Pep Mock Exam Questions Updated - 2

Compiled and Edited by OPERAH
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COMPILATION OF PEP MOCK QUESTIONS ANCHORED BY PHARM

BELLARMINE IN AUGUST - OCTOBER 2023
1. Which one of these is responsible for hardness of tablet?

A. Die filling
B. Compression force
C. A & B
D. None of the above
2. Friabilator is operated for____ Revolutions per minute.

A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 25
The drop height of the friability apparatus is around 6 inches or 156±2.0 mm.
Friability apparatus RPM (revolution/ minutes) = 24 – 26 (25 ±1)
Total Revolution / Test = 100 Revolutions / 4 Minutes.
3. In dissolution test, flask is maintained at

A. 31°C +/- 5C
B. 41°C +/-0.1C
C. 39°C +/- 0.6C
D. 40°C +/-0.1C
4. Enteric coated tablet disintegrate in.... Hours in a simulated intestinal fluid?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
5. Separation of tablet in 2 or more distinct layers is called

A. Capping
B. Mottling
C. Lamination
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D. Air entrapment
6. Capping is prevented by using ...punch
A. Flat
B. Circular
C. Square
D. Rectangular
Capping is the partial or complete removal of the crown of a tablet from the main body, while
Lamination is the separation of a tablet into two or more distinct layers
7. Plating of punch forces is done by

A. Chromium
B. Zinc
C. Iron
D Any of the above
8. Unequal distribution of colour is called

A. Capping
B. Lamination
C. Mottling
9____ is a directly compressible excipient

A. Spray dried lactose
B. Dibasic calcium phosphate
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
10. Sta-Rx 1500 contain ____ % of moisture

A. 15
B. 10
C. 18
D. 50
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11. The pH of the small intestine is ____

A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 6
D. 7-8
12. Perforated pan is used for ____

A. Sugar coating
B. Film coating
C. A&B
13. Subcoating is done to

A. Round the edges
B. Increase in the bulk of tablet
C. A & B
D. Make water resistant
14. Which is an example of an opacifier

A. TiO2
B. MgO
C. Silicate
Colorants and Opacifiers are added to film-coating formula to improve product appearance and to
protect the drug against light e.g. Insoluble pigments, Titanium dioxide (TiO2), Silicate etc.
15. Empty capsule has moisture content in the range of

A. 60%
B. 12-15%
C. 50-70%
D. 30%
16. Which machine is designed for filling of pellets?

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A. Rotofil
B. Rotosort
C. Ordinary machine
17. Soft gelatin capsules should not contain more than ____ ppm of iron as impurity.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 40
D. 60
18. Enteric resin used for coating is ____

A. Zein
B. Shellac
C. Cellulose acetate pthalate
D. All of the above
19. Base for chewable tablets includes____

A. Mannitol
B. Glucose
C. Lactose
20. Enteric coated tablet disintegrate in the _____

A. Stomach
B. Liver
C. Intestine
D. Mouth
21. One of these is not used as tablet glidant

A. Colloidal silica
B. Starch
C. Talc
D. Magnesium stearate
22. Rotosort is used for

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A. Sorting filled capsules

B. Filling the capsules
C. Mixing of powder
23. Hardness of tablet is measured by

A. Pfizer tester
B. Erweka tester
C. Strong cobb
D. All of the above
24. Shells of gelatin capsules is made elastic by adding

A. Sorbitol
B. PEG
C. Povidone
D. Lactose
25. A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix tablet is
A. HPMC
B. CAP
C. Polyethylene
D. Carnuba wax
26. How much amount is accepted to dissolve in a dissolution medium in 20mins at 50rpm?
A. Not less than 70%
B. Not more than 80%
C. Not less than 80%
D. 80%
27. Which tablet compression machine is best in compressing granules?

A. Single press
B. Longitudinal press
C. Rotary press
D. Stamping press
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28. Low melting point substances causes processing problem in tablet. Identify it
A. Poor flow
B. Weight variation
C. Sticking
D. Picking
29. Which capsule size number has the highest capacity?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 1
D. 000
There are standard size capsules that are named by numerical values. They are numbered:
a. 000 (largest)
b. 00
c. 0
d. 1
e. 2
f. 3
g. 4
h. 5 (smallest)
These sizes are the same for all types of Gelatin, HPMC and Pullulan. The majority of capsule
filling machinery are manufactured to be compatible with these standard sizes.
Pullulan capsule is a water-soluble polysaccharide containing plenty of hydroxyl groups which
can form hydrogen bonds with water. HPMC is a water-swellable cellulose derivative containing
methoxyl and hydroxypropyl groups which are difficult to form hydrogen bonds with water
30. Gelatin and glycerin are used for the preparation of lamellae in a specific ratio?
A. 1:1
B. 5:1
C. 9:1
D. 10:1
31. Which level of management is responsible for establishing a vision for the organization,
developing board plans and strategies, and directing subordinate manager?
A. First level manager
B. Middle level manager
C. Executive manager
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D. Second level manager
32. Using your whole body to communicate is called what?

A. Miming
B. Body language
C. Single language
D. Full communication
33. ____ plans have clearly defined objectives?

A. Directional
B. Specific
C. Flexible
D. Standing
34. The principle of objective states

A. Delegation of authority
B. Existence for a purpose
C. Formal organization
D None of the above
35. Which management function involves measuring results, comparing results to expectations,
and taking corrective actions?
A. Planning
B. Organising
C. Leading
D. Controlling
36. Staffing needs

A. Man power planning
B. Communication
C. Authority
D. Coordination
37. According to Fayol's 14 principle of management, "Espirit De Corps" refers to which of the
following?
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A. Being treated fairly and kindly

B. Spirit of cooperation
C. Team work and harmony
D. Spirit of work
38. First step of planning is____

A. Developing premises
B. Setting objectives
C. Identifying alternatives
D. Follow up
39. How many types of communication are there?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
The six types of communication are

a. Oral
b. Interpersonal
c. Nonverbal
d. Written
e. Visual
f. Listening
Oral includes any spoken speech and interpersonal involves verbal and nonverbal communication.
Nonverbal is physical expression and written is the use of letters and symbols to share information.
40. A manager who possess knowledge of the process, equipment, and potential problem of an
industry would possess what type of managerial skill?
A. Tactical
B. Administrative
C. Interpersonal
D. Organisational
41. What is good way to continue the communication?

A. Make good eye contact
B. Be active Listener
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C. Ask a question
D. Don not interrupt
42. Which is the primary function of management?

A. Controlling
B. Planning
C. Staffing
D Directing
43. Planning increases the chances of success

A. True
B. False
C. Depends
44. Non-financial incentives has many things to do with?

A. Directing
B. Motivation
C. Planning
D. Organising
45. Gangplank mean

A. Direct contact
B. Contact not allowed
C. Appointment before contact
D. Indirect contact
Gang Plank refers to an arrangement in which two managers working at the same level can
communicate with each other directly for quick communication.
46. Which is the oldest form of organization?

A. Line organization
B. Committee organization
C. Line and staff organization
D. Functional organization
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The six main types of organisation structure are given below:

a. Line Organisation.
b. Functional Organisation
c. Line and Staff Organisation.
d. Project Organisation
e. Matrix Organisation.
f. Committee Organisation
47. Which statement is related to principle of division of work?

A. Development should be divided into subsection
B. Work should be divided into small tasks
C. Labour should be divided
D. Resources should be divided into among the jobs
48. Management____
A. Reduces effectiveness
B cause chaos
C. Increases efficiency
D. Causes delay
49. Name the process which coordinate human efforts, assemble resources, and integrate both into
an untitled hold to be utilized in achieving specific goals
A. Management
B. Planning
C. Directing
D. Organising
50. As the plan of management increases in an organization, the number of level of management
in the organization.......
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain unaffected
51. Which of the following is not a limitation of planning

A. It involves cost
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B. Not a guarantee to success

C. Work in dynamic manner
D. Involves time
52. Which plan involves sequence of activities?

A. Policy
B. Method
C. Procedure
D. Objective
53. Management is____

A. An art
B. A science
C. An art and a science
D. Neither an art nor a science
54. Who is known as the father of management?

A. Alfred Marsala
B. Mathew Bolton
C. F. W. Taylor
D. Henry Gantt
55. Management is considered important because;

A. It helps an organization to adapt to changes
B. Seeks to integrate individual efforts
C. It helps in the development of the society
D. All of the above
56. Which technique of scientific management best describe 'Division of work'

A. Time study
B. Fatigue study
C. Functional foremanship
D. Method study
57. Assigning duties and responsibilities to the employee is the function of?
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A. Top level Management

B middle level Management
C. Lower level Management
D. All of the above
58. Policy formulation is the function of

A. Top level Management
B. Middle level Management
C. Operation management
D. A feature of management
59. Pick the odd one out

A. Foreman
B. Sales manager
C. Supervisor
D. First line manager
60. Which management function put the right people at the right place?
A. Directing
B. Staffing
C. Planning
D. Organising
61. ____ means giving the right work to the right person
A. Delegation of authority
B. Responsibility
C. Effective delegation
D. All project
62. Supply of human and materials resources and help to achieve the objectives of the business is
A. Planning
B. Organising
C. Management
D. Controlling
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63. Discipline starts from

A. Bottom to top
B. From middle
C. Top to Bottom
64. The content of communication is ____

A. A message
B. Noise
C. Media richness
D. Jargon
65. The systemic flow of services of goods or information from buying materials for product
delivery to customers is known as
A. Supply chain
B. Value chain
C. Material flow chain
D. Manufacturing flow chain
66. Decision model to calculate optimal quantity of inventory to be ordered is called

A. Efficient order quantity
B. Economic order quantity
C. Rational order quantity
D. Optimized order quantity
67. The following classes of cost are usually involved in inventory decisions
A. Cost of ordering
B. Carrying cost
C. Cost of shortage
D. All of the above
68. Which of the following is an inventory?

A. Raw materials
B. Finished products
C. Consumable tools
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D. All of the above
69. The cost of product failure, error prevention, and appraisal is____
A. Stocking cost
B. Stock-out cost
C. Cost of quality
D. Shrinkage cost
70. Which of the following is not an inventory?

A. Machine
B. Raw materials
C. Finished products
D. Consumable tools
71. Forecast ____

A. Becomes more accurate with longer time horizon
B. Are rarely perfect
C. Are more accurate for individual items than for group of items
72. A systemic process for originating, developing and evaluating new product ideas is k own as
A. Marketing research
B. Product planning and development
C. Marketing forecast
D. All of the above
73. The length of time for which sellers extend credit terms to buyers is known as
A. Marker
B. Dating
C. Buying
D. Price tag
74. What is the primary objective for materials management?

A. Efficient material planning
B. Maintaining good supplier and customer relationship
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C. Supply and distribution of materials

D. All of the above
75. Which of the following is not an input into logistics

A. Land
B. Competitive advantage
C. Facilities
D. Equipment
76. You are required to make 350 g of a paste that contains 15% w/w zinc oxide. Which of the
following is the amount of zinc oxide required?
A 5.25 g
B 52.50 g
C 35.00 g
D 3.50 g
E 15.00 g
If you read meaning into the question you will see they asking you of the amount of zinc oxide
required to be in 350g, give a concentration of 15%w/w.
That means, since

15%w/w = 15g in 100g.
Then,
How many grams will now be in 350g.
That is;
15g in 100g
?..g in 350g.
Therefore, 350g/100g x 15g

= 3.5 x 15g
= 52.5g (Ans)
77. Given a 20% w/v solution of chlorhexidine gluconate, what volume is required to make 400
mL of a 2% w/v solution?
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A 40 mL
B 20 mL
C 80 mL
D 2 mL
E 4 mL
Here you are given concentrations and volume to find another volume.
Therefore,
C1V1=C2V2
C1= 20%w/v
V1= ?
C2= 2%w/v
V2= 400ml.
20x V1 = 2 x 400
= 20V1 = 800
V1 = 800/20
=40mls
78. A 1 in 10 000 solution of potassium permanganate contains which of the following

concentrations?
A 50.0 mg potassium permanganate in 500 mL solution
B 1.0 mg potassium permanganate in 100 mL solution
C 5.0 mg potassium permanganate in 500 mL solution
D 1.0 mg potassium permanganate in 1000 mL solution
E 3.0 mg potassium permanganate in 300 mL solution
1 in 10,000 solution means 1g of the solute (KMnO4) in 10,000mL of the solution

1g = 1000mg
Hence, 1000mg in 10,000 mL of the solution
i.e. 1mg is present in 10mL of the solution.
The ratio of the solute to the solution is 1:10
Only option A 50mg in 500mL of solution is equivalent to the
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79. In your pharmacy you have a stock solution of drug F with a concentration of 25% w/v. Drug
F is used as a mouthwash at a concentration of 0.25% w/v. You are requested to supply 50 mL of
a solution of intermediate strength, such that the patient will dilute this solution 1 in 20 to get the
correct concentration immediately before use. Which of the following should be the concentration
of the intermediate solution?
A 5% w/v
B 10% w/v
C 2.5% w/v
D 0.5% w/v
E 15% w/v
Using C1V1=C2V2 where C1= a, V1 = 1, C2= 0.25, V2=20

