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Student Support Material Class XII Physics 2

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63 views511 pages

Student Support Material Class XII Physics 2

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Mohammed Ammaar

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Physics / XII (2020-21)

STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL

(ASSERTION REASONING AND CASE BASED QUESTIONS)

CLASS-XII

PHYSICS

Session 2020-21

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

REGIONAL OFFICE
LUCKNOW
Physics / XII (2020-21)

STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL

INSPIRATION

Shri D K Dwivedi, Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO Lucknow

Shri T P Gaur, Assistant Commissioner, KVS RO Lucknow
Dr. Anurag Yadav, Assistant Commissioner, KVS RO Lucknow
Smt. Preeti Saxena, Assistant Commissioner, KVS RO Lucknow

MENTOR

Shri R N Wadalkar, Principal, Kendriya Vidyalaya IIT Kanpur

CONTENT DEVELOPEMENT TEAM

Shri. Sunil Kumar, PGT Physics, KV No-1 Chakeri Kanpur

Smt. Deepshikha Saxena, PGT Physics, KV No-1 Chakeri Kanpur
Smt. Meenu Rana, PGT Physics, KV RRC Fatehgarh
Shri. Gajendra Singh Yadav, PGT Physics, KV AFS BKT, Lucknow
Smt. Gauri Sharma, PGT Physics, KV Aliganj, Lucknow
Shri. Pawan, PGT Physics, KV Aliganj, Lucknow
Smt. Ameena Rizvi, PGT Physics, KV Aliganj, Lucknow
Shri. Anurag Jaiswal, PGT Physics, KV Raibareilly (Shift-I)
Shri. Rakesh Kumar Yadav, PGT Physics, KV Balrampur

REVIEW & EDITING TEAM

Shri Alok Trivedi, PGT Physics, KV IIT Kanpur

Shri Devendra Singh Bagga, Computer Instructor, KV IIT Kanpur
Physics / XII (2020-21)

PHYSICS
Class-XII

INDEX

S.No Particulars Page No.

1 SYLLABUS 04
2 DELETED TOPICS FOR SESSION 2020-21 05
3 UNIT-1 (ELECTROSTATICS) 06-14
4 UNIT-2 (CURRENT ELECTRICITY) 15-35
5 UNIT-3 (MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT 36-51
AND MAGNETISM)

6 UNIT-4 (ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND 52-58

ATERNATING CURRENTS)

7 UNIT-5 (ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES) 59-67

8 UNIT-6 (OPTICS) 68-79
9 UNIT-7 (DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND 80-83
MATTER)

10 UNIT-8 (ATOMS AND NUCLEI) 84-97

11 UNIT-9 (ELECTRONIC DEVICES) 98-102
12 CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 2020-21 103-112
Physics / XII (2020-21)

SYLLABUS
Session 2020-21
PHYSICS
CLASS-XII
Marks
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 16

Unit-II Current Electricity

Chapter–3: Current Electricity
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 17
Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents

Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction

Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Unit–V Electromagnetic Waves
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves
Unit–VI Optics 18
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Unit–VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Unit–VIII Atoms and Nuclei 12
Chapter–12: Atoms
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Unit–IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials,
Devices and Simple Circuits
7
Total 70
Physics / XII (2020-21)

DELETED TOPICS
(for Session 2020-21)
PHYSICS
CLASS XII
S.No Name of the Chapter Deleted Topics
01 Electric charges and uniformly charged thin spherical shell (field inside and
fields outside).
02 Current Electricity Carbon resistors, colour code for carbon resistors;
series and parallel combinations of resistors
03 Cyclotron
Moving Charges and
Magnetism
04 Magnetism and Matter magnetic field intensity due to a magnetic dipole
(bar magnet) along its axis and perpendicular to its
axis, torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a
uniform magnetic field;
Para-, dia- and ferro - magnetic substances, with
examples. Electromagnets and factors affecting their
strengths, permanent magnets.
05 Alternating Current power factor, wattless current
06 Electromagnetic Waves Basic idea of displacement current
07 Ray Optics and Optical Reflection of light, spherical mirrors,(recapitulation)
Instruments mirror formula ,

