Jessie 23B

1. Three types of branched cells in the epidermis:

a) Melanocyte, Langerhans cell, Merkel cell
b) Langerhans cell, Merkel cell, Mast cells
c) Merkel cell, Mast cells, Histiocytes
d) Collagen fibers, Melanocyte, Merkel cell

2. During the winter months, a 65-year-old man presents with livedo reticularis and purple fingertips. Other
symptoms include arthralgia
and weakness. Renal impairment is present on
laboratory testing. Which of the following is
the most likely diagnosis?

a) cold agglutinin disease

B)Henoch-Schönlein purpura
C) antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
D) cryoglobulinemia
E) cholesterol embolic disease

3. Female patient with scaly plaques on hands & feet. Nose & ear Ask about associated neoplasm. (Bazex
syndrome) :
a. Lung
b. Hepatic
c. Nasopharynx
d. Thyroid

4. Macule is:
a) An elevated solid lesion up to 0.5 cm in diameter;
b) A circumscribed, flat discoloration that may be brown, blue, red, or hypopigmented
c) A circumscribed, elevated, solid lesion more than 0.5 cm in diameter;
d) A circumscribed collection of leukocytes and free fluid that varies in size

5. Secondary skin lesions:

a) Wheal, scales, vesicle
b) Bulla, crust, erosion
c) Ulcer, fissure, atropy
d) Scar, pustule, nodule

6. Morphology of acute Eczema:

a) Redness, scaling, fissuring
b) Vesicles, blisters, intense redness
c) Slight to moderate itch, pain, stinging, burning
d) Thickened skin, skin lines accentuated

7. Predictive Factors for Hand Eczema:

a) Female gender
b) Scratching
c) Exposure to cold
d) Solar radiation

8. A very thick, chronic form of eczema that occurs on the palms and occasionally the soles is seen almost
exclusively in men:
a) Asteatotic eczema
b) Hyperkeratotic Eczema
c) Nummular Eczema
d) Fingertip Eczema

9. The typical lesion of Nummular eczema:

a) dry, cracked, and scaly
b) coin-shaped red plaque that averages 1 to 5 cm in diameter
c) dry and scaly and show accentuation of the skin lines
d) erythema, scaling, and lichenification

10. The eruption of Asteatotic eczema most commonly seen on the:

a) anterolateral aspects of the lower legs
b) any skin area
c) palms and soles
d) soles, webs, and sides of the feet

11. Mechanism of response of Irritant Contact Dermatitis:

a) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
b) Nonimmunologic, a physical and chemical alteration of epidermis
c) Lymphedema may complicate lipodermatosclerosis syndrome because of involvement of lymphatic
channels by fibrotic process
d) Transmission of hypertension to saphenous system

12. Frequent symptoms of Venous Leg Ulcers:

a) Loss of hair, shiny, atrophic skin, dystrophic toenails, cold feet
b) Claudication, resting ischemic pain
c) Foot numbness, burning, paresthesia
d) Pain, odor, and copious drainage from wound

13. Biologic drug of melanoma which work on BRAF V600E:

a. Vemurafenib if not choose trametinib
b. Ipilimumab
c. Nivolumab
d. Cobimetinib

14. Picture of brown lesion on the back for 6 weeks, what next
a. Biopsy
b. surgical removal
c. Cryo
d. antifungal

15. True phase of Allergic contact dermatitis:

a) Elicitation Phase
b) Convalescence Phase
c) Active Phase
d) Manifestation Phase

16. Duration of Childhood Pgase of AD:

a) 2 to 10 years
b) 3 to 12 years
c) 2 to 12 years
d) 2 to 11 years

17. Macule black brown grey invasion 0.8 and irregular margin treatment:
a. Shave excision
b. Incisional biopsy
c. Moh’s surgery
d. Excisional biopsy

18. A patient presents with recurrent crops of papules that ulcerate and then spontaneously heal. What
immunohistochemical stain would be helpful in making the diagnosis? (Lymphomatoid papulosis)
a. CD 4
b. CD 20
c. CD 30
d. CD 56

19. Where are scabies mites found?

a) Throughout the skin layers
b) Stratum Corneum
c) Sub-epidermal
d) Hair Follicles
20. A 12-year-old girl presented with an asymptomatic red plaque on her left cheek for 1 year. She denied
any drug intake, allergy, or trauma history. A dermatological examination revealed an erythematous,
infiltrated papule, about 4 cm in diameter, on her left cheek. No lymphadenopathy or visceromegalies were
found. Based on the case description and the photograph, what is your diagnosis?

a. Infectious granuloma
b. Reticulohistiocytosis
c. Pseudolymphoma
d. Cutaneous Rosai-Dorfman disease

21. A cicatrix is:

a) Comedone
b) Benign
c) A Lesion
d) A scar

22. Definition of wheal:

a) circumscribed, erythematous or white, nonpitting, edematous, usually pruritic plaque
b) small (1 to 2 mm), rough, follicular papules or pustules may appear at any age and are common in
young children
c) a disorder of keratinization characterized by the development of dry, rectangular scales
d) A common appearance in children with erythema and scaling confined to the cheeks and sparing the
perioral and paranasal areas

23. Pityriasis Alba means:

a) hypopigmented, slightly elevated, fine, scaling plaque with indistinct borders
b) the florid form with a red halo surrounding the follicle can persist in adults
c) small, rough follicular papules or pustules occur most often on the posterolateral aspects of the upper
arms and anterior thighs
d) red, inflammatory, and pustular and resemble bacterial folliculitis, particularly on the thighs

24. Primary Cutaneous Follicle Center Lymphoma BCL-6(+) and BCL-2(−) treatment:
a. Radiotherapy
b. Wide surgical excision
c. Mohs surgery
d. Rituximab

25. Tumor on nose seems keratoacanthoma or sebaceous carcinoma, gene mutation:

a) Mismatch repair gene 1
b) Mismatch repair gene 2
c) Mismatch repair gene 3
d) Mismatch repair gene 4

26. Who is responsible to tell patient about medical error?

a. Manager
b. Lawyer
c. Doctor
d. Patient

27. A 7-year-old Chinese male presented refractory erythroderma and recurrent respiratory tract infection
with intermittent epilepsy for more than 15 years.

Based on the case description and the photograph, what is your diagnosis?

