PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK

XII-PHYSICS
MCQ’S
HEAT
1. On Fahrenheit scale the temperature of 50℃ will be ;
a) 40℉
b) 10℉
c) 122℉
d) 105℉
2. Kinetic energy per mole of an ideal gas is
a) 3/2 KT
b) 2/3 KT
c) 3/2 RT
d) 2/3 RT
3. In an adiabatic process the internal energy of the gas
a) remains the same
b) decreases
c) becomes zero
d) increases
4. Two steam engines A and B have their sources at 600℃ and 400℃ and their sinks at
300℃ and 200℃ respectively.
a) They are equally efficient
b) A is more efficient than B
c) B is more efficient than A
d) If their sinks are interchanged,their efficiencies will not change
5. Heat energy cannot be measured in
a) J
b) B.T.U.
c) Kelvin
d) Calorie
6. Boyle’s law holds good for an ideal gas in a process called
a) Isochoric
b) Isobaric
c) Isothermal
d) Adiabatic
7. According to second law of thermodynamics 100% conversion of heat energy into work is
a) Possible
b) Impossible
c) Possible when conditions are ideal
d) Possible when conditions are non ideal
8. If no heat flows into or out of the system ,the process is called
a) Isobaric
b) Isochoric
c) Isothermal
d) Adiabatic

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
9. The molar specific capacities of polyatomic gases as compared to monoatomic gases are
a) Greater
b) Smaller
c) Equal
d) Infinite
10. Thermostat is a device used to keep
a) The temperature constant
b) Entropy constant
c) Heat constant
d) Pressure constant
11. If the volume of a given mass of a gas is doubled without changing it’s temperature,the
pressure of the gas is
a) Reduced to ½ of it’s initial value
b) Reduced to ¼ of it’s initial value
c) The same as the initial value
d) Double of the initial value
12. A bimetallic thermostat works on the principle of
a) Linear expansion
b) Bulk expansion
c) Differential linear expansion
d) All of these
13. The area bounded by an isothermal and adiabatic curve in a PV diagram for a heat
engine represents
a) Heat intake
b) Heat rejected
c) Work done
d) Total kinetic energy
14. A thermodynamic process in which the change in volume of the system is zero tells that;
a) The work done by the system is maximum
b) The work done on the system is maximum
c) The work done on and by the system is zero
d) None of these
15. Farenheit and Celsius scales of temperature coincide at
a) 0°
b) 273°
c) -273°
d) -40°
16. The volume of a given gas at constant pressure becomes zero at;
a) 273°K
b) 273°C
c) -273°K
d) -273°C
17. According to kinetic theory of gases the absolute temperature of a perfect gas is
a) Inversely proportional to the K.E. of the molecules
b) Independent of the K.E. of the molecules
c) Equal to the K.E. of the molecules
d) Directly proportional to the average translational K.E. of the molecules of the gas

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK

18. The area of a carnot cycle represents

a) Useful work
b) Energy loss due to leakage
c) Heat rejected
d) Heat absorbed
19. Two ends A and B of a rod are at temperatures -10℃ and -30℃. The heat will flow from
a) -30℃ to -10℃
b) Will not flow at all
c) -10℃ to -30℃
d) None of the above
20. 273 K is equal to
a) 0℉
b) -32℉
c) -273℉
d) 32℉
21. In celsius scale 1℃ in magnitude is equal to
a) 32℉
b) 16℉
c) 0℉
d) 1.8℉
22. The maximum work done can be measured in the process called
a) Isobaric
b) Isochoric
c) Isothermal
d) Adiabatic
23. The change is disorder of the system is equal to
a) ∆S=∆T/Q
b) ∆S=∆Q/T
c) ∆S=∆Q/∆T
d) ∆S=∆Q. T
24. One cubic metre volume is equal to
a) 10 2 cm 3
b) 10 3 cm 3
c) 10 6 cm 3
d) 10 -3 cm 3
25. In C.G.S. System one calorie is equal to
a) 11.184 J
b) 2.184 J
c) 3.184 J
d) 4.184 J
26. The efficiency of a carnot engine is given by
a) 1- T1 /T2
b) 1- T2 /T1
c) T2 /T1 -1
d) None

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
27. R.M.S. velocity of a gas molecule at absolute zero temperature is
a) 9×10 6 m/s
b) 3×10 3 m/s
c) 273 m/s
d) Zero
28. The value of Boltzmann constant is
a) 3.85×10-23 J/K
b) 2.185×10 -12 J/K
c) 1.38×10 -23 J/K
d) 1.62×10 -22 J/K
29. The heat required to produce a unit change in the temperature of a unit mass of a
substance is called
a) Heat capacity
b) Molar heat
c) Specific heat
d) Latent heat
30. The difference of molar specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume per mole is called
a) Molar heat
b) Heat constant
c) Boltzmann constant
d) Gas constant
31. A domestic pressure cooker is based on
a) Adiabatic process
b) Isothermal process
c) Isobaric process
d) Isochoric process
32. The absolute temperature corresponding to 212℉ is
a) 485K
b) 373K
c) 161K
d) 100K
33. During an adiabatic change,the pressure and volume of a gas is given by
a) PV=constant
b) (PV)𝛾=constant
e) PV𝛾=constant
c) P𝛾 V=constant
34. The co-efficient of linear expansion is _______ times the co-efficient of volumetric expansion
a) 3
b) 1/3
c) 2
d) ½
35. The unit of specific heat is
a) J Kg C -1
b) J Kg K-1
c) J Kg C
d) J Kg -1 C
36. In an isobaric process the work done is
a) n∆T
b) R∆T

