CPC Practice Exam A

Question 1
46 year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant margins anteriorly on the right side of her neck.
A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out and a 15 blade scalpel was used for full excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure was
performed after the removal. The specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the
CPT® code(s) for this procedure?

A. 11626
B. 11626, 12004-51
C. 11626, 12044-51
D. 11626, 13132-51, 13133
Question 2
30 year-old female is having 15 sq cm debridement performed on an infected ulcer with eschar on the right foot. Using
sharp dissection, the ulcer was debrided all the way to down to the bone of the foot. The bone had to be minimally
trimmed because of a sharp point at the end of the metatarsal. After debriding the area, there was minimal bleeding
because of very poor circulation of the foot. It seems that the toes next to the ulcer may have some involvement and
cultures were taken. The area was dressed with sterile saline and dressings and then wrapped. What CPT® code should
be reported?

A. 11043
B. 11012
C. 11044
D. 11042
Question 3
64 year-old female who has multiple sclerosis fell from her walker and landed on a glass table. She lacerated her
forehead, cheek and chin and the total length of these lacerations was 6 cm. Her right arm and left leg had deep cuts
measuring 5 cm on each extremity. Her right hand and right foot had a total of 3 cm lacerations. The ED physician
repaired the lacerations as follows: The forehead, cheek, and chin had debridement and cleaning of glass debris with the
lacerations being closed with one layer closure, 6-0 Prolene sutures. The arm and leg were repaired by layered closure,
6-0 Vicryl subcutaneous sutures and Prolene sutures on the skin. The hand and foot were closed with adhesive strips.
Select the appropriate procedure codes for this visit.

A. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59, 11042-51

B. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002-59
C. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 11042-51
D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59
Question 4
52 year-old female has a mass growing on her right flank for several years. It has finally gotten significantly larger and is
beginning to bother her. She is brought to the Operating Room for definitive excision. An incision was made directly
overlying the mass. The mass was down into the subcutaneous tissue and the surgeon encountered a well encapsulated
lipoma approximately 4 centimeters. This was excised primarily bluntly with a few attachments divided with electrocautery.
What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

A. 21932, D17.39
B. 21935, D17.1
C. 21931, D17.1
 D. 21925, D17.9

Question 5
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right scaphoid fracture. TYPE OF PROCEDURE: Open reduction and internal fixation of
right scaphoid fracture. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought to the operating room; anesthesia
having been administered. The right upper extremity was prepped and draped in a sterile manner. The limb was elevated,
exsanguinated, and a pneumatic arm tourniquet was elevated. An incision was made over the dorsal radial aspect of the
right wrist. Skin flaps were elevated. Cutaneous nerve branches were identified and very gently retracted. The interval
between the second and third dorsal compartment tendons was identified and entered. The respective tendons were
retracted. A dorsal capsulotomy incision was made, and the fracture was visualized. There did not appear to be any type
of significant defect at the fracture site. A 0.045 Kirschner wire was then used as a guidewire, extending from the proximal
pole of the scaphoid distal ward. The guidewire was positioned appropriately and then measured. A 25-mm Acutrak® drill
bit was drilled to 25 mm. A 22.5-mm screw was selected and inserted and rigid internal fixation was accomplished in this
fashion. This was visualized under the OEC imaging device in multiple projections. The wound was irrigated and closed in
layers. Sterile dressings were then applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well and left the operating room in stable
condition. What CPT® code is reported for this procedure?

A. 25628-RT
B. 25624-RT
C. 25645-RT
D. 25651-RT
Question 6
An infant with genu valgum is brought to the operating room to have a bilateral medial distal femur hemiepiphysiodesis
done. On each knee, the C-arm was used to localize the growth plate. With the growth plate localized, an incision was
made medially on both sides. This was taken down to the fascia, which was opened. The periosteum was not opened.
The Orthofix® figure-of-eight plate was placed and checked with X-ray. We then irrigated and closed the medial fascia
with 0 Vicryl suture. The skin was closed with 2-0 Vicryl and 3-0 Monocryl®. What procedure code is reported?

A. 27470-50
B. 27475-50
C. 27477-50
D. 27485-50
Question 7
The patient is a 67 year-old gentleman with metastatic colon cancer recently operated on for a brain metastasis, now for
placement of an Infuse-A-Port for continued chemotherapy. The left subclavian vein was located with a needle and a
guide wire placed. This was confirmed to be in the proper position fluoroscopically. A transverse incision was made just
inferior to this and a subcutaneous pocket created just inferior to this. After tunneling, the introducer was placed over the
guide wire and the power port line was placed with the introducer and the introducer was peeled away. The tip was placed
in the appropriate position under fluoroscopic guidance and the catheter trimmed to the appropriate length and secured to
the power port device. The locking mechanism was fully engaged. The port was placed in the subcutaneous pocket and
everything sat very nicely fluoroscopically. It was secured to the underlying soft tissue with 2-0 silk stitch. What
CPT® code(s) is (are) reported for this procedure?

