Question Bank (G scheme)

Name of subject : ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

Subject code : 17401 Unit test:II

Sem :IV Branch :ALL

Chapter 4: Environmental Studies

Q. 1 The variation of life forms within an ecosystem or on earth is named as :

(a) Biome

(b) Biodiversity

(c) Biological variety

(d) None of the above

Ans : (b)

Q.2 Which one of following is not a type of biodiversity?

(a) Genetic

(b) Species

(c) Biology

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 3 Which of the following forms level of biodiversity ?

(a) Alpha biodiversity

(b) Delta biodiversity

(c) Species biodiversity

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 4 Measurement of overall diversity for different ecosystems within a region comes

under which
 of following levels?

(a) Alpha

(b) Beta

(c) Gamma

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 5 Whittaker described three metrics to measure species biodiversity

(a) Species richness

(b) Simpson index

(c) Shannon-wiener index

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 6 Which of the following index is used to calculate the trend in population size of a
cross section?

of the species ?

(a) Mean species Abundance index

(b) Simpsons index

(c) Species richness

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 7 Which of the following are types of uses of biodiversity?

(a) Consumptive and productive uses

(b) only productive uses

(c) only consumptive uses

(d) None of the above

Ans.: (a)

Q. 8 Several agricultural disaster occurs due to lack of biodiversity.

 Which of the following term is used to describe “lack of biodiversity”?
(i) Aquaculture

(b) Pollination

(c) Monoculture

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 9 Lirsh potato famine is an agricultural disaster. In which year it had occurred ?

(a) 1970

(b) 1971

(c) 1972

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 10 US Southern Corn Leaf Blight epidemic is an agriculture disaster of 1970. Which of

following

Contributed as a major cause for it ?

(a) Biome

(b) Bio culture

(c) Monoculture

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 11 Which of the following describes value of biodiversity ?

(a) Gardening, collecting butterflies

(b) Botanical garden

(ii) Clearing land for civil uses

(a) Both (a)and (b)
(b) Only (b)
(c) Both (b) and (c)

(d) None of the above

Q. 12 Which of the following statement is correct for India ?

 (a) India is the 7th largest country in world with mega diversity.

(b) India has no rank In world w.r.t. biodiversity

(c) Conasts in India do not play role in biodiversity

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q. 13 Which of the following is major biodiversity in Maharashtra

(a) Deccan penninsula –Chhota Nagpur

(b) Deccan Penninsula – Deccan South

(c) Deccan Penninsula – Central Highlands

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 14 Which of the following haws largest desert ?

(a) Kutchchh

(b) West coast

(c) Nicobars

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 15 Which of the following are Islands ?

(a) Andaman and Nicobars

(b) Lakshadweep

(c) Malabar Plains

(d) None of the above

Ans.: (a)

Q. 16 Which of the following are semi Arids ?

(a) Punjab, Gujarat, Rajputana

(b) Malabar Plains

(c) Nicobars
 (d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 17 Himalayan mountain falls in which region,

(a) 2A, 2B, 2C, 2D

(b) 8A

(c) 6B

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 18 Himalayan region is divided into North west, West, central and East Himalayas.
These are

Known, as,

(a) Biotic Provinces

(b) Mountain ranges

(c) Abiotic regions

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 19 Alpine zone of Himalaya lies very high and is full of particular type of trees. Which
of the

Following is correct description for height and type of tree.

(a) 12000 +ft altitude, Timber trees

(b) 5500-12000 ft altitude, Kailandchir, Deoder

(c) 5000 ft altitude, Shisham trees

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 20 Ladakhmountains and Tibetan plateau are part of

(a) Trans Himalaya region

(b) Desert

(c) Semi Arid

 (d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 21 Kuchch and Thar comprise majorly of

(a) Western Ghats

(b) Himalayan region

(c) Deserts

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 22 Aravali mountain are covering states such as

(a) Gujarat, M. P. Rajasthan

(b) Ladakh Mountain

(c) Coastal region

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q. 23 Punjab Plains, Gujarat and Rajputana Comprise which of following regions ?

(a) Semi Arid

(b) Western Ghats

(c) Central Himalaya

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 24 Which of the river plain extends upto Himalayan Foot Hills ?

