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Test 3

The document contains instructions for a test with 200 total marks across 4 sections with varying time limits. It provides 5 sample questions from the Logical Reasoning section that involve analyzing seating arrangements and relationships between 9 people sitting in a row. The questions require determining positions, directions faced, and relationships between the people.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

93 views378 pages

Test 3

Uploaded by

SYED ADNAN ALAM

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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IDBI Assistant Manager Full Test 3

Total Time: 2 Hour Total Marks: 200

Instructions

Sl No. of Maximum Negative Positive

Section Name
No. Question Marks Marks Marks

Logical Reasoning, Data Analysis

1 60 60 0.25 1
& Interpretation

2 English Language 40 40 0.25 1

3 Quantitative Aptitude 40 40 0.25 1

General/Economy/Banking
4 60 60 0.25 1
Awareness

1.) A total of 120 minutes is allotted for the examination.

2.) The server will set your clock for you. In the top right corner of your screen, a
countdown timer will display the remaining time for you to complete the exam. Once the
timer reaches zero, the examination will end automatically. The paper need not be
submitted when your timer reaches zero.

3.) There will, however, be sectional timing for this exam. You will have to complete each
section within the specified time limit. Before moving on to the next section, you must
complete the current one within the time limits.
Logical Reasoning, Data Analysis & Interpretation

1. Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below. (+1, -0.25)

Nine people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row. Four of these

people are facing north while five are facing south. No three consecutive
people are facing the same direction.

People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions. Q is sitting
fourth to the right of R who is facing north and is an immediate neighbour of
W. R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are
sitting to either side of Q. Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing the
same direction. W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same
direction as W. P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same
direction as U. T is not sitting next to Q. Both the immediate neighbour of P
are facing the same direction. S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

Who is sitting third to the right of V?

a. P

b. Q

c. R

d. U

e. X

2. Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below. (+1, -0.25)

Nine people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row. Four of these

people are facing north while five are facing south. No three consecutive
people are facing the same direction.
People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions. Q is sitting
fourth to the right of R who is facing north and is an immediate neighbour of
W. R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are
sitting to either side of Q. Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing
the same direction. W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same
direction as W. P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same
direction as U. T is not sitting next to Q. Both the immediate neighbour of P
are facing the same direction. S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

How many people are sitting between T and V?

a. Four

b. Five

c. Six

d. Three

e. Two

3. Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below. (+1, -0.25)

Nine people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row. Four of these

people are facing north while five are facing south. No three consecutive
people are facing the same direction.

People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions. Q is sitting
fourth to the right of R who is facing north and is an immediate neighbour of
W. R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are
sitting to either side of Q. Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing
the same direction. W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same
direction as W. P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same
direction as U. T is not sitting next to Q. Both the immediate neighbour of P
are facing the same direction. S is sitting sixth to the left of X.
Which of the following pairs represent the people who are sitting at the
extreme ends?

a. TR

b. TV

c. XW

d. US

e. PX

4. Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below. (+1, -0.25)

Nine people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row. Four of these

people are facing north while five are facing south. No three consecutive
people are facing the same direction.

People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions. Q is

sitting fourth to the right of R who is facing north and is an immediate
neighbour of W. R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least
three people are sitting to either side of Q. Both the immediate neighbours
of W are facing the same direction. W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is
facing the same direction as W. P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is
facing the same direction as U. T is not sitting next to Q. Both the immediate
neighbour of P are facing the same direction. S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

Who is sitting fourth to the left of X?

a. W

b. R

c. U
d. S

e. Q

5. Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below. (+1, -0.25)

Nine people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, and X are sitting in a row. Four of these

people are facing north while five are facing south. No three consecutive
people are facing the same direction.

People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions. Q is sitting
fourth to the right of R who is facing north and is an immediate neighbour of
W. R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are
sitting to either side of Q. Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing
the same direction. W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same
direction as W. P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same
direction as U. T is not sitting next to Q. Both the immediate neighbour of P
are facing the same direction. S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
of the following does not belong to the group?

a. U

b. Q

c. W

d. X

e. V

6. Directions: Each question given below consists of a statement, followed by (+1, -0.25)
two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the
arguments is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Statement:

In this modern time, there are people who still believe in superstitions.

Arguments:

I) we have our own beliefs so we must respect others too.

II) We must educate them about good and bad belief.

a. If only argument I is strong

b. If only argument II is strong

c. If either I or II is strong

d. If neither I nor II is strong and

e. If both I and II are strong

7. Directions: One statement is given, followed by two assumptions, I and II. You (+1, -0.25)
have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at
variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given
assumptions be definitely drawn from the given statement and indicate
your answer accordingly.

Statement:

The use of breath analysis to check if the drivers are drunk has been
stopped by the traffic police to prevent the spread of the Coronavirus to
the traffic police.

Assumptions:

I. Corona virus can be passed on to traffic police only by drunken people.

II. The traffic police do not want to be infected with the Coronavirus.
a. Only I is implicit

b. Only II is implicit

c. Either I or II is implicit

d. Neither I nor II is implicit

e. Both I and II are implicit

8. Directions: One statement is given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You (+1, -0.25)
have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at
variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given
conclusions be definitely drawn from the given statement.

Statement :

A major accident takes place on the traffic light between a truck and a car.
According to the people the driver of the car ran in the red light and truck
was also in very fast speed.

Conclusion :

I) People did not help after accident.

II) Ran in the red light is not the violation of traffic rules.

a. Only I follows

b. Only II follows

c. Either I or II follows

d. Neither I nor II follows

e. Both I and II are follows

9. Directions : Read the given information and carefully answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.

In a family of ten, spanning four generations, there are three couples, a

brother-sister pair and a trio of brothers. The eldest couple is Bobby and
Kiran, who were born in 1953 and 1950 respectively. Reena is Sakshi’s sister-
in-law and was born in 1980. Kiran’s only child, Mahesh, was born in 1971 while
Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law was born in 1995. Nilesh was born in 1994
while his mother Rita was born in 1972. Amar, Akbar and Anthony were born
in successive years (not necessarily in the same order). Anthony was the
youngest to be born in 2020. Sakshi has three sons.

What is the name of Nilesh’s grandmother?

a. Bobby

b. Kiran

c. Rita

d. Sakshi

e. Cannot be determined

10. Directions : Read the given information and carefully answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.

In a family of ten, spanning four generations, there are three couples, a

brother-sister pair and a trio of brothers. The eldest couple is Bobby and
Kiran, who were born in 1953 and 1950 respectively. Reena is Sakshi’s sister-
in-law and was born in 1980. Kiran’s only child, Mahesh, was born in 1971
while Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law was born in 1995. Nilesh was born in
1994 while his mother Rita was born in 1972. Amar, Akbar and Anthony were
born in successive years (not necessarily in the same order). Anthony was
the youngest to be born in 2020. Sakshi has three sons.
When was Sakshi born?

a. 1995

b. 1953

c. 1971

d. 1972

e. Cannot be determined

11. Directions : Read the given information and carefully answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.

In a family of ten, spanning four generations, there are three couples, a

How many females are there in all in the family?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 5

e. Cannot be determined
12. Directions : Read the given information and carefully answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.

In a family of ten, spanning four generations, there are three couples, a

Who among these are siblings?

a. Sakshi and Nilesh

b. Reena and Nilesh

c. Reena and Amar

d. Sakshi and Mahesh

e. Cannot be determined

13. Directions : Read the given information and carefully answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.

In a family of ten, spanning four generations, there are three couples, a

a. Nilesh is Sakshi’s brother

b. Reena is Mahesh’s wife

c. Rita’s husband was born in 1995

d. Kiran’s granddaughter was born in 2020

e. None of these

14. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
following questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are the eight persons working in a company with

different years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009 and 2020.
They are not necessarily in the same order. All of them have different
designation in the company namely Typist, Clerk, SSC, Financial
Accountant (FA), Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD but not
necessarily in the same order. These designations are in the increasing
order as CMD is the senior-most post and Typist is the junior- most post.

S is the oldest serving person in the company. The CMD and The CEO joined
at a gap of nine years where the CMD joined the company first. R joined
before 2004 and after 1992. W is the Typist and joined in 1992. T is the last
one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. Q is the first person to join in
the twenty-first century and is the Manager. The oldest serving employee
is the Administrator and U is the CMD. P is not the CEO. SSC joined in 2009.

Which year did P join the company?

a. 2020

b. 1960
c. 2009

d. 2004

e. 1995

15. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are the eight persons working in a company with

different years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009 and 2020.
They are not necessarily in the same order. All of them have different
designation in the company namely Typist, Clerk, SSC, Financial Accountant
(FA), Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD but not necessarily in the
same order. These designations are in the increasing order as CMD is the
senior-most post and Typist is the junior- most post.

S is the oldest serving person in the company. The CMD and The CEO joined
at a gap of nine years where the CMD joined the company first. R joined
before 2004 and after 1992. W is the Typist and joined in 1992. T is the last
one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. Q is the first person to join in the
twenty-first century and is the Manager. The oldest serving employee is
the Administrator and U is the CMD. P is not the CEO. SSC joined in 2009.

Who joined first among the following?

a. U

b. FA

c. Clerk

d. Q

e. P
16. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are the eight persons working in a company with

different years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009 and 2020.
They are not necessarily in the same order. All of them have different
designation in the company namely Typist, Clerk, SSC, Financial Accountant
(FA), Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD but not necessarily in the
same order. These designations are in the increasing order as CMD is the
senior-most post and Typist is the junior- most post.

S is the oldest serving person in the company. The CMD and The CEO joined
at a gap of nine years where the CMD joined the company first. R joined
before 2004 and after 1992. W is the Typist and joined in 1992. T is the last
one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. Q is the first person to join in the
twenty-first century and is the Manager. The oldest serving employee is
the Administrator and U is the CMD. P is not the CEO. SSC joined in 2009.

What is the designation of R in the office?

a. SSC

b. Manager

c. Clerk

d. Typist

e. None of these

17. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are the eight persons working in a company with

different years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009 and 2020.
They are not necessarily in the same order. All of them have different
designation in the company namely Typist, Clerk, SSC, Financial Accountant
(FA), Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD but not necessarily in the
same order. These designations are in the increasing order as CMD is the
senior-most post and Typist is the junior- most post.

S is the oldest serving person in the company. The CMD and The CEO joined
at a gap of nine years where the CMD joined the company first. R joined
before 2004 and after 1992. W is the Typist and joined in 1992. T is the last
one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. Q is the first person to join in the
twenty-first century and is the Manager. The oldest serving employee is
the Administrator and U is the CMD. P is not the CEO. SSC joined in 2009.

What is the difference in the years of joining of the SSC and the Typist?

a. 14

b. 18

c. 15

d. 16

e. 17

18. Directions: In these types of questions the symbols $, *, @, ©, # are used (+1, -0.25)
with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P$Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’

‘P©Q’ means P is greater than Q’

‘P#Q’ means P is equal to Q’

‘P@Q’ means P is either equal to or greater than Q

‘P*Q’ means P is either equal to or less than Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to
be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely
True?

Statements:

B © C # D @ X; E * X; D @ Z

Conclusions:

I. B © E

II. Z @ B

a. if only Conclusion I is true.

b. if only Conclusion II is true.

c. if either Conclusion I or II is true.

d. if neither Conclusion I or II is true.

e. if both conclusion I and II are true.

19. Directions: In these types of questions the symbols $, *, @, ©, # are used (+1, -0.25)
with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P$Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’

‘P©Q’ means P is greater than Q’

‘P#Q’ means P is equal to Q’

‘P@Q’ means P is either equal to or greater than Q

‘P*Q’ means P is either equal to or less than Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to

be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely
True?

Statement:

E ©F @G H∗I J

Conclusion:

I. G * E

II. J @ F

a. if only Conclusion I is true

b. if only Conclusion II is true

c. if either Conclusion I or II is true.

d. if neither Conclusion I or II is true.

e. if both conclusion I and II are true.

20. Directions: In these types of questions the symbols $, *, @, ©, # are used (+1, -0.25)
with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P$Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’

‘P©Q’ means P is greater than Q’

‘P#Q’ means P is equal to Q’

‘P@Q’ means P is either equal to or greater than Q

‘P*Q’ means P is either equal to or less than Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to

be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely
True?
Statements:

K * L $ M © N @ O; T © M * P

Conclusions:

I. T © K

II. P © O

a. if only Conclusion I is true

b. if only Conclusion II is true

c. if either Conclusion I or II is true

d. if neither Conclusion I or II is true

e. if both conclusion I and II are true

21. Directions: In these types of questions the symbols $, *, @, ©, # are used (+1, -0.25)
with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P$Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’

‘P©Q’ means P is greater than Q’

‘P#Q’ means P is equal to Q’

‘P@Q’ means P is either equal to or greater than Q

‘P*Q’ means P is either equal to or less than Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to

be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely
True?

Statements:
B © O # K @ L; D © K @ S

Conclusions:

I. O $ D

II. S * L

a. if only Conclusion I is true

b. if only Conclusion II is true

c. if either Conclusion I or II is true.

d. if neither Conclusion I or II is true.

e. if both conclusion I and II are true

22. Directions: In these types of questions the symbols $, *, @, ©, # are used (+1, -0.25)
with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘P$Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’

‘P©Q’ means P is greater than Q’

‘P#Q’ means P is equal to Q’

‘P@Q’ means P is either equal to or greater than Q

‘P*Q’ means P is either equal to or less than Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to

be True, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely
True?

Statements:

B © O # K @ L; D © K @ S

Conclusions:
I. L©D

II. B©S

a. if only Conclusion I is true

b. if only Conclusion II is true

c. if either Conclusion I or II is true

d. if neither Conclusion I or II is true.

e. if both conclusion I and II are true.

23. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions: (+1, -0.25)

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T have tournament in different months

among March, April, May and June. Each of them has tournament on either
15 th or 29 th of any month. Each of them has different points among 10, 11,
17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

Person, who has 42 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 17
points. S does not have tournament in April. O has twice number of points
than that of T, whose tournament is after Q’s tournament. The number of
persons, who have tournaments before N is equal to number of persons,
who have tournaments after O. Two persons have tournament between
the tournaments of N and Q. Both Q and N have tournament in the month
having only 30 days. M and S have 11 and 36 points respectively. M’s
tournament is just after P’s tournament in the same month. Person, who
has 10 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 11 points. N does
not have 28 points.

_________ has 20 points.

a. T

b. P
c. Q

d. R

e. N

24. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions: (+1, -0.25)

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T have tournament in different months

among March, April, May and June. Each of them has tournament on
either 15 th or 29 th of any month. Each of them has different points among
10, 11, 17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

What is the sum of number of points of Q and N?

a. 40

b. 36

c. 42

d. 45

e. 31
25. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions: (+1, -0.25)

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T have tournament in different months

among March, April, May and June. Each of them has tournament on either
15 th or 29 th of any month. Each of them has different points among 10, 11,
17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

If all the persons have tournaments in alphabetical order from March to

June then who among the following have tournament on the same day?

a. S

b. M

c. N

d. P

e. T

26. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions: (+1, -0.25)

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T have tournament in different months

among March, April, May and June. Each of them has tournament on either
15 th or 29 th of any month. Each of them has different points among 10, 11,
17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

Four are the same in a certain way thus forms a group. Which among
the following does not belong to the group?

a. P

b. O

c. R

d. S

e. Q

27. Direction: Study the following information to answer the given questions: (+1, -0.25)

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T have tournament in different months

among March, April, May and June. Each of them has tournament on either
15 th or 29 th of any month. Each of them has different points among 10, 11,
17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

Who among the following has tournament on 29 th March?

a. P

b. M

c. N

d. S

e. Q

28. Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers,

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and steps rearrangement.

INPUT: 24 56 36 42 18 88 98 46 38 58

STEP 1: 12 28 18 21 9 44 49 23 19 29

STEP 2: 21 82 81 12 9 44 94 32 91 92

STEP 3: 24 85 84 15 12 47 97 35 94 95

STEP 4: 48 170 168 30 24 94 194 70 188 190

STEP 5: 58 179 176 37 30 99 198 73 190 191

STEP 6: 13 17 14 10 3 18 18 10 10 11

STEP 7: 9 21 12 0 9 24 24 0 0 3

STEP 8: 24 24 21 12 9 9 3 0 0 0

This is the last step of the rearrangement, as the desired arrangement is

obtained. As per rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

How many steps are needed to complete this arrangement?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

d. 7

e. 8

29. Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers,

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and steps rearrangement.

INPUT: 24 56 36 42 18 88 98 46 38 58

STEP 1: 12 28 18 21 9 44 49 23 19 29

STEP 2: 21 82 81 12 9 44 94 32 91 92
STEP 3: 24 85 84 15 12 47 97 35 94 95

STEP 4: 48 170 168 30 24 94 194 70 188 190

STEP 5: 58 179 176 37 30 99 198 73 190 191

STEP 6: 13 17 14 10 3 18 18 10 10 11

STEP 7: 9 21 12 0 9 24 24 0 0 3

STEP 8: 24 24 21 12 9 9 3 0 0 0

This is the last step of the rearrangement, as the desired arrangement is

obtained. As per rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

Which of the following element is sixth from the right end in Step 4 in the
above arrangement?

a. 148

b. 22

c. 152

d. 52

e. 88

30. Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers,

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is
an illustration of input and steps rearrangement.
INPUT: 24 56 36 42 18 88 98 46 38 58

STEP 1: 12 28 18 21 9 44 49 23 19 29

STEP 2: 21 82 81 12 9 44 94 32 91 92

STEP 3: 24 85 84 15 12 47 97 35 94 95

STEP 4: 48 170 168 30 24 94 194 70 188 190

STEP 5: 58 179 176 37 30 99 198 73 190 191

STEP 6: 13 17 14 10 3 18 18 10 10 11

STEP 7: 9 21 12 0 9 24 24 0 0 3

STEP 8: 24 24 21 12 9 9 3 0 0 0

This is the last step of the rearrangement, as the desired arrangement is

obtained. As per rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

Which of the following represents the product of the third and the sixth
elements from the left end in the third last step?

a. 70

b. 25

c. 60

d. 24

e. 30

31. Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:
A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers,
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and steps rearrangement.

INPUT: 24 56 36 42 18 88 98 46 38 58

STEP 1: 12 28 18 21 9 44 49 23 19 29

STEP 2: 21 82 81 12 9 44 94 32 91 92

STEP 3: 24 85 84 15 12 47 97 35 94 95

STEP 4: 48 170 168 30 24 94 194 70 188 190

STEP 5: 58 179 176 37 30 99 198 73 190 191

STEP 6: 13 17 14 10 3 18 18 10 10 11

STEP 7: 9 21 12 0 9 24 24 0 0 3

STEP 8: 24 24 21 12 9 9 3 0 0 0

This is the last step of the rearrangement, as the desired arrangement is

obtained. As per rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

Which of the following is the fourth step of the above arrangement?

a. 54 188 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192

b. 54 168 24 184 52 88 152 22 170 192

c. 54 168 24 148 52 88 125 22 170 192

d. 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192

e. 54 168 24 148 25 88 152 22 170 192

32. Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

A number arrangement machine when given an input of numbers,

rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and steps rearrangement.

INPUT: 24 56 36 42 18 88 98 46 38 58

STEP 1: 12 28 18 21 9 44 49 23 19 29

STEP 2: 21 82 81 12 9 44 94 32 91 92

STEP 3: 24 85 84 15 12 47 97 35 94 95

STEP 4: 48 170 168 30 24 94 194 70 188 190

STEP 5: 58 179 176 37 30 99 198 73 190 191

STEP 6: 13 17 14 10 3 18 18 10 10 11

STEP 7: 9 21 12 0 9 24 24 0 0 3

STEP 8: 24 24 21 12 9 9 3 0 0 0

This is the last step of the rearrangement, as the desired arrangement is

obtained. As per rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the
questions the appropriate step for the given input.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

Which element come exactly between the element which is fifth from
the left and fourth from the right in the penultimate step?

a. 21

b. 6

c. 9
d. 15

e. 0

33. Directions: Below a question is given with two statements (I) and (II). These (+1, -0.25)
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of
independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may
be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and
decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements.

I) The price of cotton had fallen sharply in the recent months.

II) The government has imported large quantities of cotton as per trade
agreement with other countries.

a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

c. Both statement I and II are independent causes.

d. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e. Both the satement I and II are effects of some common causes.

34. Directions: In the question below is given a statement followed by two (+1, -0.25)
courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the
statement, decide which of the suggested course of action logically
follow(s) for pursuing.

An earthquake measuring 8.5 hit Punjab and its surrounding areas a little
before 7pm today.
I.Government should immediately provide financial assistance to the
families.

II.People should blame the government for not taking appropriate

preventive measures

a. Only I follows

b. Only II follows

c. Both I and II follow

d. Neither I nor II follows

e. Either I or II follows

35. Directions : The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a (+1, -0.25)
set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best
answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the
right fit.

Statement : Using punctuation in your writing helps the reader to clearly

understand the message that is being conveyed. Punctuation primarily
helps to indicate the pauses and the emphasis on certain ideas or
thoughts that are discussed in the text.

Which of the following assumptions hold true?

a. There are fifteen basic punctuation marks in English grammar.

b. The absence or presence of a comma can change the entire

meaning of a sentence.

c. The first word of every sentence is capitalized, signalling that a new

sentence has begun.

d. All of these
e. None of these

36. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y are sitting around a square table. Four

of them face away from centre and four of them face towards centre but
not necessarily in the same order. Four of them sit at the corner of the
table and four of them sit on four sides of the table but not necessarily in
the same order.

T faces away from centre and sits at the corner of the table. Two persons
sit between T and Y. P does not sit at any corner of the table and face
towards the centre. P is not a neighbour of T. S sits to the immediate right
of P. Number of persons sitting between S and T is same as number of
persons sitting between Y and W. S is not a neighbour of Y. R faces away
from centre and sit at one of the corners of the table. The person who sits
to the immediate right of W faces towards the centre. X does not sit at any
of the corner and faces direction same as that of W. S and Y face direction
opposite to that of X.

Who sits to the immediate right of Q?

a. X

b. P

c. Y

d. Q

e. Z

37. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y are sitting around a square table. Four
of them face away from centre and four of them face towards centre but
not necessarily in the same order. Four of them sit at the corner of the
table and four of them sit on four sides of the table but not necessarily in
the same order.

Four of the following are related in a way and thus form a group. Find the
person who does not belong to the group.

a. S

b. R

c. Y

d. T

e. W

38. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y are sitting around a square table. Four

How many persons sit between X and R when counted from left of X?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

e. Five

39. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y are sitting around a square table. Four

What is the position of P with respect to Y?

a. Third to the right

b. Second to the left

c. Fourth to the right

d. Fourth to the left

e. Second to the right

40. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.

Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y are sitting around a square table. Four

T faces away from centre and sits at the corner of the table. Two persons
sit between T and Y. P does not sit at any corner of the table and face
towards the centre. P is not a neighbour of T. S sits to the immediate right
of P. Number of persons sitting between S and T is same as number of
persons sitting between Y and W. S is not a neighbour of Y. R faces away
from centre and sit at one of the corners of the table. The person who sits
to the immediate right of W faces towards the centre. X does not sit at
any of the corner and faces direction same as that of W. S and Y face
direction opposite to that of X.

How many persons sit between R and T?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

e. Five

41. Direction: Study both pie-charts carefully and answer the questions given (+1, -0.25)
beside:

The following pie charts represent the percentage of the arrival of

Covishield Vaccine and Covaxin in different states of India in June 2021.
If the total number of Covishield vaccines reached in all the states is
1,86,000 and the total number of Covaxin is 2,15,000 in June 2021. What is
the sum of minimum number of Covaxin in the state and maximum
number of Covishield in the state in June 2021?

a. 81,190

b. 85,500

c. 89,100

d. 90,000

e. 200%

45. Direction: Study both pie-charts carefully and answer the questions given (+1, -0.25)
beside:
The following pie charts represent the percentage of the arrival of
Covishield Vaccine and Covaxin in different states of India in June 2021.
The difference between the number of Covishield vaccine arrived in
June 2021 in Rajasthan and Haryana is 2,166 and the total number of
Covaxin arrived in June 2021 is 1,88,000. What is the difference between
the number of Covishield and Covaxin arrived in June 2021 in Gujarat?

a. 16,000

b. 15,654

c. 18,881

d. 17,590

e. None of these

46. Direction: Study the table carefully and answer the following questions. (+1, -0.25)

The following table shows the total income of 6 different people in the
year 2019 and the increased percentage of people's income from 2019 to
2020.
Name of the Income of the Increased percentage of people's
People People in 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Rahul 30000 15%

Ramesh 35000 20%

Mahesh 40000 12%

Suresh 30000 25%

Saurav 45000 15%

Sonu 42000 10%

By approximately what percent is Mahesh's income more than

Ramesh's income in the year 2020?

a. 7%

b. 5%

c. 10%

d. 7.67%

e. 6.67%

47. Direction: Study the table carefully and answer the following questions. (+1, -0.25)
The following table shows the total income of 6 different people in the
year 2019 and the increased percentage of people's income from 2019 to
2020.

