Scimatics Practice Final Exam June 2021

Multiple Choice

____ 1. What term refers to all the plants and animals in a lake?
a. biome c. biotic factors
b. ecosystem d. abiotic factors

____ 2. Which of the following lists includes only biotic factors?

a. relative pH, availability of nutrients, mineral deposits
b. annual rainfall, availability of atmospheric gases, ocean currents
c. rate of photosynthesis, salt concentration, sedimentary rock type
d. growth of birch trees, reproductive rate of salmon, mating rituals of birds

____ 3. Which of the following is an abiotic factor?

a. stream flow rate c. migration pattern of whales
b. predator-prey relationship d. types of organisms in a rotting log

____ 4. What level in an ecological hierarchy is illustrated in the diagram shown at right?
a. organism c. population
b. ecosystem d. community

____ 5. Which of the following is an example of a biome?

a. Antarctica c. the province of Ontario
b. the Atlantic Ocean d. the continent of Australia

____ 6. In what biome is water conservation important for the survival of animals?
a. desert c. tropical rainforest
b. boreal forest d. temperate rainforest

____ 7. Which of the following factors could lead to low biodiversity in an ecosystem?
a. nutrient-poor soil
b. scarce plant species
c. high average annual precipitation
d. little fluctuation in average annual temperature

____ 8. Use the following graph showing the relationship between altitude, latitude, and tree growth to answer
this question.

Altitude and latitude have similar effects on tree growth.

a. The graph supports the statement.
b. The graph refutes the statement.
c. The graph neither supports nor refutes the statement.

____ 9. A beaver lives by a pond. It cuts down trees with its strong front teeth and uses the branches to build a
dam and home in the water. This information helps determine the beaver’s:
a. niche c. competition for abiotic factors
b. energy flow d. mutualistic relationship with trees
____ 10. Intense competition would most likely occur between:
a. lynx and wolves sharing the same habitat
b. shrubs and spruce trees growing in adjacent biomes
c. lions and zebras living in the same tropical grassland
d. red-tailed hawks and bald eagles searching for the same food source in the same
location
____ 11. Use the following key to answer this question:

0 = organism is not affected

+ = organism is benefited
- = organism is harmed

A girl came home from school and discovered that she had head lice. Head lice are tiny insects that live
on the human scalp and feed on human blood. They lay eggs that stick to strands of hair very close to the
scalp. Which set of symbols represents the relationship between the head lice and the girl?

Head Lice Girl

a. + 0
b. + -
c. - 0
d. 0 -
____ 12. Aphids are insects that damage plants by sucking the sap from the plants’ leaves, stems, and roots.
Ladybugs that live on these plants eat the aphids and benefit by getting food. In return, the plants benefit
by being rid of the aphids. Which type of relationship exists between the ladybugs and the plants?
a. predation c. mutualism
b. parasitism d. commensalism

____ 13. Foxes and owls living in the same habitat compete for rabbits as their food supply. Which of the
following situations would lead to the greatest problem in their food supply?
a. a decrease in the fox population c. an increase in the fox population
b. a decrease in the owl population d. an increase in the rabbit population

____ 14. Which of the following biomes has the lowest rate of photosynthesis?
a. desert c. grassland
b. tundra d. temperate rainforest

____ 15. Which terrestrial biome has the greatest biodiversity?

a. desert c. permanent ice
b. tundra d. tropical rainforest
Use the following graph to answer the next two questions.
____ 16. Looking at the graph shown above, which biome has the greatest average annual precipitation and
temperature?
a. desert c. tropical rainforest
b. grassland d. temperature rainforest

____ 17. Looking at the graph shown above, which biome ranges in temperature between -18°C and -8°C and
receives about 20 cm of rain a year?
a. desert c. grassland
b. tundra d. permanent ice

____ 18. Use the following climatograph to answer this question. What is the
average precipitation for the month of March?
a. 22 mm c. 98 mm
b. 38 mm d. 140 mm

____ 19. Use the following climatograph to answer this question. Which
environmental conditions are shown on the climatograph?

a. Temperatures spike in dry summer months and dip very

low in wet winter months.
b. High temperatures exist most of the year with wet
summer months and dry winter months.
c. Precipitation is equally distributed throughout the hot
summer months and fiercely cold winter months.
d. Temperatures are below freezing half of the year with
precipitation falling as snow in the winter months.
____ 20. Which of the following terms refers to organisms that feed only on producers?
a. detrivores c. primary consumers
b. decomposers d. secondary consumers

____ 21. Which of the following are types of consumers?

I. detrivores
II. herbivores
III. omnivores
IV. carnivores

a. II. and III. only c. II., III., and IV. only

b. III. and IV. only d. I., II., III., and IV.
 Use the following pyramid to answer the next two
questions.