(a) The Gangetic Plain

(b) Punjab plain

(c) Brahmaputra valley

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 25 The Gangetic Plain extends through which of the states ?

 (a) Western U. P. and West Bengal

(b) Madhyapradesh and Uttar Pradesh

(c) Western Bengal

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q. 26 The North –East India Comprises of

(a) Himalayan hill ranges

(b) Aravalihuill ranges

(c) Non-Himalayan hill ranges

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

Q. 27 Cheerapunji is situated in which of the following regaion in India ?

(a) The Western Ghats

(b) The Nonrth-East India

(c) The North India

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q. 28 Which of the following place (S) receive maximum rainfall in India ?

(a) The North-East India

(b) Non Himalayan hills

(c) Cheerapunji in the North-East India

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 29 In which of the following Islands of Andaman and Nicobar are situated ?

(a) Arabian sea

(b) Bay of Bengal

(c) Atlantic ocean

 (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q. 30 In which of the following the Islands of Andaman and Nicobar are situated ?

(a) Arabian sea

(b) Atlantic ocean

(c) Bay of Bengal

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 31 RatnaGiri is located in which of following state ?

(a) Chennai - Tamilnadu

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (c)

Q. 32 Asiatic cheetah, Lion and wild Ass are on verge of getting almost extinguished.
Which of the

Following term is used commonly to describe such a situation

(a) Endangered species / Threatened species

(b) Rare species

(iii) Unique species

(iv) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 33 Which of the following animal comes under category of “Critically endangered

species”?

(a) Sumatran Rhinoceros

(b) Asiatic Lion

(c) Indian Tiger

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 34 Which of the following animal comes under category of “Threatened species”

(a) Leopard

(b) Mouse

(c) Dog

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 35 Which of the following is an Indian Biodiversity Hotspots ?

(a) The western ghats

(b) National Parks

(c) Botanical gardens

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 36 Uncontrolled hybridization of different species of animal /plants. Which of the

following

Pollution it leads to

(a) Genetic pollution

(b) Homogenization

(c) Genetic swamping

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 37 “Genetic pollution” may be originated due to one of the following. Which of the
following

May be possible reason :

(a) Uncontrolled hybridization

(b) Unprofitability

(c) Natural phenomenon

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q. 38 Which of the following is considered to be major threat to global biodiversity.

(a) Genetically modified species

(b) Global warming

(c) Pollination

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

Q. 39 Conservation of species of botanical gardens, zoos, gene banks etc. is done observing
certain

Methods. Which of the following term is used for such methods ?

(a) In-situ conservation methods

(b) Ex-situ conservation methods

(c) Heritage conservation

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (b)

Q. 40 The ‘Global zoo Ecoregions’ isa system derived to conserve biodiversity. Which of
following

has taken this initiative ?

(a) The world wild-life fund

(b) Africa

(c) Lation America

(d) None of the above

Ans. :(a)

Q. 41 A world map of hot spots with details of flora and fauna is prepared by

(a) The national geographic society

(b) Scientific organizations.

(c) Environmentalists

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q. 42 Which of the following acronym stands for and is preferred by Edward O. Wilson for
threats to

Biodiversity Habitat (destruction), Invasive (Species), Pollution, Population

(explosion) and Overharvesting

(a) HIPPO

(b) HIPPEO

(c) HINPPEO

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 43 The millennium Econsystem Assessment -2005 took up study of threat to ecosystems

in word.

Which of following is marked as “most threatened econsystem”

(a) Fresh water ecosystem

(b) Air pollution

(c) Water pollution

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 44 Poaching of wild animals is very common. Which of following is main reason ?

(a) Animals killed for their organs

(b) Animals are killed only for food

(c) Animals are killed as they are overpopulated

(d) None of the above

Ans. : (a)

Q. 45 Which of the following conservation methods are applied only to wild fauna and
flora, and not

To domesticated animals and plants ?