A. 36556, 77001-26
B. 36558
C. 36561, 77001-26
D. 36571
Question 8
A CT scan identified moderate-sized right pleural effusion in a 50 year-old male. This was estimated to be 800 cc in size
and had an appearance of fluid on the CT Scan. A needle is used to puncture through the chest tissues and enter the
pleural cavity to insert a guidewire under ultrasound guidance. A pigtail catheter is then inserted at the length of the
guidewire and secured by stitches. The catheter will remain in the chest and is connected to drainage system to drain the
accumulated fluid. The CPT® code is:

A. 32557
B. 32555
C. 32556
D. 32550
Question 9
The patient is a 59 year-old white male who underwent carotid endarterectomy for symptomatic left carotid stenosis a year
ago. A carotid CT angiogram showed a recurrent 90% left internal carotid artery stenosis extending into the common
carotid artery. He is taken to the operating room for re-do left carotid endarterectomy. The left neck was prepped and the
previous incision was carefully reopened. Using sharp dissection, the common carotid artery and its branches were
dissected free. The patient was systematically heparinized and after a few minutes, clamps were applied to the common
carotid artery and its branches. A longitudinal arteriotomy was carried out with findings of extensive layering of intimal
hyperplasia with no evidence of recurrent atherosclerosis. A silastic balloon-tip shunt was inserted first proximally and
then distally, with restoration of flow. Several layers of intima were removed and the endarterectomized surfaces irrigated
with heparinized saline. An oval Dacron patch was then sewn into place with running 6-0 Prolene. Which CPT® code(s)
is/are reported?

A. 35301
B. 35301, 35390
C. 35302
D. 35311, 35390
Question 10
A 52 year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for chronic cholecystitis for which a laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be
performed. A transverse infraumbilical incision was made sharply dissecting to the subcutaneous tissue down to the
fascia using access under direct vision with a Vesi-Port and a scope was placed into the abdomen. Three other ports
were inserted under direct vision. The fundus of the gallbladder was grasped through the lateral port, where multiple
adhesions to the gallbladder were taken down sharply and bluntly: The gallbladder appeared chronically inflamed.
Dissection was carried out to the right of this identifying a small cystic duct and artery, was clipped twice proximally, once
distally and transected. The gallbladder was then taken down from the bed using electrocautery, delivering it into an endo-
bag and removing it from the abdominal cavity with the umbilical port. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

A. 47564, K81.2
B. 47562, K81.1
C. 47610, K81.2
D. 47600, K81.1
Question 11
A 70 year-old female who has a history of symptomatic ventral hernia was advised to undergo laparoscopic evaluation
and repair. An incision was made in the epigastrium and dissection was carried down through the subcutaneous tissue.
Two 5-mm trocars were placed, one in the left upper quadrant and one in the left lower quadrant and the laparoscope was
inserted. Dissection was carried down to the area of the hernia where a small defect was clearly visualized. There was
some omentum, which was adhered to the hernia and this was delivered back into the peritoneal cavity. The mesh was
tacked on to cover the defect. What procedure code(s) is (are) reported?

A. 49560, 49568
B. 49652
C. 49653
D. 49652, 49568
Question 12
The patient is a 50 year-old gentleman who presented to the emergency room with signs and symptoms of acute
appendicitis with possible rupture. He has been brought to the operating room. An infraumbilical incision was made which
a 5-mm VersaStep™ trocar was inserted. A 5-mm 0- degree laparoscope was introduced. A second 5-mm trocar was
placed suprapubically and a 12-mm trocar in the left lower quadrant. A window was made in the mesoappendix using
blunt dissection with no rupture noted. The base of the appendix was then divided and placed into an Endo-catch bag and
the 12-mm defect was brought out. Select the appropriate code for this procedure:

A. 44970
B. 44950
C. 44960
D. 44979
Question 13
45 year-old male is going to donate his kidney to his son. Operating ports where placed in standard position and the
scope was inserted. Dissection of the renal artery and vein was performed isolating the kidney. The kidney was
suspended only by the renal artery and vein as well as the ureter. A stapler was used to divide the vein just above the
aorta and three clips across the ureter, extracting the kidney. This was placed on ice and sent to the recipient room. The
correct CPT® code is:

A. 50543
B. 50547
C. 50300
D. 50320
Question 14
67 year-old female having urinary incontinence with intrinsic sphincter deficiency is having a cystoscopy performed with a
placement of a sling. An incision was made over the mid urethra dissected laterally to urethropelvic ligament. Cystoscopy
revealed no penetration of the bladder. The edges of the sling were weaved around the junction of the urethra and
brought up to the suprapubic incision. A hemostat was then placed between the sling and the urethra, ensuring no
tension. What CPT® code(s) is (are) reported?

