IX To X Entrance Test Sample Paper-1
IX To X Entrance Test Sample Paper-1
IX To X Entrance Test Sample Paper-1
committed to excellence
Class – IX
A. General:
1. This booklet is a Question Paper containing 150 questions.
2. Blank Papers, Clipboards, Log Tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones and electronic gadgets in
any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. The answer sheet, a machine-readable optical mark recognition sheet (OMR Sheet), is provided
separately.
4. DO NOT TAMPER WITH THE OMR OR THE BOOKLET.
5. Please fill your roll number correctly in the OMR sheet (answer sheet).
6. Both Question Paper and OMR Answer Sheet will be submitted after completion of this examination.
1
MAT
1. Which group of letter is different from others?
(a) LAZO (b) HCXS (c) GHIJ (d) FEVU
2. If in a certain code language ‘POEM’ is written as ‘OQNPDFLN’, how would ‘WIND’ be written
as same code?
(a) VXHJMOCE (b) ECDFGJLA (c) LMNOPABC (d) ECOMJHXV
3. Some words are translated from an artificial language below
‘goh rat pee’ is ‘my school bag’.
‘nie jee goh’ is ‘black colour bag’
‘pee jee goh’ is ‘my black bag’
Which word could possibly mean ‘colour’?
(a) Pee (b) Nie (c) Jee (d) Goh
4. Find the missing character in the following figure.
? 45 N
U
(a) A (b) D (c) B (d) C
5. Find the next number in the given sequence.
1000, 100, 729, 81, 512, 64, 343, ?
a. 25 (b) 49 (c) 64 (d) 36
6. Which alternative will replace the ‘question mark’?
A2 C4 E6
G3 I5 ?
M5 O9 Q14
2
8. Find the next number in the series.
1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 92, ?
(a) 49 (b) 56 (c) 92 (d) 141
9. Which number will replace the question mark?
A K
V P
Q L G B
3
14. Identify which would among the pieces given will not be required to complete the triangular
pattern shown below.
18. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.
4
19. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between earning, dividend and bonus?
20. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between author, lawyer and singer?
21. Pointing to Diwaker, Karuna says, “I am the daughter of only son of his grandfather”. How
Karuna is related to Diwaker?
(a) Aunt (b) Uncle (c) Brother (d) sister
22. 1. B5D means B is the father of D.
2. B9D means B is the sister of D.
3. B4D means B is the brother of D.
4. B3D means B is the wife of D.
Which of the following means F is the mother of K?
(a) F3M5K (b) F5M3K (c) F9M4N3K (d) F3M5N3K
23. In the given figure, the circle represents jobs, the square represents candidates and hexagon
represents company. How many candidates are doing job but not in a company?
5
26. What is the mirror image of the given figure?
Directions (Q. Nos. 27 – 31) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are six friends named as D, E, F, G, H and I sitting around a circular table in a canteen but
not necessary in the same order.
‘I’ sits between H and F but third to the left E. H is second to the right of E but third to the left
of D. G sits between H and E.
27. What is the position of G with respect to D?
(a) Second to the left (b) Second to the right
(c) Fourth to the right (d) Third to the left
28. Who sits between F and E?
(a) D (b) G (c) I (d) H
29. How many persons sit between G and D?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
30. If G and D interchange there position then, who are the neighbours of E?
(a) G and H (b) G and F (c) H and F (d) G and D
31. What is the position of ‘I’ in respect of ‘H’?
(a) Immediate right (b) Immediate left
(c) Second to the right (d) Second to the left
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-33) Read the statements and mark the appropriate conclusion as per the
given options.
(a) I and II follow (b) II and III follow (c) Only III follows (d) None follow
32. Statements
All trees are green.
Some green are yellow.
All yellow are mango.
Conclusions
I. Some trees are yellow.
II. Some mangoes are trees,
III. No yellow is tree
6
33. Statements
Some peanuts are almonds.
Some almonds are expensive.
No expensive is luxirious.
Conclusions
I. Some luxirious is expensive.
II. No peanuts is luxirious.
III. Some almonds are peanuts and expensive.
34. Complete the given sequence.
A, Y, C, W, E, U, G, ?
(a) T (b) S (c) H (d) V
35. Find the figure which is having same relation with third figure as relation between first and two
figures.
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-38) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
A goldsmith has five gold articles named V, W, X, Y and Z each having a different weight.
V weighs twice as much as W.
W weighs four and half time as much as x.
X weighs half as much as Y.
Y weighs half as much as Z.