(a) In-situ conservation methods

 (b) Ex-situ conservation methods

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

Q. 46 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) and World

heritage Convention[WHC] was held in years :
(a) 1976 & 1977 respectively

(b) 1981

(c) 1986

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)
Q. 47 Under world Heritage convention’s ratification, which of the following monuments in
India were covered in Heritage conservation in years 1983.
(a) Ajanta-Ellora caves, Agra fort, Tajmahal

(b) National parks

(c) Sambhar lake in Rajasthan

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)
Q.48 Which of following is name of first national Park in India, established in year 1935.
(a) Heiley National park

(b) Sanjay Gandhi National park

(c) Sundarban National park

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)
Q. 49 The Hailey national park established in 1935 was renamed as,
(a) Jim Corbett National park

(b) Sundarban National park

(c) Kanha National park

 (d) None of the above

Ans. (a)
Q. 50 Which of the following park is magnificent jungle of mangroves and is one of its own
kind in world
(a) Sundarban National park

(b) Nagarhole

(c) Kanha National park

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)
Chapter 5: Environmental Pollution

1)Which of the following is an air pollutant (Ans-c)

a)Nitrogen b)Carbon

b)Carbon Monooxide d)Oxygen

2)Which of the following on inhalation dissolves in blood hemoglobin more rapidly than
oxygen(Ans-b)

a)sulphur dioxide b)Carbon monoxide

c)Ozone d)Nitrous oxide

3)Smog is(ans-b)

a)A natural phenomenon b)a combination of smoke and fog

c)iscolourless d)all of these

4)Air pollution byfrom automobiles canbe controlled by fitting(Ans-c)

a)Cyclone separator b)Electrostatic precipitator

c)Catalytic converter d)Wet scrubber

5)TajMahal at Agra may be damaged by(Ans-a)

a) Sulphur dioxide b) Chlorine

c)Hydrigen d)Oxygen

6) Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels………….(Ans-a)

a) Above 80

b) Above 30
c) Above 100

d) Above 120

7) Which gas is responsible for depletion of ozone layer around earth which protects us from
harmful UV rays?(Ans-a)

a) Chlorofluorocarbons

b) Nitrogen

c) Oxygen

d) Nitrogen oxide

8) Increase in the concentration of pollutants in higher trophic levels is known as…….(Ans-

a)
a) Bio magnification

b) Biodegradation

c) Eutrophication

d) Recycling

9)Natural pollution is caused by……………(ans-a)

a) Volcanic eruptions

b) Vehicle emission

c) Cutting of wood

d) Smoke from industry

10)The man-made pollution, such as the industrial pollution, agricultural pollution etc. are
called as……………(Ans-a)

a) Anthropogenic

b) Anti-anthropogenic

c) semi- anthropogenic

d) Natural

11)The water (prevention and control of pollution) act was enacted in year ……………(ans-
c)…

a) 1981

b) 1986
c) 1974

d) 1972

12)The air (prevention and control of pollution) act was enacted in year …………(ans-a)…

a) 1981

b) 1986

c) 1974

d) 1972

13)Noise pollution has been inserted in the air (prevention and control of pollution) act
………….(a)

a) 1987

b) 1977

c) 1967

d) 1957.

14)gas leaked in Bhopal tragedy (ans a)

a) methylisocyanate

b)potassiumisothoiocynate

c)ethylisocyanate

d)sodium isothicocyanate

15)BOD is (ans d )

a) a measure of the organic matter present in water

b) usually less than COD

c) biochemical oxygen demand

d) all of the above

16) fluoride pollution mainly affects (ans d)

a ) kidney

b) brain

c) heart
d) teeth

17) sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels (ans a)

a) above 80

b) above 30

c) above 100

d) above 120

18) naturalsoures of air pollution come from (ans c)

a) internal combustion engines

b) coal-fired electrical plants

c) salt from sea spray,cattle,soil dust, volcanic dust

d)evaporation of solvent

19) particulate matter dispersed as aerosols (ans b)

a) includes nitrogen oxides

b) may cause damage to respiratory tissues when inhaled

c) binds with hemoglobin, preventing hemoglobins binding with oxygen

d) interacts only with surface tissues of humans, causing mils irritation

20) the most obvious cause of industrial smog is (ans d)

a) burning trash

b) fires for heating food

c) indoor air pollution

d) burning fossil fuels

21) what is Kyoto protocol ? (ans a)

a) it is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing global warming.

b) it is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing acid rain

c) it is an agreement among countries to take steps for planting trees

d) it is an agreement among countries to take steps to start using nuclear energy