Name of the Income of the Increased percentage of people's

People People in 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Rahul 30000 15%

Ramesh 35000 20%

Mahesh 40000 12%

Suresh 30000 25%

Saurav 45000 15%

Sonu 42000 10%

Find the ratio of income of Rahul and Sourav in the year 2020.

a. 3 ∶ 2

b. 3 ∶ 4

c. 4 ∶ 3

d. 2 ∶ 3

e. 1 ∶ 1
48. Direction: Study the table carefully and answer the following questions. (+1, -0.25)

The following table shows the total income of 6 different people in the
year 2019 and the increased percentage of people's income from 2019 to
2020.

Name of the Income of the Increased percentage of people's

People People in 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Rahul 30000 15%

Ramesh 35000 20%

Mahesh 40000 12%

Suresh 30000 25%

Saurav 45000 15%

Sonu 42000 10%

The ratio of expenditure and savings of Mahesh in the year 2020 is 3∶ 2.

And the saving of Mahesh in the year 2019 is 10% more than of the year
2020, then find the saving of Mahesh in the year 2019.

a. Rs. 22000

b. Rs. 24220
c. Rs. 19712

d. Rs. 19000

e. Rs. 25000

49. Direction: Study the table carefully and answer the following questions. (+1, -0.25)

The following table shows the total income of 6 different people in the
year 2019 and the increased percentage of people's income from 2019 to
2020.

Name of the Income of the Increased percentage of people's

People People in 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Rahul 30000 15%

Ramesh 35000 20%

Mahesh 40000 12%

Suresh 30000 25%

Saurav 45000 15%

Sonu 42000 10%

If the expenditure of Saurav in the year 2020 is Rs.35500, then find saving
of Saurav in the year 2020.
a. Rs. 16250

b. Rs. 15250

c. Rs. 16000

d. Rs. 15000

e. Rs. 16500

50. Direction: Study the table carefully and answer the following questions. (+1, -0.25)

Rahul 30000 15%

Ramesh 35000 20%

Mahesh 40000 12%

Suresh 30000 25%

Saurav 45000 15%

Sonu 42000 10%

Find the average income of Ramesh, Suresh and Sonu together in the
year 2020.

a. Rs. 41000

b. Rs. 41900

c. Rs. 42000

d. Rs. 42900

e. Rs. 40000
51. Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given (+1, -0.25)
information, you have to determine the relationship between the two
quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Quantity A: The efficiency of A is 37.5% of the efficiency of B. If B can do a

piece of work in 7 days, then in how many days A can complete 75% of the
same work?

Quantity B: 10 days

a. Quantity A > Quantity B

b. Quantity A < Quantity B

c. Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

d. Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

e. Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

52. Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given (+1, -0.25)
information, you have to determine the relationship between the two
quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Quantity A: A started a business with a capital of Rs. 20000 and admitted B

and C after 4 months and 6 months respectively. At the end of the year,
they divided the profit in the ratio 15 : 4 : 6. What is the difference between
the capitals invested by B and C?

Quantity B: Rs 8000

a. Quantity A > Quantity B

d. Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

e. Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation

55. Given below are two quantities named A and B. Based on the given (+1, -0.25)
information, you have to determine the relation between the two
quantities. You should use the given data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose between the possible answers.

Quantity A: Two pipes C and D can fill a tank in 45 minutes and 30 minutes.
If both the pipes are opened together. Then, find the time taken by pipes
to fill a tank.

Quantity B: 18 minutes

a. Quantity A > Quantity B

b. Quantity A < Quantity B

c. Quantity A ≥ Quantity B

d. Quantity A ≤ Quantity B

e. Quantity A = Quantity B or No relation.

56. Directions: Study the following Bar graph carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
question given beside.
Following bar chart showing the number of employees in 4 companies
working in 4 sectors.

Employees in company E is 15% more than employees in company D.

Then find the difference between employees in company E and A.

a. 340

b. 440

c. 320

d. 450

e. 540

57. Directions: Study the following Bar graph carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
question given beside.

Following bar chart showing the number of employees in 4 companies

working in 4 sectors.
What is the average of other sector in all company?

a. 412.5

b. 422.5

c. 402.5

d. 401.5

e. 400.5

58. Directions: Study the following Bar graph carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
question given beside.

Following bar chart showing the number of employees in 4 companies

working in 4 sectors.
What is the average of marketing sector and secondary sector in
company A and B?

a. 700

b. 720

c. 670

d. 770

e. None of these

59. Directions: Study the following Bar graph carefully and answer the question (+1, -0.25)
given beside.

Following bar chart showing the number of employees in 4 companies

working in 4 sectors.
What percent of employee in company A are in marketing sector?

a. 29.33%

b. 30.33%

c. 31.33%

d. 32.33%

e. None of these

60. Directions: Study the following Bar graph carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
question given beside.

Following bar chart showing the number of employees in 4 companies

working in 4 sectors.
What is the ratio of the number of employees working in the primary
sector in company B and working in the marketing sector in company
D?

a. 13 : 42

b. 13 : 14

c. 40 : 13

d. 42 :13

e. 40 : 30
English Language

61. Directions: The given sentence has been broken into four parts. The error, (+1, -0.25)
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the option which contains
the error-less combination. If all are correct, mark Option 5 as your
answer.

Emile Durkheim, the first person to be formally(A)/ recognized as a

sociologist and the most(B)/ scientific of the pioneers, conducted a study
(C)/ that stand as a research model for sociologists today. (D)/ No
error(E)

a. ABD

b. DBC

c. BCA

d. ACD

e. No error

62. Directions: The given sentence has been broken into four parts. The error, (+1, -0.25)
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the option which contains
the error-less combination. If all are correct, mark Option 5 as your
answer.

By the end of the nineteenth century(A) there were, roughly speaking, two
ways in which(B) the painter could meet this challenge(C) of decide what
to paint and so choosing for society. (D)/ No error(E)

a. ABC

b. DAB

c. DAC
d. BDC

e. No error

63. Directions: The given sentence has been broken into four parts. The error, (+1, -0.25)
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the option which contains
the error-less combination. If all are correct, mark Option 5 as your
answer.

When a place is a home, or when a space(A)/ has become the locus of

memories or the means(B)/ of gain a livelihood, it frequently evokes a
deeper set of (C)/attachments than those predicated purely on the
visual. (D)/ No error (E)

a. ABC

b. ACD

c. BCD

d. ABD

e. No error

64. Directions: The given sentence has been broken into four parts. The error, (+1, -0.25)
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the option which contains
the error-less combination. If all are correct, mark Option 5 as your
answer.

A third response to the environment(A)/ also depends on the human

senses but maybe(B)/ tactile and olfactory, namely an delight in the feel
and(C)/ smell of the air, water, and the earth. (D)/ No error(E)

a. BCA
b. BCD

c. ABD

d. ACD

e. No error

65. Directions: The given sentence has been broken into four parts. The error, (+1, -0.25)
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Select the option which contains
the error-less combination. If all are correct, mark Option 5 as your
answer.

The power of folk resides in its(A)/ contradictory ability to influence(B)/

and become influenced by the present(C)/ while remaining rooted into
the past.(D)/ No error (E)

a. ABC

b. ACD

c. BCD

d. ABD

e. No error

66. Select the phrase/connector from the three options that can be used to (+1, -0.25)
form a single sentence from the two sentences below, implying the same
as expressed in the statement sentence.

You have to focus on your immediate surroundings. It is the first step

toward making huge differences.

1. whereas
2. Because

3. And

a. Both 1 and 2

b. Only 1

c. Only 2

d. Only 3

e. Both 2 and 3

67. Select the phrase/connector from the three options that can be used to (+1, -0.25)
form a single sentence from the two sentences below, implying the same
as expressed in the statement sentence.

Work-related incidents are tracked. preventive measures can be

implemented.

1. whereas

2. So that

3. However

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Only 3

d. Both 1 and 2

e. Both 2 and 3
68. Select the phrase/connector from the three options that can be used to (+1, -0.25)
form a single sentence from the two sentences below, implying the same
as expressed in the statement sentence.

They had hardly finished their meals. They were asked to report to room
201.

1 When

2 Not Only

3 Whereas

a. Only 1

b. Both 2 and 3

c. Only 2

d. Both 1 and 3

e. Only 3

69. Select the phrase/connector from the three options that can be used to (+1, -0.25)
form a single sentence from the two sentences below, implying the same
as expressed in the statement sentence.

Most of the girls are doing their post-graduation. They may get good jobs.

1 If

2 So that

3 Whereas

a. Only 1
b. Only 2

c. Only 3

d. Both 1 and 2

e. Both 2 and 3

70. Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be (+1, -0.25)
used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below,
implying the same as expressed in the statement sentence.

Priyanka is a very interesting girl. Fatima is very shy.

1. While
2. Whereas
3. Therefore

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Only 3

e. Both 1 and 3

71. Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by (+1, -0.25)
a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options
(1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective
bank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is
your answer i.e. No improvement required.
The government announced more relief and ________ (A)
________[ stringent ] measures on Tuesday. Much like the previous
ones, these are over-indexed on guaranteed credit schemes. It isn’t
difficult to see why the government prefers these over direct cash
transfers, which will have an impact on the fiscal deficit. Not everyone
________ (B) ________ [Whose] avails credit through the various
schemes the government has announced since last May will default; those
who have been really ________ (C) ________ [Infected] by the
pandemic will, and for them, the scheme will pretty much function like a
cash transfer — except that the impact on the ________ (D)
________[ Fiscal ] deficit will be delayed, and hopefully come at a time
when the economy is in better shape. Seen thus, the targeted credit
schemes, including the one for the tourism sector and tour guides, or that
for micro-finance companies, takes ________ (E) ________[ Over ]
a new meaning.

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled
(A)?

a. Pervasive

b. No improvement required

c. Turgid

d. Harsh

e. Stimulus

72. Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by (+1, -0.25)
a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options
(1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective
bank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is
your answer i.e. No improvement required.
The government announced more relief and ________ (A)
________[ stringent ] measures on Tuesday. Much like the previous
ones, these are over-indexed on guaranteed credit schemes. It isn’t
difficult to see why the government prefers these over direct cash
transfers, which will have an impact on the fiscal deficit. Not everyone
________ (B) ________ [Whose] avails credit through the various
schemes the government has announced since last May will default; those
who have been really ________ (C) ________ [Infected] by the
pandemic will, and for them, the scheme will pretty much function like a
cash transfer — except that the impact on the ________ (D)
________[ Fiscal ] deficit will be delayed, and hopefully come at a time
when the economy is in better shape. Seen thus, the targeted credit
schemes, including the one for the tourism sector and tour guides, or that
for micro-finance companies, takes ________ (E) ________[ Over ]
a new meaning.

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled
(B)?

a. That

b. No improvement required

c. Who

d. Where

e. Whom

73. Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by (+1, -0.25)
a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options
(1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective
bank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is
your answer i.e. No improvement required.
The government announced more relief and ________ (A)
________[ stringent ] measures on Tuesday. Much like the previous
ones, these are over-indexed on guaranteed credit schemes. It isn’t
difficult to see why the government prefers these over direct cash
transfers, which will have an impact on the fiscal deficit. Not everyone
________ (B) ________ [Whose] avails credit through the various
schemes the government has announced since last May will default; those
who have been really ________ (C) ________ [Infected] by the
pandemic will, and for them, the scheme will pretty much function like a
cash transfer — except that the impact on the ________ (D)
________[ Fiscal ] deficit will be delayed, and hopefully come at a time
when the economy is in better shape. Seen thus, the targeted credit
schemes, including the one for the tourism sector and tour guides, or that
for micro-finance companies, takes ________ (E) ________[ Over ]
a new meaning.

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled
(C)?

a. No improvement required

b. Affected

c. Effected

d. Dictated

e. Determined

74. Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by (+1, -0.25)
a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options
(1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective
bank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is
your answer i.e. No improvement required.
The government announced more relief and ________ (A)
________[ stringent ] measures on Tuesday. Much like the previous
ones, these are over-indexed on guaranteed credit schemes. It isn’t
difficult to see why the government prefers these over direct cash
transfers, which will have an impact on the fiscal deficit. Not everyone
________ (B) ________ [Whose] avails credit through the various
schemes the government has announced since last May will default; those
who have been really ________ (C) ________ [Infected] by the
pandemic will, and for them, the scheme will pretty much function like a
cash transfer — except that the impact on the ________ (D)
________[ Fiscal ] deficit will be delayed, and hopefully come at a time
when the economy is in better shape. Seen thus, the targeted credit
schemes, including the one for the tourism sector and tour guides, or that
for micro-finance companies, takes ________ (E) ________[ Over ]
a new meaning.

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled
(D)?

a. Government

b. Geography

c. No improvement required

d. Economy

e. Physical

75. Direction: In the passage given below there are 5 blanks, each followed by (+1, -0.25)
a word given in bold. Each blank has four alternative words given in options
(1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to tell which word will best suit the respective
bank. Mark (5) as your answer if the word given in bold after the blank is
your answer i.e. No improvement required.
The government announced more relief and ________ (A)
________[ stringent ] measures on Tuesday. Much like the previous
ones, these are over-indexed on guaranteed credit schemes. It isn’t
difficult to see why the government prefers these over direct cash
transfers, which will have an impact on the fiscal deficit. Not everyone
________ (B) ________ [Whose] avails credit through the various
schemes the government has announced since last May will default; those
who have been really ________ (C) ________ [Infected] by the
pandemic will, and for them, the scheme will pretty much function like a
cash transfer — except that the impact on the ________ (D)
________[ Fiscal ] deficit will be delayed, and hopefully come at a time
when the economy is in better shape. Seen thus, the targeted credit
schemes, including the one for the tourism sector and tour guides, or that
for micro-finance companies, takes ________ (E) ________[ Over ]
a new meaning.

Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled
(E)?

a. Up

b. Aback

c. After

d. No improvement required

e. On

76. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

While China’s actions may be motivated by growing acrimony with the U.S.
and India, it is necessary to analyze the situation beyond bilateral tensions.
That Beijing’s last-minute hold on Makki’s listing came even as the
Financial Action Task Force was meeting in Berlin to credit Pakistan’s
actions on terror financing, and begin the process to relieve it from the
grey list, pending an on-site visit in the next few months, may not be a
coincidence. While China defends its actions on Makki and previous
designations that it blocked as “technical objections” based on
“procedural” loopholes, it is clearly part of a pattern of protecting
Pakistan internationally. It is also notable that as a result of China’s
objections or otherwise, none of the terror designations under UNSC 1267
thus fare against LeT commander Zaki ur Rahman Lakhvi in 2008, Hafiz
Saeed in 2009, and Masood Azhar in 2019 actually contain charges against
them for any attacks carried out in India. Beyond criticism and continued
pursuance of the listing, it is necessary for the Government to continue to
gather evidence and systematically build its case on cross-border
terrorism on the international stage that cannot be derailed by political or
geopolitical considerations.

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the
passage:

Déjà vu

a. The feeling that you have previously not experienced.

b. Something overly or unpleasantly unfamiliar.

c. A number of different types of things.

d. A different form, condition, or phase of something.

e. A feeling that one has already experienced something that is

happening currently.

77. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom from the
passage:
As a result

a. Because of something.

b. An item of information obtained by experiment or some other

scientific method.

c. A quantity or formula obtained by calculation.

d. Something that is discovered by a medical test.

e. The mark given for an exam or test.

78. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

Choose the antonym of the word ' Considerable ' .

a. Substantial

b. Appreciable

c. Momentous

d. Insignificant

e. Weighty
79. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

While China’s actions may be motivated by growing acrimony with the U.S.
and India, it is necessary to analyze the situation beyond bilateral tensions.
That Beijing’s last-minute hold on Makki’s listing came even as the Financial
Action Task Force was meeting in Berlin to credit Pakistan’s actions on
terror financing, and begin the process to relieve it from the grey list,
pending an on-site visit in the next few months, may not be a coincidence.
While China defends its actions on Makki and previous designations that it
blocked as “technical objections” based on “procedural” loopholes, it is
clearly part of a pattern of protecting Pakistan internationally. It is also
notable that as a result of China’s objections or otherwise, none of the
terror designations under UNSC 1267 thus fare against LeT commander
Zaki ur Rahman Lakhvi in 2008, Hafiz Saeed in 2009, and Masood Azhar in
2019 actually contain charges against them for any attacks carried out in
India. Beyond criticism and continued pursuance of the listing, it is
necessary for the Government to continue to gather evidence and
systematically build its case on cross-border terrorism on the
international stage that cannot be derailed by political or geopolitical
considerations.

Choose the synonym of the word ' Convict ' .

a. Absolve

b. Condemn

c. Acquit

d. Exculpate

e. Exonerate

80. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

Select the word from the passage that can be used as a one-word
substitute for the given group of words.

Something that you should feel sorry or sad about

a. Overwhelming

b. Evidence

c. Regrettable

d. Motivated

e. Acrimony

81. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

While China’s actions may be motivated by growing acrimony with the U.S.
and India, it is necessary to analyze the situation beyond bilateral tensions.
That Beijing’s last-minute hold on Makki’s listing came even as the Financial
Action Task Force was meeting in Berlin to credit Pakistan’s actions on
terror financing, and begin the process to relieve it from the grey list,
pending an on-site visit in the next few months, may not be a coincidence.
While China defends its actions on Makki and previous designations that it
blocked as “technical objections” based on “procedural” loopholes, it is
clearly part of a pattern of protecting Pakistan internationally. It is also
notable that as a result of China’s objections or otherwise, none of the
terror designations under UNSC 1267 thus fare against LeT commander Zaki
ur Rahman Lakhvi in 2008, Hafiz Saeed in 2009, and Masood Azhar in 2019
actually contain charges against them for any attacks carried out in India.
Beyond criticism and continued pursuance of the listing, it is necessary for
the Government to continue to gather evidence and systematically build
its case on cross-border terrorism on the international stage that cannot
be derailed by political or geopolitical considerations.

In this question, a sentence (in bold) from the passage has been divided
into five parts (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Read the sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. If there is no error, the answer is 'No error'.
Ignore the error of punctuation if any.
India want him for his involvement in attacks (A)/ over the past two
decades, including the Red Fort (B)/ attack in Delhi in 2000, and, more
recently, (C)/ in attacks on security forces in Jammu and Kashmir. (D)/
No error (E)

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

e. E

82. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

While China’s actions may be motivated by growing acrimony with the U.S.
and India, it is necessary to analyze the situation beyond bilateral tensions.
That Beijing’s last-minute hold on Makki’s listing came even as the Financial
Action Task Force was meeting in Berlin to credit Pakistan’s actions on
terror financing, and begin the process to relieve it from the grey list,
pending an on-site visit in the next few months, may not be a coincidence.
While China defends its actions on Makki and previous designations that it
blocked as “technical objections” based on “procedural” loopholes, it is
clearly part of a pattern of protecting Pakistan internationally. It is also
notable that as a result of China’s objections or otherwise, none of the
terror designations under UNSC 1267 thus fare against LeT commander
Zaki ur Rahman Lakhvi in 2008, Hafiz Saeed in 2009, and Masood Azhar in
2019 actually contain charges against them for any attacks carried out in
India. Beyond criticism and continued pursuance of the listing, it is
necessary for the Government to continue to gather evidence and
systematically build its case on cross-border terrorism on the
international stage that cannot be derailed by political or geopolitical
considerations.

What will fit in the blank taken from the passage: ''The LeT/JuD has been
_______ in India, the United States, and even Pakistan for the 26/11
Mumbai attacks, and Makki was himself tried and sentenced by a
Pakistani special court to nine years imprisonment on terror financing
charges — a ruling overturned a year later .''

a. Prosecuted

b. Prosecution
c. Prosecute

d. Prosecutes

e. Prosecuting

83. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

UN Security Council designation of Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) deputy chief
Abdul Rahman Makki as a terrorist, given that Beijing had repeatedly
blocked the designation of the Jaish-e-Mohammad chief Masood Azhar
until 2019, and other terror designations prior to that. Here too, the pile of
evidence against Abdul Makki is considerable : that he is part of the
command and control of the UNSC-designated terror group LeT, later
renamed the Jamaat ud Dawa (JuD), which is also an UN-designated
terror group, is in no doubt. He was not just a member of the governing
body or “Shura”; he served as the head of its “foreign relations”
department, and raised funding. He is also a member of LeT chief Hafiz
Saeed’s family (brother-in-law). The LeT/JuD has been _______ in
India, the United States, and even Pakistan for the 26/11 Mumbai attacks,
and Makki was himself tried and sentenced by a Pakistani special court to
nine years imprisonment on terror financing charges — a ruling overturned
a year later. India want him for his involvement in attacks over the past
two decades, including the Red Fort attack in Delhi in 2000, and, more
recently, in attacks on security forces in Jammu and Kashmir . He is on
India’s UAPA list of designated terrorists and also the U.S.’s Specially
Designated Global Terrorists with a $2 million reward for information that
would convict him. Given what India and the U.S., which forwarded the
proposal to put him on the UNSC’s 1267 list of terrorists linked to the al
Qaeda and ISIL, have called “ overwhelming ” evidence , New Delhi has
termed China’s move to place a hold on the process (this could delay it for
as much as six months) as “ regrettable ” and “extremely unfortunate”.
While China’s actions may be motivated by growing acrimony with the U.S.
and India, it is necessary to analyze the situation beyond bilateral tensions.
That Beijing’s last-minute hold on Makki’s listing came even as the Financial
Action Task Force was meeting in Berlin to credit Pakistan’s actions on
terror financing, and begin the process to relieve it from the grey list,
pending an on-site visit in the next few months, may not be a coincidence.
While China defends its actions on Makki and previous designations that it
blocked as “technical objections” based on “procedural” loopholes, it is
clearly part of a pattern of protecting Pakistan internationally. It is also
notable that as a result of China’s objections or otherwise, none of the
terror designations under UNSC 1267 thus fare against LeT commander
Zaki ur Rahman Lakhvi in 2008, Hafiz Saeed in 2009, and Masood Azhar in
2019 actually contain charges against them for any attacks carried out in
India. Beyond criticism and continued pursuance of the listing, it is
necessary for the Government to continue to gather evidence and
systematically build its case on cross-border terrorism on the
international stage that cannot be derailed by political or geopolitical
considerations.

Which of the following is/are incorrect according to the given passage?

A. China decided to block the terror tag for the Lashkar leader.

B. Abdul Rahman Makki is the Jaish-e-Mohammad chief.

C. The Jamaat ud Dawa is not an UN-designated terror group.

a. Only A

b. Both A and B

c. Only B

d. Both B and C

e. Only C
84. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

What is the central theme of the passage?

a. China facilitates India-US joint bid to label Abdul Makki as ‘Global

Terrorist’.

b. India-US joint bid to block Abdul Makki as ‘Global Terrorist’.

c. China blocks India-US joint bid to label Abdul Makki as ‘Global

Terrorist’.

d. China's bid to label Abdul Makki as ‘Global Terrorist’.

e. The UN Security Council blocks India-US joint bid to label Abdul

Makki as ‘Global Terrorist’.

85. Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that (+1, -0.25)
follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:

There is a sense of déjà vu about China’s decision on June 16 to block the

According to the passage, who isLashkar-e-Taiba's 2nd command?

a. Masood Azhar

b. Hafiz Saeed

c. Zaki ur Rahman Lakhvi

d. Shura

e. Abdul Rahman Makki

86. Directions: Choose the synonym of the word 'Disparity'. (+1, -0.25)

a. Incongruity

b. Congruence

c. Analogy

d. Resemblance

e. Alikeness

87. Directions: Choose the antonym of the word ' Provoke '. (+1, -0.25)

a. Elicit

b. Induce

c. Engender
d. Allay

e. Foster

88. In each of the following questions, one phrase has been given and it has (+1, -0.25)
been followed by four sentences. You have to find out in which of these
sentences the phrase has been used properly according to its meaning
and mark your answer from the options. Mark your answer 'all correct' if
you find that phrase has been applied properly in all the sentences.

blow the lid off

I. Her latest novel blows the lid off the international art world.
II. That company's stock price plummeted after the media blew the lid off
the CEO's embezzlement scandal.
III. The police inspector blew the lid off the work of the gang of thugs. The
investigation blew the lid off the scandal.
IV. The newspaper's investigation blew the lid off the governor's awarding
state contracts to his friends .

a. Only I

b. Only III

c. Both II and III

d. Both III and IV

e. All are correct

89. In each of the following questions, one phrase has been given and it has (+1, -0.25)
been followed by four sentences. You have to find out in which of these
sentences the phrase has been used properly according to its meaning
and mark your answer from the options. Mark your answer 'all correct' if
you find that phrase has been applied properly in all the sentences.
cover the waterfront

I. The doctor advised us to cover the waterfront of the patient.

II. Lewis Hamilton and Nico Rosberg were covering the waterfront speedily.
III. You should cover the waterfront in home before it starts raining.
IV. This thesis will attempt to cover the waterfront of English Law from 1950
to the present.

a. Only I

b. Both II and III

c. Only IV

d. Both I and IV

e. All are correct

90. Directions: Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word . (+1, -0.25)

a. Dramatically

b. Influence

c. Statutary

d. Difference

e. Collegium

91. Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist (+1, -0.25)
of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the
word. Choose option 5 ''None of the above'' if the word is not suitable in any
of the sentences.

HATCH
A. She was wearing a red hatch .

B. He had a bath and then went to peer .

C. A cat was basking on the window peer .

a. Both A and B
b. Both A and C

c. Both B and C

d. Only C

e. None of the above

95. Directions: Given below is a word, followed by three sentences that consist (+1, -0.25)
of that word. Identify the sentence(s) that express(es) the meaning of the
word. Choose option 5 ''None of the above'' if the word is not suitable in any
of the sentences.

FOIL

A. Please wrap the sandwich in aluminum foil .

B. A hospital is to fit newborn babies with electronic tags to foil kidnappers.

C. The foil side of the treatment is that it can make patients feel very tired.

a. Both A and B

b. Only A

c. Only B

d. Both B and C

e. None of the above

96. Read the following sentences. The fourth sentence is fixed and is (+1, -0.25)
numbered 4. The remaining are numbered A,B,C,E,F and G. Arrange these
six sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph and answer
the questions that follow.
A. A range of interventions have been developed to support children with
cancer in accessing education during and beyond treatment.

B. At diagnosis and during treatment, absenteeism due to therapy

regimens and their associated side-effects can lead to increased social
difficulties and feelings of disconnection, inhibiting the child’s ability to
learn and engage in their education

C. However, t here is limited recent and robust evidence regarding which

interventions have a positive effect on children’s access to and
experience of education during care and treatment for cancer.

4. Therefore, e ducation and health-care professionals identify

certain needs for training to support the educational needs of children and
adolescents with cancer.

E. Post-treatment, absenteeism may continue, and permanent sensory

and neurocognitive deficits may impact a child’s ability to engage in school
and consequently affect their academic achievements.

F. Cancer diagnosis in childhood or adolescence impacts significantly on

school attendance, experience and educational outcomes.

G. These include home schooling programmes, web-based technology

links to the child’s original school of enrolment and school re-entry
programmes.

Which sentence will come 1 st in the paragraph?

a. A

b. B

c. G

d. E

e. F
97. Read the following sentences. The fourth sentence is fixed and is (+1, -0.25)
numbered 4. The remaining are numbered A,B,C,E,F and G. Arrange these
six sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph and answer
the questions that follow.

A. A range of interventions have been developed to support children with

cancer in accessing education during and beyond treatment.

B. At diagnosis and during treatment, absenteeism due to therapy

regimens and their associated side-effects can lead to increased social
difficulties and feelings of disconnection, inhibiting the child’s ability to
learn and engage in their education

C. However, t here is limited recent and robust evidence regarding which

interventions have a positive effect on children’s access to and
experience of education during care and treatment for cancer.

4. Therefore, e ducation and health-care professionals identify

certain needs for training to support the educational needs of children and
adolescents with cancer.

E. Post-treatment, absenteeism may continue, and permanent sensory

and neurocognitive deficits may impact a child’s ability to engage in school
and consequently affect their academic achievements.

F. Cancer diagnosis in childhood or adolescence impacts significantly on

school attendance, experience and educational outcomes.

G. These include home schooling programmes, web-based technology

links to the child’s original school of enrolment and school re-entry
programmes.

Which sentence will come 2 nd in the paragraph?

a. B

b. A
c. E

d. C

e. G

98. Read the following sentences. The fourth sentence is fixed and is (+1, -0.25)
numbered 4. The remaining are numbered A,B,C,E,F and G. Arrange these
six sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph and answer
the questions that follow.

A. A range of interventions have been developed to support children with

cancer in accessing education during and beyond treatment.

B. At diagnosis and during treatment, absenteeism due to therapy

regimens and their associated side-effects can lead to increased social
difficulties and feelings of disconnection, inhibiting the child’s ability to
learn and engage in their education

C. However, t here is limited recent and robust evidence regarding which

interventions have a positive effect on children’s access to and
experience of education during care and treatment for cancer.

4. Therefore, e ducation and health-care professionals identify

certain needs for training to support the educational needs of children and
adolescents with cancer.

E. Post-treatment, absenteeism may continue, and permanent sensory

and neurocognitive deficits may impact a child’s ability to engage in school
and consequently affect their academic achievements.

F. Cancer diagnosis in childhood or adolescence impacts significantly on

school attendance, experience and educational outcomes.

G. These include home schooling programmes, web-based technology

links to the child’s original school of enrolment and school re-entry
programmes.
Which sentence will come 3 rd in the paragraph?

a. A

b. E

c. F

d. C

e. G

99. Read the following sentences. The fourth sentence is fixed and is (+1, -0.25)
numbered 4. The remaining are numbered A,B,C,E,F and G. Arrange these
six sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph and answer
the questions that follow.

A. A range of interventions have been developed to support children with

cancer in accessing education during and beyond treatment.

B. At diagnosis and during treatment, absenteeism due to therapy

regimens and their associated side-effects can lead to increased social
difficulties and feelings of disconnection, inhibiting the child’s ability to learn
and engage in their education

C. However, t here is limited recent and robust evidence regarding which

interventions have a positive effect on children’s access to and experience
of education during care and treatment for cancer.

4. Therefore, e ducation and health-care professionals identify

certain needs for training to support the educational needs of children and
adolescents with cancer.

E. Post-treatment, absenteeism may continue, and permanent sensory

and neurocognitive deficits may impact a child’s ability to engage in school
and consequently affect their academic achievements.
F. Cancer diagnosis in childhood or adolescence impacts significantly on
school attendance, experience and educational outcomes.

G. These include home schooling programmes, web-based technology

links to the child’s original school of enrolment and school re-entry
programmes.

Which sentence will come 5 th in the paragraph?

a. C

b. B

c. G

d. A

e. E

100. Read the following sentences. The fourth sentence is fixed and is (+1, -0.25)
numbered 4. The remaining are numbered A,B,C,E,F and G. Arrange these
six sentences in proper order to form a meaningful paragraph and
answer the questions that follow.

A. A range of interventions have been developed to support children with

cancer in accessing education during and beyond treatment.

B. At diagnosis and during treatment, absenteeism due to therapy

regimens and their associated side-effects can lead to increased social
difficulties and feelings of disconnection, inhibiting the child’s ability to
learn and engage in their education

C. However, t here is limited recent and robust evidence regarding which

interventions have a positive effect on children’s access to and
experience of education during care and treatment for cancer.
4. Therefore, e ducation and health-care professionals identify
certain needs for training to support the educational needs of children
and adolescents with cancer.

E. Post-treatment, absenteeism may continue, and permanent sensory

and neurocognitive deficits may impact a child’s ability to engage in
school and consequently affect their academic achievements.

F. Cancer diagnosis in childhood or adolescence impacts significantly on

school attendance, experience and educational outcomes.

G. These include home schooling programmes, web-based technology

links to the child’s original school of enrolment and school re-entry
programmes.

Which sentence will come 7 th in the paragraph?

a. C

b. F

c. A

d. G

e. E
Quantitative Aptitude

101. What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ (+1, -0.25)
in the following question?

124.83 × 63.82 ÷ 24.94 + 168.79 × 13.96 ÷ 12.98 + 122.96 = ? 2

a. 20

b. 22

c. 25

d. 26

e. 23

102. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in (+1, -0.25)
the following question?

96.1 × 34.98 – 2969.97 ÷ 18.05 × 2.96 + ? = 48.1 × 60.05

a. 10

b. -10

c. 5

d. -15

e. 15

103. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in (+1, -0.25)
the following question?
49.97% of 1900.1 + (7.99) 3 × 4.97 + ? = (5.03) 3 × 27.98

a. -6

b. 6

c. 10

d. -10

e. 20

104. What approximate value should come in place of ‘?’ in the following (+1, -0.25)
equation:

17 2+ (18 - 4 2) × 5.5 + (5 2× 2 2) = ? 2

a. 441

b. 400

c. 21

d. 20

e. None of these

105. In an election between two A & B candidates, 75 % of the voters cast their (+1, -0.25)
votes, out of which 2% of the votes were declared invalid. A candidate got
9261 votes which were 75% of the total valid votes. Find the total number
of voters.

a. 16800

b. 15800
c. 16700

d. 15700

e. None of these

106. Three types of sugar are mixed together. Their volumes are in the ratio 3 : (+1, -0.25)
5 : 7 and the weight of equal volumes is in the ratio 4 : 2 : 3. What is the
weight of the sugar of the first type if the weight of the mixture is 387 kg?

a. 120 kg

b. 108 kg

c. 132 kg

d. 96 kg

e. 144 kg

107. In a hostel, 500 students are randomly selected. 74% students like tea and (+1, -0.25)
37% students like coffee and at least each student like either tea or
coffee. Then, find the number of students who like both tea and coffee?

a. 62

b. 52

c. 55

d. 65

e. 50
108. What approximate value should come in place of ‘?’ in the following (+1, -0.25)
equation:

(21) 2 + (17 × 13) + (5 2 + 3) = ? × 23

a. 30

b. 25

c. 69

d. 35

e. None of these

109. In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have (+1, -0.25)
to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 14x 2 - 32x - 30 = 0

II. 10y 2 - y - 24 = 0

a. x > y

b. x < y

c. x ≥ y

d. x ≤ y

e. x = y or no relation found between x and y.

110. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both (+1, -0.25)
the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x 2 + 4x - 21= 0

II. y 2 - 5y - 24 = 0

a. x > y

b. x < y

c. x ≥ y

d. x ≤ y

e. x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

111. In the given questions, two equations numbered l and II are given. You have (+1, -0.25)
to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer

I. x 2 - 25x + 156 = 0

II. y 2 – 23y + 132 = 0

a. x < y

b. x > y

c. x ≤ y

d. x ≥ y

e. x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.

112. Two equations I and II are given below in the question. You have to solve (+1, -0.25)
these equations and give the answer.

I. x 2 - 27x + 182 = 0
II. y 2 – 28y + 196 = 0

a. x < y

b. x > y

c. x ≤ y

d. x ≥ y

e. x = y or the relation between x and y can't be established.

113. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve both (+1, -0.25)
the equations and mark the appropriate answer.

I. 9x 2 – 18x – 16 = 0

II. 15y 2 + 39y + 24 = 0

a. x > y

b. x ≥ y

c. y > x

d. y ≥ x

e. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

114. A man divided Rs. 10000 into two parts. He invested one part at a simple (+1, -0.25)
interest of 12.5% for 4 years and the other part at an interest of 10% p.a.
compounded annually for 2 years. If he received a total interest of Rs.
3840, find the ratio in which he divided the money.

a. 1 ∶ 3
b. 1 ∶ 4

c. 3 ∶ 2

d. 1 ∶ 1

e. 3 ∶ 7

115. Pipe P can fill a tank in 44 minutes and Pipe R can fill a tank in 33 minutes. If (+1, -0.25)
the pipes are opened alternatively for 2 minutes each starting with pipe P.
Then, in how much time the tank is filled?

a. 31 minutes

b. 38 minutes

c. 35 minutes

d. 30 minutes

e. 23 minutes

116. Two glasses with similar volume are full of mixture of water and sugar (+1, -0.25)
syrup. In the First glass, the ratio of water and sugar syrup is 7 : 9 and in
second glass is 5 : 11. If both these glasses are poured in another container,
what would be the resultant ratio of water and sugar syrup?

a. 3/8

b. 2/7

c. 3/5

d. 2/5
e. None of the above

117. A shopkeeper purchased 150 calculator at Rs.220 each, he spends the (+1, -0.25)
Rs.7,000 on transportation, He fixed the label price of each calculator as
Rs.400 and also decides to give a discount of 5% on printed price. Find his
gain percentage.

a. 37.5%

b. 50%

c. 42.5%

d. 42%

e. None of these

118. A boat starts travelling from point P, travels to point Q then returns to (+1, -0.25)
point P. The boat takes 12 hours to complete the journey. The speed of the
stream is 5 km/hour and the speed of the boat in still water is 10 km/hour.
What is the distance between P and Q?

a. 45

b. 25

c. 35

d. 55

e. 60
119. Directions: Read the following statements and find out whether they are (+1, -0.25)
sufficient or not to answer the given question.

Find the average marks obtained by Vikash in three subjects.

Statement I: Marks obtained by Vikash in English is 80% of that in Science.

Statement II: Marks obtained by him in English, Hindi and Science are in the
ratio 4 : 3 : 5.

Statement III: Marks obtained by him in Science is 40 more than that in

Hindi.

a. Statement II is alone sufficient to answer the question.

b. Both statements II and III are required to answer the question.

c. Both statements I and III are required to answer the question.

d. Statement I is alone sufficient to answer the question.

e. Statement III is alone sufficient to answer the question.

120. Each of the question below consists of a question and three statements (+1, -0.25)
number I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question.

What is the rate of interest?

I. Sum A becomes double in 4 years when invested at a certain rate

interest per annum. (Consider simple interest)

II. Mamta invests Rs. 5000 for t years and sajan invests Rs 3000 for T years
at same rate of interest. Ratio of interest earned is 4 : 7. (Consider simple
interest)
III. Sum S becomes quadruple when invested in compound interest for 2
years at a certain rate of interest per annum.

a. Only statement I along is sufficient.

b. Only statement II along is sufficient.

c. Only statement III along is sufficient.

d. Only statement I and II together is sufficient.

e. Either statement I alone or statement III alone is sufficient.

121. What is the sum of the ages of Lucky and Shanti? (+1, -0.25)

Statement I. The age of Lucky is 6 years more than the age of Shanti.

Statement II. 40% of the age of Shanti is equal to 30% of the age of Lucky.

Statement III. The ratio between half of the age of Lucky and one-third of
the age of Shanti is 2 : 1.

a. Either statement I and II together or Statements I and III together is

sufficient to answer the question.

b. The data in statement I alone or statements II and II together is

sufficient to answer the question.

c. The data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the

question.

d. The data in all the statements I, II, and III are not sufficient to answer
the question.

e. The data in all statements I, II, and III together are necessary to
answer the question.
122. The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (+1, -0.25)
(III). You have to determine which statements(s) is/are
sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

In a Kilometer race, by how many meters Raju beats Shaju?

Statement I. In a kilometer race, Raju beats Laiju by 200 meters.

Statement II. The ratio of the speed of Laiju and Shaju is 4 : 3.

Statement III. In a kilometer race, Laiju beats Shaju by 300 meters.

a. Either statement I and III together or Statements I and II together is

sufficient to answer the question.

b. The data in statement I alone or statements II and II together is

sufficient to answer the question.

c. The data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the

question.

d. The data in all the statements I, II, and III are not sufficient to answer
the question.

e. The data in all statements I, II, and III together are necessary to
answer the question.

123. Question below consists of a question and three statements numbers I, II (+1, -0.25)
and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements is sufficient to answer the question.

Find the total number of apple that a men, a women and a child together
receives, if total of 114 apple have been distributed among 37 people
consisting of men, women and children?
I. The total apple given to men, women and children are in the ratio 10 : 5 :
4.

II. A man got double the number of apple than that of a child got.

III. The number of apple received by each men, women and child are in
the ratio 4 : 3 : 2.

a. All I, II and III together are not sufficient.

b. Only I and III together are sufficient.

c. Only I and II together are sufficient.

d. Either I and II together or I and III together are sufficient.

e. None of the above

124. Length of the floor of a rectangular auditorium is 11 meters more than the (+1, -0.25)
radius of a circle with a circumference of 308 meters. The perimeter of
the floor of the rectangular auditorium is 204 meters. What will be the
cost of flooring the auditorium (only the floor of the auditorium ), If the
cost of flooring is Rs. 20 m 2?

a. Rs. 51,400

b. Rs. 50,800

c. Rs. 52,400

d. Rs. 56,400

e. Rs. 50,400
125. A local train 220 m long is traveling with a speed of 54 km/hr. If a person is (+1, -0.25)
cycling in the same direction of the train at x km/hr and the time taken by
the train to pass the person is 22 seconds, then, find the value of x?

a. 30 km/hr

b. 25 km/hr

c. 20 km/hr

d. 15 km/hr

e. 18 km/hr

126. Saima invested Rs. 50000 in gold for the whole year. After 5 months of (+1, -0.25)
Saima, her brother joined her and invested Rs 60000. Next year Saima
invested Rs. 10000 more and her brother withdrew Rs. 5000 and at the end
of two years profit earned by Saima is Rs. 42000. Find the total profit
earned if they distributed half of the total profit equally and rest in the
capital ratio.

a. Rs. 80,000

b. Rs. 75,000

c. Rs. 8,000

d. Rs. 7,500

e. None of these

127. A works twice as fast as B. B works twice as fast as C. A works 16 times as (+1, -0.25)
his efficiency and completes the whole in 12 days, how many days would
be required for B and C together if B works 32 times of his efficiency and
C with 64 times of his efficiency to complete the same job?

a. 5 days

b. 6 days

c. 8 days

d. 10 days

e. 9 days

128. Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

In a society election, four candidates participated - A, B, C and D, a total of

1600 votes were cast and A has won the election. A got 345 male votes
and B got 120 female votes. C got 80 votes less than the total votes of A
and the ratio of male and female votes of C is 3: 1. D has got a total of 450
votes, out of which 250 are male votes and the female votes of B is 40% of
the male votes of C.

Find the average number of female votes won by B, C and D.

a. 100

b. 110

c. 120

d. 130

e. 140
129. Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

In a society election, four candidates participated - A, B, C and D, a total of

What is the difference between the male and female votes won by B?

a. 10

b. 20

c. 25

d. 30

e. 40

130. Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

In a society election, four candidates participated - A, B, C and D, a total of

Find the ratio of number of female votes won by D to that won by B.

a. 5 : 2
b. 3 : 5

c. 5 : 3

d. 3 : 2

e. 1 : 1

131. Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

In a society election, four candidates participated - A, B, C and D, a total of

The number of female votes won by C is what percent less than the
number of male votes won by D?

a. 40%

b. 50%

c. 60%

d. 70%

e. 80%

132. Direction: Read the information carefully and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:

In a society election, four candidates participated - A, B, C and D, a total of

Find the number of female votes won by A.

a. 135

b. 125

c. 115

d. 105

e. 145

133. In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the (+1, -0.25)
wrong number.

24, 23, 25, 22, 26, 22

a. 24

b. 22

c. 25

d. 26

e. 23

134. In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the (+1, -0.25)
wrong number.

1, 8, 9, 64, 25, 36
a. 8

b. 9

c. 64

d. 25

e. 36

135. In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out (+1, -0.25)
that number.

132, 156, 181, 210, 240, 272, 306

a. 272

b. 181

c. 210

d. 156

e. 240

136. In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out (+1, -0.25)
that number.

15, 50, 19, 46, 23, 42, 26, 38

a. 15

b. 50

c. 46
d. 23

e. 26

137. In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the (+1, -0.25)
wrong number.

10, 14, 20, 32, 56, 104, 200

a. 10

b. 14

c. 56

d. 104

e. 200

138. The average salary of the staff of a Tech company is Rs. 2000 per day. (+1, -0.25)
The average salary of the Tech Leads is Rs. 5500 and that of the freshers
is Rs. 1200. If the number of Tech Leads is 16, then find the number of
freshers in the company.

a. 60

b. 65

c. 70

d. 75

e. None of the above

139. A shopkeeper sold 24 pens at a profit of 25% and 20 same quality pens at (+1, -0.25)
a profit 15%. The profit would have been Rs. 5.6 less if all the pens were
sold at a profit of 20%. What is the cost price each pen?

a. Rs. 56

b. Rs. 45

c. Rs. 36

d. Rs. 28

e. Rs. 60

140. If the ages of Joe and Andy are added to thrice the age of Mary, the total (+1, -0.25)
becomes 79. If the ages of Joe and Mary are added to twice the age of
Andy, the total becomes 61 and if the age of Mary is added to thrice the
age of Andy and thrice the age of Joe, the total becomes 101. What is the
age of Mary?

a. 16 yrs

b. 12 yrs

c. 17 yrs

d. 15 yrs

e. 18 yrs

/ /
General/Economy/Banking Awareness

141. Nikhat Zareen who won gold in IBA Women's World Championship belongs (+1, -0.25)
to which state?

a. West Bengal

b. Assam

c. Telangana

d. Manipur

e. Haryana

142. India has recorded the "highest ever" annual FDI (foreign direct (+1, -0.25)
investment) inflow of USD ________ billion in 2021-22.

a. 81.23

b. 83.57

c. 86.91

d. 89.42

e. 73.57

143. In April 2022, which of the following became the first Indian company to (+1, -0.25)
hit the Rs 19 lakh cr market valuation mark?

a. Reliance Industries Limited

b. Bharat Petroleum Corporation

c. Indian Oil Corporation

d. Tata Consultancy Services

e. Larsen and Toubro

144. The CM of which state has launched an anti-corruption mobile app in (+1, -0.25)
April 2022?

a. Punjab

b. Gujarat

c. Telangana

d. Assam

e. Uttarakhand

145. Which bank has announced the launch of its first-ever credit card in India (+1, -0.25)
in partnership with Bajaj Finance Limited?

a. Axis Bank

b. Kotak Mahindra Bank

c. HDFC Bank

d. State Bank of India

e. DBS Bank

146. Priyanka Mohite become the first Indian woman to scale ________, (+1, -0.25)
the 10th highest mountain peak in the world recently?
a. Mount Annapurna

b. Mount Kanchenjunga

c. Mount Makalu

d. Mount Lhotse

e. Mount Everest

147. What is the new FDI limit approved by the Union Cabinet in the Telecom (+1, -0.25)
sector?

a. 75%

b. 99%

c. 74%

d. 100%

e. 49%

148. In April 2022, __________and UNICEF have signed an MoU on (+1, -0.25)
sustainable development goals with a focus on children.

a. World Health Organization

b. Bureau of Indian Standards

c. NASSCOM

d. NITI Aayog

e. WTO
149. Recently in June 2022, which bank has announced to collaborate with the (+1, -0.25)
Centre's Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare (DoPPW) to
create integrated pension portal?

a. Bank of Baroda

b. State Bank of India

c. Bank of India

d. Central Bank of India

e. Union Bank of India

150. Which of the following banks has recently partnered with Rural NEO Bank (+1, -0.25)
Mahagram to digitize the nation’s payment ecosystem?

a. IndusInd Bank

b. Axis Bank

c. ICICI Bank

d. Kotak Mahindra Bank

e. IDBI Bank

151. 9th Sri Lanka-India Naval Exercise SLINEX began in which city in March (+1, -0.25)
2022?

a. Ranchi

b. Kochi

c. Visakhapatnam
d. Jamnagar

e. None of the above/More than one of the above.

