LMT Up Bri - Rem
LMT Up Bri - Rem
LMT Up Bri - Rem
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I. GENERAL PRINCIPLES
Exception: Estoppel by laches. SC barred a belated objection to jurisdiction that was raised only
after an adverse decision was rendered by the court against the party raising the issue of
jurisdiction and after seeking affirmative relief from the court and after participating in all stages
of the proceedings (Tijam v. Sibonghanoy, G.R. No. L-21450, April 15, 1968).
II. JURISDICTION
Jurisdiction is the power of the court to hear, try, and decide a case. It includes the power to
determine whether it has the authority to hear and determine the controversies presented, and
the right to decide whether the statement of facts that confer jurisdiction exists as well as other
matters that may arise in the case legitimately. It also includes the power to control the execution
of its decision. (Heirs of Procopio Borras v. Heirs of Eustaquio Borras, G.R. No. 213888. April 25, 2022)
A complaint involving an intra-corporate controversy was filed before the RTC. The RTC
Judge dismissed the complaint for lack of jurisdiction. Was the dismissal proper?
No, the dismissal was not proper. What the Judge should have done was order the re-raffling of
the case to an RTC designated as a Special Commercial Court. In Gonzales et al v. GJH Land, the
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Court held that the basic premise is that a court's acquisition of jurisdiction over a particular case's
subject matter is different from incidents pertaining to the exercise of its jurisdiction. In the
exercise of its general jurisdiction, then, the RTC has the power to order the re-raffling of the
case to another branch designated as a Special Commercial Court.
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accused are occupying positions corresponding to Salary Grade 27 or higher, or military and PNP
officers mentioned above. The Sandiganbayan shall exercise exclusive appellate jurisdiction over
final judgments, resolutions or orders of regional trial courts whether in the exercise of their own
original jurisdiction or of their appellate jurisdiction as provided. (Sec. 4, P.D. 1606, as amended by
R.A. 10660).
A. KINDS OF ACTIONS
Give examples of actions in rem, actions quasi in rem, and actions in personam.
Actions in rem Registration of land under the Torrens system
Actions quasi in rem A civil action with an application for a writ of preliminary attachment
Actions in personam Action for collection of sum of money and damages; action for
unlawful detainer or forcible entry; action for specific performance;
action to enforce a foreign judgment
(Frias v. Alcayde, G.R. No. 194262, [February 28, 2018])
B. CAUSE OF ACTION
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Differentiate between Failure to State a Cause of Action and Lack of Cause of Action.
Failure to State a Cause of Action Lack of Cause of Action
As to Nature Refers to the insufficiency of the Refers to a situation where the evidence
allegations in the pleading. presented failed to establish the
elements of the cause of action.
As to Remedy When there is a failure to state a Where there is a lack of cause of action,
cause of action, the defendant can the remedy of the defendant is to file a
allege the same as an affirmative Demurrer of Evidence under Rule 33.
defense in the Answer. (Sec. 12(4),
Rule 8)
D. VENUE
What is the rule where the subject-matter of the action involves various parcels of land situated
in different provinces?
The venue is determined by the number of transactions involved and where each parcel of land
is located
1. Where the parcels of land are the objects of one and the same transaction, the venue is in
the court of any of the provinces wherein a parcel of land is situated; or
2. If subject parcels of lands are the objects of separate and distinct transactions, there is no
common venue and separate actions should be laid in the court of the province wherein
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each parcel of land is situated. (United Overseas Bank Phils. v. Rosemoore Mining &
Development Corp., G.R. Nos. 159669 & 163521, March 12, 2007)
E. PLEADINGS
Exception: The exception to this is when verification is required (1) by law, or (2) a rule. (Rule 7,
Sec. 4).
Function of a reply is to deny or allege facts in denial or avoidance of new matters alleged in, or
relating to, an actionable document. (Sec. 10, Rule 6) Hence, a reply is only allowed when the cause
of action in the Answer is based on an actionable document.
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F. SUMMONS
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2. Where summons is to be served outside the judicial region of the court where the case is
pending — plaintiff alone shall be authorized to cause the service of summons. (Sec. 3,
Rule 14)
Exception: In case of the absence or unavailability of the foregoing persons, service may be made
upon either (1) their secretaries or (2) the person who customarily receives the correspondence
for the defendant at its principal office.