Scattering of light - blue colour of sky and reddish

appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset.
resolving power of microscope and astronomical
telescope, polarisation, plane polarised light,
Brewster's law, uses of plane polarised light and
Polaroids.
08 Dual Nature of radiation Davisson-Germer experiment
and matter
09 Nuclei Radioactivity, alpha, beta and gamma
particles/rays and their properties; radioactive
decay law, half life and mean life
binding energy per nucleon and its variation with
mass number
10 Semiconductor Zener diode and their characteristics, zener
Electronics: Materials, diode as a voltage regulator
Devices and Simple
Circuits
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-I ELECTROSTATISC
Assertion (A) & Reason(R)

For question numbers 1 to 20, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
1. Assertion (A): The electrostatics force increases with decrease the distance between the
charges.
Reason (R): The electrostatic force of attraction or repulsion between any two stationary
point charges is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Answer: A
2. Assertion(A): The Coulomb force between two points charges depend upon the dielectric
constant of the intervening medium.
Reason(R): Coulomb’s force varies inversely with the dielectric constant of medium.

Answer: A
3. Assertion(A): The charge given to a metallic sphere does not depend on whether it is
hollow or solid
Reason(R): The charge resides only at the surface of conductor.

Answer: A
4. Assertion (A): A comb run through one’s dry hair attracts small bits of paper.
Reason(R): Molecules in the paper gets polarized by the charged comb resulting in net
force of attraction
Answer: A
5. Assertion(A): A proton is placed in a uniform electric field, it tend to move along the
direction of electric field.
Reason(R): A proton is placed in a uniform electric field it experiences a force.

Answer: B
6. Assertion(A): Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor is always normal to the
surface at every point.
Reason(R): Electric field gives the magnitude & direction of electric force
⃗⃗⃗ ) experienced by any charge placed at any point.
(𝐹

Answer: B
Physics / XII (2020-21)

7. Assertion(A): The potential inside a hollow spherical charged conductor is zero.

Reason(R): Inside the hollow spherical conductor electric field is constant.

Answer: D
8. Assertion(A): Electric filed lines not form closed loops.
Reason(R): Electric filed lines are always normal to the surface of a conductor.

Answer: B
9. Assertion(A): No work is done in moving a test charge from one point to another over an
equipotential surface.
Reason(R): Electric field is always normal to the equipotential surface at every point
Answer: B

10. Assertion(A): No work is done in moving a point charge 𝑄 around a circular arc of radius ′𝑟′
at the Centre of which another point charge ′𝑞′ is located.
Reason(R): No work is done in moving a test charge from one point to another over an
equipotential surface.

Answer: A
11. Assertion(A): A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate
capacitor, its capacitance increased.
Reason(R): A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate
capacitor, the effective separation between the plates is decreased.

Answer: A
12. Assertion(A): In the presence of external electric field the net electric field within the
conductor becomes zero.
Reason(R): In the presence of external electric field the free charge carriers move and
charge distribution in the conductor adjusts itself.
Answer: A
13. Assertion (A): Sensitive instruments can protect from outside electrical influence by
enclosing them in a hollow conductor.
Reason(R): Potential inside the cavity is zero.

Answer: C
14. Assertion(A): Earthing provides a safety measure for electrical circuits and
appliances.
Reason(R): When we bring a charged body in contact with the earth, all the
excess charge on the body disappears by causing a momentary current to
pass to the ground through the connecting conductor.

Answer: A
Physics / XII (2020-21)

15. Assertion(A): The total amount of charge on a body equal to 4X10 -19 C is not
possible.
Reason(R): Experimentally it is established that all free charges are integral
multiples of a basic unit of charge denoted by e. Thus, charge q on a body is
always given by q = ne
Answer: A

16. Assertion(A): The net force on a dipole in a uniform electric dipole is zero.
Reason(R): Electric dipole moment is a vector directed from –q to +q.

