Law Enforcement and Administration

1. Police Officer submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B – 5. What does that

mean?
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is possibly true
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true
2. Police Officer submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B – 5. What does it
means?
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is possibly true
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true
3. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
a. information comes from an unreliable source and is probably true
b. information comes from a fairly reliable source and is confirmed by other
sources
c. information comes from an unreliable source and is improbable
d. Information comes from an unreliable source and is doubtfully true

4. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?

a. trumpet
b. siren
c. horn
d. radio
5. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is called?
a. tear down
b. eviction
c. squadron
d. demolition
 6. H refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national
economy and security?
a. risk analysis
b. relative critically
c. risk assessment
d. relative vulnerability
7. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy or
security:
a. Relative security
b. Relative necessity
c. Relative criticality
d. Relative vulnerability

8. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance of temporary license.

a.100
b.1,000
c.50
d.200
9. The regular security guard license is good for how many years?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 6 months
d. 3 years
10. It is the minimum capitalization for PSA.
a. P1,000,000.00
b. P500,000.00
c. P100,000.00
d. non of the above
11. . It is the required minimum number of guards to operate company security forces.
a. 30
b. 200
c. 50
d.100
12. A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much amount of surety bond to a reputable
insurance company.
a. P50,000.00
b. P100,000.00
c. P150,000.00
d. P200,000.00
13. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how many firearms for use of its
security guards.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 70
14. . PSAs who have been applying for regular license to operate must have at least ___
pieces of licensed firearms.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 70
15. The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a basic load of how many
rounds per unit of duly licensed firearms.
a. 20
b. 12
c. 50
d. 25
16. This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to individual security guards.
a. 20
b. 12
c. 50
d. 25
17. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be allowed to use high powered
firearms; except one.
a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery
c. transporting big amount of money
 d. providing security to VIPs
18. The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how many percent of the total
number of guards employed.
a.5%
b.10%
c.15%
d.20%
19. These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or security guard, EXCEPT:
a. high school graduate
b. physically & mentally fit
c. 18 to 50 years of age
d. without pre-licensing training
20. . There are two different ways in which security guards are hired or employed, the
company guard and the other one is:
a. government guards
b. private security agency
c. propriety guards
d. in-house guards
21. This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and Operation of
PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
a. PD 603
b. EO 292
c. RA 5487
d. PD 968
22. They are any person who offers or renders personal service to watch or secure either
residential or business establishment or both.
a. private detective
b. security guards
c. propriety guards
d. company guards
23. Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP, but involved in detective
work.
a. private detective
b. security guards
 c. propriety guards
d. company guards
24. It is any person who for hire or reward or on commission, conducts or carries on or
holds himself out in carrying detective works.
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
25. It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private corporation that employs any
watchman or guards.
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
26. It is a security force maintained and operated by the private company/corporation for
its own protection and security requirements.
a. PDA
b. PSA
c. GSU
d. CSF
27. It is a security unit maintained and operated by any government entity other than
military or police.
a. PDA
b. PSA
b. GSU
c. CSF
d. PAD
28. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA.
a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. SAGSD
c. SEC
d. PNP
29. It is a government agency involved in the supervision of the internal affairs of the
PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs.
 a. PADPAO, Inc.
b. SAGSD
c. SEC
d. PNP
30. . It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU.
a. 25 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d. 20 years

31. Request for police assistance in the implementation of final decisions or orders of the
court in civil cases and of administrative bodies on controversies within their
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate police office. The request is filed at
least _____ prior to the actual implementation.
a. 3 days
b. 10 days
c. 5 days
d. 15 days
32. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings of demonstrations who
continue to be aggressive and refused to disperse despite earlier efforts.
a. Tear Gas
b. Water Cannon
c. Truncheon
d. Shield
33. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based on
reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s
identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
a. Frisking
b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
34. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
legitimate purposes.
 a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
c. Police Checkpoint
d. Pre-Determined Area
35. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was accepted by the courts,
prosecutors’ office and the public in general. What police office is using this kind of
blotter?
a. Makati
b. Cebu
c. Baguio
d. Davao
36. It refers to the venue or place established or designated by local government units
within their respective jurisdictions where a public assembly could be held without
securing any permit for such purpose from the local government unit concerned.
a. Secured Area
b. Wide Space
c. Freedom Park
d. Clear Zone
37. The police function in which patrol belong is:
a. Line function
b. Administrative function
c. Staff function
d. Auxiliary function
38. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales
is standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by existence of Insp.
Gonzales but the ______ for successful robbery is prevented.
a. Ambition
b. Intention
c. Motive
d. Opportunity
39. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his retirement is Police Lieutenant
Colonel shall retire with the rank of __________:
a. Police Lieutenant Colonel
b. Police Brigadier General
 c. Police Colonel
d. Police Major
40. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up without material interval for the
purpose of taking into custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or one
suspected to have committed a recent offense while fleeing from one police
jurisdictional boundary to another that will normally require prior official inter-unit
coordination but which the pursuing unit cannot, at that moment, comply due to the
urgency of the situation.
a. Hot Pursuit
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. Dragnet Operation
d. High Risk Stop
41. Which among the following terms is not related to each other?
a. Hot Pursuit
b. Fresh Pursuit
c. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit
d. Bright Pursuit
42. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the police, military and other peace
keeping authorities shall observe during a public assembly or in the dispersal of the
same.
a. Reasonable Force
b. Greatest Lenience
c. Maximum Tolerance
d. Utmost Patience
43. A disguised or secret observation of place and things for the purpose of information
pertaining the identities and activities is called.
a. Background Investigation
b. Security Survey
c. Threat Assessment
d. Surveillance
44. What is the main function of police statistical data?
a. Patrol Police Officer
b. Specialization
c. Private Detective
 d. Line Function
45. Who are qualified to be appointed in police service by the use of waiver?
a. Successful passers of NAPOLCOM ENTRNCE
b. Sons of retired Police
c. Indigenous people recommended by local executive
d. Recommended by the Municipal Mayor
46. An examination of raw information to determine its intelligence value, relatively of
information, reliability of source of information and credibility of information.
a. Decoding
b. Evaluation
c. Survey
d. Test

47. Which of the following statement is FALSE?

a. An intelligence information must be timely at the sacrifice of accuracy
b. An intelligence information characterized with timeliness first and foremost
c. An intelligence timely and always accurate and credible
d. An intelligence information include the time of the event
48. Which of the following is a function of Private Detective?
a. Conduct Background Investigation
b. Conduct Police Works
c. Locate a missing person
d. Train Security Guard
49. Who among the following has the authority to summary dismissal procedure?
1. Chief, PNP
2. Police Provincial Director
3. Police Deputy Director General
4. Police Regional Director
5. Police Inspector General

a. 4 and 5
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
 d. 1 and 5
50. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, interpretation and
integration of available information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal
activity and which is immediately/potentially significant to police planning.
a. Data
b. Intelligence
c. Investigation
d. Information
51. What type of examination determines the mental health, physical state and personality
of the police applicant?
a. Physical examination
b. Neuropsychiatric examination
c. Mental examination
d. Health examination
52. A good police supervision should that good public relations within the community is
the responsibility of –
a. Community Service
b. Police Community Relation
c. Team Building Policy
d. Cops on the Block
53. A _______________ represent the planning officer’s efforts to great what go wrong
on differently with his plan and how to handle it if it does –
a. Purpose of goal
b. Set of action plan
c. Forecast
d. Contingency plan
54. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. In conducting intelligence, it will be acquired through secret manner.
b. In conducting intelligence, it is acquiring of information through overt.
c. In conducting intelligence, always ignore small information
d. In conducting intelligence, don’t think about the operational fund
55. . The staff service of the NAPOLCOM which conducts continuous inspection and
management audit of personnel, facilities and operations at all levels of command of
the PNP.
a. Legal affairs service
b. Personnel and Administrative service
c. Planning and research service
d. Inspection, monitoring and investigation service

56. What bureau is responsible for the investigation of high profile crimes, forensics, and
computer-related crimes in Taiwan?