152. What is the name of a robo-advisory platform for all mutual fund (+1, -0.25)
investments recently launched by HDFC Securities?

a. HDFC Elite

b. HDFC Money

c. HDFC Pay

d. HDFC AutoPay

e. HDFC To-Pay

153. The Central government has extended the upper age limit for the (+1, -0.25)
Agnipath recruitment scheme from 21 years to __________.

a. 27 years

b. 24 years

c. 30 years

d. 23 years

e. 25 years

154. Every year, World No Tobacco Day is observed on which date globally? (+1, -0.25)

a. May 27
b. May 28

c. May 29

d. May 30

e. May 31

155. Which International bank has announced to lend USD 250 million to (+1, -0.25)
startups in India?

a. CapitalOne

b. CitiGroup

c. Bank of America

d. HSBC India

e. Bank of China Limited

156. In which city of India, Pharmaceutical Company Pfizer has set up its first (+1, -0.25)
and the only global drug development centre in Asia?

a. Chennai

b. Pune

c. Raipur

d. Indore

e. Patna
157. India's first flying electric taxi is planned to launch commercially by which (+1, -0.25)
year?

a. 2023

b. 2027

c. 2025

d. 2024

e. 2026

158. What is the name of newly approved “Made in India” TB infection skin test (+1, -0.25)
kit?

a. a-TB

b. b-TB

c. c-TB

d. d-TB

e. e-TB

159. Which country's central bank has announced its biggest interest rate rise (+1, -0.25)
to rein in surging inflation in June 2022?

a. India

b. United Kingdom

c. China
d. United States of America (USA)

e. Either Option 1 or 2

160. According to the World Trade Organization (WTO) report, what is the (+1, -0.25)
revised global GDP growth rate forecasted for 2022?

a. 2.4 percent

b. 2.8 percent

c. 3.2 percent

d. 3.8 percent

e. 4.4 percent

161. At the centre of a multi-layered legal battle, Gyanvapi mosque is located (+1, -0.25)
in which city?

a. Prayagraj

b. Varanasi

c. Lucknow

d. Kanpur

e. Mathura

162. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) has (+1, -0.25)
signed an MoU with ______?

a. HAL
b. ISRO

c. BHEL

d. SAIL

e. DRDO

163. Tata Sons will merge Air India with which of the following? (+1, -0.25)

a. Singapore Airlines

b. Malaysia Airlines

c. Thai AirAsia

d. AirAsia Philippines

e. Air Asia

164. As per the recent report of SBI’s Ecowrap, Credit to MSEs by All Scheduled (+1, -0.25)
Commercial Banks in the financial year 2021-22 stood at __________.

a. Rs 1.26 lakh crore

b. Rs 2.26 lakh crore

c. Rs 3.26 lakh crore

d. Rs 4.26 lakh crore

e. Rs 5.26 lakh crore

165. Which country has surpassed Germany to become 4th largest vehicle (+1, -0.25)
market in the world?

a. India

b. Brazil

c. China

d. Russia

e. Ukraine

166. Recently the Ministry of Railways has announced to collaborate with (+1, -0.25)
which institute for the development of an “indigenous” Hyperloop system?

a. IIT Nagpur

b. IIT Madras

c. IIT Delhi

d. IIT Bombay

e. IIT Kanpur

167. Who bagged $130 million to be the world's highest-paid athlete in 2022 so (+1, -0.25)
far in Forbes magazine list?

a. Lionel Messi

b. LeBron James

c. Cristiano Ronaldo
d. Neymar

e. Roger Federer

168. Who has launched Single National Portal for Biotech researchers and (+1, -0.25)
startups in May 2022?

a. Jitendra Singh

b. Devendra Singh Rana

c. Mansukh Mandaviya

d. Harsh Vardhan

e. Narendra Modi

169. Who has announced a new story called "The Ickabog" to entertain (+1, -0.25)
children during coronavirus lockdown?

a. JK Rowling

b. Stephen King

c. Salman Rushdie

d. Adam Dell

e. Arundhati Roy

170. The Kolkata Metro has launched a new app "Metro Ride Kolkata". It is (+1, -0.25)
developed by which of the following?

a. Rail India Technical and Economic Service

b. CDAC

c. Centre for Railway Information Systems

d. Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation

e. ISRO

171. Who has penned a book titled 'Stargazing: The Players in My Life'? (+1, -0.25)

a. Sunil Gavaskar

b. Ravi Shastri

c. Anil Kumble

d. Kapil Dev

e. None of the above

172. In which city was the 2nd Bangladesh Film Festival inaugurated in February (+1, -0.25)
2022?

a. Kohima

b. Agartala

c. Aizawl

d. Imphal

e. None of the above/More than one of the above.

173. Which of the following accounts does not require any minimum balance in (+1, -0.25)
order to open that account?

a. Saving Account

b. Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account

c. Current Account

d. Both 1 and 2

e. Both 2 and 3

174. Who amongst the following was recently appointed as the Chairman of (+1, -0.25)
IndiGo Airline’s Board of Directors?

a. Carol Furtado

b. Venkataramani Sumantran

c. Noopur Chaturvedi

d. Kamlesh Kumar Pan

e. Abhay Kumar Singh

175. How many digits are there on a debit card? (+1, -0.25)

a. 15

b. 16

c. 14

d. 17
e. 20

176. Which of the following bank has appointed Sanjeev Barnwal as the head (+1, -0.25)
of the regulatory framework with effect from 15 February 2022?

a. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank

b. Equitas Small Finance Bank

c. Jana Small Finance Bank

d. Suryoday Small Finance Bank

e. None of the above

177. When money is borrowed overnight, or for 1 day it is termed as (+1, -0.25)

a. Call money

b. Term money

c. Notice money

d. Fund money

e. None of these

178. The capital of Cambodia is (+1, -0.25)

a. Yangoon

b. Phnom Penh

c. Hanoi
d. Havana

e. Cairo

179. Where is the headquarters of the Bank for International Settlement (BIS)? (+1, -0.25)

a. Bern

b. Berlin

c. Basel

d. Paris

e. Washington DC

180. The risk related to the bank's inability to generate profits at its target (+1, -0.25)
level is known as _______.

a. Business Risk

b. Reputational Risk

c. Credit Risk

d. Systematic Risk

e. Operational Risk

181. Where is the headquarters of ‘Bank of Baroda’ situated? (+1, -0.25)

a. Kolkata

b. Mumbai
c. Vadodara

d. Pune

e. New Delhi

182. Which of the following is a electronic grid based payment system? (+1, -0.25)

a. UPI

b. CTS

c. NEFT

d. RTGS

e. IMPS

183. Which of the following is the NPCI driven system for bill payment? (+1, -0.25)

a. UPI

b. Bharat BillPay

c. IMPS

d. NETC

e. None of above

184. The government has set the foodgrain production target for the crop (+1, -0.25)
year 2022-23 at a record level of __________ on the heels of good
monsoon rains.
a. 316 million tonnes

b. 323 million tonnes

c. 328 million tonnes

d. 335 million tonnes

e. 350 million tonnes

185. The cheque issued by the bank itself called __________. (+1, -0.25)

a. Order cheque

b. Banker’s cheque

c. Blank cheque

d. Local cheque

e. None of the above

186. In which city is the headquarter of RBL Bank located? (+1, -0.25)

a. Surat

b. Mumbai

c. Karnataka

d. Chennai

e. Thiruvananthapuram
187. Which bank has received RBI’s approval for commencing referral services (+1, -0.25)
including FD & RD as a business correspondent of Suryoday Small Finance
Bank?

a. AU Small Finance Bank

b. Fino Payments Bank

c. Jio Payments Bank

d. Airtel Payments Bank

e. Jana Small Finance Bank

188. Which of the following banks has recently partnered with KredX, a supply (+1, -0.25)
chain finance company to offer a Commercial Card for B2B payments?

a. ICICI Bank

b. Axis Bank

c. State Bank of India

d. HDFC Bank

e. Kotak Mahindra Bank

189. According to the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE), which of (+1, -0.25)
the following States has been ranked first with the lowest unemployment
rate in the country in FY22?

a. Chhattisgarh

b. Haryana

c. Kerala
d. Gujarat

e. Madhya Pradesh

190. What is the full form of BOP? (+1, -0.25)

a. Balance of Payment

b. Balance of Process

c. Balance of Processes

d. Balance of Products

e. None of the above

191. IMPS service is availed through which among the following platforms? (+1, -0.25)

a. Mobile

b. ATM

c. USSD code

d. Branch

e. All of these

192. In which city, India’s first portable solar rooftop system was recently (+1, -0.25)
inaugurated?

a. Chennai

b. Gandhinagar
c. Surat

d. Indore

e. Pune

193. Recently in June 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has hiked the limit of (+1, -0.25)
individual loans extended by co-operative banks by what percent?

a. 10 percent

b. 25 percent

c. 50 percent

d. 75 percent

e. 100 percent

194. The book titled 'Hear Yourself' for the Indian subcontinent in Mumbai was (+1, -0.25)
authored by whom?

a. Deepak Prajapati

b. Dinesh Sharma

c. Shruti Mane

d. Subhash Pant

e. Prem Rawat

195. Where does KYC stores its data? (+1, -0.25)

a. National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)

b. National Statistical Data-repository Limited (NSDL)

c. National Securities Data-repository Limited (NSDL)

d. National Statistical Depository Limited (NSDL)

e. None of the above

196. Which of the following is not true about RTGS? (+1, -0.25)

a. It's a system where there is continuous and real- time settlement of

fund-transfers.

b. The minimum limit of the amount transacted through RTGS is Rs.

1,00,000

c. There is no maximum limit of the amount transacted through RTGS.

d. RTGS is available on the 24x7x365 basis.

e. The acronym 'RTGS' stands for Real Time Gross Settlement.

197. In April 2022, _____________ became the first airline in India to land (+1, -0.25)
aircraft using the indigenous navigation system GAGAN.

a. IndiGo

b. Air India

c. Akasa Air

d. SpiceJet

e. Go First
198. According to the SEBI data, the Investments in the Indian capital market (+1, -0.25)
through participatory notes (P-notes) rose to __________ till the end
of February 2022.

a. Rs 89,143 crore

b. Rs 87,989 crore

c. Rs 79,747 crore

d. Rs 98,224 crore

e. Rs 59,212 crore

199. At which of the following places the Tata Power has commissioned a 300 (+1, -0.25)
MW, India’s largest single-axis solar tracker system?

a. Olpad, Surat

b. Mahuva, Surat

c. Choryasi, Surat

d. Dholera, Ahmedabad

e. Parasvi, Ahmedabad

200. What amount was recently approved by the World Bank for the Systems (+1, -0.25)
Reform Endeavors for Transformed Health Achievement in Gujarat -
SRESTHA-G project?

a. 150 million dollars

b. 200 million dollars

c. 300 million dollars

d. 350 million dollars

e. 450 million dollars

Answers

1. Answer: c

Explanation:

1) Q is sitting fourth to the right of R who is facing north ad is an immediate neighbour of

2) R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are sitting to
either side of Q.

(As there are at least three people are sitting to either side of Q, implies, only one
person is sitting to the left of R.)

3) Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing the same direction.

(As W has two neighbours, it is clear that he is sitting to the immediate right of R. Also,
as three consecutive people are not facing the same direction, implies, both the
immediate neighbours of W are facing north and W is facing south.)

4) W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same direction as W.

(Implies, U is sitting seventh to the right of R and he is facing south.)

5) People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions.

(Implies, the person sitting to the immediate left of R is facing north as U is facing
south.)
6) P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same direction as U.

7) T is not sitting next to Q.

(As T is facing south and he is not sitting next to Q, implies, he is sitting next to U as only
then we can place P fourth to the right of T.)

8) Both the immediate neighbour of P are facing the same direction.

(As both the person sitting to the immediate left of P is facing south, implies, his other
immediate neighbour is also facing south.)

9) S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

(It is only possible if X is sitting between Q and T facing north. Also, now that we have
identified four people who are facing north, we can safely say that Q is facing south.
Also, not that only V is left to be placed, we can place him between P and Q.)

Hence, R is sitting third to the right of V.

2. Answer: e

Explanation:
1) Q is sitting fourth to the right of R who is facing north ad is an immediate neighbour
of W.

2) R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are sitting to
either side of Q.

(As there are at least three people are sitting to either side of Q, implies, only one
person is sitting to the left of R.)

3) Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing the same direction.

4) W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same direction as W.

(Implies, U is sitting seventh to the right of R and he is facing south.)

5) People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions.

(Implies, the person sitting to the immediate left of R is facing north as U is facing
south.)

6) P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same direction as U.

7) T is not sitting next to Q.

(As T is facing south and he is not sitting next to Q, implies, he is sitting next to U as only
then we can place P fourth to the right of T.)
8) Both the immediate neighbour of P are facing the same direction.

(As both the person sitting to the immediate left of P is facing south, implies, his other
immediate neighbour is also facing south.)

9) S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

Hence, two people are sitting between T and V.

3. Answer: d

Explanation:

1) Q is sitting fourth to the right of R who is facing north ad is an immediate neighbour

of W.

2) R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are sitting to
either side of Q.

(As there are at least three people are sitting to either side of Q, implies, only one
person is sitting to the left of R.)
3) Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing the same direction.

4) W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same direction as W.

(Implies, U is sitting seventh to the right of R and he is facing south.)

5) People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions.

(Implies, the person sitting to the immediate left of R is facing north as U is facing
south.)

6) P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same direction as U.

7) T is not sitting next to Q.

(As T is facing south and he is not sitting next to Q, implies, he is sitting next to U as only
then we can place P fourth to the right of T.)

8) Both the immediate neighbour of P are facing the same direction.

(As both the person sitting to the immediate left of P is facing south, implies, his other
immediate neighbour is also facing south.)
9) S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

Hence, U and S are sitting at the extreme ends.

4. Answer: a

Explanation:

1) Q is sitting fourth to the right of R who is facing north ad is an immediate neighbour

of W.

2) R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are sitting to
either side of Q.

(As there are at least three people are sitting to either side of Q, implies, only one
person is sitting to the left of R.)

3) Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing the same direction.

4) W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same direction as W.

(Implies, U is sitting seventh to the right of R and he is facing south.)

5) People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions.

(Implies, the person sitting to the immediate left of R is facing north as U is facing
south.)

6) P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same direction as U.

7) T is not sitting next to Q.

(As T is facing south and he is not sitting next to Q, implies, he is sitting next to U as only
then we can place P fourth to the right of T.)

8) Both the immediate neighbour of P are facing the same direction.

(As both the person sitting to the immediate left of P is facing south, implies, his other
immediate neighbour is also facing south.)

9) S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

5. Answer: d

Explanation:

1) Q is sitting fourth to the right of R who is facing north ad is an immediate neighbour

of W.

2) R is not sitting at any of the extreme ends and at least three people are sitting to
either side of Q.

(As there are at least three people are sitting to either side of Q, implies, only one
person is sitting to the left of R.)

3) Both the immediate neighbours of W are facing the same direction.

4) W is sitting sixth to the right of U who is facing the same direction as W.

(Implies, U is sitting seventh to the right of R and he is facing south.)

5) People sitting at the extreme ends are facing different directions.

(Implies, the person sitting to the immediate left of R is facing north as U is facing
south.)

6) P is sitting fourth to the right of T who is facing the same direction as U.

7) T is not sitting next to Q.

(As T is facing south and he is not sitting next to Q, implies, he is sitting next to U as only
then we can place P fourth to the right of T.)

8) Both the immediate neighbour of P are facing the same direction.

(As both the person sitting to the immediate left of P is facing south, implies, his other
immediate neighbour is also facing south.)

9) S is sitting sixth to the left of X.

Except for X, all are facing south.

Hence, X does not belong to the group.

6. Answer: b
Explanation:

The correct answer is option 2. If only argument II is strong. There are people who still
believe in superstitions. People must be educated about good and bad belief.
Superstitions come under bad beliefs it can be dangerous. its blind faith on something.
superstitions inactivate your reasoning capacity. most of the people who follow these
superstitions are uneducated and lack knowledge. the argument I is wrong, it's true
that we must respect others belief but we must not support wrongdoings. Rest all
options are wrong.

7. Answer: d

Explanation:

As per the given statement, Coronavirus could spread to traffic police on conducting
breath analysis. Here, according to the first assumption, only drunken people can pass
on Coronavirus is not correct. As the traffic police stopped using breath analyzers for
fear of contacting Coronavirus, it can be concluded that they do not want to be
infected. Hence, it is a conclusion rather than being an assumption.

Hence, Neither I nor II is implicit.

8. Answer: d

Explanation:

According to the statement the accident is due to the speed of the truck and violation
of red light by the car driver because he ran in the red light. So both fast speed and
breaking red light are the violation of traffic rules. That is why the accident happened.

Conclusion :
I) It will not follow because in statement people did not help after the accident
nothing is mentioned about it. Here we have to conclude according to the statement.

II) It will not follow, In this it is just opposite line of which follows because we have to
follow the traffic rule if truck and car follow the traffic rule the accident did not
happen. So not follow the traffic rules is violation of traffic rule but in this conclusion it
is written reversed.

Hence, Neither I nor II follows.

9. Answer: e

Explanation:

From the given information,

There are three couple and four generations.

1) The eldest couple is Bobby and Kiran, who were born in 1953 and 1950 respectively.

i.e. in the first generation. However, their gender is unknown.

2) Kiran’s only child, Mahesh, was born in 1971 while Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law was
born in 1995.

Since Kiran has only one child, Mahesh, and Mahesh has a daughter-in-law, Mahesh is
married.

Hence, there is one couple in the second generation and one couple in the third
generation.

Since there is a brother-sister pair, it can either be in the first or third generation.

3) Nilesh was born in 1994 while his mother Rita was born in 1972.

Nilesh cannot be in the first generation (as that would increase the number of
generations to 5) or second generation (as Mahesh has no siblings). Hence, Nilesh is in
the third generation.

Hence, Nilesh’s mother, Rita, has to be in the second generation. i.e. Rita is the wife of
Mahesh.

4) Reena is Sakshi’s sister-in-law and was born in 1980.

5) Sakshi has three sons.

Since the third generation should have a couple and a brother-sister pair, Nilesh has a
wife and a sister.
Reena was born in 1980 while the daughter-in-law of Mahesh (i.e. wife of Nilesh) was
born in 1995 .

Hence, Reena is the sister of Nilesh and her sister-in-law, Sakshi, is the wife of Nilesh.

6) Amar, Akbar and Anthony were born in successive years (not necessarily in the
same order). Anthony was the youngest to be born in 2020

The entire family tree is as shown below:

Finally, their dates of births are as follows:

Person Birth year

Bobby(Gender unknown) 1953

Kiran(Gender unknown) 1950

Mahesh 1971

Rita 1972

Reena 1980

Nilesh 1994

Sakshi 1995

Amar 2018/2019

Akbar 2018/2019

Anthony 2020

Since the gender of Booby and Kiran is unknown, either of them can be the
grandmother of Nilesh.
Hence, option 5

10. Answer: a

Explanation:

From the given information,

There are three couple and four generations.

1) The eldest couple is Bobby and Kiran, who were born in 1953 and 1950 respectively.

i.e. in the first generation. However, their gender is unknown.

2) Kiran’s only child, Mahesh, was born in 1971 while Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law
was born in 1995.

Since Kiran has only one child, Mahesh, and Mahesh has a daughter-in-law, Mahesh is
married.

Hence, there is one couple in the second generation and one couple in the third
generation.
Since there is a brother-sister pair, it can either be in the first or third generation.

3) Nilesh was born in 1994 while his mother Rita was born in 1972.

Nilesh cannot be in the first generation (as that would increase the number of
generations to 5) or second generation (as Mahesh has no siblings). Hence, Nilesh is in
the third generation.

Hence, Nilesh’s mother, Rita, has to be in the second generation. i.e. Rita is the wife of
Mahesh.

4) Reena is Sakshi’s sister-in-law and was born in 1980.

5) Sakshi has three sons.

Since the third generation should have a couple and a brother-sister pair, Nilesh has a
wife and a sister.

Reena was born in 1980 while the daughter-in-law of Mahesh (i.e. wife of Nilesh) was
born in 1995 .

Hence, Reena is the sister of Nilesh and her sister-in-law, Sakshi, is the wife of Nilesh.
6) Amar, Akbar and Anthony were born in successive years (not necessarily in the
same order). Anthony was the youngest to be born in 2020

The entire family tree is as shown below:

Finally, their dates of births are as follows:

Person Birth year

Bobby(Gender unknown) 1953

Kiran(Gender unknown) 1950

Mahesh 1971

Rita 1972

Reena 1980

Nilesh 1994

Sakshi 1995

Amar 2018/2019

Akbar 2018/2019

Anthony 2020

Sakshi, Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law was born in 1995. Hence option 1.

11. Answer: b

Explanation:

From the given information,

There are three couple and four generations.

1) The eldest couple is Bobby and Kiran, who were born in 1953 and 1950 respectively.

i.e. in the first generation. However, their gender is unknown.

2) Kiran’s only child, Mahesh, was born in 1971 while Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law was
born in 1995.

Since Kiran has only one child, Mahesh, and Mahesh has a daughter-in-law, Mahesh is
married.

Hence, there is one couple in the second generation and one couple in the third
generation.

Since there is a brother-sister pair, it can either be in the first or third generation.
3) Nilesh was born in 1994 while his mother Rita was born in 1972.

Nilesh cannot be in the first generation (as that would increase the number of
generations to 5) or second generation (as Mahesh has no siblings). Hence, Nilesh is in
the third generation.

Hence, Nilesh’s mother, Rita, has to be in the second generation. i.e. Rita is the wife of
Mahesh.

4) Reena is Sakshi’s sister-in-law and was born in 1980.

5) Sakshi has three sons.

Since the third generation should have a couple and a brother-sister pair, Nilesh has a
wife and a sister.

Reena was born in 1980 while the daughter-in-law of Mahesh (i.e. wife of Nilesh) was
born in 1995 .

The entire family tree is as shown below:

Finally, their dates of births are as follows:

Person Birth year

Bobby(Gender unknown) 1953

Kiran(Gender unknown) 1950

Mahesh 1971

Rita 1972

Reena 1980

Nilesh 1994

Sakshi 1995

Amar 2018/2019

Akbar 2018/2019

Anthony 2020

Consider the solution to the first question.

There are four females in the family - Sakshi, Reena, Rita, (Bobby/Kiran).
Hence, option 2.

12. Answer: b

Explanation:

From the given information,

There are three couple and four generations.

1) The eldest couple is Bobby and Kiran, who were born in 1953 and 1950 respectively.

i.e. in the first generation. However, their gender is unknown.

2) Kiran’s only child, Mahesh, was born in 1971 while Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law
was born in 1995.

Since Kiran has only one child, Mahesh, and Mahesh has a daughter-in-law, Mahesh is
married.

Hence, there is one couple in the second generation and one couple in the third
generation.
Since there is a brother-sister pair, it can either be in the first or third generation.

3) Nilesh was born in 1994 while his mother Rita was born in 1972.

Nilesh cannot be in the first generation (as that would increase the number of
generations to 5) or second generation (as Mahesh has no siblings). Hence, Nilesh is in
the third generation.

Hence, Nilesh’s mother, Rita, has to be in the second generation. i.e. Rita is the wife of
Mahesh.

4) Reena is Sakshi’s sister-in-law and was born in 1980.

5) Sakshi has three sons.

Since the third generation should have a couple and a brother-sister pair, Nilesh has a
wife and a sister.

Reena was born in 1980 while the daughter-in-law of Mahesh (i.e. wife of Nilesh) was
born in 1995 .

The entire family tree is as shown below:

Finally, their dates of births are as follows:

Person Birth year

Bobby(Gender unknown) 1953

Kiran(Gender unknown) 1950

Mahesh 1971

Rita 1972

Reena 1980

Nilesh 1994

Sakshi 1995

Amar 2018/2019

Akbar 2018/2019

Anthony 2020

Consider the solution to the first question.

Reena and Nilesh are siblings.

Hence, option 2.

13. Answer: e

Explanation:

From the given information,

There are three couple and four generations.

1) The eldest couple is Bobby and Kiran, who were born in 1953 and 1950 respectively.

i.e. in the first generation. However, their gender is unknown.

2) Kiran’s only child, Mahesh, was born in 1971 while Mahesh’s only daughter-in-law
was born in 1995.

Since Kiran has only one child, Mahesh, and Mahesh has a daughter-in-law, Mahesh is
married.

Hence, there is one couple in the second generation and one couple in the third
generation.
Since there is a brother-sister pair, it can either be in the first or third generation.