C1= 5%w/v
80. Which of the following volumes of an adrenaline 1 in 100 solution would be given by
intramuscular injection to a 2-year-old child for treatment of anaphylaxis if the dose were 120
micrograms stat?
A 12.00 mL
B 120.00 mL
C 0.12 mL
D 24.0 mL
E 0.24 mL
1 in 100 solution of adrenaline means 1g of the solute is present in 100mL of the solution
1g (1000mg) is present in 100mL of the solution and this is equivalent to
10mg of the solute present in 1 mL of the solution
The question then says 120mcg (which is 0.12mg) will be present in how many mLs of the solution
(0.12mg x 1)/10 = 0.012mL
81. A child requires a single oral daily dose of 7.0 mg/kg body weight of drug A. The child’s
weight is 8.0 kg. Which of the following oral daily doses of drug A is received by this child?
A 0.82 mg
B 8.20 mg
C 82.00 mg
D 5.60 mg
E 56.00 mg
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7mg is required for 1kg weight; Hence 8kg will require (8 x 7)mg of drug A
Ans: E (56mg)
82. You are presented with a prescription for allopurinol tablets 100 mg at a dose of 300 mg each
day for 14 days, reducing to 200 mg for a further 7 days. How many packs of 28 tablets should
you supply?
A Two
B Three
C One
D Four
E One and a half
A tablet of the allopurinol comes as 100mg

300mg will be 3 tablets and this will be used for 14 days; that is (14 x 3 = 42) tablets
200mg will be 2 tablets and this will be used for another 7 days: that is (7 x 2 = 14) tablets
Total number of tablets required is 42 + 14 = 56 tablets
Note that a pack of the allopurinol comes in 28 tablets: Hence, the number of packs required will
be 56/28 = 2 packs
83. Which of the following holistically captures pharmacists’ role in health care?
A. Distribution
B. Clinical Pharmacy
C. Pharmaceutical Care
D. Total Pharmacy care
84. How many components are there in pharmaceutical care philosophy, as espoused by Hepler
and Strand?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
85. Pharmacists’ responsibility in pharmaceutical care is to:

(a) Counsel patients
(b) Dispense medications
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(c) Identify common symptoms

(d) Resolve drug therapy problems
86. The most beneficial outcome of drug therapy to the patient is:
(a) Clinical
(b) Economic
(c) Humanistic
(d) Process
87. “Length of stay” in a care facility is an example of which outcome?

(a) Clinical
(b) Economic
(c) Humanistic
(d) Process
88. Which of the following outcomes in malaria therapy may result in resistance development?
(a) Clinical cure
(b) Parasitological Cure
(c) Radical Cure
(d) None of the options
89. The “cornerstone” step in the provision of pharmaceutical care is to:

(a) Establish professional relationship
(b) Collect patient data
(c) Identify drug therapy problems
(d) Document activities
90. Data collected through patient interview is often described as:

(a) Inaccurate
(b) Accurate
(c) Subjective
(d) Objective
91. One of the following is regarded as a novel pharmaceutical care behaviour:

(a) Monitor patient outcomes
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(b) Obtain patient symptom information

(c) Make a recommendation
(d) Obtain patient medication history
92. Which of the following components of quality is the most important to the patient?
(a) Structure
(b) Process
(c) Outcome
(d) Structure and Process
93. Process criteria in pharmaceutical care are divided into:

(a) Structure and Process
(b) Technical and Interpersonal
(c) Subjective and Objective
(d) Manual and Computerized.
94. Which of the following is not correct regarding drug therapy problems:
(a) Medical problem
(b) Negative outcome
(c) Amenable to detection
95. Drug related needs of patients include the following, EXCEPT:

(a) Appropriate indication
(b) Effectiveness
(c) Safety
(d) Treated indication
96. An asthmatic patient was given propranolol for palpitations. The potential drug therapy
problems are:
(a) Unnecessary drug therapy and untreated indication
(b) Wrong drug and adverse drug reaction
(c) Inappropriate adherence and dosage too high
(d) Wrong drug and non-adherence
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97. Pharmacists communicating with patient should NOT:

(a) Appear relaxed
(b) Use gestures
(c) Use 100% eye contact
(d) Be positioned at patients’ eye level
98. How do you take your antihypertensive medication?” Is an example of:

(a) Open ended question
(b) Close ended question
(c) Leading question
(d) Direct question
99. Pharmacist-patient communication should avoid this question type:

(a)Open ended
(b) Close ended
(c) Leading
(d) Probing
100. When is the registration of Pharmacists by PCN done?

What would guide answering this will be dependent on the options available because one cannot
tell if the question refers to the registration with regards to meeting the requirements such as
completion of internship among other requirements, for full registration, or the renewal of license
that is done between January and March of every new year. So watch out for the options.
101. Which of these drugs causes Cycloplegia?

A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Chloramphenicol
102. Which of these drugs causes Pancytopenia?

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Folic acid
C. Cyanocobalamin
D. Cyproheptadine
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Pancytopenia is a medical condition characterized by a significant reduction in the number of all

the 3 types of blood cells: Red blood cell, white blood cells and platelets.
It can lead to anaemia, increased susceptibility to infection and a tendency to bleed very easily.
Several drugs can potentially cause this condition as side effect. E.g are;
-Chemotherapy medications
-Antiepileptic drugs like carbamazepine, phenytoin, etc
And some antibiotics such as chloramphenicol
103. What is the antidote for diazepam poisoning?

A. Activated charcoal
B. Flumazenil
C. Bolus of Hydrocortisone
D. Buspirone
104. What is the meaning of PPA in Pharmacy?

A. Place of Primary assignment
B. Pharmacy and poison act
C. Poison and Pharmacy act
Pharmacy Place of Assignment
105. What is the antidote for insulin overdose?

A. Incretin
B. 50% dextrose
C. Acretin
D. Glucagon
Glucagon breaks glucose (glycogen) stored in muscles/ other parts in to the blood
106. What is the antidote for warfarin?

A. Phytomenadione
B. Heparin
C. Neosporin
D. Coumadin
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Phytomenadione is the chemical name for Vitamin K

The chemical name is used that chemical name to bring our mind that vitamin K is also
phytomenadione. So of you see this and not vitamin k. Phytomenadione is vitamin k1 which is an
antidote of warfarin..... Thereby synthesizing pro-coagulant factors
107. One of these is the route of administration of insulin?

A. Oral
B. Intrathecal
C. Intravenous
D. Subcutaneous
108. Which of these vaccines are frozen?

A. DTaP
B. HPV
C. MMRV
D. PCV
MMRV means, Measles, Mumps and Rubella Vaccine

It contains live Varicella virus and it is used against the diseases mentioned above
109. Which of these antiretroviral drugs causes severe Hepatotoxicity?

On those question, the answer will between Zidovudine and Nevirapine.
You are more likely to see zidovudine in the options. But if there is no zidovudine but there is
Nevirapine, go for Nevirapine.
110. When was PSN established?

A. 1972
B. 1927
C. 1993
D. 1997
111. These vaccines can be given IM

A. MMRV
B. HPV vaccine
C. Hep B vaccine
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D. All of the above
112. Which of this is Hansen disease?

A. Tuberculosis
B. Leprosy
C. Meningitis
D. Herpes simplex virus infection
From the founders name Gerhard Armauer Hansen
113. What is the dosing of zidovudine?

Ans: 500- 600mg in 2-3 divided dose
In mother to child prevention start 300mg from 28th wks pregnancy 600mg start dose onset of
labour or 300mg stat them followed by 300mg every 3hour till delivering then 300mg
twice daily for 7 day
114. Which of these causes Hansen disease?

A. Mycobacterium
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Monococal liprae
D. Mycobacterium leprae
115. Which mode of administration is done under the fatty layer of the skin?
A. Intradermal
B. Parenteral
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intramuscular
116. Which of the following is not caused by a virus?

A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Cholera
D. Chicken pox
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Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by Vibrio cholerae

Kindly go back to the question on MMRV vaccine and compare with the question.
117. The following are hospital emergencies except?

A. HIV
B. Accident victim
C. Hypoglycaemic coma
D. Hypertensive crisis
118. The duties/functions of PSN includes all but one of the following?
KINDLY REFER THE NOTES ATTACHED AT THE END OF THIS DOCUMENT
119. Which of the following doesn't cause dependence?

A. Opium
B. Diazepam
C. Aspirin
D. Pentazocine
Note the new vaccines that can be frozen that is available now are;
Pfizer-biotech and Moderna vaccine.
And I hope you know what they are used against.
It is for covid-19.
120. Timolol 0.25% eyedrop is equivalent to how many mg of timolol per ml?
To determine the equivalent milligrams (mg) of timolol per milliliter (mL) in a 0.25% timolol eye
drop solution, you can use the following calculation:
0.25% timolol means there are 0.25 grams of timolol in 100 mL of solution (since 1% is equivalent
to 1 gram per 100 mL).
Now, you need to convert grams to milligrams. There are 1,000 milligrams (mg) in 1 gram. So:
0.25 grams = 0.25 x 1,000 mg = 250 mg

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Now, you know there are 250 mg of timolol in 100 mL of the solution. To find the mg/mL
concentration:
250 mg in 100mL
? Will now be in 1ml
1x100= 250mg
= 250mg/100ml
= 2.5mg/ml
Therefore, a 0.25% timolol eye drop solution is equivalent to 2.5 mg of timolol per mL.
Please any day and anytime you see anything, any number say 2 written as 2%w/v or 2%w/w.
Don't even get confused, it doesn't mean 2mg in 100ml or 2mg in 100g.
It is always 2g in 100ml for w/v and 2g in 100g for w/w.
It is always a gram not a milligram because I can see some of you coming to my DM really get
confused with it.
It is always a gram (g) not mg.
121. One of these drugs is used in the management of oral cadidiasis?

A. Ketoconazole
B. Clotrimazole
C. Nystatin
122. Which is an anti-inflammatory that least likely to cause gastric irritation?

A. Ibuprofen
B. Aspirin
C. Piroxicam
D. Celecoxib
Celecoxib is COX 2 selective and do not interfere with COX 1, hence it doesn't interfere with the
production of prostaglandins etc. which serve as cytoprotectives to protect the stomach linens from
the stomach acid.
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On this question, the options could be relative.

Depending on the options the answer could change.
For instance, if celecoxib wasn't, the answer should have been ibuprofen, as ibuprofen is less likely
to irritate the GIT then aspirin, diclofenac, naproxen, Piroxicam, ETC
But in the exam you see Celecoxib in the options. That is the answer
123. Technical groups in PSN includes the following except?

A. Association of community Pharmacies of Nigeria.
B. Nigeria association of Pharmacists in academia
C. Association of hospital and administrative Pharmacists of Nigeria
D. Association of Lady Pharmacists (ALPs)
PSN is made up of two broad group of members:

The INTEREST group and the TECHNICAL groups.
The interest groups includes; association of Lady Pharmacists, the Young Pharmacist groups.
While the technical groups includes;
ACPN- Association of community Pharmacist of Nigeria
NAPA- Nigerian association of Pharmacists in academia,
NAIP- Nigeria association of Industrial Pharmacists,
Association of hospital and administrative Pharmacists of Nigeria
124. One of these is not an antihistamine

A. Cimetidine
B. Cyproheptadine
C. Chlorpheniramine
I brought up this question to bring the mind of many of you on cyproheptadine.

Just want to make you realize that cyproheptadine is an antihistamine and H- 1 antagonist.
Know it cos you may come across it in ur exam
125. One of these is H-2 antagonist

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A. Cimetidine
B. Cyproheptadine
D. All of the above
126. Which of these is not an antifungal

A. Nystatin
B. Terbinafine
C. Griseofulvin
D. Neomycin
127. Adding too much Superdisintegrants causes?

A. Orange peel
B. Picking
C. Formulation instability
D. Mottling
Superdisintegrants are the agents used for the preparation of mouth dissolving tablets, dispersible
tablets, or fast dissolving tablets. These are used at a lower concentration as compared with the
simple disintegrants (about 1%–10% by weight with respect to the total weight of the formulation)
eg. croscarmellose, crospovidone, sodium starch glycolate, and magnesium aluminum silicate
(Veegum HV), sphere shaped starch grains etc.
Disadvantages of adding superdisintegrants to pharmaceutical products are
a. They are costly and turns out making the formulation expensive
b. Adding superdintegrant is Time-consuming and delicate.
c. It makes the product more sensitive and hygroscopic in nature
128. Ketoconazole exists as ____

A. Oral & Topical
B. Parenteral
C. Parenteral &Topical
D. Oral only
130. Which of these is the correct adult dosing of digoxin?

A. 375mg/day
B. 375kg/day
C. 375mcg/day
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D. 375g/day
131. Which of these is contraindicated in renal insufficiency?

