Cluster answer key -set 3

CLASS XII

BIOLOGY (044)

Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are
(ii)
compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks
each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based
questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.
Section A
1. In testis, which cells produce sperms?
(a) Germinal cells
(b) Epithelial cell
(c) Sertoli cell
(d) Both a and c
SHOW ANSWER
a)Germinal cells
2. Which disease is diagnosed by the identification of antibodies against antigen?
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) Syphilis
(c) Hepatitis
(d) AIDS
SHOW ANSWER
d)AIDS
3. In which of the following pairs of codons is their function or the signal for the specific amino
acid matched correctly?
(a) GUU, GCU-Alanine
(b) UAG, UGA-Stop
(c) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine
(d) UUA, UCA-Leucine
SHOW ANSWER
b)UAG, UGA-Stop
4.Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
(a) If all organisms were the same, the entire population would be vulnerable to particular
pathogens, like viruses
(b) All evolutionary adaptations (e.g. the origin of forelimbs) are the result of the gradual build-
up of genetic differences between organisms over geologic time
(c) Evolution (at the population level) refers to changes in the frequencies of genes in the
population over time
(d) All of the above
SHOW ANSWER
d)All of the above
5. Diseases can be broadly classified into infectious and noninfectious diseases. Identify the
infectious diseases in the following list.
I. Cancer
II. Influenza
III. Allergy
IV. Smallpox
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) II and IV
SHOW ANSWER
d)II and IV
6.Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by which of the following factors? Select the correct answer.
I. Lymphocytes become more active
II. Body attacks self cells
III. More antibodies are produced in the body
IV. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from the self cell is lost
(a) I and II
(b) II and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) I and III
SHOW ANSWER
b)II and IV
7.Statins, a bioactive molecule, inhibit an enzyme responsible for the synthesis of?
(a) carbohydrate
(b) protein
(c) vitamins
(d) cholesterol
SHOW ANSWER
d)cholesterol
8. Expression vectors differ from other vectors because?
(a) contain drug resistance markers
(b) contain telomeres
(c) contain regulatory regions that permit the cloned DNA to produce a gene product
(d) contain DNA origins
SHOW ANSWER
(c) contain regulatory regions that permit the cloned DNA to produce a gene product
9. The similarity of one organism to another for protection and hiding is called?
(a) Mimicry
(b) Predation
(c) Adaptation
(d) Camouflage
SHOW ANSWER
a)Mimicry
10. Which of the following is the most serious threat to biodiversity?
(a) Competition from exotic species
(b) Commercial harvesting
(c) Habitat destruction
(d) Overexploitation
SHOW ANSWER
(c) Habitat destruction
11. Energy transfer from one trophic level to other, in a food chain, is
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 1%
(d) 2%.
Answer
A
12. Assuming S is species richness, A is the area, Z is the slope, and C is Y-intercept, what
is species richness?
(a) S = C + Az
(b) S = C + AZ
(c) S = C. AZ
(d) S = C. Az
SHOW ANSWER
(d) S = C. Az
13. Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is False but R is true.

13. Assertion : Proembryos stages is restricted to 2 celled stage.

Reason : It has one basal and one apical cell.
Correct Answer: d
14. Assertion: The progeny in F2-generation traits were identical to their parental type.
Reason: The progeny show no blending of traits.
Answer(a) Both the characters appear during the formation of F2-generation, so no blending
occurs.
15. Assertion: The ADA gene gives instruction for producing the enzyme adenosine deaminases.
Reason: Throughout the body this enzyme is found but is most active in lymphocytes.
Answer b
16.c. Assertion: In lichens, mycobiont and phycobiont are symbiotically associated in algae
which is predominant and fungi is a subordinate partner.
Reason: In this symbiotic association, the fungus provides food while the alga protects fungus
from unfavourable conditions.
Answer
D
Section B
17.The graph given below shows the level of ovarian hormones in a normally menstruating
woman during follicular phase.
a) Name A and B
b) Reconstruct the graph showing the level of hormones in luteal phase.
Answer:
a) A-Progesterone, B- Estrogen ½+½

b)

