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Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

Unit 1: Introduction to RDBMS d) None of the mentioned

8. A selection of the form satisfying the union of all records satisfying individual simple conditions is
1. Which of the following are steps in query processing? a) Conjunctive selection
a) Parsing and translation b) Disjunctive selection
b) Optimization c) Negation
c) Evaluation d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
9. A selection of the form giving all the records not satisfying simple individual conditions is ______
2. A relational algebra operation annotated with instructions on how to evaluate it is called _______ a) Conjunctive selection
a) Evaluation algebra b) Disjunctive selection
b) Evaluation plan c) Negation
c) Evaluation primitive d) None of the mentioned
d) Evaluation engine
10. Which of the following can be implemented?
3. A sequence of primitive operations that can be used to evaluate a query are called as __________ a) Conjunctive selection using one index
a) Query evaluation algebra b) Conjunctive selection using composite index
b) Query evaluation plan c) Conjunctive selection by intersection of identifiers
c) Query evaluation primitive d) All of the mentioned
d) Query evaluation engine
11. A join of the form r ⨝r.A=s.B s is called as
4. The lowest level operator to access data in query processing is _______ a) Equi join
a) File scan b) Left outer join
b) File manipulation c) Right outer join
c) File handling d) Full outer join
d) File organization
12. for each tuple tr in r do begin
5. Search algorithms that use an index are referred to as _________ FOR each tuple ts IN s do BEGIN
a) Index scans test pair (tr , ts ) TO see IF they satisfy the JOIN condition _
b) Search scans IF they do, ADD tr • ts TO the RESULT;
c) Primary scans END
d) Equality scans END
13. What type of join is this?
6. Sorting of relations that do not fit in memory is called as _______ a) Equi join
a) Internal sorting b) Hash join
b) External sorting c) Nested loop join
c) Overflow sorting d) Block nested loop join
d) Overload sorting
14. If nested loop join is done on a per block basis rather than on a per tuple basis, it is called as
7. A selection of the form satisfying the intersection of all records satisfying individual simple conditions a) Equi join
is b) Hash join
a) Conjunctive selection c) Nested loop join
b) Disjunctive selection
c) Negation

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

d) Block nested loop join 22. If the results of one operation are passed on to the other, it is called as ________
a) Chain
15. The merge join can be used to compute b) Pipeline
a) Natural joins c) Materialized
b) Equi joins d) Tree
c) Both the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned 23. The result of each intermediate operation are created and then are used for valuation of the next level
operations, this evaluation is called as ________
16. The ___________ merges the sorted relation with leaf entries of the secondary B+ tree index. a) Chain evaluation
a) Merge join algorithm b) Pipeline evaluation
b) Hybrid merge join algorithm c) Materialized evaluation
c) Hash join algorithm d) Demand driven evaluation
d) Hybrid Hash join algorithm
24. If the system makes repeated requests for tuples from the operation at the top of the table, it is called as
17. The splitting of input until each partition of the build input fits the memory is called as ______ _________
a) Temporary partitioning a) Demand driven pipeline
b) Block partitioning b) Producer driven pipeline
c) Recursive partitioning c) Query driven pipeline
d) Byte partitioning d) None of the mentioned

18. Overflow resolution is performed when, 25. If the operations do not wait to produce tuples, then it is called as _________
a) A hash index overflow is detected a) Demand driven pipeline
b) Extra hash indices are to be added b) Producer driven pipeline
c) When the number of partitions are to be increased c) Query driven pipeline
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned

19. Which of the following is not a set operation 26. State true or false: Sorting is an inherently blocking operation
a) Union a) True
b) Intersection b) False
c) And operation
d) Set difference 27. State true or false: Join is an inherently blocking operation
a) True
20. Which of the following joins preserves the tuples of the relation on the left side of the operator? b) False
a) Left outer join
b) Natural join 28. 7. Which of the following techniques does not exist?
c) Right outer join a) Pipelined join technique
d) None of the mentioned b) Left pipelined join technique
c) Right pipelined join technique
21. State true or false: The aggregation functions can be implemented in the same way as that of duplicate d) None of the mentioned
elimination.
a) True 29. State true or false: Hybrid hash join is partially pipelined on the probe relation
b) False a) True
b) False

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Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

