JAYA ENGINEERING COLLEGE

DEPARTMENT OF AERONAUTIAL ENGINEERING

AE 2035 - AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL AND PLANNING
SYLLABUS

AE 2035 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL AND PLANNING 3 0 0 100

OBJECTIVE
To study the procedure of the formation of aerodrome and its design and air traffic control.

1. BASIC CONCEPTS 9
Objectives of ATS - Parts of ATC service – Scope and Provision of ATCs – VFR & IFR operations –
Classification of ATS air spaces – Varies kinds of separation – Altimeter setting procedures – Establishment,
designation and identification of units providing ATS – Division of responsibility of control.
2. AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES 9
Area control service, assignment of cruising levels minimum flight altitude ATS routes and significant
points – RNAV and RNP – Vertical, lateral and longitudinal separations based on time / distance –ATC
clearances – Flight plans – position report
3. FLIGHT INFORMATION ALERTING SERVICES, COORDINATION, EMERGENCY
PROCEDURES AND RULES OF THE AIR 10
Radar service, Basic radar terminology – Identification procedures using primary / secondary radar –
performance checks – use of radar in area and approach control services – assurance control and co-
ordination between radar / non radar control – emergencies – Flight information and advisory service –
Alerting service – Co-ordination and emergency procedures – Rules of the air.
4. AERODROME DATA, PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS AND OBSTACLE
RESTRICTION 9
Aerodrome data - Basic terminology – Aerodrome reference code – Aerodrome reference point –
Aerodrome elevation – Aerodrome reference temperature – Instrument runway, physical Characteristics;
length of primary / secondary runway – Width of runways – Minimum distance between parallel runways
etc. – obstacles restriction.
5. VISUAL AIDS FOR NAVIGATION, VISUAL AIDS FOR DENOTING OBSTACLES
EMERGENCY AND OTHER SERVICES 8
Visual aids for navigation Wind direction indicator – Landing direction indicator – Location and
characteristics of signal area – Markings, general requirements – Various markings – Lights, general
requirements – Aerodrome beacon, identification beacon – Simple approach lighting system and various
lighting systems – VASI & PAPI - Visual aids for denoting obstacles; object to be marked and lighter –
Emergency and other services.

TOTAL: 45
TEXT BOOK
1. AIP (India) Vol. I & II, “The English Book Store”, 17-1, Connaught Circus, New Delhi.

REFERENCES
1. “Aircraft Manual (India) Volume I”, latest Edition – The English Book Store, 17-1, Connaught
Circus, New Delhi.
2. “PANS – RAC – ICAO DOC 4444”, Latest Edition, The English Book Store, 17-1, Connaught
Circus, New Delhi.

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 ANNA UNIVERSITY QUESTION BANK.
PART-A
UNIT I
1. What is Air Traffic Control?
Ans:
Air Traffic Control, a generic term meaning variously, area control centre, approach
control unit or aerodrome control tower. Air traffic control (ATC) is a service provided by ground
based controllers who direct aircraft on the ground and in the air.
The primary purpose of ATC systems worldwide is:
• To separate aircraft to prevent collisions
• To organize and expedite the flow of traffic
• To provide information and other support for pilots when able.

2. What is the role of Air traffic controller in ATC?

Ans:
Air traffic controllers are the people who operate the air traffic control systems to expedite
and maintain a safe and orderly flow of air traffic and help prevent mid‐air collisions.

3. Define Aerodrome.
Ans:
A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment)
intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of
aircraft.

4. What is meant by Controlled and Uncontrolled Airspace?

Ans:
Controlled air space: an air space of defined dimensions within which air traffic control
service is provided to aerodrome traffic with airspace classification. Controlled air space which
covers ATS airspaces classes A, B, C, D and E.
Un-Controlled air space: an airspace where an Air Traffic Control (ATC) service is not
deemed necessary or cannot be provided for practical reasons. According to the airspace classes set
by ICAO both class F and class G airspace are uncontrolled. It is the opposite of controlled
airspace.
ATC does not exercise any executive authority in uncontrolled airspace, but may provide
basic information services to aircraft in radio contact. Flight in uncontrolled airspace will typically
be under VFR. Aircraft operating under IFR should not expect separation from other traffic:
however in certain uncontrolled airspace this might be provided on an 'as far as is practical'
advisory basis.

5. What is IFR flight?

Ans:
IFR flight: a flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
Instrument flight rules (IFR) are regulations and procedures for flying aircraft by
referring only to the aircraft instrument panel for navigation.

