CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024)

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2024

CLASS : LEADER (XIII) (PHASE - V TO VIII)
Test Type: Test Date : 08 - 11 - 2023 Test Pattern:
Time : 3 Hours 20 minutes INTERNAL TEST - 08 Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. This Question Paper contains 200 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/ mutilate the ORS orthis booklet.
6. How to fill response on OMR (Assuming answer is (1))
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Correct Method: Wrong Method:
7. Write your ALLEN Form Number, Student's Name, Father's Name and Class with pen in appropriate boxes.
Do not write these any where else.
8. Darken the appropriate bubbles on ORS with blue / black ball point pen only.
B. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
9. The question paper consists of 4 SUBJECTS (Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology). Each subject consists of
50 Multiple Choice Single Correct Questions and two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions and Section B will
have 15 questions. Out of 15 questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
10. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct
answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.
 SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : COM & Collision, RBD, Electrostatics.

SECTION-A 5. For a dipole q = 2 × 10−6 C and d = 0.01 m. If

E = 5 × 105 N/C , then calculate the maximum
1. Following figure shows a particle of mass 'm' is
torque for this dipole.
moving with horizontal speed 6 m/s. If m << M,
then for 1-dimentional elastic collision, what (1) 1 × 102 Nm2 (2) 1 × 10−3 Nm−1
will be the speed of lighter particle after (3) 10 × 10−3 Nm−1 (4) 10 × 10−3 Nm
collision?
6. 5 balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using
separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1)
show electrostatic attraction, while pair (2, 3)
(1) 4 m/s in original direction and (4, 5) represent repulsion. What can be said
(2) 4 m/s opposite to the original direction about ball 1?
(3) 2 m/s in original direction (1) It must be positively charged
(4) 2 m/s opposite to the original direction (2) It must be neutral
2. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls (3) It must be made of metal
without slipping down an inclined plane of (4) It must be negatively charged
length L and height h. What is the speed of its
centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its 7. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown.
bottom? In which direction will it move ?

(1) (2) 3
√ 2gh √
gh
4
(3) 4 (4)
√ gh √ 4gh
3
3. Four point charges – Q, – q, 2q and 2Q are
placed, one at each corner of the square. The
relation between Q and q for which the potential (1) Towards the right as its potential energy
at the centre of the square is zero is will increase
(2) 1 (2) Towards the left as its potential energy will
(1) Q = – q Q=− increase
q
(4) 1 (3) Towards the right as its potential energy
(3) Q = q Q=
q will decrease
4. N identical drops of mercury are charged (4) Towards the left as its potential energy will
simultaneously to 10 volt. When combined to decrease
form one large drop, the potential is found to be
40 volt, evaluate N.
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4

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8. A 10 kg body hangs at rest from a rope wrapped 12. A particle has a mass 400 times than that of the
around a cylinder 0.2 m in diameter. Find the electron and charge is double than that of a
torque applied about the horizontal axis of the electron. It is accelerated by 5 V of potential
cylinder. difference. Initially the particle was at rest, then
(1) 9.8 N-m (2) 19.6 N-m what will be its final kinetic energy?

(3) 98 N-m (4) 196 N-m (1) 200 eV (2) 100 eV

9. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are (3) 10 eV (4) 5 eV

placed at each corner. What will be the electric 13. What is the moment of inertia of a uniform
intensity at O? circular ring that have a mass M and radius R,
about an axis tangential to the ring and
perpendicular to its plane?
(1) 1 (2) MR2
MR2
2
(3) 3 MR2 (4) 2MR2
2
14. In the diagram shown, the charge +Q is fixed.
(1) 1 q (2) 1 q Another charge +2q is projected from a distance
4π ε0 r 4 π ε 0 r2 R from the fixed charge. The minimum
(3) 1 3q separation between the two charges when the
(4) Zero
4π ε0 r2 1
velocity becomes times of the projected
10. In which condition the angular momentum of a √ 3
system of particles changes? velocity is (assuming gravity to be absent):
(1) When torque acts on a body
(2) When force acts on a body
(1) 3 (2) 1
3R (3)
√
(3) When direction of velocity changes R √ R (4) 4R
2 2
(4) None of these 15. If 2 rings have their moments of inertia in the
11. A charged particle 'q' is shot towards another ratio 2 : 1 and their diameters are in the ratio 2 :
charged particle Q is fixed, with a speed 'v'. It 1. Then what will be the ratio of their masses?
approaches Q upto a closest distance 'r' and then (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
returns. if q were given a speed 2v, then what
would be the closest distances of approach? 16. A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3
m/s collides head on with a body of mass 1 kg
moving in opposite direction with a velocity of 4
m/s. After collision, two bodies stick together
(1) r (2) r (3) 2r (4) r and move with a common velocity. Determine
4 2 the velocity in m/s
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1
4 3 3 4

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17. A ball is allowed to fall from a height of 10 m. 21. Let 'I' be the moment of inertia of a disc about an
If there is 40% loss of energy due to impact, axis tangential and parallel to its surface, then
then evaluate the height of the ball upto which it what will be the moment of inertia about the axis
goes after one impact. tangential but perpendicular to the surface?
(1) 4 m (2) 6 m (3) 8 m (4) 10 m (1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6
I I I I
2 4 4 5
18. Two putty balls of equal mass moving with
22. Which of the following statements are correct?
equal velocity in mutually perpendicular
directions, stick together after collision. If the (i) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with
balls were initially moving with a velocity of the centre of gravity of the body.
(ii) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which
45 2ms−1 each, find the velocity of their
√
the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.
combined mass after collision.
(iii) A couple on a body produces both
(1) 22.5 2ms−1 √ (2) 45 2ms−1
√ translational and rotational motion in a body.
(3) 45ms−1 (4) 90ms−1 (iv) Mechanical advantage greater than one means
that small effort can be used to lift a large load.
19. A shell of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v'
suddenly breaks into 2 pieces. The part having (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
m (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) None of the above
mass remains stationary. The what will be
4
the velocity of the other shell? 23. A given charge is placed at a certain distance
(1) 4 from an electric dipole in the end-on position
v
(2) 3 v (3) 2v (4) v
3 4 experiences a force F. If the distance of the
20. Statement-1: Total kinetic energy of a rolling charge is doubled, how much force is acting on
solid sphere is the sum of translational as well as the charge?
rotational kinetic energies. (1) F (2) F (3) F (4) 2 F
Statement-2: Total kinetic energy is always 8 4 2
twice the translational kinetic energy, for all 24. If q1 + q2 = q, then estimate the value of the
solid bodies. q1
ratio , for which the force between q1 and q2
q
(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true is maximum.
and the statement 2 is the correct
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.75 (3) 0.5 (4) 1
explanation of the statement 1.
(2) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
(3) The statement 1 and statement 2 both are
false
(4) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false