1. Atopic dermatitis
2. Psoriatic erythroderma
3. Netherton Syndrome
4. Omenn syndrome
5. Hyper IgE syndrome
28. What is the uncharacteristic localization of lichen planus:
a) Torso
b) the scalp
c) the flexion surface of the forearms
d) anterior surface of lower legs

29. Purple papule followed by hyperpigmentation on resolution is seen in:

a) lichen planus
b) addison's disease
c) diabetes meliitus
d) hypothyroidism

30. What organs and tissues, except the skin, can be affected by lichen planus?
a) mucous membranes, nails
b) cardiovascular system, mucous membranes
c) hair, gastrointestinal tract
d) nails, musculoskeletal system

31. The best indication of giving corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is:

a) psoriasis
b) pemphigus
c) lichen planus
d) pityriasis rosea

32. Wickham striae is classically seen in:

a) lichen nitidus
b) lichenoid eruption
c) lichen striatus
d) lichen planus

33. The characteristic histological features of lichen planus are:

a) hyperkeratosis, spongiosis, papillomatosis
b) parakeratosis, atrophy, lymphoid infiltration of the dermis
c) acanthosis, papillomatosis, parakeratosis
d) granulosis, hyperkeratosis, lymphoid infiltration of the dermis

34. An 18-year-old Chinese boy presented with generalized hyperpigmented and hypopigmented macules
since born.

Based on the case description and the photographs, what’s your diagnosis?

1. Dyschromatosis symmetrica hereditaria

2. Westerhof disorder
3. Idiopathic guttate hypomelanosis
4. Dyschromatosis universalis hereditaria

35. What medications can cause an allergic reaction like hives?

a) ascorbic acid, halogen preparations
b) aspirin, penicillin
c) prednisolone, calcium gluconate
d) diphenhydramine, sulfonamides

36. Which line lists the diseases characteristic of atopy?

a) neurodermatitis, bronchial asthma, true eczema
b) contact dermatitis, urticaria, conjunctivitis
c) urticaria, neurodermatitis, bronchial asthma
d) rhinitis, seborrheic eczema, conjunctivitis

37. What are the characteristic clinical manifestations of atopic dermatitis?

a) severe itching, lichenification, vesiculation, and weeping
b) nodular rash, vesiculation and weeping, severe itching
c) lichenification, nodular rash, white dermographism
d) white dermographism, vesiculation and weeping, severe itching

38. What are the clinical manifestations of urticaria?

a) itching, blisters, scratching
b) blisters, nodules, itching
c) hemorrhagic spots, seropapules, bronchospasm
d) itching, spotted rash, scratching

39. What are the therapeutic measures for atopic dermatitis?

a) exclusion of food allergen, the use of keratolytic ointments, psychotropic drugs
b) the use of corticosteroid ointments, antihistamines, diuretics
c) the use of corticosteroids systemically, the use of corticosteroid ointments, antihistamines
d) the use of antihistamines, calcium preparations, corticosteroid ointments

40. Patient with photosensitivity sparing upper eyelid photopatch test will be with
a. UVA
b. UVB
c. Visible light
d. UVA,UVB

41. Infant 1 year 15 kg with hemangioma what is the treatment:

a. 15 mg propranolol
b. 30 mg propranolol
c. 15mg prednisolone
d. 30mg prednisolone

42. What medicines can be used as antipruritic?

a) tavegil, paracetamol, dexamethasone
b) valerian extract, triamcinolone, magnesium preparations
c) analgin, fenkarol, histoglobulin
d) prednisolone, suprastin, sedatives

43. What are the therapeutic measures for atopic dermatitis?

a) exclusion of food allergen, the use of keratolytic ointments, psychotropic drugs
b) the use of corticosteroid ointments, antihistamines,diuretics
c) the use of corticosteroids systemically, the use of corticosteroid ointments, antihistamines
d) the use of antihistamines, calcium preparations, corticosteroid ointments

44. What is the mechanism of antiallergic action of antihistamines?

a) narrowing of blood vessels, blocking H2 receptors
b) blocking of the H1 and H2 receptors
c) blocking of H2 receptors, stabilization of mast cell membranes
d) stabilization of mast cell membranes, blocking of H1 receptors

45. All are common of psoriasis except:

a) arthritis
b) squamo erythematous lesions
c) nail changes
d) extensor distribution

46. Psoriasis is characterised by all the following except:

a) definite pink plaque with clear margin
b) always associated with nail infection
c) in children disappears in 2 weeks to reappear again
d) involves knees and elbows

47. Case of vasculitis (dilated follicular opening description of granuloma faciale) treatment:

a. Dapsone
b. Colchicine
c. Steroid
d. Timolol
48. The important feature of psoriasis is:
a) Crusting
b) Scaling
c) oozing
d) erythema

49. Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of :

a) Psoriasis
b) lichen planus
c) pemphigus
d) leprosy

50. Patient 6 years old complaints are: red plaques covered with scales on the pressing zones. About what
disease we can thing?
a) dermatitis
b) eczema
c) tinea
d) psoriasis

51. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin Koebner’s phehomenon. For what disease it is characterized?
a) Psoriasis
b) lichen planus
c) pituriasis rosea
d) tumor

52. Doctor diagnose on the patient skin ”Herald patch”. For what disease it is characterized?
a) Psoriasis
b) pitшriasis rosea
c) pituriasis lichenoid chronic
d) acne vulgaris

53. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is:

a) Scalp
b) Arthritis
c) nail involvement
d) CNS involvement

54. Patient with rash devolved hypersensitivity after anesthesia:

a. Fentanyl
b. Propofol
c. Morphine
d. Vecuronium

55. Photochemotherapy is used in:

a) Psoriasis
b) Phemphigus
c) tinea capitis
d) tinea cruris

56. Zoophilic trichophytosis differs under a microscope from anthropophilic:

a) the presence of spores of ectotrix
b) the presence of spores of ectotrix
c) the presence of the coupling
d) hair splitting

57. Allergic contact dermatitis is characterized histologically by:

a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
b) Lichenoid infiltrate
c) Spongiosis
d) Parakeratosis
e) Granuloma

58. The primary autoantigen in pemphigoid gestationis is:

a) Desmoplakin
b) BPAG1
c) BPAG2
d) Plakoglobin

59. The lowest incidence of hypersensitivity from preservative component:

a. Paraben
b. Methyl-chloroisothiazolinone
c. Methyl-Isothiazole
d. Quaternium

60. The genetic predisposition for patients with pemphigus vulgaris is:
a) HLA-DRQ402
b) HLA-DR3
c) HLA-DR4
d) HLA-0505

61. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses are seen in:

a) Bullous drug
b) Pemphigus vegetans
c) Herpes gestationis
d) Incontinentia pigmenti
e) Paraneoplastic pemphigus

62. Drugs that are associated with the exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include :
a) Captopril
b) Metoprolol
c) Fluconazole
d) Calcium channel blockers

63. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1) is a member of this family:

a) Cadherin
b) Integrin
c) Intermediate filament
d) Plakin

64. The ocular form of cicatricial pemphigoid is most likely to be associated with antibodies to:
a) Beta-4-integrin
b) Laminin 5
c) BPAg1
d) BPAg2-NC16A

65. Mutations in beta-catenin are most commonly associated with:

a) Naxos disease
b) Bullous pemphigoid
c) Pilomatricomas
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin fragility

66. Pemphigus erythematosus:

a) Is also called Hallopeau syndrome
b) May be an abortive form of subcorneal pustulosis
c) Is often in a malar/seborrheic distribution
d) Does not have linear IgG and C3 at the basement membrane zone

67. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is diagnostic of:
a) Sweet's syndrome
b) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
c) Dermatitis herpetiformis
d) Linear IgA dermatosis

68. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced by:

a) Aminoglycosides
b) Benzene
c) Clonidine
d) Vancomycin

69. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to appear on:
a) Genitals
b) Palms and soles
c) Umbilicus
d) Head and neck

70. What is the most common site of involvement of this autoimmune blistering disease?
a) Oral mucosa
b) Eyes
c) Skin
d) Genitalia

71. Which contact allergen is found in Krazy glue?

a. Formaldehyde
b. Lanolin alcohol
c. Ethyl cyanoacrylate
d. Octyl-dimethyl-PABA

72. Which neoplasm is the most common cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?

a) Thymoma
b) CLL
c) Castleman's disease
d) Retroperitoneal sarcoma

73. Paraneoplastic pemphigus:

a) Is characterized by a pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen
b) Is most often seen in association with lung cancer
c) Does not remit even if the cancer is excised completely
d) May be caused by a benign neoplasm

74. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has antibodies against:

a) Gamma-catenin
b) Peripherin
c) Beta4-integrin
d) Kalinin

75. The most common malignancy associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:
a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Acute myelocytic leukemia

76. The vector of fogo selvagem may be:

a) Triatoma
b) Simulium
c) Cimex
d) Ornithodorus

77. Each of the following is true about anti-p200 pemphigoid except:

a) Responsive to dapsone
b) Subepidermal bullae
c) 200-kd antigen
d) features of linear IgA disease

78. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is targeted in:

a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid
c) IgA pemphigus
d) Duhring’s disease

79. Patients with pemphigus vulgaris have lesions that start in the mouth in approximately :
a) 70% of patients
b) 50% of patients
c) 30% of patients
d) 20% of patients

80. Which of the following is true of herpes gestationis?

a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-terminal domain of BPAg2
b) Has higher frequency in females with HLA-DQ2
c) Is associated with Grave's disease
d) Usually occurs in the first trimester of pregnancy

81. Circulating autoantibodies to type XVII collagen are most characteristic of which disease?
a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita
b) Herpes gestationis
c) Pemphigus vulgaris
d) Pemphigus foliacious

82. Which association is incorrect?

a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita : inflammatory bowel disease
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small bowel lymphoma
c) Paraneoplastic pemphigus : Castleman’s
d) Herpes gestationis : menopause

83. Herpes gestationis is most commonly associated with:

a) Grave's
b) Hashimoto's
c) Diabetes
d) Lupus

84. Child with varicose veins and one limb bigger than the other what next:

a. CT
b. MRI
c. Doppler
d. Duplex

85. Case of dissecting cellulitis of the scalp and increase urea and creatinine ttt:
a. Isotretinoin
b. Rifampicin
c. Doxycycline
d. Azithromycin

86. A woman in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy presents to clinic with urticarial plaques and papules around
her umbilicus, chest and extremities. Tense vesicles are present within a few of the erythematous plaques.
This woman’s condition is most commonly associated with:
a) Lymphoma
b) Multiparity
c) Grave’s Disease
d) Inflammatory Bowel Disease

87. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, the split is most often:

a) Subcorneal
b) Intraspinous
c) Suprabasal
d) Intraepidermal and subepidermal

88. Common cause(s) of drug-induced pemphigus foliaceus:

a) Captopril
b) Penicillamine
c) Methotrexate
d) Dilantin
89. Which of the following agent(s) has been most effective in treating severe ocular cicatricial
pemphigoid?
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Mycophenolate mofetil
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) Cyclosporin

90. The pH of normal skin is:

a) 5.0
b) 6.0
c) 7.0
d) 5.5

91. Child with crusted lesion on leg (impetigo) he has arrhythmia and allergy to penicillin:
a. Vancomycin
b. Azithromycin
c. Minocycline
d. Cephalixine (cephalosporins)

92. Case of hemangioma in face association:

a. Arachnoid cyst
b. Vermis agenesis
c. Dandy walker
d. Cautery

93. What is the pathogenesis of vitiligo?

a) Congenital lack of pigmentation
b) Increase in the number of melanosomes
c) Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
d) Benign proliferation of melanocytes

94. Tumors:
a) Solid lesions, >0.5 cm in diameter
b) Implies enlargement of tissues, by normal or pathological material or cells, to form a mass
c) An area of altered consistency of skin which is usually elevated, but can be depressed or flushed
with surrounding skin
d) Small, solid, elevated lesion

95. Crust:
a) Is a collection of dead epidermal cells, dried serum and sometimes dried blood. It is yellow to brown
in color. Removal of crust reveals a moist surface
b) Due to complete or partial loss of viable epidermis with no (or minimal) loss of the dermis
c) Is a slit in the epidermis
d) Thinning of skin and could be due to atrophy of the epidermis, dermis or subcutaneous tissue

96. Hemangioma in face (PHACES) what next investigation:

a. MRI brain
b. Echo
c. Ultrasound
d. Angiography if said high risk

97. Etiology of Furuncles (Boils):

a) S. aureus
b) S. pyogenes
c) Scabies
d) S. aureus, S. pyogenes

98. Nonfollicular, spreading and superficial Pyoderma is:

a) Cellulitis
b) Erysipelas
c) Ecthyma
d) Perifolliculitis
99. Male patient with erythematous rash and bone pain prober site for bone x ray:
a. Arm
b. Leg
c. Spine if skull or cranium not present Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
d. Skull or cranium 1st

100. Varicella infection to the mother complication to the baby(microcephaly):

a. Brain calcification
b. Pituitary
c. Thymus agenesis
d. Scaring

101. Sites of predilection Pityriasis Versicolor:

a) Upper trunk, neck, upper arms
b) Any skin fold
c) Foot
d) Centrofacial region

102. Complications of Mycetoma:

a) Involvement of deeper tissues (bones of feet and hands) may cause deformities in longstanding cases
b) manifests as an asymptomatic nodule which ulcerates
c) Lytic lesions in underlying bones more frequent in eumycotic mycetoma.
d) Rarely, gluteal region and thighs may be involved

103. Favus:
a) Often results in cicatricial alopecia
b) Summers and rainy season
c) Summers and rainy season
d) annular lesions with active periphery showing papulation

104. Child 4 years has sore throat, erythema on cheeks, his mother is pregnant what next (erythema
infectiousum slapped cheek syndrome Parvovirus B 19):
a. PCR for child and mom
b. Abortion
c. Continuation
d. Reticulocyte count

105. The common presentation of early neonatal Syphilis:

a. Periooral and perianal maceration and fissuring
b. Saddle nose
c. Palm and sole coble papule
d. Syphilitic rhinitis

106. What is the infective agent implicated in acne?

a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Staphylococcus epidermidis
d) Propionobacterium a.