30. The usage of two buffers, with one continuing execution of the algorithm while the other is written is d) Durability
called as __________
a) Double execution 37. Which of the following systems is responsible for ensuring durability?
b) Multi tasking a) Recovery system
c) Double buffering b) Atomic system
d) Double algorithm c) Concurrency control system
d) Compiler system
31. Which of the following functions does an iterator not provide
a) Open() 38. Which of the following systems is responsible for ensuring isolation?
b) Next() a) Recovery system
c) Close() b) Atomic system
d) Wait() c) Concurrency control system
d) Compiler system
Unit 2 : Transaction Management 39. State true or false: Information residing in the volatile storage does not usually survive system crashes
a) True
32. Collections of operations that form a single logical unit of work are called __________ b) False
a) Views
b) Networks 40. A transaction that has not been completed successfully is called as _______
c) Units a) Compensating transaction
d) Transactions b) Aborted transaction
c) Active transaction
33. The “all-or-none” property is commonly referred to as _________ d) Partially committed transaction
a) Isolation
b) Durability 41. Which of the following is not a transaction state?
c) Atomicity a) Active
d) None of the mentioned b) Partially committed
c) Failed
34. Which of the following is a property of transactions? d) Compensated
a) Atomicity
b) Durability 42. The execution sequences in concurrency control are termed as ________
c) Isolation a) Serials
d) All of the mentioned b) Schedules
c) Organizations
35. Execution of translation in isolation preserves the _________ of a database d) Time tables
a) Atomicity
b) Consistency 43. The scheme that controls the interaction between executing transactions is called as _____
c) Durability a) Concurrency control scheme
d) All of the mentioned b) Multiprogramming scheme
c) Serialization scheme
36. Which of the following is not a property of a transaction? d) Schedule scheme
a) Atomicity
b) Simplicity
c) Isolation

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

44. I and J are _________ if they are operations by different transactions on the same data item, and at c) Predicate locking
least one of them is a write operation. d) Snapshot isolation
a) Conflicting
b) Overwriting 52. A transaction that performs only one operation is called as a _________
c) Isolated a) Partial schedule
d) Durable b) Complete schedule
c) Dependent schedule
45. If a schedule S can be transformed into a schedule S’ by a series of swaps of non-conflicting d) Independent schedule
instructions, then S and S’ are
a) Non conflict equivalent 53. The phenomenon in which one failure leads to a series of transaction rollbacks is called as ________
b) Equal a) Cascading rollback
c) Conflict equivalent b) Cascadeless rollback
d) Isolation equivalent c) Cascade cause
d) None of the mentioned
46. A schedule is __________ if it is conflict equivalent to a serial schedule.
a) Conflict serializable 54. State true or false: Every cascadeless schedule is also recoverable
b) Conflicting a) True
c) Non serializable b) False
d) None of the mentioned
55. A ___________ is one where, for each pair of transactions Ti and Tj such that Tj reads a data item
47. The set of ________ in a precedence graph consists of all the transactions participating in the schedule previously written by Ti , the commit operation of Ti appears before the commit operation of Tj
a) Vertices a) Partial schedule
b) Edges b) Dependent schedule
c) Directions c) Recoverable schedule
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
48. A ___________of the transactions can be obtained by finding a linear order consistent with the partial 56. State true or false: Transactions can only run serially
order of the precedence graph. a) True
a) Serializability order b) False
b) Direction graph
c) Precedence graph 57. Which of the following are the advantages of transaction concurrency?
d) Scheduling scheme a) Increased throughput
b) Increased utilization
49. State true or false: If I = read(Q) and J = read(Q) then the order of I and J does not matter. c) Reduces average response time
a) True d) All of the mentioned
b) False
58. The average time for a transaction to be completed after it has been submitted is called as __________
50. State true or false: If I = read(Q) and J = write(Q) then the order of I and J does not matter. a) Minimum response time
a) True b) Average response time
b) False c) Average reaction time
d) Minimum reaction time
51. Which of the following is the most expensive method?
a) Timestamping
b) Plain locking

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Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

