Name: Student No:

Biology 2D03 Final Examination

DAY CLASS
Duration of Exam: 3 hours Dr. Robin Cameron
McMaster University Final Examination December 2015

THIS EXAMINATION PAPER INCLUDES 17 PAGES. There are 50 multiple-choice questions, 5 short
answer questions and 1 Bonus question. You are responsible for insuring that your copy of the exam
is complete. PLEASE, BRING ANY DISCREPANCY TO THE ATTENTION OF YOUR INVIGILATOR.
PLEASE PRINT YOUR NAME AND STUDENT NUMBER ON EVERY PAGE OF THIS
EXAMINATION PAPER. PLEASE INDICATE YOU MULTIPLE CHOICE ANSWERS ON THIS
EXAMINATION PAPER.

Special Instructions:
1. Please print your name and student number on pages 1, 13-17 of this examination paper.
2. No Calculators Allowed
3. Section A must be completed using the optical scan sheets and on this examination paper.
Please carefully read the following instructions for the optical scan sheets
4. Section B is to be answered on this examination paper in the space provided.

The scanner, which reads the sheets, senses the shaded areas by their non-reflection of light. A heavy mark
must be made, completely filling the circular bubble, with an HB pencil. Marks made with a pen or felt-tip
marker will NOT be sensed. Erasures must be thorough or the scanner may still sense a mark. Do NOT use
correction fluid on the sheets. Do NOT put any unnecessary marks or writing on the sheet.
1. Print your name, student number, course name, section number and the date in the space provided at the
top of Side 1 (red side) of the form. The sheet MUST be signed in the space marked SIGNATURE.
2. Mark your student number in the space provided and fill in the corresponding bubbles underneath.
3. Mark only ONE choice from the alternatives (A, B, C, D, E) provided each question. The question
number is to the left of the bubbles.
Make sure that the number of the question on the scan sheet is the same as the question number on the
test paper.

Section A ______/50
Section B ______/30
Total ______/80
Bonus ______/5

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (50 Marks)

Answer ALL of the following 50 questions. (1 mark each: Total 50 marks).

1. Evidence for the first appearance of eukaryotes on the earth is based on finding…
a) sporopollenin in fossils
b) sterols in 2.7 billion year old Australian rocks
c) fossilized stromatolites
d) low 13C to 12C ratios in 3.8 billion year old rocks
e) cuticles on above-ground plant parts

2. Bryophyte-like plants probably colonized land first. However, they were small in stature because….
a) they had secondary stem development.
b) they lacked lignin in the cell walls of the vascular system.
c) their spores contained sporopollenin.
d) they had root-like modified stems called rhizomorphs.
e) All of the above.

3. Scientists measure the 13C to 12C ratio in rocks to determine if the carbon present in the rocks was the
result of carbon fixation by photosynthesis. Evidence that photosynthesis evolved ~ 3.8 billion years ago
is indicated by which of the following?
a) A key photosynthesis enzyme prefers 13C.
b) The present atmosphere is 1% 13C and 99% 12C.
c) A low 13C to 12C ratio was found in 3.8 billion year old rocks because a key photosynthesis
enzyme prefers 12C.
d) A high 13C to 12C ratio was found in 3.8 billion year old rocks because a key photosynthesis
enzyme prefers 13C.
e) A high 13C to 12C ratio was found in 3.8 billion year old rocks because a key photosynthesis
enzyme prefers 12C.

4. The evolution of land plants led to an increase in atmospheric O2 and to a decrease in atmospheric CO2.
Which of the following explains how reduced CO2 levels led to the evolution of larger leaves?
a) Selected for lower stomatal density, which decreased evaporative cooling.
b) Selected for lower stomatal density and lower photosynthetic activity.
c) Selected for plants that overheat.
d) Selected for higher stomatal density, which increased evaporative cooling.
e) Selected for lower stomatal density and drought-tolerance.