Answer: B

17. Assertion(A): Electrostatic forces are conservative in nature.

Reason(R): Work done by electrostatic force is path dependent.
Answer: C
18. Assertion(A) The field intensity in between such sheets having equal and opposite uniform
surface densities of charge become constant.
Reason(R): The field intensity does not depend upon the distance between the thin sheet.
Answer: A
19. Assertion(A): Work done by the electrostatic force in bringing the unit positive Charge form
infinity to the point P is positive.
Reason(R): The force on a unit positive test charge is attractive, so that the electrostatic
force and the displacement (from infinity to P) are in the same direction.
Answer: A
20. Assertion(A): The interior of a conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation
Reason(R): Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor and
has the same value (as inside) on its surface.
Answer: B

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

Q.1 The electric field inside
the cavity is zero, whatever
be the size and shape of the
cavity and whatever be the
charge on the conductor
and the external fields in
which it might be placed.
The electric field inside a
charged spherical shell is
zero. But the vanishing of
electric field in the (charge-
free) cavity of a conductor
Physics / XII (2020-21)

is, as mentioned above, a very general result. A related result is that even if the conductor
is charged or charges are induced on a neutral conductor by an external field, all charges
reside only on the outer surface of a conductor with cavity.
The proofs of the results noted in Fig. are omitted here, but we note their important
implication. Whatever be the charge and field configuration outside, any cavity in a
conductor remains shielded from outside electric influence: the field inside the cavity is
always zero. This is known as electrostatic shielding. The effect can be made use of in
protecting sensitive instruments from outside electrical influence.
(1) A metallic shell having inner radius R1 and outer radii R2 has a point charge Q kept
inside cavity. Electric field in the region R1 < r < R2 where r is the distance from the
centre is given by
(a) depends on the value of r
(b) Zero
(c) Constant and nonzero everywhere
(d) None of the above

(2) The electric field inside the cavity is depend on

(a) Size of the cavity
(b) Shape of the cavity
(c) Charge on the conductor
(d) None of the above

(3) Electrostatic shielding is based

(a) electric field inside the cavity of a conductor is less than zero
(b) electric field inside the cavity of a conductor is zero
(c ) electric field inside the cavity of a conductor is greater than zero
(d) electric field inside the cavity of a plastic is zero

(4) During the lightning thunderstorm, it is advised to stay

(a) inside the car
(b) under trees
(c) in the open ground
(d) on the car

(5) Which of the following material can be used to make a Faraday cage (based on
electrostatic shielding)
(a) Plastic
(b) Glass
(c) Copper
(d) Wood

Answer: 1. b 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. c
Physics / XII (2020-21)

2. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the rod acquires one kind of charge and the silk
acquires the second kind of charge. This is true for any pair of objects that are rubbed to
be electrified. Now if the electrified glass rod is brought in contact with silk, with which it
was rubbed, they
no longer attract
each other. They
also do not attract
or repel other light
objects as they did
on being
electrified.
Thus, the charges
acquired after
rubbing are lost
when the charged bodies are brought in contact. What can you conclude from these
observations? It just tells us that unlike charges acquired by the objects neutralise or nullify
each other’s effect. Therefore, the charges were named as positive and negative by the
American scientist Benjamin Franklin. We know that when we add a positive number to a
negative number of the same magnitude, the sum is zero. This might have been the
philosophy in naming the charges as positive and negative. By convention, the charge on
glass rod or cat’s fur is called positive and that on plastic rod or silk is termed negative. If
an object possesses an electric charge, it is said to be electrified or charged. When it has
no charge it is said to be electrically neutral.
(1) When you charge a balloon by rubbing it on your hair this is an example of what
method of charging?
(a)Friction
(b)Conduction
(c)Grounding
(d)Induction

(2) Neutral atoms contain equal numbers of positive __ and negative __.
(a)Electrons and Protons
(b)Protons and Electrons
(c)Neutrons and Electrons
(d)Protons and Neutrons

(3) Which particle in an atom can you physically manipulate?