59. If a schedule is equivalent to a serial schedule, it is called as a _________ b) False

a) Serializable schedule
b) Equivalent schedule 67. When is a timestamp allotted
c) Committed schedule a) When execution begins
d) None of the mentioned b) When execution is taking place
c) When execution is completed
60. Which of the following is not a type of a schedule? d) None of the mentioned
a) Partial schedule
b) Dependent schedule 68. In ___________ isolation each transaction is given its own version of the database
c) Recoverable schedule a) Timestamp
d) None of the mentioned b) Snapshot
c) Lock based
61. Which of the following is a transaction isolation level as specified by SQL standard? d) All of the mentioned
a) Serializable
b) Repeatable read 69. What is the disadvantage of locking?
c) Read committed a) Does not control concurrency
d) All of the mentioned b) Is not atomic
c) Is not durable
62. 2. State true or false: Serializable level may allow both serializable and non-serializable executions d) Has a poor degree of concurrency
a) True
b) False 70. A system is in a _______ state if there exists a set of transactions in which every transaction is waiting
for another transaction in the set.
63. ________ allows only committed data to be read and further requires that no other transaction is a) Deadlock
allowed to update it between two reads of a data item by a transaction. b) Starved
a) Read uncommitted c) Isolated
b) Serializable d) None of the mentioned
c) Repeatable read
d) Read committed 71. Which of the following is not a method in deadlock handling
a) Deadlock prevention
64. ________ allows only committed data to be read, but does not require repeatable reads b) Deadlock detection
a) Read uncommitted c) Deadlock recovery
b) Serializable d) Deadlock distribution
c) Repeatable read
d) Read committed 72. Deadlocks can be prevented using
a) Preemption and transaction rollbacks
65. ___________ allows uncommitted data to be read b) Wait and die scheme
a) Read uncommitted c) Wound-wait scheme
b) Serializable d) All of the mentioned
c) Repeatable read
d) Read committed 73. State true or false: Wait die scheme is a non-preemptive technique
a) True
66. State true or false: All the isolation levels disallow dirty writes b) False
a) True

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

74. Lock timeouts have which of the following advantages?

a) Unnecessary rollbacks do not occur
b) Transactions do not starve
c) It is easy to implement Unit 3 : Concurrency Control
d) All of the mentioned
79. If a transaction has obtained a __________ lock, it can read but cannot write on the item
75. The _________ graph describes deadlocks precisely a) Shared mode
a) Wound wait graph b) Exclusive mode
b) Wait die graph c) Read only mode
c) Wait for graph d) Write only mode
d) None of the mentioned
80. If a transaction has obtained a ________ lock, it can both read and write on the item
76. How do we generally recover from a deadlock? a) Shared mode
a) By aborting all the transactions b) Exclusive mode
b) By rolling back all the transactions c) Read only mode
c) By rolling back only a selected number of transactions d) Write only mode
d) None of the mentioned
81. A transaction can proceed only after the concurrency control manager ________ the lock to the
77. State true or false: Partial rollback is not possible. transaction
a) True a) Grants
b) False b) Requests
c) Allocates
78. Which of the following steps must be taken while choosing a victim? d) None of the mentioned
a) Avoiding starvation
b) Number of transactions involved in rollback 82. If a transaction can be granted a lock on an item immediately in spite of the presence of another mode,
c) Data items used by the transaction then the two modes are said to be ________
d) All of the mentioned a) Concurrent
b) Equivalent
c) Compatible
d) Executable

83. A transaction is made to wait until all ________ locks held on the item are released
a) Compatible
b) Incompatible
c) Concurrent
d) Equivalent

84. State true or false: It is not necessarily desirable for a transaction to unlock a data item immediately
after its final access
a) True
b) False

85. The situation where no transaction can proceed with normal execution is known as ________
a) Road block

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 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