22) as per world wide fund for nature, the river ….. is one of the ten most endangered rivers
in world (ans a)

a) Ganga

b) jamuna

c) Brahmaputra

d) Mahanadi

23) the disease cholera, typhoid and jaundice are due to pollution of (ans b)

a) air

b) water

c) food items

d) solid waste

24) ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes the reaction then produces (ans b)

a) fluorides

b) ozone

c) carbon monoxide

d) Sulphur dioxide

25) fish die in water polluted by sewage due to (ans b)

a) pathogens

b) reduction in O2

c) Clogging of gills by silt

d) Foul smell

26) Greenhouse effect is caused by (ans b)

a) Green plants

b) Infrared rays

c) UV rays

d) X-rays

27) which of the folloing pollutions forms heat island (ans b)

a) water

b) air

c) land

d) none of this

28) the concentration of which gas is highest in our environment (ans c)

a) oxygen

b) hydrogen

c) nitrogen

d) carbon dioxide

29) which of the following is not as a consequence of global warming (ans b)

a) rising sea level

b) increased agricultural productivity worldwide

c) worsening health effects

d) increased storm frequency and intensity

30) which of the following is not a primary contributor to the green house effects (ans c)

a) carbon dioxide

b) carbon monoxide

c) chlorofluoro carbons

d) methane gas

31) the increased in concentration of CO2 in our environment in last 50 years, since 1960 is
above (ans c)

a) 20%

b) 10%

c) 14%

d) 6%

32) the depletion in ozone layer is caused by (ans c)

a) nitrous oxide
b) carbon dioxide

c) chloroflurocarbons

d) methane

33) which of the following is not a major source of groung water contamination (ans e)

a) agricultural products

b) landfills

c) septic tanks

d) underground storage tanks

e) all of the above are the major source of groung water contamination

34) the source of most outdoor noise world wide is construction and (ans c)

a) agriculture

b) forestry

c) mining

d) transportation

35) prolonged exposure to any sound louder than …… dB can cause hearing loss (ans c)

a) 10

b) 60

c) 85

d) 130

36) natural pollution is caused by (ans a)

a) volcanic eruptions

b) vehicle emissions

c) cutting of woods

d) smoke from industry

37) carbon dioxide is example of (ans b)

a) artificial pollutant

b) quantitative pollutant
c) qualitative pollutant

d) none of these

38) the pollutants occur as solid and liquid state are referred as (ans c)

a) foam

b) fog

c) particulate pollutant

d) gaseous pollutant

39) cotton dust produce lung fibros is, called as (ans a)

a) byssinosis

b) silicosis

c) siderosis

d) none of these

34) an accidental discharge of petroleum in oceans is called (ans c)

a) oil leak

b) oil milk

c) oil spills

d) oil waste

35) increased in the concentration of soluble salts in the soil is called (ans c)

a) soilification

b) soluble-soil

c) salination

d) desalination

36) the unit of sound level is (ans a)

a) decibel

b) noise-meter

c) dolphan

d) dub
37) noise level beyond ….. db cause physical discomfort (ans c)

a) 1120

b) 10

c)120

d) 0

38)summer smog is also known as……(ans-a)

a)photochemical smog

b)particulatesmog

c)industrialsmog

d)lithiologicalsmog

39)DDT is…..(ans-b)

a)green house gas

b)non-degradable pollutant

c)degradablepollutant

d)none of these

40)smaller particles such asdust,smoke etc. which remain suspended for long period in the air
are………(ans-b)

a)settable particles

b)suspendedparticles

c)gaseous pollutants

d)micropollutants

41)which of following is not normally pollutant?(ans-b)

a)carbon monoxide

b)carbon dioxide

c)hydrocarbons

d)Sulphur dioxide

42)which of the following are common sources of air pollution?(ans-d)

a)motor vehicles

b)wood heaters

c)fires

d)all of these

43) disease caused by eating fish inhabiting mercury contaminated water….(ans-c)

a)brightdisease

b)Hiroshima disease

c)minamatadisease

d)none of these

44)whichof the following arelikelytobe present in photochemical smog.(ans-d)

a)Sulphur dioxide

b) sulphur

c)chloroflurocarbon

d)ozone

45)which of the following is a biodegradable organic chemical…..(ans-d)

