DMBA 202 Financial Management
DMBA 202 Financial Management
1.1 Introduction
Financial management of a firm is concerned with procurement and
effective utilisation of funds for the benefit of its shareholders. It embraces
all those managerial activities that are required to procure funds at the least
cost and their effective deployment.
Reliance and Infosys are examples of admired Indian companies that
employ effective financial management skills to their businesses. They have
been rated well by the financial analysts on many crucial aspects that
enabled them to create value for their shareholders. They employ the best
technology, produce good quality goods or render services at the least cost,
and continuously contribute to the shareholder’s wealth.
The three core elements of financial management are:
a. Financial planning
Financial planning is done to ensure the availability of capital
investments to acquire the real assets. Real assets are lands, buildings,
plants and equipments. Capital investments are required for establishing
and running the business smoothly.
b. Financial decisions
Decisions need to be taken on the sources from which the funds
required for the capital investments could be obtained.
There are two sources of funds - debt and equity. In what proportion
the funds are to be obtained from these sources is to be decided for
formulating the financing plan.
c. Financial control
Financial control involves managing the costs and expenses of a
business. For example, it includes taking decisions on the routine
aspects of day-to-day management of collecting money which is due
from the firm’s customers and making payments to the suppliers of
various resources.
In this unit, you will learn about these core elements of financial
management.
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
analyse the meaning of financial management
describe the goals of financial management
discuss the functions of finance
explain the interface between finance and other managerial functions of a
firm
Caselet:
X Ltd is a listed company engaged in the business of FMCG (Fast
Moving Consumer Goods). ‘Listed’ implies that the company’s shares are
allowed to be traded officially on the portals of the stock exchange. The
Board of Directors of X Ltd took a decision in one of its board meetings to
enter into the business of power generation. When the company
informed the stock exchange at the conclusion of the meeting about the
decision taken, the stock market reacted unfavourably. The result was
that the next day’s closing of quotation was 30% less than that of the
previous day. Why did the market react unfavourably?
Investors in FMCG company might have thought that the risk profile of
the new business that the company wants to take up is higher compared
to the risk profile of the existing FMCG business of X Ltd, expecting a
higher return. Then, the market value of the company’s shares started
declining.
Therefore, the risk profile of the company gets translated into a time
value factor. The time value factor so translated becomes the required
rate of return.
In the liberalised set up, society expects corporates to tap the capital
markets effectively for their capital requirements. Therefore, to keep the
investors happy throughout the performance of value of shares in the
market, management of the company must meet the wealth maximisation
criterion.
When a firm follows wealth maximisation goal, it achieves maximisation
of market value of share. A firm can practise wealth maximisation goal
only when it produces quality goods at low cost. On this account, society
gains because of the societal welfare. Maximisation of wealth demands
on the part of corporates to develop new products or render new
services in the most effective and efficient manner. This helps the
consumers, as it brings to the market the products and services that a
consumer needs.
Another notable feature of the firms that are committed to the
maximisation of wealth is that, to achieve this goal they are forced to
render efficient service to their customers with courtesy. This enhances
consumer welfare and benefit to the society.
From the point of evaluation of performance of listed firms, the most
remarkable measure is that of performance of the company in the share
market. Every corporate action finds its reflection on the market value of
shares of the company. Therefore, shareholder’s wealth maximisation
could be considered as a superior goal compared to profit maximisation.
Since listing ensures liquidity to the shares held by the investors,
shareholders can reap the benefits arising from the performance of
company only when they sell their shares. Therefore, it is clear that
maximisation of market value of shares will lead to maximisation of the
net wealth of shareholders.
Therefore, we can conclude that maximisation of wealth is probably the
more appropriate goal of financial management in today’s context. Though
this cannot be a goal in isolation, it is important to understand that profit
maximisation as a goal, in a way, leads to wealth maximisation.
The distinction between implicit and explicit cost is important from the point
of view of the computation of cost of capital.
In India, if a company is unable to pay its debts, creditors of the company
may use legal means to sue the company for winding up and is normally
known as risk of insolvency. A company which employs debt as a means of
financing generally faces this risk especially when its operations are
exposed to high degree of business risk.
In all financing decisions, a firm has to determine the capital structure, i.e.
composition of debt and equity.
Debt is cheap because interest payable on loan is allowed as deduction in
computing taxable income on which the company is liable to pay income tax
to the Government of India.
Whenever funds are to be raised to finance investments, capital structure
decision is involved. A demand for raising funds generates a new capital
structure since a decision has to be made as to the quantity and forms of
financing.
Capital structure refers to the mix of a firm’s capitalisation (i.e. mix of long
term sources of funds for meeting capital requirement.) Capital structure
decision refers to deciding the forms of financing (which sources to be
tapped), their actual requirements (amount to be funded), and their relative
proportions in total capitalisation.
Normally, a finance manager tries to choose a pattern of capital structure
which minimises the cost of capital and maximises the owner’s return. We
will learn more on capital structure and related aspects in Unit 7.
Note
The interest rate on loan taken is 12%, tax rate applicable to the company
is 50%, and then when the company pays Rs.12 as interest to the lender,
taxable income of the company will be reduced by Rs.12.
In other words, when the actual cost is 12% with a tax rate of 50%, the
effective cost becomes 6%. Therefore, the debt is cheap. But, every
instalment of debt brings along with it corresponding insolvency risk.
Another thing notable in connection to this is that the firm cannot avoid its
obligation to pay interests and loan instalments to its lenders and
debentures.
Solved Problem – 1
Dividend = 12% on paid up value
Tax rate applicable to the company = 30%
Dividend tax = 10%
Compute the profit that the company must earn before tax, when a
company pays Rs.12 on paid up capital of Rs.100 as dividend.
Solution
Since payment of dividend by an Indian company attracts dividend tax, the
company when it pays Rs.12 to shareholders, must pay to the Govt of
India
10% of Rs.12 = Rs.1.2 as dividend tax.
Therefore dividend and dividend tax sum up to Rs.12 + Rs.1.2 = Rs.13.2.
Since this is paid out of the post tax profit, in this question, the company
must earn:
the reasonable amount of profits after tax between retained earnings and
dividend. All of this is based on formulation of a good dividend policy.
fluctuate as much, even if the earnings of the company fluctuate now and
then.
(d) A stable dividend policy encourages investments from institutional
investors.
In this way, stability and regularity of dividends not only affects the market
price of shares but also increases the general credit of the company that
pays the company in the long run. Dividend decisions are thus highly
significant.
1.4.4 Liquidity decisions
The liquidity decision is concerned with the management of the current
assets, which is a pre-requisite to long-term success of any business firm.
This is also called as working capital decision. The main objective of the
current assets management is the trade-off between profitability and
liquidity, and there is a conflict between these two concepts. If a firm does
not have adequate working capital, it may become illiquid and consequently
fail to meet its current obligations thus inviting the risk of bankruptcy. On the
contrary, if the current assets are too enormous, the profitability is adversely
affected. Hence, the major objective of the liquidity decision is to ensure a
trade-off between profitability and liquidity. Besides, the funds should be
invested optimally in the individual current assets to avoid inadequacy or
excessive locking up of funds. Thus, the liquidity decision should balance
the basic two ingredients, i.e. working capital management and the efficient
allocation of funds on the individual current assets.
In other terms, liquidity decisions deal with working capital management. It
is concerned with the day-to-day financial operations that involve current
assets and current liabilities.
The important elements of liquidity decisions are:
Formulation of inventory policy
Policies on receivable management
Formulation of cash management strategies
Policies on utilisation of spontaneous finance effectively
We will look at these elements individually, in detail, over the course of this
book.
Activity 1
List out the functions of Chief Financial Officer that can make or mar the
company’s success.
Hint: All the finance functions are to be discussed.
Caselet:
Infosys does not have physical assets similar to that of Indian Railways.
But if both were to come to capital market with a public issue of equity,
Infosys would command better investor’s acceptance than the Indian
Railways. This is because the value of human resource plays an
important role in valuing a firm.
The better the quality of man power in an organisation, the higher the
value of the human capital and consequently the higher the productivity
of the organisation. Indian Software and IT enabled services have been
globally acclaimed only because of the manpower they possess. But it
has a cost factor - the best remuneration to the staff.
1.7 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Financial Management is concerned with the procurement of the least
cost funds, and its effective utilisation for maximisation of the net wealth
of the firm.
There exists a close relation between the maximisation of net wealth of
shareholders and the maximisation of the net wealth of the company.
The broad areas of decision are Financing decisions, Investment
decisions, Dividend decisions, and Liquidity decisions.
1.8 Glossary
Dividend: Portion of profits of a company which is distributed among its
shareholder.
Explicit costs: The actual cash payments it makes to those who provide
resources.
Financial management: Concerned with procurement and effective
utilisation of funds.
Implicit costs: The opportunity costs of using resources owned by the firm
or provided by the firm's owners.
Opportunity cost of capital: The Rate of Return required by an investor is
normally known as the hurdle rate or the cut-off rate.
Wealth: Shareholder wealth.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 21
Financial Management Unit 1
1.10 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Financial management means maximisation of economic welfare of its
shareholders. The two goals of financial management are 1) profit
maximisation and 2) wealth maximisation. Refer 1.3
2. Financing decisions relate to the composition of relative proportion of
various sources of finance. Whenever funds are to be raised to finance
investments, capital structure decision is involved. Refer 1.4.1
3. The relationship between financial management and other areas of a
firm can be explained by the. Refer 1.6
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 22
Financial Management Unit 1
Soon after followed Lifebuoy in 1895, and other famous brands like Pears,
Lux, and Vim. Vanaspati was launched in 1918 and the famous Dalda brand
came to the market in 1937. In 1931, Unilever set up its first Indian
subsidiary, Hindustan Vanaspati Manufacturing Company, followed by Lever
Brothers India Limited (1933) and United Traders Limited (1935). These
three companies merged to form HUL in November 1956; HUL offered 10%
of its equity to the Indian public, being the first among the foreign
subsidiaries to do so. Unilever now holds 52.10% equity in the company.
The rest of the shareholding is distributed among about 360,675 individual
shareholders and financial institutions.
The erstwhile Brooke Bond's presence in India dates back to 1900. By
1903, the company had launched Red Label tea in the country. In 1912,
Brooke Bond & Co. India Limited was formed. Brooke Bond joined the
Unilever fold in 1984 through an international acquisition. The erstwhile
Lipton's links with India were forged in 1898. Unilever acquired Lipton in
1972 and in 1977 Lipton Tea (India) Limited was incorporated.
Pond's (India) Limited had been present in India since 1947. It joined the
Unilever fold through an international acquisition of Chesebrough Pond's
USA in 1986.
Since the very early years, HUL has vigorously responded to the stimulus of
economic growth. The growth process has been accompanied by judicious
diversification, always in line with Indian opinions and aspirations.
The liberalisation of the Indian economy, started in 1991, clearly marked an
inflexion in HULs and the Group's growth curve. Removal of the regulatory
framework allowed the company to explore every single product and
opportunity segment, without any constraints on production capacity.
Simultaneously, deregulation permitted alliances, acquisitions, and mergers.
In one of the most visible and talked about events of India's corporate
history, the erstwhile Tata Oil Mills Company (TOMCO) merged with HUL,
effective from April 1, 1993. In 1996, HUL and yet another Tata company,
Lakme Limited, formed a 50:50 joint venture, Lakme Unilever Limited, to
market Lakme's market-leading cosmetics and other appropriate products of
both the companies. Subsequently in 1998, Lakme Limited sold its brands to
HUL and divested its 50% stake in the joint venture to the company.
HUL formed a 50:50 joint venture with the US-based Kimberly Clark
Corporation in 1994. Kimberly-Clark Lever Ltd, which markets Huggies
Diapers and Kotex Sanitary Pads. HUL has also set up a subsidiary in
Nepal, Unilever Nepal Limited (UNL), and its factory represents the largest
manufacturing investment in the Himalayan kingdom. The UNL factory
manufactures HULs products like soaps, detergents, and personal products
both for the domestic market and exports to India.
The 1990s also witnessed a string of crucial mergers, acquisitions, and
alliances on the Foods and Beverages front. In 1992, the erstwhile Brooke
Bond acquired Kothari General Foods, with significant interests in Instant
Coffee. In 1993, it acquired the Kissan business from the UB Group and the
Dollops Ice cream business from Cadbury India.
As a measure of backward integration, Tea Estates and Doom Dooma, two
plantation companies of Unilever, were merged with Brooke Bond. Then in
1994, Brooke Bond India and Lipton India merged to form Brooke Bond
Lipton India Limited (BBLIL), enabling greater focus and ensuring synergy in
the traditional Beverages business. 1994 witnessed BBLIL launching the
Wall's range of Frozen Desserts. By the end of the year, the company
entered into a strategic alliance with the Kwality Ice cream Group families
and in 1995 the Milk food 100% Ice cream marketing and distribution rights
too were acquired.
Finally, BBLIL merged with HUL, with effect from January 1, 1996. The
internal restructuring culminated in the merger of Pond's (India) Limited
(PIL) with HUL in 1998. The two companies had significant overlaps in
personal products, speciality chemicals and exports businesses, besides a
common distribution system since 1993 for personal products. The two also
had a common management pool and a technology base. The
amalgamation was done to ensure for the Group, benefits from scale
economies both in domestic and export markets and enable it to fund
investments required for aggressively building new categories.
In January 2000, in a historic step, the government decided to award 74
percent equity in Modern Foods to HUL, thereby beginning the divestment
of government equity in public sector undertakings (PSU) to private sector
partners. HULs entry into bread is a strategic extension of the company's
Total expenditure:
1% 5%
6%
Ma teria ls
6%
Advertising Costs
6%
Sta ff Costs
Ca rria ge a nd
16% Freight
60% Utilities, Rent,
Repa irs etc.
Deprecia tion
Other
Financial Performance – 10 year track record (Rs. Crores)
Expenditure
P&L 2008-09
account 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 (15 2009-10 2010-11
months)
Gross 11,781.30 10,951.61 11,096.02 10,888.38 11,975.53 13,035.06 14,715.10 21,649.51 18,220.27 20,305.54
Sales*
Other 381.79 384.54 459.83 318.83 304.79 354.51 431.53 589.72 349.64 586.04
Income
Interest (7.74) (9.18) (66.76) (129.98) (19.19) (10.73) (25.50) (25.32) (6.98) (0.24)
Profit 1,943.37 2,197.12 2,244.95 1,505.32 1,604.47 1,861.68 2,146.33 3,025.12 2,707.07 2,730.18
Before
Taxation
@
Profit 1,540.95 1,731.32 1,804.34 1,199.28 1,354.51 1,539.67 1,743.12 2,500.71 2,102.68 2,153.25
After
Taxation
@
Earnings 7.46 8.04 8.05 5.44 6.40 8.41 8.73 11.46 10.10 10.58
Per
Share of
Re. 1#
Dividend 5.00 5.16 5.50 5.00 5.00 6.00 9.00 7.50 6.50 6.50
Per
Share of
Re. 1#
2008-09
Balance
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 (15 2009-10 2010-11
Sheet
months)
Fixed Assets 1,320.06 1,322.34 1,369.47 1,517.56 1,483.53 1,511.01 1,708.14 2,078.84 2,436.07 2,468.24
Investments 1,635.93 2,364.74 2,574.93 2,229.56 2,014.20 2,413.93 1,440.80 332.62 1,264.08 1,260.68
Net Deferred 246.48 269.92 267.44 226.00 220.14 224.55 212.39 254.83 248.82 209.66
Tax
Net Current (75.04) (239.83) (368.81) (409.30) (1,355.31) (1,353.40) (1,833.57) (182.84) (1,365.45) (1,304.6
Assets 6)
3,127.43 3,717.17 3,843.03 3,563.82 2,362.56 2,796.09 1,527.76 2,483.45 2,583.52 2,633.92
Share Capital 220.12 220.12 220.12 220.12 220.12 220.68 217.74 217.99 218.17 215.95
Reserves & 2,823.57 3,438.75 1,918.60 1,872.59 2,085.50 2,502.81 1,221.49 1,843.52 2,365.35 2,417.97
Surplus
Loan Funds 83.74 58.30 1,704.31 1,471.11 56.94 72.60 88.53 421.94 – –
3,127.43 3,717.17 3,843.03 3,563.82 2,362.56 2,796.09 1,527.76 2,483.45 2,583.52 2,633.92
Others
HUL Share 223.65 181.75 204.70 143.50 197.25 216.55 213.90 237.50 238.70 284.60
Price on BSE
(Rs. Per
Share of Re.
1)*
Market 49,231 40,008 45,059 31,587 43,419 47,788 46,575 51,770 52,077 61,459
Capitali-
sation
(Rs. Crores)
References:
Khan, M. Y. and Jain P. K. (2007). Financial Management, Text,
Problems & Cases, 5th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill Company, New Delhi.
Maheshwari, S.N.(2009)., Financial Management – Principles & Practice,
13th Edition, Sultan Chand & Sons.
Van Horne, James, C (2002), Principles of Financial Management,
Pearson Education.
Prasanna, Chandra (2007), Financial Management: Theory and Practice,
7th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill.
E-Reference:
HUL Annual Report 2010 – 2011, www.hul.co.in retrieved on
10/12/ 2011
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 29
Financial Management Unit 2
2.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, you have learnt about the meaning and definition of
financial management, goals of financial management, functions of finance,
and the interface between finance and other business functions. In this unit,
we will discuss the steps in financial planning, factors affecting financial
planning, estimation of financial requirements of a firm, and the concept of
capitalisation.
Liberalisation and globalisation policies initiated by the government have
changed the dimension of business environment. Therefore, for survival and
growth, a firm has to execute planned strategies systematically. To execute
Activity-1:
Review the annual report of Dell computers for the year 2008 and 2009.
Find out how does it minimize the operating capital to support sales
Hint: A study of annual reports of Dell computers will throw light on how
Dell strategically minimised the operating capital required to support
sales. Such companies are admired by investing community.
The pro forma statements help to have a comprehensive look at the likely
future financial performance. While the pro forma income statement
represents the operational plan for the whole organisation, the pro forma
balance sheet reflects the cumulative impact of anticipated future decisions.
Budgets include:
Cash budget
Operating budget
Sales budget
Production budget
Sales and distribution expenses budget
Administrative overheads budget
Caselet:
Raw material cost is 40% of sales revenue for the year ended 31.03.2007.
However, this method assumes that the ratio of raw material cost to sales
will continue to be the same in 2008 also. Such an assumption may not
look good in most of the situations.
If in case, raw material cost increases by 10% in 2008 but selling price of
finished goods increases only by 5%. In this case raw material cost will be
44/105 of the sales revenue in 2008. This can be solved to some extent by
taking the average for the same representative years. However, inflation,
change in government policies, wage agreements, and technological
innovation totally invalidate this approach on a long run basis.
Illustration:
The Profit and Loss statement of Biotech Ltd. for the years 2000 and 2001
are given below. If the sales for the year 2002 are estimated at
Rs. 22,00,000, prepare a pro forma income statement for the year 2002
using the percent of sales method.
(Rs. ‘000) 2000 2001
Total sales 1,200 1,800
Cost of goods sold 700 1,100
Gross profit 500 700
Selling and administration expenses 180 220
Depreciation 50 80
Operating profit 270 400
Non-operating surplus 40 80
EBIT 310 480
Interest 160 160
Tax 60 100
Profit after tax 90 220
Dividends 30 60
Retained earnings 60 160
Solution:
Average Pro forma income
percent of statement for 2002
sales (in Rs. ’000)
Net sales 100 2,200
Cost of goods sold 60 1,320
Gross profit 40 880
Selling and administration expenses 13.33 293
Depreciation 4.3 95
Operating profit 22.36 492
Non-operating surplus 4 88
EBIT 26.4 580
Interest 10.67 235
Tax 5.3 117
Profit after tax 10.33 228
Dividends 3 66
Retained earnings 7.33 162
Working notes:
Total cost of goods sold for 2000 and 2001 = Rs 18,00,000.
Total sales for the year 2000 and 2001 = Rs. 30,00,000.
Hence, percentage of total cost of goods sold relative to sales = 18,00,000 /
30,00,000 X 100 = 60
The other items are also computed in a similar manner.
Budgeted expense method
Expenses for the planning period are budgeted on the basis of anticipated
behaviour of various items of cost and revenue.
The value of each item is estimated on the basis of expected developments
in the future period for which the pro forma P&L account is being prepared.
It calls for greater effort on the part of management since they have to
define the likely happenings. This also demands effective database for
reasonable budgeting expenses.
Combination of both these methods
The combination of both these methods is used because some expenses
can be budgeted by the management. This is done taking into account the
expected business environment while some other expenses could be based
on their relationship with the sales revenue expected to be earned.
The budgeted income statement will pull together all revenue and expense
estimates from previously prepared detail budgets. Once this statement is
prepared, the budgeted balance sheet can be prepared.
2.2.2 Forecast of balance sheet
The following steps discuss the forecasting of the balance sheet:
Compute the sales revenue, having a close relationship with the items of
certain assets and liabilities, based on the forecast of sales and the
historical database of their relationship.
Determine the equity and debt mix on the basis of funds requirements
and the company’s policy on capital structure.
Projections for Balance sheet can be made as listed below:
Employ percent of sales method to project items on the asset side,
except “Investments” and “Miscellaneous Expenses and Losses”.
Caselet
The following details have been extracted from the books of X Ltd.
Table 2.1 and table 2.2 depict the income statement and balance sheet
respectively.
Table 2.1: Income Statement
2006 2007
Sales less returns 1000 1300
Gross profit 300 520
Selling expenses 100 120
Administration 40 45
Deprecation 60 75
Operating profit 100 280
Non-operating income 20 40
EBIT (Earnings Before Interest and Tax) 120 320
Interest 15 18
Profit before tax 105 302
Tax 30 100
Profit after tax 75 202
Dividend 38 100
Retained earnings 37 102
Forecast the income statement and balance sheet for the year 2008 based on
the following assumptions:
Sales for the year 2008 will increase by 30% over the sales value for 2007
Use percent of sales method to forecast the values for various items of
income statement using the percentage for the year 2007
Depreciation is charged at 25% of fixed assets
Fixed assets will increase by Rs. 100 million
Investments will increase by Rs. 100 million
Current assets and current liabilities are to be decided based on their
relationship with the sales in the year 2007
Miscellaneous expenditure will increase by Rs. 19 million
Secured loans in 2008 will be based on its relationship with the sales in the
year 2007
Additional funds required, if any, will be met by bank borrowings
Tax rates will be 30%
Dividends will be 50% of the profit after tax
Non-operating income will increase by 10%
There will be no change in the total amount of administration expenses to
be spent in the year 2008
There is no change in equity and preference capital in 2008
Interest for 2008 will maintain the same ratio as it has in 2007 with the
sales of 2007
Table 2.3 and table 2.4 depict the forecast of the income statement and the
balance sheet for the year 2008 respectively.
Liabilities
1. Share capital
Equity 120
Preference 50
2. Reserves and surplus Increase by
current year’s
355
retained
earnings
3. Secured loan 60 60 1690
78
1300 1300
Bank borrowings 40
(Difference –
Balancing
figure)
4. Unsecured loan 60 60
5. Current liabilities and
provision
Trade creditors 250 250 1690 325
1300 1300
Provision for tax 60 60 1690 78
1300 1300
Proposed dividend Current year 130
given
Total liabilities 1236
A ( s) L ( s)
EFR = – MS1 (1-d) – (1m + SR)
S S
Here
A
(ΔΔs= Expected increase in assets, both fixed assets and current
S
assets required for the expected increase in sales in the next year.
L
(ΔΔs= Expected spontaneous finance available for the expected
S
increase in sales.
MS1 (1-d) = It is the product of profit margin, expected sales for the next
year, and the retention ratio.
Retention ratio = 1 – payout ratio.
Payout ratio refers to the ratio of the dividend paid to the earnings per
share.
1m = Expected change in the level of investments and miscellaneous
expenditure.
SR = It is the firm’s repayment liability on term loans and debenture for
the next year.
The formula described above has certain features:
Ratios of assets and spontaneous liabilities to sales remain constant
over the planning period.
Dividend payout and profit margin for the next year can be reasonably
planned in advance.
Since external funds requirements involve borrowings from financial
institution, the formula rightly incorporates the management’s liability on
repayments.
Solved Problem
X Ltd. has given the following forecasts: “Sales in 2008 will increase from
Rs. 1000 to Rs. 2000 in 2007”. Table 2.5 depicts the balance sheet of the
company as on December 31, 2007.
Solution:
Preliminary workings:
A = Current assets = Cash + Bills receivables + Inventories
= 100 + 200 +200 = 500
A 500
( s) 1000 Rs. 500
S 1000
L = Trade creditors + Bills payable + Expenses outstanding
= 50 + 150 + 50 = Rs. 250
L 250
( s) 1000 Rs. 250
S 1000
M (Profit margin) = 5 / 100 = 0.05
S1 = Rs.2000
1-d = 1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 %
1m = NIL
SR = NIL
A ( s) L
Therefore: EFR s - ms1 (1-d) – (1m + SR)
S S
= 500 – 250 – (0.05 x 2000 x 0.4) – (0 + 0)
= 500 – 250 – 40 - (0 + 0)
= Rs. 210
Therefore, external fund requirements for 2008 will be Rs. 210. This
additional fund requirement will be procured by the firm based on its
policy on capital structure.
investor’s confidence. Such a company can tap the capital market for
raising funds in competitive terms for implementing new projects to
exploit the new opportunities emerging from changing business
environment.
Sources of finance available – Sources of finance could be grouped
into debt and equity. Debt is cheap but risky whereas equity is costly. A
firm should aim at optimum capital structure that would achieve the least
cost capital structure. A large firm with a diversified product mix may
manage higher quantum of debt because the firm may manage higher
financial risk with a lower business risk. Selection of sources of finance is
closely linked to the firm’s capability to manage the risk exposure.
The capital structure of a company – The capital structure of a
company is influenced by the desire of the existing management
(promoters) of the company to retain control over the affairs of the
company. The promoters who do not like to lose their grip over the
affairs of the company normally obtain extra funds for growth by issuing
preference shares and debentures to outsiders.
Matching the sources with utilisation – The prudent policy of any
good financial plan is to match the term of the source with the term of the
investment. To finance fluctuating working capital needs, the firm resorts
to short-term finance. All fixed-asset investments are to be financed by
long-term sources which is a cardinal principle of financial planning.
Flexibility – The financial plan of a company should possess flexibility
so as to effect changes in the composition of capital structure whenever
the need arises. If the capital structure of a company is flexible, there will
not be any difficulty in changing the sources of funds. This factor has
become a significant one today because of the globalisation of capital
market.
Government policy – SEBI guidelines, finance ministry circulars,
various clauses of Standard Listing Agreement and regulatory
mechanism imposed by FEMA, and Department of Corporate Affairs
(government of India) influence the financial plans of corporates today.
Management of public issues of shares demands the compliances with
many statutes in India. They are to be complied with a time constraint.
Activity 2
Select 2 companies each from FMCG, Software and Manufacturing on the
mission statement. What is your observation on financial requirements?
Hint: All the finance requirements are to be discussed.
2.5 Capitalisation
Capitalisation of a firm refers to the composition of its long-term funds and
its capital structure. It has two components – Debt and Equity.
After estimating the financial requirements of a firm, the next decision that
the management has to take is to arrive at the value at which the company
has to be capitalised.
There are two theories of capitalisation for the new companies:
Cost theory
Earnings theory
Effects of over-capitalisation
Decline in earnings of the company
Fall in dividend rates
Loss of goodwill
Market value of the company’s share falls, and the company loses
investors’ confidence
Company may collapse at any time because of anaemic financial
conditions which affect its employees, society, consumers, and
shareholders. Employees will lose jobs. If the company is engaged in the
Remedies of over-capitalisation
Over-capitalisation often results in a company becoming sick. Restructuring
the firm helps to avoid such a situation. Some of the other remedies of over-
capitalisation are:
Reduction of debt burden
Negotiation with term lending institutions for reduction in interest
obligation
Redemption of preference shares through a scheme of capital reduction
Reducing the face value and paid-up value of equity shares
Initiating merger with well–managed, profit-making companies interested
in taking over ailing company
2.5.4 Under-capitalisation
Under-capitalisation is just the reverse of over-capitalisation. A company is
considered to be under-capitalised when its actual capitalisation is lower
than the proper capitalisation as warranted by the earning capacity.
Symptoms of under-capitalisation
The following points describe the symptoms of under-capitalisation:
Actual capitalisation is less than the warranted earning capacity
Rate of earnings is exceptionally high in relation to the return enjoyed by
similar situated companies in the same industry
Causes of under-capitalisation
The following points describe the causes of under-capitalisation:
Under estimation of the future earnings at the time of the promotion of
the company
Abnormal increase in earnings from the new economic and business
environments
Under estimation of total funds requirement
Maintaining very high efficiency through improved means of production
of goods or rendering of services
Companies which are set up during the recession period will start
making higher earning capacity as soon as the recession is over
Purchase of assets at exceptionally low prices during recession
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 55
Financial Management Unit 2
Effects of under-capitalisation
The following points describe some of the effects of under-capitalisation:
Under-capitalisation encourages competition by creating a feeling that
the line of business is lucrative
It encourages the management of the company to manipulate the
company’s share prices
High profits will attract higher amount of taxes
High profits will make the workers demand higher wages. Such a feeling
on the part of the employees leads to labour unrest
High margin of profit may create an impression among the consumers
that the company is charging high prices for its products
High margin of profits and the consequent dissatisfaction among its
employees and consumer may invite governmental enquiry into the
pricing mechanism of the company
Remedies
The following points describe the remedies of under-capitalisation:
Splitting up of the shares, which will reduce the dividend per share
Issue of bonus shares, which will reduce both the dividend per share and
the earnings per share
Both over-capitalisation and under-capitalisation are detrimental to the
interests of the society.
