Gate Aerospace 2011 Solution
Gate Aerospace 2011 Solution
Gate Aerospace 2011 Solution
𝑉 = 3𝑥𝑖 + 3𝑥𝑦𝑗 − 𝑦𝑧 2 𝑘
𝑖 𝑗 𝑘
∂ ∂ ∂
⃗ =|
The curl of V, ∇ × 𝑉 | = −𝑧 2 𝑖 + 3𝑦𝑘
∂𝑥 ∂𝑦 ∂𝑧
3𝑥 3𝑥𝑦 −𝑦𝑧 2
Periodic functions,
𝑓(𝑥 + 𝑇) = 𝑓(𝑥), where 𝑇 is periodic interval
For example, 𝑓(𝑥) = cons. is a periodic function.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sol. B
f(𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ) = 𝑥12 + 2𝑥22 + 𝑒 −𝑥1 −𝑥2
∂𝑓
= 2𝑥1 − 𝑒 −𝑥1 −𝑥2 … (1)
∂𝑥1
∂𝑓
= 4𝑥2 − 𝑒 −𝑥1 −𝑥2 … … (2)
∂𝑥2
𝑥1 = 1
𝑥2 = −5
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sol. A
2𝜋𝜉 1 𝑥0
𝛿= = log
√1−𝜉 2 𝑛 𝑥𝑛
𝐶
𝜉=
𝐶𝑐
2𝜋𝐶
𝜌=
√4𝑘𝑚−𝐶
𝐶𝑐 = 2√𝑚𝑘
10. Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass system of spring stiffness k1 and m
mass which has a natural frequency of 10 rad/s. Consider another single degree of freedom
spring-mass system of spring stiffness k2 and m mass which has a natural frequency of 20
rad/s. The spring stiffness is equal to
A. K1
B. 2K1
C. K1/4
D. 4K1
Sol. D
𝑘
𝜔𝑛 = √
𝑚
𝑘
10 = √ 1 … (1)
𝑚
𝑘
20 = √ 2 … (2)
𝑚
Eqn (2)/(1)
𝑘2
=4
𝑘1
𝑘2 = 4𝑘1
12. An impulsive launch of a rocket minimizes the loss of burn-out velocity due to
A. Aerodynamic drag only
B. Gravitational force only
C. Both aerodynamic drag and gravitational forces
D. Reaction jet control surface
Sol. C
𝑑𝑉
m = F − D − mgsin 𝜃
𝑑𝑡
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sol. B
For gliding,
L = Wcos 𝛾
D = Wsin 𝛾
𝐷
𝛾 = tan−1 ( )
𝐿
16. If an aircraft is performing a positive yawing manoeuvre, the side slip angle
A. is always zero
B. is never zero
C. is always negative
D. could be any value
Sol. D
17. For an airplane to be statically stable, its centre of gravity must always be
A. ahead of wing aerodynamic centre
B. after of the wing aerodynamic centre
C. ahead of neutral point
D. after of neutral point
Sol. C
𝐶𝑚,𝑐𝑔 = 𝐶𝑚,0 + 𝐶𝑚,𝛼 ⋅ 𝛼
∂𝑐𝑚
For statically stable, 𝐶𝑚,0 > 0 and 𝐶𝑚,𝛼 = <0
∂𝛼
18. It is seen that the drag polar of a certain aerofoil is symmetric about the Cd axis. This
drag polar could refer to
A. NACA 0012
B. NACA 4415
C. NACA 23012
D. None of the above
Sol. A
𝐶𝐷 = 𝐶𝐷0 + K𝐶𝐿2
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sol. C
Note – Go through potential flow theory over spinning circular cylinder.
Book - Fundamental of aerodynamics by Anderson (Chapter - 3)
𝑚̀𝑐
By-pass ratio., 𝛽 =
𝑚̀ℎ
For increasing thrust per fuel mass, by pass is used.