b) Deadlock 92. Which of the following is not a method in deadlock handling

c) Execution halt a) Deadlock prevention
d) Abortion b) Deadlock detection
c) Deadlock recovery
86. The protocol that indicates when a transaction may lock and unlock each of the data items is called as d) Deadlock distribution
__________
a) Locking protocol 93. Deadlocks can be prevented using
b) Unlocking protocol a) Preemption and transaction rollbacks
c) Granting protocol b) Wait and die scheme
d) Conflict protocol c) Wound-wait scheme
d) All of the mentioned
87. If a transaction Ti may never make progress, then the transaction is said to be ____________
a) Deadlocked 94. State true or false: Wait die scheme is a non-preemptive technique
b) Starved a) True
c) Committed b) False
d) Rolled back
95. Lock timeouts have which of the following advantages?
88. The two phase locking protocol consists which of the following phases? a) Unnecessary rollbacks do not occur
a) Growing phase b) Transactions do not starve
b) Shrinking phase c) It is easy to implement
c) More than one of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
96. The _________ graph describes deadlocks precisely
89. 11. If a transaction may obtain locks but may not release any locks then it is in _______ phase a) Wound wait graph
a) Growing phase b) Wait die graph
b) Shrinking phase c) Wait for graph
c) Deadlock phase d) None of the mentioned
d) Starved phase
97. 7. How do we generally recover from a deadlock?
90. If a transaction may release locks but may not obtain any locks, it is said to be in ______ phase a) By aborting all the transactions
a) Growing phase b) By rolling back all the transactions
b) Shrinking phase c) By rolling back only a selected number of transactions
c) Deadlock phase d) None of the mentioned
d) Starved phase
98. State true or false: Partial rollback is not possible.
91. A system is in a _______ state if there exists a set of transactions in which every transaction is waiting a) True
for another transaction in the set. b) False
a) Deadlock
b) Starved 99. 9. Which of the following steps must be taken while choosing a victim?
c) Isolated a) Avoiding starvation
d) None of the mentioned b) Number of transactions involved in rollback
c) Data items used by the transaction
d) All of the mentioned

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

100. Which of the following cannot be used to implement a timestamp c) Validation protocol
a) System clock d) None of the mentioned
b) Logical counter
c) External time counter 108. In timestamp ordering protocol, suppose that the transaction Ti issues read(Q) and TS(Ti)<W-
d) None of the mentioned timestamp(Q), then
a) Read operation is executed
101. A logical counter is _________ after a new timestamp has been assigned b) Read operation is rejected
a) Incremented c) Write operation is executed
b) Decremented d) Write operation is rejected
c) Doubled
d) Remains the same 109. In timestamp ordering protocol, suppose that the transaction Ti issues write(Q) and TS(Ti)<W-
timestamp(Q), then
102. W-timestamp(Q) denotes? a) Read operation is executed
a) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully b) Read operation is rejected
b) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully c) Write operation is executed
c) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully d) Write operation is rejected
d) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully
110. The _________ requires each transaction executes in two or three different phases in its lifetime
103. R-timestamp(Q) denotes? a) Validation protocol
a) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully b) Timestamp protocol
b) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully c) Deadlock protocol
c) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully d) View protocol
d) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully
111. During __________ phase, the system reads data and stores them in variables local to the
104. A ________ ensures that any conflicting read and write operations are executed in timestamp order transaction.
a) Organizational protocol a) Read phase
b) Timestamp ordering protocol b) Validation phase
c) Timestamp execution protocol c) Write phase
d) 802-11 protocol d) None of the mentioned
105. The default timestamp ordering protocol generates schedules that are 112. During the _________ phase the validation test is applied to the transaction
a) Recoverable a) Read phase
b) Non-recoverable b) Validation phase
c) Starving c) Write phase
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
106. State true or false: The Thomas write rule has a greater potential concurrency than the timestamp 113. During the _______ phase, the local variables that hold the write operations are copied to the
ordering protocol database
a) True a) Read phase
b) False b) Validation phase
c) Write phase
107. Which of the following timestamp based protocols generates serializable schedules? d) None of the mentioned
a) Thomas write rule
b) Timestamp ordering protocol

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 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45 DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

114. Read only operations omit the _______ phase 121. If the first update is overwritten by a second, it is called as a _______ update
a) Read phase a) Useful
b) Validation phase b) Overlapping
c) Write phase c) Lost
d) None of the mentioned d) Concurrent

