 is to 32. With which of the following statements would the
A) discuss the theoretical existence of black holes author of Passage 2 most likely dispute the statement
of extreme sizes.
put forth in lines 6-8 of Passage 1?
B) explain the ratio of mass to density within mini
A) It is possible for only extraordinarily powerful
black holes.
energy emissions to escape black holes.
C) describe Stephen Hawking’s significance as a B) While nothing can escape a black hole, it is
premier physicist. unlikely that any matter can go in.
D) cite the many different mini black holes
C) Hawking theorized that matter can, in fact,
observed by astronomers.
escape a mini black hole.
D) Black holes do exist, but it is impossible to
28. As used in line 44, the word “elementary” most nearly theorize about their gravitational pull.
means
A)
B) basic.
C) scholastic.
D) theoretical
electric.
Reading Drills 235

.
Chapter 14
Reading Answers
and Explanations
1
1
1
5
1
1
5
...
.
.
.
.C
A CC
A
ANSWER KEY
Reading Drill 1 Reading Drill 2 ReadingD
Drill 3 Reading Drill 4 Reading Drill 5
B
2. A 2. A 2. B 2. A 2. A
3. B 3. A
4. C 4.
3. BD 4. C
4. B 4. C
3. D 3. B
5. A
6. C 6. B 6. AD
5. 6. CB
5. 6. A
7. C 7. A
8. A 8. B 7.
8. BD 8. DA
7. 8. BB
7.
9. D 9. D
10. A 9.
10.CA 9.
10. C 10.BD 10. B
11. D 11. C 9. C
11. C 11. C 11. A
12. C 12. D 12. C
12. B 12. B
13. C 13. B 13. C 13. A 13. D
14. B 14. C
14. A 14. D 14. B
15. D 15. D 15. D
15. D 15.
16. D
A
16. B 16. B 16. C 16. B
17. D 17. C 17. D 17. A 17. B
18. A 18. C 18. C 18. D 18. D
19. B 19. A 19. D 19. A 19. A
20. A 20. A 20. B 20. B 20. C
21. D 21. A 21. D 21. C 21. D
22. B 22. B 22. A 22. B 22. D
23. D 23. D 23. B 23. B 23. A
24. C 24. A 24. D 24. A 24. C
25. B 25. D 25. D 25. A 25. B

26. A 26. C 26. D 26. B 26. D
27. C 27. D 27. A 27. C
27. A
28. C 28. D 28. A 28. D 28. A
29. C 29. A 29. C 29. B 29. C
30. A 30. C 30. B 30. D
31. D 31. D 31. A 30. B
31. D
32. D 31. D
32. B 32. B 32. C
33. B 33. D

V
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS FOR READING
Drill 1
1. c
The passage as a whole is informative and provides a description of how NATO was formed. Choice
(A) is too strong. Choice (B) indicates that the main focus is the Marshall Plan, not NATO. In (D),
question does not reflect the informative tone of the passage. Choice (C) is the best match.
2. A
After line 13, the passage describes deterrence in that forming a peacetime alliance would deter ag¬
gression by the Soviet Union. So we need an answer that means “to preserve peace” or “prevent fight¬
ing.” Only (A) the discouragement of attacks and specifically mentions the Soviet Union. The other
answers are not supported by the passage.
3. B The second paragraph overall describes what makes NATO different from other alliances that
came before. This is paraphrased in (B) highlight a factor distinguishing NATO from other pacts.
Choice (A) is mentioned in the next paragraph, but does not answer the question asked. The rest of
the answers are not supported by the paragraph or the passage as a whole.
4. B In the passage, the three men are cited as leaders put down by a grand alliances that differed from
NATO in that the grand alliances were formed specifically after an act of aggression to get rid of
those leaders, whereas the NATO alliance was to form in peacetime to prevent any aggressive acts
from occurring. This is paraphrased best in (B). Choice (A) is contradicted by the passage, and
there is no evidence for (C) or (D) in the passage.
5. A Go through each answer choice, and eliminate those supported by evidence in the passage. Choice
(A) is not a reason for the formation of NATO. While France is mentioned, it was not democratic
uprisings but communist political strength in France that served as a reason that NATO was formed.
The rest of the answers are paraphrases of the reasons listed in lines 21-38.
6. C Choice (A) is not true: While the U.S. no longer had a monopoly , the passage states that the U.S.
had a superiority of about 8 to 1. Choice (C) gives a paraphrase of this, and is the correct answer.
There is no evidence for (B), and (D) is too strong.
7. C Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word or phrase to replace superiority.
The sentence indicates the number of nuclear warheads the United States had in relation to the So¬
viet Union. Only (C) refers specifically to numbers, so it is the correct answer. Choices (A) and (B)
are alternate meanings of the word superiority, but do not work in context. Choice (D) is irrelevant
to the sentence.
8. A
Choice (B) is not true: there was no aggressive behavior, both were established in peacetime. Choice
(C) is incorrect because the Warsaw Pact was a Soviet alliance defense organization, and so commu¬
nist, not democratic. Choice (D) is out: there is no evidence for imperialism.
Reading Answers and Explanations | 239
\
9. D in the last paragraph. Lines 54-57 describe a peacetime event, West
The Warsaw Pact is mentioned
German entrance into NATO, that was the immediate cause of the establishment of . . . the Warsaw
Pact, so (D) is the correct answer. While (A) and (C) mention the Soviet Union or its missiles, they
do not mention the Warsaw Pact. Choice (B) also does not mention the Warsaw Pact.
10. C them, look for the

Both passages describe Catiline; to find the difference, or contrast, between
main idea of the passages. Passage 1 is by Catiline, and he speaks of wanting to bring people to
liberty and freedom. Passage 2 describes Catiline as someone who is alarming the people (line 37)
and should be executed (lines 45-46) and whose followers are considered worthless dregs. This is
best paraphrased in (C). The other answers do not have the correct relationship to the ideas ex¬
pressed in the passage.
11. c
The question is rhetorical, and not meant to be answered, so eliminate (A). The purpose of a rhetori¬
cal question is to emphasize the speaker’s main point. The speech as a whole is an attempt to rally
followers to rebel against the people in charge. Just before the question, Catiline mentions how
those in the government have all the power, honor, and wealth, while the common people that he is
trying to gather to fight have only insidts, dangers, persecutions, and poverty. The question is supposed
to inspire the people to fight the unjust situation he described. This is best paraphrased in (C).
12. B
In the third paragraph, the speaker tells why he thinks they will succeed: his side is fresh and un¬
broken while the other side has a debility caused by age and wealth. This is paraphrased in (B). In
lines 18-19 the speaker mentions that success is in our own hands. Choices (A) and (C) are extreme.
Choice (D), kings, is mentioned in the passage, but not in relation to the success of Catiline and his
followers.
13. C The venerable body mentioned in line 40 are the senators in the senate that the speaker in Passage 2
describes as a place that Catiline has the freedom be in despite his personal beliefs and actions. The
clue looks and countenances, mentioned in the passage just before the quote in the question, helps
explain what is referred to. The look on a person’s face is a clue to their emotions, such as an angry
look or a pleased look. It turns out that the word countenance actually does have the meaning of
“face,” but look may be enough to identify that we are talking about emotion or expressions as in (C).
14. A
In lines 36-44 the orator lists the things that should be convincing Catiline that he is in the wrong
and has been defeated by those in charge of the city. This is best paraphrased in (A). There is no
evidence of isolation, for the orator to exploit in (B). In fact, later, the orator even mentions the
freedoms that Catiline is allowed. There are alarmed people mentioned in the passage but the mea¬
sures listed are not meant to alert them. The list is about things that should be making Catiline feel
remorseful for his actions, not to appeal to his national pride as in (D).
15. D The evidence for why the orator is against executing Catiline is in lines 49-53: The speaker states
that he will do that which is . . . more expedient for the state, which best matches (D). Choice (A)
is not true: the blurb mentions that Cicero had previously ordered executions. There is no evidence
that the reason involved the senators in (B), or angering the senate as in (C). Cicero is concerned
about the followers staying in town after Catiline died.
240 I 500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT
V
Catiline s execution. Choices (A) and (D) are in the wrong parts of the passage. In the sentence in
(B), the speaker says he will do that which is more expedient for the state, which directly supports (D)
in the previous question. In the sentence in (D), the speaker indicates what he wants Catiline to do,
16. B but not
The why.paragr
second aph of passage 2 is where the speaker discusses his reason
s for not calling for
17. D Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word to replace afford. In the pas¬
sage, the orator is implying that nothing could “give” Catiline any pleasure, because everyone in
the city hated him. Only (D) provide has a meaning close to give. Choice (A), purchase, is a word
that connects with a different meaning of afford and does not fit into the context of the sentence in
the passage.
18. A In lines 72—75, the orator points out the silence of the senators to show that they agree with him in
his condemnation of Catiline and his activities. The orator’s speech is pretty harsh on Catiline, so
the correct answer indicates that the senators feel negatively toward Catiline. Choice (A) is the best
match. Although (B) also mentions Catiline, the silence had nothing to do with their willingness to
execute him. There is no evidence for (C), and (D) is the opposite of what is presented in the passage.
19. B The orator in Passage 1 is pro-Catiline (he is Catiline) and would respond in way that agrees with the
main idea of Passage 1 . Passage 1 was about how the people were being unfairly treated by those in pow¬
er, and the people needed to rise up and claim their liberty and right to wealth and power. Violence is
advocated in Passage 1, so (A) is not true. Choice (B) invokes the unfairness (oppressiveness ) of
the situation and mentions the rights of citizens, so it is a good match. Choice (C) is out because
inevitably is too strong and impossible to demonstrate in the situation described. Choice (D) is the
opposite of what is expressed in Passage 1.
20. A See what you can eliminate. Only Passage 1 brings up the point in (B). Choice (C) is shown to be
untrue in the second paragraph of Passage 2, in which the freedoms that are allowed even to those
who express disagreement are mentioned. Choice (D) is not correct because it is impossible to say if
things will change drastically or if the current situation will simply be strengthened or stabilized.
21. D up with a word to replace begetter. The word