3) Nilesh was born in 1994 while his mother Rita was born in 1972.

Nilesh cannot be in the first generation (as that would increase the number of
generations to 5) or second generation (as Mahesh has no siblings). Hence, Nilesh is in
the third generation.

Hence, Nilesh’s mother, Rita, has to be in the second generation. i.e. Rita is the wife of
Mahesh.

4) Reena is Sakshi’s sister-in-law and was born in 1980.

5) Sakshi has three sons.

Since the third generation should have a couple and a brother-sister pair, Nilesh has a
wife and a sister.

Reena was born in 1980 while the daughter-in-law of Mahesh (i.e. wife of Nilesh) was
born in 1995 .

The entire family tree is as shown below:

Finally, their dates of births are as follows:

Person Birth year

Bobby(Gender unknown) 1953

Kiran(Gender unknown) 1950

Mahesh 1971

Rita 1972

Reena 1980

Nilesh 1994

Sakshi 1995

Amar 2018/2019

Akbar 2018/2019

Anthony 2020

Consider the family tree in the solution to the first question.

All the statements are false.

Hence, option 5

14. Answer: c

Explanation:

People : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W

Years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009, 2020

Positions : Typist, Clerk, SSC, FA, Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD

1) S is the oldest serving person in the company. The oldest serving employee is the
Administrator.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

1972

1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

2) The CMD and the CEO joined at a gap of nine years with CMD joining first. Hence,
the CMD and the CEO join in 1972 and 1981 respectively. U is the CMD.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

3) R joined before 2004 and after 1992 . W is the Typist and joined in 1992.

Hence, R joined in 1995.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

2004

2009

2020

4) Q is the first person to join in the twenty-first century and is the manager.

So, Q joined in 2004.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

2009

2020

5) T is the last one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. P is not the CEO.

So, T joined in 2020 and is the FA and V has to be the CEO who joined in 1981.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

P 2009

T FA 2020

6) The SSC joined in 2009.

So, R is the Clerk and P is the SSC.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R Clerk 1995

Q Manager 2004

P SSC 2009

T FA 2020

Thus, P joined in 2009.

15. Answer: a

Explanation:

People : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W
Years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009, 2020

Positions : Typist, Clerk, SSC, FA, Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD

1) S is the oldest serving person in the company. The oldest serving employee is the
Administrator.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

1972

1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

2) The CMD and the CEO joined at a gap of nine years with CMD joining first. Hence,
the CMD and the CEO join in 1972 and 1981 respectively. U is the CMD.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

3) R joined before 2004 and after 1992 . W is the Typist and joined in 1992.

Hence, R joined in 1995.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

2004

2009

2020

4) Q is the first person to join in the twenty-first century and is the manager.

So, Q joined in 2004.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

2009

2020

5) T is the last one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. P is not the CEO.

So, T joined in 2020 and is the FA and V has to be the CEO who joined in 1981.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

P 2009

T FA 2020

6) The SSC joined in 2009.

So, R is the Clerk and P is the SSC.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R Clerk 1995

Q Manager 2004

P SSC 2009

T FA 2020

Hence, U joined first among the employees mentioned in option.

16. Answer: c

Explanation:

People : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W
Years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009, 2020

Positions : Typist, Clerk, SSC, FA, Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD

1) S is the oldest serving person in the company. The oldest serving employee is the
Administrator.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

1972

1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

2) The CMD and the CEO joined at a gap of nine years with CMD joining first. Hence,
the CMD and the CEO join in 1972 and 1981 respectively. U is the CMD.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

3) R joined before 2004 and after 1992 . W is the Typist and joined in 1992.

Hence, R joined in 1995.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

2004

2009

2020

4) Q is the first person to join in the twenty-first century and is the manager.

So, Q joined in 2004.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

2009

2020

5) T is the last one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. P is not the CEO.

So, T joined in 2020 and is the FA and V has to be the CEO who joined in 1981.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

P 2009

T FA 2020

6) The SSC joined in 2009.

So, R is the Clerk and P is the SSC.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R Clerk 1995

Q Manager 2004

P SSC 2009

T FA 2020

Hence, R is the Clerk.

17. Answer: e

Explanation:

People : P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W
Years of joining: 1960, 1972, 1981, 1992, 1995, 2004, 2009, 2020

Positions : Typist, Clerk, SSC, FA, Administrator, Manager, CEO and CMD

1) S is the oldest serving person in the company. The oldest serving employee is the
Administrator.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

1972

1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

2) The CMD and the CEO joined at a gap of nine years with CMD joining first. Hence,
the CMD and the CEO join in 1972 and 1981 respectively. U is the CMD.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administrator 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

1992

1995

2004

2009

2020

3) R joined before 2004 and after 1992 . W is the Typist and joined in 1992.

Hence, R joined in 1995.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

2004

2009

2020

4) Q is the first person to join in the twenty-first century and is the manager.

So, Q joined in 2004.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

2009

2020

5) T is the last one to join and isn’t either the SSC or Clerk. P is not the CEO.

So, T joined in 2020 and is the FA and V has to be the CEO who joined in 1981.
Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R 1995

Q Manager 2004

P 2009

T FA 2020

6) The SSC joined in 2009.

So, R is the Clerk and P is the SSC.

Person Position Year of Joining

S Administration 1960

U CMD 1972

V CEO 1981

W Typist 1992

R Clerk 1995

Q Manager 2004

P SSC 2009

T FA 2020

Since the year of joining of SSC is 2009 and that of Typist is 1992.

So, difference = 2009 - 1992 = 17

Thus, 17 is the required answer.

18. Answer: a
Explanation:

P is

Symbol # © $ * @

Meaning = > < ≤ ≥

to Q

Statements: B © C # D @ X; E * X; D @ Z

On converting: B > C = D ≥ X ≥ E; B > C = D ≥ Z

Conclusion:

I. B > E → TRUE (B > C = D ≥ X ≥ E)

II. Z ≥ B → False (B > C = D ≥ Z)

Hence Only Conclusion I is true.

19. Answer: d

Explanation:
P is

Symbol # © $ * @

Meaning = > < ≤ ≥

to Q

Statements: E © F@ G H ∗ I J

On converting: E > F ≥ G < H ≤ I < J

Conclusions:

I. G ≤ E → False (E > F ≥ G → E > G)

I. L > D → False ( D > K = O ≥ L→ D > L)

II. B > S → True ( B > O = K ≥ S → B > S)

Hence, Only Conclusion II is True.

23. Answer: a

Explanation:

Persons: M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T.

Months: March, April, May and June.

Points: 10, 11, 17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

1. Two persons have tournament between the tournaments of N and Q.

2. Both Q and N have tournament in the month having only 30 days. So, N and Q must
have tournament in either April or June.

3. The number of persons, who have tournaments before N is equal to number of

persons, who have tournaments after O.

Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th

March 31

29 th O

15 th

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O

May 31

29 th

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T
4. O has twice number of points than that of T, whose tournament is after Q’s
tournament.

5. M’s tournament is just after P’s tournament in the same month.

6. M and S have 11 and 36 points respectively.

7. S does not have tournament in April.

8. Person, who has 10 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 11 points.
Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th P 10 S 36

March 31

29 th M 11 O 40

15 th R R

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O 40 P 10

May 31

29 th S 36 M 11

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T 20 T 20

9. Person, who has 42 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 17 points.
So, R must have 42 points.

10. N does not have 28 points. So, case 2 would not be possible.
Month Date No. of Days Person Point

15 th P 10

March 31

29 th M 11

15 th R 42

April 30

29 th N 17

15 th O 40

May 31

29 th S 36

15 th Q 28

June 30

29 th T 20

Hence, T has 20 points.

24. Answer: d

Explanation:

Persons: M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T.
Months: March, April, May and June.

Points: 10, 11, 17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

1. Two persons have tournament between the tournaments of N and Q.

2. Both Q and N have tournament in the month having only 30 days. So, N and Q must
have tournament in either April or June.

3. The number of persons, who have tournaments before N is equal to number of

persons, who have tournaments after O.
Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th

March 31

29 th O

15 th

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O

May 31

29 th

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T

4. O has twice number of points than that of T, whose tournament is after Q’s
tournament.

5. M’s tournament is just after P’s tournament in the same month.

6. M and S have 11 and 36 points respectively.

7. S does not have tournament in April.

8. Person, who has 10 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 11 points.

Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th P 10 S 36

March 31

29 th M 11 O 40

15 th R R

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O 40 P 10

May 31

29 th S 36 M 11

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T 20 T 20

9. Person, who has 42 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 17 points.
So, R must have 42 points.
10. N does not have 28 points. So, case 2 would not be possible.

Month Date No. of Days Person Point

15 th P 10

March 31

29 th M 11

15 th R 42

April 30

29 th N 17

15 th O 40

May 31

29 th S 36

15 th Q 28

June 30

29 th T 20

Number of points of Q and N are 28 and 17 respectively.

Sum = 28 + 17 = 45

Hence, the sum of number of points of Q and N is 45.

25. Answer: e
Explanation:

Persons: M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T.

Months: March, April, May and June.

Points: 10, 11, 17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

1. Two persons have tournament between the tournaments of N and Q.

2. Both Q and N have tournament in the month having only 30 days. So, N and Q must
have tournament in either April or June.

3. The number of persons, who have tournaments before N is equal to number of

persons, who have tournaments after O.
Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th

March 31

29 th O

15 th

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O

May 31

29 th

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T

4. O has twice number of points than that of T, whose tournament is after Q’s
tournament.

5. M’s tournament is just after P’s tournament in the same month.

6. M and S have 11 and 36 points respectively.

7. S does not have tournament in April.

8. Person, who has 10 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 11 points.

Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th P 10 S 36

March 31

29 th M 11 O 40

15 th R R

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O 40 P 10

May 31

29 th S 36 M 11

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T 20 T 20

9. Person, who has 42 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 17 points.
So, R must have 42 points.
10. N does not have 28 points. So, case 2 would not be possible.

Month Date No. of Days Person Point

15 th P 10

March 31

29 th M 11

15 th R 42

April 30

29 th N 17

15 th O 40

May 31

29 th S 36

15 th Q 28

June 30

29 th T 20
Month Date No. of Days Person Point Alphabetical order

15 th P 10 M

March 31

29 th M 11 N

15 th R 42 O

April 30

29 th N 17 P

15 th O 40 Q

May 31

29 th S 36 R

15 th Q 28 S

June 30

29 th T 20 T

Hence, only T has tournament on the same day.

26. Answer: d

Explanation:

Persons: M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T.
Months: March, April, May and June.

Points: 10, 11, 17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

1. Two persons have tournament between the tournaments of N and Q.

2. Both Q and N have tournament in the month having only 30 days. So, N and Q must
have tournament in either April or June.

3. The number of persons, who have tournaments before N is equal to number of

persons, who have tournaments after O.
Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th

March 31

29 th O

15 th

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O

May 31

29 th

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T

4. O has twice number of points than that of T, whose tournament is after Q’s
tournament.

5. M’s tournament is just after P’s tournament in the same month.

6. M and S have 11 and 36 points respectively.

7. S does not have tournament in April.

8. Person, who has 10 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 11 points.

Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th P 10 S 36

March 31

29 th M 11 O 40

15 th R R

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O 40 P 10

May 31

29 th S 36 M 11

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T 20 T 20

9. Person, who has 42 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 17 points.
So, R must have 42 points.
10. N does not have 28 points. So, case 2 would not be possible.

Month Date No. of Days Person Point

15 th P 10

March 31

29 th M 11

15 th R 42

April 30

29 th N 17

15 th O 40

May 31

29 th S 36

15 th Q 28

June 30

29 th T 20

All have tournaments on 15 th of different months except S.

Hence, S does not belong to the group.

27. Answer: b
Explanation:

Persons: M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T.

Months: March, April, May and June.

Points: 10, 11, 17, 20, 28, 36, 40 and 42.

1. Two persons have tournament between the tournaments of N and Q.

2. Both Q and N have tournament in the month having only 30 days. So, N and Q must
have tournament in either April or June.

3. The number of persons, who have tournaments before N is equal to number of

persons, who have tournaments after O.
Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th

March 31

29 th O

15 th

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O

May 31

29 th

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T

4. O has twice number of points than that of T, whose tournament is after Q’s
tournament.

5. M’s tournament is just after P’s tournament in the same month.

6. M and S have 11 and 36 points respectively.

7. S does not have tournament in April.

8. Person, who has 10 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 11 points.

Case 1 Case 2

Month Date No. of Days Person Point Person Point

15 th P 10 S 36

March 31

29 th M 11 O 40

15 th R R

April 30

29 th N Q

15 th O 40 P 10

May 31

29 th S 36 M 11

15 th Q N

June 30

29 th T 20 T 20

9. Person, who has 42 points, has tournament just before the one, who has 17 points.
So, R must have 42 points.
10. N does not have 28 points. So, case 2 would not be possible.

Month Date No. of Days Person Point

15 th P 10

March 31

29 th M 11

15 th R 42

April 30

29 th N 17

15 th O 40

May 31

29 th S 36

15 th Q 28

June 30

29 th T 20

Hence, M has tournament on 29 th March.

28. Answer: e

Explanation:
Logic:

In Step 1: All the numbers are divided by 2. (84 / 2 = 42)

In Step 2: The position of the digits are reverse within the each number. (42 = 24)

In Step 3: Addition of 3 in each number. (24 + 3 = 27)

In Step 4: All the numbers are multiplied by 2. (27 * 2 = 54)

In Step 5: Addition of +10, +9, +8. +7, +6, +5, +4, +3, +2, +1 (54 + 10 = 64, 168 + 9 = 177)

In Step 6: Addition of the digits in each number. (64 = 6 + 4 = 10)

In Step 7: Multiplication of 3 within the digits. (1 * 0 * 3 = 0)

In Step 8: Arrange the number in the descending order.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

STEP 1: 42 18 9 17 32 14 37 8 28 39

STEP 2: 24 81 9 71 23 41 73 8 82 93

STEP 3: 27 84 12 74 26 44 76 11 85 96

STEP 4: 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192

STEP 5: 64 177 32 155 58 93 156 25 172 193

STEP 6: 10 15 5 11 13 12 12 7 10 13

STEP 7: 0 15 15 3 9 6 6 21 0 9

STEP 8: 21 15 15 9 9 6 6 3 0 0

This is the last step of the arrangement.

Hence, 8steps are needed to complete this arrangement.

29. Answer: d

Explanation:

Logic:

In Step 1: All the numbers are divided by 2. (84 / 2 = 42)

In Step 2: The position of the digits are reverse within the each number. (42 = 24)

In Step 3: Addition of 3 in each number. (24 + 3 = 27)

In Step 4: All the numbers are multiplied by 2. (27 * 2 = 54)

In Step 5: Addition of +10, +9, +8. +7, +6, +5, +4, +3, +2, +1 (54 + 10 = 64, 168 + 9 = 177)

In Step 6: Addition of the digits in each number. (64 = 6 + 4 = 10)

In Step 7: Multiplication of 3 within the digits. (1 * 0 * 3 = 0)

In Step 8: Arrange the number in the descending order.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

STEP 1: 42 18 9 17 32 14 37 8 28 39

STEP 2: 24 81 9 71 23 41 73 8 82 93

STEP 3: 27 84 12 74 26 44 76 11 85 96

STEP 4: 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192

STEP 5: 64 177 32 155 58 93 156 25 172 193

STEP 6: 10 15 5 11 13 12 12 7 10 13

STEP 7: 0 15 15 3 9 6 6 21 0 9

STEP 8: 21 15 15 9 9 6 6 3 0 0

This is the last step of the arrangement.

Hence, 52 is sixth from the right end in the Step 4.

30. Answer: c

Explanation:

Logic:

In Step 1: All the numbers are divided by 2. (84 / 2 = 42)

In Step 2: The position of the digits are reverse within the each number. (42 = 24)

In Step 3: Addition of 3 in each number. (24 + 3 = 27)

In Step 4: All the numbers are multiplied by 2. (27 * 2 = 54)

In Step 5: Addition of +10, +9, +8. +7, +6, +5, +4, +3, +2, +1 (54 + 10 = 64, 168 + 9 = 177)

In Step 6: Addition of the digits in each number. (64 = 6 + 4 = 10)

In Step 7: Multiplication of 3 within the digits. (1 * 0 * 3 = 0)

In Step 8: Arrange the number in the descending order.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

STEP 1: 42 18 9 17 32 14 37 8 28 39

STEP 2: 24 81 9 71 23 41 73 8 82 93

STEP 3: 27 84 12 74 26 44 76 11 85 96

STEP 4: 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192

STEP 5: 64 177 32 155 58 93 156 25 172 193

STEP 6: 10 15 5 11 13 12 12 7 10 13

STEP 7: 0 15 15 3 9 6 6 21 0 9
STEP 8: 21 15 15 9 9 6 6 3 0 0

This is the last step of the arrangement.

The third and the sixth element in the third last step = 5 and 12

Product = 5 * 12 = 60

Hence, 60 is the product of the third and the sixth element in the third last step.

31. Answer: d

Explanation:

Logic:

In Step 1: All the numbers are divided by 2. (84 / 2 = 42)

In Step 2: The position of the digits are reverse within the each number. (42 = 24)

In Step 3: Addition of 3 in each number. (24 + 3 = 27)

In Step 4: All the numbers are multiplied by 2. (27 * 2 = 54)

In Step 5: Addition of +10, +9, +8. +7, +6, +5, +4, +3, +2, +1 (54 + 10 = 64, 168 + 9 = 177)

In Step 6: Addition of the digits in each number. (64 = 6 + 4 = 10)

In Step 7: Multiplication of 3 within the digits. (1 * 0 * 3 = 0)

In Step 8: Arrange the number in the descending order.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

STEP 1: 42 18 9 17 32 14 37 8 28 39

STEP 2: 24 81 9 71 23 41 73 8 82 93

STEP 3: 27 84 12 74 26 44 76 11 85 96
STEP 4: 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192

STEP 5: 64 177 32 155 58 93 156 25 172 193

STEP 6: 10 15 5 11 13 12 12 7 10 13

STEP 7: 0 15 15 3 9 6 6 21 0 9

STEP 8: 21 15 15 9 9 6 6 3 0 0

This is the last step of the arrangement.

Hence, 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192 is the fourth step of the above arrangement.

32. Answer: b

Explanation:

Logic:

In Step 1: All the numbers are divided by 2. (84 / 2 = 42)

In Step 2: The position of the digits are reverse within the each number. (42 = 24)

In Step 3: Addition of 3 in each number. (24 + 3 = 27)

In Step 4: All the numbers are multiplied by 2. (27 * 2 = 54)

In Step 5: Addition of +10, +9, +8. +7, +6, +5, +4, +3, +2, +1 (54 + 10 = 64, 168 + 9 = 177)

In Step 6: Addition of the digits in each number. (64 = 6 + 4 = 10)

In Step 7: Multiplication of 3 within the digits. (1 * 0 * 3 = 0)

In Step 8: Arrange the number in the descending order.

INPUT: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78

STEP 1: 42 18 9 17 32 14 37 8 28 39
STEP 2: 24 81 9 71 23 41 73 8 82 93

STEP 3: 27 84 12 74 26 44 76 11 85 96

STEP 4: 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192

STEP 5: 64 177 32 155 58 93 156 25 172 193

STEP 6: 10 15 5 11 13 12 12 7 10 13

STEP 7: 0 15 15 3 9 6 6 21 0 9

STEP 8: 21 15 15 9 9 6 6 3 0 0

This is the last step of the arrangement.

Fifth element from the left = 9

Fourth element from the right = 6

Element between 9 and 6 is 6.

Hence, 6is the element between the element which is fifth from the left and fourth
from the right in the penultimate step.

Note: Penultimate step means Second last step.

33. Answer: b

Explanation:

Explanation: There is a direct relation as the import of a large quantity of cotton by

the government has resulted in a fall in the prices of cotton in the domestic market.

Hence, Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect .

34. Answer: a
Explanation:

Given Statement : An earthquake measuring 8.5 hit Punjab and its surrounding areas
a little before 7pm today.

Course of action I Government should immediately provide financial assistance to

the families. This is the best way for the Government to deal with that situation.
Therefore course of action I is logical and it follows.

Course of action II People should blame the government for not taking appropriate
preventive measures. Earthquake is a natural disaster so Government cannot take
accurate preventive measure before it come. Therefore, course of action II is illogical
and it does not follow.

Hence, Only I follows.

35. Answer: b

Explanation:

The statement above talks about the importance of punctuation in writing.

Its uses are mentioned above in a generalized form. Since this statement mentions
only about the uses of punctuations, we can assume something related to that only.

The number of punctuation marks used in English grammar can’t be assumed from
the statement given above.

Comma been one of the basic punctuation marks can possibly affect the entire
sentence by its presence or absence.
We have been talking about the uses of punctuation and how important it is to
clearly understand the meaning of the sentence.
Therefore, we can assume that the presence of punctuations in the sentence can
truly affect its meaning.
There is no mention of Capitalization in the statement above.
Therefore we cannot assume anything regarding the same.

36. Answer: c

Explanation:

Eight persons: P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y

i) T faces away from centre and sits at the corner of the table.

ii) Two persons sit between T and Y.

iii) P does not sit at any corner of the table and face towards the centre.

iv) P is not a neighbour of T.

v) S sits to the immediate right of P.

vi) S is not a neighbour of Y.

These conditions eliminates case 1.

vii) Number of persons sitting between S and T is same as number of persons sitting
between Y and W.

viii) The person who sits to the immediate right of W faces towards the centre.

viii) R faces away from centre and sit at one of the corners of the table.

x) X does not sit at any of the corner and faces direction same as that of W.

xi) S and Y face direction opposite to that of X.

Hence, Y sits to the immediate right of Q.

37. Answer: e

Explanation:

Eight persons: P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y

i) T faces away from centre and sits at the corner of the table.

ii) Two persons sit between T and Y.

iii) P does not sit at any corner of the table and face towards the centre.

iv) P is not a neighbour of T.

v) S sits to the immediate right of P.

vi) S is not a neighbour of Y.

These conditions eliminates case 1.

vii) Number of persons sitting between S and T is same as number of persons sitting
between Y and W.

viii) The person who sits to the immediate right of W faces towards the centre.

viii) R faces away from centre and sit at one of the corners of the table.

x) X does not sit at any of the corner and faces direction same as that of W.

xi) S and Y face direction opposite to that of X.

Here, S, R, Y and T face away from centre and thus form a group.

Hence, W does not belong to the group.

38. Answer: b
Explanation:

Eight persons: P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y

i) T faces away from centre and sits at the corner of the table.

ii) Two persons sit between T and Y.

iii) P does not sit at any corner of the table and face towards the centre.

iv) P is not a neighbour of T.

v) S sits to the immediate right of P.

vi) S is not a neighbour of Y.

These conditions eliminates case 1.

vii) Number of persons sitting between S and T is same as number of persons sitting
between Y and W.

viii) The person who sits to the immediate right of W faces towards the centre.

viii) R faces away from centre and sit at one of the corners of the table.

x) X does not sit at any of the corner and faces direction same as that of W.

xi) S and Y face direction opposite to that of X.

Hence, two persons sit between X and R when counted from left of X.

39. Answer: b

Explanation:
Eight persons: P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y

i) T faces away from centre and sits at the corner of the table.

ii) Two persons sit between T and Y.

iii) P does not sit at any corner of the table and face towards the centre.

iv) P is not a neighbour of T.

v) S sits to the immediate right of P.

vi) S is not a neighbour of Y.

These conditions eliminates case 1.

vii) Number of persons sitting between S and T is same as number of persons sitting
between Y and W.
viii) The person who sits to the immediate right of W faces towards the centre.

viii) R faces away from centre and sit at one of the corners of the table.

x) X does not sit at any of the corner and faces direction same as that of W.

xi) S and Y face direction opposite to that of X.

Hence, P sits second to the left of Y.

40. Answer: c

Explanation:

Eight persons: P, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y

i) T faces away from centre and sits at the corner of the table.
ii) Two persons sit between T and Y.

iii) P does not sit at any corner of the table and face towards the centre.

iv) P is not a neighbour of T.

v) S sits to the immediate right of P.

vi) S is not a neighbour of Y.

