RBI Grade B 2021 Phase 1-2 PYQs

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Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document
with detailed explanations for the RBI Grade B 2021 – Phase 1 exam. This
document has been meticulously to serve as a valuable resource for candidates
preparing for the RBI Grade B officer exam.
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and
types of questions that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and
principles have been thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to
practice answering questions but also helps you understand the reasoning and
logic behind each correct answer. Through explanations, you will be able to
reinforce your understanding, clarify any doubts, and develop a deeper grasp of
the subject matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this
document proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.
Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and
relevance of the questions, there can be some variations in the question
language and options. Therefore, we encourage you to use these questions as a
reference point. This will help you acquire a comprehensive understanding of the
syllabus and increase your chances of success in the upcoming RBI Grade B
officer exam.
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Section: - General Awareness
Q1. In the recently released Global Innovation Index (GII), India’s rank has improved to 48th
in the year 2020. Its rank in the year 2019 was _________
A. 50th
B. 54th
C. 56th
D. 52nd
E. 58th
Q2. International Energy Agency has recently released the report “India Energy Outlook” for
the year 2021. According to this report, at present, India is the _______ largest global energy
consumer.
A. 1st
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 8th
E. 10th
Q3. Ministry of Labour and Employment has released 4 labour codes in the year 2020. These
codes are aimed at protecting the interest of workers and will provide them social security,
protection, safe and working environment and effective conciliation, mechanism for their
grievances. Which one of the following is not one these four labour codes released by the
Labour Ministry?
A. Code on Wages, 2019
B. Code on Migrant Laborer’s, 2020
C. Industrial Relations Code, 2020
D. Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
E. Code on Social Security, 2020
Q4. An integrated logistics and hyperscale data centre park called Green base and Yotta is
going to be set up by Hiranandani Group companies, in which one of the following states?

A. West Bengal
B. Gujarat
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka
E. Haryana
Q5. India-Maldives joint military exercise ‘Ex EKUVERIN – 2019’ was held in which place?
A. Jodhpur
B. Vishakhapatnam
C. Pune
D. Dehradun
E. Balasore
Q6. Amazon’s market value was $250 billion in the year 2015, Two decades after its founding
in the year 1995. This major e-commerce company was started as which of the following in
its earliest days?
A. Pantry
B. Apparel store
C. Courier store
D. Book store
E. None of the above
Q7. Union Minister of State for Agriculture Shri Parshottam Rupala has recently launched
AYUSHMAN SAHAKAR. It is a unique scheme to assist cooperatives play an important role in
the creation of ___________ infrastructure in the country, under National Cooperative
Development Cooperation (NCDC).
A. Education
B. Healthcare
C. Employment
D. Banking
E. All of these

Q8. Indian Finance Minister Arun Jaitley launched a GIS-based Mobile App for Financial
Inclusion in the year 2018 during Annual Public Sector Banks meeting. This App assist to the
common people in finding a financial service touch point at any location in the country. What
is the name of this mobile app?
A. CSC
B. UMANG
C. BHIM
D. Jan Dhan Darshak
E. Aaykar Setu
Q9. ___________ was the first microlending bank in India to win a banking license from the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2014.
A. Equitas Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. Ashirvad Bank
D. Aarohan Bank
E. IDFC First Bank
Q10. Ranthambore National Park is located near which one of the following cities of
Rajasthan?
A. Jaipur
B. Udaipur
C. Sikar
D. Sawai Madhopur
E. Bhilwara
Q11. The Union budget for the year 2021-22 has allocated ₹1.1 trillion for the Indian
Railways, out of this amount how much amount will be utilized for capital expenditure for
2021-22 to expand rail infrastructure in India?
A. ₹1.07 trillion
B. ₹1.02 trillion
C. ₹0.95 trillion

D. ₹1.04 trillion
E. ₹1.09 trillion
Q12. Denmark has decided to build the world’s first artificial island with the aim to provide
clean energy. The island will be located in the North Sea (located between England and
Scotland). Power will be generated from which of the following energies?
A. Solar
B. Tidal
C. Wind
D. Geothermal
E. Biomass
Q13. Which of the following festivals is celebrated by the Apatani, or Tanw, also known by
Apa, the tribal group living in the Ziro valley in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal
Pradesh in India?
A. Myoko
B. Gauchar Mela
C. Thisam Phanit
D. Tsukhenyie
E. None of these
Q14. Which of the following PSUs has featured on top of the list among “Indian PSUs” in
'World's Best Employer 2020' Report, published by Forbes in the month of October 2020?
A. ONGC
B. BHEL
C. NTPC
D. SAIL
E. IOCL
Q15. National Cadet Corps (NCC) of India, which is the largest uniformed youth organisation
in the world, has celebrated its 72nd Raising Day on which of the following dates, in the year
2020?
A. 22nd December

B. 24th December
C. 25th October
D. 24th November
E. 22nd November
Q16. Identify the bank that has launched “Gram Sampark Abhiyan”, a nation-wide Financial
Inclusion and Literacy Campaign on the occasion of the 151st birth anniversary of Mahatma
Gandhi, in the year 2020?
A. SBI
B. PNB
C. HDFC
D. BoI
E. BoB
Q17. To achieve the vision of creating a financially aware and empowered India, the Reserve
Bank of India has released the second edition of “National Strategy for Financial Education”
(NSFE) for 2020-2025. NSFE has recommended the adoption of a ‘___ C' approach for the
dissemination of financial education in India.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 4
E. 6
Q18. CRA is an agency registered under Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
(PFRDA) to perform functions of record-keeping, accounting, administration, and customer
service to Pension scheme subscribers. What does “R” stand for in CRA?
A. Registry
B. Record Keeping (Central Record Keeping Agency)
C. Resolution
D. Real-Time
E. Regulation

Q19. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system is primarily meant for large value
transactions. The minimum amount to initiate a transaction through RTGS is ________ with
no upper or maximum ceiling.
A. Rs. 2 lakhs
B. Rs. 3 lakhs
C. Rs. 5 lakhs
D. Rs. 4 lakhs
E. Rs. 1 lakh
Q20. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has launched the scheme PM KUSUM
for farmers with the aim to add solar and other renewable capacity of 25,750 MW by 2022.
Refer to following given statements regarding this scheme and identify the one which is not a
feature of the same?
A. Subsidy would be provided on diesel for running diesel pump and thus provide the
farmers a reliable source of irrigation.
B. Individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps
C. The farmer will be able to use the generated solar power to meet the irrigation needs and
the excess solar power will be sold to DISCOMs.
D. In case cultivated fields are chosen for setting up solar power project, the farmers could
continue to grow crops as the solar panels are to be set up above a minimum height.
E. The scheme would ensure that sufficient local solar/ other renewable energy-based power
is available for feeding rural load centres and agriculture pump-set loads.
Q21. Cyclone Nivar made a landfall near which one of the following places, recently in the
month of November 2020?
A. Mumbai
B. Puducherry
C. Hyderabad
D. Mysuru
E. Kochhi
Q22. Recently in the month of October 2020, World Economic Forum (WEF) has announced
to set up India’s first Advanced Manufacturing HUB or AMHUB in the state of?

A. Tamil Nadu
B. Rajasthan
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Odisha
E. Jharkhand
Q23. PM Kisan is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India. Who
among the following are not eligible to avail the benefit of PM Kisan scheme?
A. Large landholding farmer families
B. Former and present holders of constitutional posts
C. All eligible landholding farmer families
D. Both A & B
E. None of these
Q24. In the recently released Union Budget 2021-22, what amount of fund has been
allocated under the revamped Post Matric Scholarship Scheme (PMSS) for the welfare of
Scheduled Castes for 6 years, to benefit 4 crore SC students?
A. ₹35,219 crore
B. ₹25,219 crore
C. ₹32,117 crore
D. ₹22,117 crore
E. ₹27,115 crore
Q25. Recently in the month of February 2021, Puducherry Chief Minister V Narayanasamy
has submitted his resignation to Lieutenant Governor Tamilisai Soundararajan, after losing
confidence vote in Legislative Assemble. The Puducherry Legislative Assembly has _________
seats.
A. 27
B. 35
C. 28
D. 33

E. 39
Q26. Recently in Feb 2021, Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala has been appointed as the seventh Director-
General of the World Trade Organization, becoming the first woman head of the body. She
belongs to which of the following countries?
A. Ethiopia
B. Nigeria
C. Kenya
D. Eritrea
E. Algeria
Q27. Reserve Bank of India has constructed a composite Digital Payments Index (DPI) to
capture the extent of digitisation of payments across the country. Which one of the following
is not a parameter that enables the measurement of deepening and penetration of digital
payments in the country?
A. Payment Enabler
B. Payment Infrastructure
C. Payment Analysis
D. Payment Performance
E. Consumer Centricity
Q28. __________ is the art and science of making maps and charts.
A. Demography
B. Calligraphy
C. Cartography
D. Orthography
E. Cacography
Q29. HCL Technologies has announced to roll out a one-time special bonus of Rs 700 crore to
its employees globally, in recognition of its recent milestone of crossing the _________ mark
in revenue for 2020.
A. $15 billion
B. $10 billion
10 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? [email protected] 81462072

C. $50 billion
D. $25 billion
E. $30 billion
Q30. What is the current ceiling of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) set by the Reserve Bank of
India?
A. 5%
B. 3%
C. 6%
D. 2.5%
E. None of these
Q31. Recently in the month of Jan 2021, A certification course “NAVRITIH” was launched by
Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It is related to which of the following sectors?
A. Education Technology
B. Construction Technology
C. Food Processing and Technology
D. Financial Technology
E. None of these
Q32. Recently in the month of Dec 2020, Government of India has announced to set up a
Multi-Modal Logistics Hub & Multi-Modal Transport Hub (MMTH), with the aim of making
India a strong part of Global Value Chain. In which state will it be set up?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
E. Tamil Nadu
Q33. Recently in the month of February 2021, ____ INS Karanj - a Scorpene class submarine
has been handed over to Indian Navy by Mazagon Dock Limited.
A. First

B. Sixth
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. Fifth
Q34. Which of the Small Finance Banks has got the permission from SEBI to launch its IPO in
the month of December 2020?
A. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
B. Janalakshmi Small Finance Bank
C. Capital Small Finance Bank.
D. Equitas Small Finance Bank
E. Suryodaya Small Finance Bank
Q35. ATMs that are owned and operated by non-bank entities are called as _____.
A. Blue Label ATMs
B. White Label ATMs
C. Brown Label ATMs
D. Black Label ATMs
E. Red Label ATMs
Q36. Good Governance Day in India is observed on December 25th. This day is observed to
commemorate the birth anniversary of which of the following Indian personalities?
A. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Madan Mohan Malviya
E. Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
Q37. Which of the following is NOT a policy rate that is changed by Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) from time to time?
A. Repo Rate

B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
D. Marginal Standing Facility Rate
E. Bank Rate
Q38. Recently in the month of Dec 2020, “iMobile app” was launched by ICICI Bank with the
aim to strengthen financial ecosystem of the country. Read below given statements and
identify which of the following is NOT correct regarding the features of this app?
A. It enables users to pre-set limits on their credit and debit cards for domestic as well as
international transactions.
B. It allows customers to link multiple bank accounts.
C. It can be used only by the customers of ICICI Bank.
D. It allows customers to scan a QR Code of any payment app and send money money to any
UPI ID, Bank account, self-etc.
E. It lets its customers open (and renew) Life Insurance and General Insurance policies,
directly from your phone.
Q39. Government has launched New National Education Policy 2020, According to it
______% is the target Gross enrolment ration (GER) for pre-school to secondary level by the
year 2030 and _____% is the target GER of higher education by 2035.
A. 100, 50
B. 75, 50
C. 50, 100
D. 50, 75
E. 100, 75
Q40. State of Maharashtra has topped the list of states is terms of MSME registration in
Udyam Portal. Which of the following states is second after Maharashtra as per a newspaper
report, released recently in February 2021?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala

C. Tamil Nadu
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. Haryana
Q41. Recently in the month of Oct 2020, Government has notified that a “National Authority
of Ship Recycling” will be set up to look after the sustainable development of the Ship
Recycling industry, monitoring the compliance to environment-friendly norms. In which of
the following states will it be located?
A. Gujarat
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Kerala
D. Maharashtra
E. Goa
Q42. According to the recently released guidelines by RBI in October 2020, Non-deposit-
taking HFCs with an asset size of ₹5,000 crore and above, but less than ₹10,000 crore will
have to reach a minimum LCR of _____ by December 1, 2021 and _______ by December 1,
2025.
A. 20%, 40%
B. 30%, 60%
C. 30%, 100%
D. 50%, 100%
E. 25%, 50%
Q43. Which of the following state is set to be home to the country’s first sand dune park
under a project funded by The World Bank, which has accepted the proposal of the
Biodiversity Board of the state, recently in Oct 2020?
A. Maharashtra
B. Goa
C. Kerala
D. Odisha
E. Gujarat

Q44. What is the current Marginal Standing Facility Rate, in the month of Feb 2021?
A. 4.75%
B. 3.50%
C. 3.25%
D. 4.50%
E. 4.25%
Q45. A women’s Self-Help Group (SHG), coming together on the basis of mutual affinity is the
primary building block of community institutional design of which of the schemes, being run
the Govt of India?
A. MGNREGA
B. DAY- NRLM
C. PMGSY
D. Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
E. None of these
Q46. India’s First Fire Park has been inaugurated in which of the following states in the
month of January 2021?
A. Assam
B. Haryana
C. Karnataka
D. Odisha
E. Kerala
Q47. The Reserve Bank of India has proposed to increase the minimum Net Owned Fund
(NOF) for Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) from the current requirement of Rs
________to Rs 20 crore.
A. 5 crore
B. 15 crore
C. 10 crore
D. 8 crore

E. 12 crore
Q48. The year 2021 commemorates ________anniversary of the signing of the Ramsar
Convention on Wetlands on 2nd February in Ramsar, Iran, celebrated annually as World
Wetlands Day.
A. 45th
B. 70th
C. 50th
D. 75th
E. 100th
Q49. World’s longest highway tunnel named as “Atal Tunnel” has been recently inaugurated
by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the month of Oct 2020, it connects which of the
following two places?
A. Manali-Leh
B. Jammu-Baramullah
C. Srinagar-Jammu
D. Srinagar-Kargil
E. Kullu-Manali
Q50. Recently in the month Feb 2020, which of the following companies has announced to
launch online engineering courses that will focus on three areas — employability assessment
and recruitment, reinforced learning, reskilling and vocational skills training?
A. Larson & Toubro
B. Bharti Airtel
C. Reliance
D. Infosys
E. Wipro
Q51. Recently (Sept 2020), Bayer’s Better Life Farming initiative has announced partnership
with which of the following banks in India to provide holistic financial solutions to smallholder
farmers and rural farming communities?
A. Axis Bank

B. HDFC Bank
C. ICICI Bank
D. IDBI Bank
E. IDFC First Bank
Q52. What is the Bank Credit to GDP ratio in India, as on March 2020?
A. 75%
B. 100%
C. 50%
D. 60%
E. 85%
Q53. The WHO Foundation has appointed Indian-origin global health expert Anil Soni as its
first ____________ in the month of January 2021.
A. Chief Medical Advisor
B. Chief Executive Officer
C. Chief Health Expert
D. Chief Operations Officer
E. Chief Research Scientist
Q54. Tata Steel has recently (in Feb 20201) announced the plan to double its steel producing
capacity from the current to _______ million tonnes, in consideration of the expanding steel
demand.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 50
E. 25
Q55. India’s largest Public Sector Bank SBI is expecting its home loan portfolio to touch Rs 7
lakh crore by the year_______, where demand is being driven by an increased desire among

the youth to own homes early in life, rising incomes, and government policies like the cuts in
stamp duty and subsidy.
A. 2020-23
B. 2029-30
C. 2030-31
D. 2023-24
E. 2021-22
Q56. Recently in the month of Feb 2021, West Indies has recently defeated Bangladesh in a
test match after chasing a target of 395 runs. This was ______ highest run chase in the
history of test matches.
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 5th
D. 4th
E. 6th
Q57. Japanese government is going to join the ‘Five Eyes’ intelligence-sharing alliance. The
island nation is on its way to become the ‘sixth eye’. Which one of the following countries is
not a part of the ‘Five Eyes’ group?
A. China
B. Australia
C. Britain
D. Canada
E. New Zealand
Q58. In the month of December 2020, The Olympic Council of Asia has announced that Doha,
Qatar will host the 2030 Asian Games while _________ will host the 2034 edition.
A. Beijing, China
B. Tokyo, Japan
C. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

D. Abu Dhabi, UAE
E. New Delhi, India
Q59. India's first digital asset management platform called __________, has been formally
launched in Tamil Nadu under Centre's ambitious ''Atmanirbhar" initiative, in Dec 2020.
A. Assetboxx
B. DigiPal
C. SUVIDHA
D. Digiboxx
E. SUNIDHI
Q60. RBI has released the Annual Report “Ombudsman Schemes of the Reserve Bank for the
year 2019-20”, in the month of Feb 2021. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme (BOS) was first
notified by the Reserve Bank in the year _____ under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation
Act, 1949.
A. 1948
B. 2005
C. 2010
D. 1995
E. 2000
Q61. Which of the following banks has emerged as the top player among the 100 Banking,
Financial Services and Insurance (BFSI) companies in India, as per the recently released report
in the month of Dec 2020?
A. Axis Bank
B. Bandhan Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. ICICI Bank
E. Yes Bank
Q62. Government of India has decided to extend the benefit of the Scheme for “Remission of
Duties and Taxes on Exported Products” (RoDTEP) to all export goods with effect from 1st
January, 2021. This scheme will replace ______.