5. Plants have alternating generations while animals do not. Alternation of generations is thought to benefit
plants because…
a) Like animal gametes, plant gametophytes are single-celled.
b) The gametophyte can be large or small.
c) The gametophyte can be free-living or within the sporophyte.
d) Deleterious recessive mutations will be revealed during female or male gametophyte function
and be eliminated from the population.
e) Sporophyte tissues protect the zygote.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination

6. Transposable elements can move from one region to another in the genomes of plants and animals.
Indicate which of the following is true about transposon movement.
a) Transposons only insert into regulatory regions of genes.
b) A transposon can insert into the regulatory region of a gene and alter expression of that gene.
c) Reverse Transcriptase replicates retrotransposon DNA during transposition.
d) Cut and Paste transposons transpose in a replicative manner.
e) Transposon movement usually results in beneficial mutations

7. The LEAFY gene in Arabidopsis and the Floricaula gene in Snap Dragon have a common ancestor gene,
are highly similar to each other and also perform the same function, to control flower development.
These genes are said to be ___________ .
a) paralogs
b) orthologs
c) duplicated
d) diverged
e) ancient

8. You are a researcher who performed a microarray using Arabidopsis to find genes associated with the
response to a cold stress by comparing gene expression in plants exposed to 4°C or room temperature
for 1 hour. You find that 200 genes were specifically up-regulated in the cold-exposed plants. You
order TAIR T-DNA knock-out mutations in some of these genes and then test one of these mutants,
mutant1 for its ability to recover after 1 hour at 4°C. You find that mutant1 displays a wild type ability
to recover from a cold stress. What does this tell you about the MUTANT1 gene and its role in
withstanding a cold stress?
a) Wild type MUTANT1 gene function is involved in the cold stress response.
b) There could be paralogs of MUTANT1 in the genome.
c) Wild type MUTANT1 gene function may not be required for responding to cold.
d) a and b are correct
e) b and c are correct.

9. Evidence for a number of whole genome duplications during plant evolution has been obtained recently
by sequencing the genomes of various plants including moss, gymnosperms, monocots and dicots. A
whole genome duplication occurred ~ 350 million years ago in the ancestral seed plant and this may
explain why seed plants are so diverse and dominate the world compared to non-vascular plants like
moss. Which of the following explains why duplication of genes or genomes promotes species diversity
and success.
a) Multiple gene copies allow divergence of gene function in one or more copies, while other
copies perform the original function, thus reducing the risk of lethality.
b) Whole genome duplications increase genome size.
c) Genome duplications can lead to genome instability.
d) Duplicated genes are sites for recombination and can be deleterious.
e) All of the above

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination

10. Endoreduplication occurs in endosperm cells, therefore ploidy levels are very high leading to
transcription and translation of multiple gene copies. How is this thought to benefit the plant?
a) Increases phytoalexin production.
b) Increases recombination among the duplicated genomes.
c) Increases C-containing products that sustain the developing embryo.
d) Increases transposable element movement.
e) None of the above

11. Which of the following is true about the role of pectin in plant cell walls?
a) Pectin acts to glue or cement cell walls together.
b) Glycans cross-link pectin molecules to one another.
c) Cellulose synthases are responsible for pectin biosynthesis.
d) Pectin cross-links remain intact during cell wall expansion.
e) Pectin is a polymer of glucose units.

12. Plant cells with microfibrils arranged in a criss-cross pattern will …

a) expand in a direction that is parallel to the microfibrils.
b) expand in a direction that is perpendicular to the microfibrils.
c) expand in all directions.
d) expand like the mor1 mutant.
e) not expand.

13. The maintenance of turgor pressure is important for plants. If leaf cells have a lower water potential
compared to the leaf apoplast, what will be observed?
a) Water will enter the plant cells, increasing the turgor pressure.
b) Water will leave the plant cells, decreasing the turgor pressure.
c) The leaf will not wilt.
d) Both a and c are correct
e) Both b and c are correct

14. The plant cuticle has a number of important functions. In comparison to wild type plants, what do you
predict would be the phenotype of a plant that cannot make cutin?
a) The cuticle would lack lignin.
b) The plant would be less susceptible to certain pathogens.
c) The plant would lose water.
d) The plant would lack a strong cell wall.
e) The plant would be drought tolerant.