6. What is VFR flight?

Ans:
VFR flight: a flight conducted in accordance with visual flight rules.
Visual flight rules (VFR) are a set of regulations which allow a pilot to operate an aircraft
in weather conditions generally clear enough to allow the pilot to see where the aircraft is going.
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 State the difference between VFR & IFR operation
7.
Ans:
S. VFR Operation S. IFR Operation
No No
1 Pilot navigates and flies by looking out the 1 Pilot navigates using instruments in the
window cockpit
2 He uses the view out the window to keep 2 It is not necessary for him to look out the
the aircraft straight and level, and he window, and in fact a pilot flying IFR can
navigates from place to place by looking fly to his destination even if the windows
at things on the ground (roads, rivers, are covered by cardboard
buildings, etc.)
3 Pilots also must keep their eyes open for 3 IFR flights work in conjunction with air
other airplanes nearby so that they don't traffic controllers, who use radar to advise
hit anyone IFR flights of other aircraft in the area,
thereby maintaining a safe distance
between them.
4 VFR operation is not safer than IFR, 4 IFR is safer than VFR, because it can be
because it cannot be carried out in any carried out in any type of weather,
type of weather, by looking out window. regardless of visibility.
5 Flying IFR is not complicated. 5 Flying IFR is much more complicated than
VFR, and requires much more training and
practice.

8. State the objective of ATS.

Ans:
The objectives of the Air Traffic Services shall be to:
a) Prevent collisions between aircraft.
b) Prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions on
that area.
c) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.
d) Provide advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
e) Notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue
aid, and assist such organizations as required.

9. Describe the two basic types of flight rules.

Ans:
Instrument flight rules (IFR) are regulations and procedures for flying aircraft by
referring only to the aircraft instrument panel for navigation
Visual flight rules (VFR) are a set of regulations which allow a pilot to operate an aircraft
in weather conditions generally clear enough to allow the pilot to see where the aircraft is going.

10. What are the tree components of ATC network?

Ans:
ATC system consists of 20 ARTCC (AIR ROUTE TRFFIC COTROL CENTRE)
which has further divided into two types of control, one is approach control and other one is non
approach control. An approach control tower with its associated TRACON provides separation and
instrument landing services for IFR traffic and is also responsible for integrating VFR traffic into
the approach pattern.

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 UNIT II
11. Give various division of Air traffic Services.
Ans:
The air traffic services comprise of three services identified as follows:
1. Air traffic control service
- Area control service
- Approach control service
- Aerodrome control service
2. Flight information service
3. Alerting service

12. Mention different categories of Airports

Ans:
1. International Airport
2. Domestic Air Carrier Airports
3. Commuter Airports
4. Reliever Airports
Or the following type also the answer can be given
1. Commercial Service Airports
a. Non-primary Commercial Service Airports
b. Primary Airports
2. Cargo Service Airports
3. Reliever Airports

13. Differentiate TRACON and ARTCC

Ans:
Terminal Radar Approach Control - TRACON handles departing and approaching
aircraft within its space.
Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) - There is one ARTCC for each center.
Each ARTCC manages traffic within all sectors of its center except for TRACON airspace and
local-airport airspace.

14. State the Airspace Classification followed in India.

Ans:
ATS airspaces in India are classified and designated in accordance with the following.
Class D: IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with Air Traffic
Control service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights.
Class E: IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are provided with Air Traffic
Control service and are separated from other IFR flights. IFR flights receive traffic information in
respect of VFR flights;
Class F: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory
service and all flights receive flight information service, if requested.
Class G: IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if
requested. Airspaces other than those in Class D, E and F have been classified and designated as
class G airspace.
[Explanation for understanding:
Class D:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with Air Traffic Control
service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of
VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights. Airspaces in

4
terminal areas, control areas, control zones and aerodrome traffic zones have been classified and
designated as class D airspace.
Class E:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are provided with Air Traffic Control service
and are separated from other IFR flights. IFR flights receive traffic information in respect of VFR
flights; VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, as far as is practical.
Class E is not be used for control zones. Airspaces in designated ATS routes outside terminal areas,
control areas and control zones, where air traffic control service is provided, have been classified
and designated as class E airspace.
Class F:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and
all flights receive flight information service, if requested. Airspaces in designated ATS route
segments outside terminal areas, control areas and control zones, where air traffic advisory service
is provided, have been classified and designated as class F airspace.
Class G:
IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested.
Airspaces other than those in Class D, E and F have been classified and designated as class G
airspace.

15. Differentiate between the class D and Class E Airspace.

Ans:
Class D:
- IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with air traffic
Control service, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive
traffic information in respect of VFR flights.
- VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights.
- Airspaces in terminal areas, control areas, control zones and aerodrome traffic
zones have been classified and designated as class D airspace.
Class E:
- IFR and VFR flights are permitted; IFR flights are provided with air traffic
control service and are separated from other IFR flights.
- IFR flights receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights; VFR flights
receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, as far as is practical.
- Class E is not be used for control zones.
- Airspaces in designated ATS routes outside terminal areas, control areas and
control zones, where air traffic control service is provided, have been classified
and designated as class E airspace

16. Give the various ATC provision.

Ans:
The following are the responsibility for the provision of ATC:
Area Control Service:
The provision of air traffic control service for controlled flights, except for those parts of
such flights which are under the jurisdiction of Approach Control or Aerodrome Control to
accomplish following objectives:
a) Prevent collisions between aircraft
b) Expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
Approach control service:
The provision of air traffic control service for those parts of controlled flights associated
with arrival or departure.
Aerodrome control service:

5
 The provision of air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic, except for those parts of
flights which are under the jurisdiction of Approach Control.