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
c) nR∆T
d) none
37. according to Charle’s law
a) PV=constant
b) V/T =constant
c) VT=constant
d) P/V=constant
38. The internal energy in an isothermal process
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Becomes zero
d) Remains the same
39. The maximum efficiency of a heat engine is obtained by
a) Increasing the temperature of hot and cold body simultaneously
b) Decreasing the temperature of the sink and increasing the temperature of
sourceand keeping other factors constant
c) Decreasing the temperatures simultaneously
d) None of these
40. Boltzmann’s constant is equal to
a) R/Na
b) RNa
c) Na/R
d) √R /Na
41. The S.I. unit of heat is
a) Joule
b) Calorie
c) Centigrade
d) Fahrenheit
42. The process during which no external work is performed is
a) Isothermal
b) Isochoric
c) Isobaric
d) adiabatic
43. the temperature on Fahrenheit scale corresponding to absolute zero is
a) 32℉
b) -180℉
c) -460℉
d) 212℉
44. The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76cm high at 0℃ is called
a) 1 liter
b) 1cm3
c) 1atmosphere
d) 1N/m2
45. The PV diagram shown in the figure is for
a) An isochoric change
b) An isobaric change
c) An isothermal change
d) An adiabatic change
46. The pressure exerted by the gas molecules on the wall of a vessel increases if the

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a) The temperature of the gas decreases
b) Velocity of the molecules of the gas decreases
c) Collision of the molecules of the gas with it’s walls increases
d) None of the above happens
47. The K.E. of the molecules of an ideal gas at absolute zero temperature will be;
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) Very high
d) Below zero
48. Real gases molecules donot strictly obey gas laws at;
a) High pressure and low temperature
b) Low temperature and high pressure
c) High pressure and high temperature
d) None of these

49. A system in which there is no transfer of mass and energy is called an/a _______system.
a) Open
b) Close
c) Isolated
d) none
50. if a liquid contracts on freezing an increase in pressure_______ the freezing point.
a) Lowers
b) Increases
c) Doesnot change
d) None
51. A thermoflask contains hot tea.it is shaken rapidly.if the tea is considered as the
system,then it’s temperature will
a) Remain the same
b) Rise
c) Fall
d) Have it’s internal energy changed.
52. During the change of state,the heat supplied doesnot change the temperature.it is used
in
a) Change of state
b) Change of temperature
c) Both
d) None
53. Quantity of heat in a body depends upon it’s mass,temperature and _______
a) Specific heat
b) Resistance
c) None
54. Graph between V and 1/P at constant temperature is a
a) Hyperbola
b) Parabola
c) Straight line
d) None

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
55. It is only the ______ in the translational K.E. of the molecules which determines the rise
in temperature
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) None
56. Average specific heat of water is
a) 4200 J/Kg K
b) 420 cal/gm℃
c) 42 cal/gm℃
d) 1 cal/gm℃

57. A bimetallic strip can be used to make

a) Thermometer
b) Barometer
c) Ammeter
d) Voltmeter
58. According to General Gas Law ________=constant
a) P/VT
b) PT/V
c) PV/T
d) PVT
59. The universal gas constant per molecule ,R/Na is called
a) Planck’s constant
b) Stefan-boltzmann’s constant
c) Boltzmann’s constant
d) Molar gas constant
60. When a gas expands isothermally against a pressure,the internal energy
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
61. Which is not a thermometric property?
a) Mass
b) Electrical resistance of metal
c) Volume of a given mass of a gas at constant pressure
d) Pressure of a given mass of a gas at constant volume
62. When water is cooled to make ice,the entropy of water
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Is unchanged as the water cools but decreases as the water freezes
63. The average translational K.E. of a gas molecule is given by
a) 1/3 PV2
b) 1/3 KT
c) 3/2KT
d) nRT
64. The relationship between centigrade and Fahrenheit scale is
a) F-32/C =5/9

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
b) F=9/5(C) +32
c) F+32/C=9/5
d) F=C +9/5(32)
65. The entropy of the universe
a) Always increases
b) Always decreases
c) Either remains constant or increases
d) None