G. MOTIONS
Definition: Those which require the parties Definition: Those which the court may act
to be heard before a ruling on the motion is upon without prejudicing the rights of
made in court (1 Riano 368, 2011 Ed.) adverse parties
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Ex.: Ex.:
1. Motion for bill of particulars 1. Motion for issuance of an alias
2. Motion to dismiss summons;
3. Motion for new trial 2. Motion for extension to file an answer;
4. Motion for reconsideration 3. Motion for postponement;
5. Motion for execution pending appeal 4. Motion for the issuance of a writ of
6. Motion to amend after a responsive execution;
pleading has been filed 5. Motion for the issuance of an alias
7. Motion to cancel statutory lien writ of execution
8. Motion for an order to break in or for 6. Motion for the issuance of a writ of
a writ of demolition possession;
9. Motion for intervention 7. Motion for the issuance of an order
10. Motion for judgment on the pleadings directing the sheriff to execute the
11. Motion for summary judgment final certificate of sale; and
12. Demurrer to evidence 8. Other similar motions (Sec. 4, Rule 15)
13. Motion to declare defendant in default
14. Other similar motions. (Sec. 5, Rule 15)
H. DISMISSAL OF ACTIONS
I. PRE-TRIAL
In the Notice of Pre-Trial sent to plaintiff Victoria and defendant Wilson, the court indicated
the following dates:
Victoria appeared with his counsel at the pre-trial but failed to appear at the Mediation.
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If you were Wilson's counsel, what action would you take? Explain.
As Wilson’s counsel, I would move the court to dismiss the case. It is the duty of the parties and
their counsel to appear at the pre-trial, court-annexed mediation, and judicial dispute resolution.
(Rule 18, Section 4) When duly notified, the failure of the plaintiff and counsel to appear without
valid cause shall cause the dismissal of the action. (Rule 18, Section 5)
J. INTERVENTION
K. SUBPOENA
L. MODES OF DISCOVERY
Mary was arrested by Indonesian authorities at the Jakarta airport for importation of 10 kilos
of heroine. She was immediately tried by an Indonesian Court and found guilty, sentenced to
die by firing squad. The recruiters of Mary, Jan and Maurie, were indicted here in Manila, for
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unlawful Human Trafficking in Persons. During trial, the prosecution filed a motion in court
to take the testimony of Mary by written interrogatories under Rule 23 of the Rules of Court.
This was objected to by the defense, with the Solicitor General siding with the accused. The
accused posits that modes of discovery is unavailing in criminal actions and the taking of the
deposition of Mary would violate their right to confront the witnesses against them. If you are
the judge, how would you rule?
If I were the judge, I would grant the motion based on the recent ruling of the Supreme Court in
People v. Sergio. In that case, the Court held that while depositions are recognized under the Rules
on Civil Procedure, Rule 23 on deposition by written interrogatories, it may be applied suppletory
in criminal proceedings so long as there is compelling reason therefor. There are extraordinary
circumstances here as Mary’s right to due process would be violated. The interest of justice
dictates that a stringent application of the rules should not derail the right of the state to prove
the criminal liability of Jan and Maurie. Moreover, the accused's right to confront a witness will
not be violated since they were given the right to raise their objections to the proposed questions,
and they could likewise propound written cross- interrogatories.
Exception: The two aforesaid may still be allowed by the court for good cause shown and to
prevent a failure of justice (Sec. 6, Rule 25).
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M. TRIAL
N. DEMURRER TO EVIDENCE
P. SUMMARY JUDGMENT
On the other hand, if it is sought by the defendant, it may be filed at any time (Rule 35, Sec. 2).
Q. POST-JUDGMENT REMEDIES
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2. Newly discovered evidence, which he could not, with reasonable diligence, have
discovered, and produced at the trial, and which if presented would probably alter the
result. (Sec. 1, Rule 37)
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A. PRELIMINARY ATTACHMENT
When may a writ of preliminary attachment be applied for and on what grounds?
An order for preliminary attachment may be applied for at the commencement of the action; OR
at any time before the entry of judgment on the following grounds:
1. In an action for the recovery of a specified amount of money or damages, other than
moral and exemplary, on a cause of action arising from law, contract, quasi-contract, delict
or quasi-delict against a party who is about to depart from the Philippines with intent to
defraud his creditors
2. In an action for money or property embezzled or fraudulently misapplied or converted
to his own use by a public officer, or an officer of a corporation, or an attorney, factor,
broker, agent, or clerk, in the course of his employment as such, or by any other person in
a fiduciary capacity, or for a willful violation of duty;
3. In an action to recover the possession of property unjustly or fraudulently taken,
detained or converted, when the property, or any part thereof, has been concealed,
removed, or disposed of to prevent its being found or taken by the applicant or an
authorized person;
4. In an action against a party who has been guilty of a fraud in contracting the debt or
incurring the obligation upon which the action is brought, or in the performance thereof;
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5. In an action against a party who has removed or disposed of his property, or is about to
do so, with intent to defraud his creditors; or
6. In an action against a party who does not reside and is not found in the Philippines, or
on whom summons may be served by publication (Sec. 1, Rule 57)
A. INTERPLEADER
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3. The conflicting claims are made against the same person; AND
4. The plaintiff has no claim upon the subject matter of the adverse claims or if he has an
interest at all, such interest is not disputed by the claimants (Sec. 1, Rule 62).