Go back to the passage and use the context to come
describes George Washington’s position in relation to Americans’ rights. In the first sentence,
Washington is described as the founder of the American nation, so look for a word that means
something similar to founder. He was not the owner of anyone’s rights, so eliminate (A). Because
Americans did not have legal rights before the nation was established, Washington could not have
been the reformer of those rights, so eliminate (C). Although procreator is an alternate definition of
begetter, it is usually used in the context of having children. Procurer means a person who obtains
things. Washington helped obtain legal rights for Americans, so (D) is the correct answer.
241
Reading Answers and Explanations
22. B The sentence that begins with Later Americans describes them as people who enjoy their rights
but forget about the person (Washington) who established some of those rights. This is best para¬
phrased in (B). They tended to ignore Washington. There is no evidence in the passage for any of the
other answers.
23. D The debunkers are people who tried to find out improper things about the people we hold up as
examples of goodness in order to destroy or reduce them. This is expressed in (D), reducing to a less
than heroic status. Choice (A) is the opposite of what the debunkers are doing. Chocie (B) is not
negative enough to describe the debunkers’ activities. Choice (C) is incorrect because the focus is
not about Washington’s patriotism but his very character.
24. C The biographical ‘ debunkers are described as finding sin in the saint, or questioning a purely posi¬
tive view of an important figure. Choice (A) is incorrect because it describes the opposite viewpoint.
Choice (B) describes scholars whose attention strayed from Washington, but not the biographical
‘debunkers’ themselves. Choice (C) accurately describes what the ‘debunkers’ did, so it is the correct
answer. Choice (D) describes a reason they may have thought as they did, but not what they were
responsible for.
25. B In the paragraph that mentions the wildly supportive crowd the author describes their hysteria and
then asks How easily and with what frenzy could the emotion turn if the government did not please.
So he’s worried that the crowd could turn on him, and be the opposite of supportive if the govern¬
ment doesn’t do what the people want. Only (B) reflects this.
26. A Go back to the passage where insuperable diffidence is mentioned. This is the end of the paragraph
in which Washington is worrying about whether he’ll do a good enough job as president to keep
the people from turning on him. He’s worried he won’t measure up to his duties, so a good word
for the spot that insuperable diffidence is taking up is “insecurity.” In (A) lack of self confidence is a
good match for insecurity. There is no difference in belief mentioned in the paragraph. Eliminate
(C) and (D) because they are the opposite of what we’re looking for.
27. C The task is described in the passage as more uncertain and important than his Continental Army
command. He felt about the Continental Army role that there was no reason to doubt that success was
possible. Only (C) indicates that Washington was untried or uncertain about the first situation and
that the second was possible. Choice (A) is the opposite of what we’re looking for. Choice (B) is not
mentioned in the passage. Choice (D) is not true because the responsibility in both cases definitely
belonged to Washington.
28. C The pair of words that best describes Washington’s Continental Army duty and the presidency that
Washington is about to assume in the passage is (C), Unremarkable and momentous. The Army
duty described in lines 76-77 had been won ten thousand times, which supports unremarkable. The
author describes the presidency in line 83 as Washingtons present mission as something that might
change all history, which supports momentous. None of the other answers are supported by the
passage.

V
29. C
In Passage 2, the quote is mentioned as something that Washington will prove untrue if his presi¬
dency is a success. Choice (A) is unrelated to Washington proving anything. Choice (B) is out be¬
cause the passage mentions that the idea had been accepted by many of the greatest thinkers , not just
pessimistic ones. Choice (C) mentions that the quote would be disproved if he was successful , so it is
a very good match. There is no evidence that the quote was Washington’s credo as in (D): in fact, it
was something that he wanted to disprove.
30. A Choice (A) best describes the main difference between the passages. The most striking thing in the
second passage is that it tells about the beginning of the American presidency in a reflective way
from Washington’s view of the event, booking just at the descriptions of Passage 2 in the answers,
eliminate any that are not close to the main point of Passage 2. We can keep (A) for Washington’s
view of his place in history. In (B), perfect has no support from the passage. Choice (C) is incorrect
because Passage 2 is about worries at the time of becoming president, not military successes. Choice
(D) is wrong because there is no mention of academics changing their position in Passage 2. This
leaves only (A), and the first part of the answer, describes the myths, does actually reflect what is
happening in Passage 1.
31. D Both passages support the statement in (D): Passage 1 mentions that Washington was the one man
essential to the triumph. ..to the creation of America, and the success of the democratic revolution (lines
28—31). Passage 2 mentions that Washington’s present mission might change all history (line 83).
Choice (B) is extreme, and there is no support in the passage for any of the other answers.
Drill 2
1. A The term Anytown, U.S.A., implies that the conditions described could be found in practically any
town in the United States. Choice (A) captures exactly what the term implies, while (B) expresses
the opposite. For (C), while Anytown may be imaginary, this is not the author’s point. Choice (D)
is incorrect because the author does not discuss whether suburbs are common outside the United
States.
2. A
If we cross out the word we’re trying to understand, what word could we put in its place? The
sentence suggests that suburbs offer some good things, but also offer some bad things at the same
time. Thus, we’re looking for a word that means “also or at the same time.” Choice (A) means “at
the same time” — keep it! Choices (B), widespread, and (C), greedy, may describe suburbia, but they
don’t mean “also or at the same time,” so eliminate them. Choice (D) means “in a showy fash¬
ion” — not what we’re looking for, so eliminate it.
3. A The author uses the phrase too much of a stretch (line 36) to show his or her belief that all modern
problems are not caused by suburbia. Choice (A) captures the meaning for which we are looking.
Choices
Choice (B) is wrong because nothing in this answer is reflected in the author’s statements.
lines was not mentioned before, so the
(C) and (D) are incorrect, since the list of problems on these
list isn’t a summary or a modification of a previous argument.