ELECTROSTATICS
66. If an electrostatic force between two electrons at a distance is “F” newton,the
electrostatic force between two protons at the same distance is
a) Zero
b) F/2
c) F
d) 2F
67. The relation ∆V/∆r represents
a) Gauss’s law
b) Electric flux
c) Potential gradient
d) None
68. Decreasing the separation of two positive charges by one half will cause electrostatic
force of repulsion to change by
a) 4 times
b) 2 times
c) ½ times
d) ¼ times
69. Two capacitors of 3𝜇F and 6𝜇F are connected is series ,their equivalent capacitance is
a) 9𝜇F
b) 2𝜇F
c) ½ 𝜇F
d) 3𝜇F
70. Which of the following cannot be a scalar quantity?
a) Electric potential
b) E.M.F.
c) Electric flux
d) Electric intensity
71. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field it becomes
a) Negatively charged
b) Positively charged
c) Polarized
d) Conductive
72. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend upon
a) Area of the plates

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
b) Nature of the plates
c) Distance between the plates
d) Medium between the plates
73. The introduction of a di-electric between the oppositely charged plates causes the
intensity
a) To increase
b) To decrease
c) To remain the same
d) None of these
74. Two positively point charges repel each other with a force of 4×10 -4 N when placed at a distance
of 1 meter.if the distance between them is increased by 2m , the force of repulsion will be
a) 1×10 -4 N
b) 8×10 -4 N
c) 2×10 -4 N
d) 4×10 -4 N
75. Coulomb/volt is the unit of
a) Resistance
b) Resistivity
c) Current
d) Capacity
76. Which of the following cannot be the unit of electric intensity ?
a) Newton/Coulomb.
b) Volt/metre
c) Joule/coulomb
d) Joule/coulomb-metre
77. If 4𝜇F and 2𝜇F capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitor is
a) 1.33𝜇F
b) 0.75𝜇F
c) 6𝜇F
d) 2𝜇F
78. The concept of electric lines of force was introduced by a famous scientist named
a) Newton
b) Einstein
c) Coulomb
d) Faraday
79. The minimum electrical charge possible in isolated form is
a) 1.6×10 -19 C
b) 10×10 12 C
c) 1×10 -6 C
d) One coulomb
80. The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is called
a) Intensity
b) Permittivity
c) Potential difference
d) Flux
81. A di-electric k=2 is inserted between the plates of a 20𝜇F capacitor.it’s capacitance will become
a) 10𝜇F
b) 18𝜇F
c) 22𝜇F

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
d) 40𝜇F
82. One atomic mass unit is equal to
a) 1.6× -19 J
b) 9.1× -27 Kg
c) 931 ×106 eV
d) 9× 10 9 eV
83. The magnitude of electric intensity between two oppositely charged plates is
a) 2𝜎/𝜀̥
b) 𝜎/2𝜀̥
c) 𝜎/3𝜀̥
d) 𝜎/𝜀̥
84. The presence of di electric between the plates of a capacitor results in ________ in
capacitance
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No change
d) None
85. Total potential difference across the combination of three cells becomes maximum when
a) All the three cells are connected in series
b) All the three cells are connected in parallel
c) Two cells are connected in parallel and the third cell in series with the combination
d) Two cells are connected in series and the third cell in parallel with the
combination
86. One electron volt is equal to
a) 1.6×10 -11 joule
b) 1.6×10 -19 joule
c) 1.6×10 -19 volt
d) 3.1×10 -31 volt
87. The electric flux through a surface will be minimum when the angle between E→and ∆A→Is
a) 90°
b) 0°
c) 45°
d) 60°
88. Force per unit charge is known as
a) Electric flux
b) Electric field intensity
c) Electric potential
d) Electric current
89. The electric flux through a closed surface depends upon
a) Magnitude of the charge enclosed by the surface
b) Position of the charge enclosed by the surface
c) The shape of the surface
d) None of the above
90. When three capacitors are joined in series,the total capacitance is
a) Less than capacitance the value of the minimum
b) Equal to the sum of the capacitance
c) Greater than the value of the maximum capacitance
d) None of these
91. The unit of electric intensity is

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
a) Newton-coulomb/m
b) Volt×meter
c) Newton×coulomb
d) Volt/meter
92. One joule per coulomb is called
a) Ampere
b) Volt
c) Farad
d) Tesla
93. The magnitude of an electric field doesnot depend upon
a) The distance from the charged particle
b) The nature of the charges causing the field
c) The magnitude of the charges causing the field
d) None of these
94. A free electron in an electric field
a) Remains stationary
b) Moves from higher potential to lower potential
c) Moves from lower potential to higher potential
d) None
95. Electric intensity of a given charge at any point is
a) Directly proportional to distance from charge
b) Inversely proportional to distance from charge
c) Directly proportional to square of distance from charge
d) Inversely proportional to square of distance from charge
96. Two similar charges each of 1 coulomb placed in vacuum or free space 1 meter apart
repel each other with a force of
a) 1N
b) 9×10 9 N
c) 8.85×10 -12 N
d) 6.61×10 -11 N
97. A point charge is placed at the center of spherical Gaussian surface.if the sphere is
replaced by a cube of 1/10 of it’s volume, the electric flux will
a) Not change
b) Decrease by 10 times
c) Increase by 10 times
d) Increase by 5 times
98. When the surface is perpendicular to a uniform electric field , the angle between the
directions of electric intensity and area vector is
a) 0°
b) 90°
c) 𝜋 radian
d) 45°
99. In an electric field, the negative space rate of variation of potential at a point is equal to
____at that point
a) Potential gradient
b) Absolute potential
c) Electric intensity
d) Electric potential
100. The charge of one coulomb is _____ times the electronic charge