17. What is meant by ATC Clearance?

Ans:
ATC clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by
an air traffic control unit. Clearance may be prefixed by the words “taxi”, “take off”, “departure”,
“en-route”, “ approach” or “landing” to indicate the particular portion of flight to which the air
traffic control clearance relates.

18. Give the separation rules followed in vertical airspace.

Ans:
The vertical air separation Minimum (VSM) shall be,
Between the surface and an altitude of 29,000 feet (8,800 m), no aircraft should come closer
vertically than 1,000 feet or 300 meters (in those countries that express altitude in meters), unless
some form of horizontal separation is provided.
Above 29,000 feet (8,800 m) no aircraft shall come closer than 2,000 feet (or 600 m),
except in airspace where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) can be applied.
Or (you can write as follows)
The Vertical Air Separation Minimum (VSM) shall be,
(a) A nominal 300 m (1000 ft) below FL 290 and a nominal 600 m (2000 ft) at or above
this level except for in (b) below and
(b) Within designated airspace, subjected to a regional air navigation agreement: a nominal
300 m (1000 ft) below FL 410 or a higher level where so prescribed for use under
specified conditions, and a nominal 600 m (2000 ft) at or above this level.

19. Give the separation rules followed in horizontal airspace.

Ans:
If any two aircraft are separated by less than the vertical separation minimum, then some
form of horizontal separation must exist. Ie.,
- Procedural separation
- Lateral separation
- Longitudinal separation
Or
a. other minima for use in circumstances not prescribed: or
b. additional conditions to those prescribed for the use of a given minimum:

20. Give the separation rules followed in Lateral Airspace.

Ans:
a. The distance between those portions of the intended routes for which the aircraft are to
be laterally separated is never less than an established distance to account for
navigational accuracies plus a specified buffer.
b. Lateral separation of aircraft at the same level is obtained by requiring operation on
different routes or in different geographical locations as determined by visual
observation by use of navigation aids or by use of area navigation equipment.

OR WRITE AS FOLLOWS:
Lateral separation shall be applied so that the distance between those portions of the
intended routes for which the aircraft are to be laterally separated is never less than an established
distance to account for navigational inaccuracies plus a specified buffer. This buffer shall be
determined by the appropriate authority and included in the lateral separation minima as an integral
part thereof.
6
 Lateral separation of aircraft is obtained by requiring operation on different routes or in
different locations as determined by visual observation, by the use of navigation aids or by the use
of area navigation (RNAV) equipment.
When information is received indication navigation equipment failure or deterioration
below the navigation performance requirements. ATC shall then, as required, apply alternative
separation methods or minima

21. State the longitudinal separation based on time between two aircrafts in Indian FIR
Ans:
Aircraft at the same cruising level – aircraft flying on the same track:
1. 15 minutes or
2. 10 minutes if navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed
3. 5 Minutes in the following cases provided that in each case the preceding aircraft
is maintaining a true airspeed of 37 km/h (20kt) or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft: (a) between aircraft that have departed from the same
aerodrome: (b) between en-route aircraft that have reported over the same exact
reporting point

22. Explain various parts of Flight plan.

Ans:
i. validity period of the flight plan
ii. days of operation
iii. aircraft identification
iv. aircraft type and turbulence category
v. MLS capability
vi. Departure aerodrome
vii. Off block time
viii. Cruising speed (s)
ix. Cruising level (s)
x. Route to be followed
xi. Destination aerodrome
xii. Total estimated elapsed time
xiii. Indication of the location where the following information may be obtained
immediately upon request:
1. alternate aerodromes
2. fuel endurance
3. total number of persons on board
4. emergency equipment
5. other information

23. Explain the position reports.

Ans:
A. Unless exempted by the appropriate ATS authority or by the appropriate air traffic
services unit under conditions specified by that authority, a controlled flight shall report to the
appropriate air traffic services unit, as soon as possible, the time and level of passing each
designated compulsory reporting point, together with any other required information. Position
reports shall similarly be made in relation to additional points when requested by the appropriate air
traffic services unit. In the absence of designated reporting points, position reports shall be made at
intervals prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority or specified by the appropriate air traffic
services unit.

7
 B. Controlled flights providing position information to the appropriate air traffic services
unit via data link communications shall only provide voice position reports when requested.
Or write as follows
On routes defined by designated significant points, position reports shall be made by the
aircraft when over or as soon as possible after passing, each designated compulsory reporting point.
Additional reports over other points may be requested by the appropriate ATS unit.
Contents of voice position reports:
1) Aircraft identification
2) Position
3) Time
4) Flight level or altitude, including passing level and cleared level if not
maintaining the cleared level
5) Next position and time over
6) Ensuing significant point.

24. State flight plan.

Ans:
Flight plans are documents filed by pilots or a Flight Dispatcher with the local Civil
Aviation Authority (e.g. DGCA in INDIA) prior to departure.
Or
Flight plan as filed with an ATS unit by the pilot or designated representative, without any
subsequent changes.

25. Define RNAV & RNP

Ans:
RNP- Radio Navigation Performance: is type of performance based navigation (PBN)
that allows an aircraft to fly a specific path between two or three dimensionally defined points in
which accuracy necessary for operation within a defined airspace
RNAV- Area Navigation: a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any
desired flight path within the coverage of station referenced navigation aids or within the limits of
capacity of self contained aids or a combination of these.