____ 22. Which level of the pyramid shown above would most likely
contain the greatest biomass of primary consumers?
a. trophic level 1 c. trophic level 3
b. trophic level 2 d. trophic level 4

____ 23. Which of the following statements is correct about the energy
in the pyramid shown above?
a. The organisms at trophic level 1 contain the least amount of stored energy.
b. Stored energy increases from trophic level 3 to trophic level 4 of the pyramid.
c. Heat energy is absorbed from trophic level 1 to trophic level 2 of the pyramid.
d. Stored energy decreases from trophic level 2 to trophic level 3 of the pyramid.

____ 24. Assume that 100 percent of stored energy is available at the first trophic level. If only about 10 percent
of the energy available within one trophic level is transferred to organisms at the next trophic level, what
percentage of the Sun’s energy is stored in the tissues of tertiary consumers?
a. 0.1 percent c. 1 percent
b. 0.9 percent d. 10 percent

____ 25. Which of the following correctly labels the

two ecological pyramids for the forest
community shown below?

Ecological Ecological
Pyramid I Pyramid II
a. pyramid of pyramid of
energy biomass
b. pyramid of pyramid of
biomass energy
c. pyramid of pyramid of
numbers energy
d. pyramid of pyramid of
biomass numbers

____ 26. Which of the following matches the organisms with their appropriate classification in the environment?

Detrivore Decomposer
a. earthworms bread mould
b. bread mould bacteria
c. bacteria mushrooms
d. mushrooms earthworms

Use the following food chain to answer the next two questions.
grass  slug  mole  owl

____ 27. Which of the following would belong to the population with the greatest biomass in the food chain
shown above?
a. owl c. mole
b. slug d. grass
____ 28. If many owls were killed, what would likely happen to the slug population in the food chain shown
above?
a. It would increase. c. It would remain stable.
b. It would decrease. d. It would increase, then level off.

____ 29. Which sequence shows a correct pathway for the flow of energy in a food chain?
a. berries  bear  deer  hawk
b. algae  crab  krill  sea otter
c. grass  jackrabbit  weasel  owl
d. hawk  frog  grasshopper  bunchgrass

____ 30. Which of the following abiotic factors account for the fact that tropical rainforests have the highest
biomass of all the world’s biomes?

I. warm temperatures
II. high annual precipitation
III. high levels of cellular respiration

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

Use the following food web to answer the next

three questions.

____ 31. According to the food web shown, which of the

following matches the organisms with their
classification in the environment?

Producers Primary Secondary

Consumers Consumers
a. plants squirrels owls
b. plants rabbits mice
c. plants toads snakes
d. herbivorous insectivorous hawks
insects birds
____ 32. According to the food web shown above, which trophic level do the seed-eating birds occupy?
a. first trophic level c. third trophic level
b. second trophic level d. fourth trophic level

____ 33. Using the food web shown above, compare the amount of energy available to the fox if it eats a squirrel
with the amount of energy available to the fox if it eats an insectivorous bird.
a. The squirrel has less energy available to the fox than the insectivorous bird.
b. The squirrel has more energy available to the fox than the insectivorous bird.
c. Both the squirrel and the insectivorous bird have no energy available to the fox.
d. Both the squirrel and the insectivorous bird have the same amount of energy
available to the fox.
____ 34. What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
a. carbon c. nitrogen
b. oxygen d. hydrogen
____ 35. What is the role of nitrate in the nitrogen cycle?
a. It is taken up by animals to make DNA.
b. It is used by bacteria to make ammonium.
c. It is excreted by animals as a waste product.
d. It is taken up by plant roots and incorporated into plant proteins.

____ 36. Which of the following describes the roles of nitrogen-fixing bacteria and nitrifying bacteria in the
nitrogen cycle?