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25. Choose the correct option: 28. If a skater of weight 3 kg has initial speed 32 m/s
→ ) at a
The direction of electric field intensity (E and second one of weight 4 kg has 5 m/s. They
point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole have speed (couple) 5 m/s after collision. Then
find the loss in K.E.
of dipole moment (P→ ) is
(1) 96 J (2) 48 J
(1) Along the equatorial line away from the
(3) Zero (4) None of these
dipole
(2) Along the equatorial line towards the dipole 29. A boy stands over the centre of a horizontal
platform which Is rotating freely with a speed of
(3) Perpendicular to the equatorial line and 2 revolutions/sec about a vertical axis through
opposite to P→ the centre of the platform and straight up through
(4) Perpendicular to the equatorial line and the boy. He holds 2 kg masses in each of his
hands close to his body. The combined moment
parallel to P→
of inertia of the system is 1 kg × m2. The boy
26. The following figure shows, an uncharged now stretches his arms so as to hold the masses
sphere of metal is kept in between two charged such that moment of inertia of the system
plates. The lines of force look like which of the increases to 2 kg × m2. What can be said about
following? the kinetic energy of the system in the latter case
as compared with that in the previous case.
(1) It increases
(2) It remain uncertain
(3) It decreases
(4) It remain unchanged
30. Conduction electrons are almost uniformly
distributed within a conducting plate. When
placed in an electrostatic field E→ , then what can
(1) D (2) C (3) B (4) A
be said about the electric field within the plate?
27. Two insulated charged spheres of radii 20 cm
and 25 cm respectively and having en equal (1) It depends upon E
charge Q are connected by a copper wire, and (2) It is zero
then they are separated. What can be said about
→
(3) It depends upon E
the charge?
(1) Charge on each of the sphere will be 2Q. (4) It depends upon the atomic number at the
conducting element.
(2) Charge on the 25 cm sphere will be greater
than that on the 20 cm sphere.
(3) Charge on the 20 cm sphere will be greater
then that on the 25 cm sphere
(4) Both the spheres will have the same charge Q.

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31. Column-I shows charge distribution and column-II 34. Statement-I: A bird perches on a high power line
shows electrostatics field created by that charge at and still nothing happens to the bird.
a point r distance from its centre. Statement-II: From the ground, the level of bird
Column-I Column-II is very high.
(A) A stationary point charge (p) E ∝ r0 (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-I are true
and the Statement-II is the correct
(B) A stationary uniformly long (q)
explanation of Statement-I.
charge rod E ∝ r−1
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-I are true
(r) but Statement-II is not the correct
(C) A stationary electric dipole
E ∝ r+1 explanation of Statement-I.
(D) A uniform charged solid (s) (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
sphere E ∝ r−2
(4) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II are
(t) false
E ∝ r−3
35. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a
(1) A-s, B-q, C-t, D-r,s (2) A-t, B-r, C-s, D-q uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder
(3) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-t (4) A-q, B-t, C-r, D-s axis. What is the total flux for the surface of the
cylinder?
32. Statement-I: As body acquires positive charge,
its mass decreases. (1) Zero (2) π R2 /E
Statement-II: A body acquires positive charge, if (3) 2 π R2 E (4) ( π R2 − π R) /E
it loses electrons.
SECTION-B
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-I are true and
the Statement-II is the correct explanation of 36. A thin rod of length l and mass m is bent at mid-
Statement-I. point O at angle of 60°. What will be the
moment of inertia of the rod about an axis
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-I are true but
passing through O and perpendicular to the plane
Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
of the rod?
Statement-I.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(4) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II are false
33. If two objects of masses 200 g and 500 g have
velocities 10i^ m / s and 3i^ + 5j^ m / s
respectively. then what is the velocity of their
centre of mass in m/s? (1) m ℓ 2 (2) m ℓ 2 (3) m ℓ 2 (4) m ℓ 2
(1) 5^ (2) 25 ^ 8 6 3 12
25i^ − j 5i^ + j
7 7
(3) 5 ^i − 25j^ (4) 5i^ − 25j^
7

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37. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 41. Statement-I When uncharged bob of a simple
16 × 10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the pendulum is kept in a horizontal electric field,
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the then its period of oscillation will remains same.
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an Statement-II The time period will decrease if bob
angle of 60∘ with the dipole axis is is charged and kept in horizontal electric field.
1 (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
( = 9 × 109 Nm2 /C 2 )
4π ε0 and the Statement-II is correct explanation
(1) 50 V (2) 200 V (3) 400 V (4) zero of the Statement-I.
38. If a body is rolling down an inclined plane and (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
its translational as well as rotational kinetic but Statement-II is not the correct
energies are equal. Then determine the body. explanation of Statement-I.
(1) Solid cylinder (2) Hollow cylinder (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(3) Solid sphere (4) Hollow sphere (4) Statement-1 is true, but Statement-II is false
39. Two identical balls equally charged, density 16 42. The ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness.
kg/m3 suspended by a string from a common The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure.
point are in equilibrium the angle between the IAB , IBC and ICA are the moments of inertia of
strings is 2 α . If the whole system is dipped in a the plate about AB, BC and CA respectively.
liquid of density of 8 kg/m3 at equilibrium, then Which one of the following relations is correct
angle remains same. Then the dielectric constant
of the liquid is: ( σ = density of ball, e = density
of liquid).
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
40. Equal charges are given to two spheres of
different radii. What will be the effect of its (1) IAB + IBC = ICA (2) ICA maximum
potential? (3) IAB > IBC (4) IBC > IAB
(1) More on the bigger sphere 43. 4 charges +Q, −Q, +Q, −Q are kept at the corners
(2) More on the smaller sphere of a square taken in order. Which of the following
(3) Equal on both the spheres relation is true at the centre of the square?
(1) E = 0, V ≠ 0 (2) E ≠ 0, V = 0
(4) Depend on the nature of the materials of the
spheres (3) E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0 (4) E = 0, V = 0