15. Which of the following is true about the primary plant cell wall?
a) The root swelling 1 (rsw1) mutant has swollen and bulging cells due to a defect in making
pectin in its cell walls.
b) Cellulose microfibrils are cross-linked to one another by Ca2+ ions.
c) Cellulose microfibril cross-links remain intact during cell wall expansion.
d) Pectin forms an amorphous network around cellulose microfibrils & glycans.
e) The CESA family of gene products participate in producing lignin.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
16. Embryogenesis requires the formation of an apical – basal axis for proper formation of the embryo. The
plant hormone auxin is involved in this process. Which of the following provides support for this
statement?
a) The gnom embryo mutant never develops roots, hypocotyl or cotyledons.
b) The PIN1 protein in wild type is localized to the basal plasma membrane of cells in globular
stage embryos.
c) The PIN1 protein in the gnom mutant is localized randomly in the plasma membrane of cells
in globular stage embryos.
d) all of the above.
e) none of the above.

17. Plants are different from animals in a number of ways. Which of the following is an example of how
plants are different from animals?
a) Plant cells undergo mitosis and meiosis.
b) Some plants are polyploid and fertile because their genomes act like diploids during meiosis.
c) Plant genomes contain transposable elements.
d) Plant promoter sequences direct gene expression.
e) Plants use signal transduction cascades to respond to pathogen attack.

18. The Arabidopsis root is organized simply and contains an epidermis, cortex, endodermis and stele.
Which of the following describes how the endodermis and cortex are formed in the scarecrow mutant
root?
a) A single layer of cells with both endodermal and cortex identity are formed from the
cortex/endodermis initial stem cell.
b) A single layer of cells with both endodermal and cortex identity are formed from the
quiescent centre cells.
c) A ground tissue initial cell divides to produce the cortex/endodermis initial which divides
longitudinally to produce a cortical cell and an endodermal cell.
d) A quiescent centre cell divides to produce the cortex/endodermis initial which divides
longitudinally to produce a cortical cell and an endodermal cell.
e) All of the above

19. Which of the following is true of the Shoot Apical Meristem (SAM)?
a) The SAM is directly responsible for producing the floral organs.
b) The Central zone cells divide and eventually end up in the peripheral zone.
c) Lateral roots develop from the SAM.
d) The SAM contains cells that rarely divide.
e) New leaves originate from groups of cells in the Central Zone.

20. Arabidopsis researchers study floral organ identity genes to understand flower formation. This basic
information about flowering will be useful in applied studies to improve…
a) cold tolerance in crops like canola, cauliflower and wheat
b) disease resistance in crops like canola, cauliflower and wheat
c) oxidative stress tolerance in crops like canola, cauliflower and wheat
d) yields in crops like canola, cauliflower and wheat
e) yields in crops like carrots and potatoes

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
21. Which of the following is true about the male gametophyte during plant sex in Angiosperms?
a) The pollen tube delivers 1 sperm nuclei to the female gametophyte.
b) The central cell secretes substances that attract the pollen tube.
c) The tapetum secretes essential substances required for pollen formation.
d) The pollen grains are released from the anther by secretion.
e) The vegetative nucleus in the pollen tube fuses with the central cell.

22. Which of the following is not true of the female gametophyte/embryo sac?
a) The archesporial cell develops as an outgrowth of the carpel wall.
b) The haploid megaspore undergoes 3 rounds of mitosis to produce 8 nuclei.
c) Two sperm nuclei are delivered to the central cell.
d) The stigma of the female carpel captures pollen grains.
e) The egg cell of the embryo sac fuses with 1 of 2 sperm nuclei released by the pollen tube.