a)plastics

b)oil

c)pesticides

d)garbage

46)which of the following devices is suitable for removal of gaseous pollutants…(ans-d)

a) cyclone separator

b) electrostatic precipitator

c)fabric filter

d)wet scrubber

47)which of the following is not greenhouse gas?(ans-d)

a)carbon dioxide

b)Sulphur dioxide
c)methane

d)nitrogen

48)BOD stands for…..(ans-b)

a) biological oxygen demand

b)bio-chemical oxygen demand

c)bio-chemical ozone demand

d)) biological oxygendifficiency

49)pestcides also called as…..(ans-b)

a)supercides

b)biocides

c)nanocides

d)caticides

50)air pollution can harm the health of which of following…..(ans-d)

a)plants

b)humans

c)materials

d)all of these
CHAPTER 6: SOCIAL ISSUES AND ENVIRONMENT

1. Which of following are terms used to describe types of development?

a) Financial, educational
b) General, specific
c) Static, Dynamic
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

2. Which of the following are likely to be present in photochemical smog?

a) Sulphur dioxide

b) Sulphur

c) Chlorofluorocarbon

d) Ozone

Ans: (a)
3. Which of the following is not a basis for opposition to nuclear power?
a) High construction costs
b) Generation of greenhouse gases
c) The risk for serious accident
d) Security risks
Ans: (b)
4. IPCC stands for
a) Intergovernmental panel on climate change
 b) International panel on climate change
c) Intergovernmental policies of climate change
d) International policies of climate protection
Ans: (a)

5. The lower most layer of the atmosphere is called as

a) Troposphere
b) Nano-sphere
c) Ozone-sphere
d) Nitro sphere
Ans: (a)

6. Nuclear power plants are typically fueled with what?

a) Plutonium
b) Deuterium
c) Uranium-238
d) Uranium-235
Ans: (d)

7. Which is not treatment measures for watershed development

a) Contour bunding
b) Gravity dam
c) contour trenching
d) contour stone walls
Ans: (b)

8. 3R stands for one of following:

a) Re-use ,Reduce, Recycle
b) Reproduce, Reduce, Recycle
c) Redevelop, Reproduce, Recycle
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

9. Due to acid rain, how pH of soil gets affected?

a) pH decreases
b) pHincreases
c) pHis unaffected
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

10. Which of the following diseases is caused to humans due to ozone layer depletion?
a) Skin, lungs and blood cancer
b) Brain tumor
c) Heart attack
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
11. Atomic oxygen reacts with ______to give acyl radical.
a) Hydrocarbon
b) CFC
c) SO2
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

12. Photochemical smog causes irritation of

a) Ears
b) Skin
c) Eyes
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
 13. The main advantage of watershed approach is
a) High cost
b) Time consuming method
c) Environment friendly
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

14. The black soot spreaded absorbs --------------radiations.

a) Gamma
b) UV
c) Solar
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

15. Phenomenon opposite to global warming is-------------

a) Infra-red
b) nuclear winter
c) UV radiations
d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

16. Crop productivity -----------------substantially due to nuclear accidents

a) Increases
b) Reduce
c) will not affect
d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
 17. --------------is a new currency
a) Carbon credits
b) US dollars
c) Swiss Franks
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

18. Use of renewable energy sources can replace

a) Fossil Fuels
b) Solar power
c) hydropower
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
19. From Feb-2005,----------was enforced,
a) Kyoto protocol
b) Green fuels
c) Bioenergy
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

20. The concept of Carbon credits is one of the outcome of

a) Hiroshima disaster
b) Kyoto protocol
c) holocaust
d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
 21. One__________is equal to one tonne ________emission.
a) Carbon credit,CO2
b) Carbon credit,UV
c) Carbon dioxide,I.R.
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

22. Methane capture from land fills/live stocks can generate

a) Hydropower
b) Solar Power
c) Carbon credits
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

23. Carbon credits are also called ________

a) Emission permits
b) Pollution control
c) Environment ethics
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

24. The open Water reservoirs face ______of water

a) Evaporation
b) Reduction
c) Waste waters
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

25. Shortage of water faced can be solved by

a) Water storage
b) well digging
c) Rain water harvesting
 d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