115. Which of the following timestamp is used to record the time at which the transaction started 122. State true or false: Snapshot isolation prevents lost updates
execution? a) True
a) Start(i) b) False
b) Validation(i)
c) Finish(i) 123. Which of the following is a variant of snapshot isolation
d) Write(i) a) First committer wins
b) First updater wins
116. Which of the following timestamps is used to record the time when a transaction has finished its c) More than one of the mentioned
read phase? d) None of the mentioned
a) Start(i)
b) Validation(i) 124. Under ________ the system uses locking mechanism that applies only to updates
c) Finish(i) a) First updater wins
d) Write(i) b) First committer wins
c) First writer wins
117. Which of the following timestamps is used to record the time when a database has completed its d) None of the mentioned
write operation?
a) Start(i) 125. The situation in which each pair of transactions has read a data written by the other, but there is no
b) Validation(i) data written by the transactions is called as _______
c) Finish(i) a) Deadlock
d) Write(i) b) Read skew
c) Deadlock skew
118. State true or false: Locking and timestamp ordering force a wait or rollback whenever a conflict is d) Write skew
detected.
a) True 126. Oracle uses __________ for the serializable isolation level
b) False a) Multiversion scheme
b) Timestamp protocol
119. State true or false: We determine the serializability order of validation protocol by the validation c) Lock based protocol
ordering technique d) Snapshot isolation
a) True
b) False 127. State true or false: Snapshot isolation has low overhead
a) True
120. In _______ schemes, each write operation creates a new version of Q b) False
a) Multiversion
b) Snapshot isolation 128. In ________ no two aborts occur unless two concurrent transactions update the same data item.
c) Lock based a) Multiversion scheme
d) Timestamp b) Timestamp protocol
c) Lock based protocol

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d) Snapshot isolation 135. Which of the following is not a classification of storage

a) Volatile storage
129. Which of the following transactions can multiversion two phase locking protocol not differentiate. b) Nonvolatile storage
a) Read only transactions c) Stable storage
b) Update transactions d) None of the mentioned
c) All of the mentioned
d) Double operator transactions 136. If a failure has occurred in the midst of a transfer, it is called as _________
a) Successful completion
b) Partial failure
Unit 4 : Recovery System c) Total failure
d) None of the mentioned
130. Which of the following can cause a transaction failure
a) Logical error 137. State true or false: The destination block has incorrect information in case of a total failure
b) System error a) True
c) More than one of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned 138. The partitions of the database into fixed length storage units are called as __________
a) Blocks
131. If the transaction can no longer continue with its normal execution because of some internal b) Tuples
condition, it is called as a _________ c) Relations
a) Logical error d) None of the mentioned
b) System error
c) System crash 139. The blocks residing on the disk are referred to as ___________
d) None of the mentioned a) Physical blocks
b) Buffer blocks
132. If a system has entered and undesirable state due to which it is unable to continue with normal c) Disk blocks
execution, it is called as _________ d) Disk buffer
a) Logical error
b) System error 140. The area of memory where blocks temporarily reside is called as ________
c) System crash a) Block buffer
d) None of the mentioned b) Disk buffer
c) Physical buffer
133. If there is a hardware malfunction or a bug in the database that causes the loss of content of volatile d) None of the mentioned
storage, it is called as ________
a) Logical error 141. The most widely used structure for recording database modification is called as _______
b) System error a) Log
c) System crash b) List
d) None of the mentioned c) Queue
d) Stack
134. The assumption that the hardware errors bring the system to a halt is called as ________
a) Halter assumption 142. An update log record describes a ________ database write
b) Phantom assumption a) Single
c) Fail-stop assumption b) Double
d) Disk failure c) Triple

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Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA) Subject : Relational Database Management System (RDBMS) Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

d) Quadruple d) Recovery

143. Which of the following fields does the update log record have? 150. If the database modifications occur while the transaction is still active, the transaction is said to use
a) Transaction identifier the __________ modification technique
b) Data-item identifier a) Deferred
c) Old value b) Immediate
d) All of the mentioned c) More than one of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
144. The unique identifier of the transaction that performed the write operation is called as _______
a) Transaction identifier 151. Which of the following is not a feature of a good relational design?
b) Data-item identifier a) Specifying primary keys
c) Old value b) Specifying foreign keys
d) New value c) Preserving integrity constraints
d) Allowing redundancy of attributes
145. The value of the data item prior to the write is called as _________
a) Transaction identifier 152. The dependency rules specified by the database designer are known as _______
b) Data-item identifier a) Designer dependencies
c) Old value b) Database rules
d) New value c) Functional dependencies
d) None of the mentioned
146. If a transaction does not modify the database until it has committed it is said to use a _______
modification technique 153. If the decomposition is unable to represent certain important facts about the relation, then such a
a) Deferred decomposition is called as?
b) Immediate a) Lossless decomposition
c) More than one of the mentioned b) Lossy decomposition
d) None of the mentioned c) Insecure decomposition
d) Secure decomposition
147. We say that a transaction has been ________ when its commit log record has been output to stable
storage. 154. If the decomposition is able to represent all the facts about the relation then such a decomposition is
a) Locked called as?
b) Completed a) Lossless decomposition
c) Committed b) Lossy decomposition
d) Released c) Insecure decomposition
d) Secure decomposition
148. State true or false: Using checkpoints reduces overhead
a) True 155. A domain whose elements are indivisible is called as ______
b) False a) Unique domain
b) Proxy domain
149. A __________ checkpoint is a checkpoint where transactions are allowed to perform updates even c) Atomic domain
while buffer blocks are being written out. d) Multiple domain
a) Temporary
b) Fuzzy 156. If all the domains are atomic then the relational schema is in ________ normal form
c) Permanent a) 1

