BIO SET B - Watermark
BIO SET B - Watermark
BIO SET B - Watermark
SECTION – A
6. Darwin in his 'Natural selection Theory' did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic
evolution:
a) Parasites and predators as natural enemies.
b) Survival of the fittest.
c) Struggle for existence.
d) Discontinuous variations.
7. The allele for black hair (B) is dominant over brown hair (b) and the allele for brown eye (E) is dominant
over blue eye (e). Out of the offspring obtained upon mating a black haired and brown eyed individual (BbEe)
with a brown haired and brown eyed individual (bbEE). The ratio of brown haired and brown eyed
individuals to black haired and brown eyed individuals is -
a) 2:1 b) 3:1 c) 2:2 d) 1:2
9. Read the given statements and select the option which are true (T) and which are false (F).
i) Typhoid fever can be confirmed by Widal test.
ii) Entamoeba histolytica resides in jejunum and ileum parts of the small intestine and is more common in
females than males.
iii) Elephantiasis is caused by a protozoan parasite Trichophyton.
iv) Plant yielding ‘cocaine’ is native to South America.
I II III IV
a) T F F F
b) T F F T
c) F T F T
d) F T T T
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10. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
a) phage b) Ti-plasmid c) Retrovirus d) pBR322
11. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached earlobes
as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles, the female individuals.
Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct?
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion: Pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage in some angiosperms.
Reason: In some species, the vegetative cell of pollen grain divides mitotically to form two male gametes.
15. Assertion: Interferons are the proteins produced by body cells infected by viruses.
Reason: Interferons stimulate inflammation at the site of injury.
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16. Assertion: A genetic probe is helpful in the detection of specific DNA sequence.
Reason: Genetic probe is a radiolabelled DNA, which has base sequence complementary to the DNA
fragment being detected.
SECTION – B
17. How do ‘implants’ act as an effective method of contraception in human females? Mention its one advantage
over contraceptive pills.
18.
19. Give the names and functions of the hormones released by the pituitary gland which are involved in the
process of spermatogenesis.
20. a) You have created a recombinant DNA molecule by ligating a gene to a plasmid vector. By mistake,
exonuclease enzyme is added to the test tube containing recombinant DNA. How will your experiment
get affected as you plan for a transformation now?
b) How is endonuclease different from exonuclease?
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21. a) Draw a pyramid of number considering a big banyan tree supporting a population of insects, small birds
and their predators.
b) Construct an ideal pyramid of energy when 1,000,000 joules of sunlight is available. Label all its trophic
levels.
OR
The gross primary productivity (GPP) of a meadow in southeastern Kansas is found to be 38,000 Kcal/m2.
Respiration which is measured by the amount of CO2 released is 13,500 Kcal/m2, what is the net primary
productivity (NPP) for this ecosystem, in Kcal/m2 per year?
SECTION – C
22. Discuss any three types of Assisted Reproductive Technologies practiced to help infertile couple.
23. Trace the journey of the ovum from the ovary until the implantation of the embryo diagrammatically.
24. How do different organisms evolve similar adaptive structures? Provide an example to illustrate this
phenomenon.
25. a) In a 3.8Kbp long piece of DNA, 820 Adenine bases were found. What would be the number of Cytosine
bases?
b) In a nucleus, the number of RNA nucleoside triphosphates is 10 times the number of DNA nucleoside
triphosphates. But only DNA nucleotides are added during the DNA replication. Why?
26. a) Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for integrated pest management in an ecological sensitive area.
Explain giving two reasons.
b) What is organic farming?
c) Why is it suggested to switch over to organic farming?
27. “Specific Bt Toxin gene is incorporated into cotton plant so as to control infestation of Bollworm”.
Mention the source organism from which the gene was isolated and represent the mode of action in the
form of a flowchart.
OR
How is transgenic tobacco plant protected against Meloidogyne incognita? Explain the process.
28. The graphs (X) and (Y) below depict the diurnal variations in the solar radiations in the month of June
(Summer) and in the month of December (Winter).
a) Which of the two graphs depict tropical region and temperate regions respectively?
b) Which of the two regions (X) or (Y) will show high biological diversity and why?
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SECTION – D
Question No. 29 and 30 are Case-based questions. Each question has 3 subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.
a) Identify and name the technique. What is the purpose of this technique?
b) Explain why DNA has an overall negative charge.
c) What is the source of agarose? Which property of its gel helps in the above technique?
OR
What is the role of electric current and the Ethidium Bromide in the process?
OR
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In an aquarium, two herbivorous species of fish are living together and feeding on phytoplanktons. As per
the Gause’s principle, one of the species is to be eliminated in due course of time, but both are surviving.
Explain how is it possible.
SECTION – E
31. a) How can a plant flowering in Mumbai be fertilised by pollen grains of the same species in New Delhi?
Provide suitable explanation for your answer.
b) Trace the development of the polyploidal cell that is formed after double fertilisation in a groundnut seed
and a maize seed.
OR
Observe the given diagram of an enlarged microsporangium.
Identify and name the parts which are -
a) involved in dehiscence of the anther.
b) binucleate.
c) identify and trace the fate of cells labelled ‘T’ diagrammatically till it
reaches the style of the pistil.
32. a) You have an individual who is totally heterozygous for 2 genes that are not linked. One gene is for ear size
(AA or Aa being big ears whereas aa is for small ears) and the other gene is for bulgy eyes (BB and Bb
for bulgy eyes whereas bb represents normal eyes). If you testcross this individual, what are the resulting
genotypes and phenotypes?
b) If the 4 types of offspring from the above cross, did not show 1:1:1:1, but were as follows, what would
this represent?
Complete a Punnett square for this cross and record the probabilities for genotypes and phenotypes of the
offspring as ratios.
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33. A patient had tested positive to Elisa test. Identify the disease and pathogen responsible. Discuss the life
cycle of the pathogen with the help of a diagrammatic representation
OR
a) Drugs and alcohol give short-term 'high' and long-term ‘damages’. Discuss the damages by giving
suitable examples.