A. Export Promotion Capital Goods Schemes
B. Service Exports From India Scheme (SEIS)
C. Merchandise Exports From India Scheme (MEIS)
D. Both B & C
E. All of the above
Q63. Cairn Energy, a _______ firm has filed a case in a district court of USA (in Feb 2021) to
enforce $1.2 billion arbitration award that was by it in a tax dispute against India.
A. British
B. Russia
C. Swedish
D. Chinese
E. Canadian
Q64. The Reserve Bank of India had constituted an Internal Working Group (IWG) in June
2020 to review the extant ownership guidelines and corporate structure for Indian private
sector banks. Refer to the statements given below and identify which od the following is/are
the recommendations of this IWG, as per its report submitted in Nov 2020.
i. Large corporate/industrial houses may be allowed as promoters of banks only after

necessary amendments to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and strengthening of the
supervisory mechanism for large conglomerates, including consolidated supervision.
ii. For Payments Banks intending to convert to a Small Finance Bank, track record of 3
years of experience as Payments Bank may be considered as sufficient.
iii. The cap on promoters’ stake in the long run (15 years) may be raised from the current
level of 15 per cent to 26 per cent of the paid-up voting equity share capital of the bank.
A. Only i & ii
B. Only ii & iii
C. All of the above
D. Only i & iii

E. Only i
Q65. Consider the following statements regarding the features of Senior Citizen Saving
Scheme (SCSS) and identify the correct answer out of the options given below -
A. Deposits in SCSS qualify for deduction u/s 80-C of Income Tax Act.
B. A retired Personnel of Defence Services (Excluding Civilian Defence Employees), who has
attained the age of 50 years can subscribe to the scheme subject to fulfilment of other
specified conditions.
C. A depositor may open an account individually or jointly with spouse.
D. Both A & B
E. All of the above
Q66. The Tso Kar is a Salt Lake which is also a high-altitude wetland complex; it is situated in
the Rupshu Plateau located in which of the following places?
A. Sikkim
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Manipur
D. Ladakh
E. Arunachal Pradesh
Q67. Recently in the month of Dec 2020, The Cabinet has cleared the PM-WANI scheme. It
aims to provide which of the following services?
A. Mobile Banking
B. Radio
C. Wi-Fi
D. Digital Education
E. Mobile Networks
Q68. Jigmet Dolma, an SPO of Ladakh Police has recently secured __________ position in the
Dhaka Marathon 2021, organised in the month of January 2021.
A. second
B. first

C. third
D. fourth
E. fifth
Q69. The Spices Board of India has set an ambitious target, in the month of Feb 2021, of
achieving an export value of $5 billion by 2025 and $_____ billion by the year 2030.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 9
D. 50
E. 20
Q70. In the month of Feb 2021, Seychelles has become the first country to welcome the
tourists that have been vaccinated against COVID-19. Seychelles is located in Indian Ocean,
nearest to which of the following countries?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Maldives
C. Malaysia
D. Madagascar
E. South Africa
Q71. International Tea Day is observed globally on which of the following dates?
A. 25th Jan
B. 21st May
C. 21st Jan
D. 25th May
E. 28th June
Q72. UNDP has notified 17 Sustainable Goals (SDGs) to be attained by the year 2030. SDG 5 is
related to which of the following?
A. No Poverty

B. Zero Hunger
C. Quality Education
D. Gender Equality
E. Clean Water and Sanitation
Q73. International Olympic Committee (IOC) has its headquarters located in which of the
following places?
A. Rome, Italy
B. Paris, France
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. Lausanne, Switzerland
E. Bern, Switzerland
Q74. Recently in the month of Jan 2021, NITI Aayog has released the Second Edition of India
Innovation Index. Which of the following has topped in the category of major states?
A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None of these
Q75. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?
A. Italy
B. Switzerland
C. Belgium
D. France
E. Uk
Q76. Section 80-C of the Income Tax Act allows a maximum deduction of Rs _________every
year from the taxpayer’s total income. The benefit of this deduction can be availed by
Individuals and HUFs. Companies, partnership firms, LLPs cannot avail the benefit of this
deduction.

A. Rs. 1 lakh
B. Rs. 2.5 lakh
C. Rs. 5 lakh
D. Rs. 1.5 lakh
E. Rs. 3.5 lakh
Q77. Government of India has decided to celebrate Subhash Chandra Bose’s birthday on the
_________ every year as “PARAKRAM DIWAS”, starting from the year 2021.
A. 25th day of February
B. 23rd day of February
C. 25th day of January
D. 23rd day of January
E. 2nd day of March
Q78. Recently in the month of Oct 2020, Andorra has become _________ member of
International Monetary Fund.
A. 190th
B. 185th
C. 195th
D. 191st
E. 193rd
Q79. Recently, The Reserve Bank has come out with a five-pillared strategic approach
'GUARD' to deal with cybersecurity threats being faced by urban cooperative banks (UCBs).
What does A in GUARD stands for?
A. Automatic regulation
B. Agency
C. Appropriate Regulation (Governance Oversight, Utile Technology Investment, Appropriate

Regulation and Supervision, Robust Collaboration and Developing necessary IT &
cybersecurity skills set)
D. Authorisation

E. Autonomous
Q80. Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya is a scheme launched by the Govt of India for the
schools girls of SC, ST, OBC and minority communities , from the classes of __________.
A. 1st to 5th
B. 6th to 10th
C. 6th to 12th
D. 11th & 12th
E. 9th to 12th
Section: - Quant
Directions (81-83): In each of the following questions 3 statements are given. You have to
determine the which statement/statements are necessary to answer the given question:
Q.81) A shopkeeper sells articles at a certain profit. Find out the amount of profit.
A. Ratio of the selling price to the cost price of the articles is 4: 3.

B. If the cost price increases by Rs 500, and selling price remains the same, the profit
𝟖
percentage is decrease by 13𝟗%.
C. If the marked price is kept at Rs 1000 above the cost price and a discount of 15% is given,
𝟑
then the profit percentage is decreased by 𝟏𝟖 𝟒.%.
A. Only A and B together
B. A and either B or C
C. Only A and C together
D. All statements are required
E. None of these
Q.82) Find lateral surface area of a cylinder.

A. Volume of a cone with base same as that of the cylinder and height 30 cm is equal to
volume of the cylinder.
B. Circumference of base of the cylinder is 132 cm.
C. Volume of the cylinder is 13860 cm3.
A. Only A and B together
B. Only A and C together
C. All the three together
D. Any two of the three together

E. Either A and B together or A and C together
Q.83) Rinku borrowed an amount of Rs 5000 from Milan and Rahul. What is the rate of
interest?
A. Rinku returned the amount of Rs 5400 after due date to Milan.
B. Rinku returned Rs 5900 to Rahul after due date.
C. Rinku returned the money to Milan by SI, whereas to Rahul by compound interest.
A. Only A and B together are sufficient
B. Only B and C together are sufficient
C. A, B and C together are necessary
D. Either A and B together or B and C together are sufficient
E. A, B and C even together are not sufficient
Q.84) Quantity I =−𝟐𝟏𝐱 𝟑 𝐲 𝟑 , 𝐐𝐮𝐚𝐧𝐭𝐢𝐭𝐲 𝐈𝐈 = 𝟏𝟏 𝐱 𝟒 𝐲 𝟑 , 𝐢𝐟 𝐱 > 0 & 𝑦 < 0

A. Quantity I >Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
D. Quantity I=quantity II or No relation
E. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Q.85) Quantity I = Unit digit of 3634 Quantity II= x2 -3x – 10 = 0

Q.86) Quantity I = A container contains 40 liters of milk. From this container 4

liters of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated
further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?
Quantity II= In a mixture of milk and water of Volume 30 Liter the ratio of water
and milk is 3: 7. How much quantity of water will be added to the mixture to make
the ratio of milk and water 1: 2
Q.87) Consider the following pairs:

Column 1 Column 2
1. x2 - 30x + 221 = 0 13,17
2. y2 - 36y + 323 = 0 19,17
3. z = √289 -17,17
Which of the above pair is not correctly match?
A. Only 2
B. Only 3
C. Only 1
D. Both 1 and 3
E. Both 2 and 3
Q.88) 5x – 2y = 5 and 1 + (x/y) = 8/5.

Quantity I: Value of 3x + y?
Quantity II: Value of 3y - x?
Direction (Q. 89 - 92): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions. The table below shows cost price and selling price of 5 different
articles sold by a shopkeeper:
Note: Total cost price of article = Cost price + Cost of transportation
Q.89) If the cost price of article S is 20% more than the cost price of Article T then
finds the selling price of article S?

A. Rs. 2050
B. Rs. 4450
C. Rs. 8888
D. Rs. 9000
E. Rs. 5000
Q.90) If the shopkeeper has paid Rs. x for the cost of transport in article R and
when the transportation cost increases by Rs. 100, then find the value of x if the
sum of selling prices of article R in these two cases is 11000?
A. Rs. 203
B. Rs. 665
C. Rs. 527
D. Rs. 400
E. Rs. 825
Q.91) If the cost of transportation on article T is Rs. 300 and the selling price of
article P is 40% less than the selling price of article T, then find the profit earned
on article P?
A. Rs. 1433
B. Rs. 1107
C. Rs. 1509
D. Rs. 1345
E. None of these
Q.92) If the cost on transportation on article Q is 120 % of cost of transportation

on article S, then find the profit percentage in article Q if there is no
transportation cost charged?
A. 28 %
B. 34 %
C. 12 %
D. 25 %
E. 50 %
Q.93) There are three persons A, B and C. If 8 years ago the average age of A, B and
C is ---- years and 5 years hence the average age of A and C will be 33 years and the
present age of B is----- years.
A. 17, 19
B. 22, 14
C. 21, 30
D. Either a or c
E. None of these

Q.94) Ajay invested Rs. ‘x’ in a scheme Z. Scheme Z offers compound interest at
the rate 10% compounded annually for the first three years and then simple
interest at the rate 8% for the next five years. Find the value of ‘x’, if the total
interest earned by Ajay after eight years is Rs. 34,536?
A. Rs. 45000
B. Rs. 36000
C. Rs. 48000
D. Rs. 36000
E. Rs. 40000
Q.95) While writing first N natural numbers, I missed one number. What is the
number that I missed?
Statement I: The sum of all the natural number which I wrote, is 320.
Statement II: The digit I missed is an odd number.
Statement III: if I had not missed the number then sum would have been 325.
A. Either statement III alone or statements I and II together are sufficient.

B. Only statement I is sufficient.
C. Only statement I and II together are sufficient.
D. Only statement I, II, and III together are sufficient.
E. None of these
Direction (96 – 97): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions based on it.
A sequence of numbers is given to you as below:
18 (A) (B) (C) (D) 124
Where, A = P² - Q
B – A = (P + 1) ² + Q
C – B = (P + 2) ² + Q
D – C = (P + 3) ² + Q
P = HCF of L and M, where L and M are co – primes
Q = Smaller root of K² - 2K – 8 = 0
Q.96) How many numbers are divisible by 3, in the given sequence?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 6
E. None of these
Q.97) Find the value of (A² + 3B + 5C – 4D).

A. – 20

B. - 10
C. - 18
D. - 30
E. None of these
Q.98) P, Q and R entered into a partnership by investing a certain amount for 12

months, T month and 12 –T months respectively. Find the value of T?
Statement I: Q invested 50% more amount than P and R invested twice the
amount of Q.
Statement II: At the end of the partnership, the total profit earned by them is Rs.
700 and the profit share of Q is Rs. 100
Statement III: Profit share of P and R is in the ratio of 1:2
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. Either I and II or I and III
E. None of these
Q.99) If a, b, c and d are positive integers, then find the correct relation between
quantity I and II.
Quantity I: a-b / a-a = ab x c
Quantity II: (a³ x b³) / (a x b²) = (b³ x d4) / (b x d)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
C. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
D. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
E. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Direction (100 – 102): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions
based on it.
There are four trainers A, B, C and D those take classes in a month of three types
basic class (1 hour), Regular Class (2 hours) and Advanced class (3 hours). No
trainer can leave the class before the time and no one can take the class for extra
time. D doesn’t take any regular class. He will take either basic or Advance. The
pie chart given below shows the % distribution of total hours class taken by all
the four trainers. Total hours of the class are 60 hours.

Q.100) In Next month, D takes 10 hours classes and he will use 3 hours out of 10
hours as of the previous month. If the number of basic classes taken by D next
month is twice of advanced classes taken by D next month, then find the
difference between basic classes and advanced classes by D?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
E. None of these
Q.101) If A takes twice basic classes than advanced classes, then find the total
number of classes taken by A?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 9
E. None of these
Q.102) B and C take all three types of classes, basic classes taken by B are equal
to the regular classes taken by B. C takes four regular classes in the month and the
number of advanced classes taken by B and C is the same. Find the difference
between the minimum and the maximum number of basic classes taken by C?
A. 8
B. 9

C. 12
D. 11
E. None of these
Q.103) Total number of students in the classroom is 360 out of which one-ninth
passed in all three subjects-A, B and C. One-sixth of the total students failed in all
subjects and one-fourth of all students that passed at least one exam is equal to
the number of students who passed only in subject A. One-fourth of the total
students passed in both A and B and 50 students passed in both A and C. Find the
total number of students who passed in subject A
A. 180
B. 165
C. 155
D. 175
E. None of these
Directions (104-106): The following questions are accompanied by three

statements A, B and C. You have to determine which statement(s) is/are
necessary/sufficient to answer the question.
Q.104) How many times does the efficiency of a man exceed that of a woman?
A. 3 women and 2 men working together complete a work in 6 days.
B. 3 men do the same work 5 days sooner than 9 women.
C. Ratio of the efficiencies of 8 women and 4 men is 1: 3.
A. Any two of the three together
B. All the three together
C. Only C
D. Only A and B together
E. Either C alone or A and B together.
Q.105) Find out the length of train A.

A. Train A crosses another train B moving in same direction in 72 sec.
B. Speed of train A is 25km/h more than that of train B.
C. Length of train B is 20% less than that of train A.
A. All the three together are not sufficient
B. Only A and C together
C. All the three together
D. Only A and B together
E. Only B and C together

Q.106) What are the speeds of two trains?
A. Two trains of lengths 100 m and 80 m respectively run-on parallel tracks.
B. When running in the same direction the faster train passes the slower one in 18
seconds.
C. When running in opposite directions, they pass each other in 9 seconds.
A. A and C together
B. A and B together
C. A, B and C together
D. B and C together
E. Question can’t be answered even after using all the information
Q.107) The average age of a family of 5 members was 32 years. 3 years later, the
oldest member of the family died at the age of 60. On the same day, a child was
born in the family. What would be the average age of the family 20 years after the
death of the oldest member?
A. 52 years
B. 43 years
C. 47 years
D. 50 years
E. 55 years
Q.108) The taxi charges in a city consist of fixed charges and additional charges
per kilometer. The fixed charges are for a distance of up to 5 km and additional
charges are applicable per kilometer thereafter. The charge for a distance of 10
km is Rs 350 and for 25 km is Rs. 800. The charge for a distance of 30 km is-
A. Rs. 800
B. Rs. 750
C. Rs. 900
D. Rs. 950
E. None of these
Q.109) On reducing the entry fee by 35% in a park, the number of people coming
to the park increased by 40%, then the percent increase or decrease in the
income from the entry fee is –
A. 7% decrease
B. 9% increase
C. 9% decrease
D. 5% decrease
E. None of these
Q.110) A number series given below as I. A second number series as II having first
term same as the wrong term of the series I. Find 3rd term of series II?

Series I. 3, 7, 22, 95, 479, 2879
A. 541
B. 571
C. 561
D. 551
E. None of these
Section: - Reasoning
Directions (111-115): Study the following information carefully and answer the
below questions.
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are born in different years but not necessarily in
the same order. The ages of each person are calculated from the base year 2020. Note: If
it is given that A’s age is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of B, then the
age of A will be in any sequence. For example: If B is born in 1992, A’s age is equal
to the last two digits of the birth year of B, then the age of A may be either 29 or 92
years. None of the persons were born before 1970 and after 2015. W was born in
2000. Only three persons are born between W and T. The age of T is the last two digits
of the birth year of V. The difference between the age of V and W is five years. V is born
two persons after the one whose age is 20 years. Q is born two persons before the one
who is born immediately after S. Only two persons are born between S and the one
whose age is 18 years. The sum of the ages of W and R is one less than the age of S. The
last two digits of the birth year of a person who is born adjacent to Q is equal to the age
of the person who is born immediately after W. The age difference between R and the
one whose age is 20 is the same as between Q and the one who is born adjacent to Q.
The age difference between V and U is one less than the age difference between Q and S.
The numbers of persons are born between P and R is the same as between S and T. The
age of P is equal to the last two digits of the birth year of the person who was born two
persons before P. All person’s ages are equal to the last two digits of the birth year of
some other persons except V and Q.
Q.111) What is the age of P?

A. 19
B. 27
C. 28
D. 07
E. 38
Q.112) Who among the following person was born immediately before V?
A. U
B. The one who was born immediately after W
C. Q

D. T
E. The one who was born two persons after S
Q.113) What is the sum of the ages of V, U, and T?

A. 95
B. 83
C. 68
D. 72
E. 75
Q.114) As many persons are born before Q is same as after__?

A. The one who was born in 2005
B. The one who was born in 2000
C. The one who was born in 2013
D. S
E. P
Q.115) In which of the following year does Q was born?

A. 1970
B. 1972
C. 1975
D. 1985
E. 1993
below questions.
Numbers and words arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 53218 crew kept 32174 73628 mode form 82746 23684 very
Step I: 23684 crew 32174 form 53218 kept 73628 mode 82746 very
Step II: 11842 drew 16087 gorm 26609 lept 36814 node 41373 wery
Step III: 952 dsew 697 gprm 329 lfpt 544 npde 423 wfry
Step IV: 16 dsfw 22 gpsm 14 lfqt 13 npee 09 wfsy
Step V: 5 dsfx 0 gpsn 3 lfqu 2 npef 9 wfsz
Step V is the last step
Input: Line 35422 Turn 87342 63926 Wake Sand 48524 73842 Pure
Q.116) What is the position of “921” from the right end in step III?
A. Second
B. Third
C. Fourth
D. Fifth

E. Sixth
Q.117) Which of the following element is fourth from the right end in step IV?
A. 13
B. 12
C. 15
D. 14
E. 16
Q.118) What is the output of “48524”?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 2
E. 8
Q.119) What is the sum of the numbers in Step V?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 17
D. 18
E. 20
Q.120) How many elements are between “521” and “Uvrn” in step III?
A. Eight
B. Seven
C. Six
D. Five
E. Four
Directions (121-122): In each group of questions below are three conclusions

followed by five statements. You have to choose the correct set of statements that
logically satisfies the given conclusion:
Q.121) Conclusion:
I. Some Red is Green
II. Some Black is not a Blue
III. All Green being Red is not a possibility
Statement:
I. Some Red is Blue; All Blue is Black; No Black is Green
II. Only a few Red is Blue; All Blue is Green; Only Green is Black
III. Only Red is Black; Some Red is Blue; No Blue is Green
IV. Only Green is Black; All Red is Green; No Green is Blue
V. Some Black is Blue; No Blue is Green; Only Green is Red.