2.6 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Financial planning deals with the planning, the execution, and the
monitoring of procurement and utilisation of funds. Financial planning
process gives birth to financial plan. It could be thought of as a blueprint
explaining the proposed strategy and its execution.
There are many financial planning models. All these models forecast the
future operations and then translate them to income statements and
balance sheets. It will also help the finance managers to ascertain the
funds to be procured from the outside sources. The essence of all these
is to achieve a least cost capital structure which would match with the
risk exposure of the company.
Failure to follow the principle of financial planning may lead a new firm to
over or under-capitalisation when the economic environment undergoes
a change.
Ideally, every firm should aim at optimum capitalisation or it might lead to
a situation of over or under-capitalisation. Both are detrimental to the
interests of the society. There are two theories of capitalisation - cost
theory and earnings theory.
2.7 Glossary
Accounting equation: Assets = Liabilities + Equity.
Capitalisation of a firm: Refers to the composition of its long-term funds
and its capital structure. It has two components – Debt and Equity.
Financial planning: Process by which funds required for each course of
action is decided.
2.9 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. There are six steps involved in financial planning. Refer to 2.2
2. There are various factors affecting financial plan. Refer to 2.3
3. A company is said to be over-capitalised when its total capital (both
equity and debt) exceeds the true value of its assets. Refer to 2.5.3
4. A company is considered to be under-capitalised when its actual
capitalisation is lower than the proper capitalisation as warranted by the
earning capacity. Refer to 2.5.4
Income
Sales Turnover 2,58,651.15 2,00,399.79 1,46,328.07 1,39,269.46 1,18,353.71
Excise Duty 10,515.09 8,307.92 4,369.07 5,463.68 6,654.68
Net Sales 2,48,136.06 1,92,091.87 1,41,959.00 1,33,805.78 1,11,699.03
Other Income 3,358.61 3,088.05 1,264.03 6,595.66 236.89
Stock Adjustments 3,243.05 3,947.89 427.56 -1,867.16 654.60
Total Income 2,54,737.72 1,99,127.81 1,43,650.59 1,38,534.28 1,12,590.52
Expenditure
Raw Materials 1,98,076.21 1,53,689.01 1,09,284.34 98,832.14 80,791.65
Power and Fuel Cost 2,255.07 2,706.71 3,355.98 2,052.84 2,261.69
Employee Cost 2,621.59 2,330.82 2,397.50 2,119.33 2,094.09
Other Manufacuring
Expenses 2,915.44 2,153.67 1,162.98 715.19 1,112.17
Selling and Admin
Expenses 7,207.83 5,756.44 4,736.60 5,549.40 5,478.10
Miscellaneous Expenses 500.52 651.96 562.42 412.66 321.23
Preoperative Exp
Capitalised -30.26 -1,217.92 -3,265.65 -175.46 -111.21
Total Expenses 2,13,546.40 1,66,070.69 1,18,234.17 1,09,506.10 91,947.72
Application of Funds
Gross Block 2,21,251.97 2,15,864.71 1,49,628.70 1,04,229.10 99,532.77
Less: Accum.
Depreciation 78,545.50 62,604.82 49,285.64 42,345.47 35,872.31
Net Block 1,42,706.47 1,53,259.89 1,00,343.06 61,883.63 63,660.46
Capital work-in-
progress 12,819.56 12,138.82 69,043.83 23,005.84 7,528.13
Investments 33,019.27 19,255.35 20,268.18 20,516.11 16,251.34
Inventories 29,825.38 26,981.62 14,836.72 14,247.54 12,136.51
Sundry Debtors 17,441.94 11,660.21 4,571.38 6,227.58 3,732.42
Cash and Bank
Balance 604.57 362.36 500.13 217.79 308.35
Total Current Assets 47,871.89 39,004.19 19,908.23 20,692.91 16,177.28
Loans and Advances 17,320.60 10,517.57 13,375.15 18,441.20 12,506.71
Fixed Deposits 31,162.56 17,073.56 23,014.71 5,609.75 1,527.00
Total CA, Loans and
Advances 96,355.05 66,595.32 56,298.09 44,743.86 30,210.99
Deferred Credit 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00 0.00
Discussion Questions:
Prepare pro forma financial statements for the year 2012 with the following
considerations:
1. The sales for the year 2012 are to be increased by 30% over the value of
sales for the year 2011.
2. Use percent of sales method to forecast the values for various items of
income statement using the percentage for the year 2011.
3. Secured loans in 2012 will be based on its relationship with the sales in
the year 2011.
4. Additional funds required, if any, will be met by bank borrowings.
5. Selling and administration expenses expected to increase by 5%.
(Hint: Refer proforma financial statements)
(Source: http://www.moneycontrol.com/financials
References:
Prasanna Chandra, Financial Management, 6th edition - Manohar
Publishers and Distributors
Brigham. Eugene F. and Houston. Joel F.(2007). Fundamentals of
Financial Management, 11th Edition, Cengage Learning
E-References:
http://www.moneycontrol.com/financials) retrieved on 10/12/ 2011
3.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, you have learnt about the steps in financial planning,
factors affecting financial planning, estimation of financial requirements of a
firm, and the concept of capitalisation. In the earlier units, you have also
learnt that wealth maximisation is far more superior to profit maximisation.
There are two methods by which the time value of money can be calculated:
Compounding technique
Discounting technique
3.2.1.1 Compounding technique
In the compounding technique, the future values of all cash inflow at the end
of the time horizon at a particular rate of interest are calculated. The amount
earned on an initial deposit becomes part of the principal at the end of the
first compounding period.
The compounding of interest can be calculated by the following equation:
n
.
Example
Mr. A invests Rs. 1,000 in a bank which offers him 5% interest
compounded annually. Table 3.1 depicts the values arrived at by
substituting the actual figures for the investment or Rs. 1000 in the
n
formula .
Table 3.1: Interest Compounded Annually
Year 1 2 3
Beginning amount Rs.1000 Rs.1050 Rs.1102.50
Interest rate 5% 5% 5%
Amount of interest 50 52.50 55.13
Beginning principal Rs.1000 Rs.1050 Rs.1102.50
Ending principal Rs.1050 Rs.1102.50 Rs.1157.63
As seen from table 3.1, Mr. A has Rs. 1050 in his account at the end of
the first year. The total of the interest and principal amount
Rs. 1050 constitutes the principal for the next year. He thus earns
Rs. 1102.50 for the second year. This becomes the principal for the third
Solved Problem – 1
Mr. A requires Rs. 1050 at the end of the first year. Given the rate of
interest as 5%, find out how much Mr. A would invest today to earn this
amount.
Solution:
If P is the unknown amount, then
P (1+0.05) = 1050
P = 1050/(1+0.05)
= Rs.1000
Thus, Rs. 1000 would be the required principal investment to have
Rs. 1050 at the end of the first year at 5% interest rate. The present
value of the money is the reciprocal of the compounding value.
Mathematically, we have
1
P=A n
(1 i)
FVn = PV(1+i)n
The expression ( 1 i)n represents the future value of the initial investment
of Re. 1 at the end of n number of years at a rate of interest ‘i’ referred to as
the Future Value Interest Factor (FVIF). To help ease the calculations, this
expression has been evaluated for various combinations of “i” and “n” and
these values are presented in table 3.1. To calculate the future value of any
investment, the corresponding value of (1 i)n from table 3.1 is multiplied
with the initial investment.
Solved Problem – 2
Table 3.2 depicts the interest rates offered by the fixed deposit scheme
of a bank.
Table 3.2: Fixed Deposit Scheme of a Bank
Period of deposit Rate per annum
<45 days 9%
46 days to 179 days 10%
180 days to 365 days 10.5%
365 days and above 11%
What will be the status of Rs. 10,000 after three years if it is invested at
this point of time?
Solution:
FVn = PV(1+i)n or PV*FVIF (11%, 3y)
= 10000*1.368 (from the tables)
= Rs.13, 680
The status of Rs. 10,000 after three years, if it is invested at this point of
time, would be Rs.13,680.
Growth rate:
The compound rate of growth for a given series for a period of time can be
calculated by employing the FVIF. Consider the following example.
Years 1 2 3 4 5 6
Profits (in Lakh) 75 90 105 140 160 180
How is the compound rate of growth for the above series determined? This
can be done in two steps:
1. The ratio of profits for year 6 to year 1 is to be determined, i.e., 180/75 =
2.4.
2. The FVIF table is to be looked at. Look at the value that is close to 2.4
for the row of 5 years.
The value close to 2.4 is 2.386, and the interest rate corresponding to this is
19%. Therefore, the compound rate of growth is 19%.
Example
Table 3.3 depicts the interest earned if we have deposited Rs.10,000 in a bank
which offers 10% interest per annum compounded semi-annually.
Table 3.3: Interest Earned
Amount invested Rs.10,000
Interest earned for first 6 months
10000*10%*1/2 (for 6 months) Rs.500
Amount at the end of 6 months Rs.10,500
Interest earned for second 6 months
105000*10%*1/2 Rs.525
Amount at the end of the year Rs.11,025
If in the above case, compounding is done only once in a year the interest
earned will be 10000*10% which is equal to Rs. 1000, and we will have
Rs. 11000 at the end of first year.
Solved Problem – 3
Under the ABC Bank’s Cash Multiplier Scheme, deposits can be made
for periods ranging from 3 months to 5 years and for every quarter,
interest is added to the principal. The applicable rate of interest is 9%
for deposits less than 23 months and 10% for periods more than 24
months. What will be the amount of Rs. 1000 after 2 years?
Solution:
mXn
i
FV n PV 1 m
m = 12/3 = 4 (quarterly compounding)
1000 (1+0.10/4)4*2
1000 (1+0.10/4)8
Rs. 1218
The amount of Rs. 1000 after 2 years would be Rs. 1218.
the annual compounding that produces the same effect as that produced by
an interest rate of 10% under semi-annual compounding.
The general relationship between the effective and nominal rates of interest
is as follows:
i m
r = (1 ( ) ) 1
m
Where,
r = Effective rate of interest
i = Nominal rate of interest
m = Frequency of compounding per year
Solved Problem – 4
Calculate the effective rate of interest if the nominal rate of interest is
12% and interest is compounded quarterly.
Solution:
i
r = (1 ( )m ) 1
m
M = 12/3 = 4 (quarterly compounding)
r = {(1+0.12/4)4}-1
r = 0.126 or 12.6% p.a. effective rate of interest is 12.6% p.a.
Solved Problem – 5
Mr. Madan invests Rs. 500, Rs. 1000, Rs. 1500, Rs.2000, and Rs. 2500
at the end of each year for 5 years. Calculate the value at the end of 5
years compounded annually if the rate of interest is 5% p.a.
Solution:
Table 3.4 depicts the value at the end of 5 years, compounded annually
at a rate of interest of 5% per annum
Table 3.4: Future Value of Series of Cash Flow
Amount Number of Compounded
End of invested years interest factors FV in Rs.
year
(Rs.) compounded from tables
Example
If you have subscribed to the recurring deposit scheme of a bank
requiring you to pay Rs. 5000 annually for 10 years, this stream of
payouts can be called “annuities”. Annuities require calculations based
on regular periodic contribution of a fixed sum of money.
The future value of a regular annuity for a period of n years at “i” rate of
interest can be summed up as follows:
(1 i ) n 1
FVAn = A
i
Where, FVAn = Accumulation at the end of n years
i = Rate of interest
n = Time horizon or number of years
A = Amount invested at the end of every year for n years
As in the case of FVIFA, this expression has also been evaluated for
different combinations of ‘i’ and ‘n’. Table 3.4 and table 3.5 depict these
tabulations respectively. We just have to multiply the relevant value from
the table with ‘A’ (i.e. Amount invested at the end of every year for n years)
and get the accumulation in the formula given above.
Solved Problem – 6
Mr. Ram Kumar deposits Rs. 3000 at the end of every year for five years
into his account. Interest is being compounded annually at a rate of 5%.
Determine the amount of money he will have at the end of the fifth year.
Solution:
Table 3.5 depicts the amount of money Mr. Ram Kumar will have at the
end of the fifth year.
Or Refer FVIFA table to compute the value at the end of 5th year:
= 2000 * FVIFA (5%, 5y)
= 2000*5.526
= Rs. 11052
We notice that we can get the accumulations at the end of n period using
the tables. Calculations for a long time horizon are easily done with the help
of reference tables. Annuity tables are widely used in the field of investment
banking as ready beckoners.
Solved Problem – 7
Calculate the value of an annuity flow of Rs. 5000 done on a yearly
basis of five years, yielding at an interest of 8% p.a.
Solution:
= 5000 FVIFA (8%, 5y)
= 5000* 5.867
= Rs. 29335
The value of annuity flow is Rs. 29,335.
Activity 1
If you are investing in State Bank of India Recurring deposit scheme that
requires you to pay Rs 1000 annually for 10 years how would you
calculate the contribution?
Hint: Future value of an Annuity
by discounting the future amount at the given interest rate, we will get the
present value of investment to be made.
The present value of a sum to be received at a future date is determined by
discounting the future value at the interest rate that the money could earn
over the period. This process is known as discounting.
3.4.1 Present value of a single flow
Ascertaining Present Value (PV) is simply the reverse of finding Future
Value (FV). Hence, the formula for FV can be simply transformed into the
PV formula. Thus, we can determine the PV of a future cash flow or a
stream of future cash flows using the formula:
Solved Problem – 8
If Ms. Sapna expects to have an amount of Rs. 1000 after one year what
should be the amount she has to invest today if the bank is offering 10%
interest rate?
FV n
Solution: PV
(1 i) n
= 1000/(1+0.10)1
= Rs. 909.09
The same can be calculated with the help of tables.
= 1000*PVIF (10%, 1y)
= 1000*0.909
= Rs. 909
The amount to be invested today to have an amount of Rs, 1000 after
one year is Rs. 909.
Solved Problem – 9
An investor wants to find out the value of an amount of Rs.10,000 to be
received after 15 years. The interest offered by bank is 9%. Calculate the
PV of this amount.
Solution:
FV n
PV or 10000 PVIF(9%, 15y)
(1 i) n
= 10000*0.275
= Rs. 2750
The PV of Rs. 10, 000 is Rs. 2750.
Activity-2
If you are an investor and are interested in finding out the value of an
amount of Rs 1000 to be received after 15 years, how would you
calculate?
Hint: calculate Present value
A A A A
PVAn ...
(1 i) 1
(1 i) 2
(1 i) 3
(1 i) n
The above formula or the equation reduces to:
(1 i ) n 1
PVAn= A n
i (1 i )
The expression {(1 i)n 1/ i (1 i)n } is known as Present Value Interest
Factor Annuity (PVIFA). It represents the present value of a regular annuity
of Re. 1 for the given values of i and n. Table 3.6 depicts the values of
PVIFA (i, n) for different combinations of ‘I’ and ‘n’. It should be noted that
these values are true only if the cash flows are equal and the flows occur at
the end of every year.
It must also be noted that PVIFA (i,n) is NOT the inverse of FVIFA (i,n),
although PVIF (i,n) is the inverse of FVIF (i,n).
Solved Problem – 10
Calculate the PV of an annuity of Rs. 500 received annually for four years
when discounting factor is 10%.
Solution:
Table 3.6 depicts the calculated present value of annuity:
Table 3.6: Computation of PV of Annuity
End of year Cash inflows PV factor PV in Rs.
1 Rs.500 0.909 454.5
2 Rs.500 0.827 413.5
3 Rs.500 0.751 375.5
4 Rs.500 0.683 341.5
3.170 1585.0
Solved Problem – 11
Find out the present value of an annuity of Rs. 10000 over 3 years when
discounted at 5%.
Solution:
Present value of annuity
= 10000*PVIFA(5%, 3y)
= 10000*2.7232
= Rs. 27232
Hence, the present value of annuity is Rs. 27232.
Solved Problem – 12
The principal of a college wants to institute a scholarship of Rs. 5000 for
a meritorious student every year. Find out the PV of investment which
would yield Rs. 5000 in perpetuity, discounted at 10%.
Solution:
= 5000/0.10
= Rs. 50000
This means he should invest Rs. 50000 to get an annual return of
Rs. 5000.
A1 A2 A3 An
P ...
(1 i) 1
(1 i) 2
(1 i) 3
(1 i) n
or
PV= A1 PVIF (i, 1) + A2 PVIF (i, 2) + A3 PVIF (i, 3) + A4 PVIF (i, 4)
+……………..…. + An PVIF (i, n)
Solved Problem – 13
An investor will receive Rs. 10000, Rs. 15000, Rs. 8000, Rs. 11000, and
Rs. 4000 respectively at the end of every five years. Find out the
present value of this stream of uneven cash flows, if the investors
interest rate is 8%.
Solution:
PV=10000/ (1+0.08) +15000/ (1+0.08)2+8000/ (1+0.08)3+11000/
(1+0.08)4+4000/ (1+0.08)5
=Rs.39276
Or by referring table we can compute
PV=10000 PVIF(8%,1yr)+15000 PVIF(8%,2yrs)+ 8000 PVIF(8%,3yrs)+
11000 PVIF(8%,4yrs)+4000 PVIF(8%,5yrs)
= 10000*0.926+15000*0.857+8000*0.794+11000*0.735+4000*0.681
=9260+ 12855 + 6352 +8085 + 2724 =Rs.39,276
The present value of this stream of uneven cash flows is Rs. 39,276
i (1 i ) n
A = PVAn n 1
(1 i )
i (1 i ) n
n 1
is known as the Capital Recovery Factor.
(1 i )
Solved Problem – 14
A loan of Rs. 100000 is to be repaid in 5 equal annual instalments. If the
loan carries a rate of 14% p.a, what is the amount of each instalment?
Solution:
Instalment*PVIFA(14%, 5) = 100000
Instalment=100000/3.433 = Rs. 29128.
The amount of each instalment has been calculated.
3.5 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Money has time preference.
A rupee in hand today is more valuable than a rupee a year later.
Individuals prefer possession of cash now rather than at a future point of
time. Therefore cash flow occurring at different points in time cannot be
compared.
Interest rate gives money its value and facilitates comparison of cash
flow occurring at different periods of time.
Compounding and discounting are two methods used to calculate the
time value of money.
3.6 Glossary
Annuity: Refers to the periodic flows of equal amounts.
Capital recovery factor: Annuity of an investment for a specified time at a
given rate of interest.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 82
Financial Management Unit 3
16. If a borrower promises to pay Rs. 20,000 eight years from now in return
for a loan of Rs. 12,550 today, what is the annual interest being
offered?
Solution:
PV = A*PVIFA (12%, 10y)
500000 = A *5.650
500000/5.650= A
Rs. 88492 = A (instalment amount)
18. A person deposits Rs. 25,000 in a bank that pays 6% interest half-
yearly. Calculate the amount at the end of 3 years
Solution:
mXn
: FV n PV 1 i
m
I/m = 6%; m = 2 ; n = 3 yrs
25000*(1+0.06)3*2 = 25000*1.14185 = Rs. 35462
19. Find the present value of Rs. 100000 receivable after 10 years if 10%
is the time preference for money.
Solution:
FV n
PV
1 i n
Refer PVIF table (10%,10yrs)
PV =100000*(0.386)
= Rs. 38600
3.9 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. 9 years (using rule of 72); 8.975 years (using rule of 69)
2. 30000*FVIFA(9%, 20Y) = 30000*51.160 = Rs. 1534800
3. A*FVIFA(12%, 10y) = 400000 which is 400000/17.549 = Rs.22795
4. 20000*PVIFA(105, 5y)=20000*3.791 = Rs. 75820
5. 5000*FVIFA(10%, 4y) = 5000*6.105 = Rs. 23205
Small savings schemes in India are framed and enacted by the central
government under the Government Savings Bank Act, 1873, and
Government Savings Certificate Act, 1959. Small savings schemes came
into existence after independence with the objective of providing safe and
simple investment opportunities to the lower and middle income groups.
These schemes were channelised and administered by government
institutions, such as post offices and nationalised banks. With the same
objective, the PPF was established in 1968 for individuals to save for their
investments.
There are various schemes offered by the Government of India (GoI)
through post offices across the country. These schemes include the post-
office Savings Account, the post-office Recurring Deposit Account, the post-
office Time Deposit Account, the post-office Monthly Income Account, the
post-office Public Provident Fund Account, the Kisan Vikas Patra, the
National Savings Certificate, and the Senior Citizens Savings Scheme. The
maturity period of these schemes varies from very short as in the case of a
savings deposit to over 15 years as in the case of PPF. However, all these
investment options come under the same risk class as all of them have fixed
returns and are guaranteed by the GoI. The returns vary between the
schemes based on their features and maturity period.
The responsibility of promoting and mobilising small savings schemes rests
with the National Savings Institute (NSI), a division of the ministry of finance.
The NSI markets the small savings schemes on a nationwide basis and
provides the government with feedback from customers.
The small savings scheme programme aims at promoting the savings habit
and providing safe investment avenues to people with limited income and
savings potential. These schemes are operated through about 1,60,000 post
offices across the country. The PPF scheme is also operated through more
than 8000 branches of public sector banks.
Post Office Savings Schemes in India
The main financial services offered by the Department of Posts are the Post
Office Savings Bank. It is the largest and oldest banking service institution in
the country. The Department of Posts operates the Post Office Savings
Scheme function on behalf of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
Under this scheme, more than 20.50 crores savings accounts are operated.
These accounts are operated through more than 1,54,000 post offices
across the country.
The Post offices provide a number of savings schemes like the Savings
Account Schemes, Recurring Deposit Schemes, Time Deposit Schemes,
Public Provident Fund Schemes, Monthly Income Schemes, National
Savings Certificates, Kisan Vikas Patras, and Senior Citizens
Savings Scheme. A brief of the various schemes is as follows:
Investment
Interest Denominati
Scheme Tenure Salient Features Tax rebate
Rates ons and
limits
Post 3.5% p.a. On No Min: Rs. 50 Cheque facility Interest is
Office individual specific Max: Rs. 1 available tax-free u/s
Savings and joint or fix lakh for 80L
Account account tenure individual
and 2 lakhs
for joint
account
5-Year 7.5% 5 years. Min: Rs. 10 One withdrawal up to No tax rebate
Post compounded Can be per month 50% of
Office quarterly renewed or multiples the balance is
Recurring for of Rs. 5 allowed after one
Deposit another Max: No year.
Account 5 years limit Full maturity value
allowed on R.D.
6 and 12 months
advance deposits
earn rebate.
Post 6.25% 1 year Min: Rs. 200 Long-term accounts Investment
Office and its could be closed after qualifies for
6.50% 2 years
Time multiple 1 year for discounted deduction u/s
Deposit 7.25% 3 years thereof Max: interest. 80C. Interest
Account No limit Accounts could be is tax-free u/s
closed after 6 80L
months but before a
7.50% 5 years year for no interest.
Interest is calculated
quarterly but payable
yearly.
Post 8% p.a. 6 years Min: Rs. Account if closed Interest is
Office 1500 per after 1 year but tax-free u/s
Monthly month or before 3 years will 80L
Income multiples of suffer a deduction of
Account it. Max: Rs. 2% of the deposit.
4.5 lakhs for Account if closed
Mr. Sreedhar is looking for some simple investment options. Mr. Sreedhar
works in a local textile factory. His annual income is Rs. 5,30,000. His
monthly net pay is approx. Rs. 37,000. The break-up of his salary income is
as below:
PF 1,908 22,896
References:
Keown, Arthur J. (2005). Financial Management. Principles and
Applications, 10th Edition.
"Time Value of Money", (2008) Finance for Engineers,
E-References:
www.ideaindia.org retrieved on 10/12/2011
www.finmin.nic.in retrieved on 10/12/2011
Structure:
4.1 Introduction
Objectives
Concept of intrinsic value
Concept of book value
4.2 Valuation of Bonds
Irredeemable bonds or perpetual bonds
Redeemable bonds
Bonds with annual interest payments
Bond values with semi-annual interest payments
Zero coupon bonds
Bond yield measures
Current yield
Yield to Maturity (YTM)
Bond value theorems
4.3 Valuation of Shares
Valuation of preference shares
Valuation of ordinary shares
Dividend capitalisation model
Types of dividends
Other approaches to equity valuation
Price earnings ratio
4.4 Summary
4.5 Glossary
4.6 Solved Problems
4.7 Terminal Questions
4.8 Answers
4.9 Case Study
4.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, we discussed about the future value and present value
of money. In this unit, we will learn about the valuation of bonds and shares.
Valuation is the process of linking risk with returns to determine the worth of
C1 C2 Cn
V0= ....
(1 i ) (1 i )
1 2
(1 i ) n
Solved Problem – 1
Determine the value of assets of two projects, A and B, with a discount
rate of 10% and with a cash flow of Rs. 20000 and Rs. 10000. Table 4.1
depicts the cash flow of projects A and B.
Table 4.1: Cash Flow of Projects A and B
1 20000 10000
2 20000 20000
3 20000 30000
Solution:
Value of asset A
= 20000*PVIFA (10%, 3y)
= 20000*2.487
= Rs.49470
Value of asset B
= 10000 PVIF(10%, 1) + 20000 PVIF (10%, 2) +
30000 PVIF (10%, 3)
= 10000*0.909 + 20000*0.826 + 30000*0.751
= 9090+16520+22530
= Rs.48140
Solved Problem – 2
Calculate the value of an asset if the annual cash inflow is Rs. 5000 per
year for the next 6 years and the discount rate is 16%.
Solution:
Value of an asset
Cn
(1 i ) n
= 5000/ (1+0.16)6
= Rs.18425
or
= 5000 PVIFA (16%, 6y) = 5000*3.685
= Rs. 18425
Going concern value is the amount a company can realise if it sells its
business as an operating one. This value is higher than the liquidation
value.
Market value is the current price at which the asset or security is being
sold or bought into the market. Market value per share is generally
higher than the book value per share for profitable and growing firms.
Key Points
Book value of a share is calculated by dividing the net worth by the number
of outstanding shares.
Book value may include intangible assets at acquisition cost minus
amortised value.
Market value is the price at which the bond is traded in the stock
exchange. Market price is the price at which the bonds can be bought
and sold, and this price may be different from par value and redemption
value.
Redemption value is the amount the bondholder gets on maturity. A
bond may be redeemed at par, at a premium (bondholder gets more
than the par value of the bond), or at a discount (bondholder gets less
than the par value of the bond.
Types of bonds
Bonds are of three types – Irredeemable bonds, redeemable bonds and
zero coupon bonds. Figure 4.1 depicts the three types of bonds.
Where Vo is the present value; ‘I’ is the annual interest payable on the bond
and ‘’ is the required rate of interest.
If a company offers to pay Rs. 70 as interest on a bond of Rs. 1000 per
value and the current yield is 8%, the value of the bond is 70/0.08 which is
equal to Rs. 875.
Solved Problem – 3
A bond whose face value is Rs. 100 has a coupon rate of 12% and a
maturity of 5 years. The required rate of interest is 10%. What is the
value of the bond?
Solution:
Interest payable = 100*12% = Rs. 12
Principal repayment is Rs. 100
Required rate of return is 10%.
V0=I*PVIFA(kd, n) + F*PVIF(kd, n)
Therefore,
Value of the bond
= 12*PVIFA (10%, 5yrs) + 100*PVIF (10%, 5yrs)
= 12*3.791 + 100*0.621
= 45.49 + 62.1
= Rs.107.59
Solved Problem – 4
Mr. Anant purchases a bond whose face value is Rs. 1000 and which has
a nominal interest rate of 8%. The maturity period is 5 years. The
required rate of return is 10%. What is the price he should be willing to
pay now to purchase the bond?
Solution:
Interest payable = 1000*8% = Rs. 80
Principal repayment is Rs. 1000
Required rate of return is 10%
V0=I*PVIFA(Kd, n) + F*PVIF(Kd, n)
Value of the bond
= 80*PVIFA (10%, 5y) + 1000*PVIF (10%, 5y)
= 80*3.791 + 1000*0.621
= 303.28 + 621
= Rs. 924.28
This implies that the company is offering the bond at Rs. 1000 but its worth
is Rs. 924.28 at the required rate of return of 10%. The investor should not
pay more than Rs. 924.28 for the bond today.
4.2.2.2 Bond values with semi-annual interest payments
In reality, it is quite common to pay interest on bonds semi-annually. With
the effect of compounding, the value of bonds with semi-annual interest is
much more than the ones with annual interest payments. Hence, the bond
valuation equation can be modified as:
V0 or P0=∑2nt=1 I/2/(I+Kd/2)n +F/(I+Kd/2)2n
Where V0 = Intrinsic value of the bond
P0 = Present value of the bond
I/2 = Semi-annual interest payable on the bond
F = Principal amount (par value) repayable at the maturity time
2n = Maturity period of the bond expressed in half-yearly periods
kd/2 = Required rate of return semi-annually.
Solved Problem – 5
A bond of Rs. 1000 value carries a coupon rate of 10%, maturity period
of 6 years. Interest is payable semi-annually. If the required rate of
return is 12%, calculate the value of the bond.