26. Photochemical smog affect ____________ of plant species.

a) Growth
b) Sowing
c) Harvesting
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

27. Ozonosphere is a separate layer in stratosphere ,at a height of

a) 10-20 kms from sea level
b) 15-30 kms from sea level
c) 30-40 kms from sea level
d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

28. One chlorine atom is estimated to destroy up to how many ozone molecules
approximately?
a) About 1 lakh
b) About 2 lakh
c) More than 5 lakh
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

29. The atmosphere was attached by photochemical smog first time in Los Angeles in
Year
a) 1947
b) 1945
c) 1940
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
 30. Which one is not a greenhouse gas?
a) CO2
b) Ozone
c) CH4
d) CFC
Ans: (b)
31. The subatomic particles released during a nuclear chain reaction are what?
a) Gluons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) Protons
Ans: (c)
32. Human Rights come under which of the following type of development?
a) Social aspect of sustainable development
b) Economical development
c) Cultural development
d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

33. The time for half the amount of a radioactive isotope to decay is known as its
a) Half life
b) Radioactive decay
c) Halving time
d) Rate of decay
Ans: (a)
34. Clean or Natural rain water has a pH of _________at 20oc
a) 1.6
b) 2.6
c) 3.6
d) 5.6
Ans: (d)
 35. In india at this place acid rain is recorded
a) Kodaikanal
b) Delhi
c) Mumbai
d) Yavatmal
Ans: (a)

36. The amount of atmospheric ozone is meauserd by

a) Wilson spectrometer
b) Rockson spectrometer
c) Ultra-spectrometer
d) Dobsonspectrometer
Ans: (d)

37. 1 DU is equivalent to a ______mm thickness of Pure ozone

a) 0.001
b) 1
c) 0.01
d) 100
Ans: (c)

38. The National council of environmental planning and coordination was set up in
a) 1952
b) 1953
c) 1972
d) 1974
Ans: (c)
39. The annual average rainfall in India is______
a) 1200mm
b) 1600mm
 c) 2100mm
d) 4100mm
Ans: (a)
40. SardarSarover projects of dam is on
a) Ganga river
b) Narmada river
c) Kali river
d) Yamuna river
Ans: (b)
41. CFC are a group of synthetic chemical and it is first discovered by
a) Thomas Midgley
b) N.K.Bose
c) P.W.Wrinker
d) N.S.Rao
Ans: (a)
42. _____ are used as coolants in refrigerators and air conditions
a) CFCs
b) O3
c) O2+ O3
d) CFCFCs
Ans: (a)
43. The natural sunscreen in the stratosphere is called as
a) Oxygen layer
b) Hydrogen layer
c) Ozone layer
d) Sulphur layer
Ans: (c)
44. In atmosphere, aldehydes are attacked by __________to form hydroxyl radical.
a) Atomic hydrogen
b) Atomic oxygen
c) Oxygen radical
d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
45. What country has the greatest reliance on nuclear power for generation of electricity?
a) Japan
b) Germany
c) England
d) France
Ans: (d)
46. Which of these countries has the highest per capita carbon dioxide emission?
a) United States
b) Australia
c) Saudi Arabia
d) China
Ans: (b)
47. Which state has made it compulsory to harvest rain water for all buildings?
a) Rajasthan
b) West Bengal
c) Tamilnadu
d) Maharashtra
Ans: (c)
48. In Mumbai, what is the minimum plot area for which rain water harvesting is
mandatory?
a) 2000 sq. m
b) 500 sq. m
c) 1000 sq. m
d) 1500 sq. m
Ans: (c)
49. Which one below is NOT an example of a freshwater body of water?
a) lakes
b) rivers
c) ponds
d) oceans
Ans: (d)
 50. What is watershed?
a) Area of land that water flows across as it moves toward a larger water body
b) Area of land from which water drains to a particular water body
c) Moisture released from clouds in the form of rain,snow,hail etc.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (d)

Chapter7:Envirmental Protection
1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)Act was enacted in year?

(a) 1981 (b) 1986

(c) 1974 (d) 1972

Ans -c

2. As compared to all other Lawson environment protection which law is more effective and
bold measure to fight the problem of pollution.