(a)protons
(b)electrons
(c)neutrons
(d)you can't manipulate any particle in an atom

(4) If a negatively charged rod touches a conductor, the conductor will be charged by
what method?
(a) Friction
(b)Conduction
(c)Induction
(d)Convection
Physics / XII (2020-21)

(5) A negatively charged rod is touched to the top of an electroscope, which on is

correct in the given figure
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer: 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. C
3. For electrostatics, the concept of electric field is convenient, but not really necessary.
Electric field is an elegant way of characterizing the electrical environment of a system of
charges. Electric field at a point in the space around a system of charges tells you the force
a unit positive test charge would experience if placed at that point (without disturbing the
system). Electric field is a characteristic of the system of charges and is independent of the
test charge that you place at a point to determine the field. The term field in physics
generally refers to a quantity that is defined at every point in space and may vary from
point to point. Electric field is a vector field, since force is a vector quantity.
(1) Which of the following statement is correct? The electric field at a point is
(a) always continuous.
(b) continuous if there is a charge at that point.
(c) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point.
(d) discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.

(2) The force per unit charge is known as

(a) electric flux
(b) electric field
(c) electric potential
(d) electric current
(3) The SI unit of electric field is
(a) N/m
(b) N-m
(c) N/C
(d) N/C2

(4) The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, an electron placed in it
would experience an electrical force equal to its weight is given by
(a) mge
(b) mg/e
(c) e/mg
(d) e²g/m²
(5) At a particular point, Electric field depends upon
(a) Source charge Q only
(b) Test Charge q0 only.
(c)Both q and q0
(d)Neither Q nor q0

Answer: 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. a
Physics / XII (2020-21)

4. Dielectric with
polar molecules
also develops a
net dipole moment
in an external
field, but for a
different reason.
In the absence of
any external field,
the different
permanent dipoles
are oriented
randomly due to
thermal agitation;
so
the total dipole
moment is zero.
When
an external field is
applied, the
individual dipole
moments tend to alignwith the field. When summed overall the molecules, there is then a
net dipole moment in the direction of the external field, i.e., the dielectric is polarised. The
extent of polarisation depends on the relative strength of two factors: the dipole potential
energy in the external field tending to align the dipoles mutually opposite with the field and
thermal energy tending to disrupt the alignment. There may be, in addition, the ‘induced
dipole moment’ effect as for non-polar molecules, but generally the alignment effect is
more important for polar molecules. Thus in either case, whether polar or non-polar, a
dielectric develops a net dipole moment in the presence of an external field. The dipole
moment per unit volume is called polarization.

(1) The best definition of polarisation is

(a) Orientation of dipoles in random direction
(b) Electric dipole moment per unit volume
(c) Orientation of dipole moments
(d)Change in polarity of every dipole
(2) Calculate the polarisation vector of the material which has 100 dipoles per unit volume
in a volume of 2 units.
(a) 200
(b) 50
(c) 0.02
(d) 100

(3) The total polarisation of a material is the

(a) Product of all types of polarisation
(b) Sum of all types of polarisation
(c)Orientation directions of the dipoles
(d)Total dipole moments in the material
Physics / XII (2020-21)

(4) Dipoles are created when dielectric is placed in __________

(a) Magnetic Field
(b) Electric field
(c) Vacuum
(d) Inert Environment

(5) Identify which type of polarisation depends on temperature.

(a)Electronic
(b)Ionic
(c)Orientational
(d) Interfacial

Answer: 1. b 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. C

5. Figure (a) shows an uncharged metallic sphere on an insulating metal stand. If we Bring
a negatively charged rod close to the metallic sphere, as shown in Fig. (b). As the rod is
brought close to the sphere, the free electrons in the sphere move away due to repulsion
and start piling up at the farther
end. The near end becomes
positively charged due to deficit
of electrons.
This process of charge
distribution stops when the net
force on the free electrons
inside the metal is zero. Now if
we Connect the sphere to the
ground by a conducting wire.
The electrons will flow to the
ground while the positive
charges at the near end will
remain held there due to the
attractive force of the negative
charges on the rod, as shown in Fig. (c). Disconnect the sphere from the ground. The
positive charge continues to be held at the near end Fig.(d). if we remove the electrified
rod. The positive charge will spread uniformly over the sphere as shown in Fig. (e). In this
experiment, the metal sphere gets charged by the process of induction and the rod does
not lose any of its charge.