A. Fibrates
B. Statins
C. Bile acid sequestrants
Diabetic patients with moderate renal impairment (estimated glomerular filtration rate [eGFR] 30–
59 mL/min/1.73 m2) are at particular cardiovascular risk. Fenofibrate's safety in these patients is
an issue because it may elevate plasma creatinine by increasing metabolic production of creatinine.
Fenofibrate increases blood creatinine, but does not change the glomerular filtration rate in patients
with mild renal insufficiency. Fenofibrate is known to increase serum creatinine, but this effect is
fully reversible, even after long-term treatment. The mechanism underlying this is poorly
understood, but fenofibrate is not thought to impair true glomerular function, as measured by inulin
clearance, the gold standard measure of renal function.
132. The most effective drug used in the treatment of inflammation in asthma include
A. Long acting beta receptor agonist
B. Short acting beta agonist
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. Short acting corticosteroids
133. The difference between Cholera and food poisoning

A. Pain
B. Diarrhoea
C. Vomiting
D. Blood in stool
Food poisoning is always distressing because it comes with pain. Cholera is not so.
All the other symptoms surfaces in both.
Please take note of the dysentery with respect to the blood in stool. Some of your paper will
carry the question.
134. Sterile preparations must be except?

A. Isotonic
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B. Free from particulate matter

C. Free from API
D. All of the above
135. Insulin glargine is...

A. Rapid acting
B. Short acting
C. Long acting
D. Intermediate acting
Please take your time and revisit the classes of this antidiabetics. You will have a lot of confusing
questions from there, in the classifications specifically. So read it up
Types of insulin
a. Rapid-acting (or ultra-short acting) insulins (bolus insulin) are usually taken at the start
of a meal
Examples: Insulin aspart (Fiasp, NovoRapid, Trurapi), Insulin glulisine (Apidra), Insulin
lispro (Humalog, Admelog)
Appearance: Clear
Onset of action: 4–20 minutes
Duration of action: 3–5 hours
b. Short-acting insulins (bolus insulin) are usually taken a short time before a meal.
Examples: Insulin regular (Humulin-R, Novolin ge Toronto)
Appearance: Clear
Onset of action: 15–30 minutes
Duration of action: 6.5–24 hours
` Insulin regular (Entuzity U-500)
Appearance: Clear
Onset of action: 15 minutes
c. Intermediate-acting insulins (basal insulin) are usually taken in the morning and at
bedtime.
Examples: Insulin NPH (Humulin-N and Novolin ge NPH)
Appearance: Cloudy
Onset of action: 1-3 hours
Duration of action: Up to 18 hours
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d. Long-acting insulins (basal insulin) are usually taken once daily or in the morning and at
bedtime.
Examples: Insulin detemir (Levemir), Insulin glargine (Lantus, Basaglar)
Appearance: Clear
e. Ultra long-acting insulins (basal insulin) are usually taken once daily.
Examples: Degludec (Tresiba), Insuline glargine (Toujeo U-300)
Appearance: Clear
136. When was NDLEA established?

A. 29th Dec. 1927
B. 27th Dec. 1889
C. 29th Dec. 1989
D. 27th Dec. 1927
137. When was NAFDAC established?

A. 1999
B. 1993
C. 1951
D. 1992
138. How many years does the PCN Chairman hold tenure?
Answer: 4 years and can be re-elected
139. What is the difference between a disease and an index disease?
Ans: Disease is a state of pathology while Index disease is the first time a particular disease
was recorded. Example COVID December 2019
140. Which is not a superficial fungal infection?

A. Tinea capitis
B. Aspergillosis
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C. Tinea cruris
D. Tinea barbae
Please take your time and read systemic and superficial fungal infections.
Take note of them. That is because your opinions in the exam may vary because of paper types.
So it is good you know them. One secret of knowing superficial fungal infection is that most of
them has "Tinea" in their names.
Exceptions being something like onychomycosis, ringworm etc.
141. Health indicators are the following except?

A. Mortality
B. Life expectancy
C. Morbidity
Ans=D
Health indicators are quantifiable characteristics of a population which researchers use as

supporting evidence for describing the health of a population. Typically, researchers will use a
survey methodology to gather information about a population sample, use statistics in an attempt
to generalize the information collected to the entire population, and then use the statistical analysis
to make a statement about the health of the population. Health indicators are often used by
governments to guide health care policy or to make goals for improving population health.
CHARACTERISTICS:
A health indicator which will be used internationally to describe global health should have the
following characteristics:
-It should be defined in such a way that it can be measured uniformly internationally
-It must have statistical validity.[
-The indicator must be data which can feasibly be collected in a reasonable amount of time.
-The analysis of the data must result in a recommendation on which people can make changes to
improve health.
Health indicators examples/status:

1. Life expectancy
2. Mortality
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3. Morbidity
4. Health care delivery indicators: The indicators reflect the equity of distribution of health
resources in different parts of the country and provision of health care
Doctor -population ratio
Doctor- bed ratio
Population -bed ratio
Population per health centre/sub-centre
Population per traditional health attendant.
And so on.
With these I believe you should have an organized thought on the topic already to carry on.
142. Which of the following is not a Psychotropic drug?

A. Amantadine
B. Sertraline
C. Fluoxetine
D. Chlorpromazine
A psychotropic drug describe any that affect mood, behaviour, thoughts, or perception. They have
5 major classes:
1. Antianxiety drugs/hypnotics
2. Antidepressants
3. Antipsychotics
4. Stimulants
5. Anxiolytics.
Amantadine is an antiparkinsonian drug used to treat dyskinesia associated with
Parkinson's disease
143. The standard treatment for tuberculosis include?

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 10 months
D. 12 months
The standard treatment of TB is called the DOTS- Directly observed treatment short-course.
It implement the 6 months short course regimen for treatment of TB.
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It involves the use of Isoniazid, Rifampin, pyrazinamide and Ethambutol for 2months, followed
by Isoniazid and Rifampin for a further 4months.
Remember this is the not the retreatment regimen when a patient have a smear positive relapse
cases or treatment was interrupted.
Retreatment regimen is a 8 months treatment course which includes: 2 months of Isoniazid,
Rifampin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and streptomycin.
Followed by 1 month Isoniazid, Rifampin, pyrazinamide and Ethambutol, and 5 months Isoniazid,
Rifampin and Ethambutol.
144. Which of the following is a psychotropic drug?

A. Anaesthetic
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Antiparkinsonian
D. All of the above
Ans: B
The only psychotropic drug here is Anticonvulsants. This is because they act on the mind and
positively or negatively affect behaviour.
All the other options are not psychotropic drugs.
Take note.
145. Aspartame is used as.......

A. Sweetener
B. Diluent
C. Disintegrant
D. Binder
146. Lactose can be used in tablet formulation as a.....

A. Binder
B. Diluent
C. Colourant
D. Sweetener
147. Normal range of HB1ac is

A. 3 -6%
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B. 4-8%
C. Less than or equal to 9%
D. Greater or equal to 9%
For this question, different authors report different but close figures.
So in your exam you will have to use your initiative and elimination method approach to choose.
For instance if you see 3.5 to 6.5 or 3 to 7, depending on the other options you should
know what to choose.
148. Buspirone is used for ____

A. Opioid disorder
B. Alcohol disorder
C. Tobacco disorder
D. All of the options
I understand why you guys are choosing C option, because we initially stated that that Buspirone
is used in smoking cessation.
Please not that Buspirone is used for the treatment of anxiety disorder.
As long as it is used specifically for smoking cessation, opioids and alcohol abuse also causes
anxiety problems which Buspirone can be useful in.
Always pay attention to how the questions comes.
149. Mottling occurs as a result of ____

A. Too much colourant
B. Too little colourant
C. Dye migration
D. Too much diluent
Too much or too little colourant doesn't cause mottling. Dye migration does.
Whether too much or too little mottling will never occur if the dye didn't migrate.
150. One of these defines lamination

A. Partial or complete removal of the crown of a tablet from the main body.
B. Separation of a tablet into two or more distinct layers
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C. Using coating materials to lamination a tablet to improve appearance

Ans: B (separation of a tablet into two or more distinct layers)
Ensure to check the definition of capping which is option A to ensure it doesn't confuse you.
It is definition of capping that confuses most people with that of lamination all the time.
151. PSN membership is ____

A. Affiliate
B. Associate
C. Full membership
D. Honorary
There are four types of members of PSN in Nigeria. They are:
Full Membership: For pharmacists registered with the Pharmacists Council of Nigeria (PCN) and
has fulfilled all obligations, such as due to PSN state and national body.
Associate Membership: They are intern pharmacists.
Affiliate Membership: Final year students of approved pharmacy schools in Nigeria.
Honorary Membership: Open to non-Nigerian pharmacists who are registered in their country
and have contributed to the growth of the pharmacy profession in Nigeria.
152. _____ is the substance obtained from from Cannabis sativa?

A. Opium
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Morphine
The substance obtained from Cannabis sativa is known as Cannabinoids. The most common type
is 9-tetrahydrocannabinoid which is responsible for the psychoactive effect of marijuana
153. Which form is used to record control and abused drugs?

A. Form M
B. Form D
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C. Form C
D. Form K
Note the following forms:

a. FORM D - certificate of experience.
b. FORM C - Application for registration as a Pharmacist.
c. FORM J - Application for retention of name in the registrar.
d. FORM E - Certificate of registration as a Pharmacist.
e. FORM H - First annual license to practice as a registered Pharmacist.
f. FORM K - Disposal of Poison.
154. How long can the registrar remain in office?

A. 3 years
B. 1 year
C. As the council deems fit
D. As long as he wants
Ans: A (3years) in the old Pharmacist council of Nigeria act but it is now 4 years in the revised
Pharmacy Council of Nigeria Act 2022
Some people use to think that PCN Chairman is the same as the registra.
Please check your forensic and see if there is any difference in the duration of their offices to avoid
confusion in your exam.
155. _____ is the agent that causes wart?

A. HSV
B. HPV
C. HCV
D. Genitalis Wartis
Ans: B (HPV- Human papiloma virus)

Some use to get confused with Human papiloma virus and Herpes Simplex Virus.
Herpes Simplex Virus causes genital herpes.
156. Which of the following drugs may lower serum phenytoin level?
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A. Cimetidine
B. Carbamazepine
C. Metronidazole
D. Fluconazole
Carbamazepine is an enzyme inducers and the only drug that can reduce serum phenytoin level in
the options.
All the other drugs in the options and Enzyme inhibitors.
With that I want to believe you understand the interaction that happens
157. Some antihypertensive agents affect potassium levels. Which of the following is wrongly
matched
A. Lisinopril - hyperkalemia
B. Losartan - Hyperkalemia
C. Enalapril - Hypokalemia
D. Hydrochlorothiazide - Hypokalemia
158. Magnesium stearate is used as ...... in tableting

A. Lubricant
B. Diluent
C. Sweetener
D. Disintegrant
159. Fruity and ketone breath is a sign of ...

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. High fat diet
D. Ketoacidosis
160. Empty Calories is associated with....

A. Simple carbohydrates
B. Complex carbohydrates
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C. Protein
D. Amino acids
161. _____ is the organism responsible for Hansen disease

A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Margue virus
D. Wuhan virus
Hansen disease is Leprosy, the reason for the answer.
162. Choose the INCORRECT answer:

(a) Traditional medicine relies on past experience
(b) Traditional medicine practices are always explicable
(c) Traditional medicine is used in diagnosing and prevention of diseases
(d) Traditional medicine is a combination of knowledge and practices
163. Materia medica contains herbal remedies of:

(a) Indian origin
(b) Chinese origin
(c) Hippocrates
(d) Unani
164. NSAID that act by irreversible acetylation of both COX1 and COX 2 is
A. Aspirin
B. Piroxicam
C. Naproxen
D. Ibuprofen
165. The following are symptoms of tuberculosis except?

A. Fever
B. Diarrhoea
C. Night sweats
The systemic symptoms due to the systemic effects of TB includes fever, loss of weight and
appetite, anaemia, tachycardia and night sweats.
These systemic signs of TB present in all forms of post-primary TB irrespective of organ system
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involved.
Cough is the most common specific symptoms. At first, it is minimally productive of yellow or
green mucus, usually upon rising in the morning but becomes more productive as the disease
progresses.
Haemoptysis is the presence of blood in sputum. It is usually seen in patients with advanced
Cavitary disease.
Dyspnoea may result from rupture of the lungs.
166. Which is Heparin antidote?

A. Warfarin
B. Coumadin
C. Protamine
D. Deferoxamine
167. Which virus does not cause haemorrhagic fever?

A. Wuhan
B. Lassa
C. Marburg
D. Yellow fever
Viruses that cause viral haemorrhagic fever are; Ebola, Marburg, yellow fever, dengue, Lassa,
Crimean-Congo and Rift Valley
168. The following drugs are among the first line of drugs given to blacks except?
A. CCBs
B. ARBs
C. ACEIs
D. Beta blockers
First line agents of antihypertensive in blacks are as follows according to how they should be
selected:
-Thiazide diuretics
-CCBs
-ACEIs and
-ARBs
169. Which drug causes orange-brown urine, Nausea and vomiting?

A. Rifampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Most common adverse effects of Rifampin includes:

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Rash, fever, nausea and vomiting, Rifampin may cause cholestatic jaundice, intermittent
administration of Rifampin causes flu-like syndrome characterized by fever, chills, myalgias, and
anaemia, Exfoliative dermatitis is more frequent in HIV-positive TB patients.
*Rifampin imparts a harmless orange to Orange-reddish or orange-brown colour to urine, faeces,
tears, sweat, saliva, sputum, and contact lenses.
170. Which of these drugs is given to patients that has Asthma and HBP?
A. Propranolol
B. Nadolol
C. Atenolol
D. Metoprolol
Cardioselective beta blockers specifically block the beta receptors only in heart cells unlike non-
selective beta blockers that block both beta1 and beta2 receptors and so affect the heart, lungs,
vascular smooth muscles, kidneys, GI, etc. Therefore, Cardioselective beta blockers are generally
considered to be safe for people with asthma and other lung conditions. Cardio-selective beta
blockers are noted with the acronym below:
MANBABE
M- Metoprolol
A- Atenolol
N- Nebivolol
B- Bisoprolol
A- Acebutolol
B- Betaxolol
E- Esmolol
180. Hyperinsulinemia can occur in all the following except?

A. Type-1 diabetes
B. Insulinoma
C. Insulin resistance
In type 1 diabetes, there is absolute absence of insulin and the pancreas are unable to produ ce
insulin.
Therefore there is no way you could have hyperinsulinemia in type 1 diabetes.
All the other options presents with hyperinsulinemia.
190. Which of these is not a polyphasic system?

A. Emulsion
B. Solution
C. Suspension
D. Lubricant
The only monophasic option here is solution.

When a solute is dropped into a solvent, it either completely dissolve, partially dissolve or it is
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insoluble.
When a solution didn't dissolve or partially dissolve, it give rise to presence of two or more phases
in the solution; the solvent and the undissolved solute.
When a solute completely dissolves it is called a solution. And a complete dissolution will return
it to a monophasic system.
191. Which of these will reduce the absorption of tetracycline?

A. Fat
B. Metronidazole
C. Milk
D. Cimetidine
200. Which of the following does not requires viscometer?

A. Suspension
B. Suppository
C. Solution
D. All of the above
Major evaluation for suppositories are determination of tensile strength, breakability etc
201. Minimum duration of TB treatment?

A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 3 months
202. Deficiency of which of the following causes mental retardation?

A. Iodine
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. Potassium
203. Which route involves injection into the fatty tissue under the skin?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intradermal
C. Intramuscular
D. Intra-articular
204. The following bases are used in penicillin ointment except?

A. Hydrocarbon bases
B. Water soluble bases
C. Absorption base
D. Water insoluble base
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Penicillin is a water soluble drug and must not be prepared with water insoluble bases
204. Solution is a____

A. Single phase system
B. Polyphasic system
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic
205. When is BCG vaccine administered?

A. 6 weeks
B. At birth
C. 14 weeks
D. 9 weeks
206. Which vaccine must have been given at 4- months?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Yellow fever vaccine
C. Polio vaccine
D. BCG vaccine
Polio causes disabilities, hence the vaccine is always given early in life to avoid the infection and
the corresponding bone malformation. Babies should get one dose of polio vaccine at each of the
following ages: 2 months old, 4 months old, 6 through 18 months old, and 4 through 6 years
old.
Below is the list of vaccinations for baby from birth till 10 years of age
Birth BCG, Hep B1, OPV

6 weeks DTwP /DTaP1, Hib-1, IPV-1, Hep B2, PCV 1, Rota-1
10 weeks DTwP /DTaP2, Hib-2, IPV-2, Hep B3, PCV 2, Rota-2
14Weeks ` DTwP /DTaP3, Hib-3, IPV-3, Hep B4, PCV 3, Rota-3*
6 Months Influenza-1
7 Months Influenza -2
6 – 9 Months Typhoid Conjugate Vaccine
9 Months MMR 1 (Mumps, measles, Rubella)
12 Months Hepatitis A- 1
12 – 15 Months PCV Booster
15 Months MMR 2, Varicella
16 – 18 Months DTwP /DTaP, Hib, IPV
18 – 19 Months Hepatitis A- 2, Varicella 2
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4 – 6 years DTwP /DTaP, IPV, MMR 3

9 – 15years (Girls) HPV (2 doses)
10 – 12 Years Tdap/ Td
2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th Year Annual Influenza Vaccine
207. Propranolol is not given to diabetic patients because it

A. Masks symptoms of hyperinsulinemia
B. Masks symptoms of hypoglycaemia
C. Has a direct effect on insulin hence, inhibiting its activity
D. All of the above
208. Which vaccine must be given within 24hours of birth?

A. BCG
B. Hepatitis
C. Polio
D. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
209. Which drug in treatment of TB is contraindicated in those that is having gout?

A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampin
D. Streptomycin
Pyrazinamide has the highest risk to cause decrease in uric acid clearance, hence has the highest
tendency to cause gout. This is followed by Ethambutol.
So since pyrazinamide is absent in the options, then the right option should be Ethambutol
and not Isoniazid.
210. Which anti TB drug causes colour blindness?

A. Rifampin
B. Isoniazid
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol causes optic Neuritis and makes the patient unable to distinguish between red
and green colour.
211. One of the following is not a cause of dyslipidaemia

A. CCBs
B. Thiazide diuretic
D. All of the above
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Thiazide and beta blockers are majorly implicated in dyslipidaemia
212. Spinal cord injury is BEST managed by one of the following alternative medical
practices:
(a) Acupuncture
(b) Chiropractic
(c) Naturopathy
(c) Ayurveda
Chiropractic is a licensed health care profession that emphasizes the body's ability to heal itself.
Treatment typically involves manual therapy, often including spinal manipulation. Other forms of
treatment, such as exercise and nutritional counselling, may be used as well
Naturopathy aims to educate the person to look after their own health and the health of their
family, minimising symptoms of any illness, supporting the body's capacity to heal, and balancing
the body so that illness is less likely to occur in the future.
Ayurveda translates to “knowledge of life”. Based on the idea that disease is due to an imbalance
or stress in a person's consciousness, Ayurveda encourages certain lifestyle interventions and
natural therapies to regain a balance between the body, mind, spirit, and the environment.
Complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) is treatment that falls outside of mainstream
healthcare. These treatments range from acupuncture and homeopathy, to aromatherapy,
meditation and colonic irrigation.
a. Homeopathy is an alternative medicine based on the theory of treating 'like with like'.
Homeopathy claims to stimulate healing responses to diseases by administering substances
that mimic the symptoms of those diseases in healthy people. The effectiveness of
homeopathic preparations is disputed within medical science.
b. Aromatherapy is the use of essential oils from plants for healing. Although the word
"aroma" makes it sound as if the oils are inhaled, they can also be massaged into the skin,
or rarely, taken by mouth.
c. Colonic irrigation is the practice of injecting water via the anus to flush out the colon,
used as a therapeutic treatment.
d. Acupuncture is the practice of penetrating the skin with thin, solid, metallic needles which
are then activated through gentle and specific movements of the practitioner's hands or with
electrical stimulation. Acupuncture is part of the ancient practice of Traditional Chinese
medicine.
213. Which of these is a mechanism of drying granules?

A. Spheronization
B. Fluidized bed drying
C. Solar drying
D. Convective drying
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Drying is a diffusional process in which the transfer of moisture to the surrounding medium takes
place by the evaporation of surface moisture, as soon as some of the surface moisture vaporizes,
more moisture is transported from interior of the solid to its surface and this (drying) can be by
conduction, convection or radiation or a combination of any of the mechanisms.
214. What is the use of spectrometer?
A spectrometer tells you which wavelengths of light is absorbed and which wavelength of light
is reflected while a spectrophotometer measures the relative intensity of the light absorbed or
reflected at a particular wavelength of light
Spectrophotometer Uses and Applications

a) Quantifying concentrations of compounds.
b) Determining the structure of a compound.
c) Finding functional groups in chemicals.
d) Determining the molecular weight of compounds.
e) Determining the composition of materials.
215. Which of these keeps the mouth hydrated?

A. Linctus
B. Lozenges
C. Syrup
D. Expectorant
Lozenges are used to temporarily help relieve symptoms such as sore throat, throat irritation, or
cough. They work by providing a cooling feeling and increasing saliva in the mouth thereby
enhancing mouth hydration
216. The side effect of oral contraceptives include the following except
A. Headache
B. Hypertension
C. None
D. Weight gain
The most common adverse effect of combined oral contraceptive pills are
a) Breakthrough bleeding
b) Nausea and headaches
c) Abdominal cramping
d) Breast tenderness
e) Increased vaginal discharge
f) Decreased libido.
Reference:
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https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK430882/#:~:text=Adverse%20Effects&text=The%20mo
st%20common%20adverse%20effect,medication%20at%20night%20before%20sleep.
However Studies recording longer cumulative OCP use have continued to demonstrate significant
associations between duration of use and hypertension risk. In a case-control study from China
that reported more than 20 years of OCP use, every additional 5 years of use was associated with
higher odds of hypertension.
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK430882/#:~:text=Adverse%20Effects&text=The%20mo
st%20common%20adverse%20effect,medication%20at%20night%20before%20sleep
217. One of these is not a mechanism of drying?

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Diffusion
Check question 213 above
218. What is the primary goal of primary health care?
KINDLY REFER TO THE NOTE ATTACHED AT THE END OF THIS DOCUMENT
219. Fat helps the metabolism of which drug?

A. Griseofulvin
B. Chloroquine
C. Vitamin C
D. None
Griseofulvin is absorbed best when it is taken with a high fat meal, such as a cheeseburger, whole
milk, or ice cream.
The absorption of many drugs is influenced by the dietary fatty foods. Generally dietary fats
increase the absorption of lipophilic drugs and decrease the absorption of hydrophilic drugs e.g.
Piperaquine, Griseofulvin, Artemether/Lumefantrine etc. absorption is enhanced when taken with
fatty food.
220. Community Pharmacy falls under?

A. Primary health care
B. Secondary health care
C. Tertiary
D. Pre-primary health care
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KINDLY REFER TO THE NOTE ATTACHED AT THE END OF THIS DOCUMENT
221. A man has been on antihypertensive drugs and has been experiencing decreased sexual
function. Which of these antihypertensives do you think is responsible for that?
A. Furosemide
B. Lisinopril
C. Spironolactone
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Adverse effects of thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics on male sexual function, including decreased
libido, erectile dysfunction, and difficult ejaculation have been reported in several studies with an
incidence that varies from 3%-32%
Categories of antihypertensive drugs with their common side effects and precautions to
take while using them
1. ACE inhibitors e.g. Lisinopril
Possible Side effects:
Persistent dry cough, angioedema, hyperkalemia, dizziness, taste disturbance, and rashes
Precautions:
Not suitable during pregnancy
The concomitant use of potassium supplements and potassium-containing salt substitutes
is not recommended
2. Angiotensin II receptor blockers e.g. Losartan, Valsartan
Hyperkalemia, Dizziness, headache
Precautions:
Not suitable during pregnancy
The concomitant use of potassium supplements and potassium-containing salt substitutes
is not recommended
3. Calcium channel blockers e.g. Nifedipine, Amlodipine
Flushed face, headaches, swollen ankles, constipation, dizziness and tiredness
Precautions:
Avoid drinking large quantities of grapefruit juice
Have high fibre diet and drink plenty of fluid to reduce the side effect of constipation
4. Diuretics
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General: Urinary frequency, dizziness, gastrointestinal disturbance

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors: Acidosis e.g. Acetazolamide, Diclofenamide
Thiazide and Thiazide-like: Hyperuricemia, Hypokalemia, Low libido (in men) e.g. HCT,
Chlorthalidone
Loop: Ototoxicity, Hypokalemia e.g. Furosemide, Bumetanide
Potassium sparing: Hyperkalemia e.g. Amiloride, triamterene, spironolactone
Osmotic: Hypovolemia, Hypotension e.g. Mannitol, Glycerine, Isosorbide
Precautions:
Take the tablet in the morning
Hypokalaemia can occur with some diuretics
5. Beta-blockers e.g. Atenolol, Bisoprolol
Tiredness, cold hands and feet, slow heartbeat, diarrhea and nausea, sleep disturbances,
nightmares
Precautions:
May trigger asthmatic attack in patients with asthma or chronic bronchitis
Symptoms of hypoglycaemia may be masked in diabetic patients
6. Alpha-blockers e.g. Prazocin, Doxazocin
Drowsiness, hypotension (notably postural hypotension), (first dose) syncope, asthenia,
dizziness, headache and dry mouth
Precautions:
Take first dose at bedtime to avoid postural hypotension
7. Centrally acting antihypertensive drugs e.g. Alpha Methyldopa, clonidine
Headache, dizziness, dry mouth
Precautions:
May cause drowsiness, if affected, patients should not drive or operate machinery
Do not drink alcohol because this may worsen the side effects
8. Vasodilator e.g. Hydralazine
Headache, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia
Precautions:
Should tell your health professional if you develop symptoms of arthritis, unexplained
fever or tiredness
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222. A question came demanding to know if

- Cimetidine is an enzyme inhibitor or inducer
- Rifampicin is an enzyme inhibitors or inducer.
ENZYME INDUCERS ENZYME INHIBITORS

Remember SCRAP GPS Remember CACA A MOVIE
CLARITHROMYCIN
SMOKING AMIODARONE
CARBAMAZEPINE CIMETIDINE
RIFAMPICIN AZOLE ANTIFUNGALS
ALCOHOL (CHRONIC) ALCOHOL (BINGE)
PHENYTOIN METRONIDAZOLE
GRISEOFULVIN OMEPRAZOLE
PHENOBARBITAL VERAPAMIL
ST JOHNS WORT ISONIAZID

ERYTHROMYCIN
223. Functions of PCN

224. Functions of PSN
225. Functions of NAFDAC
226. Functions of the registrar of PCN
227. Erythromycin falls under

A. Cephalosporin
B. Penicillin
C. Macrolides
D. Fluoroquinolones
Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin and roxithromycin all fall under Macrolides and
they all end with suffix –thromycin and they should not be mistaken with Aminoglycosides (e.g.
gentamicin, amikacin, tobramycin, neomycin, and streptomycin) which simply end with suffix -
mycin
228. Which is used to treat combined familial hypercholesterolemia with low HDL?
A. Fibrates
B. Niacin
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C. Statins
D. Cholestyramine
Niacin (Vitamin B3) is a B-vitamin. When used in larger doses, it can help lower cholesterol and
other fats in the blood. Niacin helps raise HDL (good) cholesterol.
The mechanism of action of niacin to raise HDL is by decreasing the fractional catabolic rate of
HDL-apo AI without affecting the synthetic rates. Additionally, niacin selectively increases the
plasma levels of Lp-AI (HDL subfraction without apo AII), a cardioprotective subfraction of HDL
in patients with low HDL.
229. Which of these is not a DTP

A. Wrong drug
B. Untreated indication
C. Drug interaction
D. Adverse drug reaction
DTPs are categorized into seven major classes. These include;

a) Unnecessary drug therapy
b) Need additional drug therapy
c) Ineffective drug therapy
d) Dosage too low
e) Dosage too high
f) Adverse drug reaction (ADR) and
g) Non-compliance
Reference:
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6198973/#:~:text=DTPs%20are%20categorized
%20into%20seven,non%2Dcompliance%20%5B14%5D.
230. Ferrous sulphate is contraindicated in which of the following?