a. Criminal Investigation Bureau

b. Crime Prevention Section
c. Crime Investigation Section
d. International Criminal Affairs Section
57. What special unit is attached to the Border Patrol Police Division of Thailand is
tasked with counter terrorism function?
a. Central Investigation Division
b. Border Police
c. Naraesuan 261
d. Aritharat 26
58. In Cambodia, who is responsible for overall management of the Police Organization?
a. Deputy Director of the National Police
b. Chief of the Department
c. Director General of the National Police
d. Land Border Police Department
59. The law enforcement agency of China responsible in protecting national security and
preventing and detecting foreign espionage, sabotage, and conspiracies against the
state.
a. State Security Ministry
b. State Security Police
c. People’s Armed Police
d. Either A or B
60. What is the special branch of POLRI which conducts security stabilization operations
and provides security protection for VIP or vital facilities?
a. ABRI
b. Seguridad Persona Polisi
c. BRIMOB
d. Markas Besar
61. The Indonesian National Police is under the supervision of the
a. Interior Ministry.
b. Ministry of State.
c. Ministry of Home Affairs.
d. Defence Ministry.
62. What was formed to unify the Singapore Police Force's elite tactical units, namely the
Police Task Force (PTF), the Police Tactical Team (PTT) and the Police K-9 Unit
(PDU) under one command?
a. Security command
b. Special Operation Command
c. Special Action Team
d. Special Action Force
63. Police National Servicemen of Singapore usually serve up to two years typically from
what age?
a. 16 years
b. 18 years
c. 17 years
d. 19 years
64. What is the ground response force for serious incidents such as major disasters,
firearm situations and riots of Singapore
a. Anti-riot Police
b. Special Tactics and Rescue
c. Police Task Force
d. Special Weapons and Tactics
65. In Singapore, what is the elite unit of their police force that is tasked to apprehend
armed criminals and conduct hostage rescue operations on land and at sea?
a. Special Action Team
b. Special Weapons And Tactics
c. Special Action Force
d. Special Tactics and Rescue
66. What management principle provides that only one officer be in direct command or
supervision of each officer.
a. span control
b. unity of command
c. chain of command
d. line of authority
a. Patrol
67. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police personnel.
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases of promotion.
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel.
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work
performance of personnel.
68. How are coded messages converted to intelligible language?
a. Encoding
b. Processing
c. Labeling
d. Decoding
69. The type of undercover operation wherein techniques are applied for a longer time
and are considered as the most different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most
rewarding.
a. casing
b. undercover operation
c. penetration
d. surveillance
70. As Security Director of Company B, you should know how many beds, are normally
available in a multiple injury situation and how many ________ patients can be
processed at a single time.
a. Wounded
b. Emergency
c. Female
d. Male
71. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is determined through a process
called _________.
a. security training
b. security education
c. security promotion
d. security investigation
72. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather that upon high
visibility patrol techniques?
a. decoy patrol
b. high visibility patrol
c. directed patrol
d. low visibility patrol
73. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a designated location and under
specific circumstances?
a. management plans
b. tactical plans
c. operating plans
d. procedural plans
74. What type of organization consciously coordinates the activities of two or more
persons towards a given objective?
a. flexible organization
b. formal organization
c. informal organization
d. non-flexible organization
75. Who among the following meets the age qualification for appointment to the police
service?
a. Rey who is 20 years old
 b. Dennis who is 17 years old
c. John who is 22 years old
d. Santi who is 35 years old
76. The covert observation of an area, a building or stationary object in order to gain
information is called:
a. undercover works
b. penetration
c. casing
d. surveillance
77. The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a perimeter barrier on the
exterior and interior parallel area to afford better observation of the installation refers
to:
a. Clear zone
b. Complimentary zone
c. Open zone
d. Free zone
78. The extension period for a license to operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the
required minimum number of guards is:
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 2 years
d. 1 year
79. Which of the following types of lock is generally used in car doors?
a. Warded lock
b. Lever lock
c. Disc tumbler lock
d. Combination lock

80. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to safeguard life and assets by
various methods and device.
a. Physical Security
b. Perimeter Security
c. Operational Security
d. Security
81. All except are the qualifications of a security officer.
a. Has graduated from a Security Officer
b. Training Course.
c. Holder of Masters Degree.
d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
e. Physically or mentally fit.
82. .These provides access within the perimeter barrier and should be locked and guarded.
a. Gates and Doors
b. Side-Walk Elevator
c. Utilities Opening
d. Clear Zones
83. This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest of criminal syndicate
member?
a. investigation
b. intelligence
c. crime search
d. patrol
84. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get information and would be
managed to get back?
a. mercenary
b. none
c. penetration
d. assassin
85. These are the major courses of action that the organization plans to take in order to
achieve its objectives.

a. Procedures
b. Strategies
c. Plans
d. Objectives
86. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but they offer advice.
Frequently this advice is based on the high level of expertise, but the advice carries no
formal requirement of acceptance.
a. Democracy
 b. Functional authority
c. Line authority
d. Staff authority
87. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity
of command from top to bottom organization.
a. Audit
b. Coordination
c. Monitoring
d. Authority
88. Police Officer 3 is assigned to collect available information concerning the activities
of the Red Scorpion Group .He is with what unit of the police?
a. anti – juvenile delinquency
b. criminal investigation
c. intelligence operations
d. patrol activities
89. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
a. promote better police-citizen interaction
b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report writing
c. improve administration efficiency particularly in recruitment and selection
d. increase the number of arrests of criminal syndicate members

90. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as provided under Section 15 of
Republic Act No. 8551?
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of service.
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified by the appropriate
government agency.
c. Government employees wishing to transfer to the PNP
d. Graduates of Criminology
91. Plans which require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside the police
organization.
a. management plans
b. operational plans
c. tactical plans
d. extra-department plan
92. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers placed between the potential
intruder and the objects, persons and matters being protected?
a. document security
b. communications security
c. physical security
d. personnel security
93. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
94. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of operation used in the planning
and objects, persons and matters being protected?
a. military intelligence
b. strategic intelligence
c. combat intelligence
d. counter-intelligence
95. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can be enhanced if there is
detailed and up-to date information about crime and criminals. This calls for the
establishment of:
a. patrol base headquarters
b. crime information center
c. management information center
d. public information office
96. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to ________ on the entire police
organization, community, crime, equipment inventories, personal data, etc.
a. costs
b. data
c. plans
d. statement
97. New employees should be briefed on security rules and regulations of the
organization and the importance of observing them. This process is called:
a. security information
b. security reminders
 c. security orientation
d. security investigation
98. What plans require action or assistance from persons or agencies outside the police
organization?
a. tactical plan
b. extra department plan
c. management plan
d. all of the choices
99. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding citizens feeling of security
but the reaction of fear for the would be violators.
a. double-officer patrol
b. single-officer patrol
c. low visibility patrol
d. high visibility patrol
100. The first step in the planning process is to recognize the need to plan. Which
of the following is NOT a way to discovering the need to plan?
a. conduct of research
b. conduct of training
c. conduct of inspection
d. conduct of management audit
101. The special formations used in crowd control include the wedge, diagonal and
deployed line. When a crowd is small enough not to require a squad, then the
formation is:
a. diagonal
b. wedge
c. deployed line
d. clockwise
102. Under this principle, the chief executive directly controls two to ten
subordinates, who then control two to ten subordinates each and so on until the
bottom of the organization is reached.
a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
c. unity of command
d. span of control
103. Under physical security, what should be placed between the prospective
intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
104. Mr. Cardo Dalisay was born on June 1, 1975. Does he meet the age
requirement for entry to the police service in June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the age requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement
105. A police officer who manages a police station must use all of the following
skills, EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
106. The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in sequential order.
(Which is the first step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
107. .These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence in order to increase
physical protection of establishment or installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
108. What is the next planning step after the need to plan is recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
 d. analyze the data
109. This type of patrol performs certain specific, predetermined preventive
strategies in a regular and systematic basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
110. Among the following applicants for appointment to the police service, who
may be automatically granted height waiver?
a. government employees wishing to transfer to the PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by the appropriate government
agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension of service
d. graduate of criminology
111. The following changes must be made in police operating procedures if the
investigative skills of patrol personnel are to be employed to their fullest advantage
EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol officers simply make a brief
report and return to patrol duties rather than complete their investigations
b. patrol officers should be better trained and equipped to conduct routine
investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote more time to the investigation of
crimes to which they respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to provide the patrol officer with assistance
in determining whether a case has sufficient merit to warrant immediate follow-up
investigation by the patrol officer
112. The more complex the organization, the more highly specialized the division
of work, the greater the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
113. The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that patrol officers
perform certain specific, predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and
systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
114. Police Officer II and Police Officer I report only to one (1) supervisor. This is
the principle of _______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. report to immediate superior

115. PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of amusement and entertainment
known to be habitually visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III
Alta’s undercover assignment is called.
a. multiple assignment
b. social assignment
c. work assignment
d. dwelling assignment

116. Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is usually known as:

a. force field analysis
b. Delphi technique
c. simulation model
d. forecasting
117. These regulations establish the specifications of uniform and the manner in
which they are to be worn:
a. personnel transaction regulations
b. firearms regulations
c. uniform regulations
d. equipment regulations
118. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas projects ________ thus, an
effective crime prevention strategy.
a. police omnipresence
b. police effectiveness
c. police discretion
d. police authority
119. Which of the following trait or ability is most important for a police officer?
a. personnel integrity and honesty
b. physical stamina and bearing
c. courageous
d. d .high intelligence
120. If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a result of the first
investigation, a _________ report should be submitted.
a. investigation report
b. case disposition report
c. follow-up report
d. crime report
121. The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up for slightly inferior
performance. More patrolmen are then made available for emergency and the more
active and widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their presence, thus, promoting
the impression of -
a. suspensions
b. effectiveness
c. omnipresence
d. efficiency
122. What is the importance of a firm or installation in the relation to national
security referred to?
a. relative security
b. relative necessity
c. relative criticality
d. relative vulnerability
123. The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to attend meeting in
Malacañang.
a. white list
 b. black list
c. target list
d. access list
124. The attestation function over police appointment is vested in the:
a. Civil Service Commission
b. National Police Commission
c. Professional Regulations Commission
d. Department of Interior and Local Government
125. In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If the total index
crimes were 45,000, how many were murder incidents?
a. 250
b. 4,000
c. 500
d. 4,500
126. The more complex the organization, the more highly specialized the division
of work, the greater the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision

127. The following questions are tests for accuracy of information, EXCEPT:
a. Does the report agree or disagree with available and related intelligence?
b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance
c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus operandi?
d. Is the information about the target or area of the operation?
128. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or lahar cannot be
prevented from occurring. To minimize the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the
security officer must prepare a:
a. guard deployment plan
b. security education plan
c. civil defense plan
d. disaster or emergency plan
129. It involves segregation of deviants into isolated geographic areas so that they
can easily be controlled.
a. Coercion
b. Quarantine
c. Conversion
d. Containment
130. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement is-
a. Partially Correct
b. Partially Wrong
c. Absolutely Correct
d. Absolutely Wrong
131. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances to secure areas located out
of doors, and manned by guards on a full time basis.
a. Guard Control Stations
b. Tower
c. Tower Guard
d. Top Guard
132. The following are types of specialized patrol method except:
a. Marine Patrol
b. Air Patrol
c. Canine Patrol
d. Foot Patrol
133. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; reproduction of this record does not
have the same value as the original.
a. Vital Documents
b. Important Documents
c. Useful Documents
d. Non- Essential Documents
134. It is the importance of firm with reference to the natural economy and security.
a. a.. Relative Operation
b. b Relative Security
c. c. Relative Vulnerability
d. Relative Criticality of Operation
135. A new Private security agency that has been issued a temporary license to
operate is good for how many years?
a. One
b. Two
c. c.Three
d. d.Four
136. The removal of the security classification from the classified matter.
a. Segregation
b. Declassify
c. Reclassify
d. Exclusion
137. What crime committed by a person who, having found a ring, fails to delover
the same to the owner or the local authorities?
a. the finder commits theft
b. the finder commits concealment
c. the finder commits qualified theft
d. NOTA
138. Under which of the following circumstances is a probation not applicable.
a. when the accused is convicted of indirect assault
b. when the accused is sentenced to serve a maximum of 6years
c. when the accused has been convicted by funal judgement penalty of 1month
nd fine of 200
d. when the accused is sentenced to serve 5 years and 2 days
139. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the national economy and
security.
a. relative criticality
b. relative vulnerability
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
140. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away any of all types of
items or supplies for economic gain.
a. pilferer
b. casual pilferer
c. systematic pilferer
 d. intruder
141. A medium of structure which defines the physical limits of an installation to
restrict or impede access thereto.
a. natural barrier
b. man-made barrier
c. perimeter barrier
d. physical security
142. It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with mesh openings not
larger that two inches square, and made or #9 gauge wire or heavier.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
143. It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the height is less than the
prescribed, additional topping is placed to attain the minimum height requirement.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
144. An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the perimeter barrier.
a. clear zone
b. bodies of water
c. building wall
d. wire fence
145. He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security guards.
a. Chief, PNP
b. Mayor
c. Governor
d. Secretary, DILG
146. It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on vertical perimeter fences
facing upward and outward with a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of barbed
wire.
a. topping
b. top guard
 c. all the above
d. none of the above
147. Are house like structures above the perimeter barriers, it give psychological
effect to violators.
a. guard towers
b. tower guards
c. guard house
d. guard post
148. . A conference or dialogue between the survey team and management officials
before security survey is conducted.
a. pre- security survey
b. post- security survey
c. entrance conference
d. exit conference
149. . It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy and deficiency in all
aspects of security.
a. security inspections
b. security survey
c. special survey
d. supplemental survey
150. . It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security and its relevance to
their work.
a. security education
b. security indoctrination
c. security training
d. security awareness
151. It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to a
compound or installation thereof.
a. controlling
b. access list
c. exclusion area
d. controlled area
152. Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction control.
a. restricted area
 b. exclusion area
c. controlled area
d. coverage factor
153. . A restricted area containing materials or operation of security interest.
a. restricted area
b. exclusion area
c. controlled area
d. coverage factor
154. It is the key elements in the security survey system of a plant or installation.
a. security guard
b. human guard
c. company guard
d. agency guard
155. It is a term used in England for lock pickers, safecrackers, and penetrators of
restricted rooms or areas.
a. doppler effect
b. duress code
c. peterman
d. fail safe
156. A term applied to a device or system that in the event of failure or a
component, the incapacity will be signaled.
a. doppler effect
b. duress code
c. peterman
d. fail safe
157. It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its validity, it is also an
operational readiness exercise.
a. dry run
b. run through
c. controlling
d. fire drill
158. It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to damage, loss or
disruption of operation due to various hazard.
a. relative criticality
 b. relative vulnerability
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
159. It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction of which does not have
the same value as the original records.
a. useful records
b. vital records
c. important records
d. non-essential records
160. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to
unexpected opportunity?
a. casual pilferer
b. ordinary pilferer
c. systematic
d. unusual pilferer
161. The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and the temperature is
lowered below the burning point.
a. smothering
b. starving
c. cooling
d. all of the above
162. It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the increase of room
temperature, and which automatically operates the system to put out the fire.
a. wet pipe system
b. automatic sprinklers
c. dry pipe system
d. stand pipe system
163. Private Security Agencies must be registered at what government agency.
a. DTI
b. PNP
c. CSC
d. LGU
164. It is the initial number of guard requirements that must be contracted for the
1st year of operation of PSA.
 a. 100
b. 200
c. 1,000
d. 50
165. What is the minimum number of guard requirements in the operation of
branch offices of PSA.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 10
d. 40
166. __________ are included in the category of in-house guards.
a. government guards
b. private security agency
c. propriety guards
d. all of the above
167. It is charge with the directing the work and observing the behavior
performance of the men under his unit.
a. security guard
b. security supervisor
c. watchman
c. security officer
168. The following items must be stipulated in the security service contract,
EXCEPT:
a. money consideration
b. number of hours of security service
c. salary of the security guard
d. commission of the operator
169. It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any applicant who failed
to submit the complete requirements in the renewal of license.
a. cancellation
b. revocation
c. nullification
d. suspension
170. . It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout the Philippines.
 a. Private Scty. Law
b. RA 5487
c. IRR of RA 5487
d. all of the above
171. It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as provided by R.A. 5487.
a. suspension of license
b. cancellation of license
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
172. . It is the established rules and regulations in the operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:
a. registration at SAGSD
b. registration at CSG
c. both A & B
d. registration at SEC
173. Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a __________ to
exercise profession at SAGSD.
a. permit
b. authority
c. registration
d. license
174. How many days prior expiry month of license shall require PSL holders to
undergo NP examinations.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 15 days
175. Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the accredited testing centers
within how many days after the date of examination.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c .45 days
d.15 days
176. Moribund but previously licensed security agency, means:
a. dying PSA
 b. viable PSA
c. new PSA
d. renewing PSA
177. .It refers to the requirements for application for licenses as security officers,
guards, and operators.
a. physical & mental examination
b. medical & dental examination
c. physical agility test examination
d. drug test examination
178. . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom?
a. DILG
b. C, PNP
c. PD, PPO
d. RD, PRO 3
179. . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom?
a. PSAs Operators
b. CSF Managers
c. all of the above
d. non of the above
180. . It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to the C, PNP.
a. closing reports
b. opening reports
c. participants
d. name of course
181. It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs.
a. displayed
b. carried
c. registered
d. all of the above
182. Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in the industrial
security management.
a. Kabit System
b. Illegal Operation
c. Merger of Security
 d. Moribund Security
183. It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing temporary license to
operate.
a. pre-inspection
b. post-inspection
c. inspection
d. continuing inspection
184. It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is conducted to the applicant
agency.
a. regular license
b. temporary license
c. license to operate
d. permit to operate
185. These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by the IRR of R.A.
5487, EXCEPT:
a. serious offense
b. light offense
c. grave offense
d. less grave offense
186. They have the authority to conduct inspection to PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs,
EXCEPT:
a. C, SAGSD
b. C, ROPD
c. PD, PPO
d. SAGSD Officer
187. These are authorized to conduct investigation on all complaints against
securities of PSAs or detective of PDAs.
a. C, ROPD
b. Inves. Comm., CSG
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
188. It must be avoided by the private security personnel, either physically or
otherwise with the strikers.
a. direct contact
 b. indirect contact
c. confrontation
d. carrying of firearms
189. The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster or _________ the
members of the agency in case of emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
a. organize
b. incorporate
c. utilize
d. deputize
190. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. Intelligence
b. Police Community Relation
c. Civil Security Group
d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
191. Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
a. Chief of Staff, AFP
b. Secretary of the DILG
c. Secretary of National Defense
d. Chief of the PNP
192. It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion in the PNP.
a. MNSA
b. Master’s Degree
c. OSEC
d. BS Degree
193. Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551 to remove from the
PNP, police officers who are-
a. inefficient
b. ineffective
c. unproductive
d. all of the choices
194. The nature of which, the police officer is free from specific routine duty is the
definition of -
a. “on duty”
b. “special duty”
 c. “leave of absence”
d. “off duty”
195. An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is called-
a. post
b. unit
c. sector
d. section
196. The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is-
a. Very Satisfactory
b. Fair
c. Outstanding
d. Poor
197. The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and receive a Base Pay of
85,000 pesos a month. How much will be his Longevity Pay?
a. 45,000 pesos
b. 37,500 pesos
c. 50,000 pesos
d. 42,500 pesos
198. Senior Police Officer receives a base pay of Php 54, 000. He had been in the
service for 26 years. How much is his longevity pay?
a.Php24, 200
b. Php25, 000
c. Php28, 500
d. Php27, 000
199. A primary subdivision of a bureau is called-
a. division
b. unit
c. section
d. department
200. The mandatory training course for Patrolman for them to be promoted to
Police Corporal or Police Staff Sergeant.
a. PSJLC
b. PSOBC
c. PSOOC
 d. PSBRC
201. Time-In-Grade needed by a Police Captain before he could be promoted to
Police Major is-
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 5 years
202. An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes is called-
a. beat
b. sector
c. route
d. post
203. The system used in PNP promotions is called-
a. Performance
b. Seniority
c. Palakasan
d. Merit
204. . The directorate who is in charge of supplies and equipments of PNP is-
a. logistics
b. comptrollership
c. intelligence
d. plans
205. . What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional Director?
a. 4 years
b .5 years
c. 6 years
d. 9 years
206. The period of time in the present rank in permanent status is called-
a. Time-In-Grade
b. Length of Service
c. Seniority in rank
d. Plantilla position
207. The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and “deodorant” of the PNP is
called-
 a. Personnel Records Mgt.
b. Research Development
c. Police Community Relation
d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt.
208. The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into how many districts?
a. four
b. six
c. five
d. seven
209. A functional group within a section is called-
a. division
b. route
c. unit
d. sector
210. The staff directorate in charge of gathering information is-
a. Intelligence
b. Police Community Relation
c. Comptrollership
d. Investigation and Detective Mgt.
211. Which of the following is not an administrative support unit?
a. Special Action Force
b. Civil Security Group
c. Police Security and Protection Office
d. all of the choices
212. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP members who want to
be promoted to-
a. SPO4
b. SPO3
c. Police
d. PO3
213. Under the general qualifications for appointment in the PNP, male applicant
must be with a height of at least-
a. 1.62 m
b. 1.64 m
 c. 1.57 m
d. 1.54
214. The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can be promoted to the
rank of Police Inspector is-
a. Officers Basic Course
b. Officers Candidate Course
c. Officers Advance Course
d. Senior Leadership Course
215. What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel under the waiver
program?
a. permanent
b. contractual
c. temporary
d. probationary
216. The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
a. Western Police District
b. NCRPO
c. Southern Police District
d. Central Police District