23. The pressure ratio in any one stage of a jet engine compressor is limited by
A. entry stagnation temperature in that stage
B. entry Mach number in that stage
C. pressure gradient induced separation in that stage
D. mass flow rate in that stage
Sol. C
At high pressure ratio, flow will separate inside the compressor then increase loss
across the compressor
24. Thermodynamic cycle on which the jet engine operates can be
A. open Rankine cycle only
B. either open or closed Rankine cycle
C. open Brayton cycle only
D. either open or closed Brayton cycle
Sol. C
𝐹
𝜂𝑝 ∝
𝑚̀𝑎
Sol. 2.45|2.55
5𝑃𝐿3
Total deflection, 𝛿 =
48𝐸𝐼
P = 1 N,
L = 1 m,
Area = 0.01 × 0.01 m2
E = 50GPa
𝑏𝑑 3
𝐼= = 8.33 × 10−10 m4
12
So 𝛿 = 2.5 mm
27. Consider a beam in bending with a solid circular cross-section of 1 mm2, which is
subjected to a transverse shear force of 1 N. The shear stress at the center of the cross-
section (in N/mm2) is ____. (Up to two decimal point)
Sol. 1.25|1.35
N
1.33 2 mm
Area, 𝐴 = 1 mm2
F=1N
𝐹
Shear stress, 𝜏 = ⋅ A𝑦⃐
𝐼𝑏
4 4 𝐹 𝑁
𝜏max = 𝜏avg = × = 1.33
3 3 𝐴 𝑚𝑚2
28. A simply supported slender column of square cross section (width = depth = d) has
to be designed such that it buckles at the same instant as it yields. Length of the column is
given to be 1.57 m and it is made of a material whose Young’s modulus is 200 GPa and yield
stress is 240 MPa. The width, d, of the column (in cm) should be ____. (Up to two decimal
point)
Sol. 5.95|6.05
𝜋2 𝐸𝐼
𝑃𝑐𝑟 =
𝐿2
𝑃𝑐𝑟 𝜋2 𝐸𝐼
𝜎𝑐𝑟 = =
𝐴 𝐿2 ⋅𝑑 2
𝑏𝑑 2 𝑑4
𝐼= =
12 12
L = 1.57 m
E = 200GPa
𝜎𝑦 = 240MPa
𝜋2 𝐸𝐼
Now, 𝜎𝑐𝑟 = 𝜎𝑦 =
𝐿2 ⋅𝑑 2
𝑑 = 5.99 ≈ 6 cm
29. A turbojet powered aircraft is flying at Mach number 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The
inlet and exit areas of the engine are 0.7 m2 and 0.4 m2 respectively. The exhaust gases have
velocity of 500 m/s and pressure of 60 kPa. The free stream pressure, density and speed of
sound are 26.5 kPa, 0.413 kg/m3 and 299.5 m/s respectively. The thrust of the engine (in kN)
is _____
Sol. 29|33
𝑉𝑎
Thrust, F = (𝑚̀ 𝑎 + 𝑚̀ 𝑓 )𝑉𝑒 − 𝑚̀ 𝑎 𝑉𝑎 + (𝑃𝑒 − 𝑃𝑎 )𝐴𝑒 … (1 M = = 0.8
𝑎
a = 299.5 m/s
𝑉𝑎 = 239.6 m/s
𝑉𝑒 = 500 m/s
𝑃𝑒 = 60kPa
𝑃𝑎 = 26.5kPa
kg
𝑚̀ 𝑎 = 𝜌𝑎 ⋅ 𝐴𝑖 ⋅ 𝑉𝑎 = 0.413 × 0.7 × 239.6 = 69.268
s
From eqtn (1),
Thrust, F = 𝑚̀ 𝑎 [(1 + 𝑓)𝑉𝑒 − 𝑉𝑎 ] + (𝑃𝑒 − 𝑃𝑎 )𝐴𝑒 .
(2) 𝑓 ≪ 1
So, F = 31.437KN
30. A low-speed wind tunnel has a contraction ratio of 14:1 and the cross-sectional area
of the test section is 1 m2. The static pressure difference between the settling chamber and
the test section is 40 cm of water column. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2, ρair = 1.2 kg/m3 and ρwater =
1000 kg/ms3. The speed of air in the test section (in m/s) is ___.
Sol. 80|82
B.
C.
D.