Solution:
V0 or P0 = ∑2nt=1 (I/2)/(I+kd/2)n +F/(I+kd/2)2n
= (100/2)/(1+0.12/2)6 + 1000/(1+0.12/2)6
= 50*PVIFA (6%, 12y) + 1000*PVIFA (6%, 12y)
= 50*8.384 + 1000*0.497
= 419.2 + 497
= Rs. 916.20
It is to be kept in mind that the required rate of return is halved (12%/2)
and the period doubled (6y*2) as the interest is paid semi-annually.
They are called deep discount bonds because these bonds are long-term
bonds whose maturity some time extends up to 25 to 30 years. Reading the
compound value (FVIF) table, horizontally along the 25-year line, we find ‘r’
equals 8%. Therefore, the bond gives an effective return of 8% per annum.
Solved Problems – 6
IDBI issued deep discount bonds in 1996 which have a face value of
Rs. 200000 and a maturity period of 25 years. The bond was issued at
Rs. 5300. What is the realised yield of this zero coupon bond?
Solution:
5300 = 200000
(1+r) 25
25
(1+r) = 37.7358
1+r = (37.7358)1/25 = 1.1563
r = 15.63%
Solved Problem – 7
If a zero coupon bond is issued with a maturity value of Rs. 100000 and
is issued for a price of Rs. 2500 maturing after 20 years, then realised
yield is
Coupon rate and current yield are two different measures. Coupon rate and
current yield will be equal if the bond’s market price equals its face value.
Solved Problem – 8
Continuing with the same problem, calculate the CY if the current market
price is Rs. 920
Solution:
CY=Coupon Interest/Current Market Price
= 80/920 = 8.7%
Present Values (PV) of all future cash flow to arrive at the price of the bond.
The ‘i' is substituted by the YTM while calculating the PV of bond’s future
cash flow.
YTM is an important factor in bond pricing. This is the rate applied to the
future cash flow (coupon payment) to arrive at its present value. If the YTM
increases, the present value of the cash flow will go down. This is obvious
as the YTM appears in the denominator of the formula, and we know as the
denominator increases, the value of the ratio goes down. So here as well,
as the YTM increases, the present value falls.
Solved Problem – 9
A bond has a face value of Rs. 1000 with a 5-year maturity period. Its
current market price is Rs. 883.40. It carries an interest rate of 6%. What
shall be the rate of return on this bond if it is held till its maturity?
Solution:
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
883.4 = 60*PVIFA(Kd, 5yrs) + 1000*PVIF(Kd, 5yrs)
By trial and error method let us take Kd = 10%
= 60*PVIFA(10%,5yrs) +1000* PVIF (10%,5yrs)
= 60*3.791 +1000*.621
= 227.46 + 621 = 848.46 (We need to equate this value with
the current market price of Rs.883.40 by reducing the Kd rate)
Let us try Kd = 9%
= 60*3.890 + 1000*.650
= 233.40 + 650 = 883.40 = current market price. Hence YTM is 9%
Solved Problem – 10
A bond has a face value of Rs. 1000 with a 9-year maturity period. Its
current market price is Rs. 850. It carries an interest rate of 8%. What
shall be the rate of return on this bond if it is held till its maturity?
Solution:
V0 or P0=∑nt=1 I/(I+kd)n +F/(I+kd)n
OR
V0 = I*PVIFA (kd, n) + F*PVIF (kd, n)
= 80*PVIFA (Kd%, 9) + 1000*PVIF (Kd%, 9)
= 850 (current market price)
To find out the value of Kd, trial and error method is to be followed. Let
us therefore start the value of Kd to be 12%.
The equation now looks like this:
80*PVIFA (12%, 9yrs) + 1000*PVIF(12%, 9yrs) = 850
Let us now see if LHS equals RHS at this rate of 12%. Looking at the
tables, we get LHS as:
80*5.328 + 1000*0.361 = Rs. 787.24
Since this value is less than the value required on the RHS, we take a
lesser discount rate of 10%.
At 10%, the equation is:
80*PVIFA (10%, 9yrs) + 1000*PVIF (10%, 9yrs) = 850
Let us now see if LHS equals RHS at this rate of 11%. Looking at the
tables, we get LHS as:
80*5.759 + 1000*0.424 = Rs. 884.72
We now understand that Kd clearly lies between 10% and 12%. We shall
interpolate to find out the true value of Kd.
10% + {(884.72-850)/(884.72-787.24)}*(12%-10%)
10% + (34.72/97.48)*2
10% + 0.71
Therefore Kd = 10.71%
Solved Problem – 11
A company issues a bond with a face value of Rs. 5000. It is currently
trading at Rs. 4500. The interest rate offered by the company is 12%,
and the bond has a maturity period of 8 years. What is the YTM?
Solution:
F P
I
YTM =
n
F P
2
= 600 + {(5000-4500)/8} / {(5000+4500)/2}
= {600 + 62.5} / 4750
= 13.94%
a. When the required rate of return is equal to the coupon rate, the
value of the bond is equal to its par value.
i.e., If Kd = Coupon rate; then Bond value = Par value
b. When the required rate of return (Kd) is greater than the coupon
rate, the value of the bond is less than its par value.
i.e., If Kd > Coupon rate; then, Bond value < Par Value
Solved Problem – 12
Sugam Industries wishes to issue bonds with Rs. 100 as par value,
coupon rate of 12%, and YTM of 5 years. What is the value of the bond if
the required rate of return of an investor is 12%, 14%, and 10%?
Solution:
When Kd is equal to the coupon rate, the intrinsic value of the bond is
equal to its face value.
If Kd is 12%,
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
= 12*PVIFA (12%, 5) + 100*PVIF (12%, 5)
= 12*3.605 + 100*0.567
= 43.3 + 56.7
= Rs. 100 (Intrinsic value = Face value)
When Kd is greater than the coupon rate, the intrinsic value of the bond is
less than its face value.
If Kd is 14%,
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
=12*PVIFA (14%, 5) + 100*PVIF (14%, 5)
=12*3.433 + 100*0.519
= 41.20 + 51.9
= Rs. 93.1 (Intrinsic value <Face value)
When Kd is lesser than the coupon rate, the intrinsic value of the bond is
greater than its face value.
If Kdis 10%,
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
=12*PVIFA (10%, 5) + 100*PVIF (10%, 5)
=12*3.791 + 100*0.621
= 45.49 + 62.1
= Rs. 107.59 (Intrinsic value > Face value)
Solved Problem – 13
To show the effect of the above, consider a case of a bond whose face
value is Rs. 100 with a coupon rate of 11% and a maturity of 7 years.
If Kd is 13%, then,
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
= 11*PVIFA (13%, 7) + 100*PVIF (13%, 7)
= 11*4.423 + 100*0.425
= 48.65 + 42.50
= Rs.91.15
After 1 year, the maturity period is 6 years, the value of the bond is
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
= 11*PVIFA (13%, 6) + 100*PVIF (13%, 6)
= 11* 3.998 + 100*0.480
= 43.98 + 48
= Rs. 91.98.
The value of the bond increases with the passage of time (one year
later) as “Kd” is higher than the coupon rate (13%>11%).
b. When Kd is less than the coupon rate, the premium on the bond
declines as the maturity approaches.
Solved Problem – 14
Consider a case of a bond whose face value is Rs. 100 with a coupon
rate of 11% and a maturity of 7 years. Let us see the effect on the
bond value if the required rate is 8%. (Kd = 8%)
Kd is less than coupon rate (8% < 11%)
Solution:
If Kd is 8%,
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
= 11*PVIFA (8%, 7) + 100*PVIF (8%, 7)
= 11*5.206 + 100*0.583
= 57.27 + 58.3
= Rs. 115.57
One year later, with Kd at 8%,
V0 = I*PVIFA (Kd, n) + F*PVIF (Kd, n)
= 11*PVIFA (8%, 6) + 100*PVIF (8%, 6)
= 11*4.623 + 100* 0.630
= 50.85 + 63
= Rs. 113.85
For a required rate of return of 8%, the bond value decreases with
passage of time and premium on bond declines as maturity
approaches.
C. Yield to Maturity
a. A bond’s price varies inversely with yield. This is because as the
required yield increases, the present value of the cash flow decrease
and hence the price decreases. [Refer Solved Problem No.12]
Price –Yield Relationship
b. For a given difference between YTM and coupon rate of the bonds,
the longer the term of maturity, the greater will be the change in price
with change in YTM. Thus, long-term bonds are more variable to
changes in interest rates than the short-term bonds.
c. Given the maturity, the change in price of the bond will be greater
with a decrease in the bond’s YTM than the change in price of bond
with an equal increase in the bond’s YTM.
d. For any given change in YTM, the percentage price change in case
of bonds of high coupon rate will be smaller than in the case of
bonds of low coupon rate, other things being constant.
e. A change in YTM affects the bonds with a higher YTM more than it
does to bonds with a lower YTM.
Activity 1
Investors prefer safe, stable, fixed return income. Debt plays a safer bet.
Discuss
Hint: The rate of interest on bonds is fixed, and they are redeemable
after a specific period.
Solved Problem – 15
XYZ India Ltd’s share is expected to touch Rs. 450 one year from now.
The company is expected to declare a dividend of Rs. 25 per share.
What is the price at which an investor would be willing to buy if his or her
required rate of return is 15%?
Solution:
P0 = D1/(1+Ke) + P1/(1+Ke)
= {25/(1+0.15)} + {450/(1+0.15)}
= 21.74 + 391.30
= Rs. 413.04
An investor would be willing to buy the share at Rs. 413.04
Solved Problem – 16
Sagar Automobiles Ltd’s share is traded at Rs. 180. The company is
expected to grow at 8% per annum and the dividend expected to be
paid off is Rs. 8. If the rate of return is expected to be 12%, what is the
price of the share one would be expected to pay today?
Solution:
Po = D1 / (Ke – g)
= 8/0.12-0.08
= Rs. 200
The price of one share today would be Rs. 200.
Solved Problem – 17
Monica Labs are expected to pay Rs. 4 as dividend per share next year.
The dividends are expected to grow perpetually at 8%. Calculate the
share price today if the market capitalisation is 12%.
Solution:
Po = D1 / (Ke – g)
P0 = 4/(0.12-0.08)
= Rs. 100
The share price today would be Rs. 100.
2. Value of the share at the end of the initial growth period is calculated
as:
a. Pn=(Dn+1)/ (Ke-gn ) (constant growth model)
b. This is discounted to the present value and we get:
c. [(Dn+1)/ (Ke- gn)] * [1 / (1+Ke)n ]
3. Add both the present value composites to find the value P0 of the
share, that is,
P0=∑nt=1 Dn/(1+Ke)n + (Dn+1)/(Ke-gn)* [1/(1+Ke)n]
Where,
P0 = Price of equity share
Dn = D1(1+ge)n-1
D1 = expected dividend a year hence
ga = super normal growth rate of dividends
gn = normal growth rate of dividends
Solved Problem – 18
Souparnika Pharma’s current dividend is Rs. 5. It expects to have a
supernormal growth period running to 5 years during which the growth
rate would be 25%. The company expects normal growth rate of 8% after
the period of supernormal growth period. The investor’s required rate of
return is 15%. Calculate what the value of one share of this company is
worth.
Solution:
D0 = 5, n = 5y, ga (supernormal growth) = 25%, gn (normal growth) = 8%,
Ke = 14%
Step I:
P0 = ∑nt=1 Dn/(1+Ke)n
D1 = 5 (1.25)1
D2 = 5 (1.25)2
D3 = 5 (1.25)3
D4 = 5 (1.25)4
D5 = 5 (1.25)5
Solved Problem – 19
One Ltd. has total assets worth Rs. 500 crore, liabilities worth Rs. 300
crore, and preference shares worth Rs. 50 crore, and equity shares
numbering 10 lakh. Calculate BVPS.
Solution:
The BVPS is Rs. 150 crore/10 lakh = Rs. 150.
BVPS does not give a true investment picture. This relies on historical
book values than the company’s earning potential.
Liquidation value
The liquidation value per share is calculated as:
{(Value realised by liquidating all assets) – (Amount to be paid to all the
credit and preference shares)} divided by number of outstanding shares.
In the above example, if the assets can be liquidated at Rs. 450 crore., the
liquidation value per share is (450 crore-350 crore)/10 lakh shares which is
equal to Rs. 1000 per share.
4.3.3 Price earnings ratio
The price earnings ratio reflects the amount investors are willing to pay for
each rupee of earnings.
Expected earnings per share = (Expected PAT) – (Preference
dividend)/Number of outstanding shares.
Expected PAT is dependent on a number of factors like sales, gross profit
margin, depreciation, and interest and tax rate. The price earnings ratio has
to consider factors like growth rate, stability of earnings, company size,
company management team, and dividend payout ratio.
4.4 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Valuation is the process which links the risk and return to establish the
asset worth. The value of a bond or a share is the discounted value of all
their future cash inflows (interest/dividend) over a period of time. The
discount rate is the rate of return which the investors expect from the
securities.
In case of bonds, the stream of cash flows consists of annual interest
payment and repayment of principal (which may take place at par, at a
premium, or at a discount). The cash flows which occur in each year are
a fixed amount. Cash flows for preference share are also a fixed
amount, and these shares may be redeemed at par, at a premium, or at
a discount.
The equity shareholders do not have a fixed rate of return. Their
dividend fluctuates with profits. Therefore, the risk of holding an equity
share is higher than holding a preference share or a bond. Equity share
valuation is usually done using the dividend capitalisation method. The
valuation is based on the flow of dividends.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 116
Financial Management Unit 4
4.5 Glossary
Book value per share (BVPS): The net worth of the company divided by
the number of outstanding equity shares.
Net worth: Total sum of paid up equity shares, reserves, and surplus.
Yield to maturity: The rate of return earned by an investor who purchases
a bond and holds it till its maturity.
Solved Problem – 21
A bond with a face value of Rs. 100 provides an annual return of 8%
and pays Rs. 125 at the time of maturity, which is 10 years from now. If
the investor’s required rate of return is 12%, what should be the price of
the bond?
Solution:
P = Int*PVIFA (12%, 10y) + Redemption value*PVIF (12%, 10y)
= 8*PVIFA (12%, 10y) + 125*PVIF (12%, 10y)
= 8*5.65 + 125*0.322
= 45.2 + 40.25 = Rs. 85.45
The price of the bond should be Rs. 85.45.
Solved Problem – 22
The bond of Silicon Enterprises with a par value of Rs. 500 is currently
trading at Rs. 435. The coupon rate is 12% with a maturity period of 7
years. What will be the yield to maturity?
Solution:
r = I + {(F-P)/n} / (F+P)/2
= 60 + {(500-435)/7} / (500+435)/2
= 15.03%
The yield to maturity will be 15.03%
Solved Problem – 23
The share of Megha Ltd. is sold at Rs. 500 a share. The dividend likely
to be declared by the company after one year is Rs. 25 per share.
Hence, the price after one year is expected to be Rs. 550. What is the
return at the end of the year on the basis of likely dividend and price per
share?
Solution:
Holding period return = (D1 + Price gain/loss) / purchase price
= (25 + 50) / 500 = 15%
The return at the end of the year will be 15%.
Solved Problem – 24
A bond of face value of Rs. 1000 and a maturity of 3 years pays 15%
interest annually. What is the market price of the bond if YTM is also
15%?
Solution:
P = Int*PVIFA (15%, 3y) + Redemption value*PVIF (15%, 3y)
P = 150*2.283 + 1000*0.658
P = 342.45 + 658 = Rs. 1000.45
The market price of the bond is Rs. 1000.45.
4.8 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. P = Int*PVIFA (12%, 9y) + Redemption Price*PVIF (12%, 10y)
= 80*PVIFA (12%, 9) + 1000*PVIF (12%, 9y)
= 80*5.328 + 1000*0.361
= 426.24 + 361 = Rs. 787.24
Sources of Funds
Application of Funds
Discussion Questions:
1. The dividend per share paid by the company is expected to grow at a
rate of 25% for the next three years. After that, the growth rate is
expected to drop to a stable level, which will continue forever.
(Hint: Refer to valuation of shares)
2. If the required rate of return on this company’s stock is 20%,
determine the expected growth rate of the dividends after three
years.
(Hint: Refer to valuation of shares)
3. Suppose, the dividend history of the company is as follows:
Year 1 2 3
Dividend per share (Rs.) 1.00 1.50 1.80
Dividend yield (%) 2.3 6.0 8.2
If the dividends are expected to grow at the same rate as during the
period given above, compute the price at the end of year 3 as well as
the required rate of return of the equity investors of the company.
State the variations in market price between years 1 and 3.
Source: www.moneycontrol.com
References:
Keown, Arthur J. (2005). Financial Management. Principles and
Applications, 10th Edition.
"Time Value of Money", (2008) Finance for Engineers,
E-References:
www.ideaindia.org retrieved on 11-12-2011
www.finmin.nic.in retrieved on 11-12-2011
www.moneycontrol.com 11-12-2011
5.1 Introduction
In the last unit, we discussed about the valuation of bonds and shares. In
this unit, we will learn about the meaning of cost of capital, cost of different
sources of finance, and weighted average cost of capital. Capital structure
is the mix of long-term sources of funds like debentures, loans, preference
shares, equity shares, and retained earnings in different ratios.
It is always advisable for companies to plan their capital structure. We have
discussed in the previous units that all the financial decisions taken by not
assessing things in a correct manner may jeopardise the very existence of
the company. Firms may prosper in the short run by not indulging in proper
planning but ultimately may face problems in the future. With unplanned
capital structure, they may also fail to economise the use of their funds and
adapt to the changing conditions.
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
define cost of capital
explain how cost of different source of finance is determined
compute weighted average cost of capital
Equity
share
Required rate of return
Preference
share
Debt
Govt bonds
Risk free
security
Solved Problem – 1
Lakshmi Enterprise wants to have an issue of non-convertible
debentures (NCD) for Rs. 10 crore. Each debenture is of a par value of
Rs. 100 having an interest rate of 15%. Interest is payable annually and
they are redeemable after 8 years at a premium of 5%. The company is
planning to issue the NCD at a discount of 3% to help in quick
subscription. If the corporate tax rate is 50%, what is the cost of
debenture to the company?
Solution:
I(1 T ) ( F P ) / n
Kd
(F P ) / 2
15 (1 0.5 ) (105 97 ) / 8
(105 97 ) / 2
7 .5 1
101
0.084 0 r 8.4%
Solved Problem – 2
Yes Ltd. has taken a loan of Rs. 5000000 from Canara Bank at 9%
interest. What is the cost of term loan if the tax rate is 40%?
Solution:
Kt = I (1—T) = 9(1—0.4) = 5.4%
The cost of term loan is 5.4%
Solved Problem – 3
C2C Ltd. has recently come out with a preference share issue to the tune
of Rs. 100 lakh. Each preference share has a face value of 100 and a
dividend of 12% payable. The shares are redeemable after 10 years at a
premium of Rs. 4 per share. The company hopes to realise Rs. 98 per
share now. Calculate the cost of preference capital.
Solution:
D ( F P ) / n
Kp
(F P ) / 2
12 (104 98 ) / 10 12.6
(104 98 ) / 2 101
Kp = 0.1247 or 12.47%
The cost of preference capital now will be 12.47%
Solved Problem – 4
What is the rate of return for a company if its β is 1.5, risk free rate of
return is 8%, and the market rate or return is 20%?
Solution:
Ke = Rf + β (Rm — Rf)
= 0.08 + 1.5(0.2-0.08)
= 0.08 + 0.18
= 0.26 or 26%
The rate of return is 26%
Solved Problem – 5
Suraj Metals are expected to declare a dividend of Rs. 5 per share and the
growth rate in dividends is expected to grow @ 10% p.a. The price of one
share is currently at Rs. 110 in the market. What is the cost of equity
capital to the company?
Solution:
Ke = (D1/Pe) + g
= (5/110) + 0.10
= 0.1454 or 14.54%
If the entire earning is not distributed and the firm retains a part, then these
retained earnings are available within the firm. Companies are not required
to pay any dividend on retained earnings. It is generally observed that this
source of finance is cost free, but it is not true. If earnings were not retained,
they would have been paid out to the ordinary shareholders as dividend.
This dividend forgone by the equity shareholders is opportunity cost. The
firm is required to earn on retained earnings, at least equal to the rate that
would have been earned by the shareholders, if they were distributed to
them. So the cost of retained earnings may be defined as opportunity cost in
terms of dividends forgone by withholding from the equity shareholders.
This can be expressed as:
From the dividend capitalisation model, the following model can be used for
calculating cost of external equity.
Ke = {D1/P0(1—f)} + g
Where, Ke is the cost of external equity
D1 is the dividend expected at the end of year 1
P0 is the current market price per share
g is the constant growth rate of dividends
f is the floatation costs as a percentage of current market price
The following formula can be used as an approximation:
Ke = Ke/(1—f)
Where Ke is the cost of external equity
Ke is the rate of return required by equity holders
f is the floatation cost
This formula can be used for all other approaches for which there is no
particular method for accounting for the floatation costs.
Solved Problem – 6
Alpha Ltd. requires Rs. 400 crore to expand its activities in the southern
zone of India. The company’s CFO is planning to get Rs. 250 crore
through a fresh issue of equity shares to the general public and for the
balance amount; he proposes to use ½ of the reserves which are
currently to the tune of Rs. 300 crore. The equity investor’s expectations
of returns are 16%. The cost of procuring external equity is 4%. What is
the cost of external equity?
Solution:
We know that Ke= Kr, that is Kr is 16%
Cost of external equity is
Ke = Ke/(1—f)
0.16/(1– 0.04) = 0.1667 or 16.67%
Hence, cost of external equity is 16.67%
Key Point
Dividends cannot be accurately forecasted as they might sometimes
become nil or have a constant growth or sometimes have supernormal
growth periods.
Activity 1:
Make a list of companies which have declared dividends and/or bonus
shares in the last 3 years.
Refer: websites
As per the book value approach, weights assigned would be equal to each
source’s proportion in the overall funds. The book value method is
preferable. The market value approach uses the market values of each
source, and the disadvantage in this method is that these values change
very frequently.
Solved Problem – 7
Table 5.1 depicts the capital structure of Prakash Packers Ltd.
Table 5.1: Capital Structure in Lakhs
The market price per equity share is Rs. 32. The company is expected to
declare a dividend per share of Rs. 2 per share, and there will be a
growth of 10% in the dividends for the next 5 years. The preference
shares are redeemable at a premium of Rs. 5 per share after 8 years and
are currently traded at Rs. 84 in the market. Debenture redemption will
take place after 7 years at a premium of Rs. 5 per debenture and their
current market price Rs. 90 per unit. The corporate tax rate is 40%.
Calculate the WACC.
Solution:
Step I: Determine the cost of each component.
Ke = ( D1/P0) + g
= (2/32) + 0.1
= 0.1625 or 16.25%
Kp = [D + {(F—P)/n}] / {F+P)/2}
= [14 + (105—84)/8] / (105+84)/2
=16.625/94.5
= 0.1759 or 17.59%
Kr = Ke which is 16.25%
Kd = [I(1—T) + {(F–P)/n}] / {F+P)/2}
= [12(1—0.4) + (105—90)/7] / (105+90)/2
= [7.2 + 2.14] / 97.5
= 0.096 or 9.6%
Kt = I(1–T)
= 0.11(1–0.4)
= 0.066 or 6.6%
Step II: Calculate the weights of each source.
We= 200/750 = 0.267
Wp = 100/750 = 0.133
Wr= 100/750 = 0.133
Wd = 300/750 = 0.4
Wt= 50/750 = 0.06
Step III: Multiply the costs of various sources of finance with
corresponding weights, and WACC is calculated by adding all these
components
WACC = We Ke + Wp Kp +Wr Kr + Wd Kd + Wt Kt
= (0.267*0.1625) + (0.133*0.1759) + (0.133*0.1625) + (0.4*0.092) +
(0.06*0.066)
= 0.043 + 0.023 + 0.022 + 0.0384 + 0.004
= 0.1304 or 13.04%
The value of WACC is 13.04%
Solved Problem – 8
Johnson Cool Air Ltd. would like to know the WACC. The following
information is made available to you in this regard.
The after tax cost of capital are:
Cost of debt 9%
Cost of preference shares 15%
Cost of equity funds 18%
The capital structure is as follows:
Debt Rs. 6,00,000
Preference capital Rs. 4,00,000
Equity capital Rs. 10,00,000
Solution:
Table 5.2 depicts the calculated WACC.
Table 5.2: WACC
Fund source Amount Ratio Cost Weighted cost
Debt Rs. 600000 0.3 0.09 0.027
Preference capital Rs. 400000 0.2 0.15 0.030
Equity capital Rs. 1000000 0.5 0.18 0.090
Total Rs. 2000000 1.0 0.147
WACC is 14.7%.
Solved Problem – 9
Manikyam Plastics Ltd. wants to enter into the arena of plastic moulds
next year for which it requires Rs. 20 crore to purchase new equipment.
The CFO has made available the following details based on which you are
required to compute the weighted marginal cost of capital.
The amount required will be raised in equal proportions by way of debt
and equity (new issue and retained earnings put together account for
50%)
The company expects to earn Rs. 4 crore as profits by the end of the
year after which it will retain 50% and payoff rest to the shareholders.
The debt will be raised equally from two sources - loans from IOB
costing 14% and from the IDBI costing 15%.
The current market price per equity share is Rs. 24 and hence the
dividend payout one year will be Rs. 2.40. Tax rate is 50%
Solution:
Ke = (D1/P0)
= (2.40 / 24) = 0.1 or 10%
Cost of equity Ke = cost of retained earnings
Kt = I(1 – T) [14% loan from IOB]
= 0.14(1 – 0.5) = 0.07 or 7%
Kt = I(1 – T) [15% IDBI loan]
= 0.15(1 – 0.5) = 0.075 or 7.5%
Solved Problem – 10
Canara Paints has paid a dividend of 40% on its share of Rs. 10 in the
current year. The dividends are growing at 6% p.a. The cost of equity
capital is 16%. The company’s top Finance Managers of various zones
recently met to take stock of the competitor’s growth and dividend policies
and came out with the following suggestions to maximise the wealth of the
shareholders. As the CFO of the company, you are required to analyse
each suggestion and take a suitable course keeping the shareholder’s
interests in mind.
Alternative 1: Increase the dividend growth rate to 7% and lower
Ke to 15%
5.5 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Any organisation requires funds to run its business. These funds may be
acquired from short-term or long-term sources. Long-term funds are
raised from two important sources – capital (owner’s funds) and debt.
Each of these two has a cost factor, merits, and demerits.
Having excess debt is not desirable as debt holders attach many
conditions which may not be possible for the companies to adhere to. It
is therefore desirable to have a combination of both debt and equity
which is called the ‘optimum capital structure’. Optimum capital structure
refers to the mix of different sources of long-term funds in the total
capital of the company.
Cost of capital is the minimum required rate of return needed to justify
the use of capital. A company obtains resources from various sources –
issue of debentures, availing term loans from banks and financial
institutions, issue of preference and equity shares, or it may even
withhold a portion or complete profits earned to be utilised for further
activities.
Retained earnings are the only internal source to fund the company’s
future plans. Weighted average cost of capital is the overall cost of all
sources of finance. The debentures carry a fixed rate of interest. Interest
qualifies for tax deduction in determining tax liability. Therefore, the
effective cost of debt is less than the actual interest payment made by
the firm.
The cost of term loan is computed keeping in mind the tax liability. The
cost of preference share is similar to debenture interest. Unlike
debenture interest, dividends do not qualify for tax deductions.
The calculation of cost of equity is slightly different as the returns to
equity are not constant. The cost of retained earnings is the same as the
cost of equity funds.
5.6 Glossary
Cost of debenture: The discount rate which equates the net proceeds from
issue of debentures to the expected cash outflows.
Term loans: Loans taken from banks or financial institutions for a specified
number of years at a predetermined interest rate.
11. Deepak Steel has issued non-convertible debentures for Rs. 5 crore.
Each debenture is of a par value of Rs. 100 carrying a coupon rate of
14%. Interest is payable annually and they are redeemable after
7 years at a premium of 5%. The company issued the NCD at a
discount of 3%. What is the cost of debenture to the company? Tax
rate is 40%.
Solution:
I(1 T ) ( F P ) / n
Kd
(F P ) / 2
14 (1 0.4 ) (105 97 ) / 7 8.4 1.14
= 0.094 or 9.4%
(105 97 ) / 2 101
12. Supersonic industries Ltd. has entered into an agreement with Indian
Overseas Bank for a loan of Rs. 10 crore with an interest rate of 10%.
What is the cost of the loan if the tax rate is 45%?
Solution:
Kt=I(1 – T) = 10(1 – 0.45) = 5.5%
13. Prime group issued preference shares with a maturity premium of 10%
and a coupon rate of 9%. The shares have a face value of
Rs. 100 and are redeemable after 8 years. The company is planning to
issue these shares at a discount of 3% now. Calculate the cost of
preference capital.
Solution:
D ( F P ) / n
Kp
(F P ) / 2
(110 97 ) / 8 9 .1.625
9 10.27%
(110 97 ) / 2 103.5
5.9 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Hint: Use the equation
WACC = W e Ke + W p Kp +W r Kr + W d Kd + W t Kt
Ans. = 14.57%
2. Hint: Use the equation
WACC = W e Ke + W p Kp +W r Kr + W d Kd + W t Kt
3. Hint: Use the equation
WACC = W e Ke + W p Kp +W r Kr + W d Kd + W t Kt
Ans. = 8.97%
I (1 T ) ( F P) / n
5. Hint: Apply the formula Kd
( F P) / 2
Ans. = 8.09%
The company has recently set up KARE Park in Special Economic Zone
(SEZ). The Park is adjoining the company’s existing manufacturing unit and
is a sector-specific SEZ meant for biotechnology and pharmaceutical
products. The SEZ will allow the company to avail various tax benefits such
as income tax, import duty on capital goods, etc. This has encouraged a lot
of foreign companies to partner with KARE to avail and share these
benefits.
dividend per share expected a year is Rs. 1.50 per share. The dividends
are expected to grow at a rate of 5% per annum.