8
 UNIT III
PSR – PRIMARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR
SSR – SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR
26. What are identification procedures being used with primary radar?
Ans:
Where PSR is used for identification aircraft may be identified by one or more of the
following procedures:
a. By correlating a particular radar position indication with an aircraft reporting its position
over, or as bearing and distance from, a point shown on the situation display, and be
ascertaining that the track of the particular radar position is consistent with the aircraft
path or reported heading.
b. By correlating an observed radar position radar position indication with an aircraft
which is known to have just departed, provided that the identification is established with
in 2 Km (1NM) from the end of runway used. Particular care should be taken to avoid
confusion with aircraft holding over or overflying the aerodrome or with aircraft
departing from or making a missed approach over adjacent runways.
c. By transfer of radar identification
d. By ascertain the aircraft heading, if circumstances require, and following a period of
track observation

27. State the separation standards in Secondary radar.

Ans:
Separation Standards in Secondary radar:
• Radar used to separate aircraft
– Reduces lateral and longitudinal separation minima
– Increases throughput
– Enhances safety
– Better use of airspace
• Vertical Separation
– Aircraft below FL 290
• Separated by 1000 ft
– Aircraft above FL290
• Separated by 2000 ft
• Longitudinal Separation
– Radar accuracy
• 3nm within 40 nm radius of radar antenna
• 5nm beyond 40nm radius of radar antenna
– Wake Vortex Separation
• Enroute and Approach
• Landing
• Lateral Separation
– Radar accuracy
• 3nm within 40 nm radius of radar antenna
• 5nm beyond 40nm radius of radar antenna
– Separation reduced for diverging paths

28. What is ARP? Explain in brief. (NB: no ARP is available question may be wrong so
answer is given for SARP)
Ans:
SARP – Standards and Recommended Practices are developed by ICAO and cover all
technical and operational aspects of international civil aviation, such as safety, personnel licensing,
9
operation of aircraft, aerodromes, air traffic services, accident investigation and the environment.
Whilst the PANS may contain material which may eventually become standards or
Recommended practices (SARPs) when it has reached the maturity and stability necessary for
adoption as such they may also comprise material prepared as an amplification of the basic
principles in the corresponding SRPs, and designed particularly to assist the user in the application
of those SRPs.

29. Give few basic radar terminologies.

Ans:
Radar, Target, Jamming, Range, Phase detector, Azimuth, MTI – Moving Target Indicator,
MTD – Moving Target Detector. Synchronous detector, SRE –Surveillance Radar Equipment, PAR
– Precision Approach Radar, Primary Radar, Secondary Radar, Doppler Navigation Radar, Ground
Mapping Radar, Terrain Following Radar.

30. What is the basic principle of Radar?

Ans:
RADAR-Radio Detection and Ranging: Principle:
• A signal, at constant intervals is sent through the area to be monitored using antennae.
• Any object in the path of the signal reflects the part of the signal.
• A receiver receives the signal which is translated into a dot on the CRO

31. How PAR is used to control air traffic?

Ans:
PAR – Precision Approach RADAR:
PAR is designed for use as a landing aid rather than an aid for sequencing and spacing
aircraft. PAR equipment may be used as a primary landing aid or it may be used to monitor other
types of approaches. It is designed to display range, azimuth, and elevation information. Two
antennas are used in the PAR array, one scanning a vertical plane, and the other scanning
horizontally. Since the range is limited to 10 miles, azimuth to 20 degrees, and elevation to 7
degrees, only the final approach area is covered.

32. What is primary radar how it is used in identification of aircraft?

Ans:
Primary radar: a radar system which uses reflected radio signals.
This type of radar (now called primary radar) can detect and report the position of anything
that reflects its transmitted radio signals including, depending on its design, aircraft, birds, weather
and land features. For air traffic control purposes, its targets do not have to co-operate, they only
have to be within its coverage and be able to reflect radio waves, but it only indicates the position
of the targets, it does not identify them. When primary radar was the only type of radar available,
the correlation of individual radar returns with specific aircraft typically was achieved by the
Controller observing a directed turn by the aircraft. Primary radar is still used by ATC today as a
backup/complementary system to secondary radar, although its coverage and information is more
limited

33. What is secondary radar how it is used in identification of aircraft?

Ans:
Secondary radar: a radar system wherein a radio signal transmitted from the radar station
initiates the transmission of a radio signal from another station
10
 The need to be able to identify aircraft more easily and reliably led to another wartime radar
development, the Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) system, which had been created as a means of
positively identifying friendly aircraft from enemy. This system, which became known in civil use
as secondary surveillance radar (SSR) or as the air traffic control radar beacon system (ATCRBS),
relies on a piece of equipment aboard the aircraft known as a "transponder." The transponder is a
radio receiver and transmitter which receives on one frequency (1030 MHz) and transmits on
another (1090 MHz). The target aircraft's transponder replies to signals from an interrogator by
transmitting a coded reply signal containing the requested information.
Both the civilian SSR and the military IFF have become much more complex than their
war-time ancestors, but remain compatible with each other, not least to allow military aircraft to
operate in civil airspace. SSR can now provide much more detailed information, for example, the
aircraft's altitude, and it also permits the exchange of data directly between aircraft for collision
avoidance. Given its primary military role of reliably identifying friends, IFF has much more secure
(encrypted) messages to prevent "spoofing" by the enemy, and also is used on all kinds of military
platforms including air, sea and land vehicles.