18. Write a note on ZO-ZZ type of sex determination.

Answer:
In case of ZO-ZZ type of sex determination the female produces two types of eggs. The one-half
of eggs is with Z-chromosome and the other half without Z-chromosome./ The male has
homomorphic sex chromosomes and is homogametic./ It forms only one kind of sperms each
with Z-chromosome. On fertilisation by a sperm with Z-chromosome, the Z-containing egg gives
rise to male offspring ZZ /and Z- lacking egg produces female offspring ZO. Such type of sex
determination is found in the case of butterflies and moths. (½X4=2)
19.Why is a person with cuts and bruises following an accident administered tetanus antitoxin?
Give reasons.
Tetanus is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tetani./ A person with cuts and bruises following
an accident is administered tetanus antitoxin because this toxin contains antibody against the
pathogen./ This inactivates the pathogen (called passive immunity. (½+1+½)

20.How is insertional inactivation of an enzyme used as a selectable marker to differentiate

recombinants from non-recombinants?
Ans. The insertional activation of β-galactosidase enzyme, i.e. by inserting the desired gene in
the coding region of enzyme, results in inactivation of (β-galactosidase gene in recombinants.
The recombinant on transformed hosts are unable to produce any colour when grown on
chromogenic substrate,/ thus acting as a selectable marker to differentiate recombinants from
non-recombinants.(1+1)
21. In a botanical garden of a city there is a huge banyan tree growing on which hundreds of
birds and thousands of insects live. Draw the pyramids of numbers and also biomass represented
by this community. Answer:

Big birds
 Birds

Insects

Trees

a)Pyramid of number is inverted. 1

Big birds
birds
Insects
Tree

b)The pyramid of biomass in this ecosystem is erect .1

Or
c. It is possible that a species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at
the same time. Explain with the help of one example.
Answer:
A single species may occupy more than one trophic level at the same time in ecosystem because,
the trophic level of species represents the functional level of species in the energy flow. The
preference of food habit depends on the available food.1
For example, sparrow is primary consumer when it eats seeds and secondary consumer when
feeds on insects and worms.1

Section C
22. a)Placenta also act as an endocrine tissue.justify
Answer: produces several hormones like human chorionic gonado tropin (nCG ), human
placental lactogen (nPL) estrogen and progestogens (½+½)
b). When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? State their function.
Answer:

1.After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi. They
are surrounded by uterine tissue and maternal blood.1

2.The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form
structural and functional units between the developing embryos and maternal bodies called the
placenta.1
23.a. Justify the statement “Predators and scavengers are markedly different.”
Answer:
Predators feed on another organism, i.e. prey, /whereas scavenger feeds on dead animals or an
animal killed by another animal./ A predator can be a prey also, e.g. a frog eats insects and the
frog may be eaten by a snake. /But a scavenger such as jackals, hyenas and vultures cannot kill
zebra or giraffe or deer but a lion kills them and leaves a part of it to be eaten by such
scavengers. (½x4)

b.Mention any two significant roles predators play in nature.

Role of predators:

1.Transferring energy to a higher trophic level.

2.Keeping the prey population under control. (½+½)

24. (i) State the role of DNA ligase in biotechnology.