217. The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-

a. Director General
b. Chief Superintendent
c. Deputy Director General
d. Director
218. The number two man in the PNP organization is-
a. TCDS
b. DDG for Administration
c. DDG for Operations
d. none of them
219. The national headquarters of the PNP is located at-
a. Camp Dangwa
b. Camp Crame
c. Camp Aguinaldo
 d. Fort Bonifacio
220. The purpose of promotion in the PNP is-
a. recognition of good work
b. gives officers high morale
c. gives higher pay
d. all of the choices
221. Waiver system in the PNP will apply if-
a. recruitment falls on summer
b. qualified applicant falls below quota
c. ordered by the President
d. none of them
222. Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified thru-
a. medical examination
b. neuro-psychiatric examination
c. physical fitness examination
d. drug test
223. Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is-
a. 20 to 36 years old
b. 19 to 36 years old
c. 21 to 35 years old
d. 20 to 35 years old
224. What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be qualified a the C, PNP?
a. Director
b. Superintendent
c. Chief Superintendent
d. Director General
225. The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who passed any licensure
examination administered by the Professional Regulations Commission is-
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551
226. The highest award given to a PNP member is-
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan
 b. Medalya ng Kagitingan
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan
227. What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program?
a. 10 months
b. 18 months
c. 12 months
d. 24 months
228. When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and Reorganization Act?
a. 1992
b. 1996
c. 1994
d. 1998
229. What law was amended by RA 8551?
a. RA 7659
b. RA 6425
c. RA 6975
d. RA 9165
230. Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total manpower of 2000
officers and men. How many PLEB must be established?
a. two
b. four
c. three
d. five
231. What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. Forfeiture of Pay
b. Restricted to Specified limits
c. Withholding of Privilege
d. Admonition
232. It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under the educational
attainment waiver to finish his B.S. Degree according to RA 8551?
a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 5 years
 d. 7 years
233. It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP Member can be
attrited.
a. 5 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 20 years
234. It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits (MRB).
a. lump sum
b. pension
c. gratuity
d. allowance
235. Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred to as-
a. citizens complaint
b. grave misconduct
c. breach of internal discipline
d. none of them
236. PLEB is composed of how many person?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 6
237. . How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the Chief, PNP?
a. four years
b. six years
c. five years
d. nine years
238. . How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief, PNP if extended?
a. not more than 1 year
b. not less than 2 years
c. more than 1 year
d. none of them
239. The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board Exam passers is-
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
 b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
240. The agency that administers all the mandatory training for police officers is
a. PPSC
b. PNP
c. DHRDD
d. NAPOLCOM
241. Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?
a. President
b. Chief, PNP
c. Sec. of DILG
d. NAPOLCOM
242. Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and Promotional Exam
for policemen as provided for under Republic Act Nr. 8551?
a. NAPOLCOM
b. Civil Service Commission
c. Congress
d. PNP
243. . What is the basis for promotion that includes the length of service in the
present rank?
a. Merit
b. Superiority
c. Time-In-Grade
d. Age
244. In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered continuous service of-
a. 10 years
c. 15 years
b. 20 years
d. 25 years
245. What is the length of service before a PNP member would be qualified for
optional retirement?
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
 c. 15 years
d. 20 years
246. A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and extra-ordinary gallantry
beyond the call of duty is called-
a. Regular
b. Permanent
c. Temporary
d. Meritorious
247. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other
legitimate purposes.
a. Clear Zone
b. Public Place
c. Police Checkpoint
d. Pre-Determined Area
248. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle, based
on reasonable suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of determining the
individual’s identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning criminal
activity.
a. Frisking
b. Search
c. Spot Check
d. Pat-down Search
249. A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while in the performance of
duty is called-
a. Regular
b. Posthumous
c. Temporary
d. None of them
250. Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a criminologist who applied and
selected will have the initial rank of -
a. Senior Inspector
b. Inspector
c. SPO4
 d. Chief of Inspector
251. The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police Superintendent is vested in
the-
a. Chief, PNP
b. President
c. Civil Service Commission
d. NAPOLCOM
252. When can the President extend the tenure of service of the Chief, PNP?
a. after 4 years
b. there is no successor
c. during martial law
d. national emergencies
253. What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for early retirement?
a. two ranks higher
b. one rank higher
c. his present rank
d. one year gratuity
254. Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
a. Civil Service Commission
b. Congress
c. Commission of Appointment
d. NAPOLCOM
255. Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP members who want to be
promoted to-
a. SPO4
b. SPO1
c. SPO3
d. PO3
256. The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State shall establish and
maintain one police for which shall be-
a. national in scope
b. civilian in scope
c. national in character
d. military in character
257. What is the meaning of PPSC?
a. Phil. Public Safety Course
b. Phil. Private Safety College
c. Phil. Public Safety College
d. Phil. Private Safety Course
258. The mandatory training required for promotion to the rank of Police
Superintendent is called-
a. MNSA
b. OSEC
c. MPSA
d. Master’s Degree
259. He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen
b. Gen. Rafael Crame
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt
260. It is an association or group of individuals with a common goal.
a. Police organization
b. Law enforcement group
c. Non-government organization
d. Organization
261. Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
a. Edwin Sutherland
b. Emile Durkhiem
c. Sir Robert Peel
d. Leonard Keeler
262. Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
a. Capt. George Curry
b. Capt. Henry Allen
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt
d. Capt. Howard Taft
263. Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____.
a. chastity
 b. passion
c. person
d. mankind
264. What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of satisfactory service
rendered?
a. promotion
b. longevity pay
c. additional allowance
d. retirement benefits
265. What is the lowest administrative penalty?
a. reprimand
b. admonition
c. restriction
d. forfeiture of pay
266. .Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of Police, City or
Municipal Mayors and _______.
a. Chief, PNP
b. Provincial Director
c. Regional Director
d. PLEB
267. Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where the penalty is
dismissal, demotion and forced resignation may be appealed before this body.
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. Office of the President
c. National Appellate Board
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
268. . Which of the following composed the PNP?
a. members of the INP
b. members of the PC
c. members of the PNP
d. all of the choices
269. What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff?
a. Deputy Director General
b. Police Director
 c. Police Chief Superintendent
d. Police Senior Superintendent
270. The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who meets all the basic
qualification for promotion is termed-
a. special
b. meritorious
c. regular
d. ordinary
271. It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they can be promoted to
the rank of Police Inspector.
a. Officer’s Basic Course
b. Officer’s Advance Course
c. Officer’s Candidate Course
d. Senior Leadership Course
272. How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP National Office (NHQ-
PNP)?
a. eleven
b. ten
c. nine
d. twelve
273. Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the confirmation of the:
a. Civil Service Commission
b. NAPOLCOM
c. Commission on Appointment
d. President of the Phil.
274. The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
c. The Chief Directorial Staff
d. Regional Director of the NCR
275. The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM is located in what
city?
a. Quezon City
b. City Of Manila
 c. Mandaluyong City
d. Makati City
276. Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
a. Chief, PNP
b. Secretary, DILG
c. President of the Phil.
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
277. The law that merges the police and Philippine Constabulary into the PC-INP
is-
a. R.A. 7659
b. R.A. 6975