34. What is a performance check?

Ans:
The radar controller shall adjust the radar displays and carryout adequate checks on the
accuracy thereof, in accordance with the technical instructions prescribed by the appropriate
authority for the radar equipment concerned.
The radar controller shall be satisfied that the available capabilities of the radar system as
well as the information presented on the radar display(s) is adequate for the function to be
performed.
The radar controller shall report in accordance with local procedures, any fault in the
equipment or any incident requiring investigation or any circumstances which make it difficult or
impractical to provide radar services.

35. What is meant by flight advisory service?

Ans:
The en route flight advisory service (FAS), or Flight Watch, is a service from selected FSSs
or AFSSs on a common frequency 122.0 MHz below flight level (FL) 180 and on assigned discrete
frequencies to aircraft at FL180 and above. The purpose of EFAS is to provide en route aircraft
with timely and pertinent weather data tailored to a specific altitude and route using the most
current available sources of aviation meteorological information. Additionally, EFAS is a focal
point for rapid receipt and dissemination of pilot reports.

11
 UNIT IV

36. Explain few aerodrome reference codes. .

Ans:

37. Draw the primary runway used in India. .

Ans: (use any one diagram)

TORA - take off run available

TODA - take off distance available
ASDA - accelerate‐stop distance available
LDA - landing distance available

38. Give few basic terminology used in aerodrome design. .

Ans:
Aerodrome elevation, aerodrome identification sign, aerodrome reference point,
aerodrome reference field length, declared distances, TORA - take off run available, TODA -
take off distance available , ASDA - accelerate‐stop distance available, LDA - landing distance
available, displaced threshold, holding bay, instrument runway, primary runway, secondary
runway, precision and non precision approach runway, landing area, intermediate holding position,
12
movement area, taxi way, aircraft stand taxi lane, apron taxiway, maneuvering area, RESA- runway
end safety area, runway strip, RVR- runway visual range, Shoulder, stop way, threshold,
touchdown zone, taxiway intersection, etc,.

39. What is meant by basic runway length? Describe three cases to be considered.
Ans:
Basic runway length: It is the length of runway under the following assumed conditions at
the airport.
1. Airport altitude is at sea level.
2. Temperature at the airport is standard 15ºc
3. Runway is leveled in the longitudinal direction.
4. no wind is blowing on runway
5. Aircraft is loaded to its full loading capacity.
6. There is no wind blowing en route to the destination.
7. En route temperature is standard
The runway length resulting when the actual runway length is corrected to the equivalent
mean sea level, standard atmospheric pressure, and no gradient conditions.( or the three cases
to be considered)

40. Give few obstacle restrictions.

Ans:
The following are the obstacle restrictions:
Outer horizontal surface
Conical surface
Inner horizontal surface
Approach surface
Inner approach surface
Transitional surface
Inner transitional surface
Balked landing surface
Take off climb surface

41. Give few visual aids for denoting obstacles.

Ans:
Objects on Movement Areas
1. Vehicles and other mobile objects, excluding aircraft, on the manoeuvring area of an
aerodrome are obstacles and shall be marked and, if the vehicle and aerodrome are used
at night or in conditions of low visibility, lighted.
2. Elevated aeronautical ground lights within the movement area shall be marked so as to
be conspicuous by day.
Objects on Runway Strips
A fixed object located on a runway strip shall be marked and if the aerodrome is used at
night, lighted, excluding visual aids that are by their nature visually conspicuous
Other Objects
A fixed object, other than an obstacle, adjacent to a take-off/approach surface should be marked
and if the runway is used at night, lighted if such marking and lighting is considered necessary to
ensure its avoidance except that the marking may be omitted when:
1. The height of the obstacle above the level of the surrounding ground does not exceed
150 m and it is lighted by medium intensity obstacle light by day; or
2. The object is lighted by high-intensity obstacle lights by day.
All mobile objects to be marked shall be coloured or display flags.

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42. Why there should be obstacle restrictions?
Ans:
The airspace around aerodromes to be maintained free from obstacles so as to permit the
intended aero plane operations at the aerodromes to be conducted safely and to prevent the
aerodromes from becoming unusable by the growth of obstacles around the aerodromes. This is
achieved by establishing a series of obstacle limitation surfaces that define the limits to which
objects may project into the airspace.

Explanation for understanding

An aerodrome operator is required to monitor the airspace around the aerodrome for
infringement of the obstacle limitation surfaces by any object, building or structure. The aerodrome
operator must take all reasonable measures to ensure that obstacles at or within the vicinity of the
aerodrome are detected as quickly as possible. The aerodrome operator is required to inform the
DCA immediately he becomes aware of the presence of an obstacle, giving details of its height and
location and amended declared distances and gradients where applicable. In addition, where the
aerodrome operator becomes aware of any development or proposed construction near the
aerodrome that is likely to create an obstacle, he must inform the DCA as soon as practicable,
giving all details of the likely obstacle.