Nitrogen-Fixing Bacteria Nitrifying Bacteria

a. convert nitrogen gas into ammonium convert nitrate into nitrite
b. convert ammonium into nitrogen gas convert nitrite into nitrate
c. convert ammonium into nitrogen gas convert nitrite into ammonium
d. convert nitrogen gas into ammonium convert ammonium into nitrite

____ 37. Which of the following describes nitrification?

I. involves cyanobacteria in the ocean

II. converts nitrite (NO2-) into nitrate (NO3-)
III. converts ammonium (NH4+) into nitrite (NO2-)
a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only
b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 38. Which of the following describes denitrification?

I. occurs in root nodules of legumes

II. releases nitrogen gas into the atmosphere
III. converts nitrate (NO3-) into nitrogen gas (N2) by denitrifying bacteria

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 39. Where does nitrogen fixation occur?

I. in the ocean
II. in root nodules of legumes
III. in the atmosphere by lightning

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 40. What is the greatest carbon store?

a. coal
b. the atmosphere
c. intermediate and deep water
d. marine sediments and sedimentary rock

____ 41. Which of the following releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?
a. agriculture and eutrophication
b. cellular respiration and photosynthesis
c. coal deposits and motorized transportation
d. clearing land for urban expansion and decomposition of trees
____ 42. Which of the following are similarities between the carbon cycle and the nitrogen cycle?

I. The atmosphere is a major reservoir.

II. Plants are involved as transformers of the nutrients.
III. Decomposers are required to extract the nutrients from dead organisms.

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 43. Which of the following adds the greatest amount of phosphorus to the ocean?
a. weathering c. industrial waste
b. harvesting fish d. bird guano islands

____ 44. Which of the following would cause an increase in phosphorus levels in soil?

I. leaching into soil

II. applying fertilizer
III. mining phosphate rock

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 45. Which of the following descriptions apply to carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus?

I. nutrients that are recycled through decay

II. nutrients that cycle through plants and animals
III. nutrients that are stored in the atmosphere as gases

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 46. Which of the following would indicate biomagnification of PCBs?

a. a decrease in the population of a top carnivore
b. an increase in the reproductive rates of tertiary consumers
c. a decrease in the numbers of microscopic plants and algae
d. an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Use the following table to answer the next two questions.

Consumer Effects of Bioaccumulation on Ecosystems (ppm)

plankton 0.04
minnow 0.94
adult fish 2.07
heron 3.57
osprey 13.80
cormorant 26.40

____ 47. According to the table shown above, there is about 28 times the amount of DDT in cormorants than in
the minnows.
a. The statement is supported by the data in the table.
b. The statement is refuted by the data in the table.
c. The statement is neither supported nor refuted by the data in the table.
____ 48. The osprey is at a higher trophic level than the heron in the table shown above.
a. The statement is supported by the data in the table.
b. The statement is refuted by the data in the table.
c. The statement is neither supported nor refuted by the data in the table.

____ 77. Which of the following describes a climax community?

I. It changes rapidly.
II. It remains dominant for an indefinite period.
III. It is the final community that will exist in a mature, stable ecosystem.

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 78. Primary succession would occur in which of the following locations?
a. a neglected yard
b. abandoned farmland
c. a clear-cut area due to logging
d. an area covered with lava that has cooled after a volcanic eruption

____ 79. Which of the following usually occurs after a forest fire?
a. proliferation c. primary succession
b. adaptive radiation d. secondary succession

____ 80. Which of the following describes secondary succession?

a. It will occur very quickly, within months.
b. It will cause all plant and animal species in an ecosystem to die.
c. It will occur in an area where no previous plant community existed.
d. It will occur in an area with intact soil that a natural disaster has disturbed.

____ 81. Which of the following sequences represents the usual ecological succession of organisms?
a. spruce-fir forest  grasses  shrubs  lichens
b. lake  marsh  grasses  shrubs  oak-beech forest
c. grasses  spruce-fir forest  oak-beech forest  marsh  lake
d. bare rock  shrubs  grasses  birch trees  beech-maple forest

Use the following diagram to answer

the next four questions.

____ 82. What are the pioneer species shown in

the above diagram?