.
Effect of a claimant’s failure to answer
If any claimant fails to plead within the time therein fixed, the court may, on motion,
1. Declare him in default; and
2. Render judgment barring him from any claim in respect to the subject matter (Sec. 5, Rule
62).
B. DECLARATORY RELIEF
Exception: Actions falling under the 2nd paragraph of Sec. 1, Rule 63 thereto
1. An action for the reformation of an instrument, recognized under Articles 1359 to 1369 of
the Civil Code;
2. An action to quiet title, authorized by Articles 476 to 481 of the Civil Code; and
3. An action to consolidate ownership required by Article 1607 of the Civil Code in a sale
with a right to repurchase (Sec. 5, Rule 63).
When may a petition for declaratory relief be converted into an ordinary action?
The action may be converted into an ordinary action if:
1. Before the final termination of the case
2. A breach or violation of an instrument or a statute, executive order, regulation, ordinance,
or any other governmental regulation should take place. (Sec. 6, Rule 63).
Prohibition is a writ issued by the proper court and directed against any tribunal, corporation,
board, officer or person, whether exercising judicial, quasi-judicial or ministerial functions,
commanding the respondent to desist from further proceedings in the action or matter specified
therein. Also, this writ is a negative and preventive remedy as it restrains or prevents the
usurpation of jurisdiction (Sec. 2, Rule 65).
Mandamus is a writ to compel a tribunal, corporation, board, officer or person to do the act
required to be done to protect the rights of the petitioner when the respondent unlawfully
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neglects the performance of an act which the law specifically enjoins as a duty resulting from an
office, trust, or station, or excludes another from the use and enjoyment of a right or office to
which such other is entitled, and there is no other plain, speedy and adequate remedy in the
ordinary course of law. This writ may be used either as a positive or negative remedy. As a
positive remedy, it is used to order the performance of a duty. As a negative remedy, it is used to
exclude another from a right or office (Sec. 3, Rule 65).
Exceptions:
1. Appeal is lost without the appellant's negligence;
2. When public welfare and the advancement of public policy dictates;
3. When the broader interest of justice so require;
4. When the writs issued are null and void; and
5. When the questioned order amounts to an oppressive exercise of judicial authority.
(Sunbeam Convenience Food Inc. v. CA, G.R. No. 50464, Jan. 29, 1990 )
Distinguish between Certiorari as a mode of appeal (Rule 45) and Certiorari as a special civil
action (Rule 65)
Rule 45 Rule 65
File within 15 days from notice of the File not later than 60 days from notice of the
judgment or final order or resolution judgment, order or resolution, or from the
appealed from, or of the denial of the denial of the motion for reconsideration or
petitioner's motion for new trial or new trial. (Sec. 4, Rule 65)
reconsideration
Extendible for another 30 days for justifiable
reasons (Sec. 2, Rule 45)
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Nevertheless, under certain exceptional circumstances, the Court may extend this period
according to its sound discretion.