107. Pt with skin colored papules and elastic skin on neck and angoid streaks on retina what to do?

a. Introduce Aspirin
b. Introduce Simvastatin
c. Stop smoking
d. Biologic

108. Wheal:
a) Is an evanescent (lasting 48–72 h) elevated lesion produced by dermal edema
b) Can be follicular (when they are conical) or extrafollicular
c) Lesion is not blanchable—meaning that if a glass slide is pressed on the lesion
d) Is a swelling caused by extravasation of blood

109. Erosion:
a) Is the response of the skin to repeated scratching and is typically seen in lichen simplex chronicus
and atopic dermatitis. It manifests as
b) Clinically manifests as an area of depressed skin and it may be possible to invaginate a finger in the
depressed skin
c) Due to complete or partial loss of viable epidermis with no (or minimal) loss of the dermis
d) Is diffuse or circumscribed induration of dermis/subcutaneous tissue, e.g., lichen sclerosus et
atrophicus

110. Sites of Impetigo Contagiosa:

a) Seen on legs, thighs, and buttocks
b) Face (periorificial, especially around the mouth and nose), most frequent site of involvement
c) Seen on scalp
d) Seen on neck

111. Differential diagnosis of Bullous impetigo:

a) Herpes simplex (HSV) infection
b) SSSS
c) Ecthyma
d) Sycosis

112. Complications of Cellulitis:

a) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
b) Recurrences may occur in the same area and result in lymphedema which further predisposes to
recurrent infection
c) Eczematization, a frequent complication
d) Untreated, may evolve into ecthyma

113. Case of mastocytosis the least organ affection:

a. Heart
b. Lung
c. Git ----the most frequent +/BM/LN/liver/spleen (the most)
d. CNS + genitourinary

114. Molluscum in face and trunk of 13 years old boy and three of them are giant
a. Child abuse
b. Assurance
c. Cautery
d. HIV

115. Causative agent of the Noninflammatory tinea capitis:

a) M. canis
b) T. verrucosum
c) Malassezia furfur
d) Candida albicans

116. Morphology of Subcutaneous phycomycosis:

a) Slowly spreading, painless subcutaneous swelling with smooth edge which can be raised by inserting
a finger under it
b) A painless warty papule, slowly enlarges to form a cauliflower-like hypertrophic plaque
c) Trauma prone sites
d) Verrucous plaques on lower extremity

117. Three clinical patterns of Tinea pedis:

a) Vesicular variant
b) Atypical
c) Pustulation
d) Inflammatory

118. Systemic fungal infection

a) Sporotrichosis
b) Chromoblastomycosis
c) Candidiasis
d) Histoplasmosis

119. Patient treated e minocycline for acne then developed papulopustular lesion treatment:
a. Isotretinoin
b. Azithromycin
c. Hormonal therapy
d. Spironolactone

120. Which of the following is the best clinical description of the condition whose pathologic finding is
below?
a. Numerous scaly hypopigmented macules on the upper back and shoulders
b. One large annular scaly plaque on the arm c. Yellowish toenail with onycholysis
d. Hyperkeratotic velvety papules in the axillae

121. Raynauds phenomenon is first symptoms of

a) systemic sclerosis
b) localized morphea
c) morphea profundus
d) nose

122. Localized scleroderma is restricted to skin an

a) symmetric manner
b) asymmetric manner
c) both a and b
d) none of above

123. All forms of scleroderma are more common in

a) male
b) children
c) female
d) child and adult

124. Sceleroderma like disease can be induced by a no of chemical compound such as

a) plastic, solvent, drugs
b) plastic
c) drugs
d) nose

125. In both systemic sclerosis and crest syndrome. How many stages of skin diseases
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4

126. Repeated and increasingly severe attack of Raynauds phenomenon

a) skin damage
b) face swelling
c) finger tip ulceration
d) all the above

127. A dexrease in capillary loops occurs in

a) Raynauds phenomenon
b) crest syndrome
c) both a and b
d) none

128. Telangiectasis may be present around

a) scalp, wrist
b) tongue,scalp
c) lips, tongue and M. Membranes
d) all above
129. Patients with crest syndrome usually have
a) antibodies, ss-A
b) anticentromere antibodies
c) centromere antibodies
d) sd-70

130. A 63-year-old female presents with a life-long history of a papillomatous yellow-orange plaque on the
scalp. Her daughter recently noticed a smooth, pink nodule paracentrally within the plaque and advised her
mom to see a dermatologist. A biopsy of the nodule and part of the surrounding plaque was performed.
Based on the clinical and histologic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Basal cell carcinoma arising in association with nevus sebaceus

b. Trichoblastoma arising in association with nevus sebaceus
c. Syringocystadenoma papilliferum arising in association with nevus sebaceus
d. Well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma arising in association with nevus sebaceus

131. Treatment of choice for progressive systemic sclerosis

a) cyclosporine
b) azathicprine
c) chloroquine
d) penicillamine

132. Linear morphea is most common variant in

a) children
b) adult
c) a and b
d) no one

133. Case of photosensitivity what is the prophylactic treatment:

a. Steroid
b. Carotene
c. Phototherapy
d. Hydroxychloroquine

134. Case of granuloma with few lymphocytes, describe patient complain erythematous plaque treatment (all
biologic) (sarcoidosis):

a. Infliximab
b. Adalimumab
c. Etanercept
d. Rituximab

135. Sclerodactyly, Raynaud's phenomenon, Photosensitivity investigations (Mixed connective tissue

disease):
a. U1RNP
b. Double strand DNA
c. SCL 70 topoisomerase
d. ANA

136. Scleroderma + lung fibrosis:

a. AD
b. AR
c. XLR
d. XLD

137. Child with periauricular cyst for excision best antiseptic as he has hearing problems:

a. Chlorohexidine
 b. Iodine
c. Alcohol
d. Hexachlorophene

138. Patient make surgery in ear complain of hear loss what type of dressing:

a. Alginate
b. Hydrocolloids
c. Hydrogel
d. Vaseline dressing

139. Pregnant female case bulla on trunk, flanks, umbilical, abdomen type of Ig (H. gestationus):

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. C3
d. C4

140. In linear scleroderma, female to male ratio

a) 4:1
b) 1:4
c) 2:1
d) 3:2

141. In linear scleroderma, which medicine is used for 3months

a) oral MTX.
b) prednisone
c) methotrexate
d) both a and b

142. Patient with vesicles and blisters hands for 8 years and in lower limb and hypertrichosis what is
treatment (PCT):

a. Phlebotomy
b. Hydroxychloroquine
c. Steroid
d. Dapsone

143. Chemical induced Sceleroderma like conditions

a) fibrosis, edematous.
b) vinyl chloride disease, fibrosis, bleomycin
c) vinyl chloride disease, bleomycin, Kellie morphea.
d) all of above

144. Smoothening of facial lines, breaking of nose, thinning of lips

a) localized scleroderma
b) linear morphea
c) systemic sclerosis
d) morphea profundus