I. shrubs
II. lichens
III. mosses

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 83. What do the white spruce, balsam fir, and paper birch represent in the diagram shown above?
a. foreign species c. introduced species
b. pioneer species d. a climax community
____ 84. In which biome would the sequence of plant communities shown above most likely be found?
a. grassland c. temperate rainforest
b. boreal forest d. temperate deciduous forest

____ 85. Which of the following is suggested by the diagram shown above?

I. Each stage of the ecological process introduces new populations of organisms.

II. One established community is replaced by another until an unstable community
dominates the ecosystem.
III. The ecosystem progressed through a sequence of changes where the previous plant
community modified the environment, making it more suitable for the next plant
community.

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

Use the following diagram to answer the next two

questions.

____ 86. The pond shown above is in the first stage of secondary
succession.

a. The statement is supported by the diagram.

b. The statement is refuted by the diagram.
c. The statement is neither supported nor refuted by the diagram.

____ 87. In the pond shown above, which of the following changes would most likely lead to terrestrial
ecological succession?
a. a decrease in the availability of nitrogen levels in the pond
b. a decrease in the number of different organisms in the pond
c. an increase in the number of deciduous trees surrounding the pond
d. an increase in sediment, fallen leaves, and tree branches accumulating at the
bottom of the pond

Use the following diagram to answer the next two questions.

____ 88. The different finches on the Galapagos

Islands shown above have diversified
beak shapes that adapt them to various
food sources on the islands.

a. The statement is supported by the diagram.

b. The statement is refuted by the diagram.
c. The statement is neither supported nor refuted by the diagram.
____ 89. What does the diagram of the Galapagos finches shown above suggest?

I. All the different finches occupy the same niche.

II. All the different finches came from a common ancestor.
III. The Galapagos finches have evolved by adaptive radiation.

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 90. Which of the following could drive a species to extinction?

I. new predators
II. habitat destruction
III. competition among species for limited resources

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 91. Which of the following could cause a drought?

a. high winds c. low pressure and rising warm air
b. ecological succession d. high temperatures and little rainfall

____ 92. What term refers to the ability of an ecosystem to maintain ecological processes and biodiversity over
time?
a. resource use c. resource exploitation
b. sustainability d. habitat fragmentation

____ 93. Which of the following are results of massive deforestation?

I. soil erosion
II. increase in temperature
III. reduction in the number of plants and animals in an ecosystem

a. I. and II. only c. II. and III. only

b. I. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 113. What will happen when two oppositely charged balloons are brought close together?
a. They will move toward each other.
b. They will move away from each other.
c. They will move together, then apart.
d. They will be unaffected by each other.
____ 114. What must happen to an atom to become positively charged?
a. It must lose one or more electrons.
b. It must lose one or more protons.
c. It must gain one or more electrons.
d. It must gain one or more protons.