243
4. C Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word to replace pervasive. The sen¬
tence indicates that the threats described are more immediate than the growth of suburbs, so look
for a word that agrees with that idea. Narrow means the opposite of pervasive, so eliminate (A). Not
all social problems are physical, so eliminate (B). Pervasive means widespread, so (C) is correct.
5. B Choice (B), suburban conformity, is what Passage 1 is all about. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are men¬
tioned in the passage, but not as results of suburban sprawl.
6. B A homeowner spends money to limit property damage, just as the government spends money to
protect state land from the potential damage of suburban sprawl, so (B) is correct. A mother lion
protects her cub out of instinct; the New Jersey government is not acting on instinct, so eliminate
(A). The New Jersey government is trying to save something but not in the sense of putting money
in a safe place to earn interest that can be spent later; eliminate (C). The government’s action is not
like changing a lock; rather, it is like putting a lock on where none existed. Therefore, eliminate (D).
7. A Four of the answer choices are mentioned in the passage; we’re looking for the one that is not.
Choice (A) is wrong because, as line 64 shows, New Jersey residents voted for the measure in a
referendum; it was not implemented through executive order. Choice (B) is incorrect because the
pinelands are mentioned in line 76. Choice (C) is wrong since lines 76-77 states the anti-sprawl ef¬
fort has demonstrated that it is possible to control sprawl. We can eliminate (D) based on lines 78-80.
8. B The author of Passage 1 laments that suburban sprawl has robbed us of hundreds of years of origi¬
nal and beautiful home design (lines 22-23) and the author of Passage 2 must concede that sprawl
does detract from the beauty of the landscape (lines 50-51). Choice (B) best sums up these concerns.
Choice (A) is extreme — neither author argues that there’s no benefit whatsoever to suburban con¬
struction. The author of Passage 1 would disagree with (C), and the author of Passage 2 would
disagree with (D).
the histrionic (line 49), which means “excessively emotional or dramatic.” Choices (A), (B), and (C)
are not specifically mentioned in Passage 2, and don’t describe the criticism we’re looking for.
10. A The third paragraph of Passage 1 criticizes suburban sprawl. The sentence in (A) indicates the opin¬
ion of the author of Passage 2 towards critics of suburban growth: many of these complaints border
on the histrionic, which supports (D) in the previous question. None of the other choices refer to
the author’s opinion of critics of sprawl.
11. C Passage 1 outlines, in vivid detail, the problem posed by suburban sprawl. Passage 2 describes how
New Jersey fought back. This is most like (C). Passage 1 doesn’t advocate specific changes, so strike
(A). While Passage 2 contradicts parts of Passage 1, it doesn’t debunk, or “expose the falseness or
ridiculousness of,” Passage 1, so eliminate (B). Choice (D) is wrong because it reverses the two ar¬
guments (Passage 1 is more theoretical while Passage 2 is more concrete and practical).

/
12. C
The process was one of collaboration, with different people bringing in ideas until the song is im¬
provised into being, although it was Ellington who headed the collective. Only (B) and (C) come close
to the description in the passage, and (B) can be ruled out because the members band were not
equals — Ellington was definitely the leader.
13. B
The working relationship between Ellington and his band members is described in the first para¬
graph. Choice (B) best describes how Ellington would decide what to use from an improvisation
session with the band when writing his compositions. Choice (A) describes how the composition
of a new song would begin, but does not fully describe the process. Choices (C) and (D) are in the
wrong part of the passage.
14. B
Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word to replace accenting. In the pas¬
sage, Ellington is “bringing out” the melodies of the piece from the background. This is closest to
(B), emphasizing. More to the point, there is no evidence for the rest of the answers in the passage.
15. D
The description in the fifth paragraph provides some of the ideas behind some of Ellington’s works.
This is best paraphrased in (D). The rest of the answers are not supported by the passage.
16. B
The paragraph describes the colors of the title in two ways, as the colors of people’s skin and not
only in color, but in his being as well, using color describing the state of the world as a metaphor. This
is reflected best in (B).
17. C Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a phrase to replace larger forms. Larger
forms are introduced in the context of Ellington’s critics. Later in the fourth paragraph, Ellington’s
medleys — long series of his many successful tunes are mentioned as the thing that upset many of his more
sophisticated fans. Therefore, the larger forms are the same as the medleys, as in (C). A symphony orches¬
tra, as in (A), is never mentioned in the passage. Choice (B) describes large instruments, but not the
songs discussed in the passage. Choice (D) recycles some words from the fourth paragraph, but also
does not refer to the songs.
18. C
The author follows the description of the criticisms with a discussion about Ellington’s astonishing,
amiable naivete and gives examples of how Ellington failed to see that his choices were not sophisticat¬
ed. This sense of naivete is best captured in the innocence in (C). Choice (A) is not mentioned in the
correct part of the passage to answer this question. Choice (B) is the actual criticism, not the author’s
response to it.
19. A
Always go back to the passage: we need to find out how the attitude of the fans is described. The
fans were upset by Ellington’s use of medleys of his successful tunes. This is best summarized in (A).
There is no evidence for (B), (C) is extreme and attributes naivete to the wrong individuals, and (D)
is the attitude of the critics, not the fans.
20. A
Only (A ), famous paintings, is not mentioned in the passage. Choice (B) is in lines 53-57 (C) is in
lines 9-18, and (D) is in 59-62.
245
S’ Reading Answers and Explanations
✓
21. A Fletcher Henderson is mentioned as the person from whom Ellington rather directly got three of his
four styles. So Henderson was an inspiration or model for Ellington. This is best captured in (A),
influence on. Choice (B) reverses the relationship. It is clear that Henderson came first, so they were
not contemporaries as in (C). Choice (D) is not supported by the passage.
22. B While the passage mentions Ellington’s age at the time he wanted to become a painter, it does not
give the age at which he became a musical success: eliminate (A). The jungle style is mentioned, but
not described in detail: eliminate (C). The passage does not provide the title of Ellington’s best-
known composition; eliminate (D). Only the question in (B) could be answered by information in
the passage.
23. D Each sentence in the first paragraph refers to something about the new wealth of information avail¬
able. The first sentence mentions all the information we could ever need. The second mentions the
profusion of information. Although the author does go on to say that our approach to this infor¬
mation has changed, he does not speak of it disparagingly, as (A) and (C) suggest. And although
the author discusses distinctions between old and new methods of research, he doesn’t discuss
distinctions between old and new topics, which eliminates (B).
24. A The previous generations of scholars is described as slaving] away at libraries, pulling dusty books
from the shelves and hoping that those books could reveal all the world’s secrets. This information
is given in contrast to the first sentence of the first paragraph, which shows that now that informa¬
tion is all more readily available. The author does not indicate a preference in these lines for either
method, which eliminates (D). And while (B) may be true, the author does not state it, and it is not
his main point.
25. D The term information saturation refers back to all the information we could ever need and the
profusion of information mentioned in the previous paragraph. The term does not refer to a mode
of thinking, which eliminates (A). Nor does the author suggest that contemporary human beings
are unable to learn any new information, eliminating (C). The author writes only that there is too
much available information for any single human being to know, as in (D).
26. C The author continually refers to the new wealth of information as available (as in (C)), but he does
not indicate that we have a complete grasp or understanding of that information, which eliminates
(A) and (D).
which might lead one to pick (A) or (B). Instead, it asks from what this underst is a shift
andin g
away. Note the next line: where we once thought of the ‘heavens’ as the things that we could see in
the sky. In other words, the universe used to be knowabl
e because it was something we could see,
as in (D).