These conditions eliminates case 1.

vii) Number of persons sitting between S and T is same as number of persons sitting
between Y and W.

viii) The person who sits to the immediate right of W faces towards the centre.
viii) R faces away from centre and sit at one of the corners of the table.

x) X does not sit at any of the corner and faces direction same as that of W.

xi) S and Y face direction opposite to that of X.

Hence, three persons sit between R and T.

41. Answer: a

Explanation:

Given:

The total number of Covishield vaccines = 1,86,000

The total number of Covaxin = 2,15,000

Calculation:

As per the pie chart,

The minimum percentage value of Covaxin in June 2021 is 17% in Madhya Pradesh

The total number of Covaxin in all five states in June 2021 = 2,15,000

⇒ 2,15,000 × 17%

⇒ 36,550

The maximum percentage value of Covishield in June 2021 is 24% in Punjab.

The total number of Covishield vaccines in all five states in June 2021 = 1,86,000

⇒ 1,86,000 × 24%

⇒ 44,640

Required Sum = 36,550 + 44,640

⇒ 81,190

∴ The sum of the minimum number of Covaxin in the state and the maximum number
of Covishield in the state in June 2021 is 81,190.

42. Answer: d

Explanation:

Given:

Represent both of pie charts the percentage of arrival of Covishield Vaccine and
Covaxin respectively in different states of India in June 2021.

Calculation:

As per the pie chart,

Let the total number of Covishield vaccine in all the states be 100x and the total
number of Covaxin in all the states be 100y.

The percentage of Covishield vaccine arrived in Haryana in June 2021 = 18%

The number of Covishield vaccine arrived in Haryana in June 2021:

⇒ 100x × 18%

⇒ 18x

The percentage of Covaxin arrived in Madhya Pradesh in June 2021 = 17%

The number of Covaxin arrived in Madhya Pradesh in June 2021:

⇒ 100y × 17%

⇒ 17y

Required ratio = 18x : 17y

We don't know the value of x and y so, we can't relate to each other.

∴ The information given in the appropriate question is not sufficient to answer so the
answer is "Data can't be determined".

43. Answer: a

Explanation:

Given:

The total number of Covishield vaccines = 1,86,000

The total number of Covaxin = 2,15,000

Formula Used:

Average = Total sum of all numbers/Number item in the cell

Calculation:

As per the pie chart,

The total number of Covishield vaccines reached in all the states in June 2021 =
1,86,000

Sum of percentage values of Covishield vaccines in Punjab, Haryana and Gujarat:

⇒ 24% + 18% + 22%

⇒ 64%

Required average = (64/3) × 186000/100

⇒ 39,680

The total number of Covaxin vaccines reached in all the states in June 2021 = 2,15,000

Sum of percentage values of Covaxin in Rajasthan, Punjab and Gujarat:

⇒ 20% + 22% + 21%

⇒ 63%

Required average = 63% × (215000/3)

⇒ 45,150

Ratio = 39680 : 45150

⇒ 3968 : 4515

∴ The ratio of the average number of Covishield vaccines in Punjab, Haryana and
Gujarat in June 2021 to the average number of Covaxin in Rajasthan, Punjab and
Gujarat in June 2021 is 3968 : 4515.

44. Answer: d

Explanation:
Given:

Covishield vaccine is thrice as Covaxin in June 2021.

Calculation:

As per the pie chart

The ratio of the total number of Covishield vaccine and Covaxin = 3 : 1

Let the total number of Covishiled vaccines in June 2021 be 300x and the total
number of Covaxin in June 2021 be 100x.

The percentage of Covishield vaccine arrived in June 2021 in Madhya Pradesh = 20%

The number of Covishield vaccine arrived in June 2021 in Madhya Pradesh = 300x ×
20%

⇒ 60x

The percentage of Covaxin vaccine arrived in June 2021 in Gujrat = 21%

The number of Covaxin vaccine arrived in June 2021 in Gujrat = 100x × 21%

⇒ 21x

Required Percentage = {(60x – 21x)/21x} × 100

⇒ 3900/21

⇒ 185.71%≈ 186%

∴ The number of Covishield vaccines that arrived in June 2021 in Madhya Pradesh
is186% more than the number of Covaxin vaccines that arrived in June 2021 in Gujrat.

45. Answer: b

Explanation:
Given:

The difference between the number of Covishield vaccines that arrived in June 2021
in Rajasthan and Haryana = 216.

Total number of Covaxin arrived in June 2021 = 1,88,000

Calculation:

As per the pie chart,

The difference between the number of Covishield vaccine arrived in June 2021 in
Haryana and Rajasthan = 18% - 16%

⇒ 2%

Value of 2% ≡ 2166

⇒ 1% ≡ 2166/2

⇒ 100% ≡ 1,08,300

The percentage of Covishield arrived in June 2021 in Gujarat = 22%

The number of Covishield arrived in June 2021 in Gujarat = 108300 × (22/100)

⇒ 23,826

The total number of Covaxin arrived in June 2021 = 1,88,000

The percentage of Covaxin arrived in June 2021 in Gujarat = 21%

The number of Covaxin arrived in June 2021 in Gujarat = 188000 × (21/100)

⇒ 39,480

Required Difference = 39,480 – 23,826

⇒ 15,654
∴ The difference between the number of Covishield and Covaxin arrived in June 2021
in Gujarat is 15,654.

46. Answer: e

Explanation:

Given:

Name of the Income of the People in Increased percentage of people's

People 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Mahesh 40000 12%

Ramesh 35000 20%

Formula Used:

Increased percentage = {(Increased value)/(Base value)} × 100

Calculation:

The income of Mahesh in 2020 = 40000 × (100 + 12)%

⇒ 40000 × 112%

⇒ 40000 × (112/100)

⇒ 400 × 112

⇒ Rs. 44800

The income of Ramesh in 2020 = 35000 × (100 + 20)%

⇒ 35000 × 120%
⇒ 35000 × (120/100)

⇒ 350 × 120

⇒ Rs. 42000

Increased Income = Rs. (44800 - 42000)

⇒ Rs. 2800

The required Increased percentage = (2800/42000) × 100

⇒ 280/42

⇒ 20/3

⇒ 6.67%

∴ Mahesh's income will be approximately 6.67% more than Ramesh's income in the
year 2020.

47. Answer: d

Explanation:

Given:

Income of the
Name of the Increased percentage of people's income
People in 2019
People from 2019 to 2020
(In Rs)

Rahul 30000 15%

Saurav 45000 15%

Calculation:

The income of Rahul in 2020 = 30000 × (100 + 15)%

⇒ 30000 × 115%

The income of Saurav in 2020 = 45000 × (100 + 15)%

⇒ 45000 × 115%

The required ratio = (30000 × 115%)/(45000 × 115%)

⇒ 30/45

⇒2∶3

∴ T he ratio of income of Rahul and Sourav in the year 2020 will be 2 ∶ 3.

48. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

The ratio of expenditure and savings of Mahesh in the year 2020 = 3 ∶ 2

The saving of Mahesh in the year 2019 = 10% more than the saving of Mahesh in the
year 2020

Name of the Income of the People in Increased percentage of people's

People 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Mahesh 40000 12%

Formula Used:
Income = Saving + Expenditure

Calculation:

The income of Mahesh in 2020 = 40000 × (100 + 12)%

⇒ 40000 × 112%

⇒ 40000 × (112/100)

⇒ 400 × 112

⇒ Rs. 44800

Let the expenditure and saving of Mahesh in the year be Rs. 3x and Rs. 2x
respectively.

Now, Income = Saving + Expenditure

⇒ 44800 = 2x + 3x

⇒ 44800 = 5x

⇒ x = 44800/5

⇒ x = 8960

The saving of Mahesh in 2020 = 2 × 8960

⇒ Rs. 17920

The saving of Mahesh in 2019 = 17920 × (100 + 10)%

⇒ 17920 × 110%

⇒ 17920 × (110/100)

⇒ 1792 × 11

⇒ Rs. 19712

∴ The saving of Mahesh in the year 2019 will be Rs. 19712.

49. Answer: a

Explanation:

Given:

The expenditure of Saurav in the year 2020 = Rs.35500

Name of the Income of the People in Increased percentage of people's

People 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Saurav 45000 15%

Formula Used:

Saving = Income - Expenditure

Calculation:

The income of Saurav in 2020 = 45000 × (100 + 15)%

⇒ 45000 × 115%

⇒ 45000 × (115/100)

⇒ 450 × 115

⇒ Rs. 51750

The saving of Saurav in the year 2020 = Income - Expenditure

⇒ Rs. (51750 - 35500)

⇒ Rs. 16250

∴ The saving of Saurav in the year 2020 will be Rs. 16250.

50. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

Name of the Income of the People in Increased percentage of people's

People 2019(In Rs) income from 2019 to 2020

Suresh 30000 25%

Ramesh 35000 20%

Sonu 42000 10%

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations)/(Number of observations)

Calculation:

The income of Ramesh in 2020 = 35000 × (100 + 20)%

⇒ 35000 × 120%

⇒ 35000 × (120/100)

⇒ 350 × 120

⇒ Rs. 42000

The income of Suresh in 2020 = 30000 × (100 + 25)%

⇒ 30000 × 125%
⇒ 30000 × (125/100)

⇒ 300 × 125

⇒ Rs. 37500

The income of Sonu in 2020 = 42000 × (100 + 10)%

⇒ 42000 × 110%

⇒ 42000 × (110/100)

⇒ 420 × 110

⇒ Rs. 46200

The total sum of the income of Ramesh, Suresh and Sonu together in the year 2020 =
Rs. (42000 + 37500 + 46200)

⇒ Rs. 125700

The required average = 125700/3

⇒ Rs. 41900

∴ T he average income of Ramesh, Suresh and Sonu together in the year 2020 will be
Rs. 41900.

51. Answer: a

Explanation:

GIVEN:

A's efficiency = 37.5% of B

B's time = 7 days

FORMULA USED:
Work = Efficiency × Time
CALCULATION:

37.5% = 3/8

B's efficiency = 8x

A's efficiency = 3x

Work = 8x × 7 = 56x

75% of work = 3/4 × 56x = 42x

A's time = 42x/3x = 14 days

∴ Quantity A > Quantity B

52. Answer: e

Explanation:

GIVEN:

A's capital = Rs 20000

B joined after 4 months

C joined after 6 months

Profit ratio = 15 : 4 : 6

CONCEPT:

Profit is divide in the ratio of capital × time period.

CALCULATION:

Let amount of B and C be x and y respectively.

A's investment = 20000 × 12 = 240000

B's investment = x × 8 = 8x

C's investment = y × 6 = 6y

A.T.Q

15 ratio = 240000

∴ 4 ratio = 240000/15 × 4 = 64000

B's starting capital = 64000/8 = 8000

Also, 3 ratio = 240000/15 × 6 = 96000

C's starting capital = 96000/6 = 16000

required difference = 16000 - 8000 = 8000

∴ Quantity A = Quantity B

53. Answer: a

Explanation:

GIVEN:

M.P = Rs 24000

Discount in first case = 35%

Discount in second case = 20% + 15%

FORMULA USED:

S.P = M.P × (100 - Disc.)%

CALCULATION:

S.P 1 = 24000 × 65/100

⇒ Rs 15600

S.P 2 = 24000 × 80/100 × 85/100

⇒ 24 × 8 × 85 = Rs 16320

Required difference = Rs 720

∴ Quantity A > Quantity B

54. Answer: b

Explanation:

GIVEN:

Initial distance = 200 m (Bus ahead)

Distance after 63 seconds = 150 m (car ahead)

Car's speed = 78 km/h

CONCEPT:

When two objects are moving in the same direction the relative speed is the
difference of their individual speeds.

FORMULA USED:
Speed = Distance/Time

CALCULATION:

Relative speed = (200 + 150)/63 = 350/63

⇒ 50/9 m/s

⇒ 50/9 × 18/5 = 20 km/h

Also, Relative speed = Car's speed - Bus's speed

∴ 20 = 78 - Bus's speed

⇒ Bus's speed = 58 km/h

∴ Speed of the bus is 58 km/h.

m/s × 18/5 = km/h

55. Answer: e

Explanation:

Quantity A:

C and D fill a tank in 45 minutes and 30 minutes.

Total capacity of the tank(L.C.M of 45 & 30) = 90 units

Tank filled by the pipe C in 1 minute = 90/45 ⇒ 2 units

Tank filled by the pipe D in 1 minute = 90/30 ⇒ 3 units

Tank filled by C and D in 1 minute = 5 units

5 units are filled in 1 minute.

∴ 90 units are filled in 18 minutes i.e (90/5)

Time taken by pipes to fill a tank is 18 minutes.

Quantity B:

18 minutes

∴ Quantity A = Quantity B
56. Answer: a

Explanation:

Calculation:

According to the question,

Total employees in company D are

(560 + 280 + 350 + 410)

⇒ 1600

Total employees in company D are 1600

E is 15% more than employees in company D

⇒ (1600 × 115)/100

⇒ 1840

Total employees in company E are 1840

Total employees in company A are

⇒ (440 + 360 + 400 + 300)

⇒ 1500

Total employees in company A are 1500

Then difference between employees in company E and A

⇒ E – A = 1840 – 1500

⇒ 340

∴ The difference between E and A is 340

57. Answer: c

Explanation:

Calculation:

Total number of other sector

⇒ (300 + 420 + 480 + 410)

⇒ 1610

The average of employees in all company in other sector

⇒ 1610/4

⇒ 402.5

∴ The average of other sector in all company is 402.5

58. Answer: d

Explanation:

Calculation:

Marketing sector in company A and B = 840

Secondary sector in company A and B = 700

According to the question,

⇒ Average of company A and B = (840 + 700)/2

⇒ 770

∴ The average of company A and B is 770

59. Answer: a

Explanation:

Given:

Total marketing sector in company is 440

Calculation:

Total employee in company A is

⇒ (440 + 360 + 400 + 300)

⇒ 1500

Percent of the employee in company A is in the marketing sector

⇒ (440 × 100)/ 1500

⇒ 29.33%

∴ Company A in the marketing sector is 29.33% (about)

60. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

Employees working in the primary sector in company B = 520

Employees working in the marking sector in company D = 560

Calculation:

Required ratio = 520 : 560

Let's see the meanings of the other words:

Words Meaning

Pervasive Spreading or spread throughout

Turgid Ostentatiously lofty in style

Harsh Introduces a subordinate clause

The correct answer is "On"

Key Points

Let us see the meaning of the phrasal verb " TakeOn "
Take on(ph. verb): Accept as a challenge
Ex: "a group of villagers has taken on the planners"
The word in the bracket -- over is a contextual misfit and does not make the
sentence meaningful.
Take over:assume control of something.
Hence, Takes on is the most suitable fit for the blank.

Additional Information

Let's see the meanings of the other phrasal verbs:

Words Meaning

Take after Be similar to a relative

Take-up Pursue or resume

Take aback Greatly surprise

76. Answer: e

Explanation:

The correct answer is 'A feeling that one has already experienced something that is
happening currently . '

Key Points

Given Idiom: Déjà vu means A feeling that one has already experienced
something that is happening currently.
Example:When I entered the church, I had a strange sense of déjà vu .
From the given options, the fifth option isthe most appropriate meaning of the
given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5 .

Mistake Points

We may think from the phrase "Déjà vu" that it is all about a different form,
condition, or phase of something.

Additional Information

Déjà vu, from French, literally “already seen”, is the phenomenon of having the
strong sensation that an event or experience currently being experienced has
been experienced in the past, whether it has actually happened or not.

77. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Because of something .'

Key Points
Given Idiom: As a result means Because of something .
Example:All flights have been canceled as a result of the snowstorm .
From the given options, the first option isthe most appropriate meaning of the
given idiom .

Hence, the correct answer is option 1 .

Mistake Points

We may think from the phrase "As a result" that it is all about the mark given for
an exam or test.

Additional Information

This phrase came into existence in the early 15th century when people at that
time started using the word result. The phrase was used as a final consequence
of the actions or the events that have taken place. There were a range of
possible outcomes of these actions and the sequence of events.

78. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Insignificant .'

Key Points

The word ' Considerable ' means Sufficiently large in size, amount, or number to
merit attention .
Example: The argument seemed to have considerable merit .
Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Substantial - Of considerable importance, size, or worth .
Example: Her contribution to the discussion was substantial.
Appreciable - Large or important enough to be noticed .
Example: There's no appreciable change in the patient's condition .
Momentous - Of great importance or significance .
Example: His colleagues all recognized that this was a momentous
occasion .
Insignificant - Too small or unimportant to be worth consideration .
Example: My own problems seem insignificant compared with other
people's .
Weighty - Of great seriousness and importance .
Example: Surely such weighty matters merit a higher level of debate .

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4 .

Additional Information

The antonyms of the word ' Considerable ' are "Insignificant, Unimportant,
Inconsequential" .
The synonyms of the word ' Considerable ' are "Substantial, Appreciable,
Momentous" .

79. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is 'Condemn. '

Key Points

The word ' Convict ' means Todeclare someone to be guilty of a criminal
offense by the verdict of a jury or the decision of a judge in a court of law .
Example:The police didn't have enough evidence to convict him .
Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
Absolve - Todeclare someone free from guilt, obligation, or punishment .
Example: They agree to absolve us from our obligation .
Condemn - Tosentence someone to a particular punishment .
Example: Police were quick to condemn this heartless theft .
Acquit - Tofree someone from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty
.
Example: The judge directed the jury to acquit Ram of the murder .
Exculpate - To show or declare that someone is not guilty of wrongdoing .
Example: I will present evidence that will exculpate my client .
Exonerate -To release someone from a duty or obligation .
Example: The crew of the Enterprise must find a way to exonerate Kirk
from these heavy charges .

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2 .

Additional Information

The synonyms of the word ' Convict ' are "Condemn, Sentence, Accuse" .
The antonyms of the word ' Convict ' are "Absolve, Acquit, Exculpate" .

80. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is 'R egrettable .'

Hence, the correct answer is option 1 .

Complete Sentence:The LeT/JuD has been prosecuted in India, the United States,
and even Pakistan for the 26/11 Mumbai attacks, and Makki was himself tried and
sentenced by a Pakistani special court to nine years imprisonment on terror
financing charges — a ruling overturned a year later.

Additional Information

Prosecution is a noun that means The continuation of a course of action with a

view to its completion .
Prosecute is the base form of the verb .
Prosecutes is the third-person present tense form of the verb .
Prosecuting is the present participle form of the verb .

83. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is ' Both B and C .'

Key Points

The first sentence of the passage says " There is a sense of déjà vu about
China’s decision on June 16 to block the UN Security Council designation of
Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) deputy chief Abdul Rahman Makki as a terrorist , given
that Beijing had repeatedly blocked the designation of the Jaish-e-
Mohammad chief Masood Azhar until 2019, and other terror designations prior
to that .''
From the above sentence, we can say that statement A is correct
according to the given passage.
The first sentence of the passage says " There is a sense of déjà vu about
China’s decision on June 16 to block the UN Security Council designation of
Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) deputy chief Abdul Rahman Makki as a terrorist, given
that Beijing had repeatedly blocked the designation of the Jaish-e-
Mohammad chief Masood Azhar until 2019, and other terror designations prior
to that '' and the second sentence of the first paragraph says " Here too, the pile
of evidence against Abdul Makki is considerable: that he is part of the
command and control of the UNSC-designated terror group LeT, later renamed
the Jamaat ud Dawa (JuD), which is also an UN-designated terror group, is in
no doubt''.
From the above sentence, we can say that statements B and C are
incorrect according to the given passage.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4 .

84. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is 'China blocks India-US joint bid to label Abdul Makki as ‘Global
Terrorist’ .'

Key Points

The first sentence of the passage says ''There is a sense of déjà vu about
China’s decision on June 16 to block the UN Security Council designation of
Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT) deputy chief Abdul Rahman Makki as a terrorist, given
that Beijing had repeatedly blocked the designation of the Jaish-e-
Mohammad chief Masood Azhar until 2019, and other terror designations prior
to that'', the second sentence of the second paragraph says ''That Beijing’s
last-minute hold on Makki’s listing came even as the Financial Action Task
Force was meeting in Berlin to credit Pakistan’s actions on terror financing, and
begin the process to relieve it from the grey list, pending an on-site visit in the
next few months, may not be a coincidence'' and the third sentence of the
second paragraph says "While China defends its actions on Makki and previous
designations that it blocked as “technical objections” based on “procedural”
loopholes, it is clearly part of a pattern of protecting Pakistan internationally".
From the above sentences, we can say that the central theme of the passage
is '' China blocks India-US joint bid to label Abdul Makki as ‘Global Terrorist’ .''

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3 .

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4 .

Additional Information

The antonyms of the word ' Provoke ' are " Allay , Assuage, Alleviate " .
The synonyms of the word ' Provoke ' are " Elicit , Induce , Engender " .

88. Answer: e

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 5 i.e. All the sentences are contextually correct.

Key Points

The word ' hatch ' as a verb means (used about a baby bird, insect, fish, etc.) to
come out of an egg ((एक बच्चे के पक्षी, कीट, मछली, आदि के बारे में प्रयुक्त) एक अंडे से
बाहर आना ) .
The word ' hatch ' as a noun means an opening in the wall between a kitchen
and another room that is used for passing food through (एक रसोई और दूसरे कमरे
के बीच की दीवार में एक उद्घाटन जो भोजन को पारित करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता
है) .
In sentence A ,the word ' hatch ' is inappropriately used and doesn't fit the
context of the sentence.
In sentence B , the word ' hatch ' has been correctly used as a verb as the
sentence is talking about the time taken for a bird to come out of an egg.
In sentence C ,the word ' hatch ' has been correctly used as a noun as the
sentence is talking about passing food through an opening from the
kitchen.

101. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

124.83 × 63.82 ÷ 24.94 + 168.79 × 13.96 ÷ 12.98 + 122.96= ? 2

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

Since, we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their
nearest integers.

124.83 × 63.82 ÷ 24.94 + 168.79 × 13.96 ÷ 12.98 + 122.96= ? 2

⇒ 125 × 64 ÷ 25 + 169 × 14 ÷ 13 + 123= ? 2

⇒ 5 × 64 + 13 × 14 + 123= ? 2

⇒ 320 + 182 + 123 = ? 2

⇒ 625 = ? 2

⇒ ? = √625

⇒ ? = 25

∴ The value of ‘?’ Is 25.

102. Answer: e

Explanation:

Given:

96.1 × 34.98 – 2969.97 ÷ 18.05 × 2.96 + ? = 48.1 × 60.05

Rules of Approximation:

1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the
digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated
value.

2. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal more than 5, then just drop the
digits to the right of the decimal and raise the remaining number by '1'.The number
so obtained will be the approximated value.
Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

96.1 × 34.98 – 2969.97 ÷ 18.05 × 2.96 + ? = 48.1 × 60.05

⇒ 96 × 35 – 2970 ÷ 18 × 3 + ? = 48 × 60

⇒ 3360 – 495 + ? = 2880

⇒ 2865 + ? = 2880

⇒ ? = 2880 – 2865

⇒ ? = 15

∴ The value of ? is 15.

103. Answer: d

Explanation:

Given:

49.97% of 1900.1 + (7.99) 3 × 4.97 + ? = (5.03) 3 × 27.98

Concept used:

Rules of Approximation:

1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the
digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated
value.

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

49.97% of 1900.1 + (7.99) 3 × 4.97 + ? = (5.03) 3 × 27.98

⇒ 50% of 1900 + 8 3 × 5 + ? = 5 3 × 28

⇒ (50/100) × 1900 + 512 × 5 + ? = 125 × 28

⇒ 950 + 2560 + ? = 3500

⇒ 3510 + ? = 3500

⇒ ? = 3500 – 3510

⇒ ? = -10
∴ The value of ? is -10.

104. Answer: d

Explanation:

Solution:

Rules of Approximation:

1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the
digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated
value.

Concept Used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

17 2+ (18 - 4 2) × 5.5 + (5 2× 2 2) = ? 2
⇒ 17 2+ (18 – 16) × 5.5 + (25 × 4) = ? 2

⇒ 17 2+ 2 × 5.5 + 100 = ? 2

⇒ 17 2+ 11 + 100 = ? 2

⇒ 289 + 11 + 100 = ? 2

⇒ 400 = ? 2

∴ ? = 20

105. Answer: a

Explanation:

Calculations:

Let the total number of voters be x.