A. Both I and II follow
B. Both II and IV follows
C. None Follows
D. All Follows
E. Both III and V follows
Q.122) Conclusion:
I. All Mobile being Laptop is not a possibility
II. Some Speaker being Laptop is a possibility
III. Some speakers are charger
Statement:
I. Only a few mobiles are Laptop; No Laptop is Charger; All Charger is Speaker
II. Only a few Speaker is Charger; Some Charger is Mobile; All Mobile is Laptop
III. No Speaker is Charger; All Charger is Mobile; No Mobile is Laptop
IV. No speaker is Laptop; All Laptop is Charger; No Charger is Mobile
V. Some Charger is Mobile; All Mobile is Laptop; No Laptop is Speaker
A. Both I and II follow

B. Both II and IV follows
C. None Follows
D. All Follows
E. Both III and V follows
below questions
Twelve persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting in two parallel rows. Each
row contains six persons are facing each other. The persons who are sitting in row1
faces south and those who are sitting in row 2 facing north but not necessarily in the
same order. They are having a different number of chocolates. Note: The persons who
are sitting in row-1 having an even number of chocolates and those who are
sitting in row-2 having an odd number of chocolates. Only three persons are sitting
between R and the one who has 15 chocolates who sits to the right of R. S sits opposite
to the one who sits immediate left of the one who has 15 chocolates. X sits second to the
right of the one who sits adjacent to the person having 11 chocolates. P and X are sitting
diagonally opposite to each other. P has only one neighbor who has 10 chocolates. The
number of persons is sitting between R and X is the same as between the one who has
22 chocolates and the one who has 4 chocolates. The one who has 22 chocolates sits
immediate right of T. T does not sit adjacent to S. O sits opposite to the one who sits
immediate left of Z who sits third to the right of R. S sits adjacent to O. W sits immediate
left of Q who has an odd number of chocolates. Y has 6 chocolates, does not sit at end of
the row. S has the chocolates twice that of V who has an even number of chocolates. Z
has one chocolate more than S. The difference between the number of chocolates of P

and T is equal to the number of chocolates of O. W has ten chocolates more than Z and
two chocolates less than R. None of them has the same number of chocolates. X has the
prime number of chocolates more than U but less than R.
Conditions:
They are playing the dice game. Two persons are rolling the dice at the same time.
I) If two persons are getting an even number, then their chocolate will be added to the
person who sits second to the left of them.
II) If two persons are getting an odd number, then their chocolates will be subtracted
from the person who sits immediate right from them
III) If one person gets an even number and another one gets an odd number then their
chocolates will be twice.
Q.123) The person who sits second to the right of Q and third to the left of O are
rolling the dice, one of them gets number 5 and another one gets the number
which is equal to the number of chocolates of V. Then how many chocolates does
the person have who sits
third to the left of O?
A. 30
B. 10
C. 8
D. 22
E. 24
Q.124) If the persons who are sitting in the right corner of each row are rolling
the dice, they get an even number. Then what is the sum of the chocolate of the
persons who sits second to the left of each of them?
A. 80
B. 60
C. 75
D. 65
E. 70
Q.125) What is the sum of the chocolate of O, S, Q, and W?

A. 55
B. 32
C. 50
D. 35
E. 40
Q.126) If the persons who are sitting second from the left end of each row are
rolling the dice, both are getting an odd number, then what is the difference
between chocolate of the person who sits immediate right of each of them?
A. 7

B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
E. 5
Q.127) Who among the following person sits second to the right of the one who
sits opposite to the person who has twice of the chocolates of Y?
A. The one who sits immediate left of W
B. The one who has 19 chocolates
C. The one who has 17 chocolates
D. The one who has 15 chocolates
E. The one who sits second to the right of R
below questions
Three married couples- A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting at the circular table facing the
centre but not necessarily in the same order. They are of different age persons. The
couples are not sitting together. D sits second to the left of the one who sits opposite
to a person whose age is 40. Only one person sits between D and the one whose age is
32. E sits immediate right of the one who is the wife of A. E is a female member who sits
opposite to the one who sits second to the left of the one whose age is 32. F sits
immediate right of the one who sits second to the right of A. The husband’s age is more
than the wife’s age. F is not a spouse of C. There is five years age difference between B
and B’s wife. C does not sit adjacent to A’s spouse. A’s age is twice that of E’s age. C’s
spouse's age is 29. There are 10 years age difference between C and B. No one's age is
more than fifty.
Q.128) What is the age of D’s spouse (in years)?

A. 35
B. 29
C. 20
D. 40
Q.129) Who among the following person sits opposite to B?

A. A
B. The one who sits immediate left of D
C. D’s spouse
D. The one whose age is 40
E. The one who sits second to the right of A
Q.130) What is the sum of the age of D and A’s spouse?

A. 65
B. 61

C. 70
D. 73
E. 75
Q.131) Four of the following are alike in a certain way. Which of the following one
does not belong to the group?
A. C
B. A
C. The one who sits immediate right of C
D. The one who sits second to the right of B
E. The one who sits immediate left of D
Q.132) Which of the following statement is/are true?

I. A’s age is 40
II. B is the spouse of E
III. Only one person sits between D and F when counted to the right of D.
A. Both I and III
B. Only III
C. Both I and II
D. Only II
E. All I, II, and III
Direction (133-135): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question: -
Q.133) Six persons-L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a row but not necessarily in
the same order. Who among the following person sits second from the left end of
the row? (facing south)
Statement1: Q sits third to the left of the one who sits second to the right of L. Only two
persons are sitting between Q and M. Only one person sits between L and N.
Statement2: Only two persons are sitting between M and Q. M sits immediate right of
the one who sits second to the left of O who sits either left or right end.
A. Only Statement I is sufficient
B. Only Statement II is sufficient
C. Either statement I or statement II is sufficient
D. Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
E. Both statements I and II sufficient
Q.134) There are six boxes- A, B, C, D, E, and F are kept one above another in a
stack but not necessarily in the same order. How many boxes are kept above E?

Statement1: Box F is kept two boxes below the box which is kept three boxes above A.
Only two boxes are kept between F and C which is kept below A. Box B is kept
immediately above Box D, neither of the boxes kept adjacent to C.
Statement2: Box E is kept three boxes below the box which is kept immediately above
F. Box E is kept neither top nor bottom of the stack. Only two boxes are kept between C
and F. Neither B nor D is kept below F.
D. Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
E. Both statements I and II are sufficient
Q.135) What is the direction of point L with respect to point X?

Statement1: Point S is north of Point M which is west of Point G. Point P is east of Point
X. Point L is North of point V.
Statement2: Point V is exactly the middle of Point M and G. Point L is east of Point S.
Point X is neither south nor south-east of Point M. Point P is south of point G.
d) Neither statement I nor statement II is sufficient
e) Both statements I and II are sufficient
Q.136) In a certain code language, “Program is super” is coded as “217 693 472”,
“Super Art” is coded as “693 238”, “He learns program” is coded as “217 479 624”,
then what is the sum of the code for “Program Art”?
A. 696
B. 689
C. 1103
D. 910
E. 455
Q.137) T is 15m north of M. H is 9m south G which is 15m east of M.L is 20m west
of H. V is north of O and 5m east of S which is 5m north of L. O is west of H. Then
what is direction and distance of V with respect to T?
A. 14m, north
B. 19m, south
C. 19m, north
D. 24m, south
E. 24m, north
Q.138) In which of the following more than two meaningful words can be formed
by using the following letters?

I. A, S, T, E
II. T, D, N, E
III. P, L, S, O
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Only III
E. All I, II, and III
Q.139) If the second letter of all the words from the right end are taken and
changed to the next second successive letter in alphabetical order. Which of the
following has more than one vowel thus formed?
I. Bank, Blow, Cash
II. Draw, Ford, Hurt
III. Mass, Mode, Once
A. Only I
B. Both II and III
C. Only III
D. All I, II, and III
E. None
Directions (140-142): Answer the questions based on the information given

below.
Certain persons are sitting in a straight line and all of them are facing towards north.
Not more than 23 persons are there in the row. D sits fourth from the right end and is
fifth to the right of E. Only two persons sit between E and I. J sits sixth to the left of I and
is second to the right of F. The number of persons between I and E is one less than the
number of persons between H and F. K sits third to the left of H and the number of
persons to the left of K is one less than the number of persons to the right of G who
doesn’t sit adjacent to D.
Q.140) How many persons are there in the row?
A. 23
B. 22
C. 20
D. 21
E. 19
Q.141) Who among the following person sits second to the left of D?
A. G
B. E
C. I
D. J
E. Unknown

Q.142) How many persons are there between H and E?
A. Six
B. Eight
C. Ten
D. Four
E. None
below questions.
Six persons- L, M, N, O, P, and Q have different heights. Only one person is between the
one whose height is 159 cm and L. The height of P is 156 cm. M is taller than L. The
number of people between N and L is the same as between L and Q. The number of
persons who are taller than N is the same as shorter than P. The height of L is 10cm
more than Q whose height is 3cm more than P. No one height is more than 181cm.
Q.143) What may be the height of M, If the height of N is divisible by five?

A. 175 cm
B. 172 cm
C. 176 cm
D. 177 cm
E. None of the above.
Q.144) How many persons are taller than L?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None
Q.145) What is the average height of N, P, and Q?

A. 163cm
B. 151cm
C. 161.22cm
D. 163.33cm
Q.146) In which of the following expressions does the expression ‘I > D’ and ‘A ≤ G’
definitely hold true?
A. A ≥ I ≥ G = K > S > D
B. A ≤ D ≥ M= F ≤ G < I
C. I ≥ C> Q ≥ A = G ≥ D
D. G ≥ D = A < B ≤ S ≤ I

E. D ≥ E = G ≥ W = A < I
Q.147) which of the following expressions will definitely be true if the

expressions ‘L > R’ and ‘M ≤ N’ are true?
A. K > M < S ≤ N < R ≥ D ≤ L
B. K = M > S ≥ N = R ≤ D < L
C. K > M ≥ S = N ≤ R ≤ D ≤L
D. K ≥ M ≥ S ≥N < R < D ≤ L
E. None of these
Q.148) Which of the following expressions does the expression ‘B ≤ H’ and ‘A > G’
definitely hold true?
A. A = B < F ≥ H = K > G > D
B. D > A = G ≥ B = F ≤ G < H
C. A < O > G < H = H ≥ S ≥ B
D. G = U ≤ B = E ≤ H = O < A
E. None of the these
below questions.
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting at the circular table facing the
centre but not necessarily in the same order. They all have different ages and the
age of all the persons is less than 50. G sits third to the right of the one who sits
immediate left of the one whose age is 36. Two persons are sitting between G and
F. D sits adjacent to the one who sits second to the right of A. A sits immediate left
of F. The one whose age is 20 sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of
E. Neither F nor G is 20 years old. H sits third to the left of the one whose age is 15
years. Neither E nor A is 15 years old. B sits second to the left of C. The age of D is
twice the age of the one who sits immediate right of G. The age difference between
E and D is the same as between D and A. The age of G is five years more than the
one who sits immediate left of G. The age of F is one year less than the one who
sits immediate right of H. One of the persons sitting at the table is 22 years old.
Q.149) Which of the following combination is true?

A. F-36
B. E-15
C. D-30
D. C-20
E. B-22
Q.150) How many persons are sitting between D and E?

A. One
B. Two

C. Three
D. Four
E. Either b or d
Q.151) Who among the following person sits opposite to the one whose age is 29?
A. The one who sits second to the left of D
B. C
C. A
D. The one whose age is 35
E. The one whose age is 15
Q.152) If G is related to 30 and A is related to 22 in a certain way. Then who

among the following is related to 15?
A. E
B. The one who sits opposite to F
C. C
D. The one who sits third to the left of D
Q.153) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way thus forms a group.
Find the one which does not belong to the group?
A. E
B. The one who sits second to the right of C
C. The one who sits immediate right of H
D. The one who sits immediate left of D
E. A
Directions (154-156): Each of the following questions consists of a statement

followed by two arguments I and II.
Q.154)
Statement: Should system of offering jobs only to the wards of government employees
be introduced in all government offices in India?
Arguments: I. No. It denies opportunity to many deserving individuals and
government may stand to lose in the long run.
II. No. It is against the principle of equality. Does not government owe its responsibility
to all its citizens?
A. if only argument I is strong
B. if only argument II is strong
C. if either I or II is strong
D. if neither I nor II is strong
E. if both I and II are strong.
Q.155)

Statement: Does India need so many plans for development?
Arguments: I. Yes. Nothing can be achieved without proper planning.
II. No. Too much time, money and energy are wasted on planning.
Q.156)
Statement: Should those who receive dowry, despite the law prohibiting it, be
punished?
Arguments: I. Yes. Those who violate the law, must be punished.
II. No. Dowry system is firmly rooted in the society since time immemorial.
Directions (157-158): In each question below is given a statement followed by

two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement,
decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Given answer-
Q.157) Statement: The Committee has criticized the Institute for its failure to
implement a dozen of regular programs despite an increase in the staff strength and not
drawing up a firm action plan for studies and research.
Courses of action
I. The board objectives of the Institute should be redefined to implement a practical
action plan.
II. The Institute should give a report on reasons for not having implemented the
planned programmers.
A. If only I follow;
B. If only II follows,
C. If either I or II follows;
D. If neither I nor II follows
E. If both I and II follow.
Q.158) Statement: Majority of the students in many schools do not pass in the final
examination.
Courses of action

I. These schools should be closed down as these have become unproductive.
II. The teachers of these schools should immediately be retrenched.
A. If only I follow;
B. If only II follows,
C. If either I or II follows;
D. If neither I nor II follows
E. If both I and II follow.

two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Q.159) Statement: In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the
suburbs to reach their places of work on time.
Assumptions:
I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
A. If only assumption I is implicit
B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If either I or II is implicit
D. If neither I nor II is implicit
E. If both I and II are implicit
Q.160) Statements: It is not always true that only a Brilliant person can qualify the
written examination for Probationary Officers (Po’s).
Assumptions
I. A Brilliant person can qualify the written examination for PO’s.
II. A person who is not brilliant can also qualify the written examination for Po’s.
A. If only assumption I is implicit

B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If either I or II is implicit
D. If neither I nor II is implicit
E. If both I and II are implicit
Q.161) Statement: “If it does not rain throughout this month, most farmers would be in
trouble this year.”
Assumptions:
I. Timely rain is essential for farming.
II. Most farmers are generally dependent on rains.
A. If only assumption I is implicit.

B. If only assumption II is implicit.
C. If either I or II is implicit.
D. If neither I nor II is implicit.
E. If both I and II are implicit.
Q.162) Statement: If the city bus which runs between Ram Nagar and Sant Colony is
extended to Vasant Vihar, it will ‘be convenient. — Appeal of residents of Ram Nagar to
the city bus company.
Assumptions:
I. The convenience of the city bus company is much more important than the needs of
the consumers.
II. The city bus company is indifferent to the aspirations of the residents of Sant Colony.
A. If only assumption I is implicit.
B. If only assumption II is implicit.
C. If either I or II is implicit.
D. If neither I nor II is implicit.
E. If both I and II are implicit.

two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, even if they are at variance with the commonly known facts.
Then consider the two conclusions together ignoring the commonly known facts
and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement give answer.
Q.163) Statement: India is seeking partnership with Germany in aeronautical
engineering and space exploration. Earlier, India entered into partnership with some
other countries in aeronautical engineering.
Conclusion:
I. It is high time for joint venture between the Germany and India, because Germany is
developing State of-the-art technologies in aeronautical engineering.
II. Both India and Germany, have core competence in the give area.
A. If only conclusion I follows.

B. If only conclusion II follows.
C. If either I or II follows.
D. If neither I nor II follows.
E. If both I and II follows.
Q.164) Statement: Now days a number of telecommunication companies are providing

better services in the market to compete with foreign companies.
Conclusion:
I. They want to India become number one in the field of telecommunication. At the same
time, they want to fetch more and more money from the other countries.

II. Company want increase customers and become no. I position.

Q.165) Statement: Unity is hindered by gaps among the people on the basis of
economy, culture religion and language.
Conclusion:
I. Unity is a must for the Country.
II. Any country where there are such gaps will find it difficult to stay united.

Direction (166-170): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Six persons joined the ABC organization in 2017. All are joined on different dates of
either the same or different month. Each of them already has some working experience.
One of them joins on 18th July. Less than two persons joined before E who has an
experience in even number. The number of persons joined before E is same as after the
one whose experience is 13 years. B who does not have experience in prime number,
joined before the one whose experience is 16 years but after the one whose experience
is 5 and 9 years. The one whose experience is 5 years joins before the one whose
experience is 9 years who joins on 24th May. D has an experience twice that of E’s
Experience. The number of persons joins between the one whose experience is 5 years
and B is the same as between the one whose experience is 9 years and D who joins in
the organization on 27th September. A join after C but before F. The one who joins on
26th July joined before D but after B. The one whose experience is 10 years joined after
the one who
joined the organization on 12th January which is not the joining date of E. B does not
join on 15th January. Based on their working experience a foreign company XYZ gives
the project with certain
conditions:
1. The project is given to those people having experience minimum of 3 years
after joining the ABC Organization (Calculate their experience on the following
date 31st august 2020).
2. The project is given to the persons who joins the organization at first according
to the month.