1. Most persuasive and weighty reasons;
2. To relieve a litigant from an injustice not commensurate with his failure to comply with
the prescribed procedure;
3. Good faith of the defaulting party by immediately paying within a reasonable time from
the time of the default;
4. The existence of special or compelling circumstances;
5. The merits of the case;
6. A cause not entirely attributable to the fault or negligence of the party favored by the
suspension of the rules;
7. A lack of any showing that the review sough is merely frivolous and dilatory;
8. The other party will not be unjustly prejudiced thereby;
9. Fraud, accident, mistake or excusable negligence without appellant’s fault;
10. Peculiar legal and equitable circumstances attendant to each case;
11. In the name of substantial justice and fair play;
12. Importance of the issues involved; and
13. Exercise of sound discretion by the judge guided by all the attendant circumstances
(Thenamaris Philippines, Inc. v. CA, G.R. No. 191215 (2014))
Exceptions:
1. The order is a patent nullity, as where the court a quo has no jurisdiction;
2. The questions raised in the certiorari proceeding have been duly raised and passed upon
by the lower court or are the same as those raised and passed upon in the lower court
3. There is an urgent necessity for the resolution of the question and any further delay would
prejudice the interests of the government or of the petitioner;
4. The subject matter of the action is perishable;
5. Under the circumstances, a motion for reconsideration would be useless;
6. Petitioner was deprived of due process and there is an extreme urgency for relief;
7. In a criminal case, relief from order of arrest is urgent and the granting of such relied by
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D. QUO WARRANTO
N.B.: Sec. 2, Article XI of the Constitution allows the institution of a quo warranto action against
an impeachable officer. After all, a quo warranto petition is predicated on grounds distinct from
those of impeachment. The former questions the validity of a public officer’s appointment while
the latter indicts him for so-called impeachable offenses without questioning his title to the office
he holds (Republic v. Sereno, G.R. No. 237428 (2018))
E. EXPROPRIATION
Under the first stage, it commences with the determination of the authority of the plaintiff
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to exercise the power of eminent domain and the propriety of its exercise in the context of
the facts involved in the suit and ends with an order of dismissal or order of condemnation
declaring that the plaintiff has a lawful right to take the property sought to be condemned
upon the payment of just compensation to be determined as of the date of the filing of the
complaint (National Power Corporation v. Posada, G.R. No. 191945 (2015)).
N.B.: A final order sustaining the right to expropriate the property may be appealed by
any party aggrieved thereby. Such appeal, however, shall not prevent the court from
determining the just compensation to be paid (Sec. 4, Rule 67).
Under the second stage, it involves the determination by the Court of the just
compensation for the property sought to be taken with the assistance of not more than
three (3) commissioners. The order fixing the just compensation on the basis of the
evidence before, and the findings of, the commissioners would be final.
Elements that must be alleged and proven for a forcible entry suit to prosper:
1. That they have prior physical possession of the property
2. That they were deprived of possession by any of the means provided for in Section 1, Rule
70 of the Rules of Court, namely, force, intimidation, strategy, threat, and stealth
3. That the action was filed within one year from the time the owners or legal possessors
learned of their deprivation of the physical possession of the property (Philippine Long
Distance Company v. Citi Appliance M.C. Corporation, G.R. No. 214546, October 9, 2019 )
Differentiate an action for forcible entry and an action for unlawful detainer.
An action for forcible entry is filed where the possession of land by the defendant is unlawful
from the beginning as he acquires possession by force, intimidation, strategy, threat, or stealth
(Dikit v. Ycasiano, G.R. No. L-3621 (1951)). In such a case, the plaintiff must prove that he was in
prior physical possession of the premises until he was deprived thereof by the defendant (Pharma
Industries, Inc. v. Pajarillaga, G.R. No. 53788 (1980)).
An action for unlawful detainer is filed where the possession is initially lawful, but it becomes
illegal by reason of the termination of his right to possession of the property under his contract
(express or implied) with the plaintiff (Dikit v. Ycasiano, G.R. No. L- 3621 (1951)). Moreover, the
plaintiff need not have been in prior physical possession (Pharma Industries, Inc. v. Pajarillaga, G.R.
No. 53788 (1980)).
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Can the determination of heirs be made in a civil action instead of a special proceeding?
General Rule: The trial court cannot make a declaration of heirship in an [independent] civil
action since this declaration can only be made in a special proceeding instituted for that purpose.
Exception: The determination of heirship may be made in a civil action, depending on the
circumstances surrounding the case, such as:
1. When it is impractical to subject a parcel of land to a special proceeding which could be
long just to establish heirship; AND
2. Superfluous when the parties could and had already presented evidence before the trial
court which assumed jurisdiction over the case upon the issues it defined during pre-trial.
(Heirs of Gabatan v. CA. G.R. No. 150206, March 13, 2009 )
The fact of the extrajudicial settlement or administration, or the notice of summary settlement, as
the case may be, shall be published once a week for 3 consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general
circulation in the province. (Sec. 1, Rule 74)
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Effect of Reprobate
1. The will shall have the same effect as if originally proved and allowed in Philippine court
(Sec. 3, Rule 77).
2. The grant of letters testamentary or of administration shall extend to all estate of the
testator in Philippines.
3. Payment of just debts and expenses of administration, estate shall be disposed of
according to the will.