23. What will be the phenotype of an Arabidopsis plant that is mutant in all 3 SEPALLATA (SEP) genes?
a) No sepals, petals, anthers or carpels
b) No carpels, sepals, anthers
c) No sepals, petals or anthers
d) No sepals, anthers or carpels
e) No sepals or petals

24. A bacterial pathogen like Pseudomonas is perceived by Arabidopsis such that it closes its stomata.
Which of the following important functions will not occur at a high rate in this plant?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Transpiration Stream
c) Movement of water from the soil into the roots
d) Cooling of leaves by evapourative water loss
e) All of the above

25. Display your knowledge of how scientists think sucrose moves in the phloem in plants, by identifying
the incorrect statement below.
a) Small veins in source leaves are the sight of loading of sucrose into the sieve elements.
b) Sucrose is loaded into sieve elements leading to a reduced water potential in the sieve
elements compared to the surrounding cells, therefore water enters the sieve elements.
c) The movement of sucrose in the phloem is thought to occur by pressure flow.
d) Plasmodesmatal connections between companion cells and sieve elements are important in
symplastic, but not apoplastic phloem loading.
e) Roots are considered to be sink tissues.

26. If a plant is limited in its ability to obtain phosphorous from the soil, what impact will this have on the
plant?
a) There will be no impact; the plant will grow normally.
b) Growth of the plant will be stunted as nucleotide synthesis and phosphorylation reactions
will be inhibited.
c) Plant growth will be inhibited as macromolecules such as proteins will not be synthesized.
d) Pectin will be in short supply and lead to inhibition of plant growth.
e) Older leaves will curl up and die.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
27. You are a graduate student who discovered a new species of tropical plant in the Amazon. You bring
seeds of this plant back to the lab. The first question you ask about this new plant, is it an apoplastic or
symplastic phloem loader? You use microscopy and biochemistry to obtain circumstantial evidence that
it is an apoplastic phloem loader. What circumstantial evidence listed below led you to this conclusion?
a) It transports large sugars like raffinose.
b) There are no plasmodesmatal connections between mesophyll and companion cells.
c) The companion cells have plasma membrane sugar transporters.
d) Both a and b are correct
e) Both b and c are correct

28. You are a researcher interested in understanding how plants respond to light. You performed a mutant
screen and found a mutant plant that has a short hypocotyl and open cotyledons when it is grown in the
dark. The phenotype of this mutant suggests that…
a) the corresponding wild type gene is required for skotomorphogenesis.
b) the mutant is impaired in sensing obstacles in the soil.
c) the mutant is impaired in initiating photomorphogenesis.
d) study of this mutant will provide information about the genes required for the blue light
response pathway.
e) study of this mutant will provide information about the genes required for the Shade
Avoidance response.

29. An ein4 mutant never binds ethylene. In the presence of ethylene what phenotype will be observed for
the seedling triple response in this ein4 mutant?

a) Seedlings will become de-etiolated.

b) RAN1 will provide Cu2+ to the ethylene receptors.
c) The ETR1 receptor will activate CTR1 and the seedling triple response.
d) Seedlings will grow towards the light.
e) CTR1 will be activated and inhibit the seedling triple response.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
30. The levels of both gibberellic acid (GA) and abscisic acid (ABA) control a seed’s decision to germinate
or not. Choose the answer that best describes why a mutant seed may germinate later than a wild-type
seed.
a) GA levels are very low in the seed.
b) ABA levels are low in the seed.
c) ABA and GA levels are very similar
d) GA levels are high in the seed
e) Auxin levels are high in the seed.

31. Plants compete with other plants above ground for light using the Shade Avoidance Response and below
ground for nutrients using Kin Recognition. Which of the following is not true concerning these plant
competition strategies?
a) Evidence from Dr Dudley’s research group suggests that plant roots can differentiate
strangers from relatives (kin) by perceiving soluble molecules exuded by plant roots.
b) Light filtered through a neighbours’ leaves has high red content because chlorophyll absorbs
far-red light and reflects red light.
c) PHYB, PHYD and PHYE phytochrome photoreceptors allow plants to perceive high levels
of far-red light resulting from shading by neighbours.
d) In response to shade from neighbouring plants, plants elongate their stems and petioles and
reduce leaf expansion.
e) Some plants recognize the roots of strangers and respond by growing more roots to compete
for nutrients in the soil.