A. Sickle cell anaemia
B. Pernicious anaemia
C. All of the above
Note that iron is not used in sickle cell patients. It always leads to end organ damage and cause
complications in these patients because it causes iron overload leading to end organ damage
231. What is the anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy?

A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
D. All of the above
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Heparin doesn't cross the placenta barrier to affect the foetus due to it high molecular weight
232. Which of these is an example of a coarse dispersion with dilatant flow?

A. Toothpaste
B. Deflocculated suspension
C. Corn starch
233. Which of the following would result in an error if used to calculate the dose for a child above
one year of age
A. Young's modulus
B. Clark's rule
C. Body surface area
D. Friend's rule
There are 4 methods of calculating child’s drug dose and they are as follows
a. Nomogram Method (Using a Child's Body Surface Area)
b. Friend's Rule (Using the Child's Age in Months)
c. Young's Rule (Using the Child's Age in Years)
d. Clark's Rule (Child's Weight in Pounds)
In Friend's rule, to calculate for paediatric drug dose, it is based on a child's age. If “a” denotes the
adult dosage (in milligrams) and if “t” is the age of the child ( in years), then the child's dosage is
given by D(t)=0.08ta.
234. Quinine is used in the following indications except____

a. Malaria
b. Fever
c. Depression
d. Hyperglycaemia
The intravenous infusion of quinine at a therapeutic dose induces a light drop in blood glucose
with a significant nadir at the 60th minute in the healthy subject without hypoglycemia. This
suggests the need for close monitoring in patients at risk of hypoglycemia such as those with severe
malaria especially during the first hour of quinine infusion.
235. Which of the following formulations is best for weeping and itchy skin
a. Ointment
b. Jelly
c. Paste
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d. Cream
236. Why should patients be instructed to rinse the mouth well after using corticosteroid inhaler?
a. To minimize headaches
b. To prevent candidiasis
c. To increase therapeutic effect
d. All of the options
237. Dextromethorphan is indicated for the treatment of which of the following?

a. Nasal congestion
b. Runny nose
c. Productive cough
d. Dry cough
238. Cofaclor is available in 50mg/mL oral suspension. The doctor has written a prescription for
250mg po tid x 7 days. How would you instruct the patient’s caretaker to administer the drug?
a. Give one 5ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
b. Give one 15ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
c. Give two 5ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
d. Give one 10ml spoonful three times daily for seven days
239. Patient with Respiratory distress will suffer ____

a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
240. These drugs are likely to elicit impotence and loss of libido in men except:
a. Citalopram
b. Enalapril
c. Methyldopa
d. Chlorpromazine
241. Quality control tests for suppositories involve the following except____
a. Softening time
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b. Breaking
c. Dissolution
d. Melting point
The quality control tests for suppositories are as follows:

 Appearance
 Weight uniformity
 Melting range test
 Disintegration test
 Liquefaction test or Softening time test
 Breaking test or Hardness test
 Dissolution test
 Stability test
242. Which of these is not an iatrogenic disease?

a. Peptic ulcer while on corticosteroid
b. Hepatitis while on isoniazid
c. Parkinsonism while on antipsychotics
d. Crohn’s disease while on paracetamol
243. A serious adverse event/reaction is any untoward medical occurrence that is/does all of the
following except____
a. Occurs at low dose
b. Is life threatening
c. Requires or extends patient hospitalization
d. Result in death
244. Differentiate between Decoction, maceration, tincture, elixir, herbal glycerites and oxymels
Decoction is a method of extraction by boiling herbal or plant material (which may include stems,
roots, bark and rhizomes) to dissolve the chemicals of the material. The formulation obtained by
decoction is referred to as Concoction.
Maceration is the extraction of a drug by allowing it to stand in contact with a solvent. Maceration
is an extractive technique that is conducted at room temperature. It consists of immersing a plant
in a liquid (water, oil, alcohol, etc.). The formulation obtained by maceration is called Infusion.
Elixirs are sweetened hydro-alcoholic (water and alcohol) liquids for oral use. Typically, alcohol
and water are used as solvents when the drug will not dissolve in water alone. In addition to active
drug, they usually contain flavouring and colouring agents to improve patient acceptance.
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A tincture is a medicine consisting of a substance in a solution of alcohol. Tincture of iodine is a

solution of iodine in alcohol. Soak herbs in a drinkable alcohol to make a liquid extract, or tincture.
A tincture is a medicine consisting of a substance in a solution of alcohol.
Elixirs typically contain a combination of herbs, alcohol, and sweeteners such as honey or sugar,
while tinctures are usually made with just alcohol and herbs.
Glycerites are extracts of plant matter in glycerine. They are used extensively in herbalism as
alcohol-free tinctures. Their benefit comes both from the extracts of the plant matter macerated in
the glycerine and from the glycerine itself which is an excellent humectant.
An oxymel is a traditional elixir of vinegar (typically apple cider vinegar) and raw honey, often
with complementary herbs. Indeed, the term comes from the ancient Greek word oxymeli, which
translates to “acid and honey.”
245. Which hormone is responsible for glucose level increase after food (post-prandial glucose)?
a. Gastrin
b. Glucagon
c. Insulin
d. Pancreatic lipase
Gastrin is initially released from the G cells in the antral region of the stomach during a meal by
vagal stimulation, distention and digested protein. Other organs and cells that also produce gastrin
include pancreatic endocrine cells, pituitary, and extraantral G cells.
246. What machine is used I small scale emulsion making?

On a small scale, as in the laboratory or pharmacy, emulsions may be prepared using a dry
Wedgwood or porcelain mortar and pestle or a mechanical blender or mixer. On a large scale,
large mixing tanks may be used to form the emulsion through the action of a high-speed impeller.
247. What is an orphan drug?

Drugs that are not developed by the pharmaceutical industry for economic reasons but which
respond to public health need. They are developed to treat certain rare medical conditions and
would not be profitable to produce
Orphan drugs—The US Orphan Drug Act (1984) defines an orphan drug as one with “efficacy
against a disease affecting fewer than 200 000 people... or one that... will not be profitable for
seven years.” So, orphan drugs are either drugs that are used to treat rare diseases (such as haem
arginate for porphyrias) or drugs that are too costly to develop. Of course, they are often both,
but one does not necessarily imply the other. For example, ibuprofen is an orphan drug when used
to treat the rare disease patent ductus arteriosus in neonates (orphans or not). Conversely, drug
companies have not thought it profitable to seek authorisation for amitriptyline in post-herpetic
neuralgia, making it an orphan drug.
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Orphan diseases— this term has been used to denote neglected diseases—for example, Fabry's
disease, alveolar echinococcosis, and even some common conditions such as endometrial cancer
and diabetes in preschool children. However, it is more often used as a synonym for rare diseases,
although some rare diseases respond to drugs that are not orphans.
248. Which of the following is not a public health concern in Nigeria?

a. Spread of infectious diseases
b. Mortality of mother and child
c. Road accident
d. None of the options
249. NPH means ____

a. Natural protamine have done
b. Neutral protein have done
c. Neutral protamine hagedom
d. None of the options
250. Classes of antidepressants includes all except____

a. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
b. Tricyclic antidepressants
c. None of the options
d. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
251. Which year was Alma-Ata declaration?

a. 1927
b.1978
c.1972
d. 1977
What was the significance of the Alma-Ata conference?

The International Conference on Primary Health Care (PHC) in Alma-Ata, Kazakhstan, in 1978,
brought together 134 countries and 67 international organizations (China was notably absent). The
conference defined and granted international recognition to the concept of primary health care
(PHC) as a strategy to reach the goal of Health for all in 2000, as indicated in the Declaration
released at the conclusion of the conference.
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The Alma-Ata Declaration recognizes the chasm in healthy living for people of developing and
underdeveloped nations. Furthermore, it recognizes the social, political, and economic
unacceptability of such inequality, and it places an emphasis on bridging that gap
What is primary health care?

According to the Declaration of Alma Ata, primary health care, is "essential health care based on
practical, scientifically sound and socially acceptable methods and technology made universally
accessible to individuals and families in the community through their full participation and at a
cost that the community and country can afford to maintain at every stage of their development in
the spirit of self-reliance and self-determination."
252. ____ is the drug indicated for smoking cessation

a. Methadone
b. Busprone
c. Bupropion
d. Ropinirole
253. Screening at primary health care is ____

a. Curative
b. Preventive
c. Rehabilitative
d. Promotive
254. Which of the following is a HMG-CoA inhibitor?

a. Gemfibrozil
b. Lovastatin
c. Niacin
d. None of the above
HMG-CoA inhibitors are the class of antilipidemics called STATINs
255. Insulin is available in 10mL vials containing 100 IU/mL. Your patient is going away on a 2-
week mission in a remote village and asks how many vials they will need to take with them if the
patient inject 42 IU bid, how many vials will be needed?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
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d. 4
Each mL contains 100 IU and each vial contains 10mL: Therefore 10x100 = 1000 IU is present in
a vial
If 42 IU is used twice in a day, then 42x2 = 84IU is used in a day and 84x14 = 1176 IU will be
used in 14 days or 2 weeks
If 1000 IU is present in a vial, then 1176 IU will be present in 1176/1000 = 1.176 vials
Hence, the patient will require 2 vials of insulin
256. Differentiate between dysentery, shigellosis, bacterial gastroenteritis and viral gastroenteritis
Dysentery is an inflammation of the intestines accompanied by bloody diarrhoea.

Dysentery is most often caused by shigella bacteria (shigellosis) or an amoeba (amoebic
dysentery). Dysentery is often spread through contaminated food or water.
A key symptom is bloody diarrhoea. There may also be abdominal pain, cramps, fever and malaise.
Prompt medical care is required for bloody diarrhoea. Treatment may include increased fluid
intake, rehydration solutions, IV fluids and antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone etc.
Dysentery Symptoms
 Diarrhoea with belly cramps.
 Fever.
 Nausea and vomiting.
 Blood or mucus in the diarrhoea.
Shigella infection (shigellosis) is an intestinal infection caused by a family of bacteria known as

shigella. The main sign of shigella infection is diarrhoea, which often is bloody. Shigella is very
contagious
Symptoms of shigellosis include diarrhoea (often bloody), abdominal pain, stomach cramps,
and fever. Sometimes people infected with Shigella have no symptoms at all, but can still pass the
bacteria to others. Symptoms usually begin 1 to 3 days after being exposed to Shigella.
The genus Shigella is differentiated into four species: S dysenteriae (serogroup A, consisting of
12 serotypes); S flexneri (serogroup B, consisting of 6 serotypes); S. boydii (serogroup C,
consisting of 18 serotypes); and S sonnei (serogroup D, consisting of a single serotype)
Gastroenteritis means inflammation of the stomach and small and large intestines. Bacterial
gastroenteritis, often called food poisoning, is a bacterial infection of the digestive system.
Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, fever, diarrhoea, abdominal cramping, and pain. In severe
cases, one may become dehydrated and have an electrolyte imbalance. Viral gastroenteritis is an
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infection caused by a variety of viruses that results in vomiting or diarrhoea. It is often called the
“stomach flu”, although it is not caused by the influenza viruses.
Viral gastroenteritis symptoms
 Watery, usually non-bloody diarrhoea — bloody diarrhoea usually means you have a
different, more severe infection.
 Nausea, vomiting or both.
 Stomach cramps and pain.
 Occasional muscle aches or headache.
 Low-grade fever.
257. A patient came into your community pharmacy complaining of diarrhoea with some stains of
blood, mild abdominal cramp and slight fever, what would you suspect as a Pharmacist?
a. Pregnancy
b. Cholera
c. Shigellosis
d. Viral gastroenteritis
258. What is marasmus?
Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition — specifically, protein-energy undernutrition. It results