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44. A body at rest breaks up into 3 parts. If 2 parts 47. If a bullet of mass 'a' and velocity 'b' is fired into
having equal masses fly off perpendicularly a large block of mass 'c' and gets embedded in
each after with a velocity of 12 m/s, then what is it. Then what is the final velocity of the system?
the velocity of the third part which has 3 times (1) a + c ⋅ b (2) a + b
mass of each part? ⋅a
a c
(1) 4 2 m/s at 135∘ from each body
√ (3) a ⋅ b (4) c ⋅ b
a+c a+b
(2) 6 2 m/s at 135∘ from each body
√
48. A ball of mass 10 kg is moving with a velocity
∘
(3) 24√2 m/ s at angle of 135 from each body of 10 m/s. It strikes another ball of mass 5kg
(4) 4√2 m/ s at angle of 45∘ from each body which is moving in the same direction with a
velocity of 4 m/s. If the collision is elastic, then
45. The moment of inertia of a body about a given what will be their velocities after collision?
axis is 1.2 kg m2 . Initially, the body is at rest.
(1) 12 m/s, 25 m/s (2) 12 m/s, 10 m/s
In order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of
1500 joule, an angular acceleration of 25 (3) 6 m/s, 10 m/s (4) 6 m/s, 12 m/s
radian/sec2 must be applied about the axis for a 49. Solid sphere is rotating in free space. When the
duration of radius of the sphere is increased keeping mass
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s (3) 8 s (4) 10 s same, then the factor that will not be affected is:
46. A semicircular ring has mass m and radius R as (1) Angular velocity
shown in figure. Let I1,I2,I3 and I4 be the moments (2) Rotational kinetic energy
of inertia of the four axes as shown. Axis 1 passes
through centre and is perpendicular to plane of (3) Moment of inertia
ring. Then, match the following columns. (4) Angular momentum
50. A solid sphere, hollow sphere, solid cylinder,
hollow cylinder and ring each of mass M and
radius R are simultaneously released at rest from
top of incline and allowed to roll down the incline.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Time taken to reach bottom (p) Solid
Column-I Column-II is maximum for sphere
mR2 (b) Angular (q) Hollow
(A) I1 (p)
2 acceleration maximum for cylinder
3 (c) Kinetic energy at bottom is (r) Hollow
(B) I2 (q) ( ) mR2
2 same for sphere
(C) I3 (r) mR2 (d) Rotational kinetic energy is
(s) Ring
(D) I4 (s) 2mR 2 maximum for

(1) A-r; B-s; C-p; D-q (2) A-p; B-q; C-r; D-s (1) a-q; b-p; c-r; d-p,r (2) a-s; b-q; c-p; d-r
(3) A-q; B-p; C-s; D-r (4) A-s; B-q; C-r; D-p (3) a-p; b-s; c-r; d-q (4) a-s; b-p; c-q,s; d-s

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 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

Topic : Nomenclature & Isomerism.

SECTION-A 53. The IUPAC name (including the stereochemical

Attempt All 35 questions notation for the chiral carbon atom) of the compound.

51. Which of the following IUPAC names is not in

accordance with IUPAC nomenclature ?

(1) (1) (S) – 4 – methyl – 2 – propyl pentanal

2-Bromo-3-methyl-but-2-en-1-ol (2) 2 – methyl heptane – 4 – aldehyde
(3) (R) – 4 – methyl – 2 – propyl heptanal
(4) (S) – 2 – (2 – methyl propyl) petanal
(2)
54. The IUPAC name of the compound is
1-nitro-2-ethoxy cyclohexane

(3)
3-methyl butoxy benzene

(4)
3,5-Dimethyl hexane-1,3,5-triol
52. A compound with molecular formula C6H14O2 (1) 4 – methoxy – 2 – nitrobenzaldehyde
has two 3o alcohol groups. The IUPAC name of (2) 4 – formyl – 3 – nitroanisole
the compound is:
(3) 2 – methoxy – 6 – nitrobenzaldehyde
(1) 2,3 – dimethyl butane – 2,3 – diol
(2) 3,3 – dimethyl – 1,2 – butane diol (4) 2 – formyl – 5 – methoxy nitrobenzene
(3) 2 – methyl – 2,3 – petane diol
(4) 2,3 – dimethyl – 1,2 – butane diol

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55. The names of some compounds are given which 58. Which of the following is N,N-dimethyl aniline?
one is not the correct IUPAC name.
PhCH2CH2COOH
(1)
3-phenylpropanoic acid (1)

(2) (2)

2-methyl cyclopetane carboxylic acid.

(CH3 )2 C = CH − COOH (3)
(3)
3,3-dimethyl prop-2-enoic acid

(4)
(4)
59. The correct IUPAC name for
2,4,6-Trinitro benzoic acid.
H2 C = CH − CH2 − NH − CH3 is:
56. The IUPAC name of the following amine is:
(1) Allyl methyl amine
(2) 4 – aminopent – 1.ene
(3) 2 – aminopent – 4 – ene
(4) N – methyl prop – 2 – en – 1 – amine
(1) N,N,3-Trimethyl pentan-3-amine 60. The IUPAC name of the following compound is:
(2) 3,N,N-Trimethyl pentan-3-amine
(3) N,N,2-Trimethyl pentan-2-amine
(4) 2,N,N-Trimethyl pentan-2-amine
57. (1) 4 – chloro methyl – 2,3 – dimethyl hexan – 1 – ol
(2) 3 – chloro methyl – 3 – isopropyl pentan – 1 – ol
Correct IUPAC name of compound is (3) 3 – chloromethyl – 4 – isopropyl pentan – 5 – ol
(1) 1,2-dimethyl cyclobutene (4) 3 – chloromethyl – 2 – isopropyl pentan – 1 – ol
(2) 2,3-dimethyl cyclobutene 61. Most stable form of butane is
(3) 1,2-dimethyl cyclobut-2-ene (1) Eclipsed (2) Skew-symmetric
(4) 1,4-dimethyl cyclobutene (3) Staggered (4) Gauche