32. If the vacuolar Ca2+ transporter is non-functional, how would this affect the ABA-induced stomatal
closure pathway in response to rising ABA levels? Use the diagram below to help you answer this
question.

a) Cytoplasmic Ca2+ levels would rise moderately in guard cells.

b) The K+ outward channel would be stimulated moderately.
c) Turgor pressure would increase.
d) Both a and b are correct.
e) Both b and c are correct.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
33. Some plants respond to water deficit by accumulating compatible solutes. Which of the following is
true about compatible solutes and water deficit?
a) If compatible solutes accumulate in plant cells, the water potential inside the cells will not
change.
b) Plant cells become plasmolyzed if the water potential inside the cells is higher compared to
outside the cells.
c) Plants growing in soil with a high water potential will experience water deficit.
d) LEA proteins are an example of a compatible solute.
e) During water deficit, compatible solutes destabilize the hydration shell around proteins.

34. Which plant relies on induced responses to tolerate drought stress, rather than morphological
adaptations.
a) Blue Agave with succulent leaves.
b) Eutrema salsugineum
c) Oleander with sunken stomata
d) Mesquite tree with deep roots
e) Saguaro cactus with water-storing stems

35. Some plants grow in areas with periodic flooding which results in oxygen deprivation in their roots.
These plants tolerate this stress by producing:
a) pneumatophores
b) adventitious roots
c) extra trichomes
d) sharp spines
e) Corky bark

36. Plants responding to pathogens with basal resistance or R gene-mediated resistance deploy common
defense responses. Which of the following defense responses is not common to both pathways?
a) Production of phytoalexins
b) Production of pathogenesis-related proteins
c) Strengthening of the cell wall at the infection site
d) Perception of pathogen effector proteins.
e) Production of reactive oxygen species

37. An Arabidopsis plant that contains RPM1 is infected with Pseudomonas syringae containing the
virulence effectors, AvrRpm1 and AvrRpt2. Which of the following is not true concerning what is
happening at the molecular level in this infected plant?
a) The FLS2 flagellin receptor will perceive Pseudomonas flagellin.
b) Both the RPM1-AvrRpm1-RIN4 and AvrRpt2-RIN4 interactions occur.
c) AvrRpt2 degrades RIN4, inhibiting the basal signaling pathway.
d) AvrRpt2-induced RIN4 degradation transduces the signal leading to basal resistance.
e) RPM1 senses that RIN4 is phosphorylated which initiates the R gene-mediated signaling
pathway.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
38. If Pseudomonas syringae, a leaf pathogen of Arabidopsis could not produce its Type III Secretion
System, which of the following describes how this would affect the pathogen’s ability to infect the
plant?
a) Coronatine would not be produced.
b) The pathogen would swim into the leaf through the stomata.
c) Pathogen-associated molecular pattern molecules would not be detected.
d) The pathogen would grow and cause disease in the plant.
e) Bacterial effectors would not be secreted into the plant cell.

39. You are a plant biologist who performed a mutant screen to find plant genes required for a successful
mycorrhizae-Medicago interaction. You infected 1000’s of randomly mutagenized Medicago plants with
mycorrhizae. You found a plant mutant that had no arbuscules present in its cortical root cells. What
does this tell you about the function of the corresponding wild type plant gene during this interaction?
a) Involved in R gene-mediated resistance signal transduction.
b) Required for formation of a key endomycorrhizal structure.
c) Involved in the HR.
d) Involved in producing the Type III Secretion System.
e) Required for nodule formation.