145. Histopathology of blistering with IgA and neutrophil with DM ،HTN AF:

a. Dapsone
b. Steroid
c. Azathioprine
d. IVIG

146. Most safe biologic during pregnancy treatment:

a. Infliximab
b. Certolizumab
c. Adalimumab
d. Ustkinomab

147. The lesions of morphea begins as one to several circumscribed areas of

a) pink Induration
b) purplish Induration
c) Red duration
d) all

148. Under what classification of morphea does the characteristics of morphea profundity lies
a) plaque.
b) Generalized
c) Deep
d) Bullous or linear

149. What is the most common cancer in POEMS syndrome?

a. Osteosclerotic myeloma
b. Castleman’s disease
c. Polycythemia
d. Plasmacytoma
e. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

150. Distinct form of localized scleroderma

a) lesion in feet
b) plaque in skin
c) Bullous in skin
d) coup de sabre

151. Circumferential involvement of limbs affecting skin

a) linear scleroderma
b) pansclerotic morphea
c) mixed morphea
d) Generalized morphea

152. Allergic contact dermatitis is characterized histologically by:

a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
b) Lichenoid infiltrate
c) Spongiosis
d) Parakeratosis

153. The primary autoantigen in pemphigoid gestationis is:

a) Desmoplakin
b) BPAG1
c) BPAG2
d) Plakoglobin

A 16-year-old caucasian boy presented with heterogeneous itchy lesions on face, neck, upper and lower
limbs. The anamnesis revealed that similar lesions had appeared since the age of 18 months and previously
involved exclusively the face (mainly the perioral and cheek areas) and neck. The course of the disease has
been chronic-relapsing during the years. Lately, the patient has experience of itching exacerbation and the
lesions also affected the creases of the elbows and knees and the hands. The physical examination showed
eczematous lesions with erythema, excoriations and lichenifcation in limbs’ folds (Fig. 9.1), face and neck.
The patient was sensitized to dermatophagoides, cat epithelium, grass, lichwort and olea europea and was
also affected by rhino-conjunctivitis and asthma. Based on the case description and the photograph, which is
your diagnosis?
1. Contact allergic dermatitis
2. Atopic dermatitis
3. Psoriasis
4. Pemphigus vegetans

154. The genetic predisposition for patients with pemphigus vulgaris is:
a) HLA-DRQ402
b) HLA-DR3
c) HLA-DR4
d) HLA-0505

155. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses are seen in:

a) Bullous drug
b) Pemphigus vegetans
c) Herpes gestationis
d) Incontinentia pigmenti

156. A 17-year-old adolescent boy presented with a 4-year history of asymptomatic lesions over the right
side of his chest and right arm. The lesions were reddish minute macules. They appeared frst over the
midline of the chest, and gradually increased in size by forming clusters. Then they spread onto over the
right half of chest and right upper arm. The patient was otherwise healthy with no systemic complaints. Past
medical and family histories were unremarkable. Cutaneous examination revealed multiple discrete as well
as confuent erythematous punctate macules distributed in a blaschkoid pattern involving right half of chest
extending onto medial aspect of the right arm (Fig. 11.1). The lesions were non-blanchable on diascopy. The
rest of the examination of skin and mucous membranes was within normal limits. Dermoscopy showed red
oval to round lagoons. Histopathologic examination showed dilated capillaries with normal endothelial
lining in the upper dermis. Epidermal changes, infammatory infltrate, and red blood cell extravasation were
not noted. Based on the case description and photographs, what is your diagnosis?
a) Pigmented purpuric dermatosis
b) Capillary hemangioma
c) Port-wine stain
d) Blaschkoid angioma serpiginosum

157. Drugs that are associated with the exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include :
a) Captopril
b) Metoprolol
c) Fluconazole
d) Calcium channel blockers

158. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1) is a member of this family:

a) Cadherin
b) Integrin
c) Intermediate filament
d) Plakin

159. The ocular form of cicatricial pemphigoid is most likely to be associated with antibodies to:
a) Beta-4-integrin
b) Laminin 5
c) BPAg1
d) BPAg2-NC16A

160. Mutations in beta-catenin are most commonly associated with:

a) Naxos disease
b) Bullous pemphigoid
c) Pilomatricomas
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin fragility

161. Pemphigus erythematosus:

a) Is also called Hallopeau syndrome
b) May be an abortive form of subcorneal pustulosis
c) Is often in a malar/seborrheic distribution
d) All of these answers are correct

162. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is diagnostic of:
a) Sweet's syndrome
b) Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
c) Dermatitis herpetiformis
d) Linear IgA dermatosis

163. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced by:

a) Aminoglycosides
b) Benzene
c) Clonidine
d) Vancomycin

164. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to appear on:
a) Genitals
b) Palms and soles
c) Umbilicus
d) Head and neck

165. What is the most common site of involvement of this autoimmune blistering disease?
a) Oral mucosa
b) Eyes
c) Skin
d) Genitalia

166. Which neoplasm is the most common cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?

a) Thymoma
b) CLL
c) Retroperitoneal sarcoma
d) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

167. Paraneoplastic pemphigus:

a) Is characterized by a pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen
b) Is most often seen in association with lung cancer
c) Does not remit even if the cancer is excised completely
d) All of these answers are correct

168. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has antibodies against:

a) Gamma-catenin
b) Peripherin
c) Beta4-integrin
d) Kalinin

169. Female patient 12 years old presented in the dermatologic clinic with pigmented skin lesion at angle of
her lip (Fig. 29.1). The lesion had history of long duration; the lesion is stationary in course since its
development with no family history of the same lesion. On physical examination, the patient presented with
slightly compressible hyperpigmented area at angle of her lip about 3 × 2 cm, and no other associated
symptoms. Initially the patient tried topical bleaching agents and steroid application with no response
(Fig. 29.2). Based on the case description, clinical and dermoscopic photographs, what is your diagnosis?
a) Post infammatory hyperpigmentation.
b) Plane wart.
c) Port wine stain
d) Regressed Hemangioma

170. The most common malignancy associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:
a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Hodgkin's lymphoma

171. The vector of fogo selvagem may be:

a) Triatoma
b) Simulium
c) Cimex
d) Ornithodorus

172 Each of the following is true about anti-p200 pemphigoid except:

a) Responsive to dapsone
b) Subepidermal bullae
c) 200-kd antigen
d) features of linear IgA disease

173. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is targeted in:

a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid
c) IgA pemphigus
d) Duhring’s disease

174. Patients with pemphigus vulgaris have lesions that start in the mouth in approximately :
a) 70% of patients
b) 50% of patients
c) 30% of patients
d) 20% of patients

175. Which of the following is true of herpes gestationis?

a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-terminal domain of BPAg2
b) Has higher frequency in females with HLA-DQ2
c) Is associated with Grave's disease
d) Usually occurs in the first trimester of pregnancy

176 Circulating autoantibodies to type XVII collagen are most characteristic of which disease?
a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita
b) Herpes gestationis
c) Pemphigus vulgaris
d) Pemphigus foliacious