(a) The Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act

(b) The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act

(c) The Environment (Protection) Act

(d)National Environment Appellate Authority Act

Ans-c

3. The Air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act was enacted in year

(a) 1981 (b) 1986

(c) 1974 (d) 1972

Ans-a

4.The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in year

(a) 1981 (b) 1986

(c) 1974 (d) 1972

Ans-b
5. The genesis of Environmental (Protection) Act , 1986, thus, is in which articles of Indian
constitution

(a) 46A and 50A (b) 48A and 51A

(c) 40A and 50A (d) 46A and 55A

Ans-b

6. How many sections and chapters the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has respectively?

(a) 25 and 4 (b) 26 and 5

(c) 28 and 5 (d) 26 and 4

Ans-d

7. Chapter3 of Environment (Protection) Act, deals with

(a) General Powers of Central Government

(b) Prevention, Control and Abatement of Environmental Pollution

(c) Miscellaneous

(d) Preliminary

Ans-b

8. The minimum penalty for contravention or violation of any provision of the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986 is

(a)an imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years or fine up to one lakh rupees,
or both

(b)an imprisonment for a term which may extend to five years or fine up to one lakh rupees,
or both

(c) an imprisonment for a term which may extend to six years or fine up to two lakh rupees,
or both

(d) an imprisonment for a term which may extend to six years or fine up to two lakh rupees,
or both

Ans-b

9.a) The Act also provides for the further penalty if the failure or contravention continues
after the date of conviction. It is

(a)Rs.5000 per week (b) Rs.10000 per week

(c) Rs.10000 per day (d) Rs.5000 per day

Ans-d

10. The Central Government or any other person duly authorised is empowered to collect the
samples of……….as evidence of the offences under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

(a)air(b)water

(c)soil(d)any substance

Ans-d

11. The Environmental (Protection) act, 1986 has relaxed the rule of “Locus Standi ” and
because of such relaxation even a common citizens can approach the Court provided he has
given a notice of…...

(a) 40days (b) 60days

(c) 30days (d) 120days

Ans-b

12. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986……… to the officers of the Government for any
act done under the provisions of this Act or under the powers vested in them or functions
assigned to them under this Act.

(a) does not grant immunity (b) grants immunity

(c) grants awards (d) grants scholarship

Ans-b

13. In the commission of the offence under this act by Government Department, the Act
holds the Head of the Department as guilty of the offence unless

(a)The head of the Department proves that the offence was committed without his knowledge
or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission of such offence.

(b) The head of the Department proves that the offence was committed with the knowledge to
his superiors

(c)The head of the Department was on tour

(d) The head of the Department was on leaves

Ans-a

14. The Act debars the Civil Courts from having any jurisdiction to entertain any suit or
proceeding in respect of ……….

(a) An action (b) direction

(c) order issued by Central Government (d) other statutory authority under
this act

(e) all of these

Ans-e

15. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not provide

(a) A framework for the co-ordination of central and state authorities established under the
water (Prevention and Control) Act,1974and Air (Prevention and Control) Act, 1981.

(b) Power to state government for protection and improvement of environment.

(c) Power to the central government to take measures necessary to protect and improve the
quality of environment.

(d) None of the above

(e) All of the above

Ans-b

16. Under EPA 1986, the central government is empowered to take measures necessary to
protect and improve the quality of the environment by

(a) Setting standards for emissions and discharging

(b) Regulating the location of industries

(c) Management of hazardous wastes

(d) None of the above

(e) All of these

Ans-e

17. How many chapters are there in EPA 1986?

(a) 3 (b) 6

(c) 4 (d) 5

Ans-c

18. As per EPA 1986, Environment does NOT include

(a) AIR (b) Space

(c) Land (d) water

Ans-b

19. Match correctly the following and choose the correct option

A B
(1) Environment Protection Act (a)1974
(2) The Air Prevention and control of (b)1987
Pollution Act (c) 1986
(3) Water Act (d)1981
(4) Amendment of Air Act to include
noise

(a) (1)-(b),(2)-(a),(3)-(d),(4)-(c) (b) (1)-(c),(2)-(b),(3)-(d),(4)-(a)

(c) (1)-(c),(2)-(d),(3)-(a),(4)-(b) (d) (1)-(c),(2)-(b),(3)-(d),(4)-(a)

Ans:-c

20. ……. Is the first country in the world to have made provisions for protection &
conservation of environment in its constitution.