3. If two persons join in the same month then give priority to the one who joins
the
organization first according to date.
Q.166) Which among the following is the order of the people who get the project?
A. CEABF
B. BFACE
C. FCEBA
D. FECBA
E. None of these
Q.167) If the project is given according to the only date of joining of the people
then how many persons remain unchanged in their positions?
A. None
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
E. 4
Q.168) Who among the following has maximum working experience as before the
joining of this organization?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. E
E. None of these
Q.169) How many persons joined after F?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of these
Q.170) If the company appointed a CEO who has an experience minimum of 10

years, then who will be the CEO?
A. B
B. D
C. E
D. Either a or b
E. Either B or C

Section: - English Language
(Directions 171-175): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are written in BOLD to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
A tailor and a goldsmith were travelling together, and one evening when the sun had
sunk behind the mountains, they heard the sound of distant music, which became more
and more distinct. It sounded strange, but so pleasant that they forgot all their
weariness and stepped quickly onwards. The moon had already arisen when they
reached a hill on which they saw a crowd of little men and women, who had taken each
other’s hands, and were WHIRLING round in the dance with the greatest pleasure and
delight.
They sang to it most charmingly, and that was the music which the travelers had heard.
In the midst of them sat an old man who was rather taller than the rest. He wore a parti-
coloured coat, and his HOARY beard hung down over his chest. The two remained
standing full of astonishment, and watched the dance. The old man made a sign that
they should enter, and the little folks willingly opened their circle. The goldsmith, who
had a hump, and like all hunch-backs was daring enough, stepped in. The tailor felt a
little afraid at first, and held back, but when he saw how merrily all was going, he
plucked up his courage, and followed. The circle closed again directly, and the little folks
went on singing and dancing with the wildest leaps. The old man, however, took a large
knife which hung to his girdle, whetted it, and when it was sufficiently sharpened, he
looked round at the strangers.
They were terrified, but they had not much time for reflection, for the old man seized
the goldsmith and with the greatest speed, shaved the hair of his head clean off, and
then the same thing happened to the tailor. But their fear left them when, after he had
finished his work, the old man clapped them both on the shoulder in a friendly manner,
as much as to say, they had behaved well to let all that be done to them willingly, and
without any struggle. He pointed with his finger to a heap of coals which lay at one side,
and signified to the travelers by his gestures that they were to fill their pockets with
them. Both of them obeyed, although they did not know of what use the coals would be
to them, and then they went on their way to seek a shelter for the night.
When they had got into the valley, the clock of the neighbouring monastery struck
twelve, and the song ceased. In a moment all had vanished, and the hill lay in SOLITUDE
in the moonlight.
The two travelers walked onwards and eventually found an inn, and covered
themselves up on their straw-beds with their coats, but in their weariness forgot to take

the coals out of them before doing so. A heavy weight on their limbs awakened them
earlier than usual. They felt in the pockets, and could not believe their eyes when they
saw that they were not filled with coals, but with pure gold. Happily, too, the hair of
their heads and beards was there again as thick as ever.
They had now become rich folks, but the goldsmith, who, in accordance with his greedy
disposition, had filled his pockets better, was twice as rich as the tailor. A greedy man,
even if he has much, still wished to have more, so the goldsmith proposed to the tailor
that they should wait another day, and go out again in the evening in order to bring back
still greater treasures from the old man on the hill. The tailor refused, and said, I have
enough and am content. Now I shall be a master, and marry my dear object – for so he
called his sweetheart – and I am a happy man. But he stayed another day to please him.
In the evening the goldsmith hung a couple of bags over his shoulders that he might be
able to stow away a great deal, and took the road to the hill. He found, as on the night
before, the little folks at their singing and dancing, and the old man again shaved him
clean, and made signs to him to take some coal. He was not slow about stuffing as much
into his bags as would go, went back quite delighted, and covered himself over with his
coat. Even if the gold does weigh heavily, said he, I will gladly bear that, and at last he
fell asleep with the sweet ANTICIPATION of waking in the morning an enormously rich
man.
When he opened his eyes, he got up in haste to examine his pockets, but how amazed he
was when he drew nothing out of them but black coals, and that howsoever often he put
his hands in them. The gold I got the night before is still there for me, thought he, and
went and brought it out, but how shocked he was when he saw that it likewise had again
turned into coal. He smote his forehead with his dusty black hand, and then he felt that
his whole head was bald and smooth, as was also the place where his beard should have
been. But his misfortunes were not yet over. He now remarked for the first time that in
addition to the hump on his back, a second, just as large, had grown in front on his chest.
Then he recognized the punishment of his greediness, and began to weep aloud.
The good tailor, who was awakened by this, comforted the unhappy fellow as well as he
could, and said, you have been my COMRADE in my travelling time. You shall stay with
me and share in my wealth. He kept his word, and the poor goldsmith never wanted for
anything, but he was obliged to carry the two humps as long as he lived, and to cover his
bald head with a cap.
Q.171) What happened when they entered into the valley?

A. They covered themselves up on their straw beds with their coats.
B. They saw an old man.
C. The clock of the neighboring monastery struck twelve and the song ceased.
D. They pointed with their fingers to a heap of coals.
E. None of these
Q.172) In the given story, who had a hump on his back?

A. The old man

B. The Goldsmith
C. The Tailor
D. The Tailor & the Goldsmith both
E. None of these
Q.173) Why did tailor refused to wait another day?

A. Because he was extremely tired.
B. He got disappointed because he found less gold
C. Because his pockets were filled with coals.
D. Because he had enough gold and was a happy man.
E. None of these
Q.174) What could be an appropriate moral of the story?

A. A tailor and a Goldsmith
B. The result of greediness is always harmful
C. There is a victory ahead of fear
D. The importance of contentment & satisfaction in life
E. None of these
Q.175) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to

the word HOARY as used in the passage.
A. old-fashioned
B. modern
C. designer
D. developed
E. none of these
Q.176) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in BOLD as used in the passage.
WHIRLING
A. rotating
B. creeping
C. dragging
D. crawling
E. none of these
Q.177) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word
printed in BOLD as used in the passage.
COMRADE
A. companion
B. challenger
C. nemesis
D. archenemy

E. none of these
Q.178) Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the
word printed in BOLD as used in the passage.
ANTICIPATION
A. astonishment
B. intuition
C. foresight
D. expectation
E. none of these
Q.179) Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the
word printed in BOLD as used in the passage.
SOLITUDE
A. company
B. isolation
C. loneliness
D. reclusion
E. none of these
I.180) In the following questions, two columns are given containing three sentences /
phrases each. In first column, the sentences / phrases are A, B and C whereas the same
in the second column are marked as D, E and F. A sentence / phrase from the first
column may or may not combine with another sentence / phrase in the second column
to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Each question has five
options out of which four have possible combinations of sentences / phrases that are
grammatically and contextually correct. If none of the combinations gives us
grammatically and contextually correct sentences, mark E as your answer.
Q.180) Find the best possible combination.

A. A-E and B-D
B. C-D and B-F
C. A-E and C-D
D. C-D
E. None of these

(Directions 181-184): In the following questions, some part of the sentence is
highlighted in BOLD. Which of the options given below the sentence should
replace the part printed in BOLD to make the sentence grammatically correct? If
the sentence is correct as it is given then choose option E ‘No Correction required’
as the answer.
Q.181) Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs states that we must satisfy each need in turn
STARTING WITH THE FIRST, DEALING IN THE MOST OBVIOUS NEEDS OF
SURVIVAL ITSELF.
A. starting with the first, which deals with the most obvious needs of survival itself.
B. first starting with the one that deals with the most obvious needs of survival itself.
C. starting with the first, which is dealt with the most obvious needs of survival itself.
D. starting with the first one that deals in the most obvious need of survival itself.
E. No improvement required
Q.182) An individual’s behavior may change over time, becoming bizarre if medication
is stopped AND RETURNS CLOSER TO NORMAL WHEN RECEIVING APPROPRIATE
TREATMENT.
A. and can return closer to normal when receiving appropriate treatment.
B. while returned closer to normal when receiving appropriate treatment.
C. and returning closer to normal when receiving appropriate treatment.
D. after returning close to normal when receiving appropriate treatment.
Q.183) Building peace and transcending regional and global conflicts CANNOT BE LEFT
ENTIRELY TO THE ACTION AND VOLITION OF POLITICAL LEADERS.
A. cannot leave entirely to the action and volition of political leaders.
B. could not be left entirely for the action and volition of political leaders.
C. cannot be left entirely for the action and volition from political leaders.
D. should not be left entirely to the action and volition for political leaders.
Q.184) Opposing free trade, some argue, IS TANTAMOUNT TO SUPPORT ECONOMIC

INJUSTICE.
A. is tantamount of supporting economic injustice.
B. is tantamount with supporting economic injustice.
C. is tantamountly supporting economic injustice.
D. is tantamount to supporting economic injustice.
(Directions 185-190): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in BOLD to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.

Smartwatches can be a great tool for heart health monitoring. Most popular
smartwatches on the market offer a heart rate monitor function, which has been
primarily used by fitness enthusiasts for tracking their activity levels during a workout
or throughout the day. Tracking heart rate is a great way to chart your own personal
metabolic rate and allows you to compare your rate of exertion to other members of
your age group, giving you a great indicator of your heart health. Heart rate monitoring
can be a fun metric to track, but it’s also one of the cardiologist’s primary tools for
assessing whether your health is functioning properly.
Anyone can check their heart rate by pressing a hand against the wrist, which checks
the flow of blood in the radial artery, or by pressing a hand against the neck, which
checks the carotid artery. Physicians often use an Electrocardiogram (ECG/EKG) to
interpret a patient’s heartbeat. An EKG offers information that can tell your doctor four
things:
• Whether your heartbeat is irregular
• If your heart is enlarged
• Whether your heart is getting enough oxygen
• Whether you’ve had a heart attack in the past
Smartwatches track heart rate in a similar way as checking the pulse, but without the
use of physical pressure. Popular Smartwatches from brands like Apple, Samsung, and
Fitbit use photoplethysmography to detect a heartbeat. This is the process of projecting
a green light on the skin, which gets absorbed by the blood. More green light being
reflected is related to lower blood flow, which indicates that the heart is in-between
beats.
While smartwatches are not as complex as an EKG, new studies have shown that they
may be capable of detecting one of the same health issues that an EKG can. Irregular
Heartbeat, also known as Atrial Fibrillation or AFib, is a health condition that can be a
precursor to serious cardiac events and stroke. Testing for AFib is a simple, but
important process for older adults, and it’s important to contact a doctor if you’ve
experienced symptoms, which include heart palpitations, shortness of breath, and
chest pain.
Some forms of AFib are harder to detect however, and having a heartbeat-enabled
smartwatch might be a great tool for finding the condition sooner. A study funded by
Apple in the New England Journal of Medicine found that smartwatches had the capacity
to detect AFib, but weren’t necessarily reliable in always detecting it. Of the 400,000
participants in the study, 52% received an alert from their smartwatch that they had
experienced episodes of an irregular heartbeat after 117 days of monitoring. Of those
that saw a doctor after the notification, it was found that 70% of them experienced
irregular heartbeat after taking a long-term EKG test. This shows that smartwatches can
be used to detect AFib, but they will not catch it in 100% of patients.

There’s anecdotal evidence of smartwatches saving lives, but they’re useless without
the work of medical professionals. Smartwatches are a great way to monitor your heart
rate and take an active step in understanding heart health, but they are not medical
equipment. Smartwatches may be capable of detecting AFib, but they’re not infallible,
and no substitute for the advice of a trained cardiologist.
If you’re experiencing uncomfortable symptoms like weakness, reduced ability to

exercise, fatigue, light-headedness, shortness of breath, or chest pain, it’s imperative to
speak to a medical professional, regardless of whether you’re wearing a smartwatch.
AFib can be treated with a myriad of both invasive and non-invasive options, with
blood thinners being a simple and effective solution for many patients, but it’s
important to consult a cardiologist early.
Q.185) Which of the following is true about smart watches’ role as per the
passage?
A. It is used as a widespread screen for atrial fibrillation
B. It works as a generic barometer and cannot be deemed as a medical device
C. It monitors and assess people comprehensively outside of the clinical setting
D. It is majorly used by younger strata of the population
E. None of these
Q.186) What of the following best summarises the passage in one line?
A. AFib is permanent, and medicines or other treatments can't restore a normal heart
rhythm.
B. How smartwatches can bypass the need of clinic laboratories?
C. Using smartwatch to detect AFib cardiac arrest remedy.
D. The watch is smart, but can’t replace your doctor.
E. Use of photoplethysmography to detect a heartbeat.
Q.187) As per the passage, can smartwatch be used as a substitute for medical
professionals?
A. Yes, definitely
B. Yes, partially
C. No, definitely
D. No, partially
E. Cannot be determined
Q.188) From the following, find the word which means similar to the word given in
bold: Palpitations
A. closing
B. stability
C. retreat
D. motionless

E. thumping
Q.189) From the following, find the word which means opposite to the word given in
bold: Infallible
A. errant
B. apodictic
C. efficacious
D. impeccable
E. uncanny
Q.190) From the following, find the word which means opposite to the word given in
bold. Invasive.
A. incursive
B. defensive
C. invading
D. encroaching
E. trespassing
(Directions 191-193): Each question contains three statements, one or more of

which may not be grammatically correct. You are required to identify the
incorrect statements from the options given below and mark that as your answer.
Q.191) I. The IMF has pressed Pakistan to improve tax revenue collection.
II. Pakistani rupee had depreciated by 30 percent again the U.S. dollar.
III. Pakistan’s credit rating were downgraded by S&P, which cited diminished
growth prospects.
A. Only II
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only III
E. All are correct
Q.192) I. The top auditor must recuse himself from auditing the deal.
II. The Congress has claimed that the previous deal includes a technology transfer
agreement with HAL.
III. The NDA has not disclosed details of the price as of yet.
A. Only II
B. Only I and II
C. Only I and III
D. Only III
E. All are correct

Q.193) I. The Rafale issue was raised before the Supreme Court, which did not find
any substance in the allegations.
II. Finance Secretary is only a designation given to the senior most secretary in
the finance ministry.
III. Under the original proposal, 18 warplanes were to be procured in a fly-away
condition.
A. Only II
B. Only I and II
C. Only I and III
D. Only III
E. All are correct
(Directions 194-198): In the following passage, some of the words have been
made bold, each of which is preceded by a letter. Find the suitable word from the
options given below that could replace the bold word so as to make the paragraph
meaningful.
Former RBI Governor Raghuram Rajan’s note of caution on the next financial crisis that
could be building up needs to be taken in all ___A___ consideration. In his note to
Parliament’s Estimates Committee on bank non-performing assets (NPAs), Mr. Rajan
has ___B___ established three major sources of potential trouble: Mudra credit, which is
basically small-ticket loans granted to micro and small enterprises; ___C___ contributing
to farmers through Kisan Credit Cards; and contingent liabilities under the Credit
Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs, run by the Small Industries Development Bank of India.
The disbursement under Mudra loans alone is ?6.37 lakh crore, which is over 7% of the
total outstanding bank credit. These loans have been ___D___ sanctioned under the
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, which aims to ‘fund the unfunded’, and is a ___E___
signature scheme of the NDA government. Given that these are small loans up to Rs10
lakh each, with the borrowers mostly from the informal sector, banks have to monitor
them very closely. It is debatable whether banks have the resources and manpower to
do this when they are chasing the bigger borrowers for business and, increasingly these
days, recoveries. The risk is that these small-ticket loans will drop under the radar and
build into a large credit issue in course of time. The same logic holds true for crop loans
made through Kisan Credit Cards.
Q.194) Fill in the blank A.

A. constitution
B. yield
C. seriousness
D. stability
E. no replacement required
Q.195) Fill in the blank B.

A. utilized

B. determined
C. flagged
D. guessed
E. No replacement required
Q.196) Fill in the blank C.

A. borrowing
B. lending
C. helping
D. assisting
Q.197) Fill in the blank D.

A. processed
B. given
C. distributed
D. disturbed
Q.198) Fill in the blank E.

A. promising
B. loyal
C. trademark
D. capable
I.199) In each of the questions given below, a phrase/idiom is given in BOLD

followed by five sentences with some part of it as CAPITALS. You have to identify
the sentence in which the bold part can be replaced by the given bold
phrase/idiom to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Q.199) Entered upon

A. I have no time to ENGAGE IN tittle-tattle.
B. The president has just MOVED ON another term of office
C. There is a narrow bridge ahead, so you should EASE DOWN.
D. She LAID ASIDE her knitting to rest her eyes for a moment.
E. He LAUNCHED INTO a long series of excuses for his behaviour
I.200) In each of the questions given below, a phrase/idiom is given in BOLD

followed by five sentences with some part of it as CAPITALS. You have to identify
the sentence in which the bold part can be replaced by the given bold
phrase/idiom to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q.200) Profit From
A. When I tried to lift the cup, the handle CAME OFF.
B. The army was PULLED OFF from the valley after the battle
C. His protracted illness has PULLED HIM DOWN a lot.
D. I have immensely SALVAGED FROM her sound advice
E. He worked hard to PROVIDE FOR his large family.

OECD INTERIM REPORT PASSAGE
Passage: An organisation which is headquartered in Paris, has collaborated and joined

hands with an organisation headquartered in Washington, D.C.
One question on Interim Report released by OECD in March 2021 with title
“Strengthening the recovery: The need for speed”. This Interim Report provides updates
for global and G20 country projections made in the December 2020 issue of the OECD
Economic Outlook (Number 108).
Q.1) Which one of the following organisations has released the report mentioned in the
passage? (2 marks)
Static or Current – CURRENT

1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKER
Economics or Social Issues – ECONOMICS
Difficulty Level – MODERATE
Topic – INTERNATIONAL ECONOMIC INSTITUTIONS
Options:
(a) World Bank – Global Economic Prospects

(b) IMF – World Economic Outlook
(c) OECD – OECD Economic Outlook
(d) WEF – Global Competitiveness Report
(e) WTO – World Trade Monitoring Report
Answer: (c) OECD – OECD Economic Outlook
Explanation:
http://www.oecd.org/economic-outlook/march-2021/
Dear Students,
It is with great pleasure that we present to you this question paper document with detailed
explanations for the RBI Grade B 2021 – Phase 2 exam. This document has been meticulously
to serve as a valuable resource for candidates preparing for the RBI Grade B officer exam.
Aspiring candidates are often confused about the pattern, difficulty level and types of
questions that may appear in their upcoming exam.
Each question has been carefully solved, and its underlying concepts and principles have been
thoroughly explained. This will help you in not only to practice answering questions but also
helps you understand the reasoning and logic behind each correct answer. Through
explanations, you will be able to reinforce your understanding, clarify any doubts, and
develop a deeper grasp of the subject matter.
We wish you all the best in your exam preparation journey and hope that this document
proves to be a valuable asset in your pursuit of success.
Disclaimer: While every effort has been made to ensure the accuracy and relevance of the
questions, there can be some variations in the question language and options. Therefore, we
encourage you to use these questions as a reference point. This will help you acquire a
comprehensive understanding of the syllabus and increase your chances of success in the
upcoming RBI Grade B officer exam.