(ii) What happens when Meloidogyne incognita consumes cells with RNAi gene?
Ans. (i) DNA ligase enzyme is used to join two DNA fragments from their ends.1
(ii) When Meloidogyne incognita (parasite) consumes cells with RNAi gene, parasite cannot
survive and this prevents infection./ The introduced DNA forms both sense and anti-sense RNA./
These two strands being complementary to each other form of sRNA,/ leading to RNAi. Thus,
the mRNA of nematode is silenced and the parasite cannot survive there. This produces
Meloidogyne incognita resistant tobacco plants. (½+4)

25. Explain how natural selection operates in nature by taking an example of white-winged and
dark-winged moths of England.
Answer:
In England, prior to industrialisation, the tree trunks were covered with white lichens hence,
white moths survive and were protected from predators due to white colour./ On the other hand,
black moths (a dark-winged moths) could be easily identified due to their dark colour and
declined in number due to predation./

However, as industrialisation progressed, the lichens were replaced by soot and dust particles and
dark coloured moths were benefitted due to camouflage, /while white-winged moths could be
easily eaten up by the predators being easily identifiable./ Thus, only the dark-winged moths who
were able to fit and survive, i.e. adapted well in conditions, /reproduced well in nature. Thus,
natural selection operates in nature by selecting the fittest characters of organisms. (½+6)

26.(i) Name the group of virus responsible for causing AIDS in humans. Why are these virus so,
named?
(ii) List any two ways of transmission of HIV infection in humans other than sexual contact?
 Answer:
(i) Retrovirus is the group of viruses causing AIDS in humans. /They contain RNA as genetic
material and with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase, they make viral DNA using RNA as a
template. Thus, they are called retrovirus.(1+1)
(ii) (a) By sharing infected needles.
(b) By transfusion of blood contaminated with HIV.( ½+½)
Or

[1 + 2 = 3 Marks]
A team of students are preparing to participate in the interschool sports meet. During a practice
session you find some vials with labels of certain cannabinoids.
(a) Will you report to the authorities ? Why ?
(b) Name a plant from which such chemicals are obtained.
(c) Write the effect of these chemicals on human body.
Ans. (a) Yes = ½
May be abused by sports person = ½
(b) Cannabis (sativa) /any other relevant plant = 1
(c) Effects cardiovascular system of the body = 1
[1+ 1 + 1 = 3

b. State two different roles of spleen in the human body?

Answer:
The two different roles of spleen in human body are

 Spleen acts as a filter to trap blood-borne microorganisms.

 It is a large reservoir of erythrocytes.

27. Two children A and B aged 4 and 5 years respectively visited a hospital with a similar
genetic disorder. Girl A was provided enzyme-replacement therapy and was advised to revisit
periodically for further treatment. Girl B was, however, given therapy that did not require a
revisit for further treatment.
(a) Name the ailments the two girls were suffering from.
(b) Why did the treatment provided to girl A require repeated visits?
(c) How was girl B cured permanently?
Answer:

a) Two girls are suffering from severe combined immuno deficiency (SCID) which is caused by
deficiency of adenosine deaminase (ADA). This disorder is caused due to the deletion of gene
for a adenosine deaminase.1
(b) Treatment provided to girl A : Girl A, was treated by enzyme replacement therapy in which
functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. The approach is not completely curative. The
patient requires periodic infusion of enzyme replacement.1
(c) The girl B cured permanently : Permanent cure is possible when the lymphocytes from the
blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the boly. A functional ADA cDNA (using a
retrovital vector) is then introduced into these lymphocytes. The gene isolate from marrow cells
producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages. It could be a permanent
cure.1

28. Many plant and animal species are on the verge of their extinction because of loss of forest
land by indiscriminate use by the humans. As a biology student what method would you suggest
along with its advantages that can protect such threatened species from getting extinct ?

Ans. Ex-situ conservation = 1

Threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and placed in special
setting where they can be protected and given special care = 1
Botanical garden / tissue culture / micro propagation / seed bank = ½
Zoological park / wild life safari park / cryopreservation = ½
[ 3 Marks]
Section D

29. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below :
Turner's syndrome is an example of mono somy. It is formed by the union of an
allosome free egg and a normal 'X' containing sperm or a normal egg and an allosome
free sperm. The individual has 2n = 45 chromosomes (44 + X0) instead of 46. Such
individuals are sterile females who have rudimentary ovaries, under developed
breasts, small uterus, short stature, webbed neck and abnormal intelligence. They may
not menstruate or ovulate. This disorder can be treated by giving female sex hormone
to the women from the age of puberty to make them develop breasts and have
menstruation. This makes them feel more normal.