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62. Select the pair which are homologous to each 64. Assertion: At dihedral angle of θ = 60∘ , ethylene
other glycol is stable.
(1)

Reason: is the most

(2)

stable form due to intramolecular hydrogen

bonding.
(3)
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
is not the correct explanation of assertion.
63. Match the following conformers with right
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
form:
Column-I Column-II (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
65. The minimum number of carbon atoms required
in an alkane to show positional isomerism is:
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 4
(P) (A) Eclipsed
66. Statement-I: cis-but-2-ene has higher melting
point than trans-but-2-ene.
Statement-II: cis-but-2-ene has higher dipole
moment than trans-but-2-ene.
(1) Both the statements are correct.

(Q) (B) Staggered (2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is

incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect.

(R) (C) Gauche

(1) P – C; Q – B; R – A (2) P – B; Q – A; R – C
(3) P – C; Q – A; R – B (4) P – B; Q – C; R – A

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67. Assertion: 1,2-dichloro ethene show geometrical 69. Select the correct statements:
isomerism. (A) (CH3 )2 C = C(Cl)2 show cis-trans isomerism.
Reason: Due to free rotation around pi-bond, (B) has
the above mentioned compound can 10 geometrical isomers.
show geometrical isomerism.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the (C) is a cis isomers.
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(D) , given compound is
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
in trans form.
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. (1) A, B, C (2) B, C
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (3) A, B, C, D (4) All are incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. 70. Select a correct statement :
(A) cis and trans isomers are separated by
68. Match the isomerism with the compounds:
fractional distillation.
(P) (B) C=C, C=N, N=N groups can show
(A) Trans-isomer geometrical isomerism.
(C) cis-but-2-ene has higher boiling point than
(Q) trans-but-2-ene.
(B) Syn-anti nomenclature
(1) A, B, C (2) A, B
(R) (3) B, C (4) All are incorrect
(C) Z-isomer 71. Number of chiral atoms in the below mentioned
structure :
(S)
(D) NO Geometrical
isomerism

(1) A – S;B – P; C – Q; D – R
(2) A – S;B – R; C – P; D – Q (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0

(3) A – S;B – Q; C – R; D – P
(4) A – S;B – P; C – R; D – Q

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72. Which of the given compound is optically active ? 76. Resolution means :
(1) Separation of d & ℓ
(2) Separation of D & L
(1)
(3) Separation of R & S
(4) Separation of meso compounds.
77. Alkadienes are functional group isomers of
(2) (A) Alkynes (B) Alkenes
(C) Alkenynes (D) Cycloalkenes
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and D (4) C and D
(3) 78. Assertion: Compounds which have chiral
carbons but don't show optical activity are called
meso compounds.
Reason: When compound contains any elements
of symmetry, optical activity gets cancelled out.
(4) (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
73. Assign nomenclature for the structure, is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
79. Select the correct statements:
(i) Non-super imposable, non-mirror images are
(1) R (2) S (3) D (4) L
diastereomers.
74. (ii) Non-super imposable, mirror images are
given pair of enantiomers.
(iii) Super imposable mirror images are optical active.

compounds are : (1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii)

(1) Enantiomers (2) Diastereomers (3) (i), (ii) (4) (ii), (iii)

(3) Epimers (4) Meso compounds. 80. Total number of stereo isomers for the given
compound :
75. In which of the following, internal compensation
happens?
(1) Racemic mixture (2) Meso compounds
(3) Epimers (4) Diastereomers (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 2

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81. Correct IUPAC name of given compound is : 84. Which among the given compound is
5-ethenyl-3-ethynyl octa-1,6-diene.

(1) 2,4-diethyl pentane (1)

(2) 3,5-dimethyl heptane
(3) 2,4-dimethyl heptane
(2)
(4) 2-ehtyl-4-methyl hexane
82. Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is
(3)

(4)
(1) 5,6-di isopentyl decane
85. Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is:
(2) 5,6-bis(3-methylbutyl) decane
(3) 5,6-dibutyl-2,9-dimethyl decane
(4) 2,9-dimethyl-5,6-dibutyl decane
83. Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is :
(1) 3-Bromo-1,1-dichloro cyclohexane.
(2) 1-Bromo-3,3-dichloro cyclohexane.
(3) 3-Bromo-1,1-dichlorohexane.
(4) 1-Bromo-3,3-dichlorohexane.
(1) 5-formyl 2,8-dimethyl nonane-1,9-dioic
acid.
(2) Nonane-2,5,8-tri carboxylic acid.
(3) 5-formyl nonane-2,8-dicarboxylic acid.
(4) 5-formyl, 2,8-dimethyl nonane-1,9-di
carboxylic acid.

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 SECTION-B 88. IUPAC name of the following compound.
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
86. Match the following compounds with their
(1) cis-4-bromo-3-methyl pent-2-ene
correct IUPAC name:
(A) (2) trans-4-bromo-3-methyl pent-2-ene
(p) 5-ethenyl nona-
(3) cis-2-bromo-3-methyl pent-3-ene
1,8-diene
(4) trans-2-bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
(B)
(q) 5-ethyl nona- 89. The structure of 1-bromo-4-sec-butyl-2-methyl benzene is:
1,3,5-triene

(C) (r) 3-ethenyl nona- (1)

1,6-diene

(D) (s) 5-ethyl nona-

1,4,8-triene (2)

(1) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s (2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s
(3)
(3) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q (4) A-p, B-r, C-s, D-q
87. Assertion:

(4)
correct IUPAC name of the compound is 5-
methyl - 7- isopropyl tridecane.
Reason: Since compound has 13 carbon atoms 90. Which of the following statement about the
in long chain, branching at 5th and 7th carbon following is are correct?
and alphabetically 'm' comes before 'p', methyl
is written before over isopropyl.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(1) It is a primary alcohol
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the not (2) It is an allylic alcohol
correct explanation of A (3) Its IUPAC name is 3-methyl-4-phenyl but -3-en-2-ol
(3) A is true but R is false (4) All statements are correct
(4) A is false and R also false
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91. Which of the following does not come under 96. Select the correct statements :
structural isomerism? (i) Esters are functional group isomers of
(1) Chain isomerism alcohols.
(2) Ring-chain isomerism (ii) Minimum carbons required for an alkene to
(3) Optical isomerism show position isomerism is 5.
(4) Position isomerism (iii) Isopentane and neopentane are chain isomers.
92. Number of chain isomers possible for C5H12? (iv) Tertiary amines can show metamerism.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 5 (1) (i), (ii) (2) (iii), (iv)
93. Minimum number of carbons required for an (3) Only (iii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
alkene to show chain isomerism?
97.
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6 Statement-I: are metamers.
94. Given pair of compounds are : Statement-II: metamerism can be applied only to
divalent functional groups.
(1) Both statements are correct.

(1) Chain isomers (2) Statement-I is correct, but statement-II is

incorrect.
(2) Position isomers
(3) Statement-I is incorrect, but statement-II is correct.
(3) Metamers
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) Functional group isomers
98. Assertion: 2-formyl pentanoic acid & 3-formyl
95. Match the following pairs with the isomerism pentanoic acid are chain isomers.
the compounds show : Reason: Longest carbon chain the above
(A) mentioned compounds should include carbons
(P) Chain isomers from both functional groups.
(B) (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(Q) Position isomers reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(R) Functional group (C) is not the correct explanation of assertion.
isomers (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(S) Metamers
99. Skew form of ethane occurs at dihedral angle of :
(1) P – C; Q – B; R – A; S – D (1) 60° (2) 240° (3) 200° (4) 300°
(2) P – C; Q – B; R – D; S – A 100. Number of rotamers for propane are :
(3) P – B; Q – C; R – A; S – D (1) 6 (2) Infinity
(4) P – B; Q – C; R – D; S – A (3) 3 (4) 8

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 SUBJECT : BOTANY
Topic : Morphology Of Flowering Plants.

SECTION-A 106. Stamens are united into two bundles in

Attempt All 35 questions (1) China rose (2) Pea
101. In mustard (3) Citrus (4) Solanum
(1) Placentation is free central type. 107. Pneumatophores ________
(2) Placenta is axial in position (1) Are modification of stem
(3) Ovary has basal placentation (2) Help to get oxygen for respiration
(4) Ovary becomes two-chambered due to (3) Are found in Rhizopus
formation of false septum (4) Are modification of root for support
102. Stems of Euphorbia are 108. Opposite phyllotaxy is found in
(1) Flattened and carry out photosynthesis (1) Alstonia (2) China rose
(2) Cylindrical and non-photosynthetic (3) Mustard (4) Calotropis
(3) Flattened and bear thorns 109. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(4) Cylindrical and photosynthetic correct combination from the options given below.
103. In racemose type of inflorescence Column-I
Column-II
(Position of floral parts
(1) Main axis continues to grow (Represented in)
on thalamus)
(2) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order
(I) Ray florets of
(3) Main axis terminates in a flower (A) Hypogynous
sunflower
(4) Growth of main axis is limited (B) Perigynous (II) Brinjal
104. Select the odd one for corolla. (C) Epigynous (III) Peach
(1) They are of various shapes tubular, funnel (1) A – II, B – I, C – III
or wheel-shaped
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III
(2) They are brightly coloured in insect
pollinated flowers (3) A – III, B – II, C – I

(3) They may be united with each other called (4) A – II, B – III, C – I
gamotepalous 110. A drupe develops in :-
(4) Their number varies among plant species (1) Mango (2) Wheat
105. Margins of petals overlap one another but not in (3) Pea (4) Tomato
a particular direction as in
(1) Pea (2) Cotton
(3) Tomato (4) Cassia

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111. Match the following stem modifications given in 114. The regions of the stem where leaves are borne
column-I with their examples given in column-II are called _________ while _________ are the
and select the correct combination from the portions between two _________.
options given below. (1) Nodes, nodes and internodes
Column-I Column-II
(2) Nodes, internodes and nodes
(Stem Modifications) (Found in)
(3) Internodes, nodes and nodes
(A) Underground stem (I) Opuntia
(B) Stem tendril (II) Potato (4) Internodes, internodes and nodes

(C) Stem thorns (III) Citrus 115. Which of the following groups of plants have
underground stems?
(D) Flattened stem (IV) Cucumber
(1) Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Euphorbia, Zaminkand
(1) A – I, B – II; C – III; D – IV
(2) Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Zaminkand, Colocasia
(2) A – II, B – IV; C – III; D – I
(3) Potato, Citrus, Opuntia, Zaminkand, Colocasia
(3) A – III, B – IV; C – II; D – I
(4) Potato, Cucumber, Watermelon, Zaminkand,
(4) A – III, B – I; C – IV; D – II Colocasia
112. Match column-I containing types of aestivation 116. A branch in which each node bearing a rossette
with their examples given in column-II and of leaves and a tuft of roots is found in aquatic
choose the correct option. plants like ________ and ________.
Column-I Column-II (1) Hydrilla and Pistia
(Type of aestivation) (Examples)
(2) Eichhornia and Hydrilla
A. Valvate I. Cotton
(3) Pistia and Eichhornia
B. Twisted II. Calotropis
(4) Pistia and Vallisneria
C. Imbricate III. Bean
117. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
D. Vexillary IV. Gulmohar
correct about calyx?
(1) A - I; B - II; C - IV; D - III (1) Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower
(2) A - II; B - I; C - IV; D - III and the members are called sepals.
(3) A - II; B - IV; C - I; D - III (2) Sepals are green, leaf like structure and
protect the flower in the bud stage.
(4) A - II; B - I; C - III; D - IV
(3) The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals
113. When a flower can be divided into two equal
free) or polysepalous (sepals united).
halves in any radial plane passing through the
centre, it is known as (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Actinomorphic (2) Zygomorphic
(3) Asymmetric (4) Bisymmetric