Sol. A
𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 − sin 𝑥
𝑓 ′ (𝑥) = 1 − cos 𝑥
f(𝑥𝑘 )
𝑥𝑘+1 = 𝑥𝑘 −
f(𝑥𝑘 )
sin 𝑥𝑘 −𝑥𝑘 cos 𝑥𝑘
=
1−cos 𝑥𝑘
32. Consider the matrix where a and b are real numbers. The two eigenvalues of
this matrix are real and distinct when
A. a 0 and b 0
B. a 0 and b 0
C. a 0 and b 0
D. a = 0 and b = 0
Sol. C
2 𝑎
A=[ ]
𝑏 2
|𝐴 − 𝜆𝐼| = 0
𝜆2 − 4𝜆 + 4 − ab = 0
a)
b)
c)
d)
Sol. D
𝑑𝑦
= 𝑦3𝑒𝑡 𝑡2
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑦
∫ = ∫ 𝑒 𝑡 𝑡 2 dt
𝑦3
1
− = 𝑡 2 𝑒 𝑡 − 2t𝑒 𝑡 + 2𝑒 𝑡 + c
2𝑦 2
At t = 0, y = 1
C = −5/2
1
y=√
5−2𝑒 𝑡 (𝑡 2 −2𝑡+2)
34. A jet engine is operating at a Mach number of 0.8 at an altitude of 10 km. The
efficiency of the air intake is 0.8 and that of the compressor is 0.87. The total temperatures
(in K) at the exits of the air intake and the compressor respectively are (Ambient pressure =
26.5 kPa; Ambient temperature = 223.3 K; Gas constant, γ = 1.4; = 8)
A. 251.9 and 458.2
B. 234.9 and 486.8
C. 251.9 and 486.8
D. 234.9 and 458.2
Sol. C
𝑀𝑎 = 0.8, 𝜂𝑑 = 0.8, 𝜂𝑐 = 0.87
𝑃𝑎 = 26.5kPa
𝑇𝑎 = 223.3 K
𝛾 = 1.4, 𝑃𝑟𝑐 = 8
𝑇0𝑎 𝛾−1 𝑇01
=1+ 𝑀𝑎2 =
𝑇𝑎 2 𝑇𝑎
So, 𝑇01 = 251.88 K
𝑇′02 −𝑇01
𝜂𝑐 =
𝑇02 −𝑇01
𝛾−1
1
𝑇02 = 𝑇01 [1 + ((𝑃𝑟𝑐 ) 𝜈 − 1)] = 486.8 K
𝜂𝑐
35. A rocket engine is tested on a test bed under the ideal condition of fully expanded jet.
The exhaust velocity is 2 km/s through a nozzle of area 2.5 m2. The mass flow rate is 200
kg/s. The specific impulse of the propellant and the thrust developed respectively are
(assume g = 9.81 m/s2)
A. 175.87 s and 200 kN
B. 203.87 s and 400 kN
C. 231.87 s and 200 kN
D. 280.87 s and 400 kN
Sol. B
𝑉𝑒 = 2 km/s, 𝑃𝑒 = 2.5 m2
𝑚̀ 𝑎 = 200 kg/s
𝐹 𝑐 𝑉𝑒
𝐼𝑠𝑝 = = = = 203.87 s
𝑚̀𝑝 ⋅𝑔 𝑔 𝑔
F = 𝑚̀ 𝑝 ⋅ 𝑐 = 400KN
36. Conditions when subjected to the following stresses (in MPa): σxx = 450, σyy = 450,
Ꚍxy = 75, Ꚍxz = 0, Ꚍyz = 0. What are the remaining components of stresses (in M Pa) and
strains? Assume the material to be isotropic and linear-elastic with Young’s modulus E = 200
GPa and Poisson’s ratio ν=1/3.
A. σzz = 0, εxx = 0.00225, εyy=0.00225, γxy = 0.002, γxz = 0, γyz =0
B. σzz = 300, εxx = 0.001, εyy = 0.001, γxy = 0.001, γxz = 0, γyz = 0
C. σzz = 300, εxx = 0.00225, εyy = 0.00225, γxy = 0.001, γxz = 0, γyz = 0
D. σzz = 0, εxx = 0.001, εyy = 0.001, γxy = 0.002, γxz = 0, γyz = 0
Sol. B
For plane strain conditions,
1
𝜖𝑧𝑧 = [𝜎𝑧𝑧 − 𝛾(𝜎𝑥𝑥 + 𝜎𝑦𝑦 )] = 0
𝐸
𝜎𝑧𝑧 = 𝛾(𝜎𝑥𝑥 + 𝜎𝑦𝑦 ) = 300MPa
1
𝜖𝑥𝑥 = [𝜎𝑥𝑥 − 𝛾(𝜎𝑧𝑧 + 𝜎𝑦𝑦 )] = 0.001
𝐸
1
𝜖𝑦𝑦 = [𝜎𝑦𝑦 − 𝛾(𝜎𝑧𝑧 + 𝜎𝑥𝑥 )] = 0.001
𝐸
𝛾𝑥𝑧 = 𝛾𝑦𝑧 = 0
𝛾𝑥𝑦 = 0.001
37. Which of the following Airy’s stress functions could satisfy the given boundary
conditions, assuming constant values of σxx=P, σyy = Q and Ꚍxy = R, along the boundary?