(i) Number of Barr body present in a female with Turner's syndrome is

Ans: The number of Barr bodies is one less than total number of X chromosomes. In
Turner's syndrome genotype is 45 + X0,so, the number of Barr body is O.

(ii) Turner's syndrome is an example of___________

Ans: Turner's syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that occurs due to absence of one
chromosome

(iii) Turner's syndrome is a/an

In Turner's syndrome individual lacks one X chromosome. This situation is known as

monosomy
 iv)Write the symptoms of turner syndrome.

Ans: short stature, webbed-neck, broad chest, lack of secondary sexual

characteristics and sterility.

Or

Difference between Turner syndrome and Klinfelter’s syndrome (any one)

Turner’s syndrome is an aneuploid condition with a single set of chromosomes. It is caused by

XO genotype which results from the union of an abnormal O egg with a normal X sperm or a
normal X egg and abnormal O sperm.

Klinefelter’s syndrome has a karyotype of 44 + XXY.

30.

Que. 1) A skin barrier that protects our body from entering micro-organisms is
a ……………………….. barrier.
Que. 2) A non-specific type of defence is also known as ……………………
3) When the host is able to fight against disease-casing organisms, then the ability is known
as
4) What is meant by cellular barriers?
or
Which type of barrier include interferons that protects non-infected cells from further viral
infection?
Answer Key
Que. 1) Physical barrier.
Que. 2) Innate immunity.
Que. 3) Immunity.
Que. 4) Answer: An Innate immunity which has specific types of leukocytes
(Like monocytes, polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes,and natural killer macrophages in tissue
and in the blood) that can phagocytose and destroy microbes in our body, this is known as
Cellular barriers.
or
Answer: Cytokine is a type of barrier which include interferons to protect non-infected cells
from further viral infection.
Section E

31.(a) Describe any two devices in a flowering plant which prevent both autogamy and
geitonogamy.

(b) Explain the events upto double fertilisation after the pollen tube enters one of the
synergids in an ovule of an angiosperm.

Ans. (a) - Dioecy / production of unisexual flowers (in different plants)

- Self incompatibility = 1 + 1

(b) - Pollen tube releases 2 male gametes in the cytoplasm of synergid

- One male gamete fuses with egg cell / syngamy , resulting in diploid zygote
- Other male gamete fuses with polar nuclei / triple fusion , to form triploid
PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus) / PEC (Primary Endosperm Cell) = 1 × 3

[2 + 3 = 5 marks]

OR
During the reproductive cycle of a human female, when, where and how does a placenta
develop? What is the function of placenta during pregnancy and embryo development ?
Ans. After implantation , uterus , chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated
(physically fused)
=1+1+1
Placenta facilitates supply of oxygen / nutrients to the embryo = ½
Removal of carbon dioxide / waste material / excretory material produced by the embryo = ½
Production of hCG / hPL / estrogens / progestogens (Any two) = ½ × 2
32. How did Hershey and Chase established that DNA is transferred from virus to bacteria ?
 Ans. • Some bacteriophage were grown in a medium that contained 32P / radioactive phosphorus ,
while some were grown in a medium that contained 35S / radioactive sulphur = ½ × 2
• the labelled bacteriophage from both media were allowed to infect E. coli = 1
• In both the cases viral coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a
blender =1
• The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them in a centrifuge = 1
• No radioactivity was detected in cells (E. coli) but detected in supernatant in case where
bacteriophage were labelled with radioactive sulphur = ½
• Radioactivity detected in cells (E. coli) while no radioactivity detected in supernatant in
another case where bacteriophage were labelled with radioactive phosphorus = ½
(Phosphorus being a constituent of DNA indicates that DNA is the genetic material that is passed
from virus to bacteria)
[5 Marks]
// The following diagrammatic representation can be considered in lieu of the above explanation.