____ 115. What must happen to a positively charged object in order to become neutral?
a. It must lose one or more electrons.
b. It must lose one or more protons.
c. It must gain one or more electrons.
d. It must gain one or more protons.
____ 116. Which of the following is a semiconductor?
a. silicon
b. copper
c. pure water
d. salt water
____ 117. Which of the following is considered to be a dangerous example of static electricity?
a. light bulb
b. fabric softener sheets
c. laser printer
d. lightning
____ 118. Which of the following is true of protons?
a. negative charge; large mass compared to electrons
b. negative charge; small mass compared to neutrons
c. positive charge; small mass compared to neutrons
d. positive charge; large mass compared to electrons
____ 119. Which of the following can be described as a transfer of charge to produce a charged object?
a. charging by friction
b. charging by conduction
c. charging by induced charge separation
d. both (a) and (b)
____ 120. What is the name for the object used to prevent unwanted build-up of charge?
a. insulator
b. conductor
c. ground wire
d. semiconductor
____ 121. Which of the following is a good insulator?
a. rubber
b. gold
c. silicon
d. aluminum
____ 122. Which of the following describes a conductor?
a. electrons move freely
b. electrons do not move freely
c. protons move freely
d. protons do not move freely
____ 123. Which of the following describes the electrostatic force?
a. stronger when charges are far apart
b. stronger when charges are close together
c. depends only on distance between charges
d. depends only on the amount of charge
____ 124. Which of the following are units of charge?
a. coulombs
b. newtons
c. electrons
d. protons
____ 125. Which of the following does not allow electrons to move freely?
a. salt water
b. silver
c. iron
d. rubber
____ 126. What will happen when a charged balloon is touched by a person’s finger?
a. all of the charge on the balloon will move to the finger
b. charges will discharge to the air around the balloon
c. charges on the balloon where the finger touches will be neutralized
d. nothing
____ 127. What should one do to decrease static cling on clothes taken from the dryer?
a. spray the clothes with water
b. dry one clothing item at a time
c. dry similar fabric types in each load
d. nothing can be done to limit static cling
____ 128. What is the difference between charging by conduction and charging by induction?
a. charging by conduction requires one object to be charged
b. charging by induction requires a ground
c. charging be conduction requires two neutral objects
d. charging by induction involves conduction
____ 129. Which of the following materials would be used to ground a charged object?
a. plastic
b. oil
c. sand
d. copper
____ 130. Rabbit fur tends to lose electrons to an acetate strip when they are rubbed together. Which of the following will be
true when this happens?
a. the acetate will be positive; the fur will be positive
b. the acetate will be negative; the fur will be negative
c. the acetate will be positive; the fur will be negative
d. the acetate will be negative; the fur will be positive
____ 131. Plastic wrap becomes negatively charged when rubbed on fur. Which of the following is true?
a. the plastic wrap gains electrons; the fur loses electrons
b. the plastic wrap loses electrons; the fur gains electrons
c. the plastic wrap gains electrons and the fur gains electrons
d. the plastic wrap loses electrons; the fur loses electrons
____ 132. If wool has a greater tendency to lose electrons than ebonite, what will the charges on the wool and ebonite be
when rubbed together?
a. wool becomes positive; ebonite becomes negative
b. wool becomes positive; ebonite becomes positive
c. wool becomes negative; ebonite becomes negative
d. wool becomes negative; ebonite becomes positive
____ 133. Which of the following scales is used for measuring temperature?
I. Celsius
II. Kelvin
III. Fahrenheit
a. I. and II. only c. I. and III. only

b. II. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 134. What is temperature?

a. the total energy of all the particles in a solid, liquid, or gas
b. the measure of the average kinetic energy of all particles in a sample of matter
c. the movement of a fluid caused by differences in density
d. the transfer of thermal energy from an area of high thermal energy to an area of
low thermal energy
____ 135. Which of the following materials would have molecules with the greatest amount of kinetic energy?
a. a cup of snow c. a cup of rainwater
b. a cup of hot chocolate d. a cup of mud

____ 136. In which of the following does heat transfer by convection occur?

I. between a hot stove element and a frying pan

II. between warm and cold ocean water
III. between high and low altitudes of Earth’s atmosphere
IV. between ice cubes in an empty glass

a. I. and II. only c. I. and III. only

b. II. and III. only d. II. and IV. only

____ 137. What term describes the transfer of heat by direct contact between particles?
a. radiation c. convection
b. conduction d. insulation

____ 138. What term describes the transfer of heat by electromagnetic waves?
a. radiation c. convection
b. conduction d. insulation

____ 139. Why is conduction of thermal energy more likely in a solid than a gas?
a. The molecules in a gas are too close together.
b. Gases contain no thermal energy.
c. There are more solid materials than gases.
d. The molecules in a solid are closer together than in a gas.

____ 140. What is the main source of thermal energy at Earth’s surface?
a. volcanic eruptions c. air pollution
b. lightning strikes d. solar radiation

____ 141. What radiates heat?

a. ice cubes c. bicycle tires
b. baby diapers d. all of the above

____ 142. What characteristic divides Earth’s atmosphere into layers?

a. wind c. temperature
b. air pressure d. density

____ 143. In which atmospheric layer do humans live?

a. troposphere c. stratosphere
b. mesosphere d. thermosphere

Use the following graph of atmospheric pressure and

density to answer the next four questions.