𝑥2 𝑦2
A. Φ = P +Q - Rxy
2 2
𝑦2 𝑥2
B. Φ = P +Q + Rxy
2 2
𝑦2 𝑥2
C. Φ = P +Q - Rxy
2 2
𝑦2 𝑥2
D. Φ = P + Q + Rxy
2 2
Sol. C
𝜎𝑥𝑥 = P, 𝜎𝑦𝑦 = Q, 𝜎𝑥𝑦 = R
∂2 ∅ ∂2 ∅ ∂2 ∅
𝜎𝑥𝑥 = , 𝜎𝑦𝑦 = , 𝜎𝑥𝑦 = −
∂𝑦 2 ∂𝑥 2 ∂𝑥𝑦
38. An aircraft is performing a coordinated turn manoeuvre at a bank angle of 30° and
forward speed of 100 m/s. Assume g = 9.81 ms– 2. The load factor and turn radius
respectively are
2
A. and 1.76 km
√3
B. √3 and 17.6 km
C. 2 and 0.18 km
2
D. and 17.6 km
√3
Sol. A
∅ = 30∘ , 𝑉 = 100 m/s, 𝑔 = 9.81 m/s 2
𝐿cos ∅ = 𝑊
𝑚𝑉 2
𝐿sin ∅ =
𝑅
𝐿 1 2
n= = =
𝑊 cos ∅ √3
𝑚𝑉 2
R= = 1.76 km
𝑊tan ∅
39. An aircraft in a steady level flight at forward speed of 50 m/s suddenly rolls by 180°
and becomes inverted. If no other changes are made to the configuration or controls of the
aircraft, the nature of the subsequent flight path taken by the aircraft and its characteristic
parameter(s) (assume g = 9.81ms– 2) are
A. straight line path with a speed of 50 m/s
B. upward circular path with a speed of 50 m/s and radius of 127.4 m
C. downward circular path with a speed of 50 m/ s and radius of 127.4 m/s
D. downward circular path with a speed of 25 m/s and radius of 254.8 m/s
Sol. C
For steady and level flight,
𝐿=𝑊
Nor after rolling 180∘ ,
𝑚𝑉 2
L+W= = mg
𝑅
𝑉2 502
R= = = 127.4
𝑔 2 × 9.81
40. An aircraft with a mass of 5000 kg takes off from sea level with a forward speed of
50 m/s and starts to climb with a climb angle of 15°. The rate of climb and excess thrust
available at the start of the climb respectively (assume g = 9.81 ms– 2) are
A. 13.40 m/s and 13146.0 N
B. 12.94 m/s and 12694.1 N
C. 13.40 m/s and 12694.1 N
D. 12.94 m/s and 13146.0 N
Sol. B
R/C = Vsin 𝛾
𝛾 = 15∘ , V = 50 m/s
𝑉cos 𝛾 = 50
𝑉 = 51.76∘
R/C = Vsin 𝛾 = 13.39 m/s
Now, excess power, T-D = W sin 𝛾 = 12,695.07 N
41. A glider having a mass of 500 kg is taken to an altitude of 1000 m with a jeep moving
on ground at 54 kmph. Upon reaching the required altitude in 50 s, the glider is released and
starts its descent. Under the assumption of equilibrium glide, the range and endurance of
the glider for a constant lift-to-drag ratio of 15 are
A. 15.0 km and 1002.2 s respectively
B. 15.0 km and 601.3 s respectively
C. 1.0 km and 601.3 s respectively
D. 1.0 km and 50 s respectively
Sol. A
𝐷 𝐻
tan 𝛾 = =
𝐿 𝑅
𝛾 = 3.814
R = 1000 × 15 = 15 km
V = 54kmph = 15 m/s
𝑉sink = vsin𝛾 = 0.99 m/s
ℎ
T= = 1002.2 s
𝑉sink
42. An elliptic orbit has its perigee at 400 km above the Earth’s surface and apogee at
3400 km above the Earth’s surface. For this orbit, the eccentricity and semi-major axis
respectively are (assume radius of Earth = 6400 km)