Bacterlophage 32
Radioactive[P]
(½) 35
Radioactive[S]labelled labelled DNA (½()½)
(½) protein capsule

(½) (½)
(½) 1. Infection

2. Blending
(½)
(½)

3. Centrifugation (½)
(½)
35 32
No Radioactive[S] Radioactive[P]
detected in cells detected in cells
+ 35
+ (½)
(½) Radioactive[S] No Radioactivity
detected in supernatant detected in supernatant

[½ × 10 = 5
 or
(a) Work out a dihybrid cross upto F 2 generation between pea plants bearing violet coloured axial
flowers and white coloured terminal flowers. Give their phenotypic ratio.
(b) State the Mendel’s law of inheritance that was derived from such a cross.
Ans. (a) Parents : VVAA × v v a a = (1)
Violet , axial White , terminal

VA va

gametes :
F1 VvAa (Violet axial) =1

F2 VA vA Va va
VA Vv AA VvAa
Violet axial Violet axial Violet axial Violet axial
vA VvAA vvAA VvAa vvAa
Violet axial White Axial Violet axial White Axial
Va VVAa VvAa VVaa Vvaa =1
Violet axial Violet axial Violet terminal Violet terminal
va VvAa vvAa Vvaa vvaa
Violet axial white Axial Violet terminal White terminal
VVAA VVAa

Phenotypes – violet : white : violet : white

axial axial terminal terminal

Phenotype ratio – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 =1
(a) Law of Independent Assortment : When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid
segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters = 1
 33. (i) Why are engineered vectors preferred by biotechnologists for transferring the desired
genes into another organism?
(ii) Explain, how do ori, selectable marker and cloning sites facilitate cloning into a vector.
Ans. (i) Engineered vectors are preferred by biotechnologists because they help in easy linking of
foreign DNA and selection of recombinants from non-recombinants.1
(ii) Features which facilitate cloning of vector are:
Origin of replication (Ori)

 This is the sequence of DNA from where replication starts.

 Any piece of alien/foreign DNA linked to it is made to replicate within host cell. It also decides
the copy number of the linked[ DNA.1

(ii) Selectable marker is a marker gene, which helps in selecting the host cells, which are
transformants/recombinants from the non-recombinant ones.
For example, ampicillin and tetracycline resistant genes in, £. coli.1
(iii) Cloning site is a unique recognition site in a vector to link the foreign DNA. The presence of
a particular cloning/recognition site helps the partjcular restriction enzyme to cut the vector
DNA. Single recognition site is commonly preferred.1
(iv) Small size of the vector The small size facilitates the introduction of the DNA into the host
easily.1

OR
a)
i)Name the organism in which the vector shown is inserted to get the copies of the
desired gene.
ii)Mention the area labelled in the vector responsible for controlling the copy number of
the inserted gene.
iii)Name and explain the role of a selectable marker in the vector shown.

1. b) What are bacteriophage vectors? Name the two phage vectors that are commonly
used.
a)i)Escherichia coli / E coli ½
ii)ori. ½
 ii)ampR is the marker gene that helps in identification and elimination of the non-
transformant growing in ampicillin medium and selectively permitting the growth of the
transformant resistant to ampicillin./ tetR is the marker gene that helps in identification
and elimination of the non-transformant growing in tetracycline medium and selectively
permitting the growth of the transformant resistant to tetracycline.(1+1)
b)
1. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacterial cells by injecting their DNA into these
cells./ The injected DNA is selectively replicated and expressed in the host bacterial cell
resulting in a number of phases which burst out of the cell and reinfect neighbouring
cells. Their ability to transfer DNA from the phage genome to specific bacterial hosts
during the process of bacterial infection give it to the property be used as vectors.1
Examples are – Phase lambda and M 13 phages. 1

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