____ 144. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
a. W c. Y
b. X d. Z
____ 145. What is the highest atmospheric layer in which humans can live?
a. W c. Y
b. X d. Z
____ 146. Which letter corresponds to the stratosphere?
a. W c. Y
b. X d. Z

____ 147. Which letter corresponds to the mesosphere?

a. W c. Y
b. X d. Z
____ 148. What is humidity?
a. the temperature of the air
b. a measure of how easily air can be heated
c. a measure of how quickly air can lose heat
d. the amount of moisture contained in the air

____ 149. Which of the following is used to measure electric potential difference?
a. ohmmeter
b. ammeter
c. energy meter
d. voltmeter
____ 150. Which of the following describes an electric circuit?
a. stationary charges
b. a continuous path for electricity to flow through
c. the process of building a charge through friction on the carpet
d. a battery connected by plastic to a light bulb
____ 151. Which of the following refers to more than one source of electrical energy connected together?
a. cell
b. battery
c. resistors in series
d. light bulbs in series
____ 152. Which of the following is represented by the longer of two parallel lines in the symbol for the energy source of a
circuit?
a. copper wire
b. resistor
c. positive terminal of a cell
d. negative terminal of a cell
____ 153. Which of the following is a series battery of two cells?
a.

b.

c.

d.
____ 154. Which of the following is a parallel battery of two cells?
a.

b.

c.

d.

____ 155. If each cell is 1.5 V, which of the following will provide the least voltage?
a.

b.

c.

d.

____ 156. What is the purpose of a parallel battery of several cells?

a. more voltage
b. more current
c. less current
d. less voltage
____ 157. What is voltage?
a. total energy contained in the battery
b. amount of energy per coulomb of charge
c. amount of charge
d. amount of charges flowing past a point per second
____ 158. What is current?
a. total energy contained in the battery
b. amount of energy flowing in a circuit
c. total amount of charge
d. amount of charges flowing past a point per second
____ 159. What is conventional current?
a. current in the opposite direction to electron flow
b. current in the direction of electron flow
c. flows from negative to positive in a circuit
d. static charge in a circuit
____ 160. Which of the following describes DC current?
a. charges flowing in both directions at the same time
b. discharging current
c. charges flowing in one direction only
d. charges flowing in one direction, then the other
____ 161. Which of the following shows resistors in series?
a.

b.

c.

d.

____ 162. Which of the following shows resistors in parallel?

a.

b.

c.

d.
____ 163. Which of the following is the equivalent of three 30  resistors in parallel?
a. 90 
b. 10 
c. 30 
d. 0.1 

____ 164. What is the equivalent resistance of the following circuit?

a. 30 
b. 0.6 
c. 1.67 
d. 10 
____ 165. What is the equivalent resistance of the following circuit?

a. 30 
b. 0.3 
c. 3.3 
d. 10 

____ 166. Which of the following describes AC voltage?

a. pushes charges in both directions at the same time
b. pushes charges in one direction only
c. discharging current
d. pushes charges in one direction then the other
____ 167. What is the purpose of a series battery of several cells?
a. more voltage
b. more current
c. less current
d. less voltage
____ 168. How can a 15 volt battery be made from 1.5 V cells?
a. 10 cells in series
b. 10 cells in parallel
c. 10 cells in series with 10 cells in parallel
d. none of the above
____ 169. Which of the following is used to measure current?
a. ohmmeter
b. ammeter
c. electric meter
d. voltmeter
____ 170. Which of the following is the unit for measuring electrical resistance?
a. ampere
b. volt
c. Coulomb
d. ohm

____ 171. What is the resistance represented by this graph?

a. 3 
b. 1.2 
c. 0.33 
d. 0.83 

____ 172. What does the slope of the above graph represent?
a. power
b. voltage
c. current
d. resistance

____ 173. How would you draw a graph that represents a higher resistance than that represented by the above graph?
a. start at a higher current value on the graph
b. start at a lower current value on the graph
c. make a steeper graph
d. make a graph that is less steep

____ 174. Which of the following best describes climate?

a. the condition of the atmosphere at a specific location at a particular time
b. the average conditions for an area over a period of 30 years or more
c. the weather conditions of a certain area on a specific date
d. the weather conditions for a location taken on the same date each year

____ 175. Global warming is expected to increase the rate at which glaciers and ice caps melt. Which of the
following would result from an increase in the amount of fresh water that would enter the ocean?

I. an increase in sea level

II. a decrease in ocean salinity (salt)
III. a change in ocean temperature
a. I. and II. only c. I. and III. only
b. II. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 176. What do paleoclimatologists study to determine details of past climates?