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
a) 1.6×10 -19
b) 6.25×10 -18
c) 2.65×10 18
d) 6.25× 10 18
101. The earth’s surface is considered to be at
a) Zero potential
b) Positive potential
c) Negative potential
d) Infinite potential
102. The point where the intensity of an electric field is zero ,the potential difference is always
a) Zero
b) Constant
c) Very large
d) Very small
103. The electric field inside a spherical surface distribution of charge is
a) Infinite
b) Zero
c) KQ/r2
d) KQ/r

104. If the area of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled the capacitance
a) Remains unchanged
b) Is doubled
c) Increases four times
d) Is halved

CURRENT AND ELECTRICITY

105. The rate of transfer of charges through a circuit is called
a) resistance
b) current
c) potential difference
d) all of these
106. One kilo-watt-hour energy is equal to
a) 3.6×10 5 J
b) 3.6×10 7 J
c) 36×10 5 J
d) 746 watt
107. Two wires of resistance R1 and R2 are connected in series in a circuit,if R1 is greater
than R2, the heating would be
a) More in R1
b) More in R2
c) Same in both
d) None of these

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
108. A copper wire having resistivity ρ is stretched in such a way that it’s diameter reduces
to half of that of the original wire.the new resistivity will be
a) Halved
b) Doubled
c) the same
d) four fold
109. electrical energy dissipated as heat in a resistor is given by
a) I2R
b) I2Rt
c) V2R
d) V2Rt
110. The E.M.F. of three cells, each of 2 volts is parallel will be
a) 6V
b) 8V
c) 2V
d) Zero V
111. In the relation I=KV , K stands for
a) Conductance
b) Resistivity
c) Permeability
d) Specific resistance

112. A piece of wire of length L and an area of cross section A has a resistance R .Another
piece of wire of the same material and the same length but twice the area of cross
section is connected end to end with the previous wire. The effective resistance is
a) R
b) 2R
c) 1/3 R
d) ½ R
113. The resistances of 2 ohms , 5 ohms ,7 ohms and 9 ohms are connected in parallel.if the
potential difference across the 5 ohm resistor is 5V ,the potential difference across 9 ohm
resistor will be
a) 9V
b) 5V
c) 2.5V
d) 1.5V
114. In a house circuit all the electrical appliances are connected in parallel with the phase
and the neutral to get
a) The same current but different potential difference
b) Different currents but the same potential difference
c) Different currents and different potential differences
d) Same current and same potential difference
115. When a resistor carries a current I the power dissipated by it is P .if the same resistor
carries a current of 3I ,the power dissipation will be
a) P
b) P/3
c) 3P
d) None of these

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
116. The power dissipated by a resistance is given by
a) P=VR
b) P=V2R
c) P=IR2
d) None of the above
117. The maximum resistance in A.C. circuit is offered by
a) Capacitor
b) Solenoid
c) Electromagnet
d) Electric bulb
118. The terminal potential difference of a battery is equal to its emf when it’s internal resistance is
a) Zero
b) Very high
c) Very low
d) None
e)
119. When V volts battery is connected across a bulb and if current I is passed through it
then it’s power will be
a) V×I
b) V/I
c) V2I
d) VI2

120. The resistivity of a material for a conductor increases due to increase in

a) Resistance
b) Temperature
c) Voltage
d) None of the above
121. The _______ in the free electrons is responsible for generation of current in the wire
a) Thermal velocity
b) Drift velocity
c) None of these
122. A battery of emf E volts has an internal resistance r ohms, current I is drawn from it.it’s
terminal voltage V will be
a) V=E-Ir
b) V=E/r
c) V=Ir
1. V=E/I
123. Two resistors of 2ohms and 3 ohms are connected in series with a battery of
10volts .Potential difference cross 2ohm resistor will be
a) 5volts
b) 4volts
c) 6volts
d) 10volts
124. An electrical conductor contains
a) Only free electrons
b) Only bound electrons
c) Both free and bound electrons

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
d) Both protons and neutrons
125. At constant temperature the resistivity of a conductor depends upon
a) It’s length
b) It’s area of cross section
c) It’s volume
d) It’s material
126. The resistance of a conductor increases with rise in temperature due to
a) Increase in electron density
b) Increase in drift velocity of free electrons
c) Decrease in drift velocity of free electrons
d) None of these

MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM

127. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce the loss of energy caused by
a) N∆ φ ( Flux linkage )
b) Eddy’s current
c) Heating
d) All of these
128. Two parallel wires carrying current in the opposite direction
a) Donot affect each other
b) Attract each other
c) Repel each other
d) None of these