A. 57288
B. 57287
C. 57288, 52000-51
D. 51992, 52000-51
Question 15
16 day-old male baby is in the OR for a repeat circumcision due to redundant foreskin that caused circumferential scarring
from the original circumcision. Anesthetic was injected and an incision was made at base of the foreskin. Foreskin was
pulled back and the excess foreskin was taken off and the two raw skin surfaces were sutured together to create a
circumferential anastomosis. Select the appropriate code for this surgery:

A. 54150
B. 54160
C. 54163
D. 54164
Question 16
5 year-old female has a history of post void dribbling. She was found to have extensive labial adhesions, which have been
unresponsive to topical medical management. She is brought to the operating suite in a supine position. Under general
anesthesia the labia majora is retracted and the granulating chronic adhesions were incised midline both anteriorly and
posteriorly. The adherent granulation tissue was excised on either side. What code should be used for this procedure?
 A. 58660
B. 58740
C. 57061
D. 56441
Question 17
The patient is a 64 year-old female who is undergoing a removal of a previously implanted Medtronic pain pump and
catheter due to a possible infection. The back was incised; dissection was carried down to the previously placed catheter.
There was evidence of infection with some fat necrosis in which cultures were taken. The intrathecal portion of the
catheter was removed. Next the pump pocket was incised and the pump was dissected from the anterior fascia. A 7-mm
Blake drain was placed in the pump pocket through a stab incision and secured to the skin with interrupted Prolene. The
pump pocket was copiously irrigated with saline and closed in two layers. What are the CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes for
this procedure?

A. 62365, 62350-51, T85.898A, Z46.2

B. 62360, 62355-51, T85.79XA
C. 62365, 62355-51, T85.79XA
D. 36590, I97.42, T85.898A
Question 18
The patient is a 73 year-old gentleman who was noted to have progressive gait instability over the past several months.
Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrated a ventriculomegaly. It was recommended that the patient proceed forward
with right frontal ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement with Codman® programmable valve. What is the correct code for
this surgery?

A. 62220
B. 62223
C. 62190
D. 62192
Question 19
What is the CPT® code for the decompression of the median nerve found in the space in the wrist on the palmar side?

A. 64704
B. 64713
C. 64721
D. 64719
Question 20
2 year-old Hispanic male has a chalazion on both upper and lower lid of the right eye. He was placed under general
anesthesia. With a #11 blade the chalazion was incised and a small curette was then used to retrieve any granulomatous
material on both lids. What CPT® code should be used for this procedure?

A. 67801
B. 67805
C. 67800
D. 67808
Question 21
80 year-old patient is returning to the gynecologist’s office for pessary cleaning. Patient offers no complaints. The nurse
removes and cleans the pessary, vagina is swabbed with betadine, and pessary replaced. For F/U in 4 months. What
CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this service?
 A. 99201, Z46.89
B. 99211, Z46.89
C. 99202, Z46.9
D. 99212, Z46.9
Question 22
Patient was in the ER complaining of constipation with nausea and vomiting when taking Zovirax for his herpes zoster and
Percocet for pain. His primary care physician came to the ER and admitted him to the hospital for intravenous therapy and
management of this problem. His physician documented a detailed history, comprehensive examination and a medical
decision making of moderate complexity. Which E/M service is reported?

A. 99285
B. 99284
C. 99221
D. 99222
Question 23
20 day-old infant was seen in the ER by the neonatologist admitting the baby to NICU for cyanosis and rapid breathing.
The neonatologist performed intubation, ventilation management and a complete echocardiogram in the NICU and
provided a report for the echocardiography which did indicate congenital heart disease. Select the correct codes for the
physician service.

A. 99468-25, 93303-26
B. 99471-25, 31500, 94002, 93303-26
C. 99460-25, 31500, 94002, 93303-26
D. 99291-25, 93303-26
Question 24
A 42 year-old with renal pelvis cancer receives general anesthesia for a laparoscopic radical nephrectomy. The patient
has controlled type 2 diabetes otherwise no other co-morbidities. What is the correct CPT® and ICD-10-CM code for the
anesthesia services?