177. Which association is incorrect?

a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita : inflammatory bowel disease
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small bowel lymphoma
c) Paraneoplastic pemphigus : Castleman’s
d) Herpes gestationis : menopause

178. Herpes gestationis is most commonly associated with:

a) Grave's
b) Hashimoto's
c) Diabetes
d) Lupus

179. Herpes gestationis is exacerbated by:

a) Oral contraceptives
b) Menstruation
c) Third trimester
d) All of these answers are correct

180. A woman in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy presents to clinic with urticarial plaques and papules around
her umbilicus, chest and extremities. Tense vesicles are present within a few of the erythematous plaques.
This woman’s condition is most commonly associated with:
a) Lymphoma
b) Multiparity
c) Grave’s Disease
d) Lupus

181. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, the split is most often:

a) Subcorneal
b) Intraspinous
c) Suprabasal
d) Intraepidermal and subepidermal
e) Subepidermal

182. Common cause(s) of drug-induced pemphigus foliaceus:

a) Penicillamine
b) Captopril and penicillamine
c) Methotrexate
d) Dilantin

183. Which of the following agent(s) has been most effective in treating severe ocular cicatricial
pemphigoid?
a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Mycophenolate mofetil
c) Cyclophosphamide + corticosteroids
d) Cyclosporin

184. Allergic contact dermatitis is characterized histologically by:

a) Psoriasiform dermatitis
b) Lichenoid infiltrate
c) Spongiosis
d) Parakeratosis

185. The primary autoantigen in pemphigoid gestationis is:

a) Desmoplakin
b) BPAG1
c) Plakoglobin
d) Anchoring fibrils

186. Characteristic eosinophilic abscesses are seen in:

a) Bullous drug
b) Pemphigus vegetans
c) Incontinentia pigmenti
d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus

187. Drugs that are associated with the exacerbation of pemphigus foliaceus include :
a) Captopril
b) Fluconazole
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Statins

188. Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1 (BPAg1) is a member of this family:

a) Cadherin
b) Intermediate filament
c) Plakin
d) Selectin

189. The ocular form of cicatricial pemphigoid is most likely to be associated with antibodies to:
a) Beta-4-integrin
b) Laminin 5
c) BPAg1
d) Plectin

190. Mutations in beta-catenin are most commonly associated with:

a) Naxos disease
b) Bullous pemphigoid
c) Pilomatricomas
d) Ectodermal dysplasia with skin fragility

191. Pemphigus erythematosus:

a) May be an abortive form of subcorneal pustulosis
b) Is often in a malar/seborrheic distribution
c) Does not have linear IgG and C3 at the basement membrane zone
d) All of these answers are correct

192. Papillary dermal deposits of IgA and a papillary dermal infiltrate of neutrophils is diagnostic of:
a) Sweet's syndrome
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis
c) Linear IgA dermatosis
d) Bullous pemphigoid

193. Cicatricial pemphigoid can be induced by:

a) Aminoglycosides
b) Benzene
c) Clonidine
d) Ciprofloxacin
194. In Brunsting-Perry pemphigoid, the recrurrent crops of blisters are most likely to appear on:
a) Genitals
b) Palms and soles
c) Umbilicus
d) Head and neck

195. What is the most common site of involvement of this autoimmune blistering disease?
a) Oral mucosa
b) Eyes
c) Skin
d) Nasopharyngeal mucosa

196. Which neoplasm is the most common cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?

a) Thymoma
b) CLL
c) Castleman's disease
d) Retroperitoneal sarcoma

197. Paraneoplastic pemphigus:

a) Is characterized by a pathognomonic 250 kDa antigen
b) Does not remit even if the cancer is excised completely
c) May be caused by a benign neoplasm
d) All of these answers are correct

198. Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid has antibodies against:

a) Gamma-catenin
b) Peripherin
c) Beta4-integrin
d) Kalinin

199. The most common malignancy associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus is:
a) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Acute myelocytic leukemia

200. The vector of fogo selvagem may be:

a) Triatoma
b) Simulium
c) Cimex
d) Ornithodorus

201. Each of the following is true about anti-p200 pemphigoid except:

a) Responsive to dapsone
b) Subepidermal bullae
c) 200-kd antigen
d) features of linear IgA disease

202. The C-terminal domain of BPAg2 is targeted in:

a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Cicatricial pemphigoid
c) IgA pemphigus
d) Pemphigoid gestationis

203. Which of the following is true of herpes gestationis?

a) Demonstrates antibodies to the C-terminal domain of BPAg2
b) Is associated with Grave's disease
c) Usually occurs in the first trimester of pregnancy
d) Shows subepidermal bullae mostly with neutrophils

204. Circulating autoantibodies to type XVII collagen are most characteristic of which disease?
a) Epidermolysis bullosa accquisita
b) Herpes gestationis
c) Pemphigus vulgaris
d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus

205. Which association is incorrect?

a) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita : inflammatory bowel disease
b) Dermatitis herpetiformis : small bowel lymphoma
c) Herpes gestationis : menopause
d) Porphyria cutanea tarda : hemochromatosis

206. Herpes gestationis is most commonly associated with:

a) Grave's
b) Hashimoto's
c) Diabetes
d) Rheumatoid arthritis

207.Herpes gestationis is exacerbated by:

a) Oral contraceptives
b) Menstruation
c) Postpartum state
d) All of these answers are correct

208. In penicillamine-induced pemphigus, the split is most often:

a) Subcorneal
b) Intraspinous
c) Intraepidermal and subepidermal
d) Subepidermal

209. Common cause(s) of drug-induced pemphigus foliaceus:

a) Captopril
b) Penicillamine
c) Methotrexate
d) Dilantin

210. Which of the following agent(s) has been most effective in treating severe ocular
cicatricialpemphigoid?

a) Cyclophosphamide
b) Mycophenolate mofetil
c) Cyclophosphamide
d) Azathioprine

211. Scenario of recurrent abdominal pain since childhood & picture of face & ears (EBA with Chron’s
disease):

a. Colchicine
b. Dapsone
c. Steroid
d. Rivaroxaban

212. Herald patch seen in:

a) Lichen planus
b) Pityriasis rosae
c) Lichen sclerosis
d) None of these

213. Surgical excision and grafting required in ___ LP:

a) Hypertropic LP
b) Palm and sole LP
c) Follicular LP
d) Oral LP
214. Salmon Pink lesion seen in:
a) Lichen planus
b) Pityriasis rosae
c) Both of these
d) None of these

215. Hypertrophic LP __in color:

a) Reddish brown
b) Pinkish red
c) Bluish
d) Violet

216. Pityriasis rosae is:

a) Self limiting
b) Chronic relapsing
c) Life threatening
d) Caused by dermatophytes

217. Localized papules are not located in:

a) Palm and sole
b) Wrist and forearm
c) Legs and above ankle
d) In lumbar region