V
28. D The researchers and scholar mentioned in this part of the passage are given as examples of the older
mode of study. While they might be contrasted with newer scholars, they are not being contrasted
with newer researchers in these lines, eliminating (C). Choices (A) and (B) can be eliminated be¬
cause the author is either not warning against this mode of study or emphasizing its importance;
he is merely describing it. Only (D) can work because, while it is less specific than the others, it
does not contain any errors.
29. A Note the contrast between (A) and (B). These two answers have some similarities, but (B) is more
extreme and should therefore be eliminated. Choice (A) is supported in the transition between the
third and fourth paragraphs: A scholar like James Frazer, author of The Golden Bough (1890), could
be fairly certain that he was assembling all of the world’s myths and folklore in a single book. Now,
we know that Frazer’s project was a very limited one.
30. C Read the fourth paragraph carefully: Because we know how much information is out there, we
can’t possibly dream of trying to assemble it all into anything as manageable as a single book. We
instead generate theories to support our impossible positions. The author’s use of hyperbole here is
used to underline the extent to which contemporary researchers are overwhelmed or “inundated,”
as in (C), by the wealth of information available.
31. D In this part of the passage, the author discusses goods from different countries and then goes on
to say that ours is truly a world community, where the lines between nations have become blurred
and where people have more in common than ever before. As with all the information that is
constantly at our fingertips, so too is the world constantly at our fingertips. This agrees with (D).
Choice (A) is not supported by the passage. Choice (B) refers to consumerism as “excess,” a value
judgment that the author does not place on consumerism. Choice (C) refers to a preference for for¬
eign goods, where the author refers only to their availability.
32. D The mention of the “computer-savvy researcher” appears in the following line: “The computer-
savvy researcher of today, by contrast, can have that information instantaneously and can even
search within it for whatever bits of information seem relevant.” In other words, this researcher has
an abundance of information available to him at all times, as (D) suggests.
33. B The crucial line appears near the end of the final paragraph: “It is at the very least my hope — and
the hope, I suspect, of many others — that there must be some way between the two extremes.”
This “way” agrees with the “compromise” mentioned in (B). The author is dismissive of neither the
new nor the old modes of research, which eliminates (A) and (C). Choice (D) can be eliminated
because the differences between users is not discussed here.
247
1. A The full lines read as follows: In a span of only thirty years, the number of children who play musical
instruments has been cut in half The word “only” indicates the quickness with which this transfor¬
mation has occurred, lending support to (A). The author goes on to list the troubling aspects of
this trend, so none of the other choices work in this context.
2. B The author of Passage 1 discusses the survey in the first part of the second paragraph: Music in
Peril is not the collection of urban legends that most of its critics will accuse it of being. It is a set of data
collected from elementary and middle schools all over the country. With schools represented from each
of the 50 states, it accounts for all the great diversity in this country. From this statement, it can be
inferred that the author disapproves of urban legends and approves of data collected from all over
the country that accounts for all the great diversity in this country. The author is most concerned with
span and diversity, as (B) suggests. While (C) does partially describe Music in Peril's data, it does
not account for all the data, so it can be eliminated. Choice (D) addresses the issue of race, but not
the other types of diversity described in the passage.
3. B The author of Passage 2 does not dispute the methods employed by the statisticians described in
Passage 1. She instead thinks the criteria should be changed. As she writes in the last paragraph,
The survey can’t capture the fact that classical music is not the only place to find interesting, complex mu¬
sic anymore, except by the most conservative, crustiest definitions. In this sense, the author of Passage
2 would likely consider the diversity of the groups surveyed irrelevant because the survey is based
on faulty premises, as suggested in (B). The author of Passage 2 does not take issue with Passage l’s
data but more with its premises and conclusions.
musical proficiency is the result of many years of encouraging musical education, and not only for those
who eventually become musicians. Ours is a dire world indeed when not only have our musicians lost
the ability to play but also the broader populace has lost the discernment and ability to hear them. In
other words, musical education does not only affect schoolchildren but affects society as a whole,
as (D) paraphrases. While (B) may be implied in the passage, it is never directly stated, so this an¬
swer choice has to be eliminated.
5. A The author of Passage 2 refers to Passage l’s conclusions as apocalyptic and evidence that all the bad
things we suspect are worse than we even knew. Passage 2’s sarcastic, dismissive language suggests
that the author thinks Passage l’s conclusions are a bit dramatic, or overstated, as (A) suggests. Al¬
though she disagrees with these conclusions, she does not refer to the author of Passage 1 as dishon¬
est, merely misguided, eliminating (D).

6. D
The author of Passage 2 refers to these apocalyptic surveys as providing evidence that all the bad things
we suspect are worse than we even knew. The survey in the answer choices must therefore describe a
negative trend, eliminating (B) and (C). Choice (A) describes a trend, but it is one that is simply
true. It does not contain within it the value judgment that (D) does. Only (D) remains, as exactly
the kind of apocalyptic survey she considers commonplace.
7. B The third paragraph of Passage 2 states the following: Music programs have been slashed at many
public schools, and less than half as many children today are learning instruments than were the genera¬
tions offorty or fifty years earlier. And this statistical certainty is not limited to the less fortunate areas
of the country. Words like many and limited refer to the range of the problem, as (B) suggests. The
author of Passage 2 does accuse Music in Peril of both conservatism and bias , but in these lines, she
is conceding that the study describes a wide-ranging trend, eliminating (C) and (D).
8. D The word landscape is used in the beginning of the fourth paragraph: The musical landscape is
changing, yes, but not in the distressing way that Music in Peril wants to suggest. The survey cant
capture the fact that classical music is not the only place to find interesting, complex music anymore. In
other words, the typical definition suggests that classical music is the only interesting, complex type
of music — a claim that the author disputes, lending support to (D). Choice (C) is correct to say
shifting, but the trend is not impossible to describe, as the author does try to describe it.
9. C Throughout the fourth paragraph, the author uses terms like most conservative , traditional, musical
categories that don’t apply anymore, institutions of old, and irrelevant. In other words, the categories
are still being used even though they have not changed to reflect current realities and are therefore
inflexible, as (C) suggests. Other terms may provide alternate meanings for the slangy word crusty,
but they do not apply here.
10. A The last sentence of Passage 2 says the following: All that is happening is that the institutions of old are
trying to hold on for dear life and actually belong in the same irrelevant pile as studies on the decline of
cursive or telephone conversations. The key word here is irrelevant, and the author of Passage 1 would
likely respond by noting the larger relevance of the project, as (A) does. There is no support in Pas¬
sage 1 for (B) and (C). Choice (D) may be true, but it would not respond to Passage 2’s criticism.
11. D
Compare the first sentences of both passages. Passage 1 states, Music in Peril confirms most of our
worst suspicions, suggesting a concerned or saddened tone. Passage 2 states, Music in Peril is hardly
surprising in our era of apocalyptic surveys, yet more evidence that all the bad things we suspect are
worse than we even knew, which is far more sarcastic and dismissive. Choice (A) is correct only for
Passage 1, and (C) is correct only for Passage 2. The only choice that correctly identifies the tone in
each of the passages is (D).
249
12. B Passage 2 is primarily a critique of the ideas in Passage 1, which eliminates (C) and (D). Passage 2
does not, however, provide new findings or new data, which eliminates (A). Only (B) remains, and
it correctly identifies Passage 2’s issue with the premises of Passage l’s argument, namely that clas¬
sical music is the main outlet for interesting, important music.
13. C The phrase to spin yarns appears in the first sentence, and it is reiterated in the later sentences in
the paragraph, which refer to some kind of narrative and our minds wanting stories. While (A), (B),
and (D) offer alternate meanings of the word yarns, only (C) works in this context.
14. D The metaphor of connecting dots appears in this context: We want any nearby dots to be connected.
Effect with no cause, correlation with no causation: we cant assimilate these ideas because they don’t
have that narrative structure. In other words, even if these dots aren’t connected, our minds want
them to be and thus connect them, as (D) suggests. Although the connections may not exist in the
real world, the passage does not imply that the details themselves do not exist, thus eliminating (B).
15. D The full sentence reads as follows: Our minds want stories, even if those stories need to be twisted and
mangled into existence. In other words, we can have a difficult time creating stories, but we have
the need nonetheless, as (D) suggests. The author does not reflect on whether this is a good or bad
trait, thus eliminating (A). The discussion of history does not come until later in the passage, thus
eliminating (B).
16. C The phrase appears in this context: Historians and onlookers alike have spent over a century debating
the causes, the effects, and the place of this event in the ongoing plot of American history. Neuroscientists
have referred to a “need for narrative. ” The passage as a whole is about narrative, and the word plot
relates to narratives, suggesting that the history of the American Civil War is another one of these
narratives, full of related events, as (C) indicates. Choice (B) cannot work because the plot referred
to here is not that of a mystery , nor are any historical mysteries discussed. The author does not refer
to this need for narrative as a special talent , thus eliminating (D).
17. D The first two paragraphs discuss the need for narrative in a general way, even citing the findings of
neuroscientists and the work of historians. The third and fourth paragraphs focus more specifically
on personality, which can be explained with a specific application of the general theory of the need
for narrative. Choice (D) best captures this transition. The latter half does discuss literary texts,
but not exclusively, and the first half is focused on much more than historical events, so (A) can be
eliminated. Choice (C) cannot work because the “need for narrative” is ultimately a psychological
concept that is discussed throughout the passage, and it is not critiqued.