I. fossils
II. tree rings
III. sediments
a. I. and II. only c. I. and III. only
b. II. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 177. What is the shape of Earth’s orbit around the Sun?
a. circle c. elliptical
b. cylindrical d. cone-shaped

____ 178. Which of the following does not affect the path of surface currents in the ocean?
a. wind c. the shape of continents
b. Earth’s rotation d. the depth of the ocean
____ 179. Which of the following is not a carbon sink?
a. oceans c. sea organisms
b. forests d. volcanoes

____ 180. Which of the following is a carbon sink?

a. glaciers c. deserts
b. forests d. volcanoes

____ 181. Which of the following catastrophic events can affect Earth’s climate?

I. volcanic eruptions
II. meteor impacts
III. large earthquakes
a. I. and II. only c. I. and III. only
b. II. and III. only d. I., II., and III.

____ 207. A measure of the total amount of matter an object contains is called ____.
a. density c. volume
b. mass d. weight
____ 208. The first early astronomer to propose a sun-centered solar system was ____.
a. Galileo c. Copernicus
b. Newton d. Brahe
____ 209. What is the shape of a planet’s orbit?
a. elliptical c. irregular
b. circular d. parabolic
____ 210. Which scientist was the first to use the telescope in astronomy?
a. Newton c. Copernicus
b. Galileo d. Kepler
____ 211. Stars of which color have the highest surface temperature?
a. red c. yellow
b. orange d. blue
____ 212. The mass of a star can be determined by studying ____.
a. the wavelength of light emitted by the star
b. the color of the star
c. the distance between the star and Earth
d. binary star systems
____ 213. Stars of which color have the coolest surface temperature?
a. red c. yellow
b. orange d. blue
____ 214. Stellar distances are usually expressed in what units?
a. miles c. light-years
b. kilometers d. none of the above
____ 215. If star A is farther from Earth than star B, but both stars have the same absolute magnitude, what is true about
their apparent magnitude?
a. Both stars have the same apparent magnitude.
b. Star A has the greater apparent magnitude.
c. Star B has the greater apparent magnitude.
d. Apparent magnitude is not related to distance.
____ 216. The difference in the brightness of two stars with the same surface temperature is attributable to their ____.
a. densities c. ages
b. colors d. sizes
____ 217. A Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram shows the relationship between ____.
a. absolute magnitude and apparent magnitude
b. temperature and absolute magnitude
c. parallax and temperature
d. apparent magnitude and parallax
____ 218. About 90 percent of stars on the H-R diagram are ____.
a. supergiants c. white dwarfs
b. main-sequence stars d. black holes
____ 219. Which main-sequence stars are the most massive?
a. red c. yellow
b. orange d. blue
____ 220. Which force is most responsible for the formation of a star?
a. gravity c. interstellar force
b. nuclear force d. electromagnetic force
____ 221. Massive stars terminate in a brilliant explosion called a ____.
a. red giant c. neutron star
b. protostar d. supernova
____ 222. All stars, regardless of size, eventually ____.
a. turn into black dwarfs c. run out of fuel and collapse
b. explode d. become black holes
____ 223. Before being engulfed, matter that is pulled into a black hole should become very hot and emit ____.
a. infrared radiation c. atoms
b. hydrogen nuclei d. X-rays
____ 224. The sun is a ____.
a. black hole c. main-sequence star
b. black dwarf d. red giant
____ 225. Light cannot escape the intense gravitational pull of a ____.
a. black hole c. main-sequence star
b. black dwarf d. red giant
____ 226. Our galaxy is called the ____.
a. Local Group c. Andromeda
b. Orion d. Milky Way
____ 227. Omit
____ 228. Which of the following indicates that the universe is expanding?
a. red shift of distant galaxies
b. red shift of the galaxies in the Local Group
c. blue shift of distant galaxies
d. blue shift of the Milky Way
____ 229. Greater red shifts in the spectra of galaxies indicate ____.
a. faster speeds c. higher temperatures
b. slower speeds d. lower temperatures
____ 230. Which of the following equations is correct?
a. c.

b. d.

____ 231. Simplify:

a. c.
b. d.

____ 232. Determine the constant in the expansion of

a. -14 c. -8
b. 14 d. 8

____ 233. Determine the missing term for

a. -8x c. 2x
b. -2x d. 8x

____ 234. Simplify:

a. c.
b. d.

____ 235.

a. c.
b. d.