Z weighs less than a but more than X.
36. Which of the following article is heaviest in weight?
(a) Z (b) W (c) V (d) X
37. Z is heavier than which of two articles?
(a) X and Y (b) V and W (c) W and X (d) Y and V
38. How many articles are less heavy in weight from W?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
39. Reema wants to go near to her mom, read the given points and find in which direction her
mother is from her present position.
Firstly she will have to go 6 km in East.
From there turn left and walk 8 km.
After that a turn right then left and walk 6 km and 4 km, respectively.
(a) North-West (b) North-East (c) South-East (d) South-West
7
40. There are 6 flats on a floor of a building named P, Q, R, S, T and U. Half of them facing North
and the remaining facing South.
‘Q’ is North facing flat but not neighbour of ‘S’ flat.
‘S’ and ‘P’ are opposite to each other.
R is next to U and facing South.
T is North facing flat and opposite to R.
In the given alternatives, which flats are the North facing flats?
(a) STQ (b) PRU (c) PRQ (d) SQR
41. How many triangles are in the figure?
1
(a) 38 (b) 37 (c) 36 (d) 40
2
43. Mac has £ 3 more than Ken but, then Ken wins on the horses and thrice his money, so that he
now has £ 2 more than the original amount of money that the two boys had between them. How
much money did Mac and Ken have between them before Ken's win?
(a) £9 (b) £11 (c) £13 (d) £ 15
44. In a game of billiards, A can give B 15 points in 60 and A can give C to 20 points in 60. How many
points can B give C in a game of 90?
(a) 10 points (b) 30 points (c) 20 points (d) 45 points
45. Where should the missing hour hand point to on the bottom clock?
8
48. Question Figures
Direction (Q. No. 50) Read the following information carefully to answer the question given
below.
X, Y, Z and P are sitting around a circular table and discussing their trades.
I. X, sits opposite to cook.
II. Y, sits right to the barber.
III. The washerman is on the left of the tailor.
IV. P, sits opposite Z.
50. What are the trades of X and Y?
(a) Tailor and Barber (b) Barber and Cook
(c) Tailor and Cook (d) Tailor and Washerman
51. Six person A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and
D, F is to the left of D.
Who is between A and F?
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
52. Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is sitting
next to B, who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is sitting next to R. Who are sitting adjacent
to V?
(a) R and Q (b) B and M (c) K and R (d) M and K
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-56) : Read the following information carefully to answer the questions
that follow.
The six faces of a cube are painted in a manner that on two adjacent faces have the same colour.
The three colours used in painting are red, blue and green. The cube is then cut into 36 smaller
cubes in such a manner that 32 cubes are of one size and the rest of a bigger size and each of the
bigger cubes has no red side.
53. How many cubes in all have a red side?
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 8 (d) 20
54. How many cubes in all have only one side coloured?
(a) 20 (b) 16 (c) 0 (d) 8
9
55. How many cubes are coloured on three sides?
(a) 20 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 0
56. How many cubes are there which have two or more sides painted?
(a) 36 (b) 28 (c) 20 (d) 32
57. If PET = 4, LET = 3 and JEY = 2. Then, what is the value of XET?
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
58. In a coded language if HOME = 2541, SHOP = 8256 and WORK = 9573, then code for SMOKE
will be
(a) 85431 (b) 84531 (c) 83451 (d) 84351
59. What will be the number of hexagonals in the following figure?
PHYSICS
61. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for sometimes after which it decelerates at a constant
rate to come to rest. If the total time of journey is t, then the maximum velocity acquired by
the car is given by:
(a) t (b) t
2 2
(c) t (d) t
62. A wheel is rotating at 900 rpm about its axis when the power is cut off. It comes to rest in one
minute. The angular retardation (assuming it to be uniform) in radian/sec2 is:
(a) —/2 (b) —/4 (c) —/6 (d) —/8
63. The displacement versus time graph for a body moving in a straight line is shown in figure.
Which of the following regions represents the motion when no force is acting on the body?