18. C The early twentieth century is discussed in these lines: In the early twentieth
century , the very notion
of consistent stories broke down, and characters became less rigidly defined as a
result. Suddenly, amid
a cultural shift away from religious certainty, one’s environment, one’s historical era, one’s
family history
could all come to bear on the maze of human personality. In other words, this era was character
ized
by complexity rather than simplicity, so any discussion of personality must be more complex than
the titles in (A) and (B). Choice (D) is off-topic. Only (C) adequately captures the complexi
ty de¬
scribed in the passage.
19. D This shift away from religious certainty is discussed in these lines: In the early twentieth century, the
very notion of consistent stories broke down, and characters became less rigidly defined as a result.
Suddenly, amid a cultural shift away from religious certainty, one’s environment, one’s historical era,
one sfamily history could all come to bear on the maze of human personality. In other words, personal¬
ity had become a newly complex object with many things influencing it, as (D) suggests. Choice
(A) cannot work because understandings of personality have not been consistent throughout his¬
tory. Choice (C) does not work because there is no evidence in the passage that non-psychologists
critique the theories of psychologists.
20. B The word contain appears in this sentence: Psychologists began to spend entire careers studying human
personalities, but for all these changes, the goal was still the same: contain the human experience, find
the story that can encapsulate all of human complexity. Use the second part of the sentence as a clue.
The word contain must mean something like find the story that can encapsulate, and the closest ap¬
proximation from this list of answer choices is (B). The other choices offer synonyms for the word
contain, but they do not work in this particular context.
21. D The last sentence of a passage will typically offer some kind of summary of a passage, and this sen¬
tence does just that. The passage as a whole discusses the need for narrative in many aspects of life,
including how we understand ourselves. The last sentence asks, rhetorically, Because after all that
has come before us, and all that will come later, if we’re not part of the big story, what are we? Choice
(D) captures this basic idea well in suggesting that without the big story, our lives would be dif¬
ferent. Although the last sentence does look to the future a bit, it does not make any claims about
the stories that people in the future will tell themselves, thus eliminating (B). Also, while there are
some implied comparisons between the “narrative” of history and that of fiction, these compari¬
sons are not addressed in this final sentence, eliminating (C).
22. A Although the first few paragraphs detail Toomer’s importance during the Harlem Renaissance, the
end of the passage states that Toomer’s early literary output can be more thoroughly understood than
his later personal life. Choice (B) is disproven in the first paragraph, and (D) is disproven in the
fourth paragraph. Choice (C) is also slightly off: it cannot be said that Toomer’s essays were incon¬
sistent, only that there were so few of them.

251
23. B Because these two paragraphs are particularly about Jean Toomer, (A) and (D) can be eliminated.
Both paragraphs are concerned with how other artists and thinkers thought of Toomer, however,
so the best answer must be (B).
24. D Because Braithwaite’s review of Cane is so glowing, his praise can be described as total or complete ,
as in (D). All other choices provide alternate meanings of the word “unreserved,’ but they do not
work in this context.
23. D The first paragraph states, Toomer gained huge accolades from the white literary world as well, and
well-known authors such as Sherwood Anderson and Waldo Frank considered him one of their own. In
this context, Sherwood Anderson and Waldo Frank are used as representatives of the white literary
world, lending support to (D). Choice (A) cannot work because there is no indication that Toomer
was courting this white readership, particularly not with any urgency.
26. D The sentence in question is the topic sentence of the second paragraph. It introduces the ideas that
are to come. The paragraph goes on to say that Toomer could incorporate influences from white as
well as black artists, and he melded them into a new, innovative style that mixed poetry, prose, jazz,
folklore, and spiritualism. As in (D), these are aspects of Toomer’s art that showed black and white
artists alike a new artistic freedom.
27. A The sentence that directly precedes “These scraps” is as follows: Toomer himself may not have thought
of these marriages as interracial: particularly by the 1940s, Toomer insisted that his race was American’
and by the end of his life, he may have even identified as a white man. The repetition of the word may
shows the author’s uncertainty as to Toomer’s exact attitudes. “These scraps” must then refer to the
scant biographical evidence that literary historians have in piecing together Toomer’s later life, as
suggested by (A).
28. A The fourth paragraph discusses the increase in race activism, though it says of Toomer, By then,
and until his death in 1967, Toomer was much more taken with local issues, and his main concern was
with his church, the Friend’s Society of Quakers, and the high school students whom he taught there. In
other words, Toomer was not as interested in race activism as were many of his African American
contemporaries. In this sense, his views were atypical, as suggested by (A). Choice (D) offers a
similar answer, but it is too extreme and is disproven by the quotation in the following paragraph.
It was not that he had no interest in contemporary race relations but more that his interest was dif¬
ferent.
29. C Pay careful attention to the sentence that contains the word in question: By then, and until his
death in 1967, Toomer was much more taken with local issues, and his main concern was with his
church, the Friend’s Society of Quakers, and the high school students whom he taught there. “Taken
with” in this context means “occupied with” or “interested in,” and as the sentence then states,
Toomer was much more interested in smaller, local problems than in national race problems.

V
30. B
The topic sentence of this paragraph reads as follows: If Toomer’s early literary output can be more
thoroughly understood than his later personal life, or his later racial identification, it can only be be¬
cause Toomer himself wanted it to be so. This sentence suggests that the paragraph itself will discuss
Toomer s own attitudes, eliminating (A). We learn in earlier paragraphs that Toomer did not have
a typical “commitment to racial equality,” eliminating (D), and he did not contradict himself in
public and private, eliminating (C). Only (B) reflects the actual content of the paragraph.
31. D As the quotation from Toomer demonstrates, he saw race as a more complex thing than mere
black and white. We can deduce, then, that he would’ve found the contemporary debates far too
simple, as (D) suggests. His own views were “racially complex,” but “black and white” refers to the
contemporary debates in which Toomer was not a participant, eliminating (C). We may consider
his views “socially progressive,” but the passage does not state that they are, so (B) must also be
eliminated.
32. B The sentence before the one cited in the question reads as follows: Because Toomer was such a truly
great artist, literary historians will always long for more information about his life. In other words, lit¬
erary historians would like more information about his life. Among the answer choices, (B) would
best supply this information.
33. D The full sentence in question reads as follows: We should be wary of the rigid categories that Toomer
fought against all his life, and if anything, perhaps Toomer’s refusal to fit into these categories can help us
to modify our own. This sentence is a reference to our own contemporary views on race, which, the
sentence suggests, Toomer might be able to help us modify, as paraphrased in (D). Although we may
consider his views more advanced, the passage does not refer to them in this way, eliminating (C).
Drill 4
i. c
The word “overflowing” suggests that there have been many Western projects to modernize the Mid¬
dle East. This is a fairly general statement, so the specifics in (A) and (B) cannot be supported.
Choice (D) does not address these Western projects at all, so it too can be eliminated.
2. A
The sentence in which Bill Clinton appears reads as follows: President Bill Clinton, for example, is
still praised for his role in Israeli-Palestinian talks, and a few sentences later, the author goes on to say,
This attitude toward non-Western regions, the belief that the West’s systems of government can help save
of
the people of the Middle East. . .. Therefore, it can be inferred that Bill Clinton is a representative
be
this attitude, as (A) suggests. The author goes on to criticize this attitude, so (B) and (D) can
eliminated. Choice (C) can also be eliminated because Clinton is the only example given.
Reading Answers and Explanations | 253