from an overall lack of calories. Marasmus is a deficiency of all macronutrients: carbohydrates,
fats, and protein.
It occurs in the 3-month to 9-month age group, commonly due to early weaning and inadequate
feeding with resultant starvation of the infant.
What are the external signs of marasmus?
 Visible wasting of fat and muscle.
 Prominent skeleton.
 Head appears large for the body.
 Face may appear old and wizened.
 Dry, loose skin (skin atrophy).
 Dry, brittle hair or hair loss.
 Sunken fontanelles in infants.
 Lethargy, apathy and weakness.
Treatment for Marasmus
The first and primary treatment prescribed for the patient suffering from marasmus includes:
Multivitamin supplements to improve appetite and nutrition deficiency. Dehydration symptoms
can be prevented by the intake of water and other fluids that contain electrolytes.
The average time spent in treatment for marasmus is 42 days. After treatment, those who return to
a caring environment with the resources they need to maintain good health can generally expect to
make a full recovery.
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259. Which of the following laws established the pharmaceutical board of Nigeria
A. PPA Cap 152 of 1948
B. PPA Cap 152 of 1964
C. PPA Cap 535 of 1990
260. A Pharmacy stock 90%w/v solution of drug W, you need to prepare 200mL of a 50mg/mL
solution for a patient, what volume of the stock solution will you need?
a. 1.8mL
b. 11.1mL
c. 18mL
d. 9mL
90%w/v is equivalent to 90g of the solute in 100mL of the solution which is equivalent to
90(x1000)mg in 100mL of the solution, which is equivalent to 900mg/mL
Hence, C1 = 900mg/mL, V1 = ?, C2 = 50mg/mL and V2 = 200mL
Using C1V1 = C2V2
V1 = (50 x 200) / 900 = 11.11mL
261. A patient complained of brown staining teeth when he uses a particular mouthwash. Which
of the following could be the culprit?
a. Thymol
b. Chlorhexidine
c. Hydrogen peroxide
d. All of the options
When chlorhexidine is used longer than four weeks, it can lead to tooth staining and a build-up of
chalky deposits on the teeth called tartar.
262. The most predominant form of cancer in Nigeria is _____

a. Breast cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Liver cancer
263. Which isn't a documented management skill

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A. Conceptual
B. Decision making
C. Technical
D. Writing skill
264. Which of the drugs would not benefit a patient with erosive oesophagitis?
(a) Misoprostol
(b) Bismuth subsalicylate
(c) Domperidone
(d) Sucralfate
265. The difference between pharmaceutical care (pc) and clinical pharmacy (cp) based patient
care is that?
A. CP is cyclical in nature, while pc is episodic
B. PC is patient-oriented pharmacy care, while CP is not patient-oriented.
C. PC is cyclical in nature while CP is episodic
D. The difference between PC and CP is a matter of semantics
266. Which of the following is INCORRECT

(a) Garlic capsules combined with antidiabetic medications can cause an increase in blood
sugar.
(b) Orange juice decreases the absorption of antacids containing aluminium.
(c) Orange juice should be avoided when taking antibiotics
(d) Grapefruit juice interacts with calcium channel blockers
267. Which of the Following will not affect the flow of powder?
A. Bulk density
B. Tapped density
C. True density
D. Angle repose
Using Hausner's ratios HR = ρTAP/ρBULK, where, ρTAP is the tapped density of the powder
and ρBULK is the bulk density of the powder) and particle size distribution can be used to
measure the flow properties and the size distribution of the particles, respectively.
268. All are vital signs except

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A. Temperature
B. BP (Blood pressure)
C. Body weight
D. RR (Respiratory rate)
269. A patient took drug A and went to a party. She started experiencing flushing, headache, etc.
Drug A taken is____
Ans: Metronidazole.
Drinking alcohol while taking metronidazole is not recommended because the combination of
metronidazole and alcohol can cause a reaction (often referred to as a disulfiram-like reaction) in
some people. Symptoms may include flushing, headaches, nausea, vomiting, and stomach cramps.
At therapeutic doses of drugs containing disulfiram (metronidazole, trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole, tinidazole, chlorpropamide, tolbutamide) alcohol consumption results in
increased serum acetaldehyde, causing diaphoresis (profuse sweating), palpitations, facial
flushing, nausea, vertigo, hypotension, and tachycardia. This aggregation of symptoms is known
as the disulfiram-alcohol reaction and discourages alcohol intake.
270. Fat soluble and Water soluble vitamins
The fat-soluble vitamins list includes Vitamins A, D, E, and K.

In contrast, the body does not store water-soluble vitamins (the B vitamin family and Vitamin C)
and any “leftovers” leave the body through the urine.
B1 – Thiamine – Beri beri, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
B2 – Riboflavin – Ariboflavinosis (Angular stomatitis, Glossitis)
B3 – Niacin, Niacinamide – Pellagra
B5 – Pantothenic acid – Paresthesia
B6 – Pyridoxine, Pyridoxamide, Pyridoxal – Anaemia, Peripheral neuropathy
B7 – Biotin – Dermatitis, Enteritis
B9 – Folic acid, Folate, Folinic acid – Megaloblastic anaemia, Neural tube defects
B12 – Cyanocobalamin, Hydroxocobalamin, Methylcobalamin – Megaloblastic anaemia
271. With Promulgen G which type of emulsion is generally obtained?

A. Liquid emulsion
B. Thick consistent emulsion
C. Both
D. None
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Promulgen G nonionic emulsifier is 100% active and is supplied as a waxy solid. Its excellent
stability at pH levels of 3-12 makes it particularly useful in applications such as depilatories. Also,
due to its viscosity-building properties, it is recommended for use in hair relaxers and
conditioners.
272. Which is a non-full supply logistics program

A. Contraceptives and reproductive health
B. HIV/AIDS
C. Essential medicines
D. Tuberculosis
273. Which is the most appropriate for nausea associated with Levodopa therapy
A. Domperidone
B. Metoclopramide
C. Prochloperazine
D. All
Metoclopramide is an antiemetic drug which occasionally produced acute dystonic reactions and
also known to interfere with central dopamine mechanisms hence it is usually avoided for the
management of nausea associated with Levodopa.
Gastric motility disorders are digestive conditions that occur when the nerves or muscles in the
gut don’t function in a coordinated manner. Some medications used to treat this condition can
cause parkinsonism as a side effect. They include:
 Metoclopramide
 Prochlorperazine
 Levosulpiride
274. Management matrix stage where tasks = Urgent and Important is

A. Mortality
B. Crisis
C. Survival
D. Management stage
275. Rifampicin enzyme induction affect plasma concentration of the following except
A. Rabeprazole
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B. Paracetamol
C. Ibuprofen
D. MMT
276. Clinical skills for pharmaceutical care include all except

A. Physical assessment skills
B. Therapeutic planning
C. Medical terms and terminology
D. Parenteral administration
277. Which of the following about cocaine isn't correct

A. Opioid analgesic
B. Has local anaesthetic effect
C. Readily absorbed nasally and intravenously
D. Causes bradycardia and hypotension
278. All these antihypertensive drugs are safe in pregnancy, except which?
A. Propranolol
B. Ramipril
C. Labetalol
D. Methyldopa
279. Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of which of these vitamins?

A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B9
D. Vitamin B12
Pernicious anaemia is a type of megaloblastic anaemia in which the body isn't able to absorb
vitamin B12 due to a lack of intrinsic factor (IF) in stomach secretions
280. Rhabdomyolysis and myopathies are notable side effects of which drug class?
A. Alpha-blockers
B. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
C. Statins
D. Loop diuretics
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Rhabdomyolysis may result from the use of prescription and non-prescription of Statins (3-
hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase inhibitors)
Rhabdomyolysis is a syndrome caused by injury to skeletal muscle and involves leakage of large
quantities of potentially toxic intracellular contents into plasma. Its final common pathway may
be a disturbance in myocyte calcium homeostasis.
Myoglobin is an important myocyte compound released into plasma. After muscle injury, massive
plasma myoglobin levels exceed protein binding (of haptoglobin) and can precipitate in glomerular
filtrate. Excess myoglobin may thus cause renal tubular obstruction, direct nephrotoxicity
(ischemia and tubular injury), intrarenal vasoconstriction, and acute kidney injury (AKI).
281. Which of these drugs causes blue-grey skin discoloration?

A. Amiodarone
B. Levothyroxine
C. Digoxin
D. Chloroquine
Amiodarone is known to cause cutaneous and systemic side effects. The most common cutaneous
side effect is photosensitivity. Blue–gray discoloration occurs on body areas when exposed to
sunlight.
282. When charcoal powder is dusted on the surface of water, the contact angle (in degree) that
the charcoal exhibits is
A. 1
B. 0
C. 90
D. 180
283. Clozapine has the following characteristics except

A. Atypical antipsychotics
B. Has sedative actions
C. Causes catalepsy
D. Doesn't cause apathy
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Typical antipsychotic drugs act on the dopaminergic system, blocking the dopamine type 2 (D2)
receptors. Atypical antipsychotics have lower affinity and occupancy for the dopaminergic
receptors, and a high degree of occupancy of the serotoninergic receptors 5-HT2A.
Typical antipsychotics tend to more strongly block dopamine. Atypical antipsychotics have greater
effects on serotonin. Both groups of antipsychotics share similar side effects, such as dry mouth,
sleepiness, and weight gain. But typical antipsychotics have a higher risk of uncontrollable body
movements.
Atypical antipsychotic drugs (APDs) have been hypothesized to show reduced extrapyramidal side
effects (EPS) due to their rapid dissociation from the dopamine D2 receptor
Typical antipsychotics have increased extrapyramidal effect and increased risk of tardive
dyskinesia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome while Atypical antipsychotics have increased risk
of weight gain and diabetes
Examples of Typical antipsychotics are Phenothiazines (e.g. chlorpromazine, fluphenazine,
mesoridazine, perphenazine, prochlorperazine, promazine, thioridazine, trifluoperazine and
triflupromazine) and Butyrophenones examples are as follows;
 Haloperidol, the most widely used classical antipsychotic drug in this class.
 Benperidol, the most potent commonly used antipsychotic (200 times more potent than
chlorpromazine)
 Droperidol, Antiemetic for postoperative nausea and vomiting.
Examples of Atypical (CROZAQ SIP) ____ -APINEs, -PERIDONEs, -SULPIRIDEs,

 Clozapine
 Risperidone
 Olanzapine
 Ziprasidone, Zotepine
 Aripiprazole, Amisulpiride
 Quetiapine
 Sulpiride
 Ilaperidone
 Paliperidone
284. Which of the following is not first generation sulphonylrease?

A. Glyburide
B. Chlorpropramide
C. Tolazamide
D. Acetohexamide
Sulphonylrease have been divided into first generation agents (e.g.TACT tolbutamide,
acetohexamide, chlorpropamide, and tolazamide) and second-generation agents (e.g. G4 glyburide
(aka glibenclamide), glipizide, gliclazide, glimepiride, and gliquidone).
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The second generation sulfonylureas have largely replaced the first generation agents in routine
use, because they are more potent, can be administered in lower doses, and can be given on a once
daily basis.
285. The first stage in developing collaboration between pharmacists and physicians is:
(a) Professional awareness
(b) Professional recognition
(c) Exploration and trial
(d) Commitment to collaboration
286. Which emulsion instability is reversible?

A. Creaming
B. Cracking
C. Microbial content
287. Factors necessitating individualized pharmaceutical care in the elderly include the following
EXCEPT:
(a) Multiple diseases
(b) Polypharmacy
(c) Adherence
(d) Physiological changes
288. Decision of governing council of PCN can be confirmed or overturned by

A. PCN registrar
B. AGM of PSN
C. Disciplinary tribunal of the PCN
D. None
289. The following may lower plasma folate levels

A. Leucovorin
B. Trimethoprim
C. Phenytoin
D. Methotrexate
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Leucovorin restores folate intracellular pool. This is why it is usually co-administered with
methotrexate so as to combat the folate washing out effect
290. Which of the following are sickle cell patients placed on for the management of anaemia?
A. Iron supplements
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
291. The procedure used to evaluate structures lying 4-5 cm under the skin is called:
(a) Inspection
(b) Palpation
(c) Percussion
(d) Auscultation
Inspection always comes first and it involves watching and close careful scrutiny of the individual
as a whole and then of each body system. Inspection requires good lighting, adequate exposure
and occasional use of various instrumentation such as ophthalmoscope (eye), auroscope (ear),
specula.
Palpation applies the sense of touch to assess texture, temperature, moisture, organ locaton and
size, swelling, vibration or pulsation, rigidity or spasticity, crepitation, presence of lumps or
masses, tenderness or pain. It can either be light (up to 1cm depth) or deep (about 4cm depth)
Percussion involves tapping the skin with short strokes to assess underlying structures.
Characteristics sound depicts location, size and density of the underlying organ
Auscultation involves listening to sounds produced by the body such as the heart, blood vessels,
lungs and abdomen using stethoscope
292. Effectiveness of medicinal products is determined in:

(a) Laboratory evaluation
(b) Clinical trial
(c) Real world
(d) Post-marketing surveillance
293. Pharmacoeconomics provides evidence for health care decisions in terms of:
(a) Clinical efficacy
(b) Patient Safety
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(c) Medication Effectiveness

(d) Value for money
294. Beta-blocker induced bradycardia is physically assessed using:

(a) Inspection and Palpation
(b) Auscultation and Percussion
(c) Palpation and Auscultation
(d) Percussion and Palpation
295. Off-label medication use is____

(a) Applicable to children only
(b) Unlicensed indication
(c) Due to paediatric formulary
(d) All of the options
296. Patient-focused intervention in hypertension includes the following, EXCEPT:

(a) Education
(b) Adherence promotion
(c) Dosage adjustment
(d) Low salt diet
297. Which of these interventions is beneficial in congestive heart failure?