e
x d
c
b
a Time
10
(a) ab (b) bc (c) cd (d) de
64. A tap can be operated easily using two fingers because :
(a) the force by one finger overcomes friction and other finger provides the force for operation
(b) the rotational effect is caused by the couple formed
(c) the force available for the operation will be more
(d) this helps application of angular forces
65. A car starts from rest and attains a speed of 8 m/sec in 2 seconds. It travels with uniform speed
for the next 3 seconds. The total displacement of the car in 5 sec is:
(a) 4 m (b) 8 m (c) 16 m (d) 32 m
66. A lift is coming from 8th floor and is just about to stop 4th floor. Taking ground as origin and
positive direction upwards for all quantities, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Velocity (–), Acceleration (+) (b) Velocity (–), Acceleration (–)
(c) Velocity (+), Acceleration (+) (d) Velocity (+), Acceleration (–)
67. A rifle bullet loses 1/20th of its velocity in passing through a plank. The least number of such
planks required just to stop the bullet is:
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 20
68. The kinetic energy of a body is decreased by 19% what is the percentage loss in momentum :-
(a) 10 % (b) 20 % (c) 30 % (d) None
69. Which one of the following curves do not represent motion in one dimension?
70. An engine develops 10 KW of power. How much time will it take to lift a mass of 200 kg to a
height of 40 m ?
(a) 4 sec. (b) 5 sec. (c) 8 sec. (d) 10 sec.
71. A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a velocity of 36 km/hr. How much centripetal
force is required?
(a) 100 N (b) 1000 N (c) 500 N (d) 200 N
72. If shown system is released from rest, find the work done by tension force on block B in first one
second. (g = 10 m/s2)
200
(a) — J (b) —16 J (c) —24 J (d) —36 J
9
11
73. A ball is dropped from the top of a very high building. Estimate the magnitude of the acceleration
of the ball right after its collision with the ground in m/s2. (Assume collision is perfectly elastic
and g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 9.8 m/s2 (b) zero (c) 19.6 m/s2 (d) 4.9 m/s2
ke 2
74. If the potential energy between electron and proton at a distance r is given by U – 3 the law
3r
of force is
ke 2 –3 ke 2 ke 2 ke 2
(a) F (b) F (c) F – (d) F
r2 4 r5 r4 r
75. A river is flowing due east with a speed 3m/s. A swimmer can swim in still water at a speed of
4m/s. If swimmer swims due north, what will be his resultant velocity (magnitude)?
(a) 1 m/s (b) 7 m/s (c) 4 m/s (d) 5 m/s
76. A car of mass 'm' is driven with acceleration 'a' along a straight level road against a constant
external resistive force 'R'. When the velocity of the car is 'V', the rate at which the engine of the
car is doing work will be-
(a) RV (b) maV (c) (R + ma) V (d) (ma – R)V
77. The wheel of an automobile is rotating with 4 rotations per sec. Find its angular velocity?
32
(a) 8 rad/sec (b) 25.12 rad/sec (c) rad / s (d) All of above
4
78. If the time of flight of a projectile is doubled, what happens to the maximum height attained?
(a) halved (b) Remains unchanged
(c) Doubled (d) Becomes four times
79. A boy of mass 30 kg while running at a constant velocity has a momentum of 180 Ns. The constant
velocity of the boy is :
(a) 3 ms–1 (b) 6 ms–1 (c) 18 ms–1 (d) 12 ms–1
80. A bullet of mass 0.01 kg is fired from a rifle. The bullet takes 0.003 s to move through the barrel
and leaves with a velocity of 300 ms–1. The acceleration acting on the bullet is :
(a) 10,000 ms–2 (b) 100,000 ms–2 (c) 1000,000 ms–2 (d) 1000 ms–2
CHEMISTRY
81. The mass number of an element is 27. If it has 14 neutrons then valence shell of this element is:
(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N
82. 16
8
X and 17
8
X represent ________ .
(a) isotones (b) isobars (c) isotopes (d) None of these
83. The isotope with zero neutron is ________ .
(a) protium (b) deuterium (c) tritium (d) None of these
84. The number of molecules contained in 2 g of H2 is the same as the number of atoms in:
(a) 1g of H2 (b) 2g of H2 (c) 71 g of Cl2 (d) 28 g of N2
12
85. The number of valence electrons in 4X8 atom is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
86. A gas which diffuses 4 times slowly than H2 gas is:
(a) H 2 S (b) O 2 (c) CH 4 (d) SO 2
87. Iron possesses good casting properties when compared with copper because :
(a) iron contracts on solidification
(b) iron expands on solidification
(c) copper expands on solidification
(d) copper neither contracts nor expands on solidification
88. With the increase in pressure, the boiling point of the liquid _____.
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) does not change (d) depends on the nature of liquid
89. ______ is used for making photographic films.