43. Give the length of various primary and secondary runways.

Ans:
Primary Runway: The actual runway length to be provided for a primary runway shall be
adequate to meet the operational requirements of the aero planes for which the runway is intended
and shall be not less than the longest length determined by applying the corrections for local
conditions to the operations and performance characteristics of the relevant Aero planes.
Secondary Runway: The length of a secondary runway shall be determined similarly to
primary runways except that it needs only to be adequate for those aero planes which require to use
that secondary runway in addition to the other runway or runways in order to obtain a usability
factor of at least 95 per cent.

Recommended Runway Length

The analysis presented earlier in Derivative Stage Length Analysis (DSLA), indicates that a
runway length of 6,000 feet is the absolute minimum length considered at FLL to be usable by 80
percent of the projected peak hour fleet for departures. A maximum primary runway length of
8,000 feet will accommodate at least 90 percent of the design day aircraft departures at 90 percent
maximum payload. A secondary runway at FLL should be as close to 8,000 feet in length, plus
grade adjustments, as practicable, but not less than 6,000 feet.
An analysis was conducted to determine the runway length requirements for passenger air
carrier, commuter, and cargo aircraft operating at Dayton International Airport (DAY). Based on
100% maximum takeoff weights (MTOW) of the existing and future aircraft fleet mix through year
2020, the following runway lengths are justified at DAY.
Justified Runway Lengths
Runway Justified Runway Length (ft.)
6R-24L 13,900 primary runway
6L-24R 13,900 primary runway
18-36 11,120 secondary runway

44. What is meant by runway saturation?

Ans:
The runway saturation means that how much arrival and departure of aircraft can
accommodate with respect to available runway capacity whether control tower is available or not.
Existing airports without a control tower have very small runway saturation capacities (4-5 arrivals
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per hour). The saturation capacity of an airport with HVO (ADS-B) technology depends on the
safety buffers allowed and the delivery accuracy of pilots/AMM system. The variation in technical
parameters such as γ and δ affects the results of saturation capacity. The saturation capacity of an
airport depends on the runway configuration used. The saturation capacity during VMC conditions
is higher than during IMC conditions (due to shorter separation minima). The variation in technical
parameters such as γ and δ affects the results of saturation capacity.

45. Define instrument runway.

Ans:
Instrument Runway: Runway meant for simultaneous approaches to parallel or near-
parallel runways where radar separation minima between aircraft on adjacent extended runway
centre lines are not prescribed is called instrument runway.

Explanation for understanding

Instrument Runway:
One of the following types of runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
instrument approach procedures:
a) Non-precision approach runway. An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual
aid providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight-in approach.
b) Precision approach runway, category I. An instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS and
visual aids intended for operations with a decision height not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and either a
visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual range not less than 550 m.
c) Precision approach runway, category II. An instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS and
visual aids intended for operations with a decision height lower than 60 m (200 ft) but not lower
than 30 m (100 ft) and a runway visual range not less than 350 m.
d) Precision approach runway, category III. An instrument runway served by ILS and/or MLS to
and along the surface of the runway and:
A C intended for operations with a decision height lower than 30 m (100 ft), or no decision
height and a runway visual range not less than 200 m.
B C intended for operations with a decision height lower than 15 m (50 ft), or no decision
height and a runway visual range less than 200 m but not less than 50 m.
C C intended for operations with no decision height and no runway visual range limitations.
Note. C Visual aids need not necessarily be matched to the scale of non-visual aids provided. The
criterion for the selection of visual aids is the conditions in which operations are intended to be
conducted.

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 UNIT V
46. What is meant by landing direction indicator?
Ans:
Landing Direction Indicator: a device to indicate visually the direction currently
designated for landing and for take-off.

47. Distinguish between ICAO system and Calvert system?

Ans:
S.No. ICAO system Calvert System
One of the two basic categories of approach One of the two basic categories of
1
lighting system approach lighting system
In most aspects US standards for approach Used UK, Europe and other parts of the
2 lighting system are virtually identical to ICAO world particularly in Commonwealth
standards which is approved by FAA countries
There are two basic categories of ALS which
This system is distinguished by six
are high intensity and medium intensity system.
3 transverse lines of lights variable length
They are composed barrettes of five white
at right angles to the axis of approach
lights along the extended runway centerline.
The effect of the bright or medium intensity
The length of the transverse bars
sequenced flashes gives the appearance of a fast
4 diminishes as the pilot approaches the
moving ball of light travelling toward the
threshold.
runway.