(a) Moderate smoking
(b) Moderate alcohol
(c) Moderate exercise
298. Dyspnoea experienced in heart failure is due to:

(a) Left ventricular hypertrophy
(b) Right ventricular hypertrophy
(c) Pulmonary edema
(d) Peripheral edema
The Dyspnoea (shortness of breath) in heart failure is caused by the decreased ability of the heart
to fill and empty, producing elevated pressures in the blood vessels around the lung.
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Heart failure causes the heart to malfunction, causing oxygenated blood from the lungs to back up
in the veins as it attempts to move towards the heart. As a result, fluid pools in the lungs, interfering
with normal breathing patterns and making it difficult to breathe.
299. Medications with known evidence to improve survival in cardiac failure include the
following, EXCEPT:
(a) ACEIs
(b) Spironolactone
(c) Digoxin
Digoxin, also called digitalis, helps an injured or weakened heart pump more efficiently. It
strengthens the force of the heart muscle's contractions, helps restore a normal, steady heart
rhythm, and improves blood circulation.
Spironolactone reduces morbidity and mortality in patients with severe congestive heart failure
and guidelines have recommended adding spironolactone to treatment with ACE inhibitors and
β blockers.
300. All patients with a suspected acute myocardial infarction should be given aspirin to:
(a) Reduce chest pain
(b) Dissolve thrombus
(c) Reduce myocardial oxygen
301. Long term glycemic control is monitored with____

(a) Glycosylated hemoglobin
(b) Blood pressure
(c) Fasting blood glucose
(d) Fasting lipid profile
302. A 57-year-old diabetic male is currently on a long-acting insulin injection once a day. While
reviewing his medication, it was observed that postprandial glucose levels are too high. Which of
the following insulin preparations may be recommended to control his postprandial
hyperglycemia?
(a) Lente insulin
(b) Insulin lispro
(c) Regular insulin
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(d) Insulin glargine
303. A patient is brought into the emergency room after an attempted suicide. She had consumed
three bottles of an arsenic-containing insecticide. Which of the following medications may be
administered?
(b) Dimercaprol
(b) Deferoxamine
(c) Amyl nitrite
(d) Methylene blue
Deferoxamine is used as an antidote for acute iron and aluminium toxicity

Amyl nitrite has been recommended as a cyanide antidote for several decades. Its antidotal
properties were initially attributed to induction of methemoglobin and later to a nitric oxide
mediated hemodynamic effect.
Dimercaprol (2, 3 dimercaptopropanol, also known as British anti Lewisite or BAL), was
previously the most frequently recommended chelating agent for arsenic. The currently
recommended treatment is 2-3-dimercapto-1-propanesulfonate (DMPS) or meso 2, 3-dimer-
captosuccinic acid (DMSA).
Methylene blue is the most effective antidote for acquired methemoglobinemia caused by
exposure to direct oxidizing agents (e.g. benzocaine and prilocaine), indirect oxidation (e.g.
nitrates), or metabolic activation (e.g. aniline and dapsone). More recently, methylene blue has
gained recognition for its efficacious use in the treatment of ifosfamide neurotoxicity and
refractory vasoplegic shock in both the pediatric and adult critical care literature, extending its
use beyond methemoglobinemia.
304. Which of the following is likely to cause hyperglycemia and hypercholesterolemia in an HIV-
positive patient?
(b) Zidovudine
(b) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole
(c) Acyclovir
(d) Indinavir
305. These adverse effects may occur on administration of typical antipsychotics, EXCEPT:
(a) Weight gain
(b) Acute dystonia
(c) Akathisia
(d) Hypoprolactinemia
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306. Which adverse effect is WRONGLY matched?

(a) Ritonavir → Hypocholesterolemia
(b) Zidovudine → Anaemia
(c) Phenytoin → Gingival hyperplasia
(d) Carbamazepine →Aplastic anaemia
307. A 54-year-old male suffering from depression, is treated with sertraline. Which of these is the
most likely side effect due to sertraline?
(b) Hypotension
(b) Cardiac arrhythmias
(c) Sexual dysfunction
(d) Weight gain
308. Which of the following may precipitate sympathetic (hypertensive) crisis?

(a) Mature cheese + bupropion
(b) Tyramine + phenelzine
(c) Red wine + edrophonium
(d) Metoprolol + fluoxetine
An acute attack of hypertension that can occur in a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor
(MAOI) drug (e.g. phenelzine) who eats cheese, caused by an interaction of the MAOI with
tyramine, formed in ripe cheese when bacteria provide an enzyme that reacts with the amino acid
tyrosine in the cheese. This is known as the cheese effect.
309. While at a party, a 22-year-old female taking a certain medication develops facial flushing,
headache, nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps immediately after consuming an alcoholic
drink. Which of these drugs did she likely take?
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Acetaminophen
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Folic acid
KINDLY REFER TO THE EXPLANATION UNDER QUESTION 269
310. In the use of medicines, the dose capable of producing marked functional derangement in the
body is called_____
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(a) Minimum dose

(b) Maximum dose
(c) Lethal dose
(d) Toxic dose
311. Concerning inhalers, which of the following statements is CORRECT?

(a) In children, breath-actuated inhalers are preferred to a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer.
(b) Improper respiratory function has no effect on the use of breath actuated inhalers.
(c) The disadvantage of breath-actuated inhalers is that there is need to coordinate actuation with
inhalation.
(d) The disadvantage of metered-dose inhalers can be overcome through the use of a spacer.
A breath-actuated metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is a type of inhaler that delivers medication directly
to the lungs. With this type of MDI, it's your inhalation combined with a propellant that gets the
medication where it needs to go rather just than a propellant, as is the case with a conventional
MDI.
312. Which of the following will make a better choice for the management of allergic rhinitis?
(a) Pseudoephedrine
(b) Promethazine
(c) Oxymetazoline
(d) levocetirizine
Drugs of choice for allergic rhinitis are Nonsedating oral antihistamines — Commonly used oral
antihistamines include loratadin, desloratadine, cetirizine, levocetirizine, and fexofenadine
312. Cold chain is used to refer to what?
A cold chain is a temperature-controlled supply chain comprising refrigerated production, storage

and distribution facilities supported by equipment that can constantly maintain the required low-
temperature range.
313. An individual inhaled bleached oil and started coughing. What could have exacerbated this?
314. A woman with nematode infestation can be treated with which of the following
A. Albendazole
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B. Praziquentel
C. Diethylcabarmazine
D. Metronidazole
315. Which is the function of Humectant

A. Immobilize the skin
B. Remove water from the skin
C. Add moisture to the skin
D. Add moisture to the drug
316. Which of these is not a sexually transmitted disease?

A. Chancroid
B. Mumps
C. HPV
D. Chlamydia
317. Why is topical preparations preferable in animals?

A. Less cumbersome
B. More easily to apply
C. Prevention of injury at site of injection
D. All of the above
318. Which of these drugs is a high potent atypical antipsychotic and high Extrapyramidal side
effect?
A. Haloperidol
B. Risperidone
C. Thioridazine
D. Clozapine
319. Pharmacists who encourage patients with diabetes or heart disease to take their medications
appropriately are involved in____
(a) Primary prevention
(b) Secondary prevention
(c) Specialist prevention
(d) Tertiary prevention
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320. Container impervious to air:

A. Light-resistant Tight container
B. Single dose container
C. Hermetic container
D. All of the above
321. Induced dipole-induced dipole is also known as?

A. American Dispersion Force
B. London Dispersion Force
C. Russian Dispersion Force
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ON VACCINES ROUTES OF ADMINISTRATION

Intramuscular vaccines
 DTap (Diphteria,Tetanus and Pertusis)
 Hep A (Hepatitis A) vaccine
 Hep B (Hepatitis.) vaccine
 Hib (Haemophilus inluenzas. type B) vaccine
 HPV (Human Papiloma Virus) vaccine
 IIV4 (Quadrivalent Inactivated Influenza Vaccine)
 RIV4 (Ricombinant inflluenza vaccine).
 CCIIV4 (Cell cultured -based quadrivalent Inactivaded influenza vaccine)
 Meningitis vaccine
 PCV (Pneumococcal (injugate vaccine) for streptococcus pneumoniea
 RZY (Recombinant zoster vaccine). For shingles in adult 50yrs older
 TT (Tetanus toxoid) vaccine
 Chicken pox vaccine for prevention of chicken pox
Both IM & Subcutaneous

 MMR(Measles, Mumps, and Rubela) Vaccines
 IPv.(Poliovaccine)
 VAR (Varicella vaccine) Also called Chicken pox vaccine
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MAIN FACTS ABOUT THE PHARMACEUTICAL SOCIETY OF NIGERIA (PSN) BY

JUSTICE
The Pharmaceutical Society of Nigeria (PSN) was founded in 1927. The first president, Mr T.K.E
Phillips, assumed office in 1947. The body was formally recognised as a professional association
in Nigeria in 1956. The current constitution is official since 2020.
PSN is the umbrella body of all pharmacists in Nigeria. They fight for the welfare of pharmacists
in Nigeria with regard to government policies. The motto of the PSN is “As men of honour, we
join hands”. The administrative office of PSN is in Lagos, while the liaison office is in Abuja.
The PSN has two organs – the interest and technical groups.
The Interest groups are:
 Young Pharmacist Group (YPG)
 Association of Lady Pharmacists (ALPs).
The technical arms of the PSN are:

 ACPN (Association of Community Pharmacists of Nigeria)
 NAPA (Nigeria Association of Pharmacists in Academia)
 Association of Industrial Pharmacists of Nigeria (NAIP)
 The Association of Hospital and Administrative Pharmacists in Nigeria (AHAPN)
There are four types of members of PSN in Nigeria. They are:

Full Membership: For pharmacists registered with the Pharmacists Council of Nigeria (PCN) and
has fulfilled all obligations, such as due to PSN state and national body.
Associate Membership: They are intern pharmacists.
Affiliate Membership: Final year students of approved pharmacy schools in Nigeria.
Honorary Membership: Open to non-Nigerian pharmacists who are registered in their country
and have contributed to the growth of the pharmacy profession in Nigeria.
Any member whose name is removed from the register of PCN for any offence automatically loses
membership of the PSN, this applies to mentally ill pharmacists.
Facts about The Pharmacists Council of Nigeria (PCN)

PCN hold Annual General Meeting (AGM) at the National Conference every year. The quorum at
the AGM shall be formed by 25% of the financial members that registered for the National
Conference.
In some urgent situations, an Emergency General meeting or the Special General Meeting can be
constituted and representatives from at least 12 states (including Abuja) must in attendance.
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The Major Difference between PCN and PSN

The Pharmacists Council of Nigeria (PCN) is a federal agency charged with the regulation of
pharmacy education and practice, while the Pharmaceutical Society of Nigeria (PSN) is an
association formed by pharmacists to fight for its cause. The operation of the PCN is guided by
the Federal Law, and the staff are appointed by the federal government while the PSN operates
through its own constitution, and its officials are elected by members.
The Aim and Objective of the PSN

 To maintain a high standard of professional ethics in all spheres of pharmacy practice.
 To establish and maintain a high standard of pharmacy education in Nigeria.
 To influence legislation for the enhancement of the image of the pharmacy profession and
the pharmacy practitioners.
 To monitor policies of the government which may affect pharmacy practice and the
pharmacy profession and ensure that they are favourable to the profession.
 To pursue the implementation of all laws and policies that enhance ethical pharmacy
practice.
 Promotion and support for reforms in health, pharmacy, and medicines laws.
 To create mentorship programmes for newly qualified members for their smooth take-off
as professionals.
 To do such other things as may be consistent with or which may be incidental to the
achievement of the aims and objectives of the society–including raising funds and owning
property.
Leadership of PSN in Nigeria