3. D
Another way of saying universally applicable would be “appropriate to all.” The author is stating
in these lines that Western styles of government may not be appropriate for all people, especially
those outside the West, as (D) indicates. The author goes on to suggest a need for more non-West-
ern perspectives, therefore eliminating (A) and (B). Choice (C) is too extreme in its use of the word
only, so it can be eliminated. Choice (D) remains as the correct answer.
4. C
The relevant lines state the following: The native peoples who are then forced to live under the new
government’s rule become extremely skeptical of it, as its supposed successes are measured by seemingly ir¬
relevant metrics. The key words here are extremely skeptical, which agree most closely with (C) and
disagrees with (D). The information in the passage is not specific enough to support (B). Choice
(A) is too extreme in its use of the word despise, so it can be eliminated.
5. C The relevant lines state the following: Many of the great ancient and historical societies come from
these regions, but since the seventeenth century, these regions have been considered almost universal¬
ly backward. In other words, these regions were once considered “great” but are now considered
“backward,” as (C) suggests. These lines do not address contemporary governments, which elimi¬
nates all other choices.
6. B This paragraph discusses the influence of George W. Bush and others, suggesting that this influ¬
ence has not been a good one, as (B) suggests. The lines do not contain specific support for the
other choices, so (A), (C), and (D) can be eliminated.
7. D Cross out the word in the context and replace it with your own: F<?r many Westerners, nationality
is a given and ultimately _ the more local identifications of town, city, or state.. A word like
supersedes or replaces would work here, in which case only (D) comes close. The other choices may
represent other meanings for the word trumps, but they do not work in this context.
8. A Cross out the word in the context and replace it with your own: The Western notions of nation-
above- all and religious coexistence can’t _ in this and other countries because the value sys¬
tems have developed so independently of these notions. Some word like apply or function would work
here, in which case only (A) comes close. The other choices may represent other meanings for the
word maintain , but they do not work in this context.
9. B This question asks for a statement that would refute the author’s claim in the lines, As in many
other parts of the world, “Iraqi freedom” was defined by someone other than the Iraqis themselves. Any
statement that would suggest that Iraqis or some other Middle Eastern group had a role in defining
their own government systems would refute this claim, so (B) provides the best refutation. Choices
(A), (C), and (D) all support the author’s central claim that the West has had a too-powerful influ¬
ence in the region.

10.
D The author writes for the most part about the negative effects of Western influence in the Middle
East, but the lines. Certainly, Western nations are today more sensitive to cultural differences than they
have ever been, suggest that this influence may be improving. Choice (D) reflects this concession
and slight change of tone. It does not reflect the author’s broader point, however, which eliminates
(B) and (C). Finally, there is no evidence that the author is writing these lines in response to his
critics, which eliminates (A).
11. C The relevant sentence says the following: It still remains to be seen, however, whether this new multi¬
cultural stance is a genuine change or a simple repackaging of an old product. In this case, the simple
repackaging is contrasted with a genuine change. The author is therefore skeptical that this new ap¬
proach is a genuine change, as suggested in (C). The author does not hope for this simple repackaging,
eliminating (A) and (B). Choice (D) takes the word product too literally.
12. D The author argues throughout the passage that the influence of the West has been too strong in the
Middle East and that there needs to be more local influence in government policy. Choice (D) best
reflects this main idea. Choices (A) and (C) go against this goal. Choice (B) is also an example of a
Western ideal, so it too can be eliminated.
13. A Choice (B) is not indicated and is too extreme. There is no mention that Joyce’s critics were against
an autobiographical interpretation of his work, so eliminate (C). Joyce may have spoken through the
character of Dedalus, but it is too extreme to say this always occurred, so (D) is wrong.
14. C The author states towards the beginning of the passage that it is worth turning one’s attention to
events in Joyce’s life that may help the reader understand some of the sources of his creative inspiration,
but ends the passage by saying that reading his books solely through the biography. . . is fraught with
danger. Choice (C) best reflects this two-sided attitude towards the extent to which one can read
Ulysses as an autobiography. Choices (A) and (B) each only represents one aspect of the author’s
opinion. Choice (D) is too strong; since this passage is only about Joyce, we don’t know how the
author views Ulysses in relation to other books.
15. D The author believes that understanding Joyce’s biography may help the reader understand some of
the sources of his creative inspiration, but warns that reading Ulysses solely through the biography. . . is
fraught with danger. Choice (D) provides the best support for this double-sided attitude, as the
word solely in line 58 indicates that the biography is still useful to some degree. Choice (A) de¬
scribes Joyce in general, but not Ulysses in particular. Choices (B) and (C) each only support one
side of the author’s argument.
16. B Choice (B) is correct, as Joyce fled for reasons both personal and professional (line 22). Choice (A) is
reasons for his leav¬
wrong because while Joyce did find inspiration abroad, the passage offers other
Choice (B) is
ing. Choices (C) and (D) are wrong because they are not mentioned in the passage.
the best paraphrase of the two reasons.
255
fr
17. A Choice (A) is not mentioned. Eliminate (B) because Joyce wrote in a modernist, experimental nar¬
rative style. Choice (C) is incorrect because the passage tells us that Joyce is regarded as one of the
greatest writers ever. Eliminate (D) because Joyce lived between 1882 and 1941.
18. D A conundrum is a predicament or a puzzling statement. The word inaccessible in the first sentence
supports this idea. Choice (D), puzzle, is closest to this meaning.
19. A The author of the passage claims that the reader can understand a writer’s work by studying that
person’s biography. Then he or she describes elements from James Joyce’s life in Trieste that are
reflected in his writing. Lastly, the author moves from a discussion of Joyce’s work to pose a more
general question about how to interpret autobiographical elements in a writer’s work. This struc¬
ture most closely agrees with (A). Choice (B) is incorrect because three theories are not mentioned.
Choice (C) is wrong; the author doesn’t criticize other writers. Finally, eliminate (D), since the
author never says this.
20. B The word inadvertently means the author may misrepresent reality without meaning to do so.
Choice (A) is not mentioned. Both (C) and (D) are about readers, but the statement at issue is
about writers.
21. C Choice (C) may be one way to interpret Dedalus’s claim. Choice (A) is wrong because the author
states we can’t know for sure exactly what Joyce meant here, and we aren’t given any information
about Dedalus’s profession. For (B), even if Joyce used Dedalus to voice an opinion, nowhere does
it say that he had reason to fear making this claim. There is no evidence in the passage for (D).
22. B Joyce was not a sailor (the passage says he’s an author), so such a character would not be auto¬
biographical. Choices (A) and (C) are described in the passage as characteristics of Joyce’s life. As
for (D), Stephen Dedalus is described as Joyce’s literary alter ego (line 52), meaning the character
through whom Joyce speaks in this book.
23. B The primary purpose of a passage is what the author is trying to accomplish in his or her writing.
This is a fictional piece, written to tell a story and the focus from the very first sentence is about
how an individual with odd habits is always lost and late. Choice (A) does not mention how weird
some of William’s behavior is. Choice (B) is good because chronicles means to tell a story, and it
mentions idiosyncrasies of a salesman. Choice (C) does not mention any weirdness about the day or
the salesperson. The passage is not directed to William’s coworkers as in (D) — they’re fictional!
liam makes for a business trip. The passage indicate that he would verify that he had everyt
s hing he
needed for the day , and also that some of the items he felt he needed were perplexi
ng to his coworkers.
Choice (A) best describes these two ideas, that William paid a lot of attentio to his prepar
n ations
,
but that they were also a bit odd. Choice (B) is too strongly worded Choice (C) and (D) lack any
. s
sense of the strange nature of William’s behavior.