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b) 2 c) Check clause
c) 3 d) All of the mentioned
d) 4
165. Which of the following is not a condition for the third normal form in the case of XY?
157. State true or false: Composite attributes have non-atomic domains. a) X→ Y is trivial
a) True b) X is the superkey for R
b) False c) Each attribute in Y-X is a candidate key for R
d) Each attribute in X-Y is a candidate key for R
158. State true or false: Redundancy is desired in a relational schema
a) True 166. F+ is called as the ________ of F
b) False a) Closure
159. An instance of a relation that satisfies all real world constraints is known as? b) Sum
a) Proper relation c) Cartesian product
b) Ideal relation d) None of the mentioned
c) Perfect relation
d) Legal relation 167. State true or false: A functional dependency must first satisfy the second normal form to satisfy the
third normal form.
160. If K → R then K is said to be the _______ of R a) True
a) Candidate key b) False
b) Foreign key
c) Super key 168. State true or false: The fourth normal form does not exist and it is instead called as the BCNF.
d) Domain a) True
b) False
161. X → Y holds on a schema k(K) if?
a) At least one legal instance satisfies the functional dependency 169. A functional dependency f on R is _______ by a set of functional dependencies F on r if every
b) No legal instance satisfies the functional dependency instance of r(R) that satisfies f also satisfies F.
c) Each and every legal instance satisfies the functional dependency a) Logically Defined
d) None of the mentioned b) Logically Derived
c) Logically implied
162. X→ Y is trivial if? d) None of the mentioned
a) X ⊂ Y
b) Y ⊂ X 170. If F is a set of functional dependencies, then the closure of F is denoted by?
c) X ⊇ Y a) F*
d) None of the mentioned b) Fo
c) F+
163. Which of the following is not a condition for X→ Y in Boyce codd normal form? d) F
a) X → Y is trivial
b) X is the superkey for the relational schema R 171. If a functional dependency is reflexive, B is a subset of A and A is the set of attributes, then
c) Y is the superkey for the relational schema R a) B→A holds
d) All of the mentioned b) A→B holds
c) AB→C holds
164. Which of the following is used to express database consistency? d) None of the mentioned
a) Primary keys
b) Functional dependencies

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172. State true or false: Armstrong’s axioms allow us to generate all F+ for any given F d) None of the mentioned
a) True
b) False 180. The 3NF decomposition algorithm is also called as _______
a) 3NF normal algorithm
173. Armstrong axioms are called sound because? b) 3NF synthesis algorithm
a) They are expensive c) 3NF generator
b) They cannot generate correct functional dependencies d) Functional dependence algorithm
c) They allow us to generate the complete closure
d) They cannot generate incorrect functional dependencies 181. Which of the following is desirable in a database design with functional dependencies?
a) BCNF
174. State true or false: Functional dependencies are transitive b) Losslessness
a) True c) Dependency preservation
b) False d) All of the mentioned