218. Untreated LP continues for approximately:

a) 8 month
b) 9 month
c) 7 month
d) 10 month

219. Pityriasis rosae limited to:

a) Face
b) Truck
c) Proximal extremities
d) All are correct

220. Location of oral LP ( choose correct one):

a) Buccal 80-90%
b) Tongue 60-70%
c) Tongue 40-50%
d) Buccal 70-80%

221. Aggregation lesion of PR is:

a) Upward
b) Downward
c) Lateral
d) Inward

222. Male pt with tensile bulla on arm with no mucosal lesion (EBA)since many years. Which organ will be
affected (associated cancer)?

a. Lung

b. Stomach
c. Liver

d. Pancreas

223. Which statement is true:

a) lichen planus lesion (papule) Large and aggregated
b) lichen planus lesion (papule) small and aggregated
c) lichen planus lesion (papule) Large and linear
d) lichen planus lesion (papule) small and linear

224. Hypertropic pattern of lichen planus is seen in:

a) Lower limb (ankle)
b) Upper limb (plam)
c) Lower limb (toes)
d) A problem( forearm)

225. Pt developed bullae on arm after 3 days from starting sulfasalazine DIF –VE:

a. Acute generalized exanthem pustulosis

b. Linear IgA
c. Sneddon
d. Sub-corneal pustular dermatosis

226. Inverse pityriasis rosae:

a) Dominantly papular
b) Dominantly vesicular
c) Present on extremities
d) Present on trunk

227. Wickham striate is accentuated by:

a) Methylene blue
b) Immersion oil
c) Brown staining
d) Silver nitrate

228. Hyperpigmentation of black patient seen in:

a) Lichen planus
b) Pityriasis rosae
c) Lichen sclerosis
d) None of these

229. Erosive and ulcerative lichen planus seen in:

a) Feet and mouth
b) Palm
c) Trunk
d) Scalp

230. Pityriasis rosae cause by:

a) HHV-6
b) HHV-2
c) HAV
d) HCA

231. Hypertrophic lichen planus found in:

a) Pre tibial
b) Post tibial
c) Post fibular
d) Pre fibular

232. Case of itchy skin several years hp show acantholysis with no dyskeratosis ask about lesion clinically
will be:

a. Bull
b. Plaque
c. Papules
d. Papulovesicular

233. Most common site for annular pattern of lichen planus:

a) Sun exposure site
b) Trunk and external genitalia
c) Scalp
d) Forearm

234. Extravasated dyskeratotic cell seen with in:

a) Epidermis
b) Hypodermis
c) Dermis
d) Statum cornium

235. Cutaneous lichen planus associates with:

a) HCV
b) HAV
c) HBV
d) ALL

236. Area of loss of hair in the scalp with loss of follicular ostia and pustulosis ttt:

a. Isotretinoin + Rifampicin

b. Isotretinoin and Dapsone

c. Dapsone + Rifampicin

d. Clindamycin + Rifampicin

237. _____ lichen planus can go malignancy:

a) Oral LP
b) Follicular LP
c) Hypertropic LP
d) Vulvovaginalis LP

238. ____ is not varients of Pityriasis rosae:

a) Inverse PR
b) Papular PR
c) Bullous PR
d) Patchy PR

239. Lichenoid reaction mainly due to:

a) Cigarette smoking
b) Alcohol intake
c) Intake of drugs
d) Chewing nuts

240. Which drug don't cause drug induced lichenoid eruption:

a) Chloroquine
b) Phenothiazine
c) Gold salt
d) Dapson

241. Photo mostly trichotilomania what found beside hair follicle:

a. Hemorrhage
b. Lymphocytosis
c. Eosinophils
d. Neutrophils

242. Picture of area of scalp beside ear with scales (no loss of hair & erythema):
a. Psoriasis
b. Tinea capitis
c. Irritated atopic dermatitis
d. Seborrheic dermatitis

243. For inguinal epidermophytia are characteristic:

a) localization in large folds of skin

b) lack of erythema
c) conflicts
d) ulcers

244. The diagnosis of inguinal epidermophytosis is based on:

a) Microscopy
b) Lymphadenitis
c) Dermatoscopy
d) sowing

245. Nail plate for onychomycosis:

a) hypertrophies
b) looks like a thimble
c) has the appearance of convex glass
d) has the form of concave glass

246. Patient had defect SPRED1 most common (Legius syndrome):

a. Neurofibroma
b. Optic glioma
c. Renal cell carcinoma
d. Macrocephaly

247. Nizoral (ketokenazole) in children's practice is used:

a) not applicable under 3 years old
b) in children under two years of age only for health reasons
c) for all children only for health reasons
d) in chronic candidiasis

248. For external treatment of onychomycosis, it is used:

a) distilled water
b) iodine
c) white streptocide
d) novocaine solution

249. Cancer colon in father and 2 sons and one son is normal incidence:
 a. Zero
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%

250. Father + Mother are normal but baby has syndrome incidence:

a. Zero
b. 25%
c. 75%
d. 100%

251. Pigmentation in all body not in mucous membrane what syndrome:

a. Peutzjeugher
b. Cornhite Canada Syndrome (pigmentation all body + mm + Git polyposis)
c. Huziquer syndrome
d. Leopard syndrome if not present Cowden syndrome

252. Child with Langerhans cell histiocytosis refer to:

a. Ophthalmologist
b. Neuro
c. Pediatric
d. Orthopedic

253. Massive but painless bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, anemia, elevated erythrocyte
sedimentation rate, neutrophilia and a polyclonal hyper-gammaglobulinemia in a 10-year-old boy are all
features that orient toward the diagnosis of which of the following choices?
a. Eosinophilic granuloma
b. Hand–Schüller–Christian disease
c. Rosai–Dorfman Disease
d. Erdheim–Chester disease

254. Dorsal part of nail plate:

a. Proximal matrix
b. Distal matrix
c. Nail bed
d. Nail fold

255. Characteristics of a solid chancre

a) soft ulcer
b) painless erosion or an ulcer with a dense infiltrate at the base
c) edges undermined
d) purulent discharge

256. The solid chancre is differentiated from

a) Microsporia
b) herpes zoster
c) phlegmon
d) chancriform pyoderma

257. Average duration of the secondary period of syphilis

a) 6-7 weeks
b) 4-5 weeks
c) 2-4 years
d) 6-10 years
258. The solid chancre is always located
a) on the skin of the genital organs
b) at the site of the entry gate of infection
c) on the red border of the lips
d) on the back of the tongue

259. Atypical chancre localized on the tonsils:

a) chancre panaritium
b) inductive edema
c) chanciform pyoderma
d) chancre amygdalite

260. Complications of hard chancre

a) Phimosis
b) penetration
c) pyoderma
d) orchitis

261. When you describe crisaborole to patient you should tell him about (note for ttt of atopic dermatitis):
a. Tingling
b. Burning / pain
c. Urticarial like
d. Itching