Number of votes cast = 75% of x

Valid votes = 98% of 75% of x

Now, as 9261 is the 75% of valid casted votes so,

⇒ 75% of 98% of 75% of x = 9261

⇒ 75 × 98 × 75 × x/100 × 100 × 100 = 9261

⇒ x = 16800

∴ The required answer is 16800

106. Answer: b

Explanation:
Given:

Volume ratio = 3 : 5 : 7

Weight ratio of equal volume = 4 : 2 : 3

Total mixture = 387 kg

Calculation:

Weight ratio = (3 × 4) : (5 × 2) : (7 × 3)

⇒ 12 : 10 : 21

Total weight = 43 ratio

Required weight = 387/43 × 12 = 108 kg

∴ The answer is 108 kg

107. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

Total number of students = 500

Students who like Tea = 74%

Students who like Coffee = 37%

Concept:

Venn Diagram

Calculation:
The total number of students who like both tea and coffee is x %.

The number of students who like only tea = (74 – x) %

The number of students who like only coffee = (37- x) %

According to the question –

⇒ (74 – x)% + (37 – x)% + x% = 100%

⇒ 111% - x% =100

⇒ x% = 111% - 100%

⇒ x% = 11%

Given, 100% = 500

⇒ 1% = 5

⇒ 11% = 55

∴ The number of students who like both tea and coffee = 55

108. Answer: a

Explanation:

Solution:

Rules of Approximation:
1. If a number has digits to the right of the decimal less than 5, then just drop the
digits to the right of the decimal. The number so obtained will be the approximated
value.

Concept Used:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below,

Calculation:

(21) 2 + (17 × 13) + (5 2 + 3) = ? × 23

⇒ 441 + (17 × 13) + (25 + 3) = ? × 23

⇒ 441 + 221 + 28 = ? × 23

⇒ 690 = ? × 23

⇒ ? = 690/23

∴ ? = 30

109. Answer: e
Explanation:

Shortcut Trick

I. 14x 2 - 32x - 30 = 0

There are three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of x 2, 'b' = Value of x, 'c' = 30

'c' is negative here.

II. 10y 2 - y - 24 = 0

There are also three terms = a, b, and c

Where 'a' = value of y 2, 'b' = Value of y, 'c' = 24

'c' is also negative here.

If the value of 'c' is negative in both statements, then the answer always be "x = y or
the relation between x and y can’t be established."

Basic and conventional method is given below:

From I,

14x 2 - 32x - 30 = 0

⇒ 14x 2 - 42x + 10x - 30 = 0

⇒ 14x(x- 3) + 10(x - 3) = 0

⇒ (14x + 10)(x - 3) = 0

Taking,

⇒ 14x + 10 = 0 or x - 3 = 0

⇒ x = - 5/7 or x = 3
From II,

10y 2 - y - 24 = 0

⇒ 10y 2 - 16y + 15y - 24 = 0

⇒ 2y(5y- 8) + 3(5y - 8) = 0

⇒ (5y - 8)(2y + 3) = 0

Taking,

⇒ 2y + 3 = 0 or 5y - 8 = 0

⇒ y = - 3/2 or y = 8/5

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

x Y Relation

- 5/7 - 3/2 x > y

-5/7 8/5 x<y

3 3/2 x>y

3 8/5 x>y

∴ x = y or no relation found between x and y.

110. Answer: e

Explanation:

Given:
I. x 2 + 4x - 21= 0

II. y 2 - 5y - 24 = 0

Calculation:

From I,

x 2 + 4x - 21= 0

⇒ x 2 + 7x - 3x - 21= 0

⇒ x(x + 7) - 3(x + 7) = 0

⇒ (x + 7)(x - 3) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (x + 7) = 0 or (x - 3) = 0

⇒ x = -7 or 3

From II,

y 2 - 5y - 24 = 0

⇒ y 2 - 8y + 3y - 24 = 0

⇒ y(y - 8) + 3(y - 8) = 0

⇒ (y - 8)(y + 3) = 0

Taking,

⇒ (y - 8) = 0 or (y + 3) = 0

⇒ y = 8 or -3

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

Value of x Value of y Relation

-7 8 x<y

-7 -3 x<y

3 8 x<y

3 -3 x>y

∴ x = y or relation between x and y can not be established.

111. Answer: d

Explanation:

Given:

I. x 2 - 25x + 156 = 0

II. y 2 – 23y + 132 = 0

Calculation:

I. x 2 - 25x + 156 = 0

⇒ x 2 – 12x – 13x + 156 = 0

⇒ x(x – 12) – 13(x – 12)= 0

⇒ (x – 12)(x – 13) = 0
⇒ x = 12, 13

II. y 2 – 23y + 132 = 0

⇒ y 2 – 12y – 11y + 132 = 0

⇒ y(y – 12) – 11(y – 132) =0

⇒ (y – 12)(y – 11) = 0

⇒ y = 12, 11

Value of ‘x’ Relation Value of ‘y’

12 = 12

12 > 11

13 > 12

13 > 11

When we compared the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’ in the table above, we found that there
are TWO relations between X and Y i.e. > and =. So, a relation between x and y is “ x ≥ y
”.

∴ After comparison, all the values of x and y the relation is “ x ≥ y ”.

112. Answer: c

Explanation:
Given:

I. x 2 - 27x + 182 = 0

II. y 2 – 28y + 196 = 0

Calculation:

I. x 2 - 27x + 182 = 0

⇒ x 2 – 13x – 14x + 182 = 0

⇒ x(x – 13) – 14(x – 14)= 0

⇒ (x – 13)(x – 14) = 0

⇒ x = 13, 14

II. y 2 – 28y + 196 = 0

⇒ y 2 – 14y – 14y + 196 = 0

⇒ y(y – 14) – 14(y – 14) =0

⇒ (y – 14)(y – 14) = 0

⇒ y = 14, 14

Value of ‘x’ Relation Value of ‘y’

13 < 14

14 = 14

When we compared the values of ‘x’ and ‘y’ in the table above, we found that there
are TWO relations between X and Y i.e. < and =. So, a relation between x and y is “x ≤
y”.

∴ After comparison, for all the values of x and y the relation is “x ≤ y”.

113. Answer: a

Explanation:

According to the given equations,

I. 9x 2 – 18x – 16 = 0

⇒ 9x 2 – 24x + 6x – 16 = 0

⇒ 3x(3x – 8) + 2(3x – 8) = 0

⇒ (3x – 8) (3x + 2) = 0

⇒ x = 8/3, -2/3

II. 15y 2 + 39y + 24 = 0

⇒ 15y 2 + 15y + 24y + 24 = 0

⇒ 15y(y + 1) + 24(y + 1) = 0

⇒ (y + 1) (15y + 24) = 0

⇒ y = -1, -8/5

Comparison between x and y (via Tabulation):

x y Relation

8/3 -1 x>y

8/3 -8/5 x > y

-2/3 -1 x>y

-2/3 -8/5 x > y

∴x > y

114. Answer: c

Explanation:

Let the parts be Rs. ‘x’ and Rs. (10000 – x)

∵ Simple interest = (Principal × Rate × Time)/100

Simple interest on Rs. x at 12.5% after 4 years = (x × 12.5 × 4)/100 = 0.5x

∵ Compound interest after n years = Principal × [(1 + Rate/100) n– 1]

Compound interest on Rs. (10000 – x) at 10% after 2 years

= (10000 – x) × [(1 + 10/100) 2– 1]

= (10000 – x) × 0.21

= 2100 – 0.21x
Now, total interest received = Rs. 3840

⇒ 0.5x + 2100 – 0.21x = 3840

⇒ 0.29x = 1740

⇒ x = 1740/0.29 = Rs. 6000

⇒ 10000 – x = Rs. 4000

∴ Required ratio = 6000 ∶ 4000 = 3 ∶ 2

115. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

Pipe P can fill a tank in 44 minutes

Pipe R can fill a tank in 33 minutes.

Calculation:

Total capacity of tank = 132 units

⇒ Tank filled in 1 minute by pipe P = 3 units (i.e. 132 / 44)

⇒ Tank filled in 1 minute by pipe R = 4 units (i.e. 132 / 33)

⇒ Tank filled in first minute by pipe P = 3 units

⇒ Tank filled in second minute by pipe P = 3 units

⇒ Tank filled in third minute by pipe R = 4 units

⇒ Tank filled in fourth minute by pipe R = 4 units

So, in 4 minutes tank is filled = 14 units

⇒ in first 36 minutes tank is filled = 126 units

remaining 6 units will be filled by pipe P in next 2 minutes.

∴ 38 minutes are required to fill that tank

116. Answer: c

Explanation:

In first glass, the ratio of water and sugar syrup = 7 : 9

Ratio of water : Mixture = 7 : 16

In second glass, the ratio of water and sugar syrup = 5 : 11

Ratio of water : Mixture = 5 : 16

(∵ Both the tanks are of equal capacity)

5 7
⇒ 16
−x =x− 16

5 7
⇒ 16
+ 16
= 2x

12 6 3
⇒ 2x = 16
;x = 16
= 8

⇒ Water : Mixture = 3/8

⇒ Water : Sugar Solution = 3/(8 - 3) = 3/5

∴ Ratio of resultant water : Sugar Solution = 3/5

117. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

Number of purchased calculator = 150

Each calculator cost price = Rs. 220

Spend on transportation = Rs. 7,000

Each calculator's label price = Rs. 400

Discount on printed price = 5%

Concept:

Total price amount = Number of pieces × per piece price

Gain = Selling price – Cost price

Gain% = (Gain/Cost price) × 100

Calculation:

Cost for purchase 150 calculator = 150 × 220

⇒ Rs.33,000

Total amount spent including transportation = 33000 + 7000

⇒ Rs.40,000

Labelled price for 150 calculators = 150 × 400

⇒ Rs.60,000
Selling price after discount of 5% = 60000 × (1 – 5/100)

⇒ 60000 × (95/100)

⇒ Rs.57,000

Gain = 57000 – 40000

⇒ 17,000

Gain% = (17000/40000) × 100

⇒ 42.5%

∴ Gain profit of 42.5% in overall transaction.

118. Answer: a

Explanation:

Given

Time taken in travelling = 12 hours

Speed of stream = 5 km/hour

Speed of the boat in still water = 10 km/hour

Formula used

Time = (Distance/Speed Upstream) + (Distance/Speed Downstream)

Calculation

Let the distance travelled be x km

12 = [x/(10 - 5)] + [x/(10 + 5)]

⇒ 12 = (x/5) + (x/15)
⇒ x = 45 km

∴ The distance between P and Q is 45 km.

119. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

From statement I,

Marks in English = 80% of marks in Science

From statement II,

Ratio of marks in English, Hindi and Science = 4 : 3 : 5

From statement III,

Marks obtained in Science = Marks in Hindi + 40

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of values)/(Number of value)

Calculation:

From statements II and III together,

Let the marks obtained by Vikash in Hindi be 3x.

Then, marks obtained in English = 4x

and marks obtained in Science = 5x

So, 5x – 3x = 40

⇒ 2x = 40
⇒ x = 20

Marks obtained in English = 4 × 20

⇒ 80

Marks obtained in Hindi = 3 × 20

⇒ 60

and marks obtained in Science = 5 × 20

⇒ 100

Now, Total marks obtained 3 subjects = 80 + 60 + 100

⇒ 240 marks

Required average = 240/3

⇒ 80 marks

∴ Both statements II and III are required to answer the question.

120. Answer: e

Explanation:

From I:

Let the rate of interest be R%.

A × R × 4/100 = 2A –A

⇒ R = 25%

Hence statement I is alone sufficient

From II:
Let the rate of interest be R%.

Simple interest earned by mamta = 5000Rt/100

Simple interest earned by sajan = 3000RT/100

5000Rt/3000RT = 4/7

⇒ 5t/3T = 4/7

⇒ But we cannot determine the rate of interest.

Hence, statement II alone is not sufficient.

From III:

Let the rate of interest be R%.

S[R/100 + 1] 2= 4S

⇒ [R/100 + 1] = 2

R = 100%

Hence, statement III is alone sufficient.

121. Answer: a

Explanation:

Calculation:

By combining statements, I and II:

We conclude the age of Lucky and the age of Shanti. So, we can find the sum as well.

Statement II and III indirectly means the same.

So, by combining I and III we can get our answer.

Statement I and II together or Statement I and III together are sufficient.

122. Answer: a

Explanation:

Calculation:

For Statement I and III:

We can conclude our answer to 500 meters.

For statement II:

The only ratio is given therefore can’t find anything.

For statement I and II:

We can find the answer as we have the ratio and the distance.

Statement I and III together or Statement I and II together are sufficient.

123. Answer: b

Explanation:

From I and II:

Total apple given to men = 114 × 10/(10 + 5 + 4) = 60

Total apple given to women = 114 × 5/(10 + 5 + 4) = 30

Total apple given to children = 114 × 4/(10 + 5 + 4) = 24

From II : Let apple received by 1 child is ‘a’ and that of by 1 men = ‘2a’ respectively.

Hence, statements I and II together are not sufficient.

From I and III:

Total apple given to men = 114 × 10/(10 + 5 + 4) = 60

Total apple given to women = 114 × 5/(10 + 5 + 4) = 30

Total apple given to children = 114 × 4/(10 + 5 + 4) = 24

Let apple received by 1 men, 1 women and 1 child is 4b, 3b and 2b respectively.

Ratio of men, women and child = 60/4b : 30/3b : 24/2b = 15 : 10 : 12

So men = 37 × 15/(15 + 10 + 12) = 15, women = 37 × 10/(15 + 10 + 12) = 10 and children =

37 × 12/(15 + 10 + 12) = 12

Number of apple each men, women and child together receive = 60/15 + 30/10 +
24/12 = 9

Hence statement I and III together are sufficient.

124. Answer: e

Explanation:

Given

Length of floor = 11 meter + radius of circle

Circumference = 308 m

Perimeter (floor of room) = 204 m

Cost of flooring = Rs. 20 m 2

Formula

Circumference of circle = 2πr

Area of rectangle = Length × breadth

Calculation

According to the question

308 = 2 × (22/7) × r

⇒ r = (308 × 7) / (22 × 2)

⇒ r = 49 m

Length of floor (l) = 49 + 11 = 60 meter

Now,

2(l + b) = 204 (b = breadth)

⇒ l + b = 102

⇒ b = 102 – 60

⇒ b = 42 meter

Area of floor = 60 × 42 = 2520 m 2

∴ Required cost = 2520 × 20 = Rs. 50,400

125. Answer: e

Explanation:

Given:

Length of train = 220m

Speed of train = 54 km/hr

Speed of cycle = x km/hr

Time = 22 seconds
Formula Used:

Relative Speed = Speed of train – Speed of Cycle

Distance = Relative Speed × Time

Calculation:

Relative speed = (54 – x) km/hr

⇒ (54 – x) × 5/18 m/s

Distance = Speed × time

⇒ 220 = (54 – x) × 5/18 × 22

⇒ 10 = (54 – x) × 5/18

⇒ (54 – x) = 36

⇒ x = 18 km/hr

∴ The value of x is 18km/hr.

Mistake Points

Here, the speed of the person is also converted into km/h by multiplying the relative
speed by 5/18.

126. Answer: a

Explanation:

Given

Saima invested in gold for first year = Rs. 50000

Saima invested more in gold for second year = Rs. 10000

Saima’s brother invested for 7 month = Rs. 60000

Saima’s brother withdrawal from first years amount = Rs. 5000

Profit earned by Saima at the end of second year = Rs. 42000

Calculation

Saima invested for second year = Rs. 50000 + Rs 10000 = Rs. 60000

Saima’s brother invested for second year = Rs. 60000 – Rs. 5000 = Rs. 55000

According to question

Capital Ratio = 50000 × 12 + 60000 × 12 : 60000 × 7 + 55000 × 12

⇒ 600000 + 720000 : 420000 + 660000

⇒ 1320000 : 1080000 = 11 : 9

Let total profit earned by both = Rs x

Saima’s profit for 2 years = x × 50% × 50% + x × 50% × 11/20

⇒ 42000 = 21 x/40

⇒x = (42000 × 40)/ 21

⇒ x = Rs. 80000

∴ Total profit earned by Saima and her brother after 2 years is Rs. 80,000

127. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

A works twice as fast as B

B works twice as fast as C

Concept Used:

Work Done = Time Taken × Rate of Work.

Calculation:

Let x be a time taken.

The ratio of efficiency of A : B : C is 4 : 2 : 1 .

the ratio of time taken for A : B : C is 1 : 2 : 4 .

According to the question

A works 16 times as his efficiency and completes the whole in 12 days

Total Work from A = 16 × 4 × 12

⇒ 768

Required for B if he works 32 efficiencies and C with 64 times of his efficiency

Total Work = {(32 × 2) + 64} × x

⇒ 768 = 128x

⇒x=6

∴ Together to complete the same job in 6 days.

Alternate Method

Let efficiency of A, B and C be 4x, 2x and x respectively

Total work if A works 16 times of his efficiency = 4x × 16 × 12

Efficiency of 32 times of B = 2x × 32

Efficiency of 64 times of C = x × 64

Required time taken = (4x × 16 × 12) ÷ (64x + 64x)

⇒ (64x × 12) ÷ 128x

⇒ 6 days

∴ Required time taken is 6 days

128. Answer: e

Explanation:

Given:

Total votes cast = 1600

Votes

Candidates Total Votes

Male Female

A 345

B 120

D 250 450

C got 80 votes less than the total votes of A and the ratio of male and female votes
of C is 3: 1.

The female votes of B = 40% of the male votes of C.

Formula used:

Average = (Sum of values)/(Number of values)

Calculation:

Let the male votes won by C be x.

Then, the female votes won by B = 40% of the male votes won by C

⇒ 120 = (40/100) × x

⇒ x = 120 × (5/2)

⇒ x = 300 male votes

Number of female votes won by C = (1/3) × 300

⇒ 100 female votes

and the number of female votes won by D = 450 – 250

⇒ 200 female votes

Now, required average = (120 + 100 + 200)/3

⇒ (420/3)

⇒ 140

∴ The average number of female votes won by B, C and D is 140.

129. Answer: d

Explanation:

Given:

Total votes cast = 1600

Votes

Candidates Total Votes

Male Female

A 345

B 120

D 250 450

C got 80 votes less than the total votes of A and the ratio of male and female votes
of C is 3: 1.

The female votes of B = 40% of the male votes of C.

Calculation:

Let the male votes won by C be x.

Then, the female votes won by B = 40% of the male votes won by C

⇒ 120 = (40/100) × x

⇒ x = 120 × (5/2)

⇒ x = 300 male votes

Total votes won by C = [(3 + 1)/3] × 300

⇒ (4/3) × 300
⇒ 400 votes

and total votes won by A = 400 + 80

⇒ 480 votes

Now, total votes won by B = 1600 – (480 + 400 + 450)

⇒ 1600 – 1330

⇒ 270 votes

Number of male votes won by B = 270 – 120

⇒ 150 male votes

Required difference = 150 – 120

⇒ 30

∴ 30 is the difference between the male and female votes won by B.

130. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

Total votes cast = 1600

Votes

Candidates Total Votes

Male Female

A 345

B 120

D 250 450

C got 80 votes less than the total votes of A and the ratio of male and female votes
of C is 3: 1.

The female votes of B = 40% of the male votes of C.

Calculation:

Let the female number of votes won by D be x.

Then, 250 + x = 450

⇒ x = 200

and Number of female votes won by B = 120

Now, required ratio = 200 : 120

⇒5:3

∴ The ratio of the number of female votes won by D to that won by B is 5 : 3.

131. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

Total votes cast = 1600

Votes

Candidates Total Votes

Male Female

A 345

B 120

D 250 450

C got 80 votes less than the total votes of A and the ratio of male and female votes
of C is 3: 1.

The female votes of B = 40% of the male votes of C.

Formula used:

Percentage = (favourable value/Base value) × 100

Calculation:
Let the male votes won by C be x.

Then, the female votes won by B = 40% of the male votes won by C

⇒ 120 = (40/100) × x

⇒ x = 120 × (5/2)

⇒ x = 300 male votes

So, the number of female votes won by C = (1/3) × 300

⇒ 100 female votes

Now, required difference = 250 – 100 = 150

Required percent = (150/250) × 100

⇒ (3/5) × 100

⇒ 60%

∴ The number of female votes won by C is 60% less than the number of male votes
won by D.

132. Answer: a

Explanation:

Given:

Total votes cast = 1600

Votes

Candidates Total Votes

Male Female

A 345

B 120

D 250 450

C got 80 votes less than the total votes of A and the ratio of male and female votes
of C is 3: 1.

The female votes of B = 40% of the male votes of C.

Calculation:

Let the male votes of C be x.

Then, the female votes won by B = 40% of the male votes won by C

⇒ 120 = (40/100) × x

⇒ x = 120 × (5/2)

⇒ x = 300 male votes

So, total votes won by C = [(3 + 1)/3] × 300

⇒ (4/3) × 300
⇒ 400 votes

Now, the total number of votes won by A = 400 + 80 = 480 votes

Number of female votes won by A = 480 – 345

⇒ 135 female votes.

∴ 135 female votes are won by A.

133. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

24, 23, 25, 22, 26, 22

Calculation:

The logic follows here is:

24 – 1 = 23

23 + 2 = 25

25 – 3 = 22

22 + 4 = 26

26 – 5 = 21 ≠ 22

There should be 21 instead of 22.

∴ 22 is the wrong term.

134. Answer: e
Explanation:

Given:

1, 8, 9, 64, 25, 36

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern,

12=1

23=8

32=9

4 3 = 64

5 2 = 25

6 3 = 216≠ 36

Since 216 will come in place of 36,

∴ The required wrong number will be 36.

135. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given:

132, 156, 181, 210, 240, 272, 306

Calculation:

11 × 12 = 132
12 × 13 = 156

13 × 14 = 182 ≠ 181

14 × 15 = 210

15 × 16 = 240

16 × 17 = 272

17 × 18 = 306

∴ The wrong number is 181.

136. Answer: e

Explanation:

Given:

15, 50, 19, 46, 23, 42, 26, 38

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

∴ 26 is wrong and should be replaced by 27.

137. Answer: a

Explanation:
Given:

10, 14, 20, 32, 56, 104, 200

Calculation:

The series follows the following pattern

⇒ 11 + 3 = 14

⇒ 14 + 6 = 20

⇒ 20 + 12 = 32

⇒ 32 + 24 = 56

⇒ 56 + 48 = 104

⇒ 104 + 96 = 200

∴ 10 is wrong and should be replaced by 11.

Alternate Method

∴ 10 is wrong and should be replaced by 11.

138. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

The average salary of the staff of a tech company (a) = Rs. 2000
The average salary of the tech lead (b) = Rs. 5500

The average salary of the freshers (c) = Rs. 1200

No. of Tech leads (n) = 16

Formula Used:

Number of freshers = [n × (a – b)]/(c – a)

Calculation:

∴ according to the formula:

Number of freshers = [n × (a – b)]/(c – a)

⇒ [16 × (2000 – 5500)]/(1200 – 2000)

⇒ (16 × -3500)/-800

⇒ 2 × 35

⇒ 70

∴ The number of freshers in the company is 70.

Alternate Method

Let the number of freshers in the tech company be x.

∴ according to the question:

⇒ 1200x + (5500 × 16) = 2000 (16 + x)

⇒ 12x + (55 × 16) = 20 (16 + x)

⇒ 3x + (55 × 4) = 5 (16 + x)

⇒ 3x + 220 = 80 + 5x

⇒ 5x – 3x = 220 - 80
⇒ 2x = 140

⇒ x = 70

∴ The number of freshers in the company is 70.

139. Answer: d

Explanation:

Given:

24 pens sold at 25% profit

20 pens sold at 15% profit

Difference in profit if all were sold at 20% profit is Rs. 5.6

Formula:

Sp = (100 + x)% of Cp

Where,

Sp = Sell price

Cp = Cost price

x = Profit percent

Calculation:

Let the cost price of each pen be x

Total pens = 24 + 20 = 44

Total cost price = 44x

Cost price of 24 pens = 24x

Sell price of 24 pens = 125% of 24x = 30x

Cost price of other 20 pens = 20x

Sell price of the other 20 pens = 115% of 20x = 23x

Total sell price = 30x + 23x = 53x

Sell price if all were sold at a profit of 20% = 120% of 44x = 52.8x

Difference in profits = 53x – 52.8x = 0.2x

0.2x = 5.6

⇒ x = 5.6/0.2

⇒ x = 56/2

⇒ x = 28

∴ Cost price of each pen is Rs. 28

140. Answer: c

Explanation:

GIVEN:

Joe + Andy + 3 Mary = 79 yrs

Joe + Mary + 2 Andy = 61 yrs

Mary + 3 Andy + 3 Joe = 101 yrs

EXPLANATION:

Let the ages of Joe, Andy, and Mary be a, b, and c yrs respectively.