(a) AgNO3 (b) KNO2 (c) AgO (d) AgCl
90. Silver tarnishes due to the formation of ________.
(a) oxide layer (b) sulphide layer (c) nitride layer (d) hydride layer
91. When a neutral atom is converted into anion its :
(a) size increases (b) size decreases
(c) atomic number increases (d) atomic number decreases
92. At melting point :
(a) kinetic energy remains constant and potential energy increases.
(b) kinetic energy increases and potential energy remains constant.
(c) both potential energy and kinetic energy increase.
(d) potential energy increases with a decrease in kinetic energy.
93. Which is the best effective technique to separate sugar from sugar solution?
(a) Crystallization (b) Evaporation (c) Distillation (d) All of these
94. Which among the following is not a homogeneous mixture?
(a) Solder (b) Aqueous solution of NaCl
(c) Tincture of iodine (d) Sulphur in water
95. Gunpowder is a ____________
(a) solid – liquid homogeneous mixture (b) solid – liquid heterogeneous mixture
(c) solid – solid homogeneous mixture (d) solid – solid heterogeneous mixture
96. The number of atoms present in 16 g of O2 is ________.
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 3.011 × 1023 (c) 12.046 × 1023 (d) 3.011 × 1022
97. The ratio of phosphorus atoms present in Calcium phosphide and Magnesium phosphate is :
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 1
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98. In which of the following cases, the empirical formula is same as the molecular formula?
(a) C12H22O11 (b) C6H6 (c) C3H5COOH (d) C6H12O6
99. The number of molecules present in 2.8 g of nitogen gas is :
(a) 6.023 × 1023 (b) 6.023 × 1022 (c) 6.023 × 1021 (d) 6.023 × 1020
100. A mixture of benzene and water can easily be separated by using a :
(a) fractionating column (b) filter paper
(c) separating funnel (d) distillation apparatus.
BIOLOGY
101. When does pairing of homologous chromosomes occur in meiosis?
(a) Anaphase (b) Zygotene Prophase
(c) Pachytene telophase (d) Diplotene Metaphase
102. Autonomic genome system is present in _________ .
(a) Golgi body and Mitochondria (b) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
(c) Mitochondria and Ribosome (d) Ribosomes and Chloroplast
103. The sedimentation constant of ribosome in prokaryotes is generally 70S. It breaks up into two
subunits whose sedimentation constants are ________ .
(a) 50S and 20S (b) 40S and 30S (c) 60S and 10S (d) 50S and 30S
104. Which organelle helps in fomation of lysosome?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi Apparatus
(c) Mitochondria (d) Lysosome
105. In the diagram, which of the following process is shown in Amoeba?
14
110. Lateral meristem is responsible for ____________ .
(a) growth in parenchyma (b) growth in thickness
(c) growth in cortex (d) growth in length
111. Plasmolysis in plant cells occurs due to
(a) Exosmosis (b) Endosmosis (c) Absorption (d) Pinocytosis
112. Nucleolus is rich in
(a) Cellulose (b) DNA (c) RNA (d) Lipids
113. Cell inclusions are
(a) Another name of cell organelles
(b) Non-living materials present in the cytoplasm
(c) Cytoskeletal framework of cell
(d) Combined name for cell wall and cell membrane.
114. Organisms lacking defined nucleus and membrane bound organelle are
(a) Diploids (b) Prokaryotes (c) Haploids (d) Eukaryotes
115. The cell wall is chiefly made up of:
(a) Pectin (b) Cellulose (c) Hemi cellulose (d) Lignin
116. Cyanobacteria have
(a) A well-defined nucleus and chloroplast
(b) A well-defined nucleus but no chloroplast
(c) Incipient nucleus and vesicles containing chlorophyll
(d) Incipient nucleus but no chloroplast or pigment.
117. Who discovered the nucleus?
(a) Robert Hooke (b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (c) Robert Brown (d) R. Virchow