129. If the number of turns in a coil is doubled it’s self inductance will be
a) Doubled
b) Halved
c) The same
d) Four fold
130. Transformers are used in circuits containing
a) D.C. alone
b) A.C. alone
c) Both
d) Non-inductive winding
131. The motional emf induced in a coil is independent of
a) Change of flux
b) No. of turns
c) Time
d) Resistance
132. Which one is not a unit a magnetic flux density?
a) NA-1 m
b) Wb/m2
c) Tesla
d) VA-1 S
133. When an A.C. generator is converted into a D.C. generator ,slip rings are replaced by
a) A dynamo
b) A split ring

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
c) A field coil
d) An inductor
134. In a conventional transformer
a) The current moves from primary to the secondary windings without any change
b) E.M.F. is induced in the secondary by changing the magnetic flux
c) Heat is transferred from primary to secondary
d) None of these
135. A charged particle moving in the magnetic field B experiences a resultant force
a) Proportional to the K.E.
b) In the direction of the field
c) In the direction perpendicular to it’s motion and field
d) None of these
136. Which is not a magnetic material ?
a) Iron
b) Nickel
c) Cobalt
d) Silver
137. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is
a) Tesla
b) Weber
c) Guass
d) Ohm
138. The path of a neutron moving normai to a magnetic field is
a) A straight path
b) A circular path
c) An oval path
d) A sinusoidal path
139. The direction of induced current is given by
a) Ampere’s law
b) Faraday’s law
c) Lenz’s law
d) Snell’s law
140. The fore per unit length of a current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field is
given by
a) ILBsin𝜃
b) ILBcos𝜃
c) IBsin𝜃
d) IBcos𝜃
141. Tesla(T) ,the unit of B is
a) Newton/coulomb×meter
b) Newton/ampere×meter
c) Ampere/newton×meter
d) Ampere×meter/newton
142. A transformer is used to change
a) Capacitance
b) Frequency
c) Voltage
d) Power
143. When the north pole of a bar magnet approaches the face of a closed coil the face becomes

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
a) South pole
b) North pole
c) First north pole then south pole
d) No effect is observed
144. An electric current through a conductor produces around it
a) An electric field
b) A magnetic field
c) An electric and a magnetic field
d) First a magnetic field then an electric field
145. In a step down transformer
a) Ns>Np
b) Ns<Np
c) Ns=Np
d) Ns≈Np
146. Transformer works on
a) Ohm’s law
b) Self induction
c) Mutual induction
d) Guass’s law
147. If a straight conductor of length L carrying a current I is placed parallel to a magnetic
field B ,the force experienced by the conductor is
a) ILB
b) ILBcos𝜃
c) Zero
d) Infinite
148. When a charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly it’s path is
a) Spiral
b) Circular
c) Parabolic
d) Straight line
149. The current by moving the loop of a wire across the magnetic field is called
a) Electric current
b) A.C. current
c) D.C. current
d) Induced current
150. The phenomenon of producing emf in the coil due to changes of current in the coil itself
is called
a) Mutual induction
b) Self induction
c) Magnetic flux
d) None of these
151. If an electron and a proton enter into a magnetic field with the same velocity,the
electron shall experience a/an________ force than the proton
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Equal
d) None
152. Two parallel beam of electrons moving in the same direction will
a) Repel each other

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
b) Attract each other
c) Neither attract nor repel
153. Magnetic induction B due to current in solenoid is given by
a) 𝜇 ̥ I/2𝜋r
b) 𝜇 ̥ n I
c) F/I×L
d) 𝜇̥ N I/2𝜋r
154. The device which plays an important role in A.C. power transmission is a/an
a) Capacitor
b) Inductor
c) Transformer
d) Rectifier
155. If a current passing through a straight conductor in a magnetic field is doubled,the
strength of the magnetic field will become
a) Half
b) Double
c) 4 times
d) Unchanged
156. Which substance is used for making a transformer core?
a) Soft iron
b) Nickel
c) Copper
d) Steel
157. In a magnetic field the charge at rest experiences
a) Maximum force
b) Minimum force
c) Attractive force
d) Zero force

158. The unit of inductance is

a) Ohm
b) Weber
c) Farad
d) Henry
159. For a coil of N turns ,torque is
a) BI/AN
b) AN/BI
c) BINA
d) AB/NI
160. In 1820 A.D. _______ observed that two current carrying conductors exert forces on
each other
a) Coulomb
b) Ohm
c) Ampere
d) Faraday
161. Back emf is the effect of self inductance in a coil when a/an _______ current passes through it

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
a) A.C.
b) D.C.
c) None of the above
162. Non inductive winding is used to minimize ______
a) Mutual inductance
b) Self inductance
c) Conductance
d) Resistance
163. When a conductor is moved across a magnetic field , potential difference appears
across it’s ends. This potential difference is called
a) Back emf
b) Motional emf
c) Alternating emf
d) Electron volt

ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS

164. If the length of the wire of potentiometer is increased, the accuracy in the
determination of null point
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes zero
165. A single device containing ammeter,voltmeter and ohm meter is called
a) CRO
b) Potentiometer
c) Multimeter
d) None of these
166. The working principle of post office box is
a) Wheatstone bridge
b) Potentiometer
c) Telegraph line
d) None of these