4. Residue disposed of in accordance with law (Sec. 4, Rule 77).
N.B. If there is still a deficiency, the debt shall be satisfied through the contributive shares of the
devisees, legatees, or heirs who have been in possession of portions of the estate before debts and
expenses have been settled and paid (Sec. 6, Rule 88).
What steps must be taken before there could be a distribution of the estate?
Prior to the distribution of the state, there must be:
1. Liquidation of estate (i.e., payment of obligations of deceased)
2. Declaration of heirs
a. Determination of the right of a natural child
b. Determination of proportionate shares of distributees (Sec. 1, Rule 90)
B. GUARDIANSHIP
Parens patriae is the State’s duty to protect the rights of persons who because of age/incapacity
are in an unfavorable position vis-à-vis other parties. Unable as they are to take due care of what
concerns them, they have the political community to look after their welfare (Nery v. Lorenzo, G.R.
No. L-23096 (1972))
C. CHANGE OF NAME
Kristel Gonzales asked for the inclusion of her middle name, Santos, in her name. Can she
directly file a petition under Rule 108, arguing that it is a substantial change?
No. A prayer to enter a person's middle name is a mere clerical error, which may be corrected by
referring to existing records. Thus, it is primarily administrative in nature and should be filed
pursuant to R.A. 9048 as amended. (Republic v. Gallo, G.R. No. 207074. January 17, 2018)
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Distinguish grounds for change of name under Rule 103, Rule 108, and under RA 9048 .
RULE 103 RULE 108 RA 9048, as amended
Scope
Change of full name or surname Substantial changes and corrections Change of first name or
in cases of substantial corrections in entries in the civil register nickname and correction of
clerical errors of entries in the
Civil Registry
Nature
1. Judicial 1. Judicial 1. Administrative
2. Hearing required 2. Hearing necessary 2. Hearing not required
3. Adversarial
Coverage
1. Correction of clerical or Correction or changes in the 1. Correction of clerical or
typographical errors in any entry following entries: typographical errors in the civil
in civil registry documents, a. Births; registry, including correction of
except corrections involving the b. Marriages; date of birth and sex; and
change in sex, age, nationality c. Deaths;
and status of a person 2. Change of first name or
d. Legal separations;
nickname in the civil registry
e. Judgments of annulments of
2. Change of a person’s first
name or nickname in his or her marriage;
civil registry f. judgments declaring
marriages void from the
beginning;
g. Legitimations;
h. Adoptions;
i. Acknowledgments of
natural children;
j. Naturalization;
k. Election, loss or recovery of
citizenship;
l. Civil interdiction;
m. Judicial determination of
filiation;
n. Voluntary emancipation of
a minor; and changes of
name. (Sec. 2, Rule 108)
Grounds
1. When the name is ridiculous, Upon good and valid grounds As to first names:
dishonorable or extremely a. The petitioner finds the first
difficult to write or pronounce; name or nickname to be
2. When the change results as a ridiculous, tainted with
legal consequence, as in dishonor or extremely difficult
legitimation; to write or pronounce;
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A change of one's name under Rule 103 can be granted only on grounds provided by law. In order
to justify a request for change of name, there must be a proper and compelling reason for the
change and proof that the person requesting will be prejudiced by the use of his official name. To
assess the sufficiency of the grounds invoked therefor, there must be adversarial proceedings.
Previously, in petitions for correction (under Rule 108), corrections for clerical errors may be set
right under Rule 108. R.A. 9048, as amended, however, removed from the ambit of Rule 108 of
the Rules of Court the correction of such errors. As the rule stands now, Rule 108 applies only to
substantial changes and corrections in entries in the civil register. (Santos v. Republic, G.R. No.
250520, May 5, 2021; Bartolome v. Republic, G.R. No. 243288. August 28, 2019)
When does the Rule on the Writ of Habeas Corpus in Relation to Custody of Minors apply?
The rule applies to petitions for custody of minors and writs of habeas corpus in relation thereto.
The Rules of Court apply suppletorily (Sec. 1, A.M. No. 03-04-04-SC).
In custody cases involving minors, the writ of habeas corpus is prosecuted for the purpose of
determining the right of custody over a child.
Writ of Habeas Data is a remedy available to any person whose right to privacy in life, liberty or
security is violated or threatened by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee,
or of a private individual or entity engaged in the gathering, collecting or storing of data or
information regarding the person, family, home and correspondence of the aggrieved party. (Sec.
1, A.M. No, 08-1-16-SC)
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What are the grounds for issuance of a Temporary Environmental Protection Order (TEPO)?