A. 00860-P1, C64.9, E11.9

B. 00840-P3, C65.9, E11.9
C. 00862-P2, C65.9, E11.9
D. 00868-P2, C79.02, E11.9
Question 25
A healthy 32 year-old with a closed distal radius fracture received monitored anesthesia care for an ORIF of the distal
radius. What is the code for the anesthesia service?

A. 01830-P1
B. 01860-QS-P1
C. 01830-QS-P1
D. 01860-QS-G9-P1
Question 26
A 10 month-old child is taken to the operating room for removal of a laryngeal mass. What is (are) the appropriate
anesthesia code(s) to report?

A. 00320
 B. 00326
C. 00320, 99100
D. 00326, 99100
Question 27
A catheter is placed in the left common femoral artery which was directed into the right the external iliac (antegrade). Dye
was injected and a right lower extremity angiogram was performed which revealed patency of the common femoral and
profundafemoris. The catheter was then manipulated into the superficial femoral artery (retrograde) in which a lower
extremity angiogram was performed which revealed occlusion from the popliteal to the tibioperoneal artery. What are the
procedure codes that describe this procedure?

A. 36217, 75736-26
B. 36247, 75716-26
C. 36217, 75756-26
D. 36247, 75710-26
Question 28
56 year-old female is having a bilateral mammogram with computer aid detection conducted as a screening because the
patient has a family history of breast cancer. She does not presently have signs or symptoms of breast disease. What
radiological services are reported?

A. 77065 x 2
B. 77065, 77066
C. 77067
D. 77066
Question 29
63 year-old patient with bilateral ureteral obstruction presents to an outpatient facility for placement of a right and left
ureteral stent along with an interpretation of a retrograde pyelogram. What codes should be reported?

A. 52332, 74425
B. 52332-50, 74420-26
C. 52005, 74420
D. 52005-50, 74425-26
Question 30
Patient is coming in for a pathological examination for ischemia in the left leg. The first specimen is 1.5 cm of a single
portion of arterial plaque taken from the left common femoral artery. The second specimen is 8.5 x 2.7 cm across x 1.5 cm
in thickness of a cutaneous ulceration with fibropurulent material on the left leg. What surgical pathology codes should be
reported for the pathologist?

A. 88304-26, 88302-26
B. 88305-26, 88304-26
C. 88307-26, 88305-26
D. 88309-26, 88307-26
Question 31
During a craniectomy the surgeon asked for a consult and sent a frozen section of a large piece of tumor and sent it to
pathology. The pathologist received a rubbery pinkish tan tissue measuring in aggregate 3 x 0.8 x 0.8 cm. The entire
specimen is submitted in one block and also a gross and microscopic examination was performed on the tissue. The
frozen section and the pathology report are sent back to the surgeon indicating that the tumor was a medulloblastoma.
What CPT® code(s) will the pathologist report?
 A. 80500
B. 88331-26, 88307-26
C. 80502
D. 88331-26, 88332-26, 88304-26
Question 32
Physician orders a basic (80047) and comprehensive metabolic (80053) panels. Select the code(s) on how this is
reported.

A. 80053, 80047
B. 80053
C. 80047, 82040, 82247, 82310, 84075, 84155, 84460, 84450
D. 80053, 82330
Question 33
A 4 year-old is getting over his cold and will be getting three immunizations in the pediatrician’s office by the nurse. The
first vaccination administered is the Polio vaccine intramuscularly. The next vaccination is the live influenza (LAIV3)
administered in the nose. The last vaccination is the Varicella (live) by subcutaneous route. What CPT® codes are
reported for the administration and vaccines?

A. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 2

B. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90460, 90461 x 1
C. 90713, 90660, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90474
D. 90713, 90658, 90716, 90471, 90472, 90473
Question 34
A patient with chronic renal failure is in the hospital being evaluated by his endocrinologist after just placing a catheter into
the peritoneal cavity for dialysis. The physician is evaluating the dwell time and running fluid out of the cavity to make sure
the volume of dialysate and the concentration of electrolytes and glucose are correctly prescribed for this patient. What
code should be reported for this service?

A. 90935
B. 90937
C. 90947
D. 90945
Question 35
An established patient had a comprehensive exam in which she has been diagnosed with dry eye syndrome in both eyes.
The ophthalmologist measures the cornea for placement of the soft contact lens for treatment of this syndrome. What
codes are reported by the ophthalmologist?