Para 1. A passage on Organizational Behavior was given which was followed
by 3 questions i.e Q. 1-3
The economic, political, and social frameworks that each society has - its laws,
institutions, policies, etc. - result in different distributions of benefits and
burdens across members of the society. These frameworks are the result of
human political processes and they constantly change both across societies and
within societies over time. The structure of these frameworks is important
because the distributions of benefits and burdens resulting from them
fundamentally affect people’s lives.
(This is a recreated passage and not the exact one asked in the exam)
Q.1) Which type of justice relates to employees input to appropriate Rewards/Output?
(2 marks)
Static or Current – STATIC

Finance or Management – MANAGEMENT
Difficulty Level – EASY
Topic – MOTIVATION
Options:
(a) Distributive Justice

(b) Integrative Justice
(c) Procedural Justice
(d) Social Justice
(e) Economic Justice
Answer: Distributive Justice
Explanation:
Distributive justice is conceptualized as the fairness associated with decision outcomes and
distribution of resources. The outcomes or resources distributed may be tangible (e.g.,
pay) or intangible (e.g., praise). Perceptions of distributive justice can be fostered when
outcomes are perceived to be equally applied.
Also, distributive justice can be viewed as capitalist justice: ratio of one's inputs to one's
outcomes.

Distributive justice is composed of three main component: Equity, Equality and need.
Equity focus more on rewarding employees based on their contribution. Equality on the
other hand provide each employee with the same compensation. Finally, need is providing
a benefit based on one's personal requirement.
Q.2) Which of the following will involve the study of psychological aspects? (2 marks)

Topic – ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
Options:
(a) Personality and Motivation

(b) Mental Intelligence
(c) Merit Rating
(d) 360-degree appraisal
(e) None of Above
Answer: (a) Personality and Motivation
Explanation:
Personality and Motivation are related with the behavioral aspect of an Individual and thus
the study of both will involve the psychological aspects.
Q.3) Which subject deals with formation and management of team? (2 marks)

1 marker or 2 marker – 2 MARKS
Topic – ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
Options:
(a) Sociology
(b) Anthropology
(c) Psychology
(d) Archaeology
(e) None of Above
Answer: (a) Sociology
Explanation:
Sociology investigates the structure of groups, organizations, and societies, and how
people interact within these contexts.
Para 2. A passage on Electronic Toll Collection was given which was followed
by 2 questions i.e Q. 4-5.
______ has developed the _______program to meet the electronic tolling requirements of
the Indian market. It offers an interoperable nationwide toll payment solution including
clearing house services for settlement and dispute management. Interoperability, as it
applies to _______ system, encompasses a common set of processes, business rules and
technical specifications which enable a customer to use their ______ accounts as payment
mode on any of the toll plazas irrespective of who has acquired the toll plaza.
Q.4) The paragraph is talking about the _____ system and ______ account (2 marks)
Static or Current – CURRENT AFFAIRS

Finance or Management – FINANCE
Topic – FINTECH
Options:
a) NFS; Bank
b) NETC; FASTag
c) NHAI; Bank
d) NFS; FASTag
e) None of the above
Answer: b) NETC; FASTag
Explanation:
The paragraph was discussing about Nation E-toll Collection system (NETC).
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has developed the National Electronic Toll
Collection (NETC) program to meet the electronic tolling requirements of the Indian

market. It offers an interoperable nationwide toll payment solution including clearing
house services for settlement and dispute management.
Q.5) Who introduced National E-Toll Collection (NETC) system to meet the electronic
tolling requirements of the Indian market? (2 marks)

Topic – FINTECH
Options:
a) RBI
b) NPCI
c) SEBI
d) SBI
e) SIDBI
Answer: (a) NPCI

Para 3. A passage on Capital Market was given which was followed by the
following 3 questions i.e Q. 6-8.
Q.6) Which of the following is true? (2 marks)
I. SEBI is the regulator of commodity markets

II. RBI is the regulator of NBFCs
III. SEBI is the regulator of Capital Market

Topic – PRIMARY AND SECONDARY MARKET
Options:
(a) Only I
(b) I and III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only
(e) None of the above
Answer: (c) I, II and III
Explanation:
On 28 September 2015, the FMC was merged with the Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) to make the regulation of commodity market strong. SEBI is also the regulator
of Capital Market in India.
RBI regulates the NBFC registered within the framework of the Reserve Bank of India Act,
1934 (Chapter III-B) and the directions issued by it.
Q.7) According to a circular released by SEBI in 2018, apart from ASBA process, applicants
can also apply for an IPO through ________. (2 marks)

Topic – PRIMARY AND SECONDARY MARKET – EQUITY MARKET
Options:

(a) UPI
(b) NACH
(c) IMPS
(d) NEFT
(e) NONE OF THE ABOVE
Answer: (a) UPI
Explanation:
Though the applicants can make an application via UPI since 2018, but news is part of
current affairs as recently SEBI has issued a circular regarding Streamlining the process of
IPOs with UPI in ASBA and redressal of investors grievances.
Q.8) ASBA applications can be made through _______ (2 marks)

Topic – PRIMARY AND SECONDARY MARKET – EQUITY MARKET
Options:
(a) POST OFFICE

(b) SCSBs
(c) Any Commercial Bank
(d) Only through RBI
Answer: (b) SCSBs

Explanation:
ASBA means “Application Supported by Blocked Amount”. ASBA is an application by an

investor containing an authorization to Self-Certified Syndicate Bank (SCSB) to block the
application money in the bank account, for subscribing to an issue. If an investor is applying
through ASBA, his application money shall be debited from the bank account only if his/her
application is selected for allotment after the basis of allotment is finalized.
Para 4. A passage on Infrastructure and PPP was given which was followed by
3 questions i.e Q. 9-11.
Introduced in January 2016 to revive investments in road infrastructure projects, ____ has
seen good initial success. It is a mix of the EPC (engineering, procurement, and
construction) and BOT (build, operate, transfer) models. Under the EPC model, NHAI pays
private players to lay roads. The private player has no role in the road’s ownership, toll
collection or maintenance (it is taken care of by the government). Under the BOT model
though, private players have an active role — they build, operate, and maintain the road
for a specified number of years — say 10-15 years — before transferring the asset back to
the government.
Q.9) Which model is described in the passage? (2 marks)

Topic – PUBLIC PRIVATE PARTNERSHIP
Options:
(a) BOT
(b) BOOT
(c) DBFO
(d) HAM
(e) NONE OF THE ABOVE
Answer: (d) HAM
Explanation:

Taking into account the struggle of various types of PPP projects especially in highway
construction, the Union Government in 2016 approved hybrid annuity model (HAM) to
fast-track highway projects, revive the Public-Private-Partnership (PPP) mode and attract
more investments in the sector.
Hybrid Annuity Model is a mix of the EPC and BOT models. The government will contribute
to 40% of the project cost in the first five years through annual payments (annuity). The
balance 60 per cent is arranged by the developer and is recovered as variable annuity
amount after the completion of the project from NHAI which collects revenue.
Q.10) In the above model the support provided by the govt during the construction phase
and later in annuities during the operation phase will be in the ratio of ____. What will
come in the place of the blank? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) 20:80
(b) 50:50
(c) 40:60
(d) 70:30
(e) 10:90
Answer: (c) 40:60
Explanation:
Hybrid Annuity Model is a mix of the EPC and BOT models. The government will contribute
to 40% of the project cost in the first five years through annual payments (annuity). The
balance 60 per cent is arranged by the developer and is recovered as variable annuity
amount after the completion of the project from NHAI which collects revenue.

Q.11) In which sector the PPP model is majorly used? (2 mark)

Options:
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Infrastructure
(c) Textiles
(d) Food Processing
Answer: (b) Infrastructure
Explanation:
Infrastructure is the major sector that majorly involve the PPP model. From Railways to
roads to construction of ports, PPP plays a dominant role in the Infrastructure sector.
Para 5. A passage on Organizational change was given which was followed by

2 questions i.e., Q. 12-13.
__________refers to the actions in which a company or business alters a major component
of its organization, such as its culture, the underlying technologies or infrastructure it uses
to operate, or its internal processes.
Q.12) What the paragraph is talking about? (2 mark)

Topic – ORGANIZATIONAL CHANGE
Options:
(a) Organizational Change

(b) Organizational Structure
(c) Organizational Conflict
(d) Organizational Justice
Answer: (a) Organizational Change
Explanation:
Organizational change refers to the actions in which a company or business alters a major
component of its organization, such as its culture, the underlying technologies or
infrastructure it uses to operate, or its internal processes.
Q.13) What is the name of the second stage of the Lewin Model? (2 mark)

Options:
(a) Change
(b) Development
(c) Resistance
(d) Compliance
Answer: (a) Change
Explanation:
Hence the second stage in Lewin Model is Change.

Para 6. A passage on Financial Markets was given which was followed by the
following 3 questions i.e Q. 14-16.
Q.14) Which of the following is the regulator of Capital Market? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) NPCI
(d) SBI
(e) NSE
Answer: (a) SEBI
Q.15) Which of the following are depositories? (2 marks)
I. NSDL
II. CDSL
III. CCIL
IV. CRISIL

Options:
(a) I and II only

(b) I, II and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) III and IV only
(e) All of the above
Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:
Depositories may be organizations, banks, or institutions that hold securities and assist in
the trading of securities. Currently there are two depositories operational in India.
1) Central Depository Services Ltd. (CDSL)
2) National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL)
Q.16) Name of the Payment Regulator formed in 2007? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) NPCI
(b) CCIL
(c) Paytm
(d) BBPS
Answer: (a) NPCI
Explanation:
An initiative of RBI and IBA under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems
Act, 2007, NPCI was initiated for creating a robust payment and settlement infrastructure
in the country.
Para 7. A passage on language translation was given which was followed by 3

questions i.e., Q. 17-19.
Bhashantra, an event addressing Indian Languages was organized by FICCI, Technology
Development for Indian Languages (TDIL), Ministry of Electronics and IT, Govt. of India, and
Indian Cellular Association (ICA) in New Delhi under the joint sponsorship of Google and
Devnagri. The event took place on 30th July 2018 and it had a direct concern about the
Indian language usage and its real-time translation for Indic Lingula’s.

Moving a step ahead the IT ministry introduced ________, a software that can make
editing of text printed on scanned documents happen. The software was made free for
Indian language users, they can format the text & can keep it in a separate file as well.
Q.17) The event highlighted in the passage will try to address what type of barrier in
communication? (2 marks)

Topic – COMMUNICATION
Options:
(a) Linguistic
(b) Psychological
(c) Emotional Barriers.
(d) Physical Barriers.
(e) Cultural Barriers
Answer: (a) Linguistic
Explanation:
A language barrier is a figurative phrase used primarily to refer to linguistic barriers to

communication, i.e., the difficulties in communication experienced by people or groups
originally speaking different languages, or even dialects in some cases.
Q.18 Which of the following is the software as highlighted in above passage, has been
launched by the government to overcome the barriers in communication in local
languages? (2 Marks)

Difficulty Level – DIFFICULT
Options:
(a) SWAYAM
(b) E-ShodhSindhu
(c) Swayam Prabha
(d) E-aksharayan
(e) E- shiksha
Answer: (d) E-aksharayan
Explanation:
e-Aksharayan is a desktop software for converting scanned printed Indian language

documents into a fully editable text format in Unicode encoding.
Q.19 What is the name of the mission announced by the government in the union budget
2021 to provide big boost to regional languages? (2 Marks)

Topic – UNION BUDGET
Options:
(a) National Language Translation Mission
(b) National Linguistic Mission
(c) National Language Mission
(d) National Mission for Manuscripts
(e) None of Above
Answer: (a) National Language Translation Mission
Explanation:
The National Language Translation Mission, announced in Union Budget 2021-22, will use
artificial intelligence, machine learning and speech recognition technologies to build the
next generation government apps and websites that will be “conversational” like Amazon's
Alexa or Apple’s Siri.
The Mission will work towards creating a “voice-based internet” which will be accessible
in popular Indian languages and not be dominated by Hindi or English.

Para 8. A passage on Regulatory Sandbox was given which was followed one
question i.e Q. 20.
Q.20 Recently, RBI has released second ______ with the theme “Cross Border Payments”
under the ____ for live testing of new products or services in a controlled/test regulatory
environment. (2 Marks)

Topic – FINTECH
Options:
(a) Cohort, Regulatory Sandbox
(b) Seminar, Regulatory Sanddunes
(c) Coverage, Reserve Box
(d) Statement, Reserve Platform
Answer: (a) Cohort, Regulatory Sandbox
Explanation:
Regulatory sandbox refers to live testing of new products or services in a controlled/test

regulatory environment for which regulators may permit certain relaxations for the limited
purpose of the testing.
The RS allows the regulator, innovators, financial service providers and customers to
conduct field tests to collect evidence on the benefits and risks of new products and
systems.
--------------------x--------------------x---------------------x--------------------x-------------------------

Q.21) Which of the following is a Revenue expenditure? (1 mark)
I. Subsidies
II. Interest Payments
III. Loan to State Government

Options:
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only I and II
Answer: (d) Only I and II
Explanation:
Revenue Expenditure is that part of government expenditure that does not result in the
creation of assets. Payment of salaries, wages, pensions, subsidies and interest fall in this
category as revenue expenditure examples.
Q.22) Which type of perceptual error sees an Individual as a part of a group? (1 mark)

Topic – PERSONALITY AND PERCEPTION
Options:
(a) Stereotyping
(b) Illusion
(c) Hallucination
(d) Halo Effect
Answer: (a) Stereotyping

Explanation:
In social psychology, a stereotype is any thought widely adopted about specific types of
individuals or certain ways of behaving intended to represent the entire group of those
individuals or behaviors as a whole. These thoughts or beliefs may or may not accurately
reflect reality.
Q.23) Which of the following is a process theory? (1 mark)

Options:
(a) Maslow’s hierarchy of Needs

(b) McClelland theory of Learned Needs
(c) Theory X and Theory Y
(d) Vroom’s Expectancy theory
Answer: (d) Vroom’s Expectancy theory
Explanation:

Q.24) According to Johari Window, Quadrant known to self but not known to others is
called as_______ (1 mark)

Topic – EMOTIONAL INTELLIGENCE AND INTERPERSONAL BEHAVIOUR
Options:
(a) Open
(b) Blind
(c) Hidden
(d) Unknown
(e) None of above
Answer: (c) Hidden
Explanation:
Q.25) What is maximum limit of FDI in under government approved mechanism in Public
Sector Banks, Maximum permissible FDI in Private Banks and maximum individual stake
in bank? (1 mark)

Topic – CHANGING LANDSCAPE IN BANKING SECTOR
Options:
(a) 40:100:10
(b) 20:74:10
(c) 26:49:26
(d) 74:100:26
(e) None of Above
Answer: (b) 20:74:10
Explanation:
Q.26) Two banks Fuddy and Guddy has the same number of outstanding shares, equity
capital, dividend and earning. But the Market price of Fuddy is 1800 and of Guddy is 600.
Which of the following is true? (1 mark)

Options:
(a) P/E of one is Higher than the other
(b) EPS of one is Higher than other
(c) Book value of one is Higher than other
(d) Dividend of one is Higher than other

Answer: (a) P/E of one is Higher than the other
Explanation:
• The price-earnings ratio (P/E ratio) relates a company's share price to its earnings
per share.
• In the question, Earning per share (E) is same for both the banks and Fuddy has a
price of each share (P) as Rs 1800 and Guddy has a price of each share as Rs 600.
• Therefore, P/E for Fuddy is higher than P/E of Guddy. Hence answer (a) is correct.
Q.27) If a translator is not proficient in 2 language, what type of barrier it creates in

communication? (1 mark)

Options:
(a) Physical
(b) Semantic
(c) System
(d) Psychological
(e) None of Above
Answer: (b) Semantic
Explanation:
The Semantic Barriers refers to the misunderstanding between the sender and receiver
arising due to the different meanings of words, and other symbols used in the
communication. Hence, If a translator is not proficient in 2 language, barrier it creates is
Semantic barrier.
Q.28) Which of the following theory suggests making communication in an organization

based on Hierarchy, highly structured, and formalized? (1 mark)

Topic – GENERAL MANAGEMENT
Options:
(a) Frederick Taylor – Theory of Scientific Management.