The grounds for the issuance of a Temporary Environmental Protection Order (TEPO) are in cases
where it appears from the verified complaint that:
1. The matter is of extreme urgency and
2. The applicant will suffer grave injustice and irreparable injury (Sec. 8, Rule 2)
N.B. The applicant shall be exempted from the posting of a bond for the issuance of a TEPO.
A. INFORMATION
N.B. For any amendment which downgrades the nature of the offense charged in or excludes any
accused from the complaint, it must be made upon the motion of the prosecution with notice to
the offended party and with leave of court.
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C. PRELIMINARY INVESTIGATION
N.B. The right cannot be raised for the first time on appeal (Pilapil v. Sandiganbayan, G.R. No.
101978 (1993)).
Embroiled in the Fertilizer Fund Scam, respondents filed a motion to quash claiming that their
right to speedy disposition of cases was violated because of the length of time that had passed
from the COA investigation in 2006 to the filing of the Information before the Sandiganbayan
in 2017. They claim that there was an inordinate delay of 11 years and three months on the part
of the Ombudsman; thus, the case against them should be dismissed. Is their argument valid?
No, the period taken for fact-finding investigations shall not be included in the determination of
whether there is inordinate delay; the period shall be reckoned from the filing of a formal
complaint. (People v. Sandiganbayan, G.R. No. 239878, February 28, 2022, J. Hernando, citing Cagang
v. Sandiganbayan, G.R. No. 206438, July 31, 2018)
Discuss the Inordinate Delay Doctrine. (Cagang v. Sandiganbayan, supra, July 31, 2018)
Every accused has the right to due process and to speedy disposition of cases. Inordinate delay
in the resolution and termination of a preliminary investigation will result in the dismissal of the
case against the accused. Delay, however, is not determined through mere mathematical
reckoning but through the examination of the facts and circumstances surrounding each case.
Courts should appraise a reasonable period from the point of view of how much time a competent
and independent public officer would need in relation to the complexity of a given case.
Nonetheless, the accused must invoke his or her constitutional rights in a timely manner. The
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In analyzing where the right to speedy disposition of cases or the right to speedy trial is invoked:
First, the right to speedy disposition of cases is different from the right to speedy trial.
Right to speedy trial may only be invoked in criminal prosecutions against courts of law.
Right to speedy disposition of cases may be invoked before any tribunal, whether
judicial or quasi-judicial. What is important is that the accused may already be prejudiced
by the proceeding for the right to speedy disposition of cases to be invoked.
Second, a case is deemed initiated upon the filing of a formal complaint prior to a conduct of a
preliminary investigation. The Ombudsman should set reasonable periods for preliminary
investigation, with due regard to the complexities and nuances of each case. Delays beyond this
period will be taken against the prosecution. The period taken for fact-finding investigations prior
to the filing of the formal complaint shall not be included in the determination of whether there
has been inordinate delay.
Third, courts must first determine which party carries the burden of proof.
If the right is invoked within the given time periods contained in current Supreme Court
resolutions and circulars, and the time periods that will be promulgated by the Office of
the Ombudsman, the defense has the burden of proving that the right was justifiably
invoked.
If the defense has the burden of proof, it must prove (a) whether the case is
motivated by malice or clearly only politically motivated and is attended by utter
lack of evidence, and (b) that the defense did not contribute to the delay.
If the delay occurs beyond the given time period and the right is invoked, the
prosecution has the burden of justifying the delay.
Once the burden of proof shifts to the prosecution, the prosecution must prove (a)
that it followed the prescribed procedure in the conduct of preliminary
investigation and in the prosecution of the case; (b) that the complexity of the
issues and the volume of evidence made the delay inevitable; and (c) that no
prejudice was suffered by the accused as a result of the delay.
Fourth, determination of the length of delay is never mechanical. Courts must consider the
entire context of the case, from the amount of evidence to be weighed to the simplicity or
complexity of the issues raised.
EXCEPTION:
1. If there is an allegation that the prosecution of the case was solely motivated by
malice, such as when the case is politically motivated or when there is continued
prosecution despite utter lack of evidence. If malicious prosecution is properly
alleged and substantially proven, the case would automatically be dismissed
without need of further analysis of the delay.
2. Waiver of the accused to the right to speedy disposition of cases or the right to
speedy trial if it can be proven that the accused acquiesced to the delay.
In all cases of dismissals due to inordinate delay, the causes of the delays must be properly
laid out and discussed by the relevant court.