A. 0.18 and 8300 km
B. 0.18 and 1900 km
C. 0.22 and 8300 km
D. 0.22 and 1900 km
Sol. A
ℎ𝑝 = 400 km
ℎ𝑎 = 3400 km
R = 6400 km
𝑟𝑝 = R + ℎ𝑝 = 6800 km
𝑟𝑎 = R + ℎ𝑎 = 9800 km
𝑟𝑎 −𝑟𝑝
e= = 0.18
𝑟𝑎 +𝑟𝑝
a(1 − e) = 𝑟𝑝
a = 8292.68 km
43. An aircraft in level flight encounters a vertical gust, which excites the phugoid mode.
The phugoid motion completes 10 cycles in 50 s and its amplitude reduces to half of its
maximum value in 25 s. The eigenvalues of the phugoid mode are
A. – 0.05±0.02i
B. – 0.5±0.2i
C. – 0.028±1.26i
D. 0.028±1.26i
Sol. C
Time period, T = 50/10 = 5 s
2𝜋
𝜔𝑛 = = 1.257rad/s
𝑇
1 𝑥 1
Logarithmic decrement, 𝛿 = ln 0 = ln 2 = 0.1386
𝑛 𝑥𝑛 5
2𝜋𝜉
Now, 𝛿 =
√1−𝜉 2
𝜉 = 0.022 (under-damped)
𝜆1,2 = −𝜉𝜔𝑛 ± √1 − 𝜉 2 𝜔𝑛 = −0.0275 ± 𝑖1.256
44. Consider the inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream conditions, M1 = 2, p1 = 1
atm and T1 = 288 K around a sharp expansion corner (Ө = 20°) as shown below. The Prandtl-
Meyer function v, i s given as a function of Mach number M, as
A. 2.00
B. 1.76
C. 2.83
D. 3.14
Sol. C
𝑀1 = 2, 𝑝1 = 1 atm, 𝑇1 = 288 K, 𝜃 = 20∘
𝜃 = 𝑣(𝑀2 ) − 𝑣(𝑀1 )
𝑣(𝑀1 ) = 26.38∘
𝑣(𝑀2 ) = 𝜃 + 𝑣(𝑀1 ) = 46.35∘
45. Consider a steady two dimensional zero-pressure gradient laminar flow of air over a
flat plate as shown below. The free stream conditions are U∞ = 100 ms– 1, ρ∞ = 1.2 kg m– 3,
p∞ = 1 atm and µ∞ = 1.8 × 10– 5 k g m– 1s – 1. The ratio of displacement thickness to
momentum thickness of the boundary layer at a distance of 2 m from the leading edge is
A. 7.53
B. 2.59
C. 2.91
D. 0.39
Sol. B
46. In the context of Prandtl’s lifting line theory for a finite wing, which of the following
combinations of statements is TRUE?
P: The bound vortex is responsible for the lift force
Q: The trailing vortices are responsible for the induced drag
R: The bound vortex is responsible for the induced drag
S: The trailing vortices are responsible for the lift force
A. P , Q
B. Q ,R
C. R , S
D. P , S
Sol. A
47. Consider flow over a thin aerofoil at Mach number, M∞ = 0.5 at an angle of attack α.
Using the Prandtl- Glauert rule for compressibility correction, the formula for lift
coefficient 𝐶𝑙 can be written as
A. 5.44 α
B. 6.28 α
C. 7.26 α
D. 14.52 α
Sol. C
𝑀∞ = 0.5
The partial differential equation (PDE) governing free vibrations of a uniform Euler-Bernoulli beam is given
by EI +m = 0, where EI is the flexural stiffness, m is the mass per unit length, m w(x, t) is the bending
displacement x is the coordinate along the beam length, t is time and L is the beam length.
48. To solve the PDE, the number of boundary conditions (BC) and initial conditions (IC)
needed are
A. 4 BC, 3 IC
B. 2 BC, 2 IC
C. 2 BC, 4 IC
D. 4 BC, 2 IC
Sol. D
49. For the cantilever beam shown in the figure, which of the following CAN NOT be a
possible boundary condition?
A. w(0,t) = 0
B. (L,t)=0
C. (0,t)=0
D. (L,t)=0
Sol. C
For cantilever beam, 𝑤(0, 𝑡) = 0
∂2 𝑤
(𝐿, 𝑡) = 0
∂𝑥 2
∂3 𝑤
(𝐿, 𝑡) = 0
∂𝑥 3
Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
Consider an inviscid, adiabatic flow of air at free stream Mach Number, M∞ = 2, across a
compression corner (Ө = 20°) as shown. The free stream total enthalpy is h0∞ = 810 kJ kg– 1. Assume
that air is calorically perfect with γ = 1.4, R = 287J kg– 1 K– 1.