(b) Henri Fayol – Administrative Management Theory.
(c) Max Weber - Bureaucratic Theory of Management.
(d) Elton Mayo – Behavioral Theory of Management
Answer: (c) Max Weber - Bureaucratic Theory of Management.
Explanation:
Max Weber, a German scientist, defines bureaucracy as a highly structured, formalized,

and also an impersonal organization. He also instituted the belief that an organization
must have a defined hierarchical structure and clear rules, regulations, and lines of
authority which govern it.
Q.29) During Merger and Acquisitions, which of the following are relevant to Change
Management: (1 mark)
I. Digital Transformation
II. Smooth Transition
III. Restructuring

Options:
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only
Answer: (a) All of the above
Explanation:
Planned change (Merger and acquisition) involves preparing the total organization or a
major portion of it, to adapt to significant changes in the organization’s goals and way of

its working. In such changes, alterations are made in structure, technology, task, and
people of the organization.
Merger and acquisition may require alteration with technology and hence option I i.e.,
Digital transformation is relevant during change management.
Merger and acquisition may affect people within the organization and thus transition
should be smooth. Hence option II is correct.
Merger and Acquisition might alter the structure of the organization and hence option III
Restructuring is correct.
Q.30) Low employee turnover in a company indicates which of the following? (1 mark)

Options:
(a) High number of Employees Leaving the Organization

(b) Employees are committed towards the Organization
(c) Low Morale of Employees with the Organization
(d) All of the Above
Answer: (b) Employees are committed towards the Organization
Explanation:

Question Paper Analysis: OBJECTIVE
TABLE 1
FINANCE & Static or Difficulty
Question # Marks Topic
MANAGEMENT Current Level
1 2 MANAGEMENT MOTIVATION STATIC EASY
ORGANIZATIONAL
2 2 MANAGEMENT STATIC EASY
BEHAVIOUR
ORGANIZATIONAL
BEHAVIOUR
4 2 FINANCE FINTECH CURRENT MODERATE
5 2 FINANCE FINTECH CURRENT EASY
PRIMARY AND
6 2 FINANCE STATIC EASY
SECONDARY MARKET
PRIMARY AND
7 2 FINANCE CURRENT MODERATE
SECONDARY MARKET
PRIMARY AND
8 2 FINANCE CURRENT MODERATE
SECONDARY MARKET
PUBLIC PRIVATE
PARTNERSHIP
PUBLIC PRIVATE
PARTNERSHIP
PUBLIC PRIVATE
11 2 FINANCE CURRENT EASY
PARTNERSHIP
ORGANIZATIONAL
CHANGE
ORGANIZATIONAL
CHANGE
PRIMARY AND
SECONDARY MARKET
PRIMARY AND
SECONDARY MARKET
PRIMARY AND
SECONDARY MARKET
17 2 MANAGEMENT COMMUNICATION STATIC EASY
18 2 MANAGEMENT COMMUNICATION CURRENT DIFFICULT
19 2 FINANCE UNION BUDGET CURRENT EASY
20 2 FINANCE FINTECH CURRENT EASY
21 1 FINANCE UNION BUDGET STATIC EASY
PERSONALITY AND
PERCEPTION
EMOTIONAL
INTELLIGENCE AND
INTERPERSONAL
BEHAVIOUR
CHANGING
25 1 FINANCE LANDSCAPE IN CURRENT MODERATE
BANKING SECTOR
PRIMARY AND
26 1 FINANCE STATIC MODERATE
SECONDARY MARKET

27 1 MANAGEMENT COMMUNICATION STATIC EASY
GENERAL
MANAGEMENT
ORGANIZATIONAL
29 1 MANAGEMENT STATIC MODERATE
CHANGE
TABLE 2
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL MARKS
SUBJECT
QUESTIONS ASKED ALLOCATED
FINANCE 16 29
MANAGEMENT 14 21
TABLE 3
TOTAL NUMBER OF
DIFFICULTY LEVEL
QUESTIONS ASKED
EASY 23
MODERATE 6
DIFFICULT 1
Important take away from Table 1,2 and 3
❖ Finance was given more weightage (~60%) than Management (~40%).

❖ Overall objective paper was on easier side.
Finance Analysis
Finance Marks Distribution Static / Current
3 Marks
2 Marker Static
15 Marks 14 Marks
1 Marker Current
26 Marks

Syllabus Wise Distribution of Marks
CHANGING LANDSCAPE IN BANKING SECTOR 1
FINTECH 6
UNION BUDGET 3
PPP 6
PRIMARY AND SECONDARY MARKET 13
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
Important take away from Finance Analysis.
❖ Current Affairs were given almost equal weightage when compared with Static
Syllabus.
❖ Current Affairs asked were slightly on different lines when compared to previous
year papers.
❖ No Numerical asked
❖ No questions on newly added topics like Global Financial Crisis, Global Financial
Markets and International Banking
❖ Static was on easier side.
Management Analysis
Management Marks Static / Current

Distribution
2 Marks
7 Marks Current
2 Marker
Static
1 Marker
14 Marks
19 Marks

GENERAL MANAGEMENT 1
EMOTIONAL INTELLIGENCE AND INTERPERSONAL BEHAVIOUR 1
MOTIVATION 4
PERSONALITY & PERCEPTION 1
ORGANIZATIONAL CHANGE 5
COMMUNICATION 5
ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR 4
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Important take away from Management Analysis.
❖ First time- Current affair related question has been asked.

❖ No question on Ethics (One of the most hyped Topic).
❖ Management questions were slightly on the application side.

DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Question-1: Discuss 5 announcements of Union Budget 2021? (400 words, 10 marks)

Solution: Below mentioned are the different dimensions to be covered in Answer and
not the exact answer
Answer could be written based on 5 different pillar of the budget and announcements
within each of the pillar.
Or
Answer could also be written based on Five different Sectors of Economy also.
Health and Sanitation: PM Atma Nirbhar Swasthya Bharat Yojana, Mission POSHAN
2.0 , JJM Urban etc.
Education: 100 new Sainik Schools to be set up , 750 Eklavya schools to be set up in
tribal areas , A Central University to come up in Ladakh etc.
Infrastructure: Vehicle scrapping policy, Highway and road, National Asset Monetising
Pipeline launched, etc.
Tax: No IT filing for people above 75 years, PF etc.
Economy and Finance – Bank Recapitalization, FDI etc.

Question-2: What is Transformational leadership and Transactional Leadership? State
difference in transactional leader and transformational leader. (400 words, 10 marks)

Topic – LEADERSHIP
About Transactional leadership: Transactional leadership, also known as managerial leadership,

focuses on the role of supervision, organization, and group performance. Leaders who implement this
style focus on specific tasks and use rewards and punishments to motivate followers.
About Transformational leadership: Transformational leadership is a leadership style that can inspire
positive changes in those who follow. Transformational leaders are generally energetic, enthusiastic,
and passionate. Not only are these leaders concerned and involved in the process; they are also
focused on helping every member of the group succeed as well.
Further Point of difference between both the leadership Styles.

Question-3: What is Corporate Governance. Define it’s need and Principles. (600 words,
15 marks)

Topic – CORPORATE GOVERNANCE
About Corporate Governance: Corporate governance broadly refers to the mechanisms, processes
and relations by which corporations are controlled and directed. Corporate governance includes
the processes through which corporations' objectives are set and pursued in the context of the
social, regulatory and market environment. Corporate Governance is a dynamic practice
consisting of internal control provisions and procedures to manage a company.
Its Importance:
1) To enhance corporate sustainability

2) Shareholders activism is valued and encouraged
3) Continuous flow of information and feedback
4) Improve gender equity and diversity
5) Enhances goodwill of the company
Principles of Corporate Governance:

Question-4: Discuss –SIDBI, NHB , NABARD, RRB and EXIM. (600 words, 15 marks)

Topic – FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS
Different dimension to be covered in answer regarding each of the institutions are:
1) Introduction about the Financial Institution

2) Organizational Structure
3) Need and Functions of the Financial Institution

Question-5: What are Basel Norms? Discuss major pillars of Basel III. (600 words, 15
marks)

Topic – RISK MANAGEMENT IN BANKING SECTOR

Question-6: What is Behavioural Reinforcement? Discuss the Positive and negative
Behaviour reinforcements in brief. (400 words, 10 marks)

Topic – CONCEPT OF REINFORCEMENT
Solution: Below mentioned are the different dimensions to be covered in answer and
About Behavioural Reinforcement: Reinforcement is a fundamental concept of Operant

Conditioning, whose major objective is to increase the rate of certain undesired behavior
from occurring again. It is a consequence applied that will strengthen an organism's future
behavior whenever that behavior is preceded by a specific antecedent stimulus.
About Positive Reinforcement and Negative Reinforcement

Descriptive Type Question Paper Analysis
Marks Distribution 50/75
Management
47% - 35 Finance
Marks 53% - 40
Marks
Finance Management

CONCEPT OF REINFORCEMENT 10
CORPORATE GOVERNANCE 15
LEADERSHIP 10
RISK MANAGEMENT 15
FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS 15
UNION BUDGET 10
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16

Important take Away
❖ Question asked in the descriptive section were direct and easy.

❖ No Current Affairs related question has been asked in Finance except
Budget.
❖ No question from the newly added topics:
o Finance: Global Financial Crisis, Global Financial Markets and
International Banking
o Management: Ethics
Important Note for future Aspirants
Being the first paper after the changed pattern, don’t consider that the same
will be repeated. It is expected that in the future exams, the level of Descriptive
paper will increase which might require strong analytical ability and updation
from current affairs.

Dear Students,

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
OECD INTERIM REPORT PASSAGE
Passage: An organisation which is headquartered in Paris, has collaborated and joined

hands with an organisation headquartered in Washington, D.C.
One question on Interim Report released by OECD in March 2021 with title
“Strengthening the recovery: The need for speed”. This Interim Report provides updates
for global and G20 country projections made in the December 2020 issue of the OECD
Economic Outlook (Number 108).
Q.1) Which one of the following organisations has released the report mentioned in the
passage? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) World Bank – Global Economic Prospects

(b) IMF – World Economic Outlook
(c) OECD – OECD Economic Outlook
(d) WEF – Global Competitiveness Report
(e) WTO – World Trade Monitoring Report
Answer: (c) OECD – OECD Economic Outlook
Explanation:
http://www.oecd.org/economic-outlook/march-2021/

Q.2) What has been the most common measure taken by governments around the world
to help alleviate the stress on cash-strapped small businesses, which was taken by 77%
of the governments? (2 marks)

Difficulty Level – TOUGH
Options:
(a) Moratorium in loan payments

(b) Decrease in interest rate
(c) Public loan guarantee
(d) Cash Flow Loans
Answer: (b) Decrease in Interest Rate
Q.3) As per the report mentioned in the passage, what is the GDP projection of India for
fiscal year 2021-22? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) 14.2%
(b) 10%
(c) 8%
(d) 9.5%
(e) 12.6%
Answer: (e) 12.6%
Explanation:

Q.4) As per the passage, growing global economic interdependence means that the
socio-economic prospects of OECD countries will be ever more tightly linked to that of (2
marks)

Options:
(a) Benefit of developed economies only

(b) Benefit on on-developed economies only
(c) Benefit of volatile economies only
(d) Benefit of developing and transition economies
Answer: (d) Benefit of developing and transition economies

Explanation:
Developing countries, with 80% of the world's population, will assume a central role in
ensuring sustainable development in the 21st century. What occurs in developing
countries will have a significant bearing on critical issues like preserving global peace and
political stability and maintaining the viability of global commons, notably the earth's
atmosphere and biological resources. In addition, growing global economic
interdependence means that the socio-economic prospects of OECD countries will be ever
more tightly linked to that of developing and transition countries. Non-member countries
will play a critical role in expanding the global economy, combating poverty and achieving
sustainable environmental and population balances. Although facing such issues as rapid
population growth, food security and desertification, as well as destabilising health trends
like the spread HIV/AIDS, non-member countries must seize the opportunities brought by
globalisation, (for increased trade and investment linkages, more efficient resource use,
and the transfer of capital, technology), and find sustainable means for dealing with its
challenges. Central to the success of developing countries is the establishment of strong
policy frameworks to help attract trade and investment and ensure that these flows
benefit society. For many countries achieving these goals will require external assistance.
https://www.oecd.org/greengrowth/sustainabledevelopmentcriticalissues-
freeoverviewofthereport.htm#:~:text=In%20addition%2C%20growing%20global%20econ
omic,of%20developing%20and%20transition%20countries
Q.5) Which of the following country will be a major contributor in controlling population
and environmental stress? (2 marks)

Topic – INTERNATIONAL ECONOMIC INSTITUTIONS / SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
Options:
(a) China
(b) Mexico
(c) USA
(d) UK
(e) Canada
Answer: (a) China

Link from where the passage was picked up: https://www.oecd-
ilibrary.org/deliver/34bfd999-en.pdf?itemId=%2Fcontent%2Fpublication%2F34bfd999-
en&mimeType=pdf
PASSAGE ON URABANISATION SCHEME (JNNURM / AMRUT)
Q.6) What is the full form of SAAP under the AMRUT scheme? (2 marks)

Economics or Social Issues – SOCIAL ISSUES
Topic – URBANISATION AND MIGRATION
Options:
(a) Sovereign Annual Action Plan

(b) State Annual Action Plan
(c) State Augmented Action Plan
(d) Scheme Action Annual Plan
Answer: (b) State Annual Action Plan
Explanation:
Shri Durga Shanker Mishra, Secretary, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) was
informed that out of 136 projects taken up by the State of Haryana, 63 projects costing Rs.
693 crore have been completed and 73 projects worth Rs 1,875 crore are under
implementation. The total approved State Annual Action Plan (SAAP) was Rs 2,566 crore
for the state of Haryana.
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1652949#:~:text=Review%20of%2
0Progress%20of%20AMRUT%20in%20Haryana%2C%20Punjab%20and%20Chandigarh&te
xt=The%20total%20approved%20State%20Annual,for%20the%20state%20of%20Haryana

Q.7) Which of the following is not correct regarding the purpose of the scheme referred
to in the paragraph? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) Ensure that every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a
sewerage connection.
(b) Increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well maintained open
spaces (parks).
(c) Reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-
motorized transport.
(d) Preserve character of the soul of heritage city and facilitate inclusive heritage linked
urban development by exploring various avenues including involving private sector.
Answer: (d) Preserve character of the soul of heritage city and facilitate inclusive heritage
linked urban development by exploring various avenues including involving private
sector.
Explanation:
The purpose of Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) is to (i)
ensure that every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a
sewerage connection; (ii) increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and
well maintained open spaces (parks); and (iii) reduce pollution by switching to public
transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized transport (e.g. walking and cycling).
The main objective of HRIDAY is to preserve character of the soul of heritage city and
facilitate inclusive heritage linked urban development by exploring various avenues
including involving private sector. Specific objectives are: Planning, development and
implementation of heritage sensitive infrastructure.

Q.8) Financial sharing basis of Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(AMRUT) scheme between Centre and State is done on. (2 marks)

Options:
(a) 60:40 basis

(b) 50:50 basis
(c) 70:30 basis
(d) 80:20 basis
(e) None of these
Answer: (b) 50:50 basis
Explanation:
EduTap Schemes Tap October 2020

Q.9) Which scheme has replaced the scheme mentioned in passage? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) PMAY
(b) HRIDAY
(c) AMRUT
(d) Smart City Mission
Answer: (c) AMRUT
Q.10) By how many years has the AMRUT scheme been extended? (2 marks)

Options:
(a) 2 Years
(b) 3 Years
(c) 4 Years
(d) 5 Years
(e) None of these
Answer: (a) 2 years
Explanation:
Unable to meet set targets for urban renewal in 500 cities, the Centre has decided to
extend the mission period of its flagship initiative Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
Transformation (AMRUT) by two more years.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/mission-on-urban-
renewal-extended-by-2-yrs-to-2022/articleshow/72861874.cms

PASSAGE ON PM KISAN SCHEME
Q.11) In December 2020, how much money was credited into the accounts of beneficiary
farmers under this scheme? (2 mark)

Topic – INDIAN AGRICULTURE
Options:
(a) Rs 10,000 crore

(b) Rs 18,000 crore
(c) Rs 35,000 crore
(d) Rs 13,000 crore
Answer: (b) Rs 18,000 crore
Explanation:
As the farmers' protests continue unabated, Prime Minister Narendra Modi addresses nine
crore farmers from six states via video conferencing on 25 December - former PM Atal
Bihari Vajpayee's birth anniversary. In today's meeting, PM Modi released the next
installment of the financial benefits - ₹18,000 crore - under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan
Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN).
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/pm-modi-interacts-with-farmers-releases-rs-18-
000-crore-pm-kisan-installment-11608876652381.html

Q.12) A fixed amount benefit is given to farmers after every 4 months under this scheme.
How much do they get annually? (2 mark)

Options:
(a) Rs 6000
(b) Rs 10000
(c) Rs 12000
(d) Rs 8000
Answer: (a) Rs 6000
Explanation:
Schemes Tap October 2020

Q.13) All landholder farmers’ families in the country are eligible for the PM-Kisan
Scheme, except (2 mark)

Statements
1. All Institutional Land holders

2. Former and present holders of constitutional posts
3. All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries
/Offices/Departments
4. All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year.
5. Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects
registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking
practices.
Options:
Choose the correct option
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
Explanation:
All landholder farmers’ families in the country are eligible for the PM-Kisan Scheme, except
those covered under the following exclusion criteria:
(I) All Institutional Land holders; and
(II) Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories
:
Former and present holders of constitutional posts
Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of Lok
Sabha/ Rajya Sabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councils,former and
present Mayors of Municipal Corporations, former and present Chairpersons of District
Panchayats.
All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries
/Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices
/Autonomous Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local
Bodies (Excluding Multi Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees)
All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year.
vi) Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects
registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practices.
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=190752
PASSAGE ON RBI’S LIQUIDITY MANAGEMENT FRAMEWORK
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) adopted a new liquidity management framework in which
there would be no fixed daily liquidity injection operations, but the central bank would act
whenever the banking system requires money. The ______ will remain the operating
target of the monetary policy, the RBI said, which means it will ensure enough liquidity to
anchor the call rate at around the repo rate.
Q.14) Which new liquidity management initiative has been adopted by RBI and also
discussed in the passage? (2 marks)

Topic – MONETARY AND FISCAL POLICY SINCE REFORMS OF 1991
Options:
(a) Open Market Operation

(b) Long Term Repo Operation
(c) Long Term Reverse Repo Operation
(d) FX Swaps
Answer: (b) Long Term Repo Operation.
Explanation:
When you’re trying to solve a problem, it helps to take inspiration from your peers. The
Reserve Bank of India, too, is not averse to taking cues from other central banks in
developed countries to come up with ideas to stimulate the economy during the
slowdown. First, it took a leaf out of the US Fed’s book and carried out ‘Operation Twist’,
to quell rising rates. Now it is hoping to roll out long-term repo operations (LTROs), taking
cues from the European Central Bank. On February 6, the RBI announced the infusion of
₹1 lakh crore into the system in phases, through the LTRO.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/slate/all-you-wanted-to-know-
about-ltro/article30905209.ece
Q.15) The operation discussed above is going to be linked to____ for operations (2
marks)

Options:
(a) Call Money Rate

(b) Repo Rate
(c) Reverse Repo Rate
(d) Weighted average call rate
Answer: (d) Weighted average call rate
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Thursday adopted a new liquidity management
framework in which there would be no fixed daily liquidity injection operations, but the
central bank would act whenever the banking system requires money. The weighted
average call rate (WACR) will remain the operating target of the monetary policy, the RBI
said, which means it will ensure enough liquidity to anchor the call rate at around the repo
rate.
https://www.business-standard.com/article/finance/monetary-policy-review-rbi-adopts-
a-new-liquidity-management-framework-120020601929_1.html

Q.16) What is the meaning of the italicized line in the passage? (2 marks)

Statements:
1. RBI will adopt Accommodative monetary policy.