48. What is aerodrome beacon?

Ans:
Airport beacons help a pilot to identify an airport at night. The beacons are operated from
dusk till dawn. Sometimes they are turned on if the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet and/or the ground
visibility is less than 3 statute miles (VFR minimums). However, there is no requirement for this,
so a pilot has the responsibility of determining if the weather meets VFR requirements. The beacon
has a vertical light distribution to make it most effective from 1–10° above the horizon, although it
can be seen well above or below this spread. The beacon may be an Omni directional capacitor-
discharge device, or it may rotate at a constant speed, which produces the visual effect of flashes at
regular intervals. The combination of light colors from an airport beacon indicates the type of
airport. Some of the most common beacons are:
• Flashing white and green for civilian land airports;
• Flashing white and yellow for a water airport;
• Flashing white, yellow, and green for a heliport; and
• Two quick white flashes alternating with a green flash identifying a military airport.
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49. Explain why Aerodrome beacon lights are required?
Ans:
An aerodrome beacon or rotating beacon is a beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to
indicate its location to aircraft pilots at night.
An aerodrome beacon is mounted on top of a towering structure, often a control tower,
above other buildings of the airport. It produces flashes not unlike that of a lighthouse.
Airport and heliport beacons are designed in such a way to make them most effective from
one to ten degrees above the horizon; however, they can be seen well above and below this peak
spread. The beacon may be an omni directional flashing xenon strobe, or it may rotate at a constant
speed which produces the visual effect of flashes at regular intervals. Flashes may be of just a
single color, or of two alternating colors.

50. Draw the lighting system of the runway.

Ans:

51. Explain the emergency marking denoted by runway lighting.

Ans:
At an aerodrome provided with runway lighting and without a secondary power supply,
sufficient emergency lights should be conveniently available for installation on at least the primary
runway in the event of failure of the normal lighting system.
When installed on a runway the emergency lights should, as a minimum, conform to the
configuration required for a non‐instrument runway.
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52. Give the various marking shown in the runway.
Ans:
The following are the various marking on the runway:
Runway designation marking, Runway centre line marking, Threshold marking, Transverse
stripe, Arrows marking, Aiming point marking, Touchdown zone marking, Runway side stripe
markings, Taxiway centre line marking, Taxiway intersection marking, Runway turn pad marking,
Runway holding position marking, Intermediate holding position marking, VOR aerodrome check
point marking, Apron safety lines, Information marking.

53. What are the six groups of the airport markings?

Ans:
There are six groups of airport markings: Runway markings, Taxiway markings, VOR
receiver checkpoint markings, Vehicle roadway marking, Non movement area boundary
markings and Information marking
The six types of marking signs are: Mandatory Instruction Signs, Location Signs,
Direction Signs, Destination Signs, Information Signs, and Runway Distance Remaining Signs

54. What is the visual aid for wind direction?

Ans:
The visual aid for wind direction indicator can be a wind cone, wind sock, tetrahedron, or
wind tee. These are usually located in a central location near the runway and may be placed in the
center of a segmented circle, which identifies the traffic pattern direction, if it is other than the
standard left-hand pattern. The wind sock is a good source of information since it not only indicates
wind direction, but allows the pilot to estimate the wind velocity and gusts or factor. The wind sock
extends out straighter in strong winds and tends to move back and forth when the wind is gusty.
Wind tees and tetrahedrons can swing freely, and align themselves with the wind direction. The
wind tee and tetrahedron can also be manually set to align with the runway in use; therefore, a pilot
should also look at the wind sock, if available.

55. Explain few emergencies procedure.

Ans:
1. A situation in which the response of all agencies involved in the
aerodrome emergency plan will be activated. A full emergency will be
declared when an aircraft approaching the airport is known or
suspected to be in such trouble that there is danger of an accident.
2. LAND RESCUE UNIT equipped to undertake a search for an aircraft
within the region of its responsibility
3. RADAR/ADS-B INFORMATION SERVICE (RIS) on request service
provided to assist pilots of pilots VFR flights within ATS surveillance
system coverage in class E and G airspace to avoid other aircraft or to
assist in navigation
4. RESCUE CORRDINATION CENTER for promoting efficient
organization of search and rescue service within the region of
responsibility.

56. Explain Alerting Service.

Ans:
When so required by the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of alerting and
search and rescue services, an aircraft, prior to and when operating within or into designated areas
or along designated routes, shall comply with the provisions detailed in rules, concerning the
submission, completion, changing and closing of a flight plan.
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 When alerting service is required in respect of a flight operated through more than one FIR
or control area, and when the position of the aircraft is in doubt, responsibility for coordinating
such service shall rest with the ATS unit of the FIR or control area

57. What is altimeter setting?

Ans:
Altimeter Setting: a pressure datum which when set on the subscale of a sensitive
altimeter causes the altimeter to indicate vertical displacement from that datum. A pressure type
altimeter calibrated in accordance with Standard Atmosphere may be used to indicate altitude,
height or flight levels as follows:
1. When set to QNH or area QNH it will indicate altitude;
2. When set to Standard Pressure (1013.2 hPa) it may be used to indicate flight levels.

58. Explain QFE setting.

Ans:
QFE, which refers to the altimeter setting that, will cause the altimeter to read the
height above a specific aerodrome or ground level, and therefore read zero on landing. While
using QFE is convenient while flying in the traffic circuit of an airfield. When set to ‘0000’ it may
be used to indicate height above aerodrome or ground level.