2. 12% non-convertible debentures consist of 4 lakh debentures which
were issued at par (Rs.100). The issue cost was Rs.28 lakh. The
difference between the redemption price and the net amount realised
after issue will be written off evenly over the life of the debentures; it is
assumed that the amount so written off will be a tax-deductible expense.
The debentures will be redeemed after 10 years at a premium of 3%.
The market value of the debenture capital is Rs. 384 lakh.
3. The market value of the term loan can be considered equal to its book
value.
4. The tax rate of the company is 35%.
Discussion Questions:
1. Is equity capital free of cost? What is your view on that? Draw references
from the above example.
(Hint: Refer to cost of capital)
2 Calculate the cost of different long-term sources of finance employed by
KARE Ltd.
(Hint: Refer to cost of sources of finance)
3. Calculate the WACC using the market values of the long-term sources of
finance as weights.
(Hint: Refer to WACC)
4. Which factors, according to you, affect the WACC?
(Hint: Refer to WACC)
5. What is the use of calculating WACC? Explain and justify your answer.
You may draw inference from the example case above.
(Hint: Refer to WACC)
Source: www.moneycontrol.com
Reference:
Pandey I. M., (2005), Financial Management, Vikas Publishing House
2005, 9th edition
E-Reference:
www.moneycontrol.com retrieved on 12/12/2011
Unit 6 Leverage
Structure:
6.1 Introduction
Objectives
6.2 Operating Leverage
Application of operating leverage
6.3 Financial Leverage
Use of financial leverage
6.4 Total or Combined Leverage
Uses of Degree of Total Leverage (DTL)
6.5 Summary
6.6 Glossary
6.7 Solved Problems
6.8 Terminal Questions
6.9 Answers
6.10 Case Study
6.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, you have learnt about the meaning of cost of capital,
cost of different sources of finance, and Weighted Average Cost of Capital
(WACC). In this unit, we will discuss the concepts of operating leverage,
financial leverage, and total or combined leverage.
A company uses different sources of financing to fund its activities. These
sources can be classified as those which carry a fixed rate of return and
those whose returns vary. These were discussed in the earlier units. The
fixed sources of finance have a bearing on the return on shareholders.
Borrowing funds as loans have an impact on the return on shareholders,
and this is greatly affected by the magnitude of borrowing in the capital
structure of a firm.
‘Leverage’ means ‘effectiveness’ or ‘power’. The use of an asset or source
of funds for which the company has to pay a fixed cost or fixed return is
termed as leverage. Leverage studies how the dependent variable responds
to a particular change in the independent variable.
Figure 6.1 depicts the three types of leverages – operating, financial, and
combined.
nature up to a certain level beyond which they vary with the firm’s
activities.
For example, after considering both the fixed costs and the variable
costs, the firm should concentrate on some other features like production
cost and the wages paid to the workers. At some point in time, these will
act as fixed costs and can also shift to variable costs. These features
relate to or are referred to as “Semi-variable costs”.
The operating leverage refers to the degree to which a firm has built-in
fixed costs due to its particular or unique production process.
The extent of the operating leverage at any single sales volume is
calculated as follows:
Marginal contribution/EBIT)
(Revenue – Variable costs)/(Revenue – Variable costs – Fixed costs)
In most cases, a firm would be in a position to exercise a degree of control
on the choice of its technology and the related production processes. The
production processes which are accompanied by high fixed costs but low
variable costs are generally the highly mechanised and automated
processes. With such processes, the degree of operating leverage is
generally high, the break-even point is relatively higher, and thus changes in
the sales level have a magnified (or “leveraged” ) effect on profits. Break-
even sales volume goes up with operating leverage (i.e., fixed costs), thus,
greater the impact on profits for a given change in sales volume.
Thus, the operating leverage is the firm’s ability to use fixed operating costs
to increase the effects of changes in sales on its EBIT. Operating leverage
occurs any time if a firm has fixed costs. The percentage of change in profits
with a change in volume of sales is more than the percentage of change in
volume. The higher the fixed costs, the greater the leverage and the more
frequent the changes in the rate of profit (or loss) with alternations in the
volume of activity.
Solved Problem – 1
A firm sells a product for Rs. 10 per unit. Its variable costs are Rs. 5 per
unit and fixed expenses amount to Rs. 5000 p.a. Show the various levels
of EBIT that result from sale of 1000 units, 2000 units, and 3000 units.
Solution:
Table 6.1 depicts the various levels of EBIT that result from the sale of
1000 units, 2000 units, and 3000 units.
Table 6.1: Various Levels of EBIT
Sales in units 1000 2000 3000
Sales revenue Rs. 10000 20000 30000
Variable cost 5000 10000 15000
Contribution 5000 10000 15000
Fixed cost 5000 5000 5000
EBIT 000 5000 10000
If we take 2000 units as the normal course of sales, the results can be
summed as:
A 50% increase in sales from 2000 units to 3000 units results in a
100% increase in EBIT.
A 50% decrease in sales from 2000 units to 1000 units results in a
100% decrease in EBIT.
The illustration clearly tells us that when a firm has fixed operating
expenses, an increase in sales results in a more proportionate increase in
EBIT and vice versa. The former is a favourable operating leverage and the
latter is unfavourable.
Another way of explaining this phenomenon is examining the effect of the
Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL). The DOL is a more precise
measurement.
DOL measures the effect of change in volume on net operating income or
earnings before interest and taxes. It examines the effect of the change in
the quantity produced on EBIT.
Solved Problem – 2
Calculate the DOL of Guptha Enterprises. Table 6.2 depicts the
information of Guptha Enterprises.
Table 6.2: Information of Guptha Enterprises
Solved Problem – 3
Calculate the DOL of Utopia Enterprises. Table 6.3 depicts the
information of Utopia Enterprises.
Table 6.3: Information of Utopia Enterprises
Solved Problem – 4
Table 6.4 depicts the statistics of a firm and its sales requirements.
Compute the DOL according to the values given in the table.
Table 6.4: Statistics of a Firm
Contribution 5000
Fixed cost 0
EBIT 5000
Solution:
DOL= {Q(S—V)} / {Q(S—V)—F}
{1000(5000)} / {1000(5000) – 0}
= 5000000/5000000
= DOL=1
The DOL according to the values given in the table is 1.
Solved Problem – 5
Table 6.5 depicts the statistics of a firm and its sales requirements.
Compute the DOL according to the values given in the table.
Table 6.5: Statistics of a Firm
Sales in units 2000
Sales revenue Rs. 20000
Variable cost 10000
Contribution 6000
Fixed cost 0
EBIT 6000
Solution:
DOL= {Q(S—V)} / {Q(S—V)—F}
{2000(10000)} / {2000(10000) – 0}
= 2000000/2000000
= DOL=1
The DOL according to the values given in the table is 1.
As operating leverage can be favourable or unfavourable, high risks are
attached to higher degrees of leverage. As DOL considers fixed expenses, a
larger amount of these expenses increases the operating risks of the
company and hence, a higher DOL. Higher operating risks can be taken
when income levels of companies are rising and should not be ventured into
when revenues move southwards.
Thus, the higher the DOL, the greater will be the fluctuations in profits in
response to changes in volume. And this relationship works both ways, i.e.,
when volume increases as well as when it declines.
6.2.1 Application of operating leverage
The applications of operating leverage are as follows:
Business risk measurement
Production planning
Measurement of business risk
Risk refers to the uncertain conditions in which a company performs. A
business risk is measured using the DOL and the formula of DOL is:
DOL = {Q(S–V)} / {Q(S–V)–F}
The greater the DOL, the more sensitive will be the EBIT to a given change
in unit sales. A high DOL is a measure of high business risk and vice versa.
Production planning
A change in production method increases or decreases DOL. A firm can
change its cost structure by mechanising its operations, thereby, reducing
its variable costs and increasing its fixed costs. This will have a positive
impact on DOL. This situation can be justified only if the company is
confident of achieving a higher amount of sales thereby increasing its
earnings.
Solved Problem – 6
The EBIT of a firm is expected to be Rs. 10000. The firm has to pay
interest at a rate of 5% on debentures of worth Rs. 25000. It also has
preference shares worth Rs. 15000 carrying a dividend of 8%. How does
EPS change if EBIT is Rs. 5000 and Rs. 15000? Tax rate may be taken
as 40% and number of outstanding shares as 1000.
Solution:
Table 6.6 depicts the various changes of EPS if EBIT is Rs. 15,000,
Rs. 10,000, and Rs. 5,000.
Table 6.6: Various Changes of EPS
Interpretation
A 50% increase in EBIT from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 15,000 results in 74%
increase in EPS
A 50% decrease in EBIT from Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 5,000 results in 74%
decrease in EPS
This example shows that the presence of fixed interest source funds leads
to a value more than that occurs due to proportional change in EPS. The
presence of such fixed sources implies the presence of financial leverage.
This can be expressed in a different way. The Degree of Financial Leverage
(DFL) is a more precise measurement. It examines the effect of the fixed
sources of funds on EPS.
DFL={ΔEPS/EPS} ÷ {ΔEBIT/EBIT}
Or DFL = EBIT ÷ {EBIT—I—{Dp/(1-T)}}
I is Interest, Dp is dividend on preference shares, T is tax rate.
Solved Problem – 7
Kusuma Cements Ltd. has an EBIT of Rs. 5,00,000 at 5000 units of
production and sales. Table 6.7 briefly depicts the capital structure of the
company.
Table 6.7: Capital Structure of the Company
Capital structure Amount
Rs.
Paid up capital 500000 equity shares of 5000000
Rs. 10 each
12% Debentures 400000
10% Preference shares of Rs. 100 each 400000
Total 5800000
Corporate tax rate may be taken at 40%
Solution:
EBIT 500000
Less Interest on debentures 48000
EBIT 452000
DFL= EBIT ÷ {EBIT—I—{Dp/(1-T)}}
500000/(500000—48000—{40000/(1—0.40)}
DFL=1.30
The degree of financial leverage of Kusuma Cements Ltd. is found to be
1.30.
Solved Problem – 8
XYZ Enterprises Ltd. has an EBIT of Rs. 2,00,000 at 4000 units of
production and sales. Table 6.8 briefly depicts the capital structure of the
company.
Table 6.8: Capital Structure
Activity:
Coverage R Ltd V Ltd
DOL 2.1 1.5
DFL 1.0 2.2
Comment or leverage of the firms
Hint: R Ltd has more fixed operating costs than V ltd, so its DOL is more.
V Ltd has more fixed financial costs than R ltd, so its DFL is more.
Solved Problem – 9
Table 6.9 depicts the balance sheets of two firms – firm A and firm B.
Table 6.9: Balance Sheets of Firms A and B
Balance sheet of A Balance sheet of B
Equity 100000 Assets 100000 Equity 40000 Assets 100000
capital capital
Debt @ 60000
15%
Total 100000 Total 100000 Total 100000 Total 100000
40000
Company A = 1
40000 0 0
40000
Company B = 1.29
40000 9000 0
The degree of financial leverage of the companies A and B are 1 and
1.29 respectively.
The company, not using debt to finance its assets, has a higher DFL
compared to that of a company using it. Financial leverage does not exist
when there is no fixed charge financing.
The combined effect is quite significant for the earnings available to ordinary
shareholders. Combined leverage is the product of DOL and DFL.
Q(S V )
DTL = Q(S V ) F I {Dp /(1 T )}
Solved Problem – 10
Calculate the DTL of Pooja Enterprises Ltd. Table 6.10 depicts the
information regarding the expenses, shares, and sales of the company.
Table 6.10: Details of Pooja Enterprises Ltd.
Quantity sold 10,000 units
Variable cost per unit Rs. 100 per unit
Selling price per unit Rs. 500 per unit
Fixed expenses Rs. 10,00,000
Number of equity shares 1,00,000
Debt Rs. 10,00,000 @ 20% interest
Preference shares dividend 10,000 shares of Rs.100 each @ 10%
Tax rate 50%
Solution:
Q(S V )
DTL = Q(S V ) F I {Dp /(1 T )}
DTL=1.53
Cross verification:
{Q(S V )}
DOL = {Q(S V ) F}
10000(500 100 )
10000(500 100 ) 1000000
DOL=1.33
EBIT = [Q(S-V)-F}
EBIT
DFL= EBIT I {Dp /(1 T )}}
3000000
3000000 200000 {100000 / 0.5}
DFL=1.15
DTL=DOL*DFL
1.53 =1.33*1.15
Hence the DTL of Pooja Enterprises Ltd. is 1.54.
Solved Problem – 11
Calculate the DTL of Utopia Enterprises Ltd. Table 6.11 depicts
information regarding the expenses, shares, and sales of the company.
Table 6.11: Details of Utopia Enterprises Ltd.
Solution:
Q(S V )
DTL = Q(S V ) F I {Dp /(1 T )}
DOL = 1.33
EBIT
DFL = EBIT I {Dp /(1 T )}}
6000000
6000000 400000 {400000 / 0.6}
DFL=1.22
DTL=DOL*DFL
1.62 = 1.33*1.22
Hence the DTL of Utopia enterprises Ltd. is 1.60
Solved Problem – 12
Calculate the DTL of CMA Enterprises Ltd. Table 6.12 depicts
information regarding the expenses, shares, and sales of the company.
Table 6.12: Details of CMA Enterprises Ltd.
Solution:
Q(S V )
DTL = Q(S V ) F I {Dp /(1 T )}
DTL=1.88
Cross verification:
{Q(S V )}
DOL = {Q(S V ) F}
30000(700 300)
30000(700 300) 3000000
DOL=1.33
EBIT
DFL = EBIT I {Dp /(1 T )}}
6000000
6000000 900000 {1200000 / 0.7}
DFL=1.77
DTL=DOL*DFL
1.33*1.77=2.35
Hence the DTL of CMA enterprises Ltd. is 2.35
6.5 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Leverage is the use of influence to attain something else. The advantage
a company has with the current status of the leverage can be used to
gain other benefits.
6.6 Glossary
Capital structure: The permanent, long-term financing of a company
represented by a mix of long-term debt, preference shares, and net-worth.
Combined leverage: The combination of operating and financial leverage.
Financial leverage: A firm's use of fixed-charge securities like debentures
and preference shares in its plan of financing the assets.
Fixed costs: The costs which do not vary with an increase in production or
sales activities for a particular period of time.
Leverage: The use of an asset or source of funds for which the company
has to pay a fixed cost or fixed return.
Operating leverage: The degree to which a firm has built-in fixed costs
due to its particular or unique production process.
Semi-variable costs: Costs which are partly fixed and partly variable in
nature.
Variable costs: Costs which vary in direct proportion to output and sales.
13. Table 6.13 depicts the information which has been collected from
the annual report of Garden Silks. What is the degree of financial
leverage?
Table 6.13: Annual Report of Garden Silks
Solution:
DFL = EBIT / (EBIT-I) = 200000/200000-50000 = 1.33
EBIT = Sales*25% less fixed expenses
1400000*25% = 350000-150000 = 200000
14. Suppose X and Y have provided the information regarding the sales
and the cost of their expense. Table 6.14 depicts the information.
Which firm do you consider to be risky?
Table 6.14: Information of X and Y
X Ltd. Y Ltd.
Sales in units 40000 40000
Price per unit 60 60
Variable cost p.a. 20 25
Fixed financing cost Rs. 100000 Rs. 50000
Fixed financing cost Rs. 300000 Rs. 200000
Solution:
DOL = Q(S-V) / Q(S-V)-F
Company X: 40000(60-20) / 40000(60-20)-400000
1600000/1200000 = 1.33
Company Y: 40000(60-25) / 40000(60-25)-250000
1400000/1150000= 1.22
Solution:
Table 6.16 depicts the calculated earnings per share.
Table 6.16 Earnings Per Share
EBIT Rs. 11,80,000
Less interest Rs. 2,20,000
EBT 9.60,000
Tax @ 40% Rs. 3,84,000
EAT Rs. 5,76,000
A B C
Operating leverage 1.14 1.23 1.33
Financial leverage 1.27 1.3 1.33
Solution:
We should calculate the combined leverage to draw inferences.
Combined leverage of A is 1.14*1.27 = 1.45,
Combined leverage of B is 1.23*1.3 = 1.60,
Combined leverage of C is 1.33*1.33 = 1.77
We find that the combined leverage is highest for firm C and this suggests
that this firm is working under very high risky situation.
2. Table 6.19 depicts the information provided by X Ltd. What is the degree
of financial leverage?
Table 6.19: Details of X Ltd.
4. Table 6.21 depicts the information provided by ABC Ltd. regarding the
cost, sales, interests, and selling prices. Calculate the DFL.
Table 6.21: Details of ABC Ltd.
6.9 Answers
Terminal Questions
{Q(S V )}
1. Hint DOL =
{Q(S V ) F}
EBIT
2. Hint DFL = {EBIT I {Dp /(1 T )}}
company can probably take on large amounts of debt without too much risk
because there's only a small chance of the business falling off a cliff and the
company being caught short when bondholders demand their interest
payments. On the flip side, be very wary of a high financial leverage ratio if a
company's business is cyclical or volatile. Because interest payments are
fixed, the company has to pay them whether business is good or bad.
Following is an excerpt from the stock analysis of Opto Circuits. The entire
analysis is available on
Opto Circuits is a small company in medical electronics industry with focus
in the niche areas of invasive (coronary stents) and non-invasive (sensors,
patient monitors) segments. Prior to '2002, Opto's revenues were less than
Rs. 50 crore. Today revenues stand at Rs. 468 crore with exports
accounting for more than 95% of revenues. Opto Circuits is based in
Bangalore, India and operates out of offices established in the USA, Europe,
South-East Asia, Latin America, and the Middle East and boasts of a strong
international distribution network present in over 70 countries.
Opto Circuits Profitability Snapshot
As one can see from above, net profit margins are healthy (over 28%), great
return on equity and solid return on invested capital ratios (over 45%).
Financial health has been steadily improving over the years with
comfortable financial leverage (1.34) and Debt to equity (0.31), with solid
current and quick ratios. However, Opto Circuits still has a long way to go
before it can show loads of excess cash in its books due to its aggressive
business expansion. Free cash flow as a percentage of sales is ~6%. It has
consistently increased dividends per share and has a unique track record of
rewarding shareholders with bonus shares every year for the 7th straight
year.
There are these 3 levers that can boost Return on Equity (ROE) - net
margins, asset turnover, and financial leverage. (Because ROE = Net
Margin x Asset Turnover x Financial Leverage).
Opto Circuits has shown steady improvements on net margin front but
recorded a quantum jump from ~16% in FY05 to over 27% in FY06. It has
since maintained net margins at around 27-29%. While asset turnover has
dipped in recent years before recovering somewhat in FY08, high net
margins have compensated for return on assets steadily improving from
around 14% in FY 2002 to almost 30%.
Opto Circuits has done even better with respect to the efficiency of using
shareholder’s equity with ROE improving from about 20% in FY02 to 40%.
What has boosted ROE in the last few years is consistent net margin
improvements and decent use of financial leverage.
Can we dig deeper to see what else we can understand about how Opto
Circuits makes money? A good way is to look at the common size profit and
loss statement. Common size statements are great tools for evaluating
companies because they put every line item in context by looking at each of
them as a percentage of Sales.
The numbers show some consistent trends. Gross Margins have improved
over the years from over 33% in FY02 to over 40% in FY 08. Spending on
overheads - selling and operating expenses - after rising in the initial years
is now showing signs of increasing efficiencies – perhaps due to increasing
synergies and rationalisation in Opto’s distribution network - declining to
about 12% in FY08 from about 18% in FY05.
Overall, we see a company that is achieving increasing control over cost of
goods sold and showing signs of becoming more efficient in terms of
overhead spending.
Once we have figured out how fast (and why) a company has grown and
how profitable it is, we need to look at its financial health.
Opto Circuits Financial Health Snapshot
References:
1. Pandey, I. M., (2005), Financial Management, Vikas Publishing House
2005, 9th edition
2. Prasanna, Chandra (2007), Financial Management: Theory and Practice,
7th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill.
E-Reference:
http://www.stock-picks-focus.com/opto-circuits.html#Profitability-
Snapshot retrieved on 11-12-2011.
7.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, you have learnt about operating leverage, financial
leverage, and total or combined leverage. In this unit, we will discuss the
features of ideal capital structure, factors affecting capital structure, and
theories of capital structure.
Finance is an important input for any type of business and is needed for
working capital and for permanent investment. The total funds employed in
a business are obtained from various sources as we have already seen in
the earlier units. A part of the funds are brought in by the owners and the
rest is borrowed from others – both individuals and institutions. While some
of the funds are permanently held in business, such as share capital and
reserves (owned funds), some others are held for a long period such as
long-term borrowings or debentures, and still some other funds are in the
nature of short-term borrowings. The entire composition of these funds
constitutes the overall financial structure of the firm.
A firm needs to have such sources in the right proportion. Short-term funds
keep varying and hence, their proportions cannot be laid down in a rigid
manner. However, a more definite policy is required for the composition of
the long-term funds. This forms the capital structure of the firm.
Thus, the capital structure of a company refers to the mix of long-term
finances used by the firm. In short, it is the financing plan of the company.
More important areas of the policy are the debt-equity ratio and the dividend
decision. The latter affects the building up of retained earnings which is an
important component of long-term owned funds. Since the permanent or
long-term funds often occupy a large portion of total funds and involve long-
term policy decision, the term financial structure is often used to mean the
capital structure of the firm.
With the objective of maximising the value of the equity shares, the choice
should be that pattern of using of debt and equity in a proportion which will
lead towards achievement of the firm’s objective. The capital structure
should add value to the firm. Financing mix decisions are investment
decisions and have no impact on the operating earnings of the firm. Such
decisions influence the firm’s value through the earnings available to the
shareholders.
The value of a firm is dependent on its expected future earnings and the
required rate of return. The objective of any company is to have an ideal mix
of permanent sources of funds in a manner that it will maximise the
company’s market price. The proper mix of funds is referred to as optimal
capital structure. The capital structure decisions include debt-equity mix and
dividend decisions. Both these have an effect on the Earnings Per Share
(EPS).
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
explain the features of an ideal capital structure
name the factors affecting the capital structure
discuss the various theories of capital structure
Profitability
The firm should make maximum use of leverage at a minimum cost.
Flexibility
An ideal capital structure should be flexible enough to adapt to changing
conditions. It should be in a position to raise funds at the shortest possible
time and also repay the money it borrowed, if they appear to be expensive.
This is possible only if the company’s lenders have not put forth any
conditions like restricting the company from taking further loans, restricting
the usage of assets, or restricting early repayments. In other words, the
finance authorities should have the power to take decisions as
circumstances warrant.
Control
The structure should have minimum dilution of control.
Solvency
Use of excessive debt threatens the very existence of the company.
Additional debt involves huge repayments. Loans with high interest rates
must be avoided even if some investment proposals look attractive. Some
companies who resort to issue of equity shares to repay their debt for equity
holders do not have a fixed rate of dividend.
Leverage
The use of sources of funds that have a fixed cost attached to them, such as
preference shares, loans from banks and financial institutions, and
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 179
Financial Management Unit 7
Activity: List the possible sources of capital that a company might use.
Hint:
Issue of equity shares in the domestic capital market.
Issue of equity (depository shares) in the international capital market.
Equity financing from financial institutions
Private equity
Issue of debentures in the domestic capital market.
Issue of debentures to financial institutions
Assumptions
The following are some common assumptions made:
The firm has only two sources of funds, debt and ordinary shares
There are no taxes, both corporate and personal
The firm’s dividend payout ratio is 100%, that is, the firm pays off the
entire earnings to its equity holders and retained earnings are zero
The investment decisions of a company are constant, that is, the firm
does not invest any further in its assets
The operating profits/EBIT are not expected to increase or decrease
All investors shall have identical subjective probability distribution of the
future expected EBIT
A firm can change its capital structure at a short notice without the
incurrence of transaction costs
The life of the firm is indefinite
In the following pages we will understand what happens when the financial
leverage changes and its impact on Kd, Ke, and K0.
7.4.1 Net income approach
Net Income (NI) approach is suggested by Durand. He is of the view that
capital structure decision is relevant to the valuation of the firm. Any change
in the financial leverage will have a corresponding change in the overall cost
of capital and also the total value of the firm. As the ratio of debt to equity
increases, the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) declines and
market value of firm increases. According to this approach, a firm can
minimise the overall WACC and maximise the value of a firm by increasing
the proportion of debt in its capital structure.
The NI approach is based on 3 assumptions. They are:
no taxes
the cost of debt is less than the cost of equity and remains constant
use of debt does not change the risk perception of investors
We know that,
K0 = [B/(B+S)]Kd + [S/(B+S)]Ke
Where, B is the market value of Debt and S, the market value of equity.
The following graphical representation of NI approach may help us
understand this better. Figure 7.2 depicts the NI approach.
Solved Problem – 1
Given below are two firms, A and B, which are identical in all aspects
except the degree of leverage employed by them. What is the average cost
of capital of both firms? Table 7.1 depicts the details of firms A and B.
Table 7.1: Details of Firms A and B
Firm A Firm B
Net operating income EBIT Rs. 1, 00, 000 Rs. 1, 00, 000
Interest on debentures I Nil Rs. 25, 000
Equity earnings E Rs. 1, 00, 000 Rs. 75, 000
Cost of equity Ke 15% 15%
Cost of debentures Kd 10% 10%
Market value of equity S = E/Ke Rs. 6, 66, 667 Rs. 5,00, 000
Market value of debt B Nil Rs. 2, 50, 000
Total value of firm V Rs. 6, 66, 667 Rs. 7, 50, 000
Solution:
Average cost of capital of firm A is:
10% * 0/Rs. 666667 + 15% * 666667/666667 = 0 + 15 = 15%
Average cost of capital of firm B is:
10% * 25000/750000 + 15% * 533333/750000 = 3.34 + 10 = 13.4%
Interpretation:
The use of debt has caused the total value of the firm to increase and the
overall cost of capital to decrease.
Solved Problem – 2
The net income approach may be illustrated with a numerical example.
There are two firms, A and B, similar in all aspects except in the degree of
leverage employed by them. Financial data for these firms are given
below: Calculate average cost of capital for both the firms.
Net Income approach
Amount (in Rs.) Firm A Firm B
Net operating income 10,000 10,000
Interest on debt 0 3,000
Equity earnings 10,000 7,000
Cost of equity capital 10% 10%
Cost of debt capital 6% 6%
Market value of equity 100,000 70,000
Market value of debt 0 50,000
Total value of firm 100,000 120,000
Average cost of capital for Firm A:
6% * 0/100,000 + 10% * 100,000/100,000 = 10%
Average cost of capital for firm B:
6% * 50,000/120,000 + 10% * 70,000/100,000 = 8.33%
Cost of debt
The cost of debt has two parts. Figure 7.3 depicts the two parts of cost of
debt.
Solved Problem – 3
Table 7.3 depicts the figures of two firms, X and Y, which are similar in all
aspects except the degree of leverage employed. Calculate the equity
capitalisation rates of the firms.
Table 7.3: Details of Firms X and Y
Firm X Firm Y
Net operating income EBIT Rs. 10000 Rs. 10000
Overall capitalisation rate K0 18% 18%
Total market value 55555 55555
V = EBIT/K0
Interest on debt I Rs. 1000 Rs. 2000
Debt capitalisation rate Kd 11% 11%
Market value of debt B= I/Kd Rs. 9091 Rs. 18181
Market value of equity S=V—B Rs. 46464 Rs. 37374
Leverage B/S 0.1956 0.2140
Solution:
The equity capitalisation rates are:
Ke = K0 +[ (K0 – Kd)(B/S)]
Firm X = 0.18 + [(0.18 – 0.11)(0.1956)] = 19.36%
Firm Y= 0.18 + [(0.18 – 0.11)(0.4865)] = 21.40%
Solved Problem – 4
Consider two firms, MA and CMA, which are similar in all aspects other
than the degree of leverage employed by them. Table 7.4 depicts the
financial data of both these firms. Calculate the equity capitalisation rates
of the firms.
Table 7.4: Details of Firms MA and CMA
Firms MA Firms CMA
Net operating income EBIT Rs. 20, 000 Rs. 20, 000
Overall capitalisation rate K0 19% 19%
Total market value 66, 666 66, 666
V = EBIT/K0
Interest on debt i Rs. 1, 500 Rs. 3, 000
Solution:
The equity capitalisation rates are:
Ke = K0 +[ (K0 – Kd)(B/S)]
Firm MA = 0.19 + [(0.19 – 0.13)(0.21)] = 0.2026 = 20.26%
Firm CMA = 0.19 + [(0.19 – 0.13)(0.53)] = 0.2218 = 22.18%
The approach primarily implies that the cost of capital is dependant on the
capital structure, and there is an optimal capital structure which minimises
the cost of capital. At this optimal capital structure, the real marginal cost of
debt and equity is the same. Before this point is reached, the real marginal
cost of debt is less than the real marginal cost of equity. After this point, the
real marginal cost of debt is more than the real marginal cost of equity.