c. R.A. 8551
d. P.D. 765
278. How many deputies do the PNP organization consist?
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four
279. How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the PNP Organization?
a. fourteen
b. sixteen
c. Fifteen
d. Seventeen
280. The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done how many times per
year?
a. once
b. thrice
c. twice
d. four
281. MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is offered and
administered by an institution known as-
a. PPSC
b. NAPOLCOM
c. National Defense Office
 d. National Defense College
282. The mandatory training course needed to be promoted to SPO1 and SPO2 is
called-
a. Police Basic Course
b. Junior Leadership Course
c. Senior Leadership Course
d. Officers Candidate Course
283. The administrative support unit in charge of delivering the necessary supplies
and materials to all PNP units in the field is called-
a.Finance Service
b. Logistics Support Service
c. Computer Service
d. Communications & Electronics Svc
284. The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer is-
a. SPO2
b. SPO4
c. SPO3
d. Inspector
285. How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director?
a. one
b. three
c. two
d. four
286. The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of 1990 that established
the PNP under the DILG is-
a. Republic Act Nr. 6975
b. Republic Act Nr. 7659
c. Republic Act 8551
d. Presidential Decree 765
287. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the
Philippine National Police (PNP)?
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
b. Gen. Raul Imperial
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
 d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
288. The primary objective of Philippine National Police:
a. Law Enforcement
b. Peace and Order
c. Protect and Serve
d. Crime Prevention
289. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in Quezon City. It was named
after the 1st Filipino Chief of the Philippine Constabulary.
a. Rafael Palma
b. Cesar Nazareno
c. Rafael Crame
d. Emilio Aguinaldo
290. Richard Alden joined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years old then. What year
can Alden retire?
a. 2017
b. 2031
c. 2032
d. 2022
291. The Role of the PNP on matters involving the suppression of insurgency and
serious treats to national security?
a. The AFP operating through the area commander is the one primarily
responsible on matters involving insurgency and other serious treats to
national security.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards insurgency and other serious
treats to national security.
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in insurgency-affected areas.
d. All of the choices
292. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and
outlined as guide and by men in the field operations relative to reporting, dispatching,
raids, arrest and investigation refers to
a. Field Procedure
b. Time Specific plan
c. Problem oriented plan
d. Headquarters procedure
293. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period ______?
a. Not exceeding four years.
b. Not exceeding five years.
c. Not exceeding six years.
d. Not exceeding three years.
294. The law that empowered the police commission to conduct entrance and
promotional examination for police members refers to:
a. RA 6040
b. RA 157
c. RA 5487
d. PD 765
295. The theory of police service which states those police officers are servants of
the people or the community refers to:
a. Old
b. Home rule
c. Modern
d. Continental
296. Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National
Police. What would be his initial rank upon entry?
a. Senior Inspector
b. Chief Inspector
c. Inspector
d. none of the choices
297. The following are functions in a police organization, EXCEPT:
a. primary functions
b. administrative functions
c. secondary functions
d. auxiliary functions
298. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a
weapon the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
a. Conduct a complete search.
b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made.
d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
 299. He is known as the father of modern policing system?
a. August Vollmer
b. Robert Peel
c. Oliver Cromwell
d. Cesare Lombroso
300. When responding to call for police assistance due to planted or found explosives,
what immediate actions should the patrol officer will do?
a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
b. Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to happen.
c. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance Disposal Team.
d. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper procedure to be followed, after
investigating the item.
301. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What
is his equivalent rank in the PNP?
a. Inspector
b. Chief Inspector
zz
d. Superintendent
302. How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in the PNP?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
303. The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
a. Four star general
b. Director
c. Chief Superintendent
d. Director General (PNP)
304. What is the minimum police-to-population ratio?
a. 1:1000
b. 1:1500
c. 1:500
d. 1:7
305. . The fourth man in command of the PNP is the __________.
a. DDG for operation
b. Chief, Directorial Staff
c. DDG for administration
d. Chief, PNP
306. . Which of the following is NOT included in the powers and function of the
PNP?
a. enforce all laws and ordinances
b. maintain peace and order
c. investigate and prevent crimes
d. prosecute criminal offenders
307. The word “police” was derived from the Greek word _______, which means
government of the city.
a. politia
b. Polis
c. politeia
d. Policy
308. . It is defined as the determination in advance of how the objectives of the
organization will be attained.
a. planning
b. Advancement
c. police planning
d. Development
309. . It is the premier educational institution for the training, human resource
development and continuing education of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
a. PPSC
b. RTS
c. PNPA
d. NPC
310. . It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the police
officers.
a. IAS
b. PNP
c. PLEB
 d. NAPOLCOM
311. . The provincial governor shall choose the provincial director from a list of
_____ eligible’s recommended by the PNP regional director:
a. six
b. Five
c. Three
d. four
312. . The deployment of officers in a given community, area or locality to prevent
and deter criminal activity and to provide day-to-day services to the community.
a. Patrol
b. Beat Patrol
c. Line Patrol
d. Area Patrol

313. The head of the IAS shall have a designation of ____________?

a. Director General
b. Solicitor General
c. Inspector General
d. IAS General
314. As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be how many PLEB for
every 500 police personnel?
a. one (1)
b. more than one
c. at least one
d. less than one
315. If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the immediate things to do
when accident occur?
a. Cordon the area
b. Go away and call your superior
c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
316. Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses of the PNP in
reinventing the field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief who introduces this
DBS?
 a. Dir. Alma Jose
b. Dir. Romeo Pena
c. Dir. Sonny Razon
d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
317. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board,
EXCEPT:
a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among
the respected members of the community
b. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the
association of barangay captains
c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
318. Two or more persons forming an organization must identify first the reason for
establishing such organization. They must identify the organization’s _________:
a. strategy
b.mission
c.vision
d. objective
319. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
a. establish objectives and standards
b. count the number of supervisors
c. require completed work
d. define authority and responsibility
320. The number of subordinates that can be supervised directly by one person
tends to:
a. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor and subordinate as well as
between individual subordinate increases
b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and experience of the subordinate
c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for the first line supervisory
level to the management level
d. All of the above
321. This means controlling the direction and flow of decisions through unity of
command from top to bottom of organization:
a. Audit
 b. Coordination
c. Monitoring
d. Authority
322. . Which of the following statements is true:
a. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the police
b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary increases or promotion
c. Performance evaluation is done once a year among police personnel
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to determine the quality of work
performance of personnel
323. The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for _______:
a. Administrative control
b. Operational supervision
c. Administration and control
d. Policy and program coordination
324. SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. This is the principle
of __________:
a. delegation of authority
b. span of control
c. unity of command
d. chain of command
325. The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director General of
the PNP is;
a. 4 years
b. 56 years
c. 5 years
d. 21 years

326. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for?

a. standard operation procedures
b. special operation procedures
c. standard operating procedures
d. special operating procedures
327. The following are the characteristics of a good plan, except:
a. Flexibility
 b. specific
c. Clear
d. expensive
328. If the annual quota for the year 2019 is 2,200. How many of the annual quota
is allocated for women?
a.10%
b.120
c.20%
d.220
329. Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived in the following
order:
a. age, height, weight & education
b. age, weight, height & education
c. height, education, weight & age
d. in any order
330. It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis provided by law.
a. attrition
b. separation
c. promotion
d. Retirement
331. The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not be less than twenty-one
(21) years of age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP applicants using the
lateral entry program is ____.
a. 35 years old
b. 25 years old
c. 30 years old
d. 31 years old
332. A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members is required for
permanency of their appointment. Who among the following is exempted to undergo
the Field Training Program and issued a permanent appointment?
a. Pastor JJJ, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
c. RRR, A PNPA graduate who is appointed Inspector after graduation.
d. SSS a Licensed Criminologist and First Place in the Examination.
 333. Planning as a management function is tobe done in the various levels of PNP
Organization. Broad policy based from laws
directives, policies and needs in general is the responsibility of:
a. Directorate for Plans
b. President of the Philippines
c. Chief, PNP
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
334. What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy Director General in the Armed Forces of
the
Philippines?
a. Lt. General
b. Major General
c. Brigade General
d. General
335. Police Inspector Kkk joined the Philippine National Police on October 4,
1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as embalmer, he decided to file an optional
retirement so that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he served with
extreme commitment and loyalty. When does KKK can retire?
a. October 5, 1998
b. October 6, 1999
c. September 5, 2010
d. September 5, 2008
336. Which of the following administrative penalties is immediately executory?
a. Dismissal
b. Forfeiture of pay
c. Suspension
d. Death penalty
337. It is the third in command in the Philippine National Police:
a. Regional Director
b. Chief Directorial Staff
c. Deputy Chief for Administration
d. Deputy Chief for Operation
338. The head of the National Capital Regional Police Office shall assume the position of
NCR director with the rank of:
 a. Chief Superintendent
b. Director
c. Superintendent
d. General
339. Under the waiver program, who among the following PNP applicants is the least
priority for appointment?
a. maine who just earned 72 units in college
b. Paloma who is under height
c. Jauquin who is underweight
d. Alden who is overage
340. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known
as____________.
a. Department of Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of 1990
c. Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
d. Department of the Interior and the Local Government Act of 1990
341. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. National Appellate Board
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board
d. National Police Commission
342. . It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966.
a. R.A. 4864
b. R.A. 8551
c. Act 175
d. PD 765
343. __________ is given to any PNP member who has exhibited act of
conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion
B. Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
344. PNP members under the waiver program but is dismissed for failure to comply
with the requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
 A. Maybe Yes
B. Maybe No
C. Absolutely Yes
D. Absolutely No
345. .The reason why police officer appears in court as a witness has to be in
complete uniform is to show his respect to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank
B. Superior
C. Profession
D. Comrades
346. Which among the following is NOT subjected to field Operational Plans?
A. Patrol
B. Records
C. Investigation
D. Traffic
347. Which of the following statement is not true about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police department
348. The performance evaluation system in the PNP is conducted:
A. thrice a year
B. Every 6 months
C. Every 2 years
D. Quarterly
349. A PNP member who acquired permanent physical disability in the
performance of his duty and unable to further perform his duty shall be entitled to a
lifetime pension equivalent to:
A50% of his last salary B. 70% of his last salary
C.60% of his last salary D. 80% of his last salary
350. How many successive annual rating periods before a police officer may be
separated due to inefficiency or poor performance?
A. 2
 B. 4
C. 3
D. 1

351. How many cumulative annual rating periods before a police officer may be
separated due to inefficiency or poor performance?
A.2 B.4
C.3 D.1
352. In this theory, management assumes employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is believed that employees enjoy their mental
and physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect B. Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory D. Y theory
353. .The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
A. Edward H. Sutherland
B. Edwin Hawthorne
C. Henry A. Landsberger
D. Douglas McGregor
354. In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective in most modern
practice, management assumes employees are inherently lazy and will avoid work if
they can and that they inherently dislike work. As a result of this, management
believes that workers need to be closely supervised and comprehensive systems of
controls developed.
A. Hawthorne Effect B. Stockholm Syndrome
C. X theory
D.Y theory
355. This kind of organizational structure classifies people according to the
function they perform in their professional life or according to the functions
performed by them in the organization.
A. Functional Structure B. Line and Staff Structure
C. Line Structure D. Divisional Structure
356. If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days but not less
than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
A. Office of the chief of police
 B. PLEB
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of the choices
357. Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the base pay and longevity
pay of the retired grade in case of 20 years active service
A. 50%
B. 10%
C. 2.5%
D. 55%
358. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown,
crime prevention program, or neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when
the objective is accomplished or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Problem oriented plan
D. time bound operational plan
359. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field
operations and some special operations
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan
C. Problem oriented plan
D. policy or procedural plan
360. The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____?
A. Superintendent
B. Director
C. Senior Superintendent
D. Chief Superintendent
361. The institution of a criminal action or complaint against a police officer is
A.A ground for dismissal
B. Not qualified for promotion
C. Automatically dismiss
D. Not a bar to promotion
362. Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the PNP for the purpose of
protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and
order, prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the offenders to justice
A. Deployment
B. Reinforcement
C. Reintegration
D. Employment
363. What is the first step in making a plan?
A. Frame of reference
B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Identification of the problems

364. It identify the role of police in the community and future condition in state
A. Visionary Plans
B. Strategic Plans
C. Synoptic Planning
D. Incremental Planning
365. Is that field of management which involves planning, and controlling the
efforts of a group of individuals toward achieving a common goal with maximum
dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
A. Human Resources
B. Personnel Management
C. Human Management
D. Personnel Administration
366. Is the process of developing methods or procedure or an arrangement of parts
intended to facilitate the accomplishment of a definite objective.
A. Management
B. Functioning
C. Budgeting D. Planning
367. Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific circumstances and details
with the following procedures.
A. Field Procedures B. Procedural plan
C. Operational Plans D. Functional plan
368. Which of the following is not a function of police personnel unit?
A. Preparing policy statements and standard operating Procedures relating to all areas
of the administration of human resources
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials regarding personnel
matters
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to identify, and subsequently
correct, unsatisfactory working conditions
D. Establish criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks
369. It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating undesirable applicants
that do not meet the organization’s selection criteria

A. Promotion Recruitment
B. Transfer Selection
C. Recruitment
D. Selection
370. It is recognized as the best method of filing
A. Pigeon Hole
B. retrieval operation
C. Records Management
D. chain of custody
371. It is considered to be the heart of any identification system; it provides
positive identification of the criminal
A. Arrest and booking report
B. Miscellaneous Records
C. Identification record
D. Fingerprint Records
372. The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly salary and
allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of how many year?
A.1 year
B. 2 months
C. 4 years
D.2 years
373. .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of hours of classroom
training should be required for newly promoted supervisory personnel
A.72 hours
B.80 hours
C.75 hours
D.85 hours
374. It should be proactive, people oriented, based on individual need, and
delivered in such a way as to motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of
professionalism/
Professionalization.
A. Recruit Training B. Specialized training
C. In Service
D. Field Training