2. RBI will adopt expansionary monetary policy.
3. RBI will adopt contractionary monetary policy.
4. The call rate inches above the repo rate, it would signal liquidity deficit and the central
bank will bring its tools to infuse liquidity
5. If the call rate is below the repo rate, that would mean the banking system has surplus
liquidity
Options:
(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 and 5 only
Answer: (d) 4 and 5
Explanation:
Which means if the call rate inches above the repo rate, it would signal liquidity deficit and
the central bank will bring its tools to infuse liquidity. Similarly, if the call rate is below the
repo rate, that would mean the banking system has surplus liquidity. In that case, the
central bank can operate to suck out the liquidity through its operations.
https://www.business-standard.com/article/finance/monetary-policy-review-rbi-adopts-
a-new-liquidity-management-framework-120020601929_1.html

Q.17) While getting rid of the 14 day fixed repo, the RBI said it will operate a 14-day term
repo/reverse repo operation at a variable rate that would be conducted to coincide with
the……… maintenance cycle: (2 marks)

Options:
(a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(b) Cash Reserve Ratio
(c) Cash Deposit Ratio
(d) Credit-Deposit Ratio
Answer: (b) Cash Reserve Ratio
Under the Liquidity Management Framework, the instruments of liquidity management

include fixed and variable rate repo/reverse repo auctions, outright open market
operations (OMOs), forex swaps and other instruments as may be deployed from time to
time to ensure that the system has adequate liquidity at all times. The framework also
prescribes a 14-day term repo/reverse repo operation at a variable rate and conducted to
coincide with the cash reserve ratio (CRR) maintenance cycle would be the main liquidity
management tool for managing frictional liquidity requirements.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/rbi-to-conduct-225-lakh-
crore-reverse-repo-auction/article30812367.ece

OECD PASSAGE
Q.18 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals which has been agreed upon by
all 193 member states was organised by? (2 Marks)

Topic – SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT AND ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
Options:
(a) United Nations Economic and Social Council

(b) United Nations Security Council
(c) United Nations Secretariat
(d) United Nations General Assembly
Answer: (d) United Nations General Assembly

Q.19 As per Economic Survey 2020-21, India’s real GDP to record a 11.0% growth in
FY2021-22 and nominal GDP to grow by 15.4% – the highest since independence due to:

Topic – PRIORITIES & RECOMMENDATIONS OF ECONOMIC SURVEY & UNION
BUDGET
Options:
(a) continued normalization in economic activities as the rollout of Covid-19 vaccines

gathers traction
(b) subdued retail inflation in India, which will give the Reserve Bank of India the room to
drop the policy rates and engender conditions to stimulate economic growth.
(c) low fuel and energy prices that will give an edge to Indian industry.
(d) record high consumer sentiments among Indian households.
(e) All the above
Answer: (a) continued normalization in economic activities as the rollout of Covid-19

vaccines gathers traction
Explanation:
India’s real GDP to record a growth of 11 per cent in 2021-22 and nominal GDP by 15.4 per
cent-the highest since independence. The V-shaped economic recovery is supported by the
initiation of a mega vaccination drive with hopes of a robust recovery in the services sector
and prospects for robust growth in consumption and investment. The Union Minister for
Finance & Corporate Affairs, Smt Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Economic Survey
2020-21 in Parliament today, which states that the rebound will be led by the low base and
continued normalization in economic activities as the rollout of COVID-19 vaccines gathers
traction.
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/erelevent.aspx?e_i=14#:~:text=The%20Union%20Minister%
20for%20Finance,COVID%2D19%20vaccines%20gathers%20traction.

Q.20 Which of the following are the advantages of foreign trade and investment? (2
Marks)

Topic – OPENING UP OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY, BALANCE OF PAYMENTS
Statements:
1. It stimulates competition.
2. It improves resource allocation.
3. It facilitates international distribution of technology.
4. It enhances environmental protection.
Options:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: (e) All of the above
Explanation:
Advantages of International Trade: (i) Optimal use of natural resources (ii) Availability of
all types of goods (iii) Specialisation (iv) Advantages of large-scale production (v) Stability
in prices (vi) Exchange of technical know-how and establishment of new industries (vii)
Increase in efficiency (viii) Development of the means of transport and communication (ix)
International co-operation and understanding (x) Ability to face natural calamities.
xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

Q.21) _________ has recently provided ________ amount of funding for the
implementation of Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS)
project of Ministry of Education. (1 mark)

Topic – SOCIAL SECTORS IN INDIA, HEALTH AND EDUCATION
Options:
(a) World Bank, US $ 500 Million

(b) New Development Bank, US $ 500 Million
(c) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank, US $ 500 Million
(d) Asian Development Bank, US $ 500 Million
(e) International Monetary Fund, US $ 500 Million
Answer: (a) World Bank, US $ 500 million (approximately Rs. 3700 crore)
Explanation:
EduTap Magazine January 2021

Q.22) Under One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme additional borrowing limit of
0.25 percent of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) is allowed to the States only on
completion of both of the following actions: (i) Aadhar Seeding of all the ration cards
and beneficiaries in the State (ii) Automation of all the FPSs in the State. Which of the
following statements are correct regarding ONORC scheme? (1 mark)

Topic – HUMAN DEVELOPMENT / SOCIAL SECTOR
Statements:
1. Enables the States in better targeting of beneficiaries.

2. Elimination of bogus/ duplicate/ineligible card holders resulting in enhanced welfare
and reduced leakage.
3. To ensure seamless inter-state portability of a ration card, Aadhar seeding of all ration
cards as well as biometric authentication of beneficiaries through automation of all Fair
Price Shops (FPSs) with installation of electronic point of sale (e-PoS) devices are
essential.
4. The reform especially empowers the migratory population mostly labourers.
Options:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1704063
Q.23) Recently at Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Council
of WTO, India and South Africa proposed (1 mark)

Options:
(a) that Geographical Indication framework should be further strengthened to protect the
livelihoods of traditional artisans.
(b) a waiver for domestic market requirement for developing country exports to developed
countries.
(c) a waiver to help more countries get access to medicines and vaccines during the
pandemic.
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c) a waiver to help more countries get access to medicines and vaccines during
the pandemic.
India and South Africa have jointly moved a proposal at the WTO’s TRIPS council for a
waiver to help more countries get access to medicines and vaccines during the pandemic.
Fifty-seven WTO members have backed the proposal, but the EU, U.S., Japan and Canada
have opposed the idea stressing the importance of intellectual property for innovation.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/trips-waiver-for-vaccines-key-to-
growth/article33950900.ece

Q.24) With reference to Sovereign Gold Bonds, which of the following statements are
correct? (1 mark)

Topic – PUBLIC FINANCE
Statements:
1. Minors will not be allotted even if guardians apply on their behalf.

2. Discount of Rs 50 is applicable when person is applying online.
3. There is a risk of capital loss if price of gold declines.
4. SGB can be used as collateral for borrowing loans.
Options:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1614135

Q.25) Which of the following is an omnibus mobile app developed to help farmers by
providing relevant information to them quickly. With click of a button, they can get the
information on weather of current day and next 5 days, dealers, market prices, agro
advisories, plant protection, IPM Practices etc. (1 mark)

Options:
(a) mKisan
(b) eSuvidha
(c) Farmer’s Help
(d) Kisan Suvidha
Answer: (d) Kisan Suvidha
Explanation:
Kisan Suvidha is an omnibus mobile app developed by Department of Agriculture &

Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare to help farmers by providing
relevant information to them quickly. The app is available in multiple Indian languages.
https://vikaspedia.in/agriculture/ict-applications-in-agriculture/kisan-call-center-app
Q.26) How many of these apps are part of Digital India mission in health care. (1 mark)

Topic – SOCIAL SECTORS IN INDIA, HEALTH AND EDUCATION
Options:
(a) e-sanjeevani
(b) NIKSHAY
(c) Kilkari
(d) ANMOL

Q.27) Which of the following benefits have been announced in Union Budget 2021-22 for
Startups? (1 mark)

Topic – PRIORITIES & RECOMMENDATIONS OF ECONOMIC SURVEY &
UNION BUDGET
Statements:
1. Residency limit for an Indian to set up one person company has been reduced from 182
days to 120 days.
2. Loans ranging from Rs 10 lakhs to Rs 50 lakhs will be given to women / SC / ST for
brownfield projects
3. In order to incentivize startups it is proposed to extend eligibility period to claim tax
holiday by one more year till 31st March 2022.
4. Government has announced revision in definition of small companies by increasing
their threshold for paid up capital from not exceeding Rs 50 lakh to not exceeding Rs 2
crore and turnover from not exceeding Rs 2 crore to not exceeding 10 crore.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
(e) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
https://www.financialexpress.com/budget/budget-2021-heres-everything-for-startups-
and-msmes-fm-sitharaman-announced-in-the-first-digital-budget/2184580/

Q.28) Match the following objectives to their respective schemes: (1 mark)

Topic – POVERTY ALLEVIATION AND EMPLOYMENT GENERATION IN INDIA /
INDIAN AGRICULTURE
Objectives Scheme
A. Mr. X, a street vendor wants Rs 1. SVAMITVA

10000 as working capital for
upgrdation of his business.
B. GoI has started surveying and 2. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan

Mapping with Improvised Yojana
Technology in Mumbai’s Dharavi to
resolve property related disputes.
C. GoI will pay the EPF contribution 3. SVANIDHI

for both employer and employee
for employees with salary less than
Rs 12500.
Options:
(a) A-1, B-3

(b) A-3, B-1
(c) A-2, B-1. C-3
(d) A-1, B-2, C-3
Answer: (b) A-3, B-1
Explanation:
About SVAMITVA: The acronym SVAMITA stands for Survey of Villages and Mapping with
Improvised Technology in Village Areas. It is a Central Sector Scheme aimed at “providing
‘record of rights’ to village household owners possessing houses in inhabited rural areas in
villages and issuance of property cards to the property owners.” The plan is to survey all
rural properties using drones and prepare GIS based maps for each village. The scheme

was launched by the Prime Minister on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day, April
24, earlier this year and distribution of property cards began on October 11.
About SVANIDHI: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched a scheme PM Street
Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) to empower Street Vendors by not only
extending loans to them, but also for their holistic development and economic upliftment.
The scheme intends to facilitate collateral free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/-
of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors, to help resume their
businesses in the urban areas, including surrounding peri-urban/rural areas.
About Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package: As part of the Rs 1.70 lakh crore Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP), the Government announced free food grains and
cash payment to women and poor senior citizens and farmers. The swift implementation
of the package is being continuously monitored by Central and State governments. Around
42 crore poor people received financial assistance of Rs 68,820 crore under the Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Package.
Q.29) Regarding ‘Operation Greens’, consider the following statements: (1 mark)

Statements:
1. Operations green is subsumed under Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana

2. This scheme will be extended only to only tomato and potato.
3. Establishment of Mega Food Parks in North East India.
4. It will help promote agri-exports from India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Options:
(a) 2 & 3 only

(b) 1 & 4 only
(c) 1 & 2 only
(d) 3 & 4 only
Answer: (b) 1 & 4 only
Explanation:
Major objectives of “Operation Greens” are as under:
• Enhancing value realisation of TOP farmers by targeted interventions to strengthen TOP

production clusters and their FPOs, and linking/connecting them with the market.
• Price stabilisation for producers and consumers by proper production planning in the
TOP clusters and introduction of dual use varieties.
• Reduction in post-harvest losses by creation of farm gate infrastructure, development
of suitable agro-logistics, creation of appropriate storage capacity linking consumption
centres.
• Increase in food processing capacities and value addition in TOP value chain with firm
linkages with production clusters.
• Setting up of a market intelligence network to collect and collate real time data on
demand and supply and price of TOP crops.
https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1551889
Q.30) Which of the following are correct regarding the objectives of the recently enacted
Labour Codes in India? (1 mark)

Topic – CHANGES IN INDUSTRIAL & LABOUR POLICY, INDUSTRIAL
DEVELOPMENTS IN INDIA
Statements:
1. Remunerating contract workers at the same rate as regular workers for similar
work.
2. Protect the interests of gig workers and migrant workers.
3. Promote gender equality by allowing women workers to work at night subject to
obtaining their consent
4. Delegitmise strikes in India.
Options:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Under the recently enacted Industrial Relations Code, 2020 there is a provision to give 14
days notice for Strike so that in this period amicable solution comes out. This clearly
indicates that delegitimizing strikes is not an objective of the Labour Codes.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1657898#:~:text=is%20Justice%20denie
d%E2%80%9D.-
,The%20Codes%20to%20Promote%20Harmonious%20Industrial%20Relations%20for%20
higher%20productivity,four%20under%20different%20laws%20earlier.

Objective Type Question Paper Analysis:
TABLE 1
Economics or Static or Difficulty
Question # Marks Topic
Social Issues Current Level
INTERNATIONAL
1 2 ECONOMICS ECONOMIC CURRENT MODERATE
INSTITUTIONS
INTERNATIONAL
2 2 ECONOMICS ECONOMIC CURRENT TOUGH
INSTITUTIONS
INTERNATIONAL
3 2 ECONOMICS ECONOMIC CURRENT EASY
INSTITUTIONS
INTERNATIONAL
4 2 ECONOMICS ECONOMIC CURRENT MODERATE
INSTITUTIONS
INTERNATIONAL
ECONOMIC
INSTITUTIONS /
5 2 ECONOMICS SUSTAINABLE CURRENT EASY
DEVELOPMENT AND
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
SOCIAL URBANISATION AND
6 2 CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES MIGRATION
7 2 CURRENT EASY
ISSUES MIGRATION
8 2 CURRENT EASY
ISSUES MIGRATION
9 2 CURRENT EASY
ISSUES MIGRATION
10 2 CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES MIGRATION
INDIAN
11 2 ECONOMICS CURRENT EASY
AGRICULTURE
INDIAN
AGRICULTURE
INDIAN
13 2 ECONOMICS CURRENT MODERATE
AGRICULTURE
MONETARY & FISCAL
14 2 ECONOMICS CURRENT TOUGH
POLICY
MONETARY & FISCAL
POLICY
MONETARY & FISCAL
POLICY
MONETARY & FISCAL
POLICY
SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT AND
18 2 ECONOMICS STATIC TOUGH
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES

PRIORITIES &
RECOMMENDATIONS
19 2 ECONOMICS OF ECONOMIC CURRENT TOUGH
SURVEY & UNION
BUDGET
OPENING UP OF THE
INDIAN ECONOMY,
20 2 ECONOMICS STATIC MODERATE
BALANCE OF
PAYMENTS
SOCIAL SECTORS IN
SOCIAL
21 1 INDIA, HEALTH AND CURRENT TOUGH
ISSUES
EDUCATION
HUMAN
SOCIAL
22 1 DEVELOPMENT / CURRENT MODERATE
ISSUES
SOCIAL SECTOR
INTERNATIONAL
23 1 ECONOMICS ECONOMIC CURRENT TOUGH
INSTITUTIONS
24 1 ECONOMICS PUBLIC FINANCE CURRENT MODERATE
INDIAN
AGRICULTURE
SOCIAL SECTORS IN
SOCIAL
26 1 INDIA, HEALTH AND CURRENT EASY
ISSUES
EDUCATION
PRIORITIES &
RECOMMENDATIONS
27 1 ECONOMICS OF ECONOMIC CURRENT TOUGH
SURVEY & UNION
BUDGET
POVERTY
ALLEVIATION AND
EMPLOYMENT
GENERATION IN
INDIA / INDIAN
AGRICULTURE
INDIAN
AGRICULTURE
CHANGES IN
INDUSTRIAL &
LABOUR POLICY,
INDUSTRIAL
DEVELOPMENTS IN
INDIA
Analysis:
• A lot of statement based questions were asked in the exam, which is a break from the
trend followed so far. Students should be prepared to handle such lengthy and
relatively difficult questions going ahead.

TABLE 2
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL MARKS
SUBJECT
QUESTIONS ASKED ALLOCATED
ECONOMICS 22 37
SOCIAL ISSUES 8 13
Analysis:
• Trend of economics having relatively higher weightage has continued. This is likely to
continue going ahead as well. Students are advised to prioritize Economics over Social
Issues in their overall preparation.
TABLE 3
TOTAL NUMBER OF TOTAL NUMBER OF
DIFFICULTY LEVEL
QUESTIONS ASKED MARKS
EASY 9 16
MODERATE 12 19
TOUGH 9 15
Analysis:
• Easy questions were interspersed between moderate and tough questions. More than
two-thirds of the questions required very good preparation / knowledge /
understanding. Given the competitive nature of the examination, students are advised
that they should be prepared to face such kind of paper going ahead.
• Apart from a strong preparation, emotional quotient is also important. One must not
be unnerved by coming across tough questions. The pursuit of easy and moderate
question should guide us firmly in the examination. If we are thrown completely off
track by the presence of a few tough questions, we will not be able to compete well in
the examination.
• Solving a good number of Quizzes and Mocks on the EduTap platform will go a long way
in helping students be better prepared for this kind of an examination.

TABLE 4
TYPE OF QUESTION
CURRENT 28 36
STATIC 2 4
Analysis:
• Trend of current affairs being more important than static part of the syllabus has further
accentuated. It is important to draw the right lessons from this development.
• Current Affairs covering a period of 6 months before the examination should be
prepared very thoroughly from EduTap’s current affairs magazine. Note that current
affairs comprises of three important pillars: General current affairs, Government
Schemes and Programmes and Reports.
• Students must not make the folly of completely leaving static syllabus untouched.
Remember, the trend can always reverse; understanding of static syllabus is key to
answering descriptive questions well; and the interviewer can always be an economy
buff wanting to have a long and meaningful conversation regarding the Indian
economy!!
TABLE 5
TYPE OF QUESTION
QUESTIONS BASED ON OLD SCHEMES (LAUNCHED MORE THAN
12 20
AN YEAR BEFORE THE EXAM)
QUESTIONS BASED ON NEW SCHEMES (LAUNCHED WITHIN
01 01
THE ONE YEAR PERIOD BEFORE THE EXAM)
QUESTIONS BASED ON OLD AND NEW SCHEMES 13 21
Analysis:
• EduTap’s innovative ‘Schemes Tap’ document has served students well given that over
40% of the objective paper (21 marks to be precise) was based on schemes of
Government of India.
• As the above table shows, students are advised to cover both old and new schemes
well.