7.4.4 Miller and Modigliani approach
Miller and Modigliani criticise traditional approach that the cost of equity
remains unaffected by leverage up to a reasonable limit and K0 remains
constant at all degrees of leverage. They state that the relationship between
leverage and cost of capital is elucidated as in NOI approach.
Table 7.6 depicts the assumptions regarding Miller and Modigliani (MM)
approach: perfect capital markets, rational behaviour, homogeneity, taxes,
and dividend payout.
V = (S+B)
Taxes
When personal taxes are considered along with corporate taxes, the MM
approach fails to explain the financing decision and the firm’s value.
Agency costs
A firm requiring loan approaches creditors and creditors may sometimes
impose protective covenants to protect their positions. Such restriction may
be in the nature of obtaining prior approval of creditors for further loans,
appointment of key persons, restriction on dividend payouts, limiting further
issue of capital, limiting new investments or expansion schemes, etc.
7.6 Glossary
Arbitrage: The process of buying a security at a lower price in one market
and selling it in another market at a higher price bringing about equilibrium.
Firm A Firm B
Net operating income Rs. 5,00,000 Rs. 5,00,000
7.8 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Assumptions of Miller and Modigliani (MM) approach: perfect capital
markets, rational behaviour, homogeneity, taxes, and dividend payout.
Refer to 7.4.4
2. Hint: use the formula K0 = [B/(B+S)]Kd + [S/(B+S)]Ke
3. Hint: use the formula K0 = [B/(B+S)]Kd + [S/(B+S)]Ke
4. Hint: use the formula K0 = [B/(B+S)]Kd + [S/(B+S)]Ke
5. WACC = W e Ke + W p Kp +W r Kr + W d Kd + W t Kt
Hint : we =0.4; W d = 0.533; wt = 0.067
A company considered too highly leveraged (too much debt versus equity)
may find its freedom of action restricted by its creditors and/or may have its
profitability hurt as a result of paying high interest costs.
Theoretically, the financial manager should plan an optimum capital
structure for his/her company. The optimum capital structure is obtained
when the market value per share is at maximum. Since a number of factors
influence the capital structure decision of a company, the judgment of
the person making the capital structure decision plays a crucial part.
Two similar companies can have different capital structures if the decision
makers differ in their judgment of the significance of various factors.
Liberalisation of economy
The government of India started the economic liberalisation policy in 1991.
Even though the power at the centre has changed hands, the pace of
the reforms has never slackened till date. Before 1991, changes
within the industrial sector in the country were modest to say the least. Post
1991, a major restructuring has taken place with the emergence of more
technologically advanced segments among industrial companies.
Nowadays, more small-scale and medium-scale enterprises contribute
significantly to the economy.
By the mid 90s, the private capital had surpassed the public capital.
The management system had shifted from the traditional family based
system to a system of qualified and professional managers. One of the most
significant effects of the liberalisation era has been the emergence of
a strong, affluent, and buoyant middle class with significant purchasing
power, and this has been the engine that has driven the economy since.
Capital structure of Indian corporate before liberalisation
Studies on capital structure of Indian industries are inconclusive and often
conflicting. A study by Sharma and Rao (1968) on 30 engineering firms for 3
years concludes that debt due to its tax deductibility is a prominent
determinant of the cost of capital. A study by I. M. Pandey (1981) on cotton
textiles, chemicals, and engineering and electricity generations lends
support to the traditional approach. Bhatt (1980) in his paper concludes
that the leverage ratio is very much influenced by business risks measured
in terms of variability in earnings, profitability, debt service capacity, and
dividend payout ratio. I. M. Pandey (1984) in another study found
that during 1973-81 about 80% of the assets of the companies sampled
were financed by external debt and current liabilities. Large-sized
companies were more levered though a large number of small firms also
courted more debt capital. Leverage did not exhibit a definite relationship
with growth and profitability, although all the three variables moved in the
same direction. He also found that a majority of the profitability and growth-
oriented companies were within the narrow bands of leverage.
Before 1980s, Indian financial managers courted debt due to its low cost,
tax advantages, and the complicated procedures to be observed in
garnering equity capital. The substitutability of short-term debt for long-term
loan was another attraction. However, with the waves of liberalisation,
privatisation, and globalisation sweeping the capital market in recent years,
the corporate world has started wooing equity capital in a big way. The
arrival of a matrix of new financial instruments such as commercial papers,
asset securitisation, factoring and forfeiting services, and the market related
interest rate structure and their stringent conditions for lending, force
modern enterprises to court equity finance.
Of different sources, bank credit has been working since long as a major
source of working capital in India and abroad. Long-term borrowings like
debenture, institutional loan, and government loan have also contributed to
working capital financing, since a part of current assets is usually
covered by long-term funds. Another viable source of working capital is
trade credit, which is considered to be a formality free, security free,
and interest free source of finance.
Impact of liberalisation on capital structure of Indian corporate
Until the early nineties, corporate financial management in India was
a relatively drab and placid activity. There were not many important financial
decisions to be made for the simple reason that firms were given very
little freedom in the choice of key financial policies. The government
regulated the price at which firms could issue equity, the rate of interest
which they could offer on their bonds, and the debt-equity ratio that was
permissible in different industries. Moreover, most of the debt and
a significant part of the equity were provided by public sector institutions.
The liberalisation changed all of this. The corporate sector was exposed to
international competition and subsidised finance gave way to a regime of
high real interest rates. Consequently, the post-liberalised era has started
observing the following changes in the sources of Industrial finance:
Domestic capital formation – It was envisioned that increased capital
formation would contribute for more industrial output and a 'virtuous
circle' of growth. Gross Capital Formation (GCF) is estimated across
three types of assets, viz, construction, machinery, and equipment.
The GCF, adjusted for errors and omissions, is termed as aggregate
investment or Gross Domestic Capital Formation (GDCF). A
positive association is hypothesised between the capital formation
and the industrial production.
Foreign direct investment – A few decades ago, many countries
considered FDI as the source of economic imperialism, but things are
quite different now. The argument is that FDI contribute to the growth of
host economies in many ways. For example, physical capital formation,
technology transfer, human formation, stimulation of productivity,
augmentation of output, promotion of foreign trade, and improvement of
competitiveness of indigenous entrepreneurs.
As part of the economic reforms introduced in 1991, in the wake of
a sharp external payments crisis, policies relating to foreign investment
and foreign technology agreements were radically changed.
Primary issues in the capital market - With the liberalisation of the
Indian economy since 1991, the government has provided a number of
additional fiscal and other incentives to foster capital market
development. The magnitude of growth has been rapid and vivid in terms
of fund mobilised, the amount of market capitalisation, and the
expansion of investor population. The Indian market was opened up for
investment by the Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) in September
1992, and the Indian companies were allowed to raise resources abroad
through Global Depository Receipts (GDR) and Foreign Currency
Convertible Bonds (FCCB).
Bank credit – Banks are the dominant financial intermediaries in
developing countries including India. Bank credit is considered as an
important source of industrial finance. The dependence on bank for
finance could vary according to the size of the companies. The small-
scale industrial units have increased their dependence on banks for
loans because they have virtually no access to the capital markets.
(http://ipublishing.co.in/ajmrvol1no1/EIJMRS1023.pdf)]
Reference:
Prasanna, Chandra (2007), Financial Management: Theory and Practice,
7th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill.
Pandey, I. M., (2005), Financial Management, Vikas Publishing House
2005, 9th edition
E-Reference:
http://ipublishing.co.in/ajmrvol1no1/EIJMRS1023.pdf retrieved on
11/12/2011
Egyankosh.ac.in
Igidr.ac.in
8.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, we have discussed about features of ideal capital
structure, factors affecting capital structure, and theories of capital structure.
In this unit we will discuss about capital budgeting. Indian economy is
growing at 9% per annum. New lines of business such as retailing
investment, investment advisory services and private banking are emerging.
We have already discussed in the previous units that businesses involve
investment decisions.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 204
Financial Management Unit 8
In this unit, we will discuss the capital budgeting. The investment decisions
taken by corporates are known as capital budgeting decisions. Such
decisions help corporates reap the benefits arising out of the emerging
business opportunities.
The capital budgeting decisions involve evaluation of specific investment
proposals. Here, the word “capital” refers to the operating assets used in
production of goods or rendering of services. The word budgeting involves
formulating a plan of the expected cash flows during the future period.
Capital budgeting is a blue-print of planned investments in operating assets.
Thus, capital budgeting is the process of evaluating the profitability of the
projects under consideration and deciding on the proposal to be included in
the capital budget for implementation.
Capital budgeting decisions involve investment of current funds in
anticipation of cash flows occurring over a series of years in future. All these
strategic decisions can change the profile of the organisations.
Successful organisations have created wealth for their shareholders through
capital budgeting decisions. Investment of current funds in long term assets
for generation of cash flows in future over a series of years characterises
the nature of capital budgeting decisions.
HDFC bank takes over Centurion Bank of Punjab. ICICI bank took over
Bank of Madurai. The motive behind all these mergers is to grow, because
in this era of globalisation, the need of the hour is to grow as big as
possible. In all these, one could observe the desire of the management to
create value for shareholders as a motivating force.
Another way of growing involves branch expansion, product mix expansion
and cost reduction through improved technology for deeper penetration into
the market.
Example 1
A bank, which is urban based, takes over a bank with rural network for
expansion, because urban based bank can open more urban branches
only when it meets the Reserve Bank of India guideline of having a
minimum number of rural branches. This is the motive of the merger of
urban based bank of ICICI with the rural based Bank of Madurai.
For example, Metal Box spent large sums of money on expansion of its
production facilities based on its own sales forecast. During this period,
huge investments in R & D of packaging industry brought about new
packaging medium that totally replaced metal as an important component of
packing boxes. At the end of the expansion, Metal Box Ltd found that the
market for its metal boxes has declined drastically.
The end result was that Metal Box became a sick company from the position
it enjoyed prior to the execution of expansion as a blue chip. Employees lost
their jobs. It affected the standard of living and cash flow position of its
employees. This highlights the element of risk involved in these types of
decisions.
Equally, we have empirical evidence of companies which took decisions on
expansion through the addition of new products and adoption of the latest
technology, creating wealth for share-holders. The best example is the
Reliance Group.
In case there is any serious error in forecasting sales, the amount of capital
expenditure can significantly affect the firm. An upward bias might lead to a
situation of the firm creating idle capacity.
Any downward bias in forecasting might lead the firm to a situation of losing
its market to its competitors.
• Sometimes, long time investments of the funds may change the risk
profile of the firm.
Example 2
A FMCG company decides to enter into a new business of power
generation. This decision will totally alter the risk profile of the company
business. Investor’s perception of risk of the new business to be taken up
by the company will change its required rate of return to invest in the
company.
In this connection it should be noted that the power pricing is a politically
sensitive area, affecting the profitability of the organisation. Therefore,
capital budgeting decisions change the risk dimensions of the company
and hence, the required rate of return that the investors want.
• Most of the capital budgeting decisions involve huge outlay. The funds
required during the phase of execution must be synchronised with the
flow of funds. Failure to achieve the required coordination between the
inflow and outflow may cause time over-run and cost over-run.
These two problems of time overrun and cost overrun have to be
prevented from occurring in the beginning of execution of the project.
Quite a lot of empirical examples are there in public sector in India in
support of this argument that cost overrun and time overrun can make a
company’s operation unproductive.
• Capital budgeting decisions involve assessment of market for company’s
product and services, deciding on the scale of operations, selection of
relevant technology and finally procurement of costly equipment.
If a firm were to realise after committing itself to considerable sums of
money in the process of implementing the capital budgeting decisions
taken that the decision to diversify or expand would become a wealth
destroyer to the company, then the firm would have experienced a
situation of inability to sell the equipments bought. Loss incurred by the
firm would be heavy if the firm were to scrap the equipments bought
specifically for implementing the decision taken. Sometimes these
equipments will be specialised costly equipments. Therefore, capital
budgeting decisions are irreversible. All capital budgeting decisions
involve three elements. These three elements are:
o cost
o quality
o timing
Decisions must be taken at the right time which would enable the firm to
procure the assets at the least cost for producing products of required
quality for the customer. Any lapse on the part of the firm in
understanding the effect of these elements on implementation of capital
expenditure, will strategically affect the firm’s profitability.
• Liberalisation and globalisation gave birth to economic institutions like
world trade organisations. General Electrical can expand its market into
India snatching away the share that was enjoyed by firms like Bajaj
Electricals or Kirloskar Electric Company. Ability of GE to sell its
products in India at a rate lesser than the rate, at which Indian
companies sell, cannot be ignored.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 208
Financial Management Unit 8
Example 3
The arrival of mobile revolution made the pager technology obsolete. The
firms which invested in pagers faced the problem of pagers losing its
relevance as a means of communication. The firms with the ability to
adapt the new know-how in mobile technology could survive the effect of
this phase of technological obsolescence. Others who could not manage
the effect of change in technology had a natural death and so most
capital expenditure decisions are irreversible.
Caselet 1
A sales manager may come with a proposal to produce a new product as
per the requirements of company’s consumers. Marketing manager,
based on the sales manager’s proposal, may conduct a market survey to
determine the expected demand for the new product under consideration.
Once the marketing manager is convinced of the market potential for
proposed new product, the proposal goes to the engineers to examine it
with all aspects of production process. Then the proposal goes to the cost
accountant to translate the entire gamut of the proposal into costs and
revenues in terms of incremental cash flows, both outflows and inflows.
The cost-benefit statement generated by cost accountant shall include all
incremental costs and benefits that the firm will incur and derive on
commercialisation of the proposal under consideration.
Technical appraisal and Economic appraisal. Figure 8.1 depicts the capital
budgeting process.
• Expected profitability
• Expected incremental cash flows from the project
• Break-even point
• Cash break-even point
• Risk dimensions of the project
• Project potential to materially alter the risk profile of the company
• If the project is financed by debt, expected “Debt Service Coverage
Ratio”
• Tax holiday benefits, if any
Under this appraisal, the risk and returns at various stages of project
execution are assessed. Besides, it examines whether the risk adjusted
return from the project exceeds the cost of financing the project.
Separation Incremental
principle principle
Figure 8.2: Principles of Cash Flow Estimation
Separation principle
The essence of this principle is the necessity to treat investment element of
the project separately (i.e. independently) from that of financing element.
The financing cost is computed by the cost of capital. Cost of capital is the
cut off rate and rate of return expected on implementation of the project.
Therefore, we separately compute cost of funds for execution of project
through the financing mode. The rate of return expected on implementation
if the project is arrived at, by the investment profile of the projects.
Therefore, interest on debt is ignored while arriving at operating cash
inflows.
Caselet 2
A firm wants to open a branch in Chennai for expansion of its market in
Tamil Nadu. The firm already owns a building in Chennai. The building in
Chennai is let out to some other firm on an annual rent of Rs. 1 crore. For
opening the branch at Chennai the firm uses its own building by
sacrificing the rental income which it has been receiving. The opportunity
cost of the building at Chennai is Rs. 1 crore. This will have to be
considered in arriving at the operating cash flows associated with the
decision to open a branch at Chennai.
Caselet 3
Expansion or establishment of a branch at a new place may increase the
profitability of existing branches because the branch at the new place has
a complementary relationship with the other existing branches or it may
reduce the profitability of existing branches because the branch at the new
place competes with the business of other existing branches or takes
away some business activities from the existing branches.
• Cannibalisation – Another problem that a firm faces on introduction of a
new product is the reduction in the sale of an existing product. This is
called cannibalisation. The most challenging task is handling the
problems of cannibalisation. Depending on the company’s position with
that of the competitors in the market, appropriate strategy has to be
followed. Correspondingly, the cost of cannibalisation will have to be
treated as either relevant cost of the decision or ignored.
Product cannibalisation will affect the company’s sales if the firm is
marketing its products in a market characterised by severe competition,
without any entry barriers. In this case, costs are not relevant for
decision.
However, if the firm’s sales are not affected by competitor’s activities due to
certain unique protection that it enjoys on account of brand positioning or
patent protection, the costs of cannibalisation cannot be ignored in taking
decisions.
Post tax principle
All cash flows should be computed on post tax basis.
Consistency principle
Cash flows and discount rates used in project evaluation need to be
consistent with the investor group and inflation.
Solved Problem – 1
A firm is considering replacement of its existing machine by a new
machine. The new machine will cost Rs. 1,60,000 and have a life of five
years. The new machine will yield annual cash revenue of Rs. 2,50,000
and incur annual cash expenses of Rs. 1,30,000. The estimated salvage
of the new machine at the end of its economic life is Rs. 8,000. The
existing machine has a book value of Rs 40,000 and can be sold for
Rs. 20,000. The existing machine, if used for the next five years is
expected to generate annual cash revenue of Rs. 2,00,000 and involves
annual cash expenses of Rs. 1,40,000. If sold after five years, the
salvage value of the existing machine will be negligible.
The company pays tax at 30%. It writes off depreciation at 25% on the
written down value. The company’s cost of capital is 20%. Compute the
incremental cash flows of replacement decisions.
Solution
Table 8.1 gives the initial investments and annual cash flows from
projects.
Table 8.1: Initial Investments and Annual Cash Flows
Initial investment
Gross investment for new machine (1, 60, 000)
Less: cash received from the sale of existing machine 20, 000
Net cash outlay (1, 40, 000)
Annual cash flows from operations
Incremental cash flows from revenue 50, 000
Incremental decrease in expenditure 10, 000
Activity-1
Complete the following table
Particulars Rs.
Sales
Less: Cost of goods sold
Less: Cost of goods sold
Less: Depreciation
Less: interest
Less: Tax
Add:
CFAT (Cash Flow After Tax)
Hint
Particulars Rs.
Sales
Less: Cost of goods sold
Gross profit
Less: operating expenses excluding depreciation
EBDIT (Earnings before depreciation, interest and tax)
Less: Depreciation
EBIT (Earnings before interest and tax)
Less: interest
EBT (Earnings before tax)
Less: Tax
PAT (Profit after tax)
Add: depreciation
CFAT (Cash Flow After Tax)
Solved Problem – 2
Table 8.5 gives details on the cash flows of two projects A and B.
Table 8.5: Cash Flows of A and B
Year Project A cash flows (Rs.) Project B cash flows (Rs.)
0 (4,00,000) (5,00,000)
1 2,00,000 1,00,000
2 1,75,000 2,00,000
3 25,000 3,00,000
4 2,00,000 4,00,000
5 1,50,000 2,00,000
Compute pay-back period for A and B.
Solution
Table 8.6 shows the cash flows and the cumulative cash flows of the
projects A and B.
Table 8.6 Cash Flows and Cumulative Cash Flows of A and B
Year Project A Project B
Cash flows Cumulative Cash flows Cumulative
(Rs.) Cash flows (Rs.) Cash flows
1 2,00,000 2,00,000 1,00,000 1,00,000
2 1,75,000 3,75,000 2,00,000 3,00,000
3 25,000 4,00,000 3,00,000 6,00,000
4 2,00,000 6,00,000 4,00,000 10,00,000
5 1,50,000 7,50,000 2,00,000 12,00,000
From the cumulative cash flows column, project A recovers the initial
cash outlay of Rs 4,00,000 at the end of the third year. Therefore,
payback period of project A is 3 years.
From the cumulative cash flow column the initial cash outlay of
Rs. 5,00,000 lies between 2nd year and 3rd year in case of project B.
Therefore, payback period for project B is:
5,00,000 − 3,00,000
2+
3,00,000
= 2.67 years
Pay-back period for project B is 2.67 years
Average investment =
Book Value of theinvestment + Book value of investment at the end of
in thebeginning thelife of theproject or investment
2
Solved Problem – 3
Table 8.7 gives the particulars of two projects:
X Y
Cost 40,000 60,000
Estimated life 5 years 5 years
Salvage value Rs. 3,000 Rs. 3,000
Table 8.8 gives an estimate income after tax.
Table 8.8: After Tax
X (Rs.) Y (Rs.)
1 3,000 10,000
2 4,000 8,000
3 7,000 2,000
4 6,000 6,000
5 8,000 5,000
Total 28,000 31,000
Average 5,600 6,200
21,500 31,500
Average
investment
5,600
ARR X = = 26%
21,500
6,200
ARR Y= = 19.7%
31,500
Let us discuss the merits and demerits of accounting the rate of return.
Merits of accounting rate of return
• It is based on accounting information
• Simple to understand
• It considers the profits of entire economic life of the project
• Because it is based on accounting information, the business executives
familiar with the accounting information, understand it
Solved Problem – 4
Table 8.9 shows the cash flows of project A for different years at a rate of
10% p.a.
Table 8.9: Cash Flows of Project A
Cumulative
Project A PV of Cash
Year PV factor at 10% positive
Cash flows flows
Cash flows
0 (4,00,000) 1 (4,00,000) –
1 2,00,000 0.909 1,81,800 1,81,800
2 1,75,000 0.826 1,44,550 3,26,350
3 25,000 0.751 18,775 3,45,125
4 2,00,000 0.683 1,36,600 4,81,725
5 1,50,000 0.621 93,150 5,74,875
Discounted pay-back period
4,00,000 −3,45,125
3+ = 3.4 years
1,36,600
• As the cost of capital of the firm is the hurdle rate, the NPV ensures that
the project generates profits from the investment made for it.
Demerits of NPV method
• Forecasting of cash flows is difficult as it involves dealing with the effect
of elements of uncertainties on operating activities of the firm.
• For deciding the discounting factor, there is the need to assess the
investor’s required rate of return, but it is not possible to compute the
discount rate precisely.
• There are practical problems associated with the evaluation of projects
with unequal lives or under funds’ constraints.
For ranking of projects under NPV approach, the project with the highest
positive NPV is preferred to that with a lower NPV.
Solved Problem 5
A project costs Rs.25000 and is expected to generate cash inflows.
Table 8.10 shows the cash inflows.
Table 8.10: Cash Inflows
Year Cash inflows
1 10,000
2 8,000
3 9,000
4 6,000
5 7,000
The cost of capital is 12%. Table 8.11 shows the present value factors.
Table 8.11: Present Value Factors
Year PV factor at 12%
1 0.893
2 0.797
3 0.712
4 0.636
5 0.567
Compute the NPV of the project
Solution
The present value of the cash flows are computed based on the
information given in tables 8.8 and 8.9, at a rate of interest of 12% per
annum. Table 8.12 shows the PV of cash flows.
Table 8.12: PV of Cash Flows
PV factor at
Year Cash flows PV of cash flows
12%
1 10,000 0.893 8,930
2 8,000 0.797 6,376
3 9,000 0.712 6,408
4 6,000 0.636 3,816
5 7,000 0.567 3,969
Total 29,499
Solved Problem – 6
A company is evaluating two alternatives for distribution within the plant.
The two alternatives are as follows:
• C system with a high initial cost but low annual operating costs.
• F system which costs less but have considerably higher operating
costs.
The decision to construct the plant has already been made, and the
choice here will have no effect on the overall revenues of the project. The
cost of capital of the plant is 12% and the projects expected net cash
costs are listed in table 8.13.
Table 8.13: Expected Net Cash
Expected net cash costs
Year
C systems F systems
0 (3,00,000) (1,20,000)
1 (66,000) (96,000)
2 (66,000) (96,000)
3 (66,000) (96,000)
4 (66,000) (96,000)
5 (66,000) (96,000)
What is the present value of costs of each alternative?
Which method should be chosen?
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 232
Financial Management Unit 8
Solution
Computation of present value is done in table 8.14
Table 8.14: Computation of PV
Year C systems F systems Incremental
1 (66,000) (96,000) 30,000
2 (66,000) (96,000) 30,000
3 (66,000) (96,000) 30,000
4 (66,000) (96,000) 30,000
5 (66,000) (96,000) 30,000
Activity 2
Why NPV leads to better investment decisions than other criteria?
Refer: NPV
• Internal rate of return (IRR)
Internal rate of return (IRR) is the rate (i.e. discount rate) which makes the
NPV of any project equal to zero. IRR is the rate of interest which equates
the PV of cash inflows with the PV of cash outflows.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 233
Financial Management Unit 8
Ct
r = CF 0 = where t = 1 to n
(1+r ) t
CF0 = Investment
Ct
CF0 =
(1+r ) t where t = 1 to n
Solved Problem-7
A project requires an initial outlay of Rs. 1,00,000. It is expected to
generate the cash inflows shown in table 8.15
Table 8.15: Cash Inflows
Year Cash inflows
1 50,000
2 50,000
3 30,000
4 40,000
Step 2
Divide the initial investment by the average of annual cash inflows
1,00,000
= = 2.35
42,500
Step 3
From the PVIFA table for 4 years, the annuity factor very near 2.35 is
25%. Therefore, the first initial rate is 25% as shown in table 8.17
Table 8.17: Trial Rate at 25%
Year Cash flows PV factor at 25 % PV of Cash flows
1 50,000 0.800 40,000
2 50,000 0.640 32,000
3 30,000 0.512 15,360
4 40,000 0.410 16,400
Total 1,03,760
The next trial rate is 27%, the changes are as shown in table 8.19.
Table 8.19: Trial Rate at 27%
Year Cash flows PV factor at 27 % PV of Cash flows
1 50,000 0.7874 39,370
2 50,000 0.6200 31,000
3 30,000 0.4882 14,646
4 40,000 0.3844 15,376
Total 1,00,392
TV = C t (1 + r)
t
t =1
PVC = PV of costs
To calculate PVC, the discount rate used is the cost of capital. To calculate
the terminal value, the future value factor is based on the cost of capital
MIRR is obtained on solving the following equation.
Solved Problem – 8
Table 8.21 shows the cash flows for respective years at a cost of capital of
12%.
Table 8.21: Cost of Capital
Year 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Cash flows (Rs. in millions) (100) (100) 30 60 90 120 130
100
Present value of cost = 100 + 1.12
= 100 + 89.29 = 189.29
Terminal value of cash flows:
Where r = 0.12, n= 6 , t=2 for the 2nd year, t=3 for 3rd year, t=4 for 4th year
and so on.
= 30 (1.12)4 + 60 (1.12)3 + 90 (1.12)2 + 120 (1.12) + 130
= 30 x 1.5735 + 60 x 1.4049 + 90 x 1.2544 + 120 x 1.12 + 130
= 47.205 + 84.294 + 112.896 + 134.4 + 130
= 508.80
508.80
(1+ MIRR)6 =
189.29
(1 + MIRR)6 = 2.6879
MIRR = 17.9 %
Modified internal rate of return = 17.9%
Profitability index
Profitability index (PI) is also known as benefit cost ratio. Profitability index is
the ratio of the present value of cash inflows to initial cash outlay. The
discount factor based on the required rate of return is used to discount the
cash inflows.
Demerits of PI
• Estimation of cash flows and discount rate cannot be done accurately
with certainty.
A conflict may arise between NPV and profitability index if a choice between
mutually exclusive project has to be made.
Solved Problem – 9
A firm is considering an investment proposal which requires an initial
cash outlay of Rs 8 lakhs now and Rs 2 lakhs at the end of the third year.
It is expected to generate cash flows as shown in table 8.22.
Table 8.22 Cash Inflows
Year Cash inflows
1 3,50,000
2 8,00,000
3 2,50,000
Apply the discount rate of 12% and calculate profitability index
Solution-10
Table 8.23 shows the present value of cash outflows.
Table 8.23: Present Value of Cash Outflows
Year PV factor at 12 % Cash out flows PV of Cash flows
1 Rs.8lakhs Rs.8lakhs
2
3 0.712 2lakhs 1.424lakhs
Total 9.424lakhs
8.10 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
• Capital investment proposals involve current outlay of funds in the
expectation of a stream of cash inflow in future.
• Various techniques are available for evaluating investment projects.
They are grouped into traditional and modern techniques.
• The major traditional techniques are payback period and accounting rate
of return.
• The important discounting criteria are net present value, internal rate of
return and profitability index.
• A major deficiency of payback period is that it does not take into account
the time value of money.
• DCF techniques overcome this limitation. Each method has both positive
and negative aspects.
• The most popular method for large project is the internal rate of return.
Payback period and accounting rate of return are popular for evaluating
small projects.
8.11 Glossary
Cannibalisation: The introduction of a new product, the reduction in the
sale of an existing product.
8.13 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Capital budgeting decisions are the most important decisions in
corporate financial management. Refer to 8.2
The implementation of the new online system entailed a paradigm shift from
the way the entire capital budgeting process was being carried out. So,
change management was an issue. But extensive end-user training and
feedback mechanisms helped Vasudeva fix these problems.
Today, the system provides the means to justify the investment, mention the
estimated timelines for completion and the estimated ROI. Proposals can be
enabled online and even be converted into capital budgets with necessary
controls and validations built into the system. This system has also brought
in high level of discipline and adherence to the timelines. "The total cost
savings as a result of reduced man-hours amounts to about Rs 25 lakh per
annum," says Vasudeva.
Discussion Questions:
1. Explain the importance of capital budgeting process and how timelines
are of significance in taking capital budgeting decisions.
(Hint: Refer importance of capital budgeting decisions)
2. What do you think would have been the complexities involved in
implementing this new project at HPCL?
(Hint: Refer capital budgeting process)
3. What are the various phases in the capital budgeting process? To what
extent do you believe that automation can ease out the process?