25. A Williams coworkers are mentioned in line 22 and find William’s behavior perplexing. In the next
mention of the coworkers in line 28, it states in the coworkers’ viewpoint that the tape record¬
ing is not the oddest thing about William. Since the coworkers surmised (line 31) the reason for his
dressing in identical clothes every day indicates that they have been interested enough to discuss
his behavior and want to understand why he does things in his peculiar way. The coworkers seem
mildly curious, (A). The emotion in (B) coldly indifferent is not supported by the passage. There is
no evidence of the coworkers being condescending, (C). Choice (D) deeply intrigued is too strong
compared to the level of interest expressed in the passage.
26. B Choice (B) indicates that William’s coworkers found some things about him odd, which indicates
mild curiosity. Choices (A), (C), and (D) all describe William, without mentioning his coworkers.
27. C William’s answer is that he might need the tape recorder. There is no mention of knowledge of technol¬
ogy in (A). Choice (B) is incorrect because the passage states that there was no possible use for it in his
work. Bringing something that one might need is a way of being prepared, so hold on to (C) and check
the other two answers. There is no evidence that William feels the questions are rude as in (D).
28. D William’s preparations are painstaking: he checks and rechecks his possessions, his directions are
neatly written out, but it’s all for nothing. William has packed useless items, and he never gets
to use any of his meeting supplies because he doesn’t make it to the meeting; his neatly writ¬
ten directions get him lost. The useless energy put into preparations “all for nothing” situation is
best described by fruitless, (D), which means “useless or unproductive.” Choice (A), professional
is incorrect, because William’s coworkers wouldn’t think he was odd if he were acting profession¬
ally. While William does not pay attention on his way and gets lost, his preparations themselves
are not careless, (B). The preparations are not useful, (C), because William has unnecessary items
and doesn’t get where he plans to go. There is no evidence that William or anyone else thought his
preparations were tiresome, or “annoying.”
29. B Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word to replace anxious. The sen¬
tence indicates that the possibility of someone riding in the car with William is a practical impos¬
sibility, and the phrase containing the word anxious agrees with the idea that no one would be in
the car with him. Look for a word that means something like excited. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are
all alternate meaning of the word anxious , but don’t work in this context. Choice (B) is the closest
to meaning excited, so it is the correct answer.
30. D Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word to replace command. The sen¬
tence in question describes William realize that he stopped following his direction, so look for a
word that means he lost track of the directions. Only (D), control, gives the appropriate meaning.
Choices (A) and (B) gives alternate definitions of command that do not work in context. Choice (C)
is a person who might hold command, but also does not work in context.
Reading Answers and Explanations 257

31. A
The best supported answer is (A). Although William says that he doesnt use maps because they
lack organization, it is implied that the actual reason is that William doesn t understand how to
use them — it seems unlikely that all the map-makers are wrong and William is right. William also
states that he doesn’t need maps because he has the directions written down. These directions end
up getting him lost, so it is further evidence that William has much to learn about navigation.
32. B
The blue necktie is still flying proudly despite William’s disastrous day and the poor state of the rest
of his clothes. Just as in a sentence completion, the word but indicates the opposite of what comes
before. In this case, the necktie is a positive symbol in contrast to the other aspects of Williams
behavior. Choice (C) is too literal: this isn’t about the variety of his wardrobe.
Drill 5
i. c Lasanky is used in the passage as an example of the new, post-World War II, type of printmaker,
who built their reputations as printmakers. Choices (B) and (D) both describe the older, pre-war
printmakers. Choice (A) is the opposite of how the new printmakers felt: It is the complex tech¬
niques of printmaking that entrance them. The idea of drawing a composition before going to the plate
or block of stone describes how the older printmakers worked, specifically in contrast to the newer
printmakers such as Lasanky, so (C) is the best answer.
2. A
Choice (A) describes how the older, pre-World War II printmakers worked, and is used specifically
as a contrast between them and the newer, post-war printmakers like Lasanky, so it provides the
best support for (C) above. Choice (B) describes the post-war printmakers, but is unrelated to any
answer choices for the above question. Choice (C) describes the pre-war printmakers, not Lasanky.
Choice (D) describes what some of Lasanky ’s students did, but is also not related to any answer
choices for the above question.
3. B The assertion is that Callot and Meryon made prints that. . . were meant to be printed in large numbers.
Eliminate (A): the term printmakers represents the “other side” in a distinction between Callot and
Meyron and those followers ofHayter. Choice (B) is correct because it addresses the large numbers of
prints. The complete satisfaction in (C) is extreme. Choice (D) is incorrect: a distinction is provided
in lines 8-14.
4. C
In the passage in lines 14-17, the printmakers are described as having found that creating in a print
medium is... totally satisfying. This is best paraphrased in (C), fulfilled. There is no evidence for the
other answers in the passage.

5. D In lines 24—29, the quote of Sylvan Cole describes the change that was taking place, which was from
printmaking for mass production, and the artistic printmaking practice of making few prints. The
pronoun this (...and out of this came a man...) indicates that the change was mentioned previously,
and in fact the whole paragraph has been discussing how printmaking changed between one era
and another. The passage does not indicate that Cole, in (A), changed anything; he just explains it.
Choice (B) is incorrect because Abstract Expressionism is mentioned only in line 23, not examined.
There is a relationship between painting and printmaking described in the quote, but the question
asks why the author includes it. The reason is that it is support from an expert about the changes in
printmaking that the whole essay so far has been discussing. This is paraphrased in (D).
6. A The question asks what the second paragraph does to help the passage. The short paragraph
discusses that Before the war printmakers made only prints, and made lots of them. In the first
paragraphs, the point was made that there was a big change from prolific printmaking for mass
distribution to smaller runs of prints as art. The third paragraph discusses how the number of
people studying printmaking changed drastically because of programs for those who fought in
the war. We need an answer that mentions both war and that printmaking changed. Choice (A)
mentions both of these and seems reasonable, but take a quick look at the rest of the answers: (B)
is the opposite of what we are looking for. Callot and Mery on in (C) were only discussed in the first
paragraph. Choice (D) is not mentioned in the passage.
7. B Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word to replace adornment. In the
passage, adornment describes the use of artwork in schools and government buildings. While many
of the answers could refer to prints, in this case, these visual artworks are more for decoration than
just for enjoyment so (B) is closest.
8. B The passage states that the G.I. Bill gave veterans the opportunity to attend college (lines 39-40).
This is stated to be during a period of prosperity (line 36), so it meant that opportunity was that the
government paid the schools the money for the veterans’ education. Choice (B) is the best para¬
phrase of these elements. The opposite of (A) is true. The G.I. Bill was not just for lost veterans.
Choice (D) has the wrong chronology: students using the GI Bill directed money to institutions
that used the funds to expand.
9. C Go back to the passage and use the context to come up with a word to replace lost. In lines 40-41
of the passage, the “lost” are described as those that had little direction — they didn’t know what to
do with themselves. The word aimless in (C) describes this quality best. While lost can have the
meaning of some of the other words in the answers, these do not fit in the context of the passage.
Reading Answers and Explanations 259

10. B The phenomenal expansion in the passage is that of art education. One reason mentioned is that the
atmosphere of art departments was appealing, and in lines 51-55, the expansion is described at two
levels: new and advanced programs for those with college degrees at institutions of higher learning,
and older, established schools for beginning students that were filled to capacity. This is all ad¬
dressed in the education experiences listed in (B). The membership of the army (A) is not a reason,
but the number of those using the G.I. Bill to obtain art education. Choice (C) is not mentioned,
and (D) does not refer to art at all.
11. A The best supported answer is (A). The effect of the proliferation is mentioned in lines (62-78) the
passage as causing an increase in the number of printmakers, which in turned caused more institu¬
tions whose. purpose was to exhibit and publish and sell prints. To fill all this demand, more organi¬
zations were created in order to encourage the creation of prints. There is no evidence for (B) or (D),
and (C) is extreme due to the use of all.
12. C The author of this passage shows an interest in informing readers about CMEs, but the author also
explains that scientists (and, implicitly, readers can do little to predict these storms or prevent the
damage they cause. Choice (A) is extreme: the author cites countermeasures in the final paragraph,
so there are some things that can be done to minimize impact. Choice (B) is also extreme: the au¬
thor has not provided evidence that identifies so precisely the time or effects of future CMEs. The
first half of (D) is reasonable, but the second half overstates the author’s view of how prepared our
society will be.
13. D The 1989 storm is described as a major CME. The author also states that since our society is in¬
creasingly dependent on technology, the potential havoc wrought by a major CME becomes even
more distressing. Choices (A), (B), and (C) are not supported by any information in the passage.
14. B In lines 15-16 of the passage, the author claims that the last recorded instance of a major CME
occurred in 1989. According to the graph, the biggest change in the Disturbance Storm Index oc¬
curred in 1989, when the line drops to its lowest point. This data supports the author’s claim. The
claims listed in (A), (C), and (D) are mentioned in the passage, but are not supported by the data
in the graph.
15. D The data points on the graph do not follow any discernably predictable pattern, and thus no trend
can be identified, (D).
16. A The researchers have scant information about the CMEs because there are few existing records.
Therefore, we’re looking for a word that means only a few, or not enough. Choice (A) is a good
match. Choices (B) and (C) are opposite (and distracting). Choice (D) simply doesn’t have the
meaning that we’re looking for.
nating on the sun can, in fact, have serious consequ on Earth, (B). The author cites geomag¬
en ces
netic storms as one such phenomen
on.