A thin-walled (thickness << radius), hollow shaft of length 1m and mean radius, R = 5 cm has to be
designed such that it can transmit a torque, T = 7 kN-m. A survey of different commercially available
materials was made and following data was obtained from the suppliers (E: Young’s modulus, Ꚍy:
yield stress in shear, ρ: density).
52. Which of the above materials would you choose such that weight of the shaft is
minimum?
A. X only
B. Y only
C. Z only
D. X or Y
Sol. B
Torque, T = 7k − m, R = 5 cm, L = 1 m
𝑇 𝐺𝜃 𝜏
= =
𝐽 𝐿 𝑅
J = 2𝜋𝑅3 t
𝑇
𝜏=
2𝜋𝑅2 t
𝑇
Weight, w = mg = 𝜌 ⋅ 𝜋𝑅2 L ⋅ g = 𝜌 ⋅ 𝜋 ⋅ L⋅g
2𝜋t⋅𝜏
𝜌
So, 𝑤 ∝
𝜏
𝜌
w=k⋅
𝜏
53. If you assume a factor of safety of 2, what should be the approximate thickness of
such a shaft?
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 4 mm
Sol. D
𝜏𝑦
𝜏= = 112.5MPa
𝑓𝑜𝑠
𝑇
𝜏=
2𝜋𝑅2 t
𝑇
𝑡= = 3.961mm
2𝜋𝑅2 𝜏
where is the free-stream velocity, is the angle of attack, is the spanwise location,
gives the spanwise variation of zero-lift angle, is the chord, b is the span, and gives the
spanwise variation of circulation.
Question-2 Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the options given below to com
plete the followingsentence.
We lost confidence in him because he
never the grandiose promises he had made.
A delivered
B delivered on
C forgot
D reneged on
Answer A
Solution A. Delivered: this is not correct because it means promise was not made which
contradicts the later part of the sentence.
B. Delivered on: is most appropriate. It means to do something promised.
C. forgot: Does not fit properly
D. reneged on: This does not seem appropriate, as if he never goes back on a
promise then we should not loose confidence!
Question-3 Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence below.
in the frozen
wastes of Arctic takes special equipment.
A To survive
B Surviving
C Survival
D That survival
Answer B
Solution Surviving in the frozen wastes of Arctic takes special equipment.
Question-4 In how many ways 3 scholarships can be awarded to 4 applicants, when each
applicant can receive any number of scholarships?
A 4
B 12
C 64
D 81
Answer C
Solution One scholarship can be awarded to 44 applicants in 44 ways. Three
scholarship can be awarded to
Question-5 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete th
e followingsentence.
The of evidence was on the side of the plaintiff since
all but one witness testifiedthat his story was correct.
A paucity
B propensity
C preponderance
D accuracy
Answer D
Solution The accuracy of evidence was on the side of the plaintiff since all but one witness
testified that his story was correct.
Question-6 2𝑦+1
If < 1 then which of the following alternatives gives the CORRECT range of
𝑦+2
y?
A -2 < y < 2
B -2 < y < 1
C -3 < y < 1
D -4 < y < 1
Answer B
Solution
Question-9 Four archers P, Q, R and S try to hit a bull’s eye during a tournament
consisting of seven rounds. As illustrated in the figure below, a player
receives 10 points for hitting the bulls’ eye, 5 points for hitting within
the inner circle and 1 point for hitting within the outer circle.
The final scores received by the players during the tournament are
listed in the table below.
Round P Q R S
1 1 5 1 10
2 5 10 10 1
3 1 1 1 5
4 10 10 1 1
5 1 5 5 10
6 10 5 1 1
7 5 10 1 1
The most accurate and the most consistent players during the
tournament are respectively
A P and S
B Q and R
C Q and Q
D R and Q
Answer C
Solution Given, Player 's receives 10 points for hitting the bull's eye. Player 's
receives 5 points for hitting the within the inner circle. Player 's receives 1
points for hitting the within the outer circle.
P = 1 + 5 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 10 + 5 = 32
Q = 5 + 10 + 1 + 10 + 5 + 5 + 10 = 46
R = 1 + 10 + 1 + 1 + 5 + 5 + 10 = 20
S = 10 + 1 + 5 + 1 + 10 + 1 + 1 = 29
Thus, the analysis gives most accurate and most consistent players are Q & Q
with most consistent hitting of the outer circle.
Question-10 Nimbus clouds are dark and ragged, stratus clouds appear dull in
colour and cover the entiresky. Cirrus clouds are thin and
delicate, whereas cumulus clouds look like cotton balls.