(Hint: Refer phases in capital budgeting decisions)
(Source: http://www.computerworld.in/articles/ )
References :
Structure:
9.1 Introduction
Objectives
Definition of risk
9.2 Types and Sources of Risk in Capital Budgeting
Sources of risk
Techniques for incorporation of risk factor in capital budgeting
9.3 Risk Adjusted Discount Rate
Evaluation of risk adjusted discount rate
9.4 Certainty Equivalent Approach
Evaluation of certainty equivalent
9.5 Probability Distribution Approach
9.6 Sensitivity Analysis
Evaluation of sensitivity analysis
9.7 Simulation Analysis
Evaluation of simulation analysis
9.8 Decision Tree Approach
Evaluation of decision tree approach
9.9 Summary
9.10 Glossary
9.11 Terminal Questions
9.12 Answers
9.13 Case Study
9.1 Introduction
In the previous units, we discussed that capital budgeting decisions typically
involve forecasting the future operating cash flows. Forecasting involves
making certain assumptions about the future behaviour of costs and
revenues.
However, such forecasting, suffers from uncertainty because the future is
highly uncertain. Assumptions made about the future behaviour of costs and
revenues may change and can significantly alter the fortunes of a company.
Thereby, the process is inherently risky. In this unit, we will discuss about
the risk analysis in capital budgeting.
In other words, the financial analyst determines the upfront cost of a project,
as well as the periodic future cash flows resulting from the project. Those
cash flows are then used to calculate either the net present value (NPV) of
the project - using the firm's weighted-average cost-of-capital (WACC) as a
discount rate, or the internal rate of return (IRR) for the project. If the NPV is
positive, or if the IRR exceeds the WACC, the firm undertakes the project;
otherwise it doesn't.
The difficulty in making proper capital budgeting decisions arises as a
consequence of the difficulty in determining the upfront costs, the periodic
cash flows, even the proper WACC. All of these quantities must be
estimated, and all of the ensuing estimates will contain some degree of
uncertainty; the process is inherently risky.
“To understand uncertainty and risk is to understand the key business
problem, and the key business opportunity” – David. B. Hertz, 1972. Thus,
analysing the risks to reduce the element of uncertainty has therefore
become an essential aspect of today’s corporate project management.
This unit will help you understand the various types of risks involved in
capital budgeting decisions. You will also study how sensitivity analysis is
used to determine the most critical uncertainties in the estimation and the
pitfalls of using uncertain single-point estimates for the cash flows
associated with the project.
This unit will help the capital budget decision-makers to avoid costly
mistakes.
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
define risk in capital budgeting
examine the importance of risk analysis in capital budgeting
determine the methods of incorporating the risk factor in capital
budgeting decision
analyse the types and sources of risk in capital budgeting decision
Caselet 1
A company wants to produce and market a new product to their
prospective customers and the demand is affected by the general
economic conditions. Demand may be very high if the country
experiences higher economic growth. On the other hand economic
events like weakening of US dollar and sub-prime crises may trigger
economic slow-down. This may create a pessimistic demand drastically
bringing down the estimate of cash flows.
Stand-alone risk
Stand alone risk of a project is considered when the project is in isolation.
Stand-alone risk is measured by the variability of expected returns of the
project.
Portfolio risk
A firm can be viewed as portfolio of projects having a certain degree of risk.
When new project is added to the existing portfolio of project, the risk profile
of the firm will alter. The degree of the change in the risk depends on the
following:
The co-variance of return from the new project
The return from the existing portfolio of the projects
If the return from the new project is negatively correlated with the return
from portfolio, the risk of the firm will be further diversified.
Market risk
Market risk is defined as the measure of the unpredictability of a given stock
value. However, market risk is also referred to as systematic risk. The
market risk has a direct influence on stock prices. Market risk is measured
by the effect of the project on the beta of the firm. The market risk for a
project is difficult to estimate, as it includes a wide range of external factors
like recessions, wars, political issues, etc.
Corporate risk
Corporate risk focuses on the analysis of the risk that might influence the
project in terms of entire cash flow of the firms. Corporate risk is the
projects’ risks of the firm.
9.2.1 Sources of risk
The five different sources of risk are:
Project-specific risk
Competitive or competition risk
Industry-specific risk
International risk
Market risk
Let us discuss the sources of risk in detail.
Project-specific risk
Project-specific risk could be traced to something quite specific to the
project. Managerial deficiencies or error in estimation of cash flows or
discount rate may lead to a situation of actual cash flows realised being less
than the projected cash flow.
Competitive or competition risk
Unanticipated actions of a firm’s competitors will materially affect the cash
flows expected from a project. As a result of this, the actual cash flows from
a project will be less than that of the forecast.
Industry-specific risk
Industry-specific risks are those that affect all the firms in the particular
industry. Industry-specific risk could be again grouped into technological
risk, commodity risk and legal risk. Let us discuss the groups in industry-
specific risks, as follows:
Technological risk – The changes in technology affect all the firms not
capable of adapting themselves in emerging into a new technology.
Example
The best example is the case of firms manufacturing motor cycles with
two stroke engines. When technological innovations replaced the two
stroke engines by the four stroke engines, those firms which could not
adapt to new technology had to shut down their operations.
Example
The imposition of service tax on apartments by the government of
India, when the total number of apartments built by a firm engaged in
that industry exceeds a prescribed limit. Similarly, changes in import-
export policy of the government of India have led to either closure of
some firms or sickness of some firms.
All these risks will affect the earnings and cash flows of the project.
International risk
These types of risks are faced by firms whose business consists mainly of
exports or those who procure their main raw material from international
markets.
The firms facing such kind of risks are as follows:
The rupee-dollar crisis affected the software and BPOs, because it
drastically reduced their profitability.
Another example is that of the textile units in Tirupur in Tamil Nadu,
which exports the major part of the garments produced. Strengthening of
rupee and weakening of dollar, reduced their competitiveness in the
global markets.
The surging crude oil prices coupled with the governments delay in
taking decision on pricing of petro products eroded the profitability of oil
marketing companies in public sector like Hindustan Petroleum
Corporation Limited.
Activity 1
List the various risks that Tata Nano as a project faced/is facing.
Hint: legal risk, competition, increase in prices of inputs, technology
failure, political risk (no support from government) etc.
The changing trends in fashion, makes the fashion business risky and
therefore, pay-back period has been endorsed as a tradition in India to take
decisions on whether to accept or reject such projects.
The usual risk in business is more concerned with the forecast of cash
flows. It is the down-side risk of lower cash flows arising from lower sales
and higher costs of operation that matters in formulating standards of pay-
back.
Caselet 2
Table 9.1 gives the details related to two projects.
Table 9.1: Details of Two Projects
Particulars Project A (Rs.) Project B (Rs.)
Initial cash outlay 10lakhs 10 lakhs
Cash flows
Year 1 5 lakhs 2 lakhs
Year 2 3 lakhs 2 lakhs
Year 3 1 lakh 3 lakhs
Year 4 1 lakh 3 lakhs
This method considers only time related risks and ignores all other risks of
the project under consideration.
The other techniques used in decision making as regards capital
expenditures and risks involved are:
(a) Risk adjusted discount rate
(b) Certainty equivalent approach
(c) Sensitivity analysis
(d) Probability distribution
(e) Decision tree model
We will now take a brief look at each of these models in the following
sections.
Solved Problem – 1
An investment will have an initial outlay of Rs 100,000. It is expected to
generate cash inflows. Table 9.2 highlights the cash inflow for four years.
Solution
a) NPV can be computed using risk free rate. Table 9.3 shows NPV
calculation using the risk free rate.
Activity-2
Find the Expected Value of CFAT of the two projects A and B.
Project A Project B
CFAT (Rs.) Probability CFAT Probability (Rs.)
15,000 .2 20,000 .1
25,000 .6 40,000 .7
45,000 .2 60,000 .2
Hint:
Project A: Rs. 27,000, Project B Rs. 42,000
Solved Problem – 2
A project costs Rs. 50,000. It is expected to generate cash inflows as
shown in table 9.5.
Table 9.5: Generation of cash inflows
Certain PV PV of
Uncertain
Year CE cash factor certain cash
cash inflows
flows at 10% inflows
1 32000 0.9 28800 0.909 26179
2 27000 0.6 16200 0.826 13381
3 20000 0.5 10000 0.751 7510
4 10000 0.3 3000 0.683 2049
PV of certain
49119
cash inflows
Initial cash
(50000)
out-lay
NPV (881)
If internal rate of return (IRR) is used, the rate of discount at which NPV is
equal to zero is computed and then compared with the minimum (required)
risk free rate. If IRR is greater than specified minimum risk-free rate, the
project is accepted, otherwise rejected.
(c) Standard deviation for project as a whole (This is also referred as the
standard deviation of the present value distribution.)
(d) Determining probability of positive NPV using normal distribution
Measures of risk
As discussed risk refers to variability, of which there are several measures,
the important ones being –
Range
Mean absolute deviation
Standard deviation
Coefficient of variation
Semi-variance
In order to measure the expected value and dispersion of a variable, its
probability distribution is required. In some cases the probability distribution
can be defined with a fairly high degree of objectivity on the basis of past
evidence. In most of the real life cases, the probability distribution is highly
subjective.
When the selection of a project is considered, to arrive at the risk profile, the
probability distribution of net present value, an absolute measure, is
transformed into the probability distribution of probability index, a relative
measure. After this is done, the dispersion of the profitability index of the
project is compared with the maximum risk profile acceptable to the
management, for the expected profitability index of the project. Thus, the
decision on project selection is arrived at. If the profitability index is high, the
probability that the NPV is negative is negligible, even if the dispersion is
wide.
Solved Problem – 3
A company has identified a project with an initial cash outlay of
Rs. 50, 000. Table 9.7 shows the distribution of cash flow in the life of the
project for three years.
Table 9.7: Life of the Project for Three Years
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
Cash Cash Cash
Probability Probability Probability
inflow inflow inflow
15, 000 0.2 20, 000 0.3 25, 000 0.4
18, 000 0.1 15, 000 0.2 20, 000 0.3
35, 000 0.4 15, 000 0.2 20, 000 0.3
32, 000 0.3 30, 000 0.2 45, 000 0.1
Variance
A study of dispersion of cash flows of projects will help the management in
assessing the risk associated with the investment proposal.
Dispersion is computed by variance or standard deviation.
Variance measures the deviation of each possible cash flow from the
expected.
Square root of variance is standard deviation.
Solved Problem – 4
Table 9.9 shows details related to a project that requires an initial cost of
Rs. 500 thousand.
Table 9.9: Details of a Project (in’000)
Year Economic conditions Cash flows Probability
1 High growth 200 0.3
Average growth 150 0.6
No growth 40 0.1
2 High growth 300 0.3
Average growth 200 0.5
No growth 500 0.2
3 High growth 400 0.2
Average growth 250 0.6
No growth 30 0.2
Discount rate is 10%
Determine the NPV and the standard deviation for the respective years.
Solution
Table 9.10 shows the NPV for the first year.
Table 9.10: NPV for the First Year (in’000)
Economic Cash Expected value of
Probability
condition inflow cash inflow
High growth 200 0.3 60
Average growth 150 0.6 90
No growth 40 0.1 4
Expected value 154
Expected NPV
154 200 236
– 500
1.10 1.10 2 1.10 3
= 140 + 165.3 + 177.3 – 500 = (17.4) negative NPV
Table 9.13 shows the standard deviation for the first year.
Table 9.13: Standard Deviation for the First Year (in ‘000)
Cash inflow Expected value 2 2
(C-E) (C-E) × probability
C E
2 2
200 154 (46) (46) × 0.3 = 634.8
2 2
150 154 (- 4) (- 4) × 0.6 = 9.6
2 2
40 154 (-114) (-114) × 0.1 = 1299.6
Variance 1944.0
Table 9.14 shows the standard deviation for the second year.
Table 9.14: Standard Deviation for the Second Year (in’000)
Cash inflow Expected value 2 2
(C-E) (C-E) × probability
C E
2 2
300 200 (100) (100) × 0.3 = 3,000
2 2
200 200 (0) (0) × 0.5 = 0
2 2
50 200 (-150) (-150) × 0.2 = 4,500
Total = 7,500
Merits
It helps management to identify the underlying variables and their inter-
relationships.
It indicates how robust or vulnerable a project is to the changes in the
underlying variables.
It indicates where further work is required. If the NPV or IRR is highly
sensitive to changes in certain variables, it is desirable to gather more
information on them.
Demerits
It may fail to provide leads. If such analysis merely presents a
complicated set of switching values, it may not highlight the risk
characteristics of the project.
The study of the impact of variation in one factor at a time, holding other
factors constant, may not be very meaningful, when the underlying
factors are likely to be interrelated.
Solved Problem – 5
A company has two mutually exclusive projects under consideration –
project A and project B.
Each project requires an initial cash outlay of Rs.300000 and has an
effective life of 10 years. The company’s cost of capital is 12%. Table
9.16 shows forecast of cash flows made by the management. What is the
NPV of the project?
Table 9.16: Details of Project A and B
Economic
Project A Project B
Environment Annual cash inflows Annual cash inflows
Pessimistic 65, 000 25, 000
Expected 75, 000 75, 000
Optimistic 90, 000 1, 00, 000
Solved Problem 6
R & D section of a company has developed an electric moped. The firm is
ready for pilot production and test marketing. This will cost Rs. 20 million
and takes six months. Management believes that there is a 70% chance
that the pilot production and test marketing will be successful.
In case of success, the company can build a plant costing Rs. 150 million.
The plant will generate annual cash inflow of Rs. 30 million for 20 years if
the demand is high or an annual cash inflow of 20 million if the demand is
low. High demand has a probability of 0.6 and low demand has a
probability of 0.4 with a cost of capital of 12%.
Determine the optimal course of action using decision tree analysis.
Solution
Working Notes: Start from right hand side (C2) of the decision tree
Step 1: Computation of Expected Monetary Value at point C2. Here EMV
represents expected NPV.
Step 3: Here the decision criterion is “select the EMV with the highest
value”. So select D21 and truncate D22
Step 4: Calculate the EMV at chance point C1
Table 9.22 shows the computation of EMV at point C1.
Table 9.22: Computation of EMV at Point C1
Based on the above evaluation, we find that the optimal decision strategy
is as follows:
1. Choose D11 (carry out pilot production and market test) at the
decision point D1 and wait for the outcome at the chance point C1.
2. If the outcome at C1 is C11 (success) invest Rs150 million, else if the
outcome at C1 is C12 (failure) stop.
Complex projects involve huge out lay and hence are risky. There is the
need to define and evaluate scientifically, the complex managerial
problems arising out of the sequence of interrelated decisions with
consequential outcomes of high risk. It is effectively answered by
decision tree approach
Structuring a complex project decision with many sequential investment
decisions demands effective project risk management. This is possible
only with the help of an analytical tool like decision tree approach
Ability to eliminate unprofitable outcomes helps in arriving at optimum
decision stages in time sequence.
Self Assessment Questions
17. Decision-tree can handle the __________ of complete investment
proposals.
18. __________ portrays inter-related sequential and critical multi-
dimensional element of major project decisions.
19. Adequate attention is given to the ___________ in an investment
decision under decision-tree approach.
20. ___________ are effectively handled by decision-tree approach.
9.9 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Risk in project evaluation arises on account of the inability of the firm to
predict the performance of the firm with certainty.
Risk in capital budgeting decision may be defined as the variability of
actual returns from the expected.
There are many factors that affect forecasts of investment, costs and
revenues of a project.
It is possible to identify three types of risk: any project-stand-alone risk,
corporate risk and market risk. The sources of risks are as follows:
Project
Competition
Industry
International factors and
Market
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 272
Financial Management Unit 9
9.10 Glossary
Risk: It is defined as the variation of actual cash flows from the expected
cash flows.
9.12 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Risk in capital budgeting may be defined as the variation of actual cash
flows from the expected cash flows Refer to 9.1.1.
2. Capital budgeting involves four types of risks in a project: stand-alone
risk, portfolio risk, market risk and corporate risk. Refer to 9.2.
3. The basic principle of risk adjusted discount rate is that there should be
adequate reward in the form of return to the firms which decide to
execute risky business projects. Refer to 9.3.
4. Analysing the change in the project’s NPV or IRR on account of a given
change in one of the variables is called Sensitivity Analysis. Refer to 9.6
5. A decision tree is a diagram that exhibits the outcomes of an act under
various events. Refer to 9.8.
Demand
Size of Plant
High (Rs.’000) Low (Rs.’000)
Large 1200 300
Small 500 400
References:
Khan, M. Y. and Jain P. K. (2007). Financial Management, Text,
Problems & Cases, 5th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill Company, New Delhi.
Maheshwari, S.N.(2009)., Financial Management – Principles & Practice,
13th Edition, Sultan Chand & Sons.
Prasanna, Chandra (2007), Financial Management: Theory and Practice,
7th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill.
10.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, we discussed that capital budgeting decisions involve
huge outlay of funds. Funds available for projects may be limited. Therefore,
a firm has to prioritise the projects on the basis of availability of funds and
economic compulsion of the firm. In this unit we will discuss the concept of
capital rationing.
It is not possible for a company to take up all the projects at a time. There is
a need to rank them on the basis of strategic compulsion and funds
availability. Because companies will have to choose one amongst many
competing investment proposals, the need to develop criteria for capital
rationing cannot be ignored.
The companies may have many profitable and viable proposals but they
cannot execute them because of shortage of funds. Another constraint is
that the firms may not be able to generate additional funds for the execution
of all the projects.
When a firm imposes constraints on the total size of the firm’s capital
budget, it requires capital rationing. When capital is rationed, there is a need
to develop a method of selecting the projects that could be executed with
the company’s resources giving the highest possible net present value.
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
describe the meaning of capital rationing
recognise the need for capital rationing
explain the process of capital rationing
describe the various approaches to capital rationing
When capital markets are not favourable to the company, the firm cannot
tap the capital market for executing new projects even though the projects
have positive net present values. The following reasons attribute to the
external capital rationing:
The inability of the firm to procure required funds from capital market,
because the firm does not command the required investor’s confidence
National and international economic factors may make the market highly
volatile and unstable
Inability of the firm to satisfy the regularity norms for issuing instruments
needed to tap the market for funds
High cost of issue of securities i.e. high floatation costs. Smaller firms
may have to incur high costs of issue of securities. This discourages
small firms from tapping the capital market for funds
Debt constraints
Debt constraints also constitute to the internal constraints in capital
rationing. This constraint occurs mainly due to the issue of earlier debt
which prohibits the issue of debts in the firm up-to a certain level.
Now, we will look at the different types of capital rationing in the following
sections.
Self Assessment Questions
1. When a firm imposes constraints on the total size of its capital budget, it
is known as _____________.
2. Internal capital rationing is used by a firm as a ____________________.
3. Rigidities that affect the free flow of capital between firms cause
_________________.
4. Inability of a firm to satisfy the regularity norms for issue of equity shares
for tapping the market for funds causes __________________.
5. The various internal constraints for capital rationing are _____,
________, ______________, ____________ and ________.
6. Lack of ____ will become a huge failure and also an essential effect of
internal constraint.
7. The reasons for capital rationing are _______ and ________.
Profitability index
Profitability index (PI) is also known as benefit cash ratio. Profitability index
is the ratio of the present value of cash inflows to initial cash outlay. The
discount factor based on the required rate of return is used to discount the
cash inflows.
PI = Present value of cash inflows / initial cash outlay
return. IRR is the rate of return that a project earns. IRR can be determined
by solving the following equation for
Ct
r = CF0 where t = 1 to n
(1 r ) t
CF0 = Investment
Solved Problem – 1
Table 10.1 describes the cash inflows of three projects. Compute the NPV
and profitability index of all the three projects and rank them on the basis
of capital rationing.
Table 10.1: Details of the Projects
Cash Inflows
Project Initial Cash outlay Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
A 1,00,000 60,000 50,000 40,000
B 50,000 20,000 40,000 20,000
C 50,000 20,000 30,000 30,000
Cost of Capital is 15 %
Solution
Table 10.2 shows the NPV computation for project A.
Table 10.2: Computation of NPV for Project A
Year Cash in flows PV factor at 15% PV of Cash in flows
1 60,000 0.870 52,200
2 50,000 0.756 37,800
3 40,000 0.658 26,320
PV of Cash inflow 1,16,320 Formatted Table
60,800
Profitability index = 1.216
50,000
Table 10.4 shows the NPV computation for project C
Table 10.4: Computation of NPV for Project C
Year Cash inflows PV factor at 15% PV of Cash inflows
1 20,000 0.870 17,400
2 30,000 0.756 22,680
3 30,000 0.658 19,740
PV of Cash inflow 59,820
Initial Cash out lay (50,000)
NPV 9,820
59,820
Profitability index = 1.1964
50,000
If the firm has sufficient funds and no capital rationing restriction, then all
the projects can be accepted because all of them have positive NPVs.
Let us assume that the firm is forced to resort to capital rationing because
the total funds available for execution of project is only Rs. 1,00,000.
On the other hand, on the basis of profitability index, project B and C can
be executed with Rs. 1,00,000 because both of them incur individually an
initial cash outlay of Rs. 50,000.
The objective is to maximise NPV per rupee of capital and the projects
should be ranked on the basis of the profitability index. Funds should be
allocated on the basis of ranks assigned by profitability index.
Let us consider another problem discussing about the profitability index as
the basis of capital rationing.
Solved Problem – 2
Table 10.6 describes the cash inflows of three projects. Compute the NPV
and profitability index of all the three projects and rank them on the basis
of capital rationing.
Table 10.6: Details of a Firm
Cash Inflows
Project Initial Cash outlay Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
A 1,00,000 50,000 40,000 30,000
B 60,000 30,000 50,000 10,000
C 30,000 10,000 20,000 20,000
Cost of Capital is 15 %
Solution
Table 10.7 shows the computation of NPV.
Table 10.7: Computation of NPV
Year Cash in flows PV factor at 15% PV of Cash in flows
1 70,000 0.870 60,870
2 40,000 0.756 30,250
3 30,000 0.658 19,730
PV of Cash inflow 1,10,850
Initial Cash out lay (1,00,000)
NPV 10,850
PV of Cash inflows
Profitability index =
PV of Cash outflows
1,10,850
1.1085
1,00,000
Table 10.8: Project B
70,480
Profitability index = 1.175
60,000
Table 10.9: Project C
36,970
Profitability index = 1.232
30,000
Table 10.10: Ranking of Projects
If the firm has sufficient funds and no capital rationing restriction, then all
the projects can be accepted because all of them have positive NPVs.
Let us assume that the firm is forced to resort to capital rationing because
the total funds available for execution of project is only Rs.1,00,000.
In this case, on the basis of NPV criterion, project A will be cleared. It
incurs an initial cash outlay of Rs. 1,00,000. After allocating Rs. 1,00,000
to project A, left over funds is nil. Therefore, on the basis of NPV criterion
other projects i.e. B and C cannot be taken up for execution by the firm. It
will increase the net wealth of the firm by Rs. 10,850.
On the other hand on the basis of profitability index, project B and C can
be executed with Rs. 1,00,000 because both of them incur individually an
initial cash outlay of Rs. 60,000 and Rs. 30,000.
Therefore, with the execution of projects B and C, increase in net wealth
of the firm will be 10480 + 6970 = Rs. 17450.
Linear programming
Linear programming (LP) approach to capital rationing, tries to achieve
maximum NPV subject to many constraints. Here the objective function is
maximisation of sum of the NPVs of the projects.
Here, the constraints matrix incorporates all the restrictions associated with
capital rationing imposed by the firm.
Caselet
Let us consider a wine production problem and try to solve it using linear
programming approach. A firm, has decided to produce two types of wine
(X and Y), to sell to the local shops. Now, the firm should know the profit
figures for each type. The firm should know the requirements of each
type of wine in terms of their ingredients, namely, grapes, sugar and
extract. When the firm gets to know the constraints on these ingredients,
it should be in a position to know the best way to proceed. In this way,
the firm should obtain information on how to use the resources to
maximise the profit.
Integer programming
LP may give an optimal mix of projects in which there may be a need to
accept the fraction of a project. Accepting a fraction of a project is not
feasible. Therefore, the optimum may not be attainable. The actual
implementation of projects may be suboptimal. When projects are not
divisible, integer programming can be employed to avoid the chances of
accepting fraction of projects.
Now, let us discuss the merits and demerits of programming approach.
10.6 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Often, firms are forced to ration the funds among the eligible projects
that the firm wants to take up.
The inability of the firm in finding adequate funds for execution of the
projects could be due to many factors. It may be due to external factors
or internal constraints imposed by the management.
External capital rationing occurs mainly because of imperfections in
capital markets.
Internal capital rationing is caused by restrictions imposed by the
management.
10.7 Glossary
Capital rationing:
Impositions of restrictions by a firm on the funds allocated for fresh
investment is called internal capital rationing.
Even if the reinvestment has the same risk as the project, r is not
necessarily equal to RADR.
Thus, a finance manager considers all the situations and scenarios and then
depends only on the internal rate of return in ranking the projects.
10.10 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Capital rationing refers to a situation in which the firm is under a
constraint of funds, limiting its capacity to take up and execute all the
profitable projects. Refer to 10.2
2. External capital rationing occurs due to the imperfections of capital
market Refer to 10.2
3. Impositions of restrictions by a firm on the funds allocated for fresh
investment is called internal capital rationing Refer to 10.2
4. The objective of capital expenditure decision-making, under conditions of
capital rationing, should be to maximise the NPV of the set of
investments that are selected Refer to 10.4
The expected life period for each of these projects was 6 years, 4 years,
5 years and 5 years, respectively.
The likely annual cash inflow generated by each of these projects was
Rs. 13 lakhs, Rs. 18 lakhs, Rs. 19 lakhs and Rs. 28 lakhs, respectively.
The salvage value of each of these units was estimated as Rs. 2 lakhs,
Rs. 6 lakhs, Rs. 1 lakh and Rs. 7 lakhs, respectively.
Based on the above information, the management committee members, Mr.
Gajendra Shukla and Mr. Rajeev Sharma attempted at evaluating the
projects assuming the cost of capital at 12%. Gajendra used the criterion of
NPV while Rajeev used the criterion of profitability index, to rank the
projects. When they finally compared, they realised that their rankings were
different.
Discussion Questions:
1. What were the rankings arrived at by Mr.Gajendra Shukla as per the
NPV criterion?
2. What were the rankings arrived at by Mr.Rajeev Sharma?
3. What do you think is the final and best option for Prakash Tools Ltd.?
Justify your response.
4. What would your response to the above question be, if it is stated that
(a) The company has no capital constraints.
(b) The company has a constraint and it can spare only Rs. 85 lakhs.
(c) Projects in Chennai and Bangalore are mutually exclusive*.
(Hint: Net Present Value associated with a project = Present value of all
cash flows + Present value of salvage value – Initial outlay.
Hint: * A set of mutually exclusive projects maybe defined as a set if projects
from which only one project may be selected.)
References:
11.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, we have discussed the concept of capital rationing. As it
is not possible for a company to take up all the projects at a time, there is a
need to rank them on the basis of strategic compulsion and funds
availability. This ranking is done with the help of capital rationing. In this unit
we will discuss about the management of working capital.
Working capital is the capital required by a business for its day to day
operations. It is that portion of a business asset which is used frequently in
current operations and in the operating cycle of the firm.
Activity 1
List the key components of current assets and current liabilities
Hint: Refer to section 11.2
Following are some adversities that may affect the firm in case of
inadequate working capital:
Growth may be stunted. It may become difficult for the enterprise to
undertake profitable projects due to non-availability of working capital.
Implementation of operating plans may become difficult and
consequently the profit goals may not be achieved.
Cash crisis may emerge due to paucity of working funds.
Operating inefficiencies may creep in due to difficulties in meeting day to
day commitments.
Optimum capacity utilisation of fixed assets may not be achieved due to
non-availability of the working capital.
The business may fail to honour its commitment in time, thereby
adversely affecting its credibility. This situation may lead to business
closure.
The business may be compelled to buy raw materials on credit and sell
finished goods on cash. In the process it may end up with increasing
cost of purchases and reducing selling prices by offering discounts. Both
these situations would affect profitability adversely.
Non-availability of stocks due to non-availability of funds may result in
production stoppage.
Fixed assets may not be efficiently used due to lack of working funds,
thus lowering the rate of return on investments in the process.
While under-assessment of working capital has disastrous implications on
business, over-assessment of working capital also has its own dangers.
Some of the issues that may crop up due to excessive working capital are
as follows:
Excess of working capital may result in unnecessary accumulation of
inventories.
It may lead to offer too liberal credit terms to buyers and very poor
recovery system and cash management.
It may make management complacent leading to its inefficiency.
Over-investment in working capital makes capital less productive and
may reduce return on investment.
Thus, the working capital is the lifeline of any business unit. Working capital
is very essential for success of a business and therefore, it needs efficient
management and control. Each of the components of the working capital
needs proper management to optimise profit. When we are trying to
understand the need for working capital, it is also important to identify some
of the significant factors that affect the composition of working capital or
current assets.
Factors that affect working capital are as follows:
Nature of business/industry
Size of business/scale of operations
Growth prospects
Nature of raw material used
Business/manufacturing cycle
Process technology used
Operating cycle and rapidity of turnover
Operating efficiency
Nature of finished goods
Profit margin and profit appropriation
Policies on depreciation, taxation and dividends
Government regulations
We will take a better look at such factors in the upcoming section 11.7. In
the next section, we will proceed to learn about the concept of operating
cycle of a firm and its implications on working capital management.
The five phases of the operating cycle occur on a continuous basis. The
successive events that typically take place in an operating cycle have been
depicted above. On perusal, it can be understood that the funds invested in
operations are recycled back into cash and further operations.
Solved Problem – 1
Table 11.1 gives the complete details of sales and costs of the goods
produced by XYZ ltd for the year 31.03.08.