(1) What do you call the process of charging a conductor by bringing it near another
Charged object?
(a) Induction
(b) Polarisation
(c) neutralization
(d) conduction
Physics / XII (2020-21)

(2) The negatively charged balloon is brought near the two cans. What happens?

(a)The negative charges in Can B move towards the balloon

(b)The negative charges in Can A move away from the balloon
(c)The positive charges in Can B move towards the balloon
(d)The positive charges in Can A move away from the balloon

(3) Transferring a charge without touching is ___

(a)Conduction
(b)Induction
(c)Grounding
(d)Newtons 3rd law

(4) Due to electrostatic induction in aluminum rod due to charged plastic rod, the total
charge on the aluminum rod is
(a)Zero
(b)Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Dual

(5) If we bring charged plastic rod near-neutral aluminum rod, then rods will
(a)Repel each other
(b)Attract each other
(c)Remain their position
(d)Exchange charges

Answer: 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. b
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-II CURRENT ELECTRICITY

Assertion (A) & Reason(R)
Q1:

A) If both Statement I and Statement II are true and the statement II is the correct
explanation of the statement I.
B) If both Statement I and Statement II are true but statement II is not the correct
explanation of the statement I.
C) If Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
D) If the Statement I and Statement II both are false.
E) If Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer: A
Q2:

C) If Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

D) If the Statement I and Statement II both are false.
E) If Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer: D
Q4:

Answer: A
Q5:

Answer: D
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q6:

Q8:

Q9:

Q12:

Q13:

Q14:
Statement 1: The possibility of an electric bulb fusing is higher at the time of switching ON
and OFF
Statement 2: Inductive effects produce a surge at the time of switch ON and OFF
A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: A

Q15:
Statement 1: The 200 W bulbs glow with more brightness than 100 W bulbs.
Statement 2: A 100 W bulb has more resistance than a 200 W bulb.
A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: A
Q16:
Statement 1: Fuse wire must have high resistance and low melting point.
Statement 2: Fuse is used for small current flow only.
A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: C

Q17:
Statement 1: Two electric bulbs of 50 and 100 W are given. When connected in series 50
W bulb glows more but when connected parallel 100 W bulb glows more.
Statement 2: In series combination, power is directly proportional to the resistance of the
circuit. But in parallel combination, power is inversely proportional to the resistance of the
circuit.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q18:
Statement 1: Two bulbs of same wattage, one having a carbon filament and the other
having a metallic filament are connected in series. Metallic bulbs will glow more brightly
than a carbon filament bulb.
Statement 2: Carbon is a semiconductor.
A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: D

Q19:
Statement 1: An electric bulb is first connected to a dc source and then to an ac source
having the same brightness in both cases.
Statement 2: The peak value of voltage for an A.C. source is √2 times the root mean
square voltage.
A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: E
Q20:
Statement 1: Current is passed through a metallic wire, heating it red. When cold water is
poured on half of its portion, then the rest of the half portion becomes hotter.
Statement 2: Resistances decrease due to a decrease in temperature and so current
through wire increases.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q21:
Statement 1: Through the same current flows through the line wires and the filament
of the bulb but the heat produced in the filament is much higher than that in line wires.
Statement 2: The filament of bulbs is made of a material of high resistance and a
high melting point.

Q22:
Statement 1: In practical application, the power rating of resistance is not important.
Statement 2: Property of resistance remain the same even at high temperature.

Q23:
Statement 1: Leclanche cell is used, when a constant supply of electric current is not
required.
Statement 2: The e.m.f. of a Leclanche cell falls, if it is used continuously.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q24:
Statement 1: In the given circuit if lamp B or C fuses then the light emitted by lamp A
decreases.
Statement 2: Voltage on A decreases.