375. When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing the entire mandatory
and other consideration in promotion, is what kind of promotion?
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
B. Regular Promotion
C. Meritorious Promotion
D. Promotion
376. .It involves assistance and action by non police agencies such as Local Safety
Council for Traffic Division, DSWD for Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster
Preparedness plans and Civil defense plans
A. Management Plans
B. Procedural plan
C. Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan
377. Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and ribbon, which constitute
the tangible evidence of an award:
A. Medal B. Awards
C. Decorations D. Ribbons
378. For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya ng papuri may be
awarded to nay PNP member:
A. Six B. Four
 C. Five D. Three
379. Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or
excessive use of authority:
A. Misconduct B. Dishonesty
C. Incompetency D. Oppression
380. The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a mobile strike force
or reaction unit to augment police forces for civil disturbance control, counter-
insurgency, hostage taking, rescue operations and other special operations:
A. NARCOM
B. SAF
C.SWAT
D. SOCO
381. The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
A. Line
B. functional
C. staff
D. line and staff
382. As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not allowed to possess except
when there is an upsurge of lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper
authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total number of security guards.
A.50% B. 20%
C.30% D. 10%
383. The vault door should be made of steel at least __________ in thickness?
A.7 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 20 feet or more
384. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the
protection system, or that, could result to loss.
A. Hazards
B. Environmental Hazards
C. Natural Hazards
D. Security Hazards
385. An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion, integrity, morals and
loyalty of an individual in order to determines person suitability for appointment or
access to classified matter.
A. Character Investigation
B. Physical Investigation
C. Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
386. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national
economy security
A. Relative vulnerability
B. Relative program
C. Relative criticality
D. Relative security
387. Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
A. SEC
B. DTI
C. PADPAO
D. PNP, SAGSD
388. To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility what must be
constructed.
A. Full view fence
B. Chain link fence
C. Solid fence
D. Multiple fences
389. A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash
outside his area of jurisdiction shall be issued with a-
A. Firearms
B. Mission Order
C. Duty Detail Order
D. None of These
390. What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
A. 150 Hours
B. 72 Hours
C. 48 Hours
 D. 300 Hours
391. All except one are the line leadership staff:
A. Detachment Commander
B. Post-in-Charge
C. Chief Inspector
D. Security Supervisor 1
392. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12 gauge wire with
4 point barbs spaces in an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___
high excluding the top guard.
A.8 feet
B.7 feet
C.9 feet
D. 6 feet
393. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license issued to security
guards.
A. Any of the choices
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
C. Secretary, DILG
D. C/PNP

394. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. Photoelectric
B. Metallic foil
C. Audio detection
D. Microwave Detection
395. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance
with establishment security policies and procedures?
A. Security Education
B. Security Survey
C. Security Planning
D. Security Inspection
396. Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the knowledge of the
objectives of the security and the means and the method to reach these objective or
goal must then involve.
 A. Security Inspection
B. Security Hazards
C. Security Planning
D. Security Survey
397. A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device designed to prevent
entry into a building, room container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of
items without the consent of the owner
A .Padlocks
B. Locks
C. Code Operated
D. Lever Locks
398. A type of protective alarm system where the central station located outside the
installation. When the alarm is sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency

A. Local Alarm system

B. Auxiliary System
C. Central Station System
D. Proprietary
399. It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers may activate the alarm by
placing the front of their foot to engage the activation bar
A. Bill traps
B. Foot Rail Activator
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
D. Foot buttons
400. These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal
strips to protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow,
horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights
B. Street Lights
C. Floodlights
D. Search lights
401. What is the required capital investment for organization of private security
agency?
A. P 500,000
 B. B. P 100,000
C. P 1,000,000
D. P 50,000
402. One who steals with preconceived plans and takes away any or all types of
items or supplies for economic gain?
A. Normal Pilferer
B. Regular Pilferer
C. Casual Pilferer
D. Systematic pilferer
403. The metallic container used for securing documents or small items in an office
or installation refers to:
A. Safe
B. Vault
C. File room
D. None of these
404. Chain link fences must be constructed in______ material excluding the top
guard?
a. Seven feet
b. Six feet
c. Four feet
d. Five feet

405. The following things are used as barrier, which serves as a deterrent to the
possible intruder in an Industrial Complex, EXCEPT:
a. Human
b. Fences
c. Doors
d. Concertina
406. Vaults are storage devices which are usually designed to be at least
_______fire resistant.
a. 3 hours
b. 24hours
c. 6hours
d. 12 hours
407. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick
proof since it is operated by utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
a. Lever locks
b. Combination lock
c. Padlock
d. Code operated locks
408. The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess by a PSA should not
exceed by___ units.
a. 30
b. 70
c. 500
d. 1000
409. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
a. Sodium vapor lamp
b. Incandescent lamp
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Quartz lamp
410. What type of security deals with the industrial plants and business enterprises
where personnel, processes, properties and operations are safeguarded?
a. Personnel security
b. industrial security
c. Physical security
d. bank security
411. The following are principles of Physical Security, EXCEPT:
a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
b. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
c. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
d. Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
412. . The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of
operations due to various hazards.
a. Relative vulnerability
b. Relative criticality
c. Relative susceptibility
d. Relative security
413. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible authority that the person
described is cleared to access and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from the date of issuance.
a. 1 year
b. 4 years
c. 2 years
d. 5 years

414. The tenure of a security guard is:

a. Six Months
b. Co-terminus with the service contract
c. Two years
d. Contractual

415. Which among the following is not an advantage of a full-view fence, except:
a. It allows visual access to the installation which aids the intruder in planning.
b. It allows the intruder to become familiar with the movements of persons in the
installation
c. It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of the intruder.
d. None of these

416. Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond which shall answer
for any valid and legal claims against such agency filed by aggrieved party. How
much is the Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
a. 50, 000
b. 100, 000
c. 150, 000
d. 200,00
417. What type of investigation involves all aspect and details about the
circumstances of a person?
a. partial background investigation
b. complete background investigation
c. personnel security investigation
d. national agency check
418. The exposure and the teaching of employees on security and its relevance to
their work is:
a. Security Inspection
b. Security Education
c. Security Orientation
d. Security Survey
419. A type of security which provides sufficient illumination to areas during hours
of darkness
a. Protective Lighting
b. Fresnel Lights
c. Search Lights
d. Street Lights
420. Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the interruption of the
light beam is known as:
a. Metallic foil
b. Electric eye device
c. Audio alarm
d. Microwave alarm
421. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects
predominate?
a. Mercury vapor lamp
b. Quartz lamp
c. Sodium vapor Lamp
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
422. What is an act governing the organization and management of private security
agency, company guard force and government security forces?
a. RA 8574
b. RA 5478
c. RA 4587
d. RA 5487

423. Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or concertina. Chain link are for
______.
 a. Solid structure
b. Least permanent structure
c. Permanent structure
d. Semi- permanent structure
424. If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of bleaching powder, the
greatest danger would be from:
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be controlled
b. an explosion
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire
d. a toxic and irritant gas
425. Which of the following is not included in the patrol function?
a. Response to citizen calls
b. Investigation of crimes
c. Routine preventive patrol
d. Inspection of identified hazards
426. Disaster preparedness and control plans should include ______ so that people
who are directly involved know the extent of the incident.
a. evacuation services
b. identification services
c. counseling services
d. public information services
427. An intelligence report classified as A-2 means__________.
a. the information comes from a completely reliable source and is doubtfully
true
b. the information comes from a completely reliable source and is probably
true
c. the information comes from a usually reliable source and is and is probably
true.
d. the information comes from a usually reliable source and is possibly true
428. It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by the plan?”
a. objectives
b. planning assumptions
c. problems
d. planning environment
429. The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following organizational
features, EXCEPT:
a. Unified delivery of services
b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
d. Unity of direction
430. Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are properly trained in
criminal investigation. Which of the following cannot be undertaken by them?
a. He can locate and question the suspect if he apprehends him.
b. He can identify available evidences.
c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow policemen.
431. It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged in industries, like
manufacturing, assembling, research and development, processing, warehousing and
even agriculture.
a. operational security
b. industrial security
c. physical security
d. special types
432. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with the physical
measures to prevent unauthorized access.
a. operational security
b. industrial security
c. physical security
d. special types
433. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by
human action, accidental or intentional.
a. security hazards
b. man-made hazard
c. natural hazard
d. all of the above
434. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused damage, disturbance
and problems of the normal functioning of human activities, including security.
a. security hazards
 b. man-made hazard
c. natural hazard
d. all of the above

435. A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency in all
aspects of security, with the corresponding recommendation is:
a. security inspection
b. security education
c. security training
d. security survey

436. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private
security personnel?
a. PNP SOSIA
b. PNP FED
c. PADPAO
d. PNP SAGSD
437. What is the most common type of human hazard?
a. Sabotage
b. Pilferage
c. Theft
d. Subversion
438. What is the security force maintained and operated by any private company/
corporation for its own security requirements?
a. GSU
b. CSF
c. PSA
d. PD
439. What type of controlled area requires highest degree of security?
a. Limited
b. Restricted
c. Special
d. Exclusive
440. What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a predetermined
combination code of numbers?
a. Card- operated lock
b. Combination lock
c. Electromagnetic lock
d. Card Operated