40. Which of the following is a key and unique feature of Systemic Resistance compared to Basal or R
gene-mediated resistance?
a) Expression of defense genes.
b) A long distance signal moves in the phloem or via the air to distant leaves.
c) Signaling pathways are initiated.
d) The attacking organism’s growth in inhibited.
e) The plant defends itself and survives.

41. Teosinte is thought to be corn’s wild ancestor. Research indicates that only 5 small changes have led to
the evolution of corn from teosinte. What general principle of evolution does this research support?
a) Changes in key regulatory genes can lead to large phenotypic effects.
b) The TGA1 gene product controls glume development.
c) Teosinte and corn have 20 chromosomes.
d) Changes in defense genes genes can lead to large phenotypic effects.
e) The coding region of the TB1 gene is identical in both corn and teosinte.

42. Which of the following best describes why the Arabidopsis ap1cal1 double mutant has many
inflorescence meristems?
a) AP1 and CAL1 are involved in controlling the switch from inflorescence to floral meristems.
b) Cauliflower heads are made up of many inflorescence meristems.
c) AP1 is a floral organ identity gene required to produce sepals and petals.
d) AP1 and CAL1 are involved in controlling the switch from a vegetative Shoot Apical
Meristem (SAM) to a floral meristem.
e) Cauliflower with a mutant ap1 gene does not have many inflorescence meristems.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
43. Brassica napus (rutabaga), wheat and Brassica juncea (Indian Mustard) are each an example of:
a) A mustard plant
b) A tetrapolyploid
c) An autopolyploid
d) A hexapolyploid
e) An allopolyploid

44. Using scientific plant breeding, how would you obtain a plant line with high yields and drought
tolerance if you started with Variety 1 (low yielding, drought-tolerant) and Variety 2 (high yielding,
drought-intolerant)?
a) Cross-pollinate Variety 1 with Variety 2, followed by recurrent backcrossing to Variety 1
plus selection for drought tolerance.
b) Production of high yielding F1 hybrids by crossing low yielding parents.
c) Cross-pollinate Variety 1 with Variety 2, followed by recurrent backcrossing to Variety 2
plus selection for drought tolerance.
d) Produce pure-breeding lines.
e) Cross-pollinate Variety 1 with Variety 2.

45. The use of herbicides or herbicide-resistant crops can be problematic because it …

a) reduces tilling leading to less water loss from fields.
b) can select for herbicide-resistant weeds.
c) reduces herbicide applications leading to fewer CO2 emissions.
d) reduces tilling leading to carbon sequestration in the soil.
e) reduces tilling leading to fewer CO2 emissions.

46. Humans are not transformed by the DNA present in their food. Which of the following is responsible for
this fact?
a) Naked DNA is easily taken up and incorporated into the genome.
b) Bt genes degrade rapidly in soil.
c) DNA is not digested in the human stomach.
d) Food is digested into its component building blocks in human stomachs.
e) Some foods cause allergic reactions in some people.

47. In Canada, plants with new traits are assessed by Agriculture Canada and Health Canada. Which of the
following is not true about this assessment process.
a) Plants with new traits produced by plant breeders or using transgenic technologies are
assessed.
b) Data on weediness, gene flow, impact on non-target organisms and biodiversity is not
required during the assessment.
c) Field trials are conducted using containment precautions.
d) Allergy and toxicity testing may be required by Health Canada.
e) Adverse affects are monitored during testing and after commercial release.

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Biology 2D03 Final Examination
48. Some scientists believe that it will be possible to produce vaccines in plants and vaccinate people using
these edible vaccines. Which of the following describes a potential risk in using edible vaccines?
a) Edible vaccines are inexpensive compared to injected vaccines
b) It is easy to administer an edible vaccine (no needles or nurses required).
c) It is simple to store an edible vaccine compared to injected vaccines.
d) Crops destined to be edible vaccines could contaminate the food supply.
e) A better name for edible vaccines would be plant-derived vaccines