____ 236.
a. -6x c. 6x - 1
b. 6x d. 1 - 6x
____ 237. If x > y, then
a. x + 6 = y + 6 c. x + 6 > y + 6
b. x + 6 < y + 6 d. x - 6 < y - 6
____ 238.
a. 9 c. 7
b. -9 d. -7

____ 239.
a. c. 9

b. d.

____ 240. Solve for .

a. c.

b. d.
____ 241. If , then
a. c.

b. d.

____ 242. Solve

a. c.
b. d.
____ 243. The inequality is equivalent to
a. c.

b. d.

____ 244.
a. 3 c. 6
b. 4 d. 8

____ 245. If then p =

a. 0 c. 6
b. 4 d. 9

____ 246. If , then n =

a. 0 c. 9
b. 4 d. 12

Short Answer --- theres is no short answer on the practice exam …. :)

247. Determine the solution:

248. Determine three consecutive integers that total to 132.

249. Solve for x:

250. Graph
Scimatics Practice Final Exam June 2021 Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-1

2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-1
3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-1
4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-1, 3
5. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-1
6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-2, 8
7. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-1, 4
8. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: B1-3, 4
9. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: B1-6
12. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
13. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-8
15. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-8
16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-8
17. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-8
18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-2, 8
19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: B1-2, 8
20. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-6
21. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-6
22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: B1-6
25. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: B1-6
26. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
27. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
30. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: B1-6
31. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
32. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
33. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-6
34. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-7
35. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-7
36. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
37. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
38. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
39. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
40. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-7
41. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
42. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
43. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
44. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
45. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B1-7
46. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B2-1
 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B2-4
48. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B2-4

77. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B3-1

78. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B3-1
79. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B3-1
80. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B3-1
81. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
82. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B3-1
83. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B3-1
84. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
85. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
86. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
87. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
88. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
89. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
90. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-1
91. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: B3-2, B1-10
92. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B3-2
93. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: B1-10

113. ANS: A
114. ANS: A
115. ANS: C
116. ANS: A
117. ANS: D
118. ANS: D
119. ANS: D
120. ANS: C
121. ANS: A
122. ANS: A
123. ANS: B
124. ANS: A
125. ANS: D
126. ANS: C
127. ANS: C
128. ANS: B
129. ANS: D
130. ANS: D
131. ANS: A
132. ANS: A
133. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: D1-1
134. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: D1-1
135. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: D1-1
136. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D1-2
137. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D1-2
138. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D1-2
139. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D1-2
140. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D1-3
141. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D1-3
142. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D2-1
143. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy LOC: D2-1
144. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: D2-1
145. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D2-1
146. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D2-1
147. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D2-1
148. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D2-1
149. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.3
150. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.1
151. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.1
152. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.1
153. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.1
154. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.1
155. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.3
156. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.3
157. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.3
158. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.3
159. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.2
160. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.2
161. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.2
162. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.2
163. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.5
164. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.5
165. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.5
166. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.2
167. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.3
168. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.3
169. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.2
170. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.4
171. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.4
172. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: K OBJ: 10.4
173. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: U/A OBJ: 10.4
174. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D3-1
175. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult LOC: D3-2
176. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D3-1
177. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D3-1
178. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D3-1
179. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D3-1
180. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D3-1
181. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Average LOC: D3-1

207. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 620

208. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 617
209. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 618
210. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 619
211. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 701
212. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 701
213. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 701
214. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 702
215. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 703
216. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 704
217. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 704
218. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 704
219. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 704
220. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 708
221. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 711
222. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 710
223. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 714
224. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 710
225. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 714
226. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 715
227. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 717
228. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 719
229. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 719
230. ANS: C PTS: 1
231. ANS: A PTS: 1
232. ANS: B PTS: 1
233. ANS: A PTS: 1
234. ANS: C PTS: 1
235. ANS: B PTS: 1
236. ANS: D PTS: 1
237. ANS: C PTS: 1
238. ANS: A PTS: 1
239. ANS: A PTS: 1
240. ANS: B PTS: 1
241. ANS: D PTS: 1
242. ANS: D PTS: 1 247. ANS: 4
243. ANS: C PTS: 1 248. ANS: 43, 44, 45
244. ANS: A PTS: 1 249. ANS: 10
245. ANS: D PTS: 1 250. ANS:
246. ANS: B PTS: 1