V
18. D The answer to the previous question, the author’s claim that certain events on the sun can have seri¬
ous consequences on Earth, is best supported by the example of the results of the 1989 geomagnetic
storm, which knocked out a power grid and thus deprived millions of people of electricity, (D).
19. A Compounded means increased or added to.” Scientists’ inability to determine the orientation of a
magnetic field more than 30 minutes before it reaches the atmosphere increases, or adds to, the diffi¬
culties of prediction. Choice (A) best expresses this problem. Choice (B) is close but not quite right.
The author already says that there is little time to predict CMEs, and just uses compounded by to
show that the situation is even worse than previously asserted. Choice (C) is incorrect because the
author does not try to disprove this idea. There is nothing in the passage to support (D).
cess of Elimination. The second-to-last paragraph discusses how rare CMEs are, and therefore,
how little data exists that would allow scientists to predict future occurrences. Ill is therefore true,
so eliminate (A) and (B). The same paragraph also mentions how little time there would be to react
to and study a CME, so I is true. This eliminates (D), leaving (C) as the only possible answer.
21. D Choice (D) accurately reflects both the author’s effort to inform and warn readers about CMEs
and the author’s explanation of the challenges researchers are facing. Choices (A) and (B) accu¬
rately describe only one part of the passage. Choice (C) is wrong because most of the passage is not
persuasive in style.
22. D There is evidence for three of the choices in the passage: (A), lines 13-15, Our sun would have to be
only a few miles in diameter to become a black hole. It isn’t, therefore it won’t become a black hole;
(B), lines 20-21; and (C), lines 15-16. Choice (D) is correct because it is the only one NOT in the
20
C answer Indeed,
To passage.
. the opposite of this is true: the sun would have to be heavier to have enough grav¬
this question, we must det
ermine the
ity to pull it down into a black hole, suggesting trut
thath its
of gravitational
the given statem
pull andenough
entiss not to make a
rely upo n Pro¬
black hole.
23. A Try replacing the word exhausts with what would make sense in the sentence. A good phrase to re¬
place exhausts is “uses all.” Choice (A), “uses up,” comes closest to this meaning. None of the other
answer choices comes close. Choice (B) means “to spend or use up senselessly. Choice (C) means
“to tire or make weary.” Choice (D) means “to give off or send out.
24. C Choice (A) is mentioned in the passage, but is not the reason that the author mentions the Crab
Nebula. Choice (B), prove , is extreme (and not the focus). There is no evidence for (D) in the pas¬
sage. The author mentions the Crab Nebula in conjunction with the neutron star (lines 26-31).
25. B There is no evidence for any of the answer choices in the passage except (B). Choice (B) is correct
black holes have
because of evidence in the last paragraph of the passage. Lines 38-39 state that
enough gravity to make x-rays come out.
261
26. D The answer to the previous question, that the best way to find a black hole is to look for evidence of
x-ray emissions, is best supported by the information In the final paragraph; in particular, in lines
38-39 the author states that a black hole has strong enough gravity to make x-rays come out , (D). This
statement indicates that while black holes are nearly impossible to detect, the best way to do so is
to look for x-rays.
27. A Choices (B) and (C) are mentioned in the passage, but are both too narrow to accurately reflect
the main idea of the whole passage. Choice (D) contradicts the passage; the mini black holes have
not been observed. Choice (A) is correct because Passage 2 is primarily about the theory that mini
black holes exist.
28. A The clue to the meaning of elementary particles, neutrinos, refers to the smallest, or most basic (A)
units that make up neutrons, protons, and electrons. Choices (B), (C), and (D) can thus be elimi¬
nated. (Think elementary school, which is basic compared to high school or college).
29. C Choices (A), (B), and (D) take bits and pieces from the passage, so they all “sound’' pretty good.
However, we ’re asked to select what can be inferred-, that is, what do we know for a fact passed on
the passage? Choice (C) is correct because the passage states in lines 35-56 that the amount of radia¬
tion increases sharply as we consider less and less massive black holes. This is an inverse relationship,
since the more radiation, the smaller the size.
30. B Choice (B) is correct because the paragraph describes the experience you would have on the edge of
a black hole, incorporating such mundane details as checking the time. Choice (A) is too strong —
scientific proof takes more than an analogy. There is no evidence of warning, as in (C). Choice (D)
is insulting to the author, and thus cannot be correct.
31. D Lines 3-4 of Passage 1 state that mass in a small enough package is a black hole, and go on to discuss
why our sun is not likely to become a black hole because of its density. The second paragraph of
Passage 2 also discusses mass and density. There is no evidence in either passage that (A), (B), or
(C) are factors enabling us to identify a star that is capable of becoming a black hole. Choice (D)
matches the statements noted.
doesn’t come out. There is no evidence for (A) in the passage. Choice (B) and (D) are cont
s radicted
by information in the passage. Choice (C), Hawking’s theory of mini black holes, does the most to
dispute the statement.

NOTES
NOTES
NOTES
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500+ PRACTICE QUESTIONS

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National Content Director

1 Your Guide to Getting the Most Out Of This Book . 3

2 What You Need to Know for the New SAT . 7

Part II: Writing and Language . 15

3 Writing and Language Drills . 23

4 Writing and Language Answers and Explanations . 49

Part III: Math . 67

What Can You Expect to See on the Math Test? . 68

5 Heart of Algebra Drills . 73

6 Heart of Algebra Answers and Explanations . 93

7 Problem Solving and Data Analysis . Ill

8 Problem Solving and Data Analysis Answers and Explanations . 133

9 Passport to Advanced Math . 147

10 Passport to Advanced Math Answers and Explanations . 165

11 Additional Topics . 183

12 Additional Topics Answers and Explanations . 191

Part IV: Reading . 197

What Can You Expect to See on the Reading Test? . 198

13 Reading Drills . 201

14 Reading Answers and Explanations . 237

WAYNE PUBLIC LIBRARY

HOWTO USE THIS BOOK

4 500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT

Keep track of your performance. Remember that the purpose of all

to give your mind as much time as possible to adapt to what you’re

That said, you should be aware of how to fill in a Student-Produced Response

Your Guide to Getting the Most Out Of This Book

STAYING AHEAD OF THE REDESIGNED SAT CD’

6 500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT

• It doesn’t measure the stuff that matters. It measures neither intel¬

• It underpredicts the college performance of women, minorities,

help predict performance in college, that’s a pretty poor record.

Who Writes the SAT?

LENGTH OF 3 hours, 43 minutes 3 hours (without essay)

ANSWER 5 answer choices per 4 answer choices per

• Writing Skills • Writing and Language

• The reading passages will

What You Need to Know for the New SAT

CALCULATORS Calculators permitted in Calculators only allowed in

THE ESSAY Required first section of the The essay is optional

The More You Know...

understanding of the source’s ideas.

10 500+ Practice Questions for the New SAT