441. .What type of lamp emits bright white light?

a. Sodium vapor lamp
b. Mercury vapor lamp
c. Incandescent lamp
d. Quartz lamp
442. . What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the guard
remains in the comparative darkness?
a. Controlled lighting
b. Fresnel light
c. Emergency lighting
d. Glare- projection
443. One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is that the distances between
strands will not exceed _______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical and
midway between posts.
a. 3 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 7 inches
444. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance container usually a part of
the building structure use to keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables
materials.
a. Vault
b. Safe Room
c. file
d. None of these
445. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of Duty, what shall he do
with his Firearm?
a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s Vault.
b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards table.
446. Any physical structure whether natural or man-made capable of restricting,
deterring or delaying illegal or unauthorized access.
a. Perimeter Fences
b. Wire Fences
c. Moveable Barrier
d. Barrier
447. A company owned protective alarm with unit in a nearest police station of fire
department.
a. Proprietary Alarm
b. Auxiliary Alarm
c. Central Alarm
d. Security Alarm
448. It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light rather than direction
beam. They are widely used in parking areas
a. Street Lights
b. Search Lights
c. Flood Lights
d. Fresnel Lights
449. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp which passes through a
staple ring or the like and is then made fast or secured.
a. Lock
b. Padlock
c. Code Operated
d. Card Operated

450. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in temperature will not
cause the safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000
0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has passed the test.
 a. Fire Endurance Test
b. Fire and Impact Test
c. Burning Test
d. Explain Hazard Test
451. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of irresistible urge due to
unexpected opportunity and little chance of detection?
a. Systematic pilferer
b. Ordinary pilferer
c. Casual pilferer
d. Unusual pilferer
452. Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
a. Low Visibility
b. High Visibility
c. Reactive
d. Proactive
453. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and operational framework in truly
affecting mechanisms toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of PNP
investigational capability.
a. Detective Beat Patrol
b. Integrated Patrol System
c. Community Oriented Policing System
d. Team Policing
454. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching the end of the line beat,
and before returning to the point of origin.
a. Patrol Report
b. Situation Report
c. Investigation Report
d. Incident Report

455. The ideal police response time is:

a. 3 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 7 minutes
d. 10 minutes
456. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition possessing a high potential for
criminal attack or for the creation of problem necessitating a demand for immediate
police service:
a. Hazard
b. Opportunity
c. Perception of Hazard
d. Police Hazard
457. The most expensive patrol method and gives the greatest opportunity to
develop sources of information is:
a. Foot Patrol
b. Marine Patrol
c. Mobile Patrol
d. Helicopter Patrol
458. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in patrol which makes the
policemen less visible during the night. The primary purpose is:
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a crime
b. To have sufficient cover
c. To attract less attention
d. For safety of the Patrol officer

459. The following are included in the cause and effect of team policing.
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
a. a, b, e
b. c. a, b, d, e
c. a, c, d, e
d. d. a, b, c, e
460. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol methods in that patrol
methods; patrol officers perform specific predetermined preventive functions on a
planned systematic basis:
 a. Target Oriented Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Directed deterrent Patrol
461. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be best penetrated by the
police through.
a. Foot patrol
b. Bicycle patrol
c. Mobile patrol
d. Helicopter patrol
462. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to accomplish the police
visibility program of the PNP. The Police officers in Police Community Precincts
render 24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of:
a. 2 shifts
b. 4 shifts
c. 3 shifts
d. every other day shift.
463. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally prevent the desire of human
being to commit crime.
a. Preventive
b. Proactive
c. Reactive
d. High Visibility
464. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of ________________ since they
can be operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
d. Mobility and stealth
465. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San Juanico Bridge?
a. Foot Patrol
b. K-9 Patrol
c. Automobile Patrol
d. Bicycle Patrol
466. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the Philippines and the First
Chief of the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma
Jose?
a. May 7, 1954
b. May 17, 1954
c. May 14, 1957
d. March 10, 1917
467. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons, places, buildings/
establishments and vehicles especially during night-time, be prepared to use your
service firearm and Flashlight should be-
a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a possible target.
b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a possible target.
c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible adversary.
a. None of these
468. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance?
a. Arrest criminals
b. Securing the area
c. Aiding the injured
d. Extort Money
469. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during pat-down search, a
more secure search position may be:
a. Standing position
b. Lying Face down Position
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, and feet spread apart.
d. All of these
470. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged by his-
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community
b. Residents developed good public relations
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor offenses
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
471. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies?
a. True
 b. False
c. Absolutely Yes
d. Absolutely No
472. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of apprehension of law
violator to engage in certain types of crimes:
a. Preventive Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol
c. Low-Visibility Patrol
d. Proactive Patrol
473. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
a. It is the backbone of the police department
b. It is the essence of police operation
c. It is the nucleus of the police department
d. It is the single largest unit in the police Department that can be eliminated
474. It is an immediate response to block the escape of lawless elements from a
crime scene, and is also established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or during
hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police personnel conducting mobile patrol on
board a marked police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and foot patrol operations
within the vicinity/periphery of the national or provincial highways.
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint
c. High-Risk Arrest
d. High Risk Stop
475. The following are patrol activities, except:
A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B. Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
476. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact with the members of the
community ideal in gaining the trust and confidence of the people to the police:
A. Horse Patrol
B. Bicycle Patrol
C. Automobile Patrol
D. Foot Patrol
477. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain
that nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern

478. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:

a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public
c. It insures familiarization of area
d. It promotes easier detection of crime
479. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as well as in smelling out
drugs and bombs. What do you call the large dog with drooping ears and sagging
jaws and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for tracking purposes?
a. German shepherd
b. Bloodhounds
c. Doberman pinscher
d. Black Labrador Retrievers

480. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:

a. Foot
b. Automobile
c. Bicycle
d. Helicopter
481. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in terms of number of:
a. Superiors to whom he reports
b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
d. Any of these
482. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from becoming _______ with
people, hazards, and facilities on his beat.
a. Well Acquainted
b. Sluggish
 c. Energetic
d. Unfamiliar
483. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise and before the counter-
clockwise?
a. Straightway
b. Crisscross
c. Sector
d. Zigzag
484. The two-man patrol became_________ due to increase attack of police officer
by militant, dangerous section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration in the
street.
a. Unnecessary
b. Necessary
c. Voluntary
d. Redundant
485. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in
the maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
a. Integrated Police System
b. Comparative Police System
c. Detective Beat System
d. Community Oriented Policing System
486. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is the least likely to become
completely a function of automobile patrol is the checking of-
a. Security of business establishment.
b. Street light outrages.
c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs.
d. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement.

487. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen in areas where police
hazards are serious is that, it usually-
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges.
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick mobilization is needed.
488. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the-
a. Opportunity for graft.
b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the law.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads.
489. Team Policing is said to be originated in________:
a. Aberdeen, Scotland
b. Lyons, France
c. Vienna. Austria
d. London, England
490. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:
a. Egyptians
b. English
c. Chinese
d. American
491. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to catch
criminals is known as:
a. High visibility patrol
b. Blending patrol
c. Low visibility patrol
d. Decoy patrol

492. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h floor building. Which of the

following should be the first thing to do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the
scene?
a. Urge no to jump
b. Call nearest relative
c. Clear the area
d. Report immediately to Station
493. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle patrol over the other
patrol methods?
A. Low cost
B. Visibility
C. Speed
 D. Security
494. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively implemented by police activity
which-
a. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, with less emphasis on
routine.
b. Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration to commit crime.
c. Influences favorable individual and group attitudes in routine daily
associations with the police.
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation of apprehension.
495. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and
community interests into a working relationship so as to produce the desired
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
a. Preventive patrol
b. Directed Patrol
c. Community Relation
d. Team policing
496. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most ideally suited to evacuation
and search-and-rescue operations?
a. Motorcycle
b. Automobile
c. Helicopter
d. Horse
497. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to disclose evidence of a
weapon the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
a. Conduct a complete search.
b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. No further search may be made.
d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate supervisor.
498. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when demonstrators become
unruly and aggressive forcing troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
a. Tear Gas
b. Water Cannon
c. Truncheon
d. Shield
 499. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the
point of origin is following what pattern?
a. Clockwise
b. Zigzag
c. Counter clockwise
d. Crisscross
500. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:
a. Can report regularly to the command center.
b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
c. It is inexpensive to operate .
d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.

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