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118. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 121. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the
correct about venation? correct option.
(i) The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in Column-I Column-II
the lamina of leaf is called venation.
(A) (i) Arrangement of flowers on
(ii) Reticulate venation is the characteristic of
Placentation the floral axis.
monocots.
(iii) When the veinlets form a network, the (B) (ii) Modified shoot for sexual
venation is termed as reticulate venation. Aestivation reproduction.
(iv) When the veins run parallel to each other (iii) Arrangement of sepals (or)
within a lamina, the venation is termed as (C)
petals in floral bud w.r.t the other
parallel venation. Inflorescence
members of the same whorl.
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) Arrangement of ovules
(D) Flower
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) All of these within an ovary.
119. Read the following statements and answer the (1) A – i; B – ii; C – iii; D – iv
question. (2) A – iii; B – i; C – ii; D – iv
(i) Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and
other parts of the flower are located on the rim (3) A – iii; B – i; C – iv; D – ii
of the thalamus almost at the same level. (4) A – iv; B – iii; C – i; D – ii
(ii) Ovary is half-inferior. 122. Epipetalous stamens are seen in
(iii) Examples are plum, rose and peach.
Which condition of flowers is being described (1) Mustard (2) Citrus
by the above statements ? (3) Pea (4) Brinjal
(1) Hypogyny (2) Perigyny 123. Pick out the odd one w.r.t. modified stem.
(3) Epigyny (4) None of these (1) Grapevine (2) Venus - fly trap
120. Pulvinus leaf base is seen in (3) Citrus (4) Bougainvillea
(1) All leguminous plants 124. Given figures (A, B and C) show the position of
(2) Some leguminous plants floral parts on thalamus. (given as I, II and III)
Select the correct combination.
(3) All monocot plants
(4) Some monocot plants

I. Hypogynous flower
II. Perigynous flower
III. Epigynous flower
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III (2) A-I, B-III, C-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I (4) A-III, B-I, C-II

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125. Syncarpous gynoecium is found in 130. Match the following :
(1) Mustard and Tomato List-I List-II
(2) Rose and China rose (A) Root cap (i) Root hairs
(3) China rose and Lotus (B) Region of
(4) Lotus and Brinjal meristematic (ii) Thimble like structure
126. By looking into a floral formula of a plant one activity
can not conclude that flower (iii) Cells are small and
(C) Region of
(1) Is actinomorphic or zygomorphic thin walled with dense
elongation
(2) Placentation protoplasm
(3) Has how many number of floral whorls (D) Region of (iv) Cells gradually
(4) Is bisexual or unisexual maturation differentiate and mature
127. In a pinnately compound leaf (1) A – ii; B – iii; C – iv; D – i
(1) Leaflets are attached at the tip of petiole (2)A – ii; B – iv; C – i; D – iii
(2) Rachis represents midrib of the leaf (3)A – i; B – ii; C – iii; D – iv
(3) The incision in lamina do not touch the midrib (4)A – iv; B – iii; C – ii; D – i
(4) A bud is present in the axil of leaflets
131. Sheathing leaf base is found in
128. Which of the following figures represents a
typical placentation as seen in Hibiscus rosa (1) Monocots (2) Dicots
sinensis (China rose) ?
(3) Gymnosperms (4) All the above
132. Assertion: Monoadelphous stamens are found in
(1) (2) China rose.
Reason: In pea, stamens are united to form many
bundles.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(2) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(3) (4) (3) Assertion only correct.
(4) Reason only correct.
133. Assertion: Fruit is the mature or ripened ovary
129. (I) Aleurone layer (II) Scutellum developed after fertilisation.
(III) Coleoptile (IV) Coleorhiza Reason: Fruit formed without fertilisation of the
Find the correct option with respect to above ovary is called parthenocarpic fruit.
information.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(1) Gram – Monocot seed reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Pea – Dicot seed (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason
(3) Maize – Dicot seed is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Maize – Monocot seed (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

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134. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of : 138. In china rose the flowers are :
(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem (1) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted
(3) Leaf (4) Stipules aestivation.

135. Leaves of which of the plants became fleshy and (2) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted
is modified for storage of food. aestivation.

(1) Onion (2) Garlic (3) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate

aestivation
(3) Australian acacia (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate
SECTION-B aestivation
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate 139. The correct floral formula of soyabean is :-
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(1)
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
136. (2)

(3)

(4)
The above floral diagram belongs to
140. Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, AIIium, Aloe,
(1) Pea (2) Brinjal Mustard, Groundnut, Radish, Gram and Turnip
(3) Mustard (4) Onion How many plants among have stamens with
137. Assertion: In fabaceae family monocarpellary, different lengths in their flowers ?
unilocular ovary is present. (1) Five (2) Six (3) Three (4) Four
Reason: In fabaceae, placentation is parietal. 141. Stems modified into green organs performing the
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and the function(photosynthesis) of leaves are known as :
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (1) Staminode (2) Phyllodes
(2) Assertion only correct (3) Phylloclades (4) Scales
(3) Reason only correct 142. Endospermic seed is present in
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the (1) Pea (2) Castor
reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Bean (4) Gram

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143. Sweet potato is a modified 147. (a) Inferior ovary.
(1) Stem (2) Adventitious root (b) Epigynous flower
(c) Basal placentation
(3) Tap root (4) Rhizome The above given features are seen in
144. Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in (1) Tomato (2) Cotton
mustard plant is :
(3) Sunflower (4) Calotropis
(1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position,
while the other parts are situated below it. 148. Select a correct match :
(2) Margin of the thalamus grows upward, (1) Didynamous stamen – Cassia
enclosing the ovary completely, and other (2) Tetradynamous stamen – Mustard
parts arise below the ovary.
(3) Epiphyllous condition – China rose
(3) Gynoecium is present in the centre and
(4) Syngenesious condition – Cucumber
other parts cover it partially.
149. Select the incorrect match:
(4) Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and
other parts of the flower are located at the (1) Leaf tendril – Pea
rim of the thalamus, at the same level. (2) Cactus - Spines
145. In which of the following plant ovules are borne (3) Onion - Fleshy leaves
on central axis of ovary and septa are absent
(4) Pitcher plant - Spines
(1) Brassica (2) Citrus
150. Which is incorrect for tap root?
(3) Dianthus (4) Argemone
(1) Radicle develops into primary root
146. Vexillary aestivation and Zygomorphic corolla
are seen in (2) Primary root is branched
(1) Pea and Bean (3) Primary root is persistent
(2) Cassia and Gulmohur (4) Primary root is short lived
(3) China rose and Mustard
(4) Onion and Chilli

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 SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY

Topic : Structural Organization In Animals - Animal Types (Frog, Cockroach), And Animal
Tissues.