262. Typical localization of chronic lupus erythematosus:

a) palms
b) auricles
c) face
d) scalp

262. The disseminated form of lupus erythematosus is characterize , in addition to:

a) small lesions
b) lichenization
c) common rash
d) lesions of closed skin

264. Centrifugal erythema is characterized by:

a) follicular hyperkeratosis
b) atrophy
c) lichenization
d) erythema

265. Diagnostic symptoms of discoid lupus erythematosus:

a) Benier-Meshchersky symptom
b) symptom - blood dew‖
c) Nikolsky's symptom 1
d) Nikolsky's symptom 2

266. Drugs accumulated in eccrine glands:

a. Cytarabine
b. Cipro
c. Cephalosporin
d. Cyclosporin

267. The differential diagnosis of discoid lupus erythematosus is carried out with:
a) simple contact dermatitis
b) lichen planus
c) centrifugal erythema
d) lupus tuberculosis
268. Choose the correct order of growing stages of the hair:
a. telogen – catagen – anagen
b. anagen – catagen – telogen
c. catagen – telogen – anagen
d. catagen – anagen – telogen

269. Case of folliculitis decalvans (increase urea + increase creatinine , normal CBC:
a. Minocycline
b. Doxycycline
c. Rifampicin
d. Isotretinoin

270. Which part of sun radiation does induce erythema on skin?

a. infrared radiation
b. UV-A-rays (400 nm – 315 nm)
c. UV-B-rays (314 nm – 280 nm)
d. UV-C-rays (below 280 nm)
e. combination of UV-B + UV-C-rays

271.What is the meaning of the term phototoxic dermatitis?

a) reaction of skin when because of sun radiation arise metabolites, that cause abnormal inflammatory
reaction
b) reaction of skin after longterm exposition to intense sun radiation
c) reaction of skin caused by direct interaction of radiation and photosensitising substance producing a
type of sunburn reaction
d) reaction of skin after too intense exposition to infrared radiation

272. Lupus has persistent scar for 3 years treatment:

a. Camouflage
b. Tacrolimus
c. Steroid
d. Hydroxychloroquine

273. Lichenoid drug eruption is induced by:

a) sulphonamides
b) broad- spectrum antibiotics
c) preparations of gold
d) beta blockers
e) antipyretics

274. Acne vulgaris can be provoked or exacerbated by these drugs:

a) corticosteroids
b) mercury, bismuth
c) arsenic, gold
d) halogens

275. Bullous pemphigoid is a chronic autoimmune skin disorder that occurs more often in patients > 60
years of age. Which of the following is the most common initial symptom?

a) Bullae
b) Fever
c) Pruritis
d) Urticarial-appearing plaque

276. Patient with skin colored papules and elastic skin on neck and angoid streaks on retina what to do?
a. Introduce Aspirin
b. Introduce Simvastatin
c. Stop smoking
d. Biologic

277. Without treatment, bullous pemphigoid usually remits after 3 to 6 years but can be fatal in about one
third of elderly, debilitated patients. For elderly patients with generalized and recalcitrant disease, which of
the following is the most appropriate treatment to decrease the risk for morbidity?

a) Anti-inflammatory drugs
b) High-potency topical corticosteroids
c) Immunosuppressants
d) Oral corticosteroids

278. 65 y female on renal dialysis complaining from ulcer on tendon acahilis. what is the suitable ttt ?

a. Prednisolone
b. Warfarin
c. Hyperbaric oxygen
d. Na thiosulfate

279. Pregnant female on systemic prednisone1mg\Kg in 37 weeks with no improvement her bodyweight is
65 Kg how to deal:
a. Increase dose of cortisone
b. Add azathioprine
c. Preterm labor
d. MTX

280.21 years old male complaining from sudden onset of fever, rash, facial edema, leukocytosis, hepatitis,
four weeks after starting phenytoin for seizures, this patient most likely had which risk factors:

a. Slow acetylator
b. Deficiency of epoxidase hydroxylase
c. Renal failure
d. Recent vaccination

281. Picture of hands (patient with papule and necrotic center heal by scar and hyperpigmentation ttt:
a. Phototherapy
b. Erythromycin
c. Steroid
d. Tacrolimus

282. Patient psoriasis take usetkinmab become pregnant:

a. Continue
b. Increase dose
c. Stop the drug
d. Termination of pregnancy

283.How many rows of cells with nuclei are normally in the stratum corneum?
a) 10 – 12
b) 7 – 9
c) 4 – 6
d) 1 – 3
e)
284. For true eczema are characteristic:
a) Asymmetry
b) clear boundaries
c) “archipelago of islands”
d) 1 to 5 cm in diameter itchy plaques

285.Seborrheic eczema is localized on the skin, in addition to:

 a) Back
b) Faces
c) Lower limbs
d) scalp

286. The basis of eczema are histopathological changes:

a) Parakeratosis
b) Spongiosis
c) Vegetation
d) Acantholysis

287. Pseudofurunculosis is:

a) inflammation of the sebaceous hair follicles
b) inflammation of the mucous sweat glands
c) inflammation of the apocrine glands
d) inflammation of the sebaceous hair

288. In the treatment of epidemic pemphigus prescribed, in addition to:

a) Antibiotics
b) Ointments with antibiotics
c) Enter quarantine
d) Salicylic acid

289. The epidemic pemphigus of newborns is different from:

a) congenital pemphigus
b) staphylococcus
c) streptococcus
d) vesiculopustulosis

290. The causative agent of epidemic pemphigus in newborns:

a) Staphylococcus
b) Streptococcus
c) Congenital pemphigus
d) Syphilitic pemphigus

291. In newborns it happens:

a) nummular dermatitis
b) vesiculopustulosis
c) lichen planus
d) tubercles

292. Varnishes have the following effect:

a) Disinfectant
b) Anti-inflammatory
c) Keratolytic
d) Antibiotics

293. Chatterboxes have the following effect, in addition to:

a) Drying
b) Antipruritic
c) Disinfectant
d) Keratoplastic

294. Psoriatic patient more resistance to cyclosporin what is the type:

a. Scalp
b. Nails
c. Joints
d. Plaque

295. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by:

a) Staphylococcal infection
b) Streptococcus
c) Pseudomonas
 d) Escherichia coli

296. Erysipeloid is transmitted by:

a) Droplet
b) Feco-oral
c) Mosquito bite
d) Contact with animal

297. Which of these statements is false for Erythema marginatum?

a) Lesions are serpiginous
b) Characteristically it is evanescent
c) Rash worsens on application of heat
d) Rash is itchy

298. Both hand nails swollen psoriasis for 10 years, what is most common nail finding:
a. Oil drop
b. Nail pitting
c. Onycholysis
d. Nail clubbing

299. Picture hyperpigmented patch in cubital fossa:

a. Steroid
b. Tacrolimus
c. Minocycline
d. Phototherapy

300. Female patient with history of psoriasis controlled on biological therapy then discovered cancer breast
what to do next:
a. Watch
b. Methotrexate
c. Acitretin or phototherapy
d. Cyclosporin