Table 11.1: Sales and Costs Produced by XYZ Ltd.
Sales 80,000 Inventory
Cost of goods 56,000 31.03.07 9,000
31.03.08 12,000
Accounts Receivables
31.03.07 12,000
31.03.08 16,000
Accounts Payable
31.03.07 7,000
31.03.08 10,000
10500 365
68.4 days
56000
Receivables Conversion Period
Average Accounts Re ceivables
365
= Annual Sales
( 12000 16000 ) / 2365
63.9 days
80000
Payables Conversion Period
Average Accounts Payables
= 365
Annual Cost of Goods Sold
(7000 10000 ) / 2 365
56000
8500 365
55.4 days
56000
Operating Cycle = ICP + RCP
= 68.4 + 63.9 = 132.3 days
Cash Conversion Cycle= OC – PDP
= 132.3 – 55.4 = 76.9 days
Activity 2
Indicate whether the operating cycle in the following industries is short
(less than 30 days), medium (less than 6 months) or long (more than 6
months)
Steel, rice, vegetables, fruits, jewelry, processed food, furniture, mining,
flowers and textiles
Hint:
Short: vegetables, fruits, flowers
Medium: rice, fruits, processed food,
Long: Steel, jewelry, furniture, mining, textiles
The cash conversion cycle shows the time interval over which additional
non-spontaneous sources of working capital financing must be obtained to
carry out firm’s activities. An increase in the length of operating cycle,
without a corresponding increase in payables deferral period, increases the
cash conversion cycle. Any increase in cash conversion cycle leads to
additional working capital needs of the firm.
Self Assessment Questions
16. The time gap between acquisition of resources from suppliers and
collection of cash from customers is known as ______.
17. ___________ is the average length of time required to produce and sell
the product.
18. __________ is the average length of time required to convert the firm’s
receivables into cash.
19. _________ conversion cycle is the length of time between firms’ actual
cash expenditure and its own receipt.
From the above calculations, the gross operating cycle period is obtained as
(p1 + p2 + p3 + p4) days. When the average payment period of p5 is
subtracted from the gross operating cycle period, the resultant figure is the
actual operating cycle period. When the operating cycle is short, it indicates
that the locking up of funds in current assets is for a relatively short period
and the company can obtain greater mileage from each rupee invested in
current assets.
Each constituent of the working capital is valued on the basis of valuation
enumerated in table 11.2 for the holding period estimated, as detailed
above. The total of all such valuation becomes the total estimated working
capital requirement.
11.9.1 Estimation of current assets
Similarly, we can estimate the current assets. Current assets are estimated
as follows:
Average investment in raw material is estimated
Average investment in work-in-progress inventory is estimated
Average investment in finished goods inventory is estimated
Average investment in receivables (both in debtors and bills receivables)
is estimated based on credit policy that the firm wishes to pursue
Based on the firm’s attitude towards risk, access to borrowing sources,
past experience and nature of business, firms decide on the policy of
maintaining the minimum cash balances
The investments in the various components of current assets are calculated
on the basis of the operating cycle and holding period, as discussed earlier.
In other words, the operating cycle is applied to estimate the working capital
requirement.
11.9.2 Estimation of current liabilities
Current liabilities are estimated based on the following factors: trade
creditors, direct wages and overheads.
Trade creditors
The average amount of financing available to the firm is estimated based on
the production budget, raw material consumption and the credit period
enjoyed from suppliers.
Direct wages
Estimation is made on total wages, to be paid on average basis, based on
production budget, direct labour cost per unit and average time-lag in
payment of wages.
Overheads
Estimation on an average basis of the outstanding amount to be paid to the
creditors for overhead is estimated based on production budget, overhead
cost per unit and average time-lag in payment of overhead.
Solved Problem – 2
A pro-forma cost sheet of a company provides the details as shown in
table 11.3.
Table 11.3: Pro-forma Sheet
Raw material 52.00
Direct labour 19.50
Overheads 39.00
Total cost 110.50
Profit 19.50
Selling price 130.00
RMC 70000 52
RMCP 30 303333 .33
360 360
2. Work in process inventory
Solved Problem – 3
The annual figures shown in table 11.4, are regarding the sales and the
production of a company, XYZ ltd.
Table 11.4: Annual Figures of XYZ Ltd
Sales (at two months credit) Rs. 36,00,000
Materials consumed (suppliers extend two months credit) Rs. 9,00,000
Wages paid (monthly in arrears) Rs. 7,20,000
Manufacturing expenses outstanding at the end of the Rs. 80,000
year(cash expenses are paid one month in arrears)
Total administrative expenses paid, as above Rs. 2,40,000
Sales promotion expenses, paid quarterly in advance Rs.1,20,000
Depreciation
Total manufacturing expenses – Cash manufacturing expenses
10,80,000 – 9,60,000 = Rs.1,20,000
The total cash cost is determined and shown in the following table 11.6
Table 11.6: Total Cash Cost
Total manufacturing cost Rs.27,00,000
Less: depreciation Rs.1,20,000
Cash manufacturing cost Rs.25,80,000
Total manufacturing expenses Rs.2,40,000
Sales promotion expenses Rs.1,20,000
Total cash cost Rs.29,40,000
11.10 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
All companies are required to maintain a minimum level of current assets
at all point of time. This level is called core or permanent working capital
of the company.
Working capital management is concerned with the determination of
optimum level of working capital and its effective utilisation.
To assess the working capital required for a firm to conduct its operations
smoothly, firms use operating cycle concept and compute each
component of working capital.
11.11 Glossary
Gross working capital: It refers to the amounts invested in various
components of current assets.
Net working capital: It is the excess of current assets over current liabilities
and provisions.
Operating cycle: It is the time gap between acquisition of resources and
collection of cash from customers.
Working capital: It is the difference between current assets and current
liabilities.
11.13 Answers
Reference:
Pandey, I. M., (2005), Financial Management, Vikas Publishing House
2005, 9th edition
Prasanna, Chandra (2007), Financial Management: Theory and
Practice, 7th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill.
E-Reference :
http://www.livemint.com/2011/05/03225215/Sintex-improves-working-
capita.html retrieved on 12/12/2011.
12.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, we discussed the working capital management, current
assets and liabilities and determinants of working capital. Cash is the most
important current asset for a business operation. It is the energy that drives
business activities and also gives the ultimate output expected by the
owners. It is of vital importance to the daily operations of a business. While
the proportion of assets held in the form of cash is very small, its efficient
management is crucial to the solvency of the business. The firm should
keep sufficient cash at all times. Excessive cash will not contribute to the
firm’s profits and shortage of cash will disrupt its manufacturing operations,
as discussed in the previous unit. Therefore, planning and controlling cash
are very important tasks.
In this unit, we will discuss the meaning of cash, why companies hold cash,
the concept of cash management and basics of cash budgeting as a tool to
efficient cash management.
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
explain the meaning and importance of cash management in a firm
analyse the motives for holding cash
analyse the objectives of cash management
elucidate the different models of determining the optimal cash balances
understand the concept of financial planning
analyse the techniques for cash forecasting
12.1.1 Meaning of cash
Before getting into various other concepts of cash management, let us first
discuss the meaning of cash and near cash assets. “Cash” can be classified
into or can be used in two senses (see figure 12.1) – Narrow sense and
Broader sense.
Transaction motive
Transaction motive refers to a firm holding some cash to meet its routine
expenses that are incurred in the ordinary course of business. A firm will
need finances to meet excess of payments like wages, salaries, rent, selling
expenses, taxes and interests.
The necessity to hold cash will not arise if there is a perfect co-ordination
between the inflows and the outflows. However, these two never completely
coincide. At times, receipts may exceed outflows and at other times,
payments outrun inflows. For such periods when payments exceed inflows,
the firm should maintain sufficient balances to be able to make the required
payments. For transactions motive, a firm may invest its cash in marketable
securities. Generally, they purchase securities whose maturity will coincide
with the payment obligations.
Precautionary motive
Precautionary motive refers to the need to hold cash to meet some
exigencies which cannot be foreseen. Such unexpected needs may arise
due to sudden slow down in collection of accounts receivable, cancellation
of an order by a customer, sharp increase in prices of raw materials and
skilled labour. The money held to meet such unforeseen fluctuations in cash
flows is called precautionary balances.
The amount of precautionary balance also depends on the firm’s ability to
raise additional money at a short notice. The greater the creditworthiness of
the firm in the market, the lesser is the need for such balances. Generally,
such cash balances are invested in high liquid and low risk marketable
securities.
Speculative motive
Speculative motive relates to holding cash to take advantage of unexpected
changes in business scenarios that are not normal in the usual course of the
firm’s dealings. Speculative motive may also result in investing in profit-
backed opportunities as the firm comes across. The firms often want to
make profits from the movements in market prices of investment options
such as securities. Enough reserves of funds allow the companies, the
flexibility to try out these opportunities.
The firm may hold cash to benefit from a falling price scenario or getting a
quantity discount when paid in cash or delay purchases of raw materials in
anticipation of decline in prices. By and large, business firms do not hold
cash for speculative purposes and even if it is done, it is done only with
small amounts of cash. Speculation may sometimes also backfire, in which
case the firms lose a lot.
Compensating motive
Compensating motive is yet another motive to hold cash to compensate
banks for providing certain services and loans. Banks provide a variety of
services such as cheque collection, transfer of funds through Demand Draft
and Money Transfer
To avail all these purposes, the customers need to maintain a minimum
balance in their accounts at all times. The balance so maintained cannot be
utilised for any other purpose. Such balances are called compensating
balance.
Compensating balances can restrict to any of the following forms:
Maintaining an absolute minimum, say for example, a minimum of
Rs. 25000 in current account or
Maintaining an average minimum balance of Rs. 25000 over the month.
A firm is more affected by the first restriction than the second restriction. Let
us now discuss the objectives of cash management.
Generally, cash is not paid immediately for purchases but after an agreed
period of time. This is deferral of payment and is also considered as a
source of finance. Trade credit does not involve explicit interest charges, but
there is an implicit cost involved. If the credit term is for example, 2/10, net
30; it means the company will get a cash discount of 2% for a payment
made within 10 days, or else the entire payment is to be made within 30
days. Since the net amount is due within 30 days, not availing discount
means paying an extra 2% for the 20-day period.
The other advantage of meeting the payments on time is that it prevents
bankruptcy that arises out of the firm’s inability to honour its commitments.
At the same time, care should be taken not to keep large cash reserves as it
involves high cost.
Minimising funds held in the form of cash balances
Trying to achieve the second objective is very difficult. A high level of cash
balance will help the firm to meet its first objective, but keeping excess
reserves is also not desirable as funds in its original form is idle cash and a
non-earning asset. It is not profitable for firms to maintain huge balances.
A low level of cash balance may mean failure to meet the payment
schedule. The aim of cash management is therefore to have an optimal
level of cash by bringing about a proper synchronisation of inflows and
outflows, and to check the spells of cash deficits and cash surpluses.
Seasonal industries are classic examples of mismatches between inflows
and outflows. The efficiency of cash management can be augmented by
controlling a few important factors:
Prompt billing and mailing
There is a time lag between the dispatch of goods and preparation of
invoice. Reduction of this gap will bring in early remittances.
Collection of cheques and remittances of cash
Generally, we find a delay in the receipt of cheques and their deposits in
banks. The delay can be reduced by speeding up the process of
collecting and depositing cash or other instruments from customers.
Float
The concept of ‘float’ helps firms to a certain extent in cash
management. Float arises because of the practice of banks not crediting
the firm’s account in its books when a cheque is deposited by it and not
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 332
Financial Management Unit 12
debiting the firm’s account in its books when a cheque is issued by it,
until the cheque is cleared and cash is realised or paid respectively.
A firm issues and receives cheques on a regular basis. It can take
advantage of the concept of float. Whenever cheques are deposited in
the bank, credit balance increases in the firm’s books but not in bank’s
books until the cheque is cleared and money is realised. This refers to
‘collection float’, that is, the amount of cheques deposited into a bank
and clearance awaited.
Likewise the firm may take benefit of ‘payment float’.
When net float is positive, the balance in the firm’s books is less than the
bank’s books; when net float is negative; the firm’s book balance is higher
than in the bank’s books.
We can, thus, say that the objectives of cash management are
straightforward – (a) meeting payments schedule and (b) maximise the
value of funds while minimising the cost of funds.
A firm’s cash balance is generally not constant over time. It would therefore
be advisable to ascertain the maximum, minimum and average cash needs
over a designated period of time. We should also understand the
opportunity cost that exists in the maintenance of cash balance:
Cash can be invested in acquiring assets such as inventory, or for
purchasing securities. Opportunities for such investments may be lost if
a certain minimum cash balance is not held.
Holding cash can mean that it cannot be used to offset financial risks
from short term debts.
Excessive dependence on internally generated funds can isolate the firm
from the short term financial market.
A balance has to be maintained between these aspects at all times. So how
much is optimum cash? This section explains the models for determining
the appropriate balance. Two important models which determine the optimal
cash needs are studied here:
Baumol model
Miller-Orr model
12.5.1 Baumol model
The Baumol model helps in determining the minimum amount of cash that a
manager can obtain by converting securities into cash. Baumol model is an
approach to establish a firm’s optimum cash balance under certainty. As
such, firms attempt to minimise the sum of the cost of holding cash and the
cost of converting marketable securities to cash. Baumol model of cash
management trades off between opportunity cost or carrying cost or holding
cost and the transaction cost.
The Baumol model is based on the following assumptions:
The firm is able to forecast its cash requirements in an accurate way.
The firm’s payouts are uniform over a period of time.
The opportunity cost of holding cash is known and does not change
with time.
The firm will incur the same transaction cost for all conversions of
securities into cash.
A company sells securities and realises cash, and this cash is used to make
payments. As the cash balance decreases and reaches a point, the finance
C
Cash balance
C/2 Average
0 T1 T2 T3
Time
Total cost
Cost
Holding cost
Transaction cost
Cash balance C*
The optimum cash balance, C*, is obtained when the total cost is minimum,
which is expressed as:
C* = √2cT/k
Solved Problem – 1
A firm’s annual cost requirement is Rs. 20000000. The opportunity cost
of capital is 15% per annum. Rs. 150 is the per transaction cost of the
firm when it converts its short-term securities to cash. Find out the
optimum cash balance. What is the annual cost of the demand for the
optimum cash balance?
Solution
C* = √2cT/k = √[2*150*20000000] / 0.15 = Rs. 200000
The annual cost is Rs. 200000
150*(20000000/200000) + 0.15*(200000/2) = Rs. 30000
Annual cost of the demand = Rs. 30000
Solved Problem – 2
Mysore Lamps Ltd. requires Rs. 30 lakhs to meet its quarterly cash
requirements. The annual return on its marketable securities which are of
the tune of Rs. 30 lakhs is 20%. During the conversion of the securities
into cash necessities, a fixed cost of Rs. 3000 per transaction is
maintained. Compute the optimum conversion amount.
Solution
C* = √2cT/k = √[2*3000*3000000] / 0.05 = Rs. 600000
The optimum conversion amount is Rs. 600000
The rate of return is “20%/4” as 20% is the annual return and “4” signifies
that the fund requirement is done on a quarterly basis.
Solved Problem – 3
Mehta Industries have a policy of maintaining Rs. 500000 minimum cash
balance. The standard deviation of the company’s daily cash flows is
Rs. 200000. The interest rate is 14%. The company has to spend Rs. 150
per transaction. Calculate the upper and lower limits, and the return point
as per MO model.
Solution
Z = 3√3/4*(cσ2/i)
3√3/4*(150*2000002) / 0.14/365 = Rs. 227226
The upper control limit = lower limit + 3Z
= 500000 + 3*227226 = Rs. 1181678
Return point = lower limit + Z
= 500000 + 227226 = Rs. 727226
Average cash balance = lower limit + 4/3Z
= 500000 + 4/3*227226 = Rs. 802968
not be met in the future or at the end of the year, measures can be taken to
constrain expenditure or to increase revenues. The cash plan can contribute
to the decisions on the size, type and targeting of the measures required.
Forecasts are based on the past performance and future anticipation of
events. Cash planning can be performed on a daily, a weekly or a monthly
basis. Generally, monthly forecasts and cash plans are commonly prepared
by firms.
Let us now understand how cash budgets, as a tool, incorporates estimates
of future inflows and outflows of cash over a projected short period of time.
Cash budgets are part of the total budgeting process of a firm, under which
other budgets and statements are also prepared. Various information that
are generated during the preparation of operating budgets, such as sales
forecasts, wages and salaries, manufacturing expenses overheads, etc.,
become useful in the process. While operating budgets are prepared based
on the accrual principle, cash budgets are concerned with cash inflows and
outflows. The main sources for these cash flows are:
Cash Inflows:
Cash sales
Cash received from debtors
Cash received from loans, deposits, etc.
Cash receipt of other revenue income
Cash received from sale of investments or assets
Cash Outflows:
Cash purchases
Cash payment to creditors
Cash payment for other revenue expenditure
Cash payment for assets creation
Cash payment for withdrawals, taxes
Repayment of loans, etc.
Cash budgets are prepared based on the following three methods:
Receipts and Payments method
Income and Expenditure method
Balance Sheet method
Short-term cash forecasting is normally prepared under the receipts and
payments method, showing the time and magnitude of expected cash
inflows and outflows. Long term cash forecasting is generally made using
the adjusted net income method. This method of cash forecasting
resembles a funds flow statement and seeks to estimate the firm’s need for
cash at some future date and indicate whether this need can be met from
internal sources or not. In this unit, we will focus on short term forecasting.
A sample (suggestive) format of a cash budget is shown in table 12.1.
Table 12.2 shows the various items of cash receipts and payments, and
their basis of estimation.
Table 12.2: Various Items of Cash Receipts and Payments
Items Basis of estimation
Cash Sales Estimated sales and its division between
cash and credit sales
Collection of accounts receivables Estimated sales, its division between cash
and credit sales, and collection pattern
Interest and dividend receipts Firm’s portfolio of securities and return
expected from the portfolio
Increase in loans/deposits and Financing plan
issue of securities
Production Selling
Month Sales Purchases Wages
overheads overheads
Jan 60000 24000 10000 6000 5000
Feb 70000 27000 11000 6300 5500
March 82000 32000 10000 6400 6200
April 85000 35000 10500 6600 6500
May 96000 38800 11000 6400 7200
June 110000 41600 12500 6500 7500
The company has a policy of selling its goods at 50% on cash basis and
the rest on credit terms. Debtors are given a month’s time to pay their
dues. Purchases are to be paid off two months from the date of purchase.
The company has a time lag in the payment of wages of ½ a month and
the overheads are paid after a month. The company is also planning to
invest in a machine which will be useful for packing purposes, the cost
being Rs. 45000, payable in 3 equal instalments starting bi-monthly from
April.
It also expects to apply for loan in a bank for Rs. 50000 and the loan will
be granted in the month of July. The company has to pay advance income
tax of Rs. 20000 in the month of April. Salesmen are eligible for a
commission of 4% on total sales effected by them and this is payable one
month after the date of sale.
Solution
The cash balances, the cash payments and the closing cash balances of
the company are described clearly in table 12.4 and wages in table 12.5:
Table 12.4: Details of the Company
Working note:
The wages are calculated in table 12.5
12.8 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
All companies are required to maintain a minimum level of current
assets at all points of time.
Cash management is concerned with determination of relevant levels of
cash balances, near cash assets and their efficient use.
The need for holding cash arises due to a variety of motives –
transaction motive, speculation motive, precautionary motive and
compensating motive.
The objective of cash management is to make short-term forecasts of
cash inflows and outflows, investing surplus cash and finding means to
arrange for cash deficits.
Cash budgets help the finance manager to forecast the cash
requirements.
12.9 Glossary
Trade credit: The credit extended by the supplier of goods and services in
the normal course of business transactions.
12.11 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Prepare a cash budget for November and December. For more details,
refer to the example in section 12..7
2. Prepare a cash budget. For more details, refer to the example in section
12.7
account data that is timely, precise, and easy to access and interested in
initiating online transactions.
Investment solutions help to minimise excess balances and maximise
return on available funds.
References:
Pandey, I. M., (2005), Financial Management, Vikas Publishing House
2005, 9th edition
Prasanna, Chandra (2007), Financial Management: Theory and Practice,
7th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill.
13.1 Introduction
In the previous unit we studied about the cash management, model for
determining the optimal cash needs and cash planning. In this unit, we will
be studying the role of inventory in working capital. Inventories are the most
significant part of current assets of the manufacturing firms in India. Since
they constitute an important element of the total current assets held by a
firm, the need to manage inventories efficiently and effectively for ensuring
optimal investment in inventory cannot be ignored. Any lapse on the part of
the management of a firm in managing inventories may be the cause in
failure of the firm, as discussed in the previous units. The major objectives
of inventory management are:
Maximum satisfaction to customer
Minimum investment in inventory
Achieving low cost plant operation
Creation lag
Raw materials are purchased on credit and consumed to produce finished
goods. There is always a lag in payment to suppliers from whom raw
materials are procured. This is called spontaneous finance. Spontaneous
finance is that amount of a firm which is capable of enjoying the influences
of the quantum of working capital of the firm.
Storage lag
The goods manufactured or held for sale cannot be converted into cash
immediately. Before dispatching the goods to the customers on sale, there
is always a time lag. During this time lag goods are stored in warehouse.
Many expenses of storage will be recurring in nature and cannot be
avoided. The level of expenditure that a firm incurs on this account is
influenced by the inventory levels of the firm. This influences the working
capital management of a firm.
Sale lag
Firms sell their products on credit. There is some time lag between sale of
finished goods and collection of dues from customers. Firms which are
aggressive in capturing markets for their products maintain high levels of
inventory and allow their customers liberal credit period. This will increase
their investment in receivables. This increase in investment in receivables
will have its effect on working capital of the firms.
Sales
Customers place orders for goods only when they need it. But when
customers approach a firm with orders the firm must have adequate
inventory of finished goods to execute it. This is possible only when the
firm maintains ready stock of finished goods in anticipation of orders
from the customers.
If a firm suffers from constant customer complaints about the product
being out of stock, customers may migrate to other producers. This will
affect the firm’s customer’s base, customer loyalty and market share.
To avail quantity discounts
Suppliers give discounts for bulk purchases. Such discounts decrease
the cost per unit of inventory purchased. Such cost reduction increase
firm’s profit. A firm may go in for orders of large quantity to avail itself of
the benefit of quantity discounts.
Reduce risk of production stoppages
Manufacturing firms require a lot of raw materials and spares and tools
for production and maintenance of machines. Non availability of any vital
item can stop the production process. Production stoppage has serious
consequences. Loss of customers on account of the failure to execute
their orders will affect the firm’s profitability. To avoid such situations,
firms maintain inventories as hedge against production stoppages.
Reducing ordering costs and time
Every time a firm places an order it incurs cost of procuring it. It also
involves a lead time in procurement. In some cases the uncertainty in
supply due to certain administrative problems of the supplier of the
product will affect the production schedules of the organisation.
Material cost
Material cost is the cost of purchasing goods and related costs such as
transportation and handling costs that are associated with it.
Ordering cost
The expenses incurred to place orders with suppliers and replenish the
inventory of raw materials are called ordering cost. They include the costs of
the following:
a) Requisitioning
b) Purchase ordering or set-up
c) Transportation
d) Receiving, inspecting and receiving at the ware house.
These costs increase in proportion to the number of orders placed. Firms
maintaining large inventory levels, place a few orders and incur less
ordering costs.
Carrying cost
Costs incurred for maintaining the inventory in warehouses are called
carrying costs. They include interest on capital locked up in inventory,
storage, insurance, taxes, obsolescence, deterioration spoilage, salaries of
warehouse staff and expenses on maintenance of warehouse building. The
greater the inventory held, the higher the carrying costs.
Shortage costs or stock-out costs
These are the costs associated with either a delay in meeting the demand or
inability to meet the demand due to shortage of stock. These costs include:
Loss of profit on account of sales and loss caused by the stock out
Loss of future sales as customers migrate to other dealers
Loss of customer goodwill
Extra costs associated with urgent replenishment purchases
Measurement of shortage cost attributable to the firm’s failure to meet the
customers’ demand is difficult because it is intangible in nature and it affects
the operation of the firm.
Self Assessment Questions
1. Lead time is the time required to ____________.
2. Both excess and shortage of inventory affect the firms’ _____.
3. Precautionary motive of holding inventory is for guarding against the risk
of _______ and supply.
2 DK
Qx =
Kc
Solved Problem – 1
Annual consumption of raw materials is 40,000 units. Cost per unit is
Rs.16 along with a carrying cost of 15% per annum. The cost of placing
an order is given as Rs.480. Find out the EOQ of the raw materials.
Solution
2 × 40000 × 480
EOQ = = 4000 units
16 × 0.15
EOQ of the raw materials = 4000 units
Solved Problem – 2
Annual demand of a company is 30,000 units. The ordering cost per
order is Rs. 20(fixed) along with a carrying cost of Rs. 10 per unit per
annum. The purchase cost per unit i.e. price per unit is Rs. 32 per unit.
Determine EOQ, total number of orders in a year and the time-gap
between two orders.
Solution
2 DK
Qx
Kc
Maximum level
Maximum level is that level above which stock of inventory should never
rise.
Maximum level is fixed after taking into account the following factors.
Requirement and availability of capital
Availability of storage space and cost of storing
Keeping the quality of inventory intact
Price fluctuations
Risk of obsolescence
Restrictions, if any, imposed by the government
Maximum Level = Ordering level – (MRC x MDP) + standard ordering
quantity
Where, MRC = minimum rate of consumption
MDP = minimum lead time
Minimum level
Minimum level is that level below which stock of inventory should not
normally fall.
Minimum level = OL – (NRC x NLT)
Where, OL = Ordering level
NRC = Normal rate of consumption
NLT = Normal lead time
Ordering Level
Ordering level is the level at which action for replenishment of inventory is
initiated.
OL = MRC X MLT
Where, MRC = Maximum rate of consumption
MLT = Maximum lead time
Average stock level
Average stock level can be computed in two ways:
1. minimum level maximum level
2
Under certainty, re-order point refers to that inventory level which will meet
the consumption needs during the lead time.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 369
Financial Management Unit 13
Safety stock
Since it is difficult to predict usage and lead time accurately, provision is
made for handling the uncertainty in consumption due to changes in usage
rate and lead time. The firm maintains a safety stock to manage the stock –
out arising out of this uncertainty. When safety stock is maintained (When
variation is only in usage rate):
Solved Problem
A manufacturing company has an expected usage of 50,000 units of a
certain product during the next year. The cost of processing an order is Rs
20 and the carrying cost per unit per annum is Rs 0.50. Lead time for an
order is five days and the company will keep a reserve of two days usage.
Calculate EOQ and Re – order point. Assume 250 days in a year.
Solution
2 DK
EOQ
Kc
= √(2x 50000x20) = √4000000 = 2000 units
√0.50
= 2000 units
Re-order point
50000
Daily usage =
250
= 200 units
Safety stock = 2 x 200 = 400 units.
Re-order point (lead time x Average usage) + safety stock
(5 x 200) + 400 = 1,400 units
13.7 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Inventories form part of current assets of firm. Objectives of inventory
management are:
Maximum customer satisfaction
Optimum investment in inventory
Operation of the plant at the least cost structure
Inventories could be grouped into direct inventories as raw materials,
work-in-process inventories and finished goods inventory.
Indirect inventories are those items which are necessary for
production process but do not become part of the finished goods.
13.8 Glossary
Ordering costs: The expenses incurred to place orders with suppliers and
replenish the inventory of raw materials
Carrying costs: Costs incurred for maintaining the inventory in
warehouses.
13.10 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Inventories constitute an important component of a firm’s working capital
Refer 13.2
2. There are many techniques of management of inventory. Refer 13.5
3. Most of the industries which are subjected to seasonal fluctuations and
sales during different months of the year are usually different. Refer
13.5.2.1
4. There are various types of costs associated with the inventories. Refer
13.4.
The responsibility to rank these items and maintain control is handed over to
Mr. Rajeev Sharma and team.
Discussion Questions:
1. What is your understanding on the relationship between
inventory management and customer service? Explain in detail using
examples.
(Hint: Refer Role of Inventory)
2. What would be the ranking of inventory items listed in the case, as drawn
up by Mr. Rajeev?
(Hint: Refer ABC analysis)
3. Do you think the ABC system is a reliable approach? What in your view
are its advantages and limitations?
(Hint : Refer ABC analysis)
4. What is the importance of technology in inventory management in
present times? Give your response in the background of the case above.
(Hint: Refer Role of Inventory)
5. Supposing, M/s. Avinash Enterprises requires 75,000 units of a certain
item per annum and the cost per unit of the item is Rs.25. The ordering
cost is Rs, 250 per order and the inventory carrying cost is Rs.10 per unit
per annum.
a) Calculate the EOQ.
b) Ascertain what the company should do if the supplier of the item
offers a cash discount of 2% for a minimum order size of 3500 units.
(Hint : Refer EOQ)
(Source: www.sixsigmasystems.com)
References:
Prasanna, Chandra (2007), Financial Management: Theory and
Practice, 7th Edition, Tata McGraw Hill.
Pandey, I. M., (2005), Financial Management, Vikas Publishing House
2005, 9th edition,
E-Reference:
www.sixsigmasystems.com retrieved on 12-12-2011
14.1 Introduction
In the previous unit, we studied about inventory management, role of
inventory in working capital, costs associated with inventories. In this unit,
we will discuss about costs associated with maintaining receivables. Firms
sell goods on credit to increase the volume of sales. In the present era of
intense competition, to improve their sales, business firms offer relaxed
conditions of payment to their customers. When goods are sold on credit,
finished goods get converted into receivables.