167. A moving coil galvanometer is converted into an ammeter by connecting to it

a) Low resistance in series
b) High resistance in series
c) High resistance in parallel
d) Low resistance in parallel
168. A device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is called
a) Transformer
b) Capacitor
c) Galvanometer
169. In wheatstone bridge we balance
a) Resistance
b) Current
c) Voltage
d) None of these
170. The unit of least count on a galvanometer scale represents

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
a) Division
b) Ohm
c) Volt
d) Henry
171. I=C𝜃/BNA ,hence to increase the sensitivity of a galvanometer we must decrease the
value of
a) 𝜃
b) N
c) B
d) C
172. To increase the accuracy of potentiometer
a) A uniform wire of large length should be used.
b) A uniform wire of small length should be used
c) A non uniform wire should be used
d) None of these
173. A meter bridge is used to measure
a) Voltage
b) Inductance
c) Capacitance
d) Resistance
174. A balanced_______ is used to measure an unknown resistance.
a) Wheatstone bridge
b) Potentiometer
c) Ammeter
d) Voltmeter
175. A galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter by connecting
a) Low resistance in series
b) Low resistance in parallel
c) High resistance in series
d) High resistance in parallel
176. The device for measurement of most accurate potential difference is
a) Potentiometer
b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer
d) P.O. box

177. The sensitivity of galvanometer can be increased by increasing

a) Number of turns
b) Area of frame
c) Magnetic field
d) All of these
178. A potentiometer is the most accurate potential measuring device because
a) It has low resistance difference as compared to a voltmeter
b) Potential difference is directly proportional to the length of the wire
c) It doesnot draw any current from the circuit .
d) None of the above
179. A soft iron cylinder used in the frame of the coil of galvanometer makes the magnetic
field
a) Strong only

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
b) Radial only
c) Parallel only
d) Both strong and radial
180. In a radial magnetic field, the plane of the coil is always
a) Parallel to the field
b) Perpendicular to the field
c) Parallel to the current
d) Perpendicular to the current

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND

ELECTRONICS
181. In a semi conductor ,the energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is
a) Narrow
b) Wide
c) Not present
d) 10 -6 ohm meter
182. Donor impurities are
a) Ge and Si
b) In and Ga
c) Sb and As
d) Li and Ga
183. The diode which gives off visible light when energized is called
a) Photodiode
b) L.C.D.
c) L.E.D.
d) Photovoltaic diode
184. The device used to convert A.C. into D.C. is called
a) Amplifier
b) L.E.D.
c) Commutator
d) Rectifier

185. In a semi conductor

a) The electron moves in a conduction band while the holes moves in forbidden band
b) The holes moves in conduction band and the electrons move in forbidden band
c) The electrons move in conduction band and the holes move in valence band
d) The holes move in conduction band and the electrons move in valence band only
186. The potential difference applied across P-N junction which results in the reduction of
the barrier potential is
a) Reverse biasing
b) Forward biasing
c) Charging
d) Inductance

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
187. In a P-type semi conductor the majority of the charge carriers are
a) Electrons
b) Protons
c) Neutrons
d) Holes
188. A semi conductor diode is used as
a) An amplifier
b) An oscillator
c) A rectifier
d) None of these
189. The speed of electromagnetic waves is given by
a) √ μ̥ E̥
b) µ̥ /√ ∈̥
c) √ μ /̥ ∈̥
d) 1/√ μ̥ ∈ ̥
190. PNP and NPN transistors are used in electronic circuit to amplify
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Resistance
d) Power
191. A semi conductor diode can be used as
a) A half wave rectifier
b) Full wave rectifier
c) An amplifier
d) None of these
192. In N-type material ,the majority charge carriers are
a) Electrons
b) Protons
c) Holes
d) Neutrons
193. The speed of radio waves in vacuum is
a) 3×10 6m/s
b) 3×10 8 m/s
c) 3×10 8 ft/s
d) 3×10 10 m/s
194. Substances having a few electrons are called
a) Conductor
b) Insulator
c) Semi-conductor
d) None of the above
195. Germanium and Silicon are
a) Monovalent materials
b) Trivalent materials
c) Divalent materials
d) Tetravalent materials
196. An L.E.D. emits light in
a) Infrared region
b) Ultraviolet region
c) Visible region

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
d) Radioactive radiations
197. Emitter base junction is forward biased in
a) PNP transistor
b) NPN transistor
c) Both PNP and NPN transistor
d) Rectifier
198. Radio waves are
a) Longitudinal waves
b) Mechanical waves
c) Matter waves
d) Electromagnetic waves
199. PN-junction diode works as an insulator if connected
a) To an A.C. source
b) In forward bias
c) In reverse bias
d) All of these
200. The speed of electromagnetic waves depends upon
a) Permeability only
b) Permittivity only
c) Both
d) None of these

ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS

201. As the temperature of the black body is raised,the wavelength corresponding to the
maximum intensity shifts towards
a) Shorter wavelength
b) Similar wavelength
c) Longer wavelength
d) Lower wavelength
202. A photo electric cell transforms light energy into
a) Heat energy
b) Magnetic energy
c) Electrical energy
d) Sound energy
203. De-Broglie wavelength associated with the particle is given by
a) λ +mv/h
b) λ=h/mv2
c) λ=h/mv
d) λ=mh/v