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Fifth, the right to speedy disposition of cases or the right to speedy trial must be timely raised.
The respondent or the accused must file the appropriate motion upon the lapse of the statutory
or procedural periods. Otherwise, they are deemed to have waived their right to speedy
disposition of cases.
D. ARREST
E. BAIL
What are the guidelines provided by the Court regarding the searching inquiry requirement?
The trial courts are mandated to observe the following guidelines:
1. Ascertain from the accused himself –
a. How he was brought into the custody of the law;
b. Whether he had the assistance of a competent counsel during the custodial and
preliminary investigations; and
c. Under what conditions he was detained and interrogated during the
investigations. This is intended to rule out the possibility that the accused has been
coerced or placed under a state of duress either by actual threats of physical harm
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F. MOTION TO QUASH
During a seminar workshop attended by government employees from the Bureau of Customs
and the Bureau of Internal Revenue, Suntay, the speaker, in the course of his lecture, lamented
the fact that a great majority of those serving in said agencies were utte rly dishonest and
corrupt. The following morning, the whole group of employees in the two bureaus who
attended the seminar, as complainants, filed a criminal complaint against Suntay for uttering
what the group claimed to be defamatory statements of the lecturer.
In court, Suntay filed a motion to quash the information, reciting fully the above facts, on the
ground that no crime was committed. If you were the judge, how would you resolve the
motion?
I would grant the motion to quash on the ground that the facts charged do not constitute an
offense, since there is no definite person or persons dishonored.
Under Sec. 3, Rule 117, the accused may move to quash the complaint or information on any of
the following grounds:
a. That the facts charged do not constitute an offense;
b. That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the offense charged;
c. That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the person of the accused;
d. That the officer who filed the information had no authority to do so;
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The crime of libel or slander is a crime against honor such that the person or persons dishonored
must be identifiable even by innuendoes: otherwise, the crime against honor is not committed.
Moreover, A was not making malicious imputation, but merely stating an opinion; he was
delivering a lecture with no malice at all during a seminar workshop. Malice being inherently
absent in the utterance, the statement is not actionable as defamatory.
An order sustaining the motion to quash shall not be a bar to another prosecution for the same
offense unless the motion was based on the grounds of (1) extinguishment if criminal action or
liability, or (2) double jeopardy. (Sec. 6, Sec. 3(g, i), Rule 117)
G. TRIAL
Discuss the examination of witness for the prosecution before the Court.
Section 19, Rule 119 refers to the examination of witness for the prosecution. In order for the
testimony of the prosecution witness be taken before the court where the case is being heard, it
must be shown that the said prosecution witness is either: (a) too sick or infirm to appear at the
trial as directed by the order of the court, or; (b) has to leave the Philippines with no definite date
of returning.
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The court may determine whether the deposition should be taken upon oral examination or
written interrogatories to prevent abuse or harassment. (People v. Sergio, G.R. No. 240053, October
9, 2019)
What is the effect of filing a Demurrer to Evidence without leave of court in a criminal case?
If the demurrer is denied, the Accused shall not be allowed to present evidence and the Court
will render judgment. (Rule 119, Sec. 23)
Can an unverified tip by an anonymous informant be the sole basis of the police to conduct a
warrantless search on a motor vehicle?
No, exclusive reliance on an unverified, anonymous tip cannot engender probable cause that
permits a warrantless search of a moving vehicle that goes beyond a visual search. In criminal
prosecutions, including prosecutions for violations of the law on dangerous drugs, the law is
heavily in favor of the accused. Thus, information coming from a complete and anonymous
stranger, without the police officers undertaking even a semblance of verification, on their own,
cannot reasonably produce probable cause that warrants the conduct of an intrusive search.
(People v. Sapla, G.R. No. 244045, June 16, 2020)
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VIII. EVIDENCE
A. GENERAL CONCEPTS
The Burden of Evidence is the duty of the party to present evidence sufficient to establish or
rebut a fact in issue to establish a prima facie case. (Sec. 1, Rule 131)
B. JUDICIAL NOTICE
D. DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE
E. TESTIMONIAL EVIDENCE
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The reason for the rule is that, on a principle of good faith and mutual convenience, a man’s own
acts are binding upon himself, and are evidence against him. It would not only be inconvenient,
but also manifestly unjust, that a man should be bound by the acts of mere unauthorized
strangers; and that if a party ought not to be bound by the acts of strangers, neither ought their
acts or conduct be used as evidence against him (People v. Raquel, G.R. No. 119005, 1996).