(a) India (b)Japan (c)U.S. (d) New Zealand

Ans:-a

21. 5th June is celebrated as………….

(a) World forest day (b) World environment day

(c) World water day (d) Earth day

Ans:-b

22. The article ………. In the constitution recognizes environmental protection as one of the
fundamental duties of every citizen of India.

(a) Article 42 (b) Article 48A

(c) Article 51A(g) (d) Article 57A(g)

Ans:-c

23. The Air (prevention and control of pollution) act was enforced in……….

(a) 1951 (b) 1961 (c) 1971 (d) 1981

Ans:-d

24. Noise pollution has been inserted in the air (prevention and control of pollution)Act in
…………

(a) 1987 (b) 1977 (c) 1967 (d) 1957

Ans:-a

25. In the air (prevention and control of pollution) Act 1981, section 20 of the act is for …….

(a) Prevention for ensuring emission standards from automobiles.

(b) Provision for insuring air pollution control area.

(c)Provision for insuring industrial emissions.

(d) None of these.

Ans:- a

26. As per section 19 of the air (prevention and control of pollution) act, the state government
may declare…………..

(a) Air pollution and control area.

(b) Stake height for emissions.

(c) Emission from vehicles.

(d) None of these.

Ans:- a

27. CPCB stands for….

(a) Central pollution control board.

(b) central population control board.

(c) Central population censes board.

(d) None of these.

Ans:-a

28. Water (prevention and control of pollution)Act, enforced in…….

(a) 1964
(b) 1974

(c) 1984

(d) 1994

Ans: b

29. The environment (protection) Act came in to force on……..

(a) 1st November 1986

(b) 19th November 1986

(c) 20th November 1999

(d) 19th November 1996

Ans: - b

30. The environment (protection) Act, 1986, on November 19.The November 19 is birth
anniversary

of our late prime minister….

(a) javaharalal Nehru

(b) LalBahadurSastri

(c) Indira Gandhi

(d) Morarji Desai

Ans:- c

31. Wild life (protection) Act came into force in the year………..

(a) 1972 (b) 1982 (c) 1992 (d) 1902

Ans:-a

32. In 1800 the population on the earth was about ………….

(a) 4 billion (b) 3 billion (c) 45 billion (d) 1 billion

Ans:-d
33. The present world population has just crossed …………

(a) 6 billion (b) 11 billion (c) 14 billion (d) 89 billion

Ans:- a

34. The time needed for a population to double its size at a constant annual rate is known as
………..

(a) Population time

(b) Reverse population time

(c) Doubling time

(d) Reciprocating time

Ans:-c

35. If r is the annual growth rate, then doubling time (TD)…………..

(a) r/70 (b) 70/r (c) r+r /70 (d) r2/70

Ans:-b

36. If a nation has 2% annual growth rate, its population will double in….

(a) 25 years (b) 15 years (c) 100 years (d) 35 years

Ans:-d

37. Bell shaped pyramid structure of population occurs in……

(a) India (b) France (c) Nigeria (d) Ethiopia

Ans:-b

38. Pyramid shaped structure of population occurs in……

(a) India (b) USA (c) France (d) Canada

Ans:- a

39. Urn shaped structure of population occurs in …

(a) Germany (b) India (c)Ethiopia (d) Nigeria

Ans:- a
40. United Nation decade for woman had been during…….

(a) 1985-1995

(b) 1975-1985

(c) 1915-1925

(d) 1970-1980

Ans:- b

41. HIV stands for….

(a)Human Immunodeficiency Virus

(b) Health Immunodeficiency Virus

(c) Human Identification Virus

(d) None of these

Ans:-a

42. AIDS stands for…….

(a) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

(b) Applied Immunodeficiency Syndrome

(c) Acquired Immunodeficiency system

(d) None of these

Ans:- a

43. In AIDS there is decline in………… which are the key fighters in the immune system.

(a) S- cells

(b) p- cells

(c) T-cells

(d) Y- cells
Ans:- c

44. …………has the lowest birth rate among all the state in India.

(a) Punjab

(b) Maharashtra

(c) UP

(d) Kerala

Ans:- d