A. 92014-25, 92071-50
B. 99214-25, 92072-50
C. 92014-25, 92325-50
D. 92014-25, 92310-50
Question 36
A patient who is a singer has been hoarse for a few months following an upper respiratory infection. She is in a voice
laboratory to have a laryngeal function study performed by an otolaryngologist. She starts off with the acoustic testing first.
Before she moves on to the aerodynamic testing she complains of throat pain and is rescheduled to come back to have
the other test performed. What CPT® code is reported?
 A. 92520
B. 92700
C. 92520-52
D. 92614-52
Question 37
What is the difference between entropion and ectropion?

A. Entropion is the inward turning of the eyelid and ectropion is the outward turning of the eyelid.
B. Entropion is facial droop and ectropion is a facial spasm.
C. Entropion is the outward turning of the hands and ectropion is the inward turning of the hands.
D. Entropion inward turning of the feet and ectropion is the outward turning of the feet due to muscle
disorder.
Question 38
What is the full CPT® code description for 00846?

A. Anesthesia for intraperitoneal procedures in lower abdomen including laparoscopy; radical hysterectomy
B. Radical hysterectomy
C. Anesthesia for intraperitoneal procedures in lower abdomen including laparoscopy; not otherwise
specified radical hysterectomy
D. Radical hysterectomy not otherwise specified
Question 39
Ventral, umbilical, spigelian and incisional are types of:

A. Surgical approaches
B. Hernias
C. Organs found in the digestive system
D. Cardiac catheterizations
Question 40
Fracturing the acetabulum involves what area?

A. Skull
B. Shoulder
C. Pelvis
D. Leg
Question 41
When a patient is having a tenotomy performed on the abductor hallucis muscle, where is this muscle located?

A. Foot
B. Upper Arm
C. Upper Leg
D. Hand
Question 42
44 year-old had a history of adenocarcinoma of the cervix on a conization in March 20XX who has been followed with
twice-yearly endocervical curettages and Pap smears that were all negative for two years, per the recommendation of a
GYN oncologist. Her Pap smear results from the last visit noted atypical glandular cells. In light of this, she underwent a
colposcopy and the biopsy of the normal-appearing cervix on colposcopy was benign. The endocervical curettage was
benign endocervical glands, and the endometrial sampling was benign endometrium. In light of the fact that she had had
previous atypical glandular cells that led to diagnosis of adenocarcinoma and the concerns that this may have recurred,
she had been recommended for a cone biopsy and fractional dilatation and curettage, which she is undergoing today.
What ICD-10-CM code(s) should be reported?

A. R87.619, C53.9
B. C55
C. R87.619, Z85.41
D. Z12.4, Z85.41
Question 43
Patient comes into see her primary care physician for a productive cough and shortness of breath. The physician takes a
chest X-ray which indicates the patient has double pneumonia. Select the ICD-10-CM code(s) for this visit.

A. J18.9, R05, R06.2

B. R05, R06.2, J18.9
C. J18.9
D. J15.9
Question 44
What is the correct way to code a patient having bradycardia due to Demerol that was correctly prescribed and properly
administered?

A. T40.2X1A, R00.1
B. T40.2X3A, R00.1
C. R00.1, T40.2X5A
D. R00.1, T40.2X2A
Question 45
Which statement is TRUE when reporting pregnancy codes (O00-O9A):

A. These codes can be used on the maternal and baby records.

B. These codes have sequencing priority over codes from other chapters.
C. Code Z33.1 should always be reported with these codes.
D. The seventh character assigned to these codes only indicate a complication during the pregnancy.
Question 46
66 year-old Medicare patient, who has a history of ulcerative colitis, presents for a colorectal cancer screening. The
screening is performed via barium enema. What HCPCS Level II code is reported for this procedure?

A. G0104
B. G0105
C. G0120
D. G0121
Question 47
What is PHI?

A. Physician-health care interchange

 B. Private health insurance
C. Protected health information
D. Provider identified incident-to
Question 48
What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package?

A. Typical postoperative follow-up care

B. One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the procedure
C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial procedure
D. Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area
Question 49
Which of the following is TRUE about reporting codes for diabetes mellitus?

A. If the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical record the default type is E11.- Type 2
diabetes mellitus.
B. When a patient uses insulin, Type 1 is always reported.
C. The age of the patient is a sole determining factor to report Type 1.
D. When assigning codes for diabetes and its associated condition(s), the code(s) from category E08-E13
are not reported as a primary code.
Question 50
Which statement is TRUE for reporting external cause codes of morbidity (V00-Y99)?

A. All external cause codes do not require a seventh character.

B. Only report one external cause code to fully explain each cause.
C. Report code Y92.9 if the place of occurrence is not stated.
D. External cause codes should never be sequenced as a first-listed or primary code