175. If A→B, A→ C then which of the following is true? 182. State true or false: SQL specifies a way of mentioning functional dependencies
a) A→BC a) True
b) A→B b) False
c) A→C
d) All of the mentioned 183. State true or false: Most current database systems do not support constraints on materialized view
a) True
176. If B is an attribute and A→B, Then B is said to be ________ by a. b) False
a) Logically implied
b) Functionally implied 184. Multi valued dependencies are also called as __________
c) Logically determined a) Equality generating dependencies
d) Functionally determined b) Tuple generating dependencies
c) Multi-purpose dependencies
177. We say that a decomposition having the property F’+ = F+ is a __________ decomposition. d) None of the mentioned
a) Dependency losing
b) Dependency preserving 185. Functional dependencies are sometimes referred to as ________
c) Lossless a) Equality generating dependencies
d) None of the mentioned b) Tuple generating dependencies
c) Multi-purpose dependencies
178. A _________ Fc for F is a set of dependencies such that F logically implies all dependencies in Fc, d) None of the mentioned
and Fc logically implies all dependencies in F.
a) Canonical cover 186. The _______ is a set of all functional and multi values dependencies implied by a set of functional
b) Complete cover dependencies
c) Canonical dependency a) Star
d) Canonical clause b) Closure
c) Derivation
179. What does the BCNF decomposition algorithm do? d) Evolution
a) States a method to decompose a relation satisfying BCNF
b) States a method for joining two relations satisfying BCNF 187. State true or false: If a relational schema is in _______ NF and A is a subset of R and B is also a
c) States a method to decompose a relational schema such that there are no multiple occurrences subset of R then it is that A is a superkey is a trivial multi values dependency.
a) 1

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b) 2 d) None of the mentioned

c) 3
d) 4 195. 7. Functional dependencies that have a time associated with them during which they are valid are
called as________
188. Which of the following normal forms does not exist? a) Timed functional dependencies
a) BCNF b) Clocked functional dependencies
b) PJNF c) Temporal functional dependencies
c) 5NF d) Modeled functional dependencies
d) None of the mentioned
196. State true or false: Overlapping time intervals cannot be prevented
189. Which of the following is not a process of generating a good relational schema? a) True
a) Converting ER diagrams to relational schema b) False
b) Decomposing the relational schema while satisfying functional dependencies
c) Joining multiple relations together to form a single relation containing all the attributes 197. Which of the following is the time of temporal data that record when a fact was recorded in a
d) A design of relations which is then tested and modified to satisfy given normal forms database?
a) Transaction time
190. What is unique role assumption? b) Valid time
a) The attribute name has a unique meaning in the database c) Enter time
b) The attributes are all unique d) Exit time
c) No two tuples have even a single same value in a relation
d) None of the mentioned 198. To specify the foreign keys in relations referencing temporal data we need to specify _______
a) The time interval
191. The process of making a normalized schema unnormalized is called as _________ b) The Boolean value for the working
a) Unnormalization c) The integer corresponding to the relation number
b) Denormalization d) None of the mentioned
c) Renormalization
d) Annormalization
Unit 5 : PLSQL
192. State true or false: Crosstabs are not desirable in a database design
a) True
b) False 199 Which statement is package specification or body of a stored subprogram?

193. The data that have a time interval associated with them during which they are valid are called as 1. Package Specification only requires recompilation
________ 2. Package body only requires recompilation
a) Timed data
b) Temporal data 3. Both package & body requires recompilation
c) Model data 4. Both package & body does not require recompilation.
d) Clocked data
200 The packaged procedure that makes data in form permanent in the Database is
194. The value of the data at a particular time is called as?
a) Instance
b) Picture 1. Post
c) Snapshot 2. Post form

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3. Commit form Answers :

4. None of the above
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d c b a a b a b c d
201 Which of the following do not execute multiple PL/SQL programs simultaneously?
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a c d c b c a c a a
1. Oracle Advanced Queuing 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2. DBMS_JOB b c a b a b d a c d
3. DBMS_SQL 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b c a b a b d a c d
4. Pipelined Functions 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
d c d b b a c a b d
202 Which package can you use to output values and messages stored procedures? 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b a a c a a a a b C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
1. DBMS_DISPLAY a a a c b d b a d a
2. DBMS_OUTPUT 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
3. DBMS_LIST a d d a d c c b d a
4. DBMS_DESCRIBE 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
b a c a a b a b c A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
203 Which of the package statement is true? b a d d a d c c b d
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 100
1. Packages can be nested. a a b c c a b c a B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
2. You can pass parameters to packages. a c a c a d d a d d
3. A package is loaded into memory each time it is invoked. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
4. The contents of packages can be shared by many applications. c a b c c a b b a a
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
b a a d a c a c a b
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
b d c b a c a b b d
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
c b a c a b b d c C
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
d a c d d a a b c c
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
b a d a d d b a a b
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
a b a b a b d d c a
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200

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b a b c c b a a a c
201 202 203
c b d

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