59. Explain QNH setting.

Ans:
QNH is defined as, "barometric pressure adjusted to sea level." It is a pressure setting
used by pilots, air traffic control (ATC), and low frequency weather beacons to refer to the
barometric setting which, when set on an aircraft's altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read altitude
above mean sea level within a certain defined region.

60. Define QNH & QFE.

Ans:

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 QNH is defined as, "barometric pressure adjusted to sea level." It is a pressure setting
used by pilots, air traffic control (ATC), and low frequency weather beacons to refer to the
barometric setting which, when set on an aircraft's altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read
Altitude above mean sea level within a certain defined region.
QFE, which refers to the altimeter setting that, will cause the altimeter to read the
height above a specific aerodrome or ground level, and therefore read zero on landing. While
using QFE is convenient while flying in the traffic circuit of an airfield.
QFE and QNH are arbitrary Q codes rather than abbreviations, but the mnemonics "Nautical
Height" (for QNH) and "Field Elevation" (for QFE) are often used by pilots to distinguish them.

61. Give the various altimeters setting followed in India.

Ans:
1. When cruising at or above Transition Level (TRL), use the Standard
Altimeter setting 1013.25 hPa or 29.92 In Hg (Red part on the
drawing).
2. During descent through Transition Level (TL), select QNH.
3. Cruising at or below Transition Altitude (TA), use QNH (Blue part on
the drawing).
4. When climbing through the Transition Altitude (TA), the Standard
Altimeter is set to 1013.25 hPa or 29.92 In Hg.

NB: for understanding

1. The transition altitude (TA) is the altitude AT OR BELOW which pilots have to use the
QNH setting. That means you are flying at ALTITUDES
2. The TRansition Level (TRL) is the FIRST FLIGHT LEVEL that may be used ABOVE
TA. From here, pilots have to use the STANDARD altimeter setting 1013 hPa or 29.92
inHg.
3. A Flight Level (FL) is the vertical distance of an aircraft above the ISOBARIC
SURFACE of 1013,25 hPa (hectopascal) or 29.92 in Hg (inches of Mercury).
4. An "ISOBARIC SURFACE" is the "invisible landscape" that connects all points with
the same atmospheric pressure. In aviation, 1013,25 hPa (hectopascal) / 29.92 in Hg
(inches of Mercury) are referred to as the STANDARD altimeter setting.
62. Define VASI & PAPI.
Ans:
The visual approach slope indicator (VASI) is a system of lights on the side of an airport
runway threshold that provides visual descent guidance information during the approach to a
runway. These lights may be visible from up to eight kilometers (five miles) during the day and up
to 32 kilometers (20 miles) or more at night.
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 Precision approach path Indicator (PAPI) is a visual aid that provides guidance
information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the correct approach (in the vertical plane) to an
aerodrome or an airport.
63. What is VAPI?
Ans:
A visual approach slope indicator (VASI or VAPI) system shall be provided to serve the
approach to a runway where one or more of the following conditions exits:
- The runway is not served by an electronic glide path and the runway is used by
turbojet or other aircraft with similar approach guidance requirements;
- The pilot of any type of aircraft may have difficulty in judging the approach
due to:
1. Inadequate visual guidance such as is experienced during an approach over water,
2. or featureless terrain by day or in the absence of sufficient extraneous lights in the
approach area by night, or
3. Misleading information such as is produced by deceptive surrounding terrain or
runway slopes;
Or
Visual approach slope indicators (VASI or VAPI) consist of one set of lights set up some
seven meters (twenty feet) from the start of the runway. Each light is designed so that the light
appears as either white or red, depending on the angle at which the lights are viewed. When the
pilot is approaching the lights at the proper angle, meaning the pilot is on the glide slope, the
first set of lights appears white and the second set appears red. When both sets appear white, the
pilot is flying too high, and when both appear red he or she is flying too low. This is the most
common type of visual approach slope indicator system.
64. What is meant by PAPI?
Ans:
The standard visual approach slope indicator systems shall consist of PAPI and APAPI
systems conforming to the specifications.
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consists of four sets of lights in a line
perpendicular to the runway, usually mounted to the left side of the runway. These have a similar
purpose to basic visual approach slope indicators, but the additional lights serve to show the pilot
how far off the glide slope the aircraft is.
When the lights show White-White-Red-Red the aircraft is on the correct glide slope for landing,
usually 3.0°. Three red lights (white–red–red–red) indicate that the aircraft is slightly below glide
slope (2.8°), while four red lights (Red-Red-Red-Red) indicate that the aircraft is significantly
below glide slope (<2.5°). Conversely, three white lights (white–white–white–red) indicate that the
aircraft is slightly above glide slope (3.2°), and four white lights (White-White-White-White)
indicated that the aircraft is significantly above glide slope (>3.5°).

65. Define terminal aids?

Ans: Terminal aids: an airfield equipped with control tower and hangars as well as
accommodations for passengers and cargo. An airport (terminal) is a location where aircraft such as
fixed-wing aircraft, helicopters, and blimps take off and land. Aircraft may be stored or maintained
at an airport. An airport consists of at least one surface such as a runway for a plane to take off and
land, a helipad, or water for takeoffs and landings, and often includes buildings such as control
towers, hangars and terminal buildings.

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