49. You are a researcher working for a Canadian Ag-Biotech company interested in improving disease
resistance in Ontario crops. You have isolated the Coat Protein from the Soybean Mosaic Virus (SMV)
that has recently been attacking the soybean crop in Ontario. You transform the SMV coat protein into
soybean, under the control of a strong constitutive promoter. How does over-expression of the SMV
coat protein protect soybeans from this virus?
a) The soybean virus is degraded.
b) The soybean virus is unable to shed its coat.
c) The soybean virus cannot enter plant cells.
d) The soybean virus cannot move cell to cell.
e) All of the above

50. Farmers using a new Monsanto variety of herbicide-resistant canola, found that the herbicide resistance
phenotype was showing up in the weedy mustard plants around their fields after only 2 years of using
this new canola variety. How would you advise the scientists at Monsanto to fix this problem?
a) Produce a new canola line in which the herbicide resistance gene is present in the chloroplast
genome.
b) Genetically manipulate canola to reproduce using apomixis so that it will produce seeds
without pollination.
c) Express the herbicide resistance genes in the leaves, stems and roots not the pollen.
d) Produce a stacked canola with genes to resist multiple herbicides.
e) All of the above.

Proceed to Section B on next page.

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Name: Student Number:
Biology 2D03 Final Examination
SECTION B: WRITTEN ANSWER
(30 Marks, plus 1 Bonus Question worth 5 marks)

Answer ALL 5 of the following questions in the space provided. Use point form or sentences to
answer each question. Use diagrams where indicated.

51. (Total: 2 marks) During the first 100 million years of plant evolution, the sporophyte stage became
larger and more complex. Compared to gametophyte-dominant plants like Bryophytes, the seed plants
became very successful and spread out across the earth. Describe and explain two reasons why this is
thought to have occurred.
Reason 1 (1 mark) The seed evolved and protected the zygote during development.

Reason 2 (1 mark) The female and male gametophytes develop within the protective environment of the
sporophyte.

52. (Total: 7 marks) During the Shade Avoidance response, chlorophyll and some of the phytochromes
play a role in allowing the plant to sense the presence of surrounding neighbours.

a) Describe the role of chlorophyll, red:far-red ratios and phytochromes in the Shade Avoidance
response in a plant that is growing close to neighbouring plants. (3 marks)
The neighbours’ chlorophyll will absorb red light, but reflect far-red light giving a low red:far-red
ratio.
(1 mark)

The shaded plant will detect this low red to far-red light ratio with its phytochromes (1 mark) and
this will initiate the Shade Avoidance Response. (1 mark)

b) Describe how the plant alters its growth during the Shade Avoidance response. (2 marks)

The shaded plant will elongate its stems and petioles (1 mark) and reduce its leaf expansion (1
mark).

c) How does the Shade Avoidance response benefit the plant? (2 marks)

The plant will grow out of the shade of its neighbours (1 mark) and into full sunlight allowing it to
efficiently photosynthesize. (1 mark)

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Name: Student Number:
Biology 2D03 Final Examination
53. (Total: 7 marks) You are a member of the Eutrema research team at McMaster. In looking through the
Eutrema next generation sequencing transcriptome data, you noticed that a transcription factor (TF) was
highly expressed in plants exposed to a salt stress compared to untreated plants. You think that this TF
may be a key positive TF involved in Eutrema’s ability to tolerate salt stress. Given this, would it be
more informative to over-express or anti-sense this TF in Eutrema to determine its role in salt tolerance?
Answer this large question by answering these 6 smaller questions.
1. Indicate which type of transgenic plant you would create (1 mark).
2. Describe how you would create the transgenic plant (1 mark)
3. Describe how you would select for transformed plants (1 mark)
4. Describe how you would show that the transgene is expressed appropriately in the plant (2 marks).
5. Explain why you chose to make an anti-sense or an over-expression transgenic plant (1 mark).
6. Explain how you will use this transgenic plant to understand the TF’s role in salt stress (1 mark).

