Vendor: ISACA

Exam Code: CISA

Exam Name: Isaca Certified Information Systems Auditor

(CISA) 2022 Version

Version: DEMO
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QUESTION 1
A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through
the Internet is called a:

A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a
sender through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another
string of bits, a digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally
represents a handwritten signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on
an electronic pen pad, connected to the system.

QUESTION 2
A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:

A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.

B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the
resources of a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that
allows its workers access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from
accessing its own private data resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its
own users have access. Basically, a firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all
network packets to determine whether or not to forward them toward their destination. A firewall
includes or works with a proxy server that makes network requests on behalf of workstation
users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer separate from the rest of the
network so no incoming request can get directed to private network resources.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?

A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor

Answer: D
Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central
computer to relieve the central computer.

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QUESTION 4
The use of a GANTT chart can:

A. aid in scheduling project tasks.

B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.

Answer: A
Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints
but its primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it
provide direction for the post-implementation review.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message
can travel through all the networks?

A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor

Answer: A
Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so
messages can make their way through all the networks.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?

A. Specific developments only

B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation

Answer: C
Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business
to replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help
understand how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and
therefore must be specific to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality
assurance and must be comprehensive.

QUESTION 7
A hub is a device that connects:

A. two LANs using different protocols.

B. a LAN with a WAN.

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C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).

D. two segments of a single LAN.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides
transparent connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device.

QUESTION 8
A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:

A. having end-user responsibilities.

B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to
analog form and back to digital?

A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator

Answer: B
Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ
to monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?

A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques

Answer: A
Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation.

QUESTION 11

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A hardware control that helps to detect errors when data are communicated from one computer to
another is known as a:

A. duplicate check.
B. table lookup.
C. validity check.
D. parity check.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A parity check will help to detect data errors when data are read from memory or communicated
from one computer to another. A one-bit digit (either 0 or 1) is added to a data item to indicate
whether the sum of that data item's bit is odd or even. When the parity bit disagrees with the sum
of the other bits, an error report is generated.

QUESTION 12
For which of the following applications would rapid recovery be MOST crucial?

A. Point-of-sale system
B. Corporate planning
C. Regulatory reporting
D. Departmental chargeback

Answer: A
Explanation:
A point-of-sale system is a critical online system that when inoperable will jeopardize the ability of
Company.com to generate revenue and track inventory properly.

QUESTION 13
The initial step in establishing an information security program is the:

A. development and implementation of an information security standards manual.

B. performance of a comprehensive security control review by the IS auditor.
C. adoption of a corporate information security policy statement.
D. purchase of security access control software.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A policy statement reflects the intent and support provided by executive management for proper
security and establishes a starting point for developing the security program.

QUESTION 14
A malicious code that changes itself with each file it infects is called a:

A. logic bomb.
B. stealth virus.
C. trojan horse.
D. polymorphic virus.

Answer: D

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Explanation:
A polymorphic virus has the capability of changing its own code, enabling it to have many
different variants. Since they have no consistent binary pattern, such viruses are hard to identify.

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a continuity plan test that uses actual resources to simulate a system
crash to cost-effectively obtain evidence about the plan's effectiveness?

A. Paper test
B. Post test
C. Preparedness test
D. Walk-through

Answer: C
Explanation:
A preparedness test is a localized version of a full test, wherein resources are expended in the
simulation of a system crash. This test is performed regularly on different aspects of the plan and
can be a cost-effective way to gradually obtain evidence about the plan's effectiveness. It also
provides a means to improve the plan in increments.

QUESTION 16
An organization having a number of offices across a wide geographical area has developed a
disaster recovery plan (DRP). Using actual resources, which of the following is the MOST
costeffective test of the DRP?

A. Full operational test

B. Preparedness test
C. Paper test
D. Regression test

Answer: B
Explanation:
A preparedness test is performed by each local office/area to test the adequacy of the
preparedness of local operations for the disaster recovery.

QUESTION 17
The IS auditor learns that when equipment was brought into the data center by a vendor, the
emergency power shutoff switch was accidentally pressed and the UPS was engaged.
Which of the following audit recommendations should the IS auditor suggest?

A. Relocate the shut off switch.

B. Install protective covers.
C. Escort visitors.
D. Log environmental failures.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A protective cover over the switch would allow it to be accessible and visible, but would prevent
accidental activation.

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