204. the minimum energy required for pair production is

a) 1.02 M eV
b) 102 M eV
c) 10.2M eV
d) 0.511 M eV
205. In order to increase the K.E. of an ejected photoelectron there should be an increase in
a) Frequency of radiation

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
b) Wavelength of radiation
c) Intensity of radiation
d) Both wavelength and intensity
206. The emissive power of a black body is proportional to
a) T
b) T 5
c) T -4
d) T 4
207. Photoelectric emission takes place if
a) h ν=𝜑 ̥
b) h ν >𝜑̥
c) h ν >̥ 𝜑̥
d) V<̥ 𝜑̥
208. According to the principle of uncertainity
a) ∆E/∆t ≈ h
b) ∆E ≈ t /h
c) (∆E)(h) ≈ ∆t
d) (∆E)(∆t) ≈ h
209. Galilean transformations are applicable to a frame of reference which is
a) Stationary
b) Moving
c) Inertial
d) Non-inertial
210. A perfect black body
a) Is a perfect absorber of radiation
b) Has a unit absorptive power
c) Is the most efficient radiator
d) All of them
211. The experimental evidence of Einstein’s mass-energy equation is
a) Radioactive emissions
b) Photoelectric and Compton’s effect
c) Elastic collision
d) Pair production and annihilation of matter
212. The expression λ max ×T=constant ,represents
a) Stefan’s law
b) Wein’s displacement law
c) Rayleigh –jean’s law
d) Planck’s law
213. In compton’s effect the scattered photon has
a) Greater frequency,smaller wavelength
b) Greater frequency,greater wavelength
c) Smaller frequency,greater wavelength
d) None of these

214. The absorption of the incident radiation by a perfect black body is

a) 0%
b) 50%
c) 90%
d) 100%

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
215. Compton’s shift depends only on photon’s
a) Wavelength
b) Energy
c) Frequency
d) Scattering angle
216. The formula for momentum of a photon is
a) hc/λ
b) h/λ
c) λ/h
d) c/λ
217. The frequency of the incident radiation corresponding to the work function is called
a) Critical frequency
b) Working frequency
c) Fundamental frequency
d) Threshold frequency
218. The radiation from a black body depends upon the
a) Material of the body
b) Size of the body
c) Shape of the body
d) Temperature of the body
219. The no of photoelectrons emitted from a metal depends upon
a) The frequency of incident light
b) The wavelength of incident light
c) The colour of incident light
d) The intensity of incident light
220. The disintegration of a photon into electron and positron near a heavy nucleus is known as
a) Annihilation
b) 𝛽- decay
c) 𝛼-decay
d) Pair production
221. The reverse process o pair production is
a) Fusion
b) Fission
c) Annihilation of electron and positron
d) Annihilation of electron and proton
222. Max Planck is well known because of his
a) Energy quantization
b) Energy conservation
c) Wave particle duality
d) Momentum conservation
223. The Einstein’s photoelectric equation is
a) V ̥ e=hν+1/2mv2
b) hν =mc2+V ̥
c) V ̥ e=hν – hν ̥
d) V ̥ e=h(1/λ- 1/λ ̥)

224. Pair production is only possible when incident photon has the wavelength of the order
a) 10 -4m
b) 10 -6m

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
c) 10 -10m
d) 10 -14m
225. The relativistic changes in mass ,length and time in daily life are not observed because
a) The masses of objects are very large
b) The size of objects are very large
c) The velocity of objects is very small in comparison to the velocity of light
d) None of these
226. Einstein’s theory of relativity states that the speed of light in vacuum is
a) Independent of motion of the source and observer
b) Affected by either
c) Dependent on the motion of the source and observer
d) None of the above
227. If the frequency of radiation is increased , the stopping potential is ____
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Unchanged
d) None
228. A particle with mass equal to electron but charge equal to proton is called
a) Neutrino
b) Positron
c) Neutron
d) None of these
229. The time interval which appears to an observer in a frame of reference moving with
relativistic velocity
a) Remains the same
b) Increases
c) Decreases
d) Becomes infinite
230. The phenomenon of black body radiation can be explained on the basis of
a) Wave theory
b) Quantum theory
c) Bohr’s theory
d) Classical theory
231. According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity ,the mass of a particle moving with
the speed of light will be
a) Zero
b) Double
c) Infinite
d) Ten times
232. De-Broglie’s hypothesis was practically confirmed by the experiment of
a) Davisson and Germer
b) Bragg
c) Compton
d) Dr.Abdul Salam