1. Anti-sense (1 mark)
2. Using Agrobacterium, transform Eutrema with T-DNA containing a strong constitutive promoter
driving expression of the anti-sense version of TF (1 mark).
3. Screen for transformed plants using a selectable marker gene that is also present on the T-DNA (1
mark).
4. Show that TF expression is reduced (1 mark) using RT-PCR (or northern blotting) (1 mark).
5. I chose anti-sense to reduce the amount of TF to determine what effect this would have on Eutrema’s
salt tolerance phenotype (1 mark).
6. If the TF positively controls the expression of key salt tolerance genes, then anti-sensing/reducing
expression of this TF should disrupt the salt tolerance response compared to wild type plants
providing evidence that this TF is very important for this stress pathway (1 mark).
OR
1. Over-expression (1 mark)
2. Using Agrobacterium, transform Eutrema with T-DNA containing a strong constitutive promoter
driving expression of the sense version of TF (1 mark).
3. Screen for transformed plants using a selectable marker gene that is also present on the T-DNA (1
mark).
4. Show that TF is over-expressed (1 mark) using RT-PCR (or northern blotting) (1 mark).
5. I chose over-expression to increase the amount of TF to determine what effect this would have on
Eutrema’s salt tolerance phenotype (1 mark).
6. If the TF positively controls the expression of key salt tolerance genes, then over-expression of this
TF should increase the salt tolerance response compared to wild type plants providing evidence that
this TF is very important for this stress pathway (1 mark).

54. (Total: 4 marks) Water movement from the roots to the leaves of a well-watered plant on a sunny day
will take the apoplastic route through the cell walls and casparian strip into xylem vessels and up to the
leaves. Explain what drives this movement of water.

The sun is out and the plant has sufficient water, so the stomata are open (1 mark).
Thus evapouration from the leaves will be high (1 mark) and therefore the transpiration force/rate will
be high (1 mark).
This transpiration rate/force will be high enough for water to move via the apoplastic route (1 mark).

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Name: Student Number:
Biology 2D03 Final Examination
55. (Total: 10 marks) Using examples from the course material and at least one example from one article
posted to the Biotech folder:

a) Describe 2 GM crops by indicating the transgene inserted (1 mark) and the function of the
transgene (1 mark).
b) Then explain the benefits of these 2 GM crops (2 marks).
c) Describe 2 other GM crops by indicating the transgene inserted (1 mark) and the function
of the transgene (1 mark)
d) Then explain the problems with the use of these 2 GM crops (2 marks).
e) Based on the examples you described, explain why you think the benefits outweigh the risks
or the risks outweigh the benefits (2 marks).

a) For GM crop #1 and #2 – indicate transgene (1 mark each) and transgene function (1 mark each)

b) Explain the benefit of GM crop #1 and #2 (1 mark each)

c) GM crop #3 and #4 – indicate transgene (1 mark each) and transgene function (1 mark each)

d) Explain the problems with use of GM crop #3 and #4 (1 mark each)

e) Based on the examples they describe above, they must give a rational and logical reason why they
are for or against GM crops. In other words they need to tell us why they thing the benefits outweigh
the risks or vice versa. They could also argue both for and against, as long as it makes sense (2
marks)

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Name: Student Number:
Biology 2D03 Final Examination

Page 16 of 17
Name: Student Number:
Biology 2D03 Final Examination
Bonus Question (Total: 5 marks)

Use a diagram (2 marks) and text (3 marks) to describe and explain the ZigZag model for the co-
evolution of plants and pathogens.

2 marks for the diagram, 3 marks for text below

1. Plants recognize general pathogen molecules like flagellin or chitin with plant receptors and this
initiates a successful basal plant defense, therefore the pathogen can’t grow and reproduce.

2. Pathogens have evolved ways around this defense. Many pathogens secrete/inject virulence
effectors/ proteins into plant cells in order to suppress basal plant defense and therefore grow and
reproduce (or cause disease).

3. In response to this, plants have evolved Resistance Receptors that recognize the pathogen virulence
effectors/proteins and this initiates a very robust and successful R gene-mediated resistance
response.

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