SECTION-A 158. The epithelium which is made up of more than

Attempt All 35 questions one layer of cells and their main function is to
provide protection against chemical and
151. A type of cell not present in areolar tissue is mechanical stresses is found in inner lining of
(1) Mast cell (2) Fibroblast
(1) Bronchi (2) PCT of nephron
(3) Macrophage (4) Chondrocyte
152. Alveolar walls are lined by (3) Stomach (4) Pancreatic ducts
(1) Simple squamous epithelium 159. Choose the odd one w.r.t presence of collagen
(2) Stratified squamous epithelium fibres.
(3) Compound cuboidal epithelium (1) Fluid connective tissue
(4) Ciliated squamous epithelium
(2) Dense regular connective tissue
153. Cells of specialized connective tissue, cartilage,
are called (3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(1) Chondrocytes (2) Osteoblasts (4) Loose connective tissue
(3) Osteoclasts (4) Fibroblasts 160. The tissue which exerts greatest control over the
154. Which of the following is not a function of body's responsiveness to stimuli is
simple epithelium? (1) Cardiac muscle tissue
(1) Diffusion of gases
(2) Neural tissue
(2) Absorption of nutrients
(3) Filtration of nitrogenous waste (3) Skeletal tissue
(4) Bearing chemical stresses (4) Blood
155. Skeletal muscle is connected to bone with the 161. Dense irregular connective tissue is present in
help of
(1) Tendon (2) Ligaments (1) Tendons (2) Ligaments
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Elastic cartilage (3) Skin (4) Cartilage
156. Simple epithelium is not present on surfaces 162. Find out the incorrect statement :
associated with
(1) Secretion (2) Absorption (1) Squamous epithelial tissue is found in the
wall of blood vessels
(3) Protection (4) Filtration
157. Which of the following facilitate the cells to (2) Cuboidal epithelium is present in testis
communicate with each other by connecting the and ovary
cytoplasm of adjoining cells, for rapid transfer of (3) Ciliated epithelium is not present in
ions, small molecules and sometimes big molecules? fallopian tube
(1) Tight junctions (2) Gap junctions (4) Columnar epithelium has basal nucleus
(3) Adhering junctions (4) Desmosomes

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163. Read the following statements : 166. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) :
(i) Tight junctions help to stop substances I. Simple epithelium covers only the dry
from leaking across a tissue. surface of the skin.
(ii) Goblet cells are multicellular endocrine II. In dense regular connective tissue, the
glands. collagen fibres have similar orientation.
(iii) Simple epithelium is made of a single layer III. Most of the cartilages are replaced by bones
of cells. in adults among vertebrates.
(iv) Compound epithelium occurs in IV. Compound epithelium has little role in
stomach, intestine and trachea. secretion and absorption.
How many of the above statements are correct? (1) I – T; II – F; III – F; IV – F
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One (2) I – T; II – T; III – F; IV – F
164. Select incorrect statement with respect to cartilage (3) I – F; II – T; III – T; IV – T
(1) The matrix is solid, pliable and resists compression (4) I – F; II – T; III – T; IV – F
(2) Chondrocytes are enclosed in the lacunae 167. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given
below represent four different types of animal
(3) Calcium salts may or may not be present tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified
in the matrix along with its correct location and function ?
(4) Has blood supply that runs deep into matrix
165. Identify figures a, b and c and then choose
the correct option

Tissue Location Function

Tubular
Simple columnar
(1) (a) – Pseudostratified epithelium; (1) A part of Secretion
epithelium
(b) – Multicellular gland; nephron
(c) – Transitional epithelium Simple squamous Fallopian Transport
(2) B
epithelium tube of gamete
(2) (a) – Multicellular gland;
(b) – Unicellular gland; Walls of
blood
(c) – Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple vessels
(3) (a) – Transitional epithelium; Diffusion
(3) C cuboidal and
boundary
(b) – Goblet cells; epithelium alveoli
(c) – Compound epithelium of
lungs
(4) (a) – Unicellular gland;
(b) – Multicellular gland; Compound
(4) D Skin Protection
(c) – Compound epithelium epithelium

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168. Read the following statements (A-D) : 172. The cockroach is:
A - Squamous epithelium is found in the alveoli. (1) Ammonotelic only
B - Cuboidal epithelium is found in the lining of
alimentary canal. (2) Uricotelic only
C - Compound epithelium is found in pharynx. (3) Ureotelic only
D - The epithelium of Proximal Convoluted (4) Ureotelic and Uricotelic
Tubule has microvilli.
How many of the above statements are true? 173. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: In cockroaches, the forewings are
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
transparent and prothoracic in origin.
169. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? Statement-II: In cockroaches, the hind wings are
(1) Areolar tissue Loose connective tissue opaque, leathery and mesothoracic in origin.
(2) Adipose tissue Loose connective tissue (1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is
(3) Cartilage Specialised connective tissue false.

(4) Blood Dense connective tissue (2) Statement-I is false but statement-II is
true.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
170. In Cockroach, excretion is brought about by :
(4) Both statement l and statement II are false.
(A) Phallic gland (B) Urecose gland
(C) Nephrocytes (D) Fat body 174. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from:
(E) Collaterial glands (1) Prothorax
Choose the correct answer from the (2) Prothorax
and Mesothorax
options given below:
(3) Mesothorax (4) Metathorax
(1) B and D only (2) A and E only
175. Assertion(A): Adipose tissues are specialised to
(3) A, B and E only (4) B, C and D only store fats.
171. Which of the following is the characteristic feature Reason (R): Extra nutrients, which are not used
of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism ? immediately by the body get converted into fats.
(1) Presence of anal cerci (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(2) Dark brown body colour and anal cerci (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Presence of anal styles (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(4) Presence of sclerites
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A).