∴ a + b + 3c = 79 ----(1)
a + c + 2b = 61 ----(2)

c + 3b + 3a = 101 ----(3)

From (1),

a + b = 79 - 3c ----(4)

From (3),

c + 3(a + b) = 101 ----(5)

Put (a + b) from (4) in (5)

c + 3 (79 - 3c) = 101

c + 237 - 9c = 101

8c = 136

c = 17 yrs

∴ Mary's age is 17 years.

141. Answer: c

Explanation:

Correct answer is option 3 .

Key Points

Nikhat Zareen who won gold in IBA Women's World Championship belongs to
Nizamabad, Telangana .
She defeated Thailand's Jitpong Jutamas in final mathch and became the
5th Indian women boxer to win a gold medal at World Championship .
India secured second position by winning 3 medals (1 gold and 2 bronze) while
Ireland topped the tally by winning 2 golds.
The headquarter of IBA (International Boxing Association) is in Lusanne,
Switzerland and its president is Mr. Umar Kremlyov .

Additional Information

Nikhat became the second boxer after M.C. Mary Kom to win a gold in world
championship outside India .
Nikhat won silver in 2019 Thailand open and gold in Strandja Memorial Boxing
Tournament in both 2019 & 2020 .
She became 5 th Indian women boxer to win a gold at World Championship
after Mary Kom, Jenny R L, Laishram Sarita Devi and Lekha K.C.
IBA was established in 1946.

142. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is 83.57.

Key Points

India has recorded the "highest ever" annual FDI (foreign direct investment)
inflow of USD 83.57 billion in 2021-22.
In 2020-21, the inflow stood at USD 81.97 billion.
Singapore is the top investor country with a 27% share followed by the US (18%)
and Mauritius (16%).
Karnataka is the top recipient state with a 38 per cent share of the total FDI
equity inflow.

Important Points

FDI equity inflow in manufacturing sectors has increased by 76 per cent in 2021-
22 (USD 21.34 billion) compared to 2020-21 (USD 12.09 billion).
Among sectors, computer software and hardware attracted maximum inflows.
It was followed by the services sector and automobile industry.
143. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is Reliance Industries Limited.

Key Points

Reliance Industries Limited on 27 April 2022 became the first Indian company to
hit the Rs 19 lakh cr market valuation mark.
The market heavyweight stock jumped 1.85 percent to its record high of Rs
2,827.10 on the BSE.
Following the gain, the company's market valuation jumped to Rs 19,12,814 cr in
morning trade on the BSE.
In March 2022, its market valuation had gone past Rs 18 lakh crore.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

Key Points

NITI Aayog and UNICEF have signed a deal on sustainable development

goals with a focus on children.
It seeks to formalize a framework of cooperation to launch the first report on
the ‘state of India’s children: status and trends in multidimensional child
development.
Both will study the extent of development and deprivation among children in
India, on parameters like health, education, etc.

Additional Information

The NITI Aayog serves as the apex public policy think tank of the Government
of India, and the nodal agency tasked with catalyzing economic development.
The NITI Aayog:
Formed: 1 January 2015
Headquarters: New Delhi
Chairperson: Narendra Modi
Founder: National Democratic Alliance

149. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘State Bank of India’

Key Points

The Centre's Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare (DoPPW)

announced to collaborate with the State Bank of India.
This collaboration will allow to create an integrated pension portal to enhance
ease of living of pensioners.
It was decided that immediate efforts are needed for the creation of an
integrated pension portal by linking the existing portals of the DoPPW and the
SBI to provide seamless services to pensioners.
Face authentication technology for digital life certificate may be advertised
extensively by banks. Digital life certificate and face authentication technology
would be a game changer for pensioners and banks in the submission of life
certificates.
Sessions on pension policy reforms and digitization regarding the disbursement
of pensions to central government pensioners were organized with the
objective of updating SBI field functionaries during the two-day bankers'
awareness programme in Udaipur, Rajasthan.
Special sessions were organized on income tax matters related to pensioners
as well as digital means of submitting annual life certificates.

150. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘ IndusInd Bank ’

Key Points

Rural NEO Bank Mahagram has tied up with the IndusInd Bank to digitize the
nation’s payment ecosystem.
This partnership will also provide a wider scope to transact for its customers in
rural India.
Mahagram was launched with a vision to transform India into a digitally
empowered society and knowledge economy.
The partnership between the two aims to boost financial inclusion, and
encourage socio-economic development.
It will also mitigate the risks of a shadow economy and accelerate the growth
of a cashless society.
This association will also ensure the building of an efficient, reliable, and secure
payment ecosystem.
This will not only promote and encourage the use of e-payments methods but
will also help merchants across the country to accept digital payments easily,
making it more accessible for everyone.

Additional Information

About IndusInd Bank:

Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra

MD & CEO: Sumant Kathpalia
Tagline: “We Make You Feel Richer”
151. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is Visakhapatnam.

Key Points

9th Sri Lanka-India Naval Exercise SLINEX began on 7 March 2022 in

Visakhapatnam .
The exercise will be conducted in two phases-the harbour phase at
Visakhapatnam on March 7 and 8, followed by the sea phase on March 9 and 10
in the Bay of Bengal.
Sri Lankan Navy will be represented by SLNS Sayurala , an advanced offshore
patrol vessel, and the Indian Navy by INS Kirch, a guided missile corvette.

Important Points

Other participants from the Indian Navy include INS Jyoti, a Fleet support
tanker, Advanced Light Helicopter(ALH), Seaking and Chetak Helicopters and
Dornier Maritime Patrol Aircraft.
The Harbour Phase would include professional, cultural, sporting, and social
exchanges.

Additional Information

The previous edition of SLINEX was conducted off Trincomalee in October 2020.
SLINEX aims to enhance inter-operability, improve mutual understanding, and
exchange best practices and procedures for multi-faceted maritime
operations between both navies.

152. Answer: b

Explanation:
The correct answer is ‘HDFC Money’

Key Points

HDFC Securities has launched HDFC Money, a Robo-advisory platform for all
mutual fund investments.
HDFC Money is a 100 percent digital platform that doesn’t involve opening or
having a Demat Account.
Apart from Mutual Funds, one can also manage other aspects of finances such
as accessing, managing, and tracking portfolios, starting goal planning,
insurance planning, creating E-wills, and managing/filing taxes.
HDFC Money, with its exclusivity in mutual funds investment, offers a range of
options for investors depending on their preferences and risk appetite.
Goal-based investment is the need of the hour, there are a plethora of
investors who approach long-term investment without having a proper plan in
place.
HDFC Money Robo advisory will help investors to plan and execute with a more
defined objective keeping risk and tenure in consideration.
It starts with the customer identifying and specifying his/her goal and the
expected outcome over a certain time frame with a defined risk appetite.
Long term goals are predefined as Child Education / Marriage, dream home,
retirement or simple the desired figure in mind that one wants to achieve e.g. 5
Crore in 20 yrs from now.

153. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is 23 years.

Key Points

The Central government has extended the upper age limit for the Agnipath
recruitment scheme from 21 years to 23 years.
The age waiver will be given only one time for the proposed recruitment cycle
for 2022.
The scheme provides an opportunity for Indian youth to serve in the regular
cadre of the Armed Forces for a period of four years.

Additional Information

The Centre has cleared the AGNIPATH Scheme for recruitment of youth in the
armed forces.
The youth selected under this scheme will be known as Agniveers.
They will be getting an attractive monthly package with risk and hardship
allowances as applicable in the three services.
They will be also paid one-time Seva Nidhi Package upon completion of
engagement period of four years.

154. Answer: e

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘May 31’

Key Points

World No Tobacco Day is celebrated on 31 May annually to raise public

awareness about the side effects of tobacco use and cultivation.
The theme for World No Tobacco Day 2022 is “Protect the environment”.
It highlights how tobacco pollutes the earth and damages people’s health
throughout its whole life cycle. Every year, the theme of World No Tobacco Day
addresses a specific issue related to tobacco and its industry.
The annual campaign is a chance to raise awareness of the deadly and harmful
tobacco use and negative health effects of second-hand smoke exposure, and
to prevent the use of tobacco in any form.
Over 8 million people are killed every year due to the use of tobacco and, this
figure is expected to rise to over 8 million by 2030.
The Sustainable Development Agenda aims to reduce deaths from tobacco-
related diseases by a third.
The Member States of the World Health Organization formed World No
Tobacco Day in 1987 due to the global tobacco crisis, deaths, and diseases in its
consumption.
The World Health Assembly passed Resolution WHA40.38 in 1987, deciding April
7 to be “World No-Smoking Day.”
However, next resolution was passed in 1988, issuing 31 May as an annual
observance of World No Tobacco Day.

155. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is HSBC India.

Key Points

HSBC India will lend USD 250 million to startups in India.

The lending will be done to high-growth, tech-led startups in the third largest
startup ecosystem in the world.
It will be managed by the bank's commercial banking vertical.
The commercial banking vertical in India had witnessed a 42% jump in its profit
for 2021 at 265millionasagainst 187 million in 2020 period.

Additional Information

HSBC Holdings plc is a British multinational universal bank and financial services
holding company.
It is the largest bank in Europe by total assets, with US$2.953 trillion as of
December 2021.
In 2021, HSBC had 10.8trillioninassetsundercustodyand 4.9 trillion in assets under
administration, respectively.
HSBC Holdings plc:
Headquarters: London, United Kingdom
CEO: Noel Quinn (Aug 2019–)
Founder: Thomas Sutherland
Founded: 3 March 1865, Hong Kong
156. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘Chennai’

Key Points

Pharmaceutical company Pfizer has set up a global drug development centre

at the IIT Madras Research Park in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
It is the first and only one at present being set up by Pfizer in Asia.
Pfizer has invested USD 20 million (INR 150+ crore) in the 61,000 sq ft research
and technology centre at the IIT Madras Research Park.
This centre will be a part of a network of 12 global centres set up worldwide.
The centre integrates two essential functions under the export-oriented
undertaking of Pfizer: Pharmaceutical Sciences (Pharm-Sci) and Global
Technology and Engineering (GT&E) Center of Excellence.
The centre's capabilities will include the development of both, active
pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) and finished dosage forms (FDFs) of
differentiated products.
The products are complex/value-added formulations, controlled-release
dosage forms, device-combination products, lyophilized injections, powder-fill
products, and ready-to-use formulations.

157. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is2024.

Key Points

India's first flying electric taxi "ePlane e200" went on display at the Bharat Drone
Mahotsav 2022.
A prototype of the flying taxi went on display at the drone festival. The ePlane
Company plans to launch the electric flying taxi, e200, commercially by 2024.
The taxi is designed to carry a maximum payload of 200 kilograms.
MP Giriraj Singh examines the ePlane e200 at India's biggest drone festival. The
taxi is designed to hold two passengers.
The ePlane Company was founded in IIT-Madras by Satya Chakravarthy and
Pranjal Mehta. The company aims to make urban travel faster through its
electric flying taxi

Additional Information

PM Modi inaugurated India's biggest Drone Festival - Bharat Drone Mahotsav-

2022 in New Delhi, on 27 May 2022.
The event will also witness a virtual award of drone pilot certificates, panel
discussions, product launches, display of a ‘Made in India’ Drone Taxi prototype,
flying demonstrations, among others.
It is a 2-day event being held from 27 to 28 May 2022.

158. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘ c-TB ’

Key Points

India will introduce a newly approved “made in India” TB infection skin test
called ‘c-TB’, said Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya.
This cost-effective tool will be of immense benefit to other high burden
countries as well.
Mandaviya made the announcement while addressing the 35th board meeting
of the Stop TB Partnership.
A new initiative, “Adopt people with TB” will be launched this year, based on
Indian values of collectivism.
This initiative will call upon corporate, industries, organizations, political parties
and individuals to come forward and adopt TB-infected people and families
and provide them with nutritional and social support.
Among these are the ‘bidirectional testing’ of TB with Covid, house-to-house TB
detection campaigns, scaling up of rapid molecular diagnostics at sub-district
levels, use of artificial intelligence and digital tools.
In addition to this, ‘Jan Andolan’, and most importantly, the decentralization of
TB services to Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres as part of
comprehensive primary healthcare.
The Union health minister noted that 2022 is an important year since it is the
target year for many of the commitments made in the UNHLM of 2018.
He also laid stress on discussing bold and ambitious commitments in the board
meeting for the upcoming UNHLM of TB in 2023.
He also informed that India, under its 2023 Presidency of the G20, will focus on
two health issues TB and cervical cancer.

159. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is United States of America (USA).

Key Points

US central bank has announced its biggest interest rate rise to rein in surging
inflation.
The Federal Reserve would increase its benchmark rate by three-quarters of a
percentage point to a range of 1.5 percent to 1.75 percent.
The rise comes after inflation surged unexpectedly in May 2022.
It is the largest rate hike since 1994 and will affect millions of American
businesses and households.

Additional Information

The Federal Reserve System is the central banking system of the United States
of America.
It was created on December 23, 1913, with the enactment of the Federal
Reserve Act.
It was created after a series of financial panics led to the desire for central
control of the monetary system in order to alleviate financial crises.
The Federal Reserve System:
Chairperson: Jerome Powell Trending
Founded: 23 December 1913
Jurisdiction: United States

160. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘2.8 percent’

Key Points

The World Trade Organization (WTO) has downgraded its forecast for global
GDP growth in 2022 to 2.8%.
However, it was previously forecasted at 4.1%.
The report also said, “Growth should pick up to 3.2% in 2023, close to the
average rate of 3.0% between 2010 and 2019”.
The decline in the GDP of countries of the Commonwealth of Independent
States (CIS), excluding Ukraine, will be 7.9% this year with regional imports
expected to drop 12% as a result.
While Exports should grow by 4.9% as other countries continue to rely on
Russian energy.

161. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is Varanasi.

Key Points
The Gyanvapi Mosque is located in Varanasi (Banaras), Uttar Pradesh.
The mosque is built on the ruins of the Vishwanath temple, a grand 16th Century
Hindu shrine.
The temple was partially destroyed in 1669 on the orders of Aurangzeb, the sixth
Mughal emperor.

Additional Information

This is an old case, originally filed in 1991 when a bunch of petitions reached the
Varanasi court.
The legal dispute started in 1991 when a petition was filed through advocate Vijay
Shankar Rastogi on behalf of the Swayambhu Jyotirlinga Bhagwan Vishweshwar.
The claim is that a temple was constructed by Maharaja Vikramaditya about
2,050 years ago at the spot. They alleged that this temple was then demolished
by the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb in 1669 and the mosque was constructed
thereafter, using and upon the ruins of the temple. The Gyanvapi Mosque is
located in Banaras, Uttar Pradesh, India.

162. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is ISRO.

Key Points

The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) has signed an

MoU with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
The programme is aimed at creating a formal framework for short-term
courses to provide training for the skill development and capacity-building of
the technical staff of ISRO.
The training will be held at the National Skill Training Institutes (NSTI).

Additional Information

Recent MoUs:
SatCom Industry Association (SIA-India) has entered into a pact with the
Telecommunications Standards Development Society, India (TSDSI). It is
for cooperation in the development of standards in India and international
standards developing organizations.
MG Motor India has partnered with Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd NSE
-5.68 % (BPCL) to bolster EV charging infrastructure across the country.
Tebma Shipyards Ltd, a wholly-owned subsidiary of public sector Cochin
Shipyard Limited has signed an agreement with Ocean Sparkle Limited
(OSL).
Bharti group-backed OneWeb and New Space India Limited , the
commercial arm of ISRO, have entered into an agreement that will help
ensure OneWeb completes its satellite launch programme.
An MoU was signed on 20 April 2022, between the Indian Navy (IN) and
Larsen and Toubro (L&T) . The MoU aims to engage L&T as a knowledge
partner for nurturing technologies in various domains, for induction into
the Indian Navy.

163. Answer: e

Explanation:

The correct answer is Air Asia.

Key Points

Tata Sons will merge Air India with Air Asia.

Air India, which was recently acquired by the Tata group, has approached the
Competition Commission of India (CCI) for acquiring a 100 percent stake in Air
Asia India.
Tatas had recently raised its stake in AirAsia India to 83.67 percent in
December 2020.
AirAsia India started flying in June 2014.

Additional Information

Recent Merger and Acquisitions :

ITC will acquire a 10.07% stake in Blupin Technologies Pvt Ltd for up to Rs
39.34 crore.
HDFC Ltd. has entered a binding agreement to sell a 10% stake in wholly-
owned subsidiary HDFC Capital to an arm of Abu Dhabi Investment
Authority (ADIA) for 184 crore.
Bharti Airtel Ltd on March 29 acquired the Indus Towers Ltd from UK’s
Vodafone Group Plc for Rs 2,388.05 crore.
Multiplex giants PVR and Inox announced the merger of their two
companies on 28 March 2022.
Glance InMobi (“Glance"), a Singapore-based consumer internet
company, has acquired Indian gaming company Gambit Sports Pvt Ltd . on
26 Mar'22.
Bharti Airtel acquired Vodafone's 4.7% stake in Indus Towers for 2,388
crore exchange filing on 25 March 2022.

164. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘ Rs 1.26 lakh crore ’

Key Points

According to data from the latest SBI Ecowrap report, Credit to micro and
small enterprises (MSEs) by All Scheduled Commercial Banks (ASCBs) in the
financial year 2021-22 stood at Rs 1.26 lakh crore.
However, this credit is four times higher than Rs 30,800 crore credit growth in
FY21.
The timely policy interventions have helped alleviate the stress experienced by
individuals, MSMEs, Corporate and lenders, and by keeping access to finance
open on easy terms.
The report stated as the overall credit growth showed an incremental 1.8X rise
to Rs 10.45 lakh crore in FY22 from Rs 5.77 lakh crore in FY21.
ECLGS was a big factor that improved the quality of SME loans to be
maintained by banks and also improved the overall profile of the MSME sector.
Moreover, the government had revised the definition of MSME in 2020 which
brought many large businesses into the MSME category.

165. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

According to the report released by Organisation Internationale des

Constructeurs d’Automobiles (OICA), India has surpassed Germany to
become 4th largest vehicle market in the world.
The 1st is occupied by China, followed by the US and Japan.
India is expected to become the third-largest Vehicle market by 2025.

Important Points

Key Points

The 2nd Bangladesh Film Festival was inaugurated by former CM of Tripura

Biplab Kumar Deb in Agartala on 23 Feb 2022.
The three-day-long film festival is part of the golden jubilee celebration of the
liberation of Bangladesh.
It will showcase the best movies related to the liberation war of Bangladesh to
commemorate the glorious history of 1971 and the role of India in the liberation
of Bangladesh.
After the inaugural function, a documentary on the life of Prime Minister Sheikh
Hasina ‘Sheikh Hasina- a Daughter’s Tale’ was screened.

Additional Information

Bangladesh:
Capital - Dhaka.
Currency - Bangladeshi Taka.
National Sport - Kabaddi

173. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is: Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account.

Key Points

In November 2005, RBI for furthering Financial Inclusion objectives advised all
banks to offer Basic Savings Bank Deposit account (BSBDA),i.e. No frill Accounts.

Additional Information

BSBDA will offer the following minimum facilities to its customers:

Myanmar Yangoon Burmese kyat

Cambodia Phnom Penh Cambodian riel

Vietnam Hanoi Vietnamese dong

Laos Vientiane Lao kip

Additional Information
Country Capital Currency

Zimbabwe Harare United States dollar

Colombia Bogota Colombian Peso

Argentina Buenos Aires Peso

Costa Rica San Jose Colon

Cuba Havana Cuban Peso

Brazil Brasilia Real

China Beijing Chinese Yuan

Euro (formerly
Germany Berlin
Deutsche mark)

Indonesia Jakarta Rupiah

Japan Tokyo Yen

Republic of
Seoul South Korean won
Korea

Pretoria (administrative), Cape Town

South Africa Rand
(legislative), Bloemfontein (judiciary)

United States of
Washington D.C. Dollar
America

European Union Brussels Euro

Turkey Ankara Turkish lira (YTL)

United kingdom London Pound sterling

Saudi Arabia Riyadh Riyal

Russia Moscow Ruble

Mexico Mexico City Mexican peso

Key Points

The government has set the foodgrain production target for the crop year
2022-23 at a record level of 328 million tonnes on the heels of good monsoon
rains.
This target is 3.8% higher as compared to the previous year’s output.
During the National Conference on Agriculture: Kharif Campaign 2022 , the
National foodgrain target was announced.
Of the 328 million foodgrain production target fixed for 2022-23 , the Kharif
foodgrain production target has been fixed at 163.15 million tonnes , while the
Rabi foodgrain production target has been kept at 164.85 million tonnes.
Total food grain production has increased by 25% in the last 6 years from
251.54 to 316.01 million tonnes .
India has achieved food grain production of 296 million tonnes (MT) in 2019-20
and is to achieve 300 MT of production during 2020-21.
The production of fruits and vegetables has also grown at an average of 5%
per annum during the period 2014-15 to 2019-20.

185. Answer: b

Explanation:

The banker’s cheques are issued by the bank itself and guarantee a payment.

These cheques are not dishonoured as the money will be paid to the bank
beforehand.

186. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is Mumbai.

RBL Bank, formerly known as Ratnakar Bank, is an Indian private sector bank
headquartered in Mumbai and founded in 1943.
It offers services across six verticals: corporate and institutional banking,
commercial banking, branch and business banking, retail assets,
development banking and financial inclusion, treasury, and financial
market operations.

IMPS ( Immediate payment service ) is the electronic fund's transfer

system which was provided by the NPCI through our network National
Financial Switch , which was launched in the year 2010 .
IMPS can be availed through various platforms like Mobile, ATM, Internet, SMS,
Branch, and USSD code .
The eligible criteria for the Banks who can participate in IMPS are that the entity
should have valid banking or prepaid payment instrument license from Reserve
Bank of India to participate in IMPS .
IMPS can be availed online through 24x7 .
The government has waived charges from the IMPS.

About NPCI:

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) , an umbrella organization for

operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the
provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a
robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
It has been incorporated as the " Not for Profit " organization under Section 8 of
the companies act,2013.
The ten core promoter banks of NPCI are State Bank of India, Punjab National
Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank,
HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A., and HSBC.
Mr. Dilip Asbe is the current MD&CEO (Aug-2020).

Note :

USSD ( Unstructured Supplementary Service Code) is the code used by the users
which don't have a smartphone and the data or internet connection to use mobile
banking so those people have used the USSD code i.e* 99# code for various banking
services like fund transfers, checking account balance, generating bank statement
and other services as well.

These are code which has an objective to allow financial inclusion in the weaker
sections of the society to spread awareness about the banking system.
The service is available in 12 languages(Aug-2020) , including English and other
Indian languages such as Hindi, Tamil, Bengali, Kannada, etc.
It is the service that can be accessed through the GSM phone which is the
basic phone used by the people of the country.
This is the service that can be accessible by the phone which has the SMS
facility.

192. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘Gandhinagar’

Key Points

First electronic securities depository in India with national coverage.
Established due to the enactment of Depositories Act in August 1996 on 8
November 1996 in Mumbai.
Handles most of the securities held and settled in the de-materialized form in
the Indian capital markets (international standards).

196. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer isThe minimum limit of the amount transacted through RTGS is
Rs. 1,00,000.

The acronym ' RTGS' stands for Real-Time Gross Settlement, which can be
explained as a system where there is a continuous and real-time settlement of
fund-transfers, individually on a transaction by transaction basis (without
netting).
'Real Time' means the processing of instructions at the time they are received;
'Gross Settlement' means that the settlement of funds transfer instructions
occurs individually.
NEFT is an electronic fund transfer system in which the transactions received
up to a particular time are processed in batches. Contrary to this, in RTGS, the
transactions are processed continuously on a transaction by transaction basis
throughout the RTGS business hours.
The minimum limit of the amount transacted through RTGS is Rs 2,00,000 and
there is no upper limit.
RTGS is available on the 24x7x365 basis.

197. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is ‘IndiGo’

Key Points

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