THE ATOMIC SPECTRA

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
233. Bracket series of hydrogen atom spectrum lies in
a) Ultraviolet region
b) Visible region
c) Infrared region
d) All of these
234. The wavelength of X-ray is in the range
a) 0.01nm to 0.1nm
b) 1Å to 100Å
c) 0.1Å to 1m
d) 0.1nm to 1.0nm
235. Hydrogen atom spectrum consists of lines in
a) Ultraviolet region
b) Visible region
c) Infrared region
d) All of these
236. The frequencies in spectral lines emitted in Lyman series are in the region
a) Visible
b) Infrared
c) X-rays
d) Ultraviolet
237. According to Bohr’s postulate, the electron revolving around the nucleus in a fixed orbit
radiates
a) Energy
b) No energy
c) 𝛾-rays
d) 𝛼- rays
238. Balmer series is obtained when all the transitions of electrons terminate on
a) 3rd orbit
b) 4th orbit
c) 2nd orbit
d) 1st orbit
239. Laser is a device which can produce
a) An intense beam of light
b) A coherent beam of light
c) A monochromatic beam of light
d) All of the above
240. When fast moving electrons are stopped by a metal of high atomic weight ,the
phenomenon give rise to
a) X-rays
b) 𝛽-rays
c) 𝛼-rays
d) None
241. The spectral series obtained due to transition of electrons from higher orbit to M-orbit is called
a) Paschen series
b) Lyman series
c) Balmer series
d) P-fund series

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
242. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is
a) 5.3Å
b) 5.53Å
c) 53Å
d) 0.53Å
243. X-rays were discovered by
a) J.J. Thomson
b) Rydberg
c) Einstein
d) Roentgen
244. An L.E.D. emits light in
a) Infrared region
b) Ultraviolet region
c) Visible region
d) Radioactive radiations

THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS AND NUCLEAR

RADIATIONS

245. A Geiger-Muller counter contains

a) Air,argon and alcohol
b) Alcohol only
c) Ions
d) Super cooled water vapours
246. The half life of radium is 1600 years.After 6400 years ,the sample of the surviving
radium would be it’s
a) ¼
b) 1/8
c) 1/16
d) ½
247. When a nucleus emits a beta-particle it’s atomic number
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) None of these
248. The rate of decay of a radioactive substance
a) Increases with increasing time
b) Remains constant with increasing time
c) Decreases exponentially with the increasing time
d) None of these
249. In radioactive decay law ; N=N ̥ e –λt,λ represents
a) Wavelength
b) Mass of radioactive sample
c) Decay constant
d) None of the above

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
250. In the nuclear reaction;
14
7N + 2 He 4 → 8 O 17 + _________
The missing particle is
a) Proton
b) Neutron
c) Electron
d) 𝛼-particle
251. In treating localized cancerous tumour, we use a narrow beam of
a) 𝛼-rays from Cobalt-60
b) 𝛽-rays from Cobalt-60
c) 𝛾-rays from Cobalt-60
d) Laser from cobalt-60
252. One atomic mass unit is equal to
a) 1.6×10 -19 J
b) 9.1×10 -27 Kg
c) 931M eV
d) 9×10 9 eV
253. The energy equivalent to the mass reduced in the formation of a nucleus is called
a) Nuclear energy
b) Binding energy
c) Fusion energy
d) Potential energy
254. If a small quantity of radioactive iodine 53I131is taken in food , most of it is deposited in
a) Kidneys
b) Brain
c) Thyroid glands
d) All glands
255. The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus into smaller fragments is called
a) Fusion
b) Fission
c) Pair production.
d) Annihilation of matter
256. Wilson cloud chamber is used
a) For the study of clouds
b) To produce X-rays
c) To take photograph of the track of high velocity ions
d) To produce 𝛽-rays
257. The process in which heavier nucleus is formed from the combination of lighter nuclei is
called
a) Fission
b) Fusion
c) Radioactivity
d) Mass deficit
258. Breeder reactor is used to convert
a) 92 U 235 into 92 U 236
b) 92 U 238 into 94Pu239
c) 92 U 235 into 56 Ba 144 and 36 Kr 89

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 PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
d) 92 U 235 into 92 U 239

259. The nuclei of same element with different nuclear masses but the same charge number
are called
a) Isotopes
b) Isotones
c) Isobars
d) Isomers
260. The nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called
a) Isotopes
b) Isobars
c) Isotones
d) isomers
261. The process of emission of an alpha particle from a nucleus , involves the change in
a) Mass number and charge number
b) Mass no. only
c) Charge no. only
d) None of these
262. The no of neutrons in 92 U 235 is
a) 327
b) 235
c) 92
d) 143
263. A nucleus is represented by 91 Z 230 .it emits one 𝛼-particle and then one 𝛽-
particle.Theresulting nucleus is represented by
a) 88 W 226
b) 89 X 226
c) 90 Y 226
d) 91 Z 230
264. Which substance is supposed to be the best for decreasing the energy of neutrons in a
nuclear reactor ?
a) Ordinary water
b) Heavy water
c) Lead
d) Graphite
265. Radiations coming from the outerspace are called
a) Gamma rays
b) Cosmic rays
c) X-rays
d) Alpha rays
266. Radioactive tracers are used in
a) Radio therapy
b) Industry
c) Archaeology
d) All three
267. Doubly charged helium atom is also called
a) Photon
b) 𝛼-particle

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PRIME EDUCATION NETWORK
c) 𝛽-particle
d) 𝛾-particle

31