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176. Match List-I with List-Il regarding the organs 179. Select the correct sequence of organs in the
of cockroach: alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
List-I List-II mouth:
(i) Grinding the food (1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → lleum →
(a) Crop Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
particles
(ii) Secretion of (2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop
(b) Proventriculus → Gizzard → lleum → Colon
digestive juice
→ Rectum
(iii) Removal of
(c) Hepatic caecae (3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard
nitrogenous waste
(d) Malpighian → Crop → lleum → Colon → Rectum
(iv) Storage of food (4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard
tubules
Choose the correct answer from the options → lleum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
given below: 180. Which of the following statements is
(1) a – iv; b – i; c – ii; d – iii INCORRECT?
(2) a – iii; b – ii; c – i; d – iv (1) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less
sensitivity and more resolution.
(3) a – ii; b – iv; c – i; d – iii
(2) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the
(4) a – i; b – iv; c – iii; d – ii 6th-7th abdominal segments of male.
177. Excretion in cockroach is performed by all, (3) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th
EXCEPT : segment of female cockroach.
(1) Uricose glands (2) Malpighian tubules (4) Female cockroach possesses sixteen
(3) Fat body (4) Hepatic caeca ovarioles in the ovaries.
178. Which one of the following characteristics is 181. Which of the following feature is used to
incorrect with respect to cockroaches? identify a male cockroach from a female
cockroach?
(1) In females, 7th-8th sterna together form a
genital pouch. (1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
9th abdominal segment.
(2) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes,
bears a pair of anal cerci. (2) Presence of caudal styles.
(3) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the (3) Forewings with darker tegmina.
junction of midgut and hind gut. (4) Presence of anal cerci.
(4) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity 182. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which
enclosed by the mouth parts. part of the reproductive system?
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Mushroom glands
(3) Testes (4) Vas deferens

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183. Select the correct route for the passage of SECTION-B
sperms in the male frogs. This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(1) Testis → Bidder's canal → Kidney → can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital duct → these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
Cloaca more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(2) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → questions will be considered for marking.
Seminal Vesicle → 186. Frogs can protect itself from enemies by
Urinogenital duct → Cloaca (1) Clawed toes (2) Spiny skin
(3) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's
(3) Camouflage (4) Sharp teeth
canal → Ureter → Cloaca
187. Regarding frogs:
(4) Testis → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Statement-I: They have the ability to change the
Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → colour to hide them from their enemies
Cloaca (camouflage).
184. Frog's heart when taken out of the body Statement-Il: They undergo summer sleep called
continues to beat for sometime. as hibernation as well as winter sleep called as
aestivation.
Select the best option from the following
statements. (1) Only Statement-II is correct
I. Frog is a poikilotherm. (2) Only Statement-I is correct
II. Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
III. Heart is "myogenic" in nature.
IV. Heart is autoexcitable. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) Only III (2) Only IV 188. Identify the incorrect statement amongst the
following:
(3) I and II (4) III and IV
(1) There is no functional connection of ovaries
185. The biological adaptation that allows frogs to with kidneys in female frog.
obtain water for their survival during conditions (2) In male frog, the ureter arises as urogenital
of water scarcity is the duct and opens into the cloaca.
(1) Presence of a modified tongue that acts like (3) The fertilization in frog is external.
a sponge to suck water from damp soils.
(4) Development in frogs is direct.
(2) Presence of water channels in the skin by
189. Regarding frog:
which they absorb water from their
I. They undergo aestivation and hibernation.
surroundings.
II. They are carnivorous.
(3) Presence of ciliated oesophagus that helps IlI. They are poikilotherms.
in separating water from ingested
(1) I, II, III are correct
particulate matter.
(4) Selective feeding on plants with a large (2) I and II are correct
amount of water that would fulfill the water (3) I and III are correct
requirement. (4) II and III are correct

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190. A male frog can be distinguished externally from a 196. Identify '3' in the pathway of food ingested by frog.
female frog by all of the following features except :
(a) Presence of sound producing vocal sacs.
(b) Presence of copulatory pad on the first digit of (1) Larynx (2) Pharynx
the forelimbs. (3) Gizzard (4) Crop
(c) Ureters carry both sperms and urine in male frog.
(d) Testes are adhered to the upper part of kidneys 197.
by a double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium.
(1) a, b, c and d (2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only (4) c and d only
191. Which of the following is incorrect statement
about frog?
(1) Body is divisible into head and trunk.
(2) The skin is moist without scales. The above figure is associated with
diagrammatic representation of internal organs
(3) A tympanum represents the ear.
of frog. Identify A to E.
(4) Fore limbs have four digits with webs and
(1) A – Gall bladder; B – Lung; C – Ovary; D –
hind limbs have five digits without webs.
Testis; E – Rectum
192. Forelimbs of frog have :
(2) A – Gall bladder; B – Lung; C – Fat bodies;
(1) Five digits (2) Four digits D – Testis; E – Rectum
(3) Three fingers (4) One finger (3) A – Gall bladder; B – Lung; C – Testis; D –
193. Which of this is not a distinguishing feature of a Kidney; E – Rectum
male frog ?
(4) A – Gall bladder; B – Lung; C – Fat bodies;
(1) Narrow abdomen
D – Kidney; E – Rectum
(2) Copulatory pad
(3) Vocal sacs 198. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken :-
(4) Moist, slippery skin (1) Bones will move freely at joints
194. Where are the copulatory pads in male frog present? (2) No movement at joint
(1) Second digit of the hindlimbs (3) Bone will become unfix
(2) First digit of the hindlimbs (4) Bone will become fixed
(3) First digit of the forelimbs 199. Haversian canals are found in the :
(4) Second digit of the forelimbs (1) Bones of birds (2) Bones of mammals
195. Which of these characteristics of frog is (3) Bones of frog (4) Cartilage
the reason for its short alimentary canal?
200. Number of cranial nerves found in frog :-
(1) Carnivorous (2) Sexual dimorphism
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 20 (4) 24
(3) Amphibian (4) Chordate

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