• Given that a lot of statement based, moderate to tough level questions were asked
from various schemes, students are advised to give due importance to the ‘Schemes
Tap’ document.
TABLE 6
TOTAL NUMBER
TOTAL NUMBER
TYPE OF QUESTION OF QUESTIONS
OF MARKS
ASKED
QUESTIONS BASED ON NATIONAL REPORTS 05 10
QUESTIONS BASED ON INTERNATIONAL REPORTS 00 00

QUESTIONS BASED ON NATIONAL AND
05 10
INTERNATIONAL REPORTS
Analysis:
• Trend of reports playing an important role in the exam has continued, with a
respectable 20% weightage for this component. Although in this exam all the weightage
has been given to an international report, national reports continue to be of importance
and students should cover them well.
TABLE 7
TOTAL NUMBER OF
NAME OF CHAPTER TOTAL MARKS ALLOCATED
QUESTIONS ASKED
INTERNATIONAL ECONOMIC
06 11
INSTITUTIONS
URBANISATION AND
05 10
MIGRATION
MONETARY & FISCAL POLICY 04 08
INDIAN AGRICULTURE 05 08
SOCIAL SECTORS IN INDIA,

02 02
HEALTH AND EDUCATION
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
01 02
AND ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
HUMAN DEVELOPMENT /
01 01
SOCIAL SECTOR
PUBLIC FINANCE 01 01
PRIORITIES &
RECOMMENDATIONS OF
02 03
ECONOMIC SURVEY & UNION
BUDGET

POVERTY ALLEVIATION AND
EMPLOYMENT GENERATION IN 01 01
INDIA
CHANGES IN INDUSTRIAL &
LABOUR POLICY, INDUSTRIAL 01 01
DEVELOPMENTS IN INDIA
OPENING UP OF THE INDIAN
ECONOMY, BALANCE OF 01 02
PAYMENTS
Analysis:
• Picking and choosing a handful of chapters of the syllabus as a part of preparation can
be a risky strategy. As can be seen from the above table, questions have been asked
from a diverse set of chapters. Each and every mark is important to finally clear the
exam with a rank.

DESCRIPTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
Question-1: 15th finance commission - Horizontal and Vertical
transfers (600 words, 15 Marks)
(Following images are from EduTap’s study material that was provided before the exam.)

Question-2: Define various measures of poverty estimation and their
demerits and merits in terms of per capita income, inflation and
consumption and safety net. (600 words, 15 Marks)

Question-3: What are the changes/trends in globalisation after
global financial crisis 2008? (600 words, 15 Marks)

Question-4: Budgetary recommendations on strategic and non
strategic disinvestments, its (i) Rationale and (ii) Impact (400 words,
10 Marks)

Question-5: Role of demography in India's economic transition. (400
words, 10 Marks)

Question-6: Climate change commitment of India in light of socio-
economic, development and health factors. (400 words, 10 Marks)

Descriptive Type Question Paper Analysis:
Analysis:
• It was expected that the questions will be testing fundamental understanding of various
important topics having contemporary relevance. And the questions have been asked
on these lines itself. Going ahead this trend is likely to continue. Students are advised
to develop a holistic understanding of important contemporary issues, such that they
are capable of writing 600 words on a topic, covering it in a multi-dimensional manner.

Dear Students,
1|P a g e W W W . E D U T A P . C O . I N QUERY? [email protected] / 8146207241

R. B. I. (Gr. B.) -2021
(Maximum Marks—100) [Duration: 90 Minutes]
PAPER II English
Instructions. —
(1) All questions are compulsory.
(2) Each question should be answered in the box provided and the question
number must be written on the top.
(3) The answers of parts of the same question, if any, should be written
together. In other words, the answer of another questions should not be
written in-between the Parts of a question.
(4) Marks will be deducted if an answer far exceeds or falls short of the set
limit, or is irrelevant.
(5) Answers must be written in English only.
1) Write an essay of about 300 words on any one of the following:—

(40 Marks)

1. Pros and Cons of teaching Coding/Computer Languages to
School Students.
PROs –
• Coding education will help student acquire vocational skills that
are immediately relevant to today’s job market.
• Coding helps develop important logic and problem–solving skills.
• Understanding coding helps students better understand the
nature of the world around them, and how and why increasing
parts of it function as they do.
• Teaching students to code can serve as a gateway to subsequent
study of STEM (science, technology, engineering and
mathematics) topics, and hopefully to jobs and careers in related
fields.
• Being able to code enables new avenues for creativity and
creative expression.
• Relevance to COVID situation and the future.
CONs –
• An Unnecessary Skill.
• Kids Need to Be Kids.
• Health Issues.
2. Future of BPO Industries in India.

➢ BPO has become popular due to:
• Economy of scale
• Factor cost advantage
• Superior competency
• Business risk mitigation
• Utilization improvement
➢ Current Trends that can lead to Affecting the Outsourcing

Industry

• The outsourcing saw its unbelievable growth right after the global
recession and there sure are a few trends that give us an insight
into the future.
• The pricing structures would be stabilized up to a great extent
with buyers seeking standardized solutions. This means that BPO
in India would have to prove themselves on the basis of efficient
performance rather than pricing.
• Contrary to the usual belief that common and shared services
being a threat, they are actually being welcomed whole-heartedly
with the changing times. This is because it enhances productivity,
reduces errors and cuts costs.
• With the continuous rise in the prices of oil, companies would
have to take full benefit of the technology and keep outsourcing
work so as to make more profit.
➢ Challenges for the Outsourcing Industry in India

• The industry is undergoing a change and would continue to be
driven by extreme changes even in the future. However, a few
emerging challenging that India would have to face are:
• The rapidly growing industry requires growth in infrastructure as
well. However, this is an area where India lacks, and this issue
needs to be addressed to keep up with the competition.
• Companies are branching out to Tier II cities where they would be
able to take advantage of low labour costs.
• Even though India has established itself as a world leader in the
business of outsourcing, in the near future, there are chances of
facing tougher challenges. South-Asian countries like Malaysia,
Indonesia, Singapore, Vietnam, Philippines, Thailand and others
are trying to improve their position so as to become alternative
offshore locations.
• Other South-Asian countries have been able to challenge the
competitiveness of India by offering cheaper labour in business
processing skills. India, on the other hand is experiencing a rise in

the labour costs along with high attrition which is of course of
concern and thereby needs to be addressed as soon as possible.
3. Importance of Creative thinking in Business.

Importance -
• Creative thinking promotes problem-solving.
• Creative thinking increases productivity.
• Creativity helps you stay one step ahead.
• adapt to changes happening at a faster pace than ever before.
• do more with fewer people as budgets get tighter.
• respond to a competitive market.
• find different approaches to stay competitive.
Reasons –
• Thinking creatively adds value.

• Creative thinking helps you become self relying and more
confident.
• Thinking open-mindedly gives you a reason to go the extra mile.
• Creative thinking can bring out hidden talents.
• Thinking ‘out of the box’.
Benefits –
• Better teamwork and team bonding.

• Increased workplace engagement and interaction.
• Improved ability to attract and retain quality employees.
• Increased staff morale, fun and happiness.
• Increased workplace problem solving and productivity.
4. An ounce of Prevention is pound worth of Cure.

- In many organizations, risk management receives most of the focus
and resources; safety management, meanwhile, is often perceived as
less important. As a result, it is difficult for organizations to realize the
human capital, financial, and productivity benefits of an integrated
approach to risk management and safety management. Although such
integration is still rather rare, when safety has an equal seat at the risk
management table, the business value can be substantial.
Measures -
• Identify the current and future risk & “safety” exposures that exist.
• Communicate the exposures to the appropriate people and
stakeholders.
• Enforce and execute compliance and best practice procedures to
mitigate the identified exposure(s).
• Evaluate the timeliness and effectiveness of the enforcement
procedure.
• Educate the organization on how to prevent the exposure from
reoccurring.
Benefits –
• Reduce the costs associated with that hazard.
• Increase visibility and transparency.
• Reduced employment liability.
2) Make a precis of the following passage reducing it to about 170

words, and also, give it a suitable title. ( 30 Marks)
Trivial though it may seem, sand is a critical ingredient of our lives. It is

the primary raw material that modern cities are made from. The
concrete used to construct shopping malls, offices, and apartment
blocks, along with the asphalt we use to build roads connecting them,
are largely just sand and gravel glued together. The glass in every
window, windshield, and smart phone screen is made of melted-down
sand. And even the silicon chips inside our phones and computers –

along with virtually every other piece of electronic equipment in your
home – are made from sand.
And where is the problem with that, you might ask? Our planet is
covered in it. Huge deserts from the Sahara to Arizona have billowing
dunes of the stuff. Beaches on coastlines around the world are lined
with sand. We can even buy bags of it at our local hardware shop for a
fistful of small change.
The problem lies in the type of sand we are using. Desert sand is largely
useless to us. The overwhelming bulk of the sand we harvest goes to
make concrete, and for that purpose, desert sand grains are the wrong
shape. Eroded by wind rather than water, they are too smooth and
rounded to lock together to form stable concrete.
The sand we need is the more angular stuff found in the beds, banks,
and floodplains of rivers, as well as in lakes and on the seashore. The
demand for that material is so intense that around the world, riverbeds
and beaches are being stripped bare, and farmlands and forests torn
up to get at the precious grains. And in a growing number of countries,
criminal gangs have moved into the trade, spawning an often lethal
black market in sand.
The main driver of this crisis is breakneck urbanisation. Every year

there are more and more people on the planet, with an ever growing
number of them moving from the rural countryside into cities,
especially in the developing world. Across Asia, Africa, and Latin
America, cities are expanding at a pace and on a scale far greater than
any time in human history.
Mining sand to use in concrete and other industrial purposes is, if

anything, even more destructive. Sand for construction is most often
mined from rivers. It’s easy to pull the grains up with suction pumps or
even buckets, and easy to transport once you’ve got a full boatload.
But dredging a riverbed can destroy the habitat occupied by bottom-
dwelling organisms. The churned-up sediment can cloud the water,
suffocating fish and blocking the sunlight that sustains underwater
vegetation.
Sand extraction from rivers has also caused untold millions of dollars
in damage to infrastructure around the world. The stirred-up sediment
clogs water supply equipment. And removing all that material from
river banks leaves the foundations of bridges exposed and
unsupported.
Answer –
Title – Draining Sand.
It may be little more than grains of weathered rock, but sand is also
the world’s second most consumed natural resource and Rapid
Urbanisation is the root cause of its depletion across world. Billion
tonnes per year extraction of any material without leading to massive
impacts on the planet and thus on people’s lives is impossible. Sand
mining has incited war of demand and has even led to lethal black-
market trade. River sand mining is also contributing to the slow-motion
disappearance of the ecosystem affecting the flora and fauna of the
vicinity. Damage to Infrastructure due to mining of sand has costed
millions of dollars across the globe. Hence, the alarming issues at hand
may prove to be catastrophic considering the versatile usage and
demand of sand in our lives.
Q.3 Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions on the basis of the passage in your own words.
Agorism, a doctrine, which claims that people want to do all the things
which at that time are prohibited by the state. They think that the state
is committing theft (taxes) and are mass murderers (wars). For them
Profit need not have a monetary value rather a perceived value.

Agorism is the practice of counter-economics and the ideas associated
with that practice. Agorist ideas assert that Libertarian philosophy
occurs in practice, in the real world, as Counter-Economics.
The Counter-Economy is the sum of all non-aggressive Human Action

which is forbidden by the State. Counter-economics is the study of the
Counter-Economy and its practices. The Counter-Economy includes
the free market, the Black Market, the "underground economy," all
acts of civil and social disobedience, all acts of forbidden association
(sexual, racial, cross-religious), and anything else the State, at any
place or time, chooses to prohibit, control, regulate, tax, or tariff. The
Counter-Economy excludes all State-approved action (the "White
Market") and the Red Market (violence and theft not approved by the
State).
Counter-economics is an economic theory and revolutionary method

consisting of direct action carried out through the black market or the
grey market.
Counter-economics applies two basic strategies to liberate people

from the state. The first recipe provides instructions for how to break
free vertically through building a decentralized infrastructure for free
communities avoiding the State and its centralized "solutions"
altogether. The other recipe advocates breaking free horizontally
through making use of one's personal network of friends and
colleagues, and doing business out of the State's reach. One might also
call these recipes or strategies the introvert and extrovert solutions to
our methodological problem.
The vertical or introverted strategy is aimed towards individuals
concentrating on decentralized local infrastructure as opposed to
expansive state foundations. What this means in real terms is to create
local or neighborhood networks for self-reliance, where people in the
vicinity get together to find ways to produce whatever is necessary for
survival and a good life. It means creating local production facilities and
markets with no effective State regulations and without the State's
knowledge.
The horizontal or extroverted strategy applies individuals actively

creating black market networks and structures which can be stretched
beyond neighborhood communities focus in the vertical strategy.
What it basically proposes is to trade with people you know and people
who are recommended to you. This can all be done at whatever scale
one finds appropriate, using available technology such as the Internet
and e.g. Amazon for logistics and money transactions.
A first step could be to hire the children next-door to mow the lawn or
baby-sit. It does not have to be very sophisticated at first. This
approach should come naturally to libertarians, since it simply means
exercising trade without bothering with State regulations or paying
taxes. Most people are willing to exchange goods and services without
registering the sales tax, which is a good start. Some of them will also
find it in their interest to do this on a larger scale, producing and
distributing goods and services without ever paying taxes or following
unnecessary government regulations and controls. And most people
don't really care about government standards if they trust their
supplier.
Q.3 Read the passage given above and answer the following
questions on the basis of the passage in your own words.
(30 Marks)
1) What does doctrine of Agorism mean in the passage?
- Agorism is a free-market anarchist political philosophy that believes
the ultimate goal as bringing about a society in which all relations
between people are voluntary exchanges – a free market. Agorist
10 | P a g e W W W . E D U T A P . C O . I N QUERY? [email protected] /
8146207241
theory divides people into two classes: people who make their living
through the market, and people who make their living by coercing
others (called the "economic class" and "political class", respectively).
They support a nonviolent overthrow of the second class by the first,
through peaceful black market and grey market activity, known as
counter-economics.
2) Briefly explain the difference between Counter economy and

Counter economics?
- The Counter-Economy is the sum of all non-aggressive Human Action
which is forbidden by the State. Counter-economics is the study of the
Counter-Economy and its practices. The Counter-Economy includes
the free market, the Black Market, the "underground economy," all
acts of civil and social disobedience, all acts of forbidden association
(sexual, racial, cross-religious), and anything else the State, at any
place or time, chooses to prohibit, control, regulate, tax, or tariff. The
Counter-Economy excludes all State-approved action (the "White
Market") and the Red Market (violence and theft not approved by the
State).
3) What are the two pillars of Counter economics.

- Counter-economics applies two basic strategies to liberate people
from the state. The first recipe provides instructions for how to break
free vertically through building a decentralized infrastructure for free
communities avoiding the State and its centralized "solutions"
altogether. The other recipe advocates breaking free horizontally
through making use of one's personal network of friends and
colleagues, and doing business out of the State's reach. One might also
call these recipes or strategies the introvert and extrovert solutions to
our methodological problem.
4) What does the doctrine of Agorism claim?

- The doctrine of Agorism postulates that the correct method of
achieving a voluntary society is through advocacy and growth of the
8146207241
underground economy or "black market" – the "counter-economy" as
until such a point that the State's perceived moral authority and
outright power have been so thoroughly undermined that
revolutionary market anarchist legal and security enterprises are able
to arise from underground and ultimately suppress government as a
criminal activity (with taxation being treated as theft, war being
treated as mass murder, et cetera).
5) Differentiate between Vertical and Horizontal theories of the

doctrine.
- The vertical or introverted strategy is aimed towards individuals
concentrating on decentralized local infrastructure as opposed to
expansive state foundations and explained as Self – reliance such as
creating local production facilities and markets with no effective State
regulations and without the State's knowledge.
- The horizontal or extroverted strategy applies individuals actively
creating black market networks and structures which can be stretched
beyond neighborhood communities focus on the vertical strategy. It
basically proposes is to trade with people you know and people who
are recommended to you. This can all be done at whatever scale one
finds appropriate, using available technology such as the Internet.
8146207241

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1|Page www.edutap.co.in Query? [email protected].

2|Page www.edutap.co.in Query? [email protected] 81462072

A. Code on Wages, 2019

B. Code on Migrant Laborer’s, 2020

C. Industrial Relations Code, 2020

D. Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020

E. Code on Social Security, 2020

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E. None of the above

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D. Jan Dhan Darshak

E. IDFC First Bank

5|Page www.edutap.co.in Query? [email protected] 81462072

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B. Record Keeping (Central Record Keeping Agency)

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B. Individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps

8|Page www.edutap.co.in Query? [email protected] 81462072

A. Large landholding farmer families

B. Former and present holders of constitutional posts

C. All eligible landholding farmer families

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C. Food Processing and Technology

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A. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank

B. Janalakshmi Small Finance Bank

C. Capital Small Finance Bank.

D. Equitas Small Finance Bank

E. Suryodaya Small Finance Bank

A. Blue Label ATMs

B. White Label ATMs

C. Brown Label ATMs

D. Black Label ATMs

E. Red Label ATMs

A. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

B. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

D. Madan Mohan Malviya

E. Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya

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C. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

D. Marginal Standing Facility Rate

B. It allows customers to link multiple bank accounts.

C. It can be used only by the customers of ICICI Bank.

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D. Gram Swaraj Abhiyan

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A. Larson & Toubro

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E. IDFC First Bank

A. Chief Medical Advisor

B. Chief Executive Officer

C. Chief Health Expert

D. Chief Operations Officer

E. Chief Research Scientist

17 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? [email protected] 81462072

C. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia

18 | P a g e w w w . e d u t a p . c o . i n Query? [email protected] 81462072

E. New Delhi, India