118. Cell wall possesses many small pores through which adjacent cells remain connected.
(a) Nuclear Pore (b) Plasmodesmata (c) Vacuoles (d) None of these
119. Which cell organelle is called the director of the cell?
(a) Endoplasmic (b) Mitochondria (c) Nucleus (d) Nucleolus
120. Which part of the plant cell is dead?
(a) Cell wall (b) Cell membrane (c) Plastid (d) Vacuole
MATHEMATICS
121. One cubic metre piece of copper is melted and recasted into a square cross-section bar that is 36
m long. An exact cube is cut off from this bar. If cubic metre of copper cost Rs. 108, then the cost
of this cube is :
(a) 50 paisa (b) 75 paisa (c) One rupee (d) 1.50 rupee
122. A river 3 m deep and 60 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2.4 km/h. The amount of water running
into the sea per minute is:
(a) 6000 m 3 (b) 6400 m 3 (c) 6800 m 3 (d) 7200 m 3
15
123. In a shower of 10 cm of rain fall, the volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is :
(a) 1500 m 3 (b) 1400 m3 (c) 1200 m 3 (d) 1000 m3
124. A cone and a hemisphere have equal base diameters and equal volumes. The ratio of their heights
is :
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 3
125. A cylinder circumscribes a sphere. The ratio of their volumes is :
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 4 : 3 (d) 5 : 6
126. If 2x – 2x – 1 = 16, then the value of x2 is
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 16 (d) 25
127. If f and g are two polynomials of degrees 3 and 4 respectively, then what is the degree of f – g?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Cannot be determined
128. The remainders obtained when the polynomial x3 + x2 – 9x – 9 divided by x, x + 1 and x + 2
respectively are ___________ .
(a) –9, 0, –15 (b) –9, –16, 5 (c) 0, 0, 5 (d) –9, 0, 5
1 2 9 . Find the quadrant in which the lines 2x + 3y – 1 = 0 and 3x + y – 5 = 0 intersect each other.
(a) 1st quadrant (b) 2nd quadrant (c) 3rd quadrant (d) 4th quadrant
130. The equation of the diagonal AC of a square ABCD is 3x + 4y + 12 = 0. Find the equation of BD,
where D is (2, –3).
(a) 4x – 3y – 8 = 0 (b) 4x – 3y – 17 = 0 (c) 4x – 3y + 17 = 0 (d) 4x + 3y – 17 = 0
131. The points (a, a), (–a, –a) and (– 3a, 3 a) form the vertices of an :
(a) Scalene triangle (b) Right angled triangle
(c) Isosceles Right angled triangle (d) Equilateral triangle
132. If points (t, 2t), (–2, 6) and (3, 1) are collinear, then t =
3 4 5 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 3 5
133. In the adjoining figure, it is given that A = 60°, CE || BA and ECD = 65° then ACB = _______.
A E
60°
65°
B C
(a) 60° (b) 55° (c) 70° (d) 90°
134. In the given figure (not to scale), AC is the diameter of the circle and ADB = 20°, then find
BPC.
16
135. In the given figure, P, Q, R and S are concyclic points, and O is the mid-point of the diameter
QS. If QPR = 25°, then find SOR.
1
(a) 10° (b) 7 (c) 15° (d) 30°
2
138. In the given figure it is given that AB = CF, EF = BD and AFE = DBC. Then AFE is congruent
to CBD by which criterion ?
D
A B
C
F
E
(a) SAS (b) S S S (c) ASA (d) None of these
1 3 9 . Sum of any two sides of a triangle is always __________ third side in a triangle :-
(a) Less than (b) Equal to (c) Greater than (d) None of these
1 4 0 . The straight line distance between A and B is
17
(a) 3 5 (b) 5 3 units (c) 5 units (d) 5 2 units
1 4 1 . The area of PQR is
B D
C
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 4 : 3
143. Two identical right circular cones each of height 2 cm are placed as shown in diagram (each is
vertical, apex downward). At the start, the upper cone is full of water and lower cone is empty.
Then water drips down through a hole in the apex of upper cone into the lower cone. The height
of water in the lower cone at the moment when height of water in upper cone is 1 cm is :
18
1 1
(a) 1 cm (b) cm (c) 3
cm (d) 3
7 cm
2 4
144. The largest sphere is cut off from a cube of side 5 cm. The volume of the sphere will be :
125
(a) 27 cm3 (b) 30 cm3 (c) 108 cm3 (d) cm 3
6
145. BCD is a parallelogram X and Y are the mid points of BC and CD respectively. Then, ar(parallelogram
ABCD) is
Y
D C
A B
8
(a) 4 × ar(AXY) (b) 2 × ar(AXY) (c) × ar(AXY) (d) None of these
3
(a) 4
3 , 12 48 , 6 7 (b) 12
48 , 4 3 , 6 7 (c) 4
7 , 12 48 , 4 3 (d) None of these
1 1 1
1
1
is equal to
1 p q 1 q r 1 r p1
1
(a) 0 (b) (c) pq (d) 1
pq
148. The arithmetical fraction that exceeds its square by the greatest quantity is :
1 1 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 4 5
1 1
150. If x = 4, then x 4 4 is equal to
x x
19
20