The President of Nigeria is the Grand Patron of PSN. The governing Council of PCN is composed
of:
 The President of Pharmaceutical Society of Nigeria
 The Immediate Past President (IPP) of the PSN
 All State Branch Chairmen/Secretaries (including FCT).
 All the elected members of the National Executive Committee (NEC).
 The Chairman, Board of Fellows.
 Chairmen of the recognized Technical Groups, Interest Groups, Organs, Bodies or
subsidiaries of the PSN.
 The Executive Secretary of the West African Post Graduate College of Pharmacists and/or
National Post Graduate College of Pharmacists.
 Directors of Pharmaceutical Services or Chief Pharmacists (by whatever name the most
senior pharmacist is identified) of all the States, including the FCT.
 The Registrar of the PCN
 All Deans of approved Schools/Faculties of Pharmacy of Nigerian Universities.
 The National President of the PANS or his representative.
 A representative from the Teaching Hospitals’ Pharmaceutical Services.
 The Director-General of the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Research and
Development (NIPRD) (who must be a pharmacist).
 The Director, Food and Drugs Department of the Federal Ministry of Health.
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 The most senior pharmacist in the Federal Ministry of Health (FMOH), where the Director
is not a pharmacist.
 A representative of the Armed Forces, the Customs and the Nigeria Police Force who must
be pharmacist.
 Chairman, Pharmacists Council of Nigeria (PCN)
 PSN representatives in the PCN.
 The Secretary General of the West African Postgraduate College of Pharmacists and/or
National Post Graduate College of Pharmacists.
 Director-General/Representative of the NAFDAC (who must be a pharmacist).
Without prejudice to the offices and officials mentioned above, only members of the
Pharmaceutical Society of Nigeria who are financially up-to-date can attend the Council meeting
of the PSN.
The council has functions of organising the AGM, determining the policies of PCN, awarding of
Fellowship to deserving members, and deciding the budgets.
The National Council Meeting of the PSN holds three times a year, and the quorum of the meeting
is one-quarter of the members. In the case of an Emergency Council Meeting, the quorum is one-
fifth of members.
Officers of the PSN

To become an officer of the Society, the candidate must have held office at the State branch, or
any of the Technical or Interest Groups of the Society for at least three (3) years, while also being
a financial member for the last 3 years. The tenure must not exceed 3 consecutive years in that
particular office or six (6) years in the Society. The officers of the PSN are:
a. The President
b. Deputy President (North)
c. Deputy President (South)
d. National Treasurer
e. National Secretary
f. Assistant National Secretary
g. National Publicity Secretary
h. National Financial Secretary
i. Editor-in-Chief
j. Internal Auditor
k. The Unofficial Members (2)
The Immediate Past President (IPP) of the PSN
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The National Executive Council (NEC) meets four to six times in a year, and the quorum of the
meeting is seven members. This must include the President or Deputy President, the National
Secretary or the Assistant National Secretary.
The President of the PSN

To be eligible for the office of the Society’s President, the pharmacist must be in the Council for
at least 4 years, and have at least 15 years post-graduation experience in the profession. The
president is the chief spokesperson and accounting officer of the Society.
The current President of the PSN is Pharm. (Prof) Cyril Odianose Usifoh, FPSN, FPCPharm,
FNAPharm (as of Feb. 2022)
Pharmacy Advisory Committee (PAC)

This Committee advises the President of Nigeria on issues pertaining to pharmacy, and also fight
for the interest of the PSN at the national level. The members of the Presidential Advisory
Committee are:
a. The President of PSN

b. Three (3) Past Presidents
c. The Chairman of the Board of Fellows
d. Secretary of the Board of Fellows, who shall be a Secretary of the PAC
e. Representative of YPG
f. Representative of ALPS
g. Representative of DPSs Forum
h. Representative of Deans Forum
i. Three other distinguished Pharmacists nominated by the President
One of the Past Presidents shall be the Chairman of the PAC
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LEVELS OF HEALTHCARE
Introduction
Within the broader health system, there are various levels or domains of health care practice. [1]
They are often described as a pyramidal structure, with three or sometimes four tiers of health care
representing increasing degrees of specialisation and technical sophistication, generally with
increasing costs of care. The greatest number of patients are seen at the first level of primary care
that is typically their first contact with the healthcare system, with diminishing numbers of patients
seen as they are filtered out of this first level into higher levels of specialised care at secondary,
tertiary and now even quaternary care.
Primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary care refer to the complexity and severity of health
challenges that are addressed, as well as the nature of the patient-provider relationship. The
healthcare providers who are part of these four levels of healthcare, together provide medical
services such as evaluation, diagnostics, provision of treatment or onward referrals to the next level
of care based on the specific health needs.
Primary Care
Primary health care is a people-centred rather than disease-centred service that addresses the
majority of a person’s health needs throughout their lifetime including physical, mental and social
well-being. Primary care is generally the first level of care that patients receive when they have
medical concerns or needs and takes a whole-of-society approach that includes health promotion,
disease prevention, treatment, rehabilitation and palliative care. In most cases for patients this
means being seen by a primary care physician, also called a general practitioner or family
physician, although first contact care can also occur across a wide range of other health care
professionals including a pharmacist, physiotherapist, speech and language therapist, etc
depending on the specific health care system within your country. In many parts of the world,
particularly in developing countries, people may currently access their first-contact care, where
available at all, from non-medically personnel; who may have received some basic training in
health promotion.
As health care systems attempt to meet the needs of populations living longer and with more
complex health needs, and with health service delivery being shifted to the community, there has
been an increasing emphasis on primary health care and it is generally recognised as the part of
the health system that people use most and may be provided by a wide range of health care
professionals. Continuity of care is a key characteristic of primary care, as patients usually prefer
to consult the same practitioner for routine check-ups and preventive care, health education, and
every time they require an initial consultation about a new health problem. So in many cases, the
relationship between the patient and provider can often occur over a long period of time in primary
health care versus secondary and tertiary care settings, with providers often following a patient’s
development and medical history for several years and sometimes most of their lifetime.
A primary care practitioner must possess a wide breadth of knowledge in many areas given that
primary care involves the widest scope of health care, including patients of all ages, all
socioeconomic and geographic origins, as well as patients seeking to maintain optimal health, and
patients with all types of acute and chronic physical, mental and social health issues, including
multiple chronic diseases. A primary healthcare service may diagnose and treat common health
conditions within their area of expertise and have the ability to assess the urgency of the condition
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and refer the patient to other medical specialists where needed. Studies have shown that primary
care providers benefit the healthcare system as a whole by offering enhanced access to healthcare
services, better health outcomes, which tend to lead to a decreased use of emergency department
visits and hospitalisation.
The World Health Organization attributes the provision of essential primary care as an integral
component of an inclusive primary health care strategy and suggests that a primary care approach
should include the following three components:
Meeting people’s health needs throughout their lives;

Addressing the broader determinants of health through multi-sectoral policy and action; and
Empowering individuals, families and communities to take charge of their own health.
Benefits of Rehabilitation in Primary Care

Primary health care is where the diagnosis of a large majority of health conditions, the
identification of problems in the functioning, and referral to other service delivery platforms need
to occur. The following benefits can be listed among others:
Better quality of life.
Reduction of the prevalence and minimization of the disabling effects of chronic conditions among
adults and children.
Facilitation of the continuity of care that supports full recovery.
Helps to lessen the risk of preventable complications and secondary conditions.
It can also help to avoid costly hospitalizations and re-admissions
Early access to rehabilitation through integration in primary health care helps to optimize
outcomes, mitigate disability and improve people’s ability to live independent lives. The World
Health Organization's (WHO) emphasis on universal health coverage and its recent launch of the
Rehabilitation 2030 Call for Action are encouraging steps towards the goal of strengthening
rehabilitation within the health system and in particular within primary health care.
Secondary Care
Secondary Health Care is the specialist treatment and support provided by doctors and other health
professionals for patients who have been referred to them for specific expert care, most often
provided in hospitals. Secondary care services are usually based in a hospital or clinic, though
some services may be community-based. They may include planned operations, specialist clinics
such as cardiology or renal clinics, or rehabilitation services such as physiotherapy. Secondary
healthcare includes a wide range of specialists such as psychiatrists, cardiologists, obstetricians,
dermatologists, paediatricians and gynaecologists.
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Secondary care is more specialized and focuses on helping patients who are struggling with more
severe or complex health conditions requiring the support of a specialist. Secondary care simply
means you will be taken care of by someone who has more specific expertise about your condition.
Examples of medical situations needing secondary care services include cancer treatment, medical
care for pneumonia and other severe and sudden infections, and care for broken bones.
Depending on the policies of the national health system, patients may be required to see a primary
care provider for a referral prior to being able to access secondary care, while in some health
systems medical specialists may see patients without a referral, and patients can self-refer to the
service, this is most common in countries with Private Health Care or Self-Pay Systems. Allied
health professionals, such as physical therapists, respiratory therapists, occupational therapists,
speech therapists, and dietitians, also generally work in secondary care, accessed through either
patient self-referral or through physician referral.
Tertiary Care
Tertiary care, is a level above secondary health care that has been defined as highly specialised
medical care, usually provided over an extended period of time that involves advanced and
complex diagnostics, procedures and treatments performed by medical specialists in state-of-the-
art facilities. As such Consultants in tertiary care centres have access to more specialised
equipment and expertise.
Tertiary care can be available either at a Regional or National level, dependant on the size and
resources available in the country. As a result most people may have to travel to reach a tertiary
care centre, which may result in delayed diagnosis and treatment and increase the costs for health
care. Referral for tertiary care services can come from both primary and secondary care health
professionals and care is generally provided as an inpatient based service, although there are
elements of care that can also be performed on an outpatient basis.
Examples of tertiary care services include specialist cancer management, neurosurgery, cardiac
surgery, transplant services, plastic surgery, and treatment for severe burns, advanced neonatology
services, palliative, and other complex medical and surgical interventions.
This is the care that comes into the picture as a referral to patients by the primary and healthcare
providers.
The individuals may require advanced medical procedures such as major surgeries, transplants,
replacements and long-term medical care management for diseases such as cancer, neurological
disorders.
Specialized consultive medical care is the highest form of healthcare practice and performs all the
major medical procedures.
Advanced diagnostic centres, specialised intensive care units and modern medical facilities are the
key features in Tertiary Medical Care.
The practices that provide tertiary medical care could be part of the government or a combination
of both public and private sectors.
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Quaternary Care
Quaternary care has been defined as an extension of tertiary care in reference to advanced levels
of medicine which are highly specialised and not widely accessed, and usually only offered in a
very limited number of national or international centres. Experimental medicine and some types
of uncommon diagnostic or surgical procedures are considered quaternary care.
Like tertiary care, quaternary care also tends to have large catchment areas, often catering for
individuals, not only countrywide but worldwide, particularly when providing care for very rare
health conditions with small numbers of patients globally. This may have significant impacts for
the patient with large distances delaying diagnosis and treatment with complications in the
coordination of care between all healthcare providers involved in the patient's care, particularly
after discharge when the responsibility for care typically returns to the patient’s primary care
physician. Given the complexity or rarity in conditions of patients attending quaternary centres
longer hospital stays and increased mortality may also be seen at this level of care. [13][8]
Conclusion
The cost of treatment at the various levels can be dramatically different, and generally, the cost of
treatment for patients at the primary healthcare level is usually only a small fraction of that at the
third level. Ideally, provision of health care at all levels of care and in all settings should be
available to all patients; such health care is referred to as universal health care.
Wishing all success in the prospective PEP exam.

(Operah)

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COMPILATION OF PEP MOCK QUESTIONS ANCHORED BY PHARM

1. Which one of these is responsible for hardness of tablet?

2. Friabilator is operated for____ Revolutions per minute.

3. In dissolution test, flask is maintained at

4. Enteric coated tablet disintegrate in.... Hours in a simulated intestinal fluid?

5. Separation of tablet in 2 or more distinct layers is called

6. Capping is prevented by using ...punch

7. Plating of punch forces is done by

8. Unequal distribution of colour is called

9____ is a directly compressible excipient

10. Sta-Rx 1500 contain ____ % of moisture

11. The pH of the small intestine is ____

12. Perforated pan is used for ____

13. Subcoating is done to

14. Which is an example of an opacifier

15. Empty capsule has moisture content in the range of

16. Which machine is designed for filling of pellets?

18. Enteric resin used for coating is ____

19. Base for chewable tablets includes____

20. Enteric coated tablet disintegrate in the _____

21. One of these is not used as tablet glidant

22. Rotosort is used for

A. Sorting filled capsules

23. Hardness of tablet is measured by

24. Shells of gelatin capsules is made elastic by adding

27. Which tablet compression machine is best in compressing granules?

29. Which capsule size number has the highest capacity?

D. Second level manager

32. Using your whole body to communicate is called what?

33. ____ plans have clearly defined objectives?

34. The principle of objective states

36. Staffing needs

A. Being treated fairly and kindly

38. First step of planning is____

39. How many types of communication are there?

The six types of communication are

41. What is good way to continue the communication?

42. Which is the primary function of management?

43. Planning increases the chances of success

44. Non-financial incentives has many things to do with?

45. Gangplank mean

46. Which is the oldest form of organization?

The six main types of organisation structure are given below:

47. Which statement is related to principle of division of work?

51. Which of the following is not a limitation of planning

B. Not a guarantee to success

52. Which plan involves sequence of activities?

53. Management is____

54. Who is known as the father of management?

55. Management is considered important because;

56. Which technique of scientific management best describe 'Division of work'

A. Top level Management

58. Policy formulation is the function of

59. Pick the odd one out

63. Discipline starts from

64. The content of communication is ____

66. Decision model to calculate optimal quantity of inventory to be ordered is called