Trade credit is a marketing tool that functions as a bridge for the movement
of goods from the firm’s warehouse to its customers. When a firm sells
goods on credit, receivables are created. The receivables arising out of
trade credit have three features:
Receivables that arise out of trade credit involve an element of risk.
Therefore, before sanctioning credit, careful analysis of the risk involved
needs to be done.
Receivables out of trade credit are based on economic value. Buyer
gets economic value in goods immediately on sale, while the seller
receives an equivalent value later on.
Receivables out of trade credit have an element of futurity. The buyer
makes payment in future.
Amounts due from customers, when goods are sold on credit are called
trade debits or receivables. Receivables form a part of the current assets.
These constitute a significant portion of the total current assets of the
buyers, after inventories.
Receivables are assets – accounts representing amount due to the firm
from sale of goods/services in the ordinary course of business.
The main objective of selling goods on credit is to promote sales, for
increasing the profits of the firms. Customers always prefer buying on credit
rather than buying on cash. They always go to a supplier who gives credit.
Therefore, all firms grant credit to their customers to increase sales, profit
and to sustain competition.
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
explain the meaning of receivables management
recognise the costs associated with maintaining receivable
determine the credit policy variables
define the process of evaluation of credit policy
Meaning of receivables management
Receivables are a direct result of credit. A firm resorts to credit sales to push
up its sales which in turn, push up the profits earned by the firm. At the
same time, by selling goods on credit the funds of the accounts receivables
are blocked.
Therefore, additional funds are required for the operating needs of the
business, which involve extra costs in terms of interest. Moreover, increase
in receivables also increases the chances of bad debts. Thus, creation of
accounts receivables is beneficial as well as dangerous to the firm.
The financial manager needs to follow a policy of using cash funds
economically to such an extent that it is possible to extend the receivables
to enhance the chances of increasing sales and making more profits.
Management of accounts receivables may, therefore, be defined as the
process of making decision related to the investment of funds in receivables
for maximising the overall return on the investment of the firm.
Capital cost
When firm sells goods on credit, the good achieves higher sales. Selling
goods on credit has consequences of blocking the firm’s resources in
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 383
Financial Management Unit 14
receivables, as there is a time lag between a credit sale and cash receipt
from customers.
To the extent the funds are held up in receivables, the firm has to arrange
for additional funds to meet its own obligation of monthly as well as daily
recurring expenditure. Additional funds may have to be raised either out of
profits or from outside.
In both the cases, the firm incurs a cost. In the former case, there is the
opportunity cost of the income the firm could have earned had the same
amount been invested in some other profitable avenue. In the latter case of
obtaining funds from outside, the firm has to pay interest on the loan taken.
Therefore, sanctioning credit to customers for the sale of goods has a
capital cost.
Administration cost
When a firm sells goods on credit it has to incur two types of administration
costs:
Credit investigation and supervision costs
Collection costs
Before sanctioning credit to a customer, the firm has to investigate the credit
rating of the customer to ensure that credit given will be recovered on time.
Therefore, administration costs are incurred in this process.
Costs incurred in collecting receivables are administrative in nature. These
include additional expenses on staff for administering the process of
collection of receivables from customers.
Delinquency cost
The firm incurs this cost when the customer fails to pay back the amount on
the expiry of credit period. These costs take the form of sending reminders
and legal charges.
Bad-debts or Default costs
When the firm is unable to recover the due amount from its customers, it
results in bad debts. Defaults occur when a firm relaxes its credit policy, for
customers with relatively low credit rating. In this process, a firm may make
credit sales to customers who do not pay at all.
Credit period
Cash discounts and
Collection programme
These variables are related and have a bearing on the level of sales, bad
debt loss, discounts taken by customers, and collection expenses. Figure
14.2 depicts the credit policy variables.
Credit standards
The term credit standards refer to the criteria for extending credit to
customers. The basis for setting credit standards are:
o Credit ratings
o References
o Average payment period
o Ratio analysis
There is always a benefit to the company with the extension of credit to its
customers, but with the associated risks of delayed payments or non-
payment and of getting funds blocked in receivables.
The firm may have light credit standards. The firm may sell goods on cash
basis and extend credit only to financially strong customers.
Such strict credit standards will bring down bad-debt losses and reduce the
cost of credit administration.
However, the firm will not be able to increase its sales. The profit on lost
sales may be more than the costs saved by the firm. The firm should
evaluate the trade-off between cost and benefit of any credit standards.
Credit period
Credit period refers to the length of time allowed by a firm, for its customers
to make payment, for their purchases. Credit period is generally expressed
in days like 15 days or 20 days. Generally, firms give cash discount if
payments are made within the specified period.
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 386
Financial Management Unit 14
If a firm follows a credit period of ‘net 20’ it means that it allows its
customers 20 days of credit with no inducement for early payments.
Increasing the credit period will bring in additional sales from existing
customers and new sales from new customers.
Reducing the credit period lowers sales, decreases investments in
receivables and reduces the bad-debt loss. Increasing the credit period
increases sales, increases investment in receivables and increases the
incidence of bad debt loss.
The effects of increasing the credit period on the profits of the firms are
similar to that of relaxing the credit standards.
Cash discount
Firms offer cash discounts to induce their customers to make prompt
payments. Cash discounts have implications on sales volume, average
collection period, investment in receivables, incidence of bad debts and
profits.
A cash discount of 2/10 net 20 means that a cash discount of 2% is offered
if the payment is made by the tenth day; otherwise full payment will have to
be made by 20th day.
Collection programme
The success of a collection programme depends on the collection policy
pursued by the firm. The objective of a collection policy is to achieve a
timely collection of receivables. Releasing funds locked in receivables and
minimising the incidence of bad debts are the other objectives of the
collection policy. The collection programmes consists of the following:
o Monitoring the receivables
o Reminding customers about due date of payment
o Interacting on-line through electronic media with customers about the
payments due, around the due date
o Initiating legal action to recover the amount from overdue customers as
the last resort to recover the dues from defaulted customers
o Formulating collection policy such that, it should not lead to bad
relationship with the customers
Solved Problem – 1
The details shown in table 14.1 are regarding the statistics of the
company X Ltd.
Table 14.1: Statistics of X Ltd
Current sales Rs.100 million
Increase in sales Rs.15 million
Bad-debt losses 10%
Contribution margin ratio 20%
Average collection period 40 days
Post-tax cost of funds 10%
Tax-rate 30%
Examine the effect of relaxing the credit policy on the profitability of the
organisation. (MBA) adopted.
Solution
Incremental contribution = 15 x 0.20 = Rs 3 million
Bad debts on new sales = 15 x 0.10 = Rs 1.5 million
Cost of capital is 10%
Incremental investment in receivables =
Increase in Sales
Average Collection period Variable cos t to Sales ratio
No. of days in the year
[15 / 360] 40 0.8 Rs.1.33million
10
Cost of incremental investment 1.33 = 0.133
100
Therefore, change in profit is calculated using the information in table
14.2
Table 14.2: Change in Profit ( in millions)
Incremental contribution 3.00
Less: bad-debts on new sales 1.50
Less: Income tax at 30% .45
1.05
Less: Opportunity cost of incremental 0.13
investment in receivables
Increase in profit 0.92
Credit period
Credit period refers to the length of time allowed to customers to pay for
their purchases. It generally varies from 15 to 60 days. If a firm allows, 45
days of credit with no discount to induce early payment, its credit terms are
stated as ‘net 45’.
Lengthening the credit period pushes sales up by inducing existing
customers to purchase more and attracting additional customers, at the
same time increasing receivables investment and incidence of bad debts.
The effect of changing the credit period on profits of the firm can be
computed as shown:
Change in profit = (Incremental contribution – Bad debts on new sales) Formatted: Font color: Auto
(1 – tax rate) – cost of incremental investment in receivables. Formatted: Font color: Auto
Formatted: Font color: Auto
The components of the formula are the same as discussed in the earlier
section, i.e.
P = S (1-V) - k I - bn S
Except for one thing that here I = increase in investment is defined as
below:
I = (ACPn – ACPo) (So/360) + V (ACPn) (S/360)
Where, ACPn = new average credit period (after increasing credit period)
ACPo = old average credit period
V = variable cost to sales ratio
S = increase in sales
So = Sales before liberalising
Solved Problem – 2
A company is currently allowing its customers, 30 days of credit. Its
present sales are Rs 100 million. The firm’s cost of capital is 10% and the
ratio of variables cost to sales is 0.80. The company is considering
extending its credit period to 60 days. Such an extension will increase the
sales of the firm by Rs 100 million. Bad debts on additional sales would be
8%. Tax rate is 30%. Assume 360 days in a year. Examine the effect of
relaxing the credit policy on the profitability of the organisation
(MBA) adopted.
Solution
Incremental contribution = 10,000,000 x 0.2 = Rs 2,000,000
Bad debts on new sales = 10,000,000 x 0.8 = Rs 8,000,000
Existing investment in receivables =
30
1,00,000,000 Rs.8,333,333
360
Expected investment in receivables after increasing the credit period to
60 days:
Expected investment in receivables on current sales =
1,00,000,000
60 Rs.16,666,667
360
60
1,00,000,000 0.80 Rs.13,33,333
360
Additional investment in receivable on new sales = Rs. 13,33,333
Expected total investment in receivables on increasing the period of
credit = 1,80,00,000
Incremental investment in receivables = 18000000 – 8333333 =
Rs. 9666667
Opportunity cost of incremental investment in receivables =
0.10 x 9666667 = Rs.966667
Table 14.3 depicts the statement showing the effect of increasing the
credit period from 30 days to 60 days as firm’s project.
Table 14.3: Effect of Increase in Credit Period
Incremental contribution 20,00,000
Less: Bad debts on new sales 8,00,000
12,00,000
Less: Income tax at 30% 3,60,000
8,40,000
Less: Opportunity cost of incremental in
receivables 9,66,667
Change in profit (1,26,667)
Because the impact of increasing the credit period on profits of the firm is
negative, the proposed change in credit period is not desirable.
Cash discount
Firms usually offer cash discounts to induce prompt payments. Credit terms
reflect the percentage of discount and the period during which it is available.
For instance, credit terms of 1/20, net 30 mean discount of 1 percent is
offered if the payment is made by the 20th day, otherwise the full payment is
due by the 30th day.
For assessing the effect of cash discount the following formula can be used.
Solved Problem – 3
A company is considering relaxing its collection effort. Its present sales
are Rs 50 million, ACP = 20 days, variable cost to sales ratio = 0.8, cost
of capital 10%. The company’s bad debt ratio is 0.05. The relaxation in
collection programme is expected to increase sales by Rs 5 million,
increase ACP to 40 days and bad debts ratio to 0.56. Tax rate is 30%.
Examine the effect of change in collection programme on firm’s profits.
Assume 360 days in a year. (MBA adopted and also ACS
Solution
Increase in Contribution = 5, 000, 000 x 0.2 = Rs.1, 000, 000
Increase in bad debts
Bad debts on existing sales = 50, 000, 000 x 0.05 = 25, 00, 000
Bad debts on total sales after increase in sales =
Table 14.4 depicts the statement showing the impact of new collection
programme on profits of the organisation.
Table 14.4: Impact of New Collection
Incremental contribution 1,00,000
Less: increase in bad debts 8,00,000
2,00,000
Less: Income tax at 30% 60,000
1,40,000
Less: opportunity cost of increase in investment in 3,22,222
receivables
Profit/loss (1,82,222)
negative
Since the change will lead to decrease in profit (a loss of Rs.182222) it is
not desirable to relax the collection programme of the firm.
Activity:
Indicate by a (+), (-) or (0) whether each of the following events would
probably cause A/R, Sales, and profits to increase, decrease or no
change.
A/R Sales Profits
1. The firm tightens credit
standards
2. The credit manager gets
tough with past due
accounts
Hint: Decrease, decrease, decrease
Decrease, decrease, increase
Reference: Fundamentals of Financial Management, Brigham and Houston
14.5 Summary
Receivables are a direct result of credit sales.
Management of accounts receivables is the process of making decision
related to investment of funds in receivable which will result in
maximising the overall return on the investment of the firm.
Cost of maintaining receivables are of three types - capital costs,
administration costs and delinquency costs.
Credit policy variables are credit standards, credit period, cash discounts
and collection programme. Optimum credit policy is that which
maximises the value of the firm.
14.6 Glossary
Credit period: Refers to the length of time allowed to customers to pay for
their purchases.
14.8 Answers
Manipal University Jaipur B1628 Page No. 396
Financial Management Unit 14
Terminal Questions
1. Receivables are a direct result of credit. Refer to 14.1.
2. There are four different varieties of costs associated with maintaining
receivables. Refer to 14.2.
3. The term ‘credit policy’ comprises the policy of a company with respect
to the credit standards adopted; the period over which the credit is
extended to customers; any incentive in the form of cash discount
offered; as also the period over which the discount can be used by the
customers; and the collection effort made by the company. Refer to
14.3.
4. Optimum credit policy is one which would maximise the value of the firm.
Refer to 14.4.
The cost of capital of the company is 16% and the tax rate applicable to it is
35%.
Discussion Questions:
1. Analyse the details and suggest whether the change in credit terms is
advisable.
(Hint: Refer credit variables)
2. Explain how a credit policy affects the sales and reputation of a firm.
(Hint: Refer credit policy)
References:
15.1 Introduction
In the previous section, we discussed about receivables management.
Managing the receivables, a direct result of credit sales, involves decision
making related to investment of funds in receivable for maximising the
overall return on the investment of the firm.
In this unit, we will discuss the significance and the various attributes of
dividend. Dividends are that portion of a firm’s net earnings which are paid
to the shareholders. Preference shareholders are entitled to a fixed rate of
dividend irrespective of the firm’s earnings. Equity holders’ dividends
fluctuate year after year. Dividend decisions depend on what portion of
earnings is to be retained by the firm and what portion is to be paid off.
As dividends are distributed out of net profits, the firm’s decisions on
retained earnings have a bearing on the amount to be distributed. Retained
earnings constitute an important source of financing investment
requirements of a firm. However, such opportunities should have enough
growth potential and sufficient profitability.
Objectives:
After studying this unit, you should be able to:
explain the importance of dividends to investors
analyse the effect of declaring dividends on share prices
describe the advantages of a stable dividend policy
list out the various forms of dividend
elucidate reasons for stock split
Walter model
Prof. James E. Walter considers that dividend pay-outs are relevant and
have a bearing on the share prices of the firm. He further states that
investment policies of a firm cannot be separated from its dividend policy
and both are inter-linked. The choice of an appropriate dividend policy
affects the value of the firm.
Walter model clearly establishes a relationship between the firm’s rate of
return “r” and its cost of capital “k” to give a dividend policy that maximises
shareholders’ wealth. The firm would have the optimum dividend policy that
enhances the value of the firm.
Walter model can be studied with the relationship between r and k.
If r>k, the firm’s earnings can be retained, as the firm has better and
profitable investment opportunities and the firm can earn more than what
the shareholders could earn by re-investing, if earnings are distributed.
Firms which have r>k are called ‘growth firms’ and such firms should
have a zero pay-out ratio.
If r<k, the firm should have a 100% pay-out ratio as the investors have
better investment opportunities than the firm. Such a policy will maximise
the firm value.
If r = k, the firm’s dividend policy will have no impact on the firm’s value.
The dividend pay-outs can range between zero and 100% and the firm
value will remain constant in all cases. Such firms are called ‘normal
firms’.
Figure 15.1 depicts the assumptions on which the Walter’s model is based.
The following are the assumptions on which the Walter’s model is based:
Financing – All financing is done through retained earnings. Retained
earning is the only source of finance, available and the firm does not use
any external source of funds like debt or equity.
Constant rate of return and cost of capital – The firm’s “r” and “k”
remain constant and any additional investment made by the firm will not
change the risk and return profile.
100% pay-out or retention – All earnings are either completely
distributed or immediately re-invested.
Constant EPS and DPS – The earnings and dividends do not change
and are assumed to be constant forever.
Life – The firm has a perpetual life.
According to this approach, the market price of the share is taken as the
sum of the present value of the future cash dividends and capital gains.
Walter’s formula to determine the market price is as follows:
Market price per share of the firm is given as:
P = D / (Ke – g)
Implies, Ke = D/P + g , where g = ∆P / P
Thus, Ke = D/P + ∆P / P
But since, ∆P = [r / Ke( E D)] , we get
D [ r / Ke ( E D )]
P=
Ke Ke
Where P is the market price per share
D is the dividend per share
Ke is the cost of capital
g is the growth rate of earnings
E is Earnings per share
r is IRR
∆P is change in price
Caselet: The following information relates to Alpha Ltd. Show the effect
of the dividend policy on the market price of its shares using the Walter’s
Model.
Equity capitalisation rate Ke is 11%
Earnings per share is given as Rs. 10
ROI (r) may be assumed as follows: 15%, 11% and 8%
Show the effect of the dividend policies on the share value of the firm for
three different levels of r, taking the DP ratios as zero, 25%, 50%, 75%
and 100%.
Solution
Ke 11%, EPS 10, r 15%, DPS=0
D [ r / Ke ( E D )]
P=
Ke Ke
Case I r >k (r = 15%, Ke = 11%)
0 [0.15 / 0.11(10 0)]
a. DP = 0 = 13.64/0.11 = Rs. 123.97
0.11
2.5 [ 0.15 / 0.11(10 2.5 )]
b. DP = 25% = 12.73/0.11 = Rs. 115.73
0.11
5 [0.15 / 0.11(10 5)]
c. DP = 50% = 11.82/0.11 = Rs. 107.44
0.11
7.5 [ 0.15 / 0.11(10 7.5 )]
d. DP = 75% = 10.91/0.11 = Rs. 99.17
0.11
5 [ 0.11/ 0.11(10 5 )]
c. DP = 50% = 10/0.11 = Rs. 90.91
0.11
Solution
Case I r >k (r = 12%, K = 11%)
E ( 1 b )
P=
Ke br
a. DP 10%, b 90%
10 (1 0.9 )
equals 1/.002 = Rs. 500
0.11 ( 0.9 * 0.12 )
b. DP 20%, b 80%
10 (1 0.8 )
equals 2/.014 = Rs. 142.86
0.11 ( 0.8 * 0.12 )
c. DP 30%, b 70%
10 (1 0.7 )
equals 3/.026 = Rs. 115.38
0.11 (0.7 * 0.12
d. DP 40%, b 60%
10 (1 0.6)
equals 4/.038 = Rs. 105.26
0.11 (0.6 * 0.12)
e. DP 50%, b 50%
10 ( 1 0.5 )
equals 5/.05 = Rs. 100
0.11 ( 0.5 * 0.12 )
a. DP 10%, b 90%
10 (1 0.8 )
equals 1/.011 = Rs. 90.91
0.11 (0.9 * 0.11)
b. DP 20%, b 80%
10 ( 1 0.8 )
equals 2/.022 = Rs. 90.91
0.11 ( 0.8 * 0.11)
c. DP 30%, b 70%
10 ( 1 0.7 )
equals 3/.033 = Rs. 90.91
0.11 ( 0.7 * 0.11)
d. DP 40%, b 60%
10 ( 1 0.6 )
equals 4/.044 = Rs. 90.91
0.11 ( 0.6 * 0.11)
e. DP 50%, b 50%
10 (1 0.5 )
equals 5/.55 = Rs. 90.91
0.11 (0.5 * 0.11)
a. DP 10%, b 90%
10 (1 0.9)
equals 1/.02 = Rs. 50
0.11 (0.9 * 0.1)
b. DP 20%, b 80%
10 (1 0.8 )
equals 2/.03 = Rs. 66.67
0.11 ( 0.8 * 0.1)
c. DP 30%, b 70%
10 (1 0.7)
equals 3/.04 = Rs. 75
0.11 (0.7 * 0.1)
d. DP 40%, b 60%
10 (1 0.6 )
equals 4/.05 = Rs. 80
0.11 ( 0.6 * 0.1)
e. DP 50%, b 50%
10 (1 0.5)
equals 5/.06 = Rs. 83.33
0.11 (0.5 * 0.1)
Interpretation
Gordon is of the opinion that dividend decision does have a bearing on
the market price of the share.
When r > k, the firm’s value decreases with an increase in pay-out
ratio. Market value of share is highest when dividend policy (DP) is
least and retention highest.
When r = k, the market value of share is constant irrespective of the
DP ratio. It is not affected whether the firm retains the profits or
distributes them.
When r < k, market value of share increases with an increase in DP
ratio.
1
nP0 = * (nD1 + nP1)
(1 Ke )
1
nP0 = * (nD1 + (n + n1)P1 – n1 P1)
(1 + Ke)
1
nP0 = * (nD1 + (n + n1) P1 – I + E – nD1)
(1 Ke)
Or,
1
nP0 = * ((n + n1) P1 – I + E
(1 Ke)
Thus, according to the MM Model, the market value of the share is not
affected by the dividend policy and this is explicitly shown in the final
equation as above. (Dividend does not figure in this equation used to
calculate the share price)
Solution:
Case I: When dividends are paid:
Step I:
1
P0 = * (D1 + P1)
(1 Ke)
Step II:
n1 P1 = I – (E – nD1), nD1 is 25000*4
n1 P1 = 600000 – (400000 – 100000) = Rs. 300000
Step II:
n1P1 = I – (E – nD1), nD1 is 25000*4
n1P1 = 600000 – (400000 – 0) = Rs. 200000
Thus, the value of the firm remains the same in both the cases whether
dividends are declared or dividends are not declared.
Floatation cost
Miller and Modigliani have assumed the absence of floatation costs.
Floatation costs refer to the cost involved in raising capital from the market,
that is, the costs incurred towards underwriting commission, brokerage and
other costs.
Floatation costs ordinarily account for around 10%-15% of the total issue
and they cannot be ignored given the enormity of these costs. The presence
of these costs affects the balancing nature of retained earnings and external
financing.
External financing is definitely costlier than retained earnings. For instance,
if a share is issued worth Rs. 100 and floatation costs are 12%, then the net
proceeds are only Rs. 88.
Transaction cost
This is another assumption made by MM which implies that there are no
transaction costs like brokerage involved in capital market. These are the
costs associated with sale of securities by investors.
This theory implies that if the company does not pay dividends, the investors
desirous of current income sell part of their holdings without any cost
incurred. This is very unrealistic as the sale of securities involves cost;
investors wishing to get current income should sell higher number of shares
to get the income they are supposed to receive.
Under-pricing of shares
If the company has to raise funds from the market, it should sell shares at a
price lesser than the prevailing market price to attract new shareholders.
This follows that at lower prices, the firm should sell more shares to replace
the dividend amount.
Market conditions
If the market conditions are bad and the firm has some lucrative
opportunities, it is not worth-approaching new investors at this juncture,
given the presence of floatation costs. In such cases, the firms should
depend on retained earnings and low pay-out ratio to fuel such
opportunities.
Example:
A firm may have a policy of paying 25% dividend per share on its paid-up
capital of Rs. 10 per share. It implies that Rs. 2.50 is paid out every year
irrespective of its earnings. Generally, a firm following such a policy will
continue payments even if it incurs losses.
In such years, when there is a loss, the amount accumulated in the
dividend equalisation reserve is utilised. As and when, the firm starts
earning a higher amount of revenue, it will consider payment of higher
dividends and in future it is expected to maintain the higher level.
Constant DP ratio
With this type of DP policy, the firm pays a constant percentage of net
earnings to the shareholders.
For example, if the firm fixes its DP ratio as 25% of its earnings, it implies
that shareholders get 25% of earnings as dividend, year after year. In such
years, when profits are high, they get higher amount.
Constant dividend per share plus extra dividend
Under this policy, a firm usually pays a fixed dividend ordinarily and in years
of good profits, additional or extra dividend is paid over and above the
regular dividend.
The stability of dividends is desirable due to the following advantages:
Building confidence amongst investors – A stable dividend policy
helps to build confidence and remove uncertainty in investors. A
constant dividend policy will not have any fluctuations, thereby
suggesting the investors that the firm’s future is bright. In contrast,
shareholders of a firm having an unstable DP will not be certain about
their future in such a firm.
Investors desire for current income – A firm has different categories of
investors –
o old and retired persons
o pensioners
o youngsters
o salaried class
o housewives
Of these, people like retired persons prefer current income. Their living
expenses are fairly stable from one period to another. Sharp changes in
current income, that is, dividends, may necessitate sale of shares. Stable
dividend policy avoids sale of securities and inconvenience to investors.
Information about firms profitability – Investors use dividend policy as
a measure of evaluating the firm’s profitability. Dividend decision is a
sign of firm’s prosperity and hence a firm should have a stable DP.
Institutional investors’ requirements – Institutional investors like LIC,
GIC and MF prefer to invest in companies with a record of stable DP. A
company having erratic DP is not preferred by these institutions. Thus, to
Activity:
Obtain the Annual Reports of any two public limited companies and read
their policy regarding dividend.
Hint: visit web sites of any two public limited companies and down load the
Annual Reports.
15.8 Summary
Let us recapitulate the important concepts discussed in this unit:
Dividends are the earnings of the company distributed to shareholders.
Payment of dividend is not mandatory, but most companies see to it that
dividends are paid on a regular basis to maintain the image of the
company.
As payment of dividend is not compulsory, the question which arises in
the minds of policy makers is “Should dividends be paid, if yes, what
should be the quantum of payment?”
Various theories have come out with various suggestions on the
payment of dividend. B. Graham and D. L. Dodd are of the view that
there is a close relationship between the dividends and the stock market.
The stock value responds positively to high dividends and vice versa.
Prof. James E. Walter considers dividend pay-outs are necessary but if
the firm’s ROI (rate of interest) is high, earnings can be retained as the
firm has better and profitable investment opportunities.
Gordon also contends that dividends are significant to determine the
share prices of a firm. Shareholders prefer certain returns (current) to
uncertain returns (future) and therefore, they give premium to the
constant returns and discount to uncertain returns.
Miller and Modigliani explain that a firm’s dividend policy is irrelevant and
has no effect on the share prices of the firm. They are of the view, that it
is the investment policy through which the firm can increase its share
value and hence this should be given more importance.
Dividends can be paid out in various forms such as cash dividend, scrip
dividend, bond dividend and bonus shares.
15.9 Glossary
Stock split: A method to increase the number of outstanding shares by
proportionately reducing the face value of a share.
5. If the EPS is Rs.5, dividend pay-out ratio is 50%, cost of equity is 20%
and growth rate in the ROI is 15%. What is the value of the stock as per
Gordon’s Dividend Equalisation Model?
6. Nile Ltd. makes the following information available. What is the value of
the stock as per Gordon Model?
Ke 14%, EPS Rs. 20, D/P ratio 35% Retention ratio 65%, ROI 16%
7. What is the stock price as per Gordon Model, if DP ratio is 60% in the
above case?
15.11 Answers
Terminal Questions
1. Dividends are portions of earnings available to the shareholders.
Generally, dividends are distributed in cash, but sometimes they may
also declare dividends in other forms Refer to 15.6.
2. A stock split is a method to increase the number of outstanding shares
by proportionately reducing the face value of a share. Refer to 15.7.
3. Hint: Apply the formula – Walter’s formula to determine the market price
D [r(E - D) / Ke]
P = +
Ke Ke
E (1 - b)
4. Hint: Apply the Gordon formula of P = .
Ke - br
E (1 - b)
5. Hint: Apply the Gordon formula of P = .
Ke - br
E (1 - b)
6. Hint: Apply the Gordon formula of P = .
Ke - br
E (1 - b)
7. Hint: Apply the Gordon formula of P = .
Ke - br
Operating profit per share (Rs) 115.72 129.38 65.89 88.31 76.30
Free reserves per share (Rs) 474.32 403.82 318.45 286.28 231.89
Profitability ratios
Return on long term funds (%) 21.74 28.80 17.48 27.35 30.74
Leverage ratios
Liquidity ratios
Payout ratios
Coverage ratios
Component ratios
Long term assets / total Assets 0.65 0.76 0.59 0.74 0.61
Dividend
Year Month Dividend (%)
2011 Apr 150
2010 Apr 120
2009 Apr 70
2008 Apr 100
2007 Apr 90
2006 Jul 70
2005 May 40
2004 May 30
Discussion Questions:
1. On studying the data given above, do you find relevance between the
dividend policy /pay-out ratio and the EPS? Explain your stand.
(Hint: Refer Gorden Model)
2. What is the MM stand, regarding the relevance of dividends on the value
of the firm?
(Hint: Refer M & M Model)
3. Dividend pay outs convey information about the company. In this case,
what in your view is the management of Maruti Suzuki trying to convey
by declaring such dividends?
(Hint: Refer to significance of dividends)
(Source: http://www.marutisuzuki.com/about-us.aspx and
http://money.rediff.com )
References:
Khan, Jain, (2005), Financial Management, 4th edition
Pandey, I. M., (2005), Financial Management, 9th edition,
Chandra Prasanna, (2005), Financial Management,6th edition
Gupta, Shashi, & Gupta, Neeti, (2008), Financial Management, 2nd
edition
Rustogi, (2010), Financial Management, 1st edition,.
B. Graham and D. L. Dodd 3rd edition, McGraw Hill, New York, 1951
E-References
Source: http://www.marutisuzuki.com/about-us.aspx and
http://money.rediff.com ) retrieved on 12/12/2011.