Define Hearsay.
Hearsay is a statement other than one made by the declarant while testifying at a trial or hearing,
offered to prove the truth of the facts asserted therein. A statement is (1) an oral or written
assertion or (2) a non-verbal conduct of a person, if it is intended by him or her as an assertion.
Hearsay evidence is inadmissible except as otherwise provided in the Rules. (Sec. 37, Rule 130)
Immediately before he died of gunshot wounds to his chest, Marco told the attending
physician, in a very feeble voice, that it was Leandro, his co-worker, who had shot him. Marco
added that it was also Leandro who had shot Carlo, the man whose cadaver was lying on the
bed beside him. In the prosecution of Leandro for the criminal killing of Marco and Carlo, are
all the statements of Marco admissible as dying declarations? Explain your answer.
No, not all the statements of Marco are admissible as dying declarations.
Under the Rules on Evidence, a dying declaration is admissible as an exception to the hearsay
rule provided that the following circumstances are present: "(a) it concerns the cause and the
surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death; (b) it is made when death appears to be
imminent and the declarant is under a consciousness of impending death; (c) the declarant would
have been competent to testify had he or she survived; and (d) the dying declaration is offered in
a case in which the subject of inquiry involves the declarant's death. (People v. Rarugal, G.R. No.
188603, January 16, 2013)
Marco’s statement that it was Leandro who shot him is admissible as a dying declaration. The
same relates to Marco’s own demise. It may be inferred that Marco had consciousness of his
impending death since he suffered gunshot wounds to his chest which would necessarily be
mortal wounds.
However, Marco’s statement that it was Leandro who shot Carlo is not admissible as a dying
declaration since it did not relate to the cause of the declarant’s death but to the death of another
person.
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After hearing gunshots, C and D, siblings, scurried down their house to see their father, A,
lying on the ground, a gunshot wound to his chest. Concerned, C asked A what happened, to
which the latter, in the throes of death, replied with “Si-si Mama mo…”, referring to his wife,
B. A died before finishing his sentence. Can A’s statement be considered as a dying
declaration?
No, A’s statement cannot be considered a dying declaration. For a dying declaration to be
admissible, it must be complete in itself. To be complete in itself does not mean that the declarant
must recite everything that constituted the res gestae of the subject of his statement, but that his
statement of any given fact should be a full expression of all that he intended to say as conveying
his meaning in respect of such fact. In this case, A’s statement cannot be construed as being a full
expression of all that he intended to say. To assume that B was the one who shot A based on the
latter’s statement in the throes of his death would be to speculate what the rest of his
communication might have been. (People v. De Joya y Cruz, G.R. No. 75028, November 8, 1991)
Disputable Presumptions. A public document, as in the case of a Primary Entry Book in the
Register of Deeds is entitled to a presumption of truth as to the recitals contained therein pursuant
to Sec. 44, Rule 130 [now Sec 3. (m), Rule 131] of the Rules of Court, which provides that entries
in official records made the performance of duty by a public officer are prima facie evidence of
the truth of the facts therein stated. In the absence of strong, complete and conclusive proof of its
falsity, the evidentiary nature of such document must be sustained. For unless there is evidence
to the contrary, it is presumed that official duty has been regularly performed by the officer who
entered the details of the Deed of Sale pursuant to Sec. 3(m), Rule 131 of the ROC. (Heirs of
Bagaygay v. Heirs of Paciente, G.R. No. 212126 August 04, 2021)
G. PRESENTATION OF EVIDENCE
A Leading Question is one which suggests to the witness the answer which the examining party
desires. Although it is generally not allowed, some exceptions are:
1. On cross examination;
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2. On preliminary matters;
3. When there is difficulty in getting direct and intelligible answers from a witness who is
ignorant, or a child of tender years, or is of feeble mind, or a deaf-mute;
4. Of an unwilling or hostile witness; OR
5. Of a witness who is an adverse party or an officer, director, or managing agent of a public
or private corporation or of a partnership or association which is an adverse party (Sec.
10, Rule 132)
A Misleading Question is one which assumes as true a fact not yet testified to by the witness, or
contrary to that which he/she has previously stated. Unlike a Leading Question, there are no
exceptions which may be applied. (Sec. 10, Rule 132)
How can the due execution and authenticity of a private document be proven?
1. By anyone who saw the document executed or written;
2. By evidence of the genuineness of the signature or handwriting of the maker; OR
3. By other evidence showing its due execution and authenticity (Sec. 20, Rule 132).
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