A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: A
Q25:
Statement 1: If three identical bulbs are connected in series as shown in figure then on
closing the switches. Bulb C short-circuited and hence illumination of bulbs A and B
decreases.
Statement 2: Voltage on A and B decreases

Q26:
Statement 1: Heat is generated continuously is an electric heater but its temperature
becomes constant after some time.
Statement 2: At the stage when heat produced in the heater is equal to the heat dissipated
to its surrounding the temperature of the heater becomes constant.

Q27:
Statement 1: Electric appliances with a metallic body; e.g. heaters, presses, etc, have
three-pin connections, whereas an electric bulb has a two pin connection.
Statement 2: Three-pin connections reduce the heating of connecting cables.

Q28:
Statement 1: A domestic electrical appliance, working on a three-pin will continue working
even if the top pin is removed.
Statement 2: The third pin is used only as a safety device.
A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: A
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q29:
Statement 1: The presence of water molecules makes separation of ions easier in an
electrolyte.
Statement 2: The presence of water molecules in electrolyte decreases the resistance of
electrolyte.
A) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
B) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of the statement 1.
C) If Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
D) If the Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are false.
E) If Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.
Answer: B

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Q1:
Physics / XII (2020-21)

A: Efficiency of kettle A is
1. 63.34%
2. 83.34%
3. 93.34%
4. 73.34%

B: Efficiency of kettle B is
1. 82.5%
2. 72.5%
3. 92.5%
4. 62.5%

C: Ratio of efficiency consumed charges for one time boiling of tea in kettle A to that in
kettle B
1. 3:5
2. 2:3
3. 3:4
4. 1:1

D: If the resistance of the coil in kettle A and B is Ra and Rb then we can say
1. Ra>Rb
2. Ra=Rb
3. Ra<Rb
4. Data insufficient
E: If both the kettles are joined with the same source in series one after another then
boiling starts in kettle A and kettle B after
1. 4 times of their original time
2. Equal to their original time
3. 2 times of their original time
4. Data insufficient

Answers:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1

Q2: Consider an evacuated cylindrical chamber of height h having rigid conducting plates
at the ends and an insulating curved surface as shown in the figure. A number of spherical
balls made of a light weight and soft material and coated with a conducting material are
placed on the bottom plate. The balls have a radius r«h. Now a high voltage source (HV) is
connected across the conducting plates such that the bottom plate is at + V, and the top
plate at - Vo. Due to their conducting surface, the balls will get charged, will become
equipotential with the plate and are repelled by it. The balls will eventually collide with the
top plate, where the coefficient of restitution can be taken to be zero due to the soft nature
of the material of the balls. The electric field in the chamber can be considered to be that of
Physics / XII (2020-21)

a parallel plate capacitor, Assume that there are no collisions between the balls and the
interaction between them is negligible. (Ignore gravity)

A: Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. The balls will stick to the top plate and remain there
2. The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the same charge they went up
with
3. The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the opposite charge they went up
with
4. The balls will execute simple harmonic motion between the two plates
B: The average current in the steady state registered by the ammeter in the
circuit will be
1. zero
2. proportional to the potential V
3. proportional to the √𝑉
4. Proportional to 𝑉 2
Answers:
A. 3
B. 4

Q3:

A: Equivalent resistance of the speakers is

1. 12 ohm
2. 7/3 ohm
3. 8/3 ohm
4. 0.375 ohm
Physics / XII (2020-21)

B: The total current supplied by music system

1. 2.25 A
2. 1 A
3. 16 A
4. 1.5 A

C: The power dissipated in the 4 ohm resistance is

1. 9 W
2. 4.5 W
3. 13.5 W
4. 0

Answers:
A. 3
B. 1
C. 1
Q4

A: The value of EMF 𝐸1 is

1. 8 V
2. 6 V
3. 4 V
4. 2 V
Physics / XII (2020-21)

B: The resistance 𝑅1 has value

1. 10 ohm
2. 20 ohm
3. 30 ohm
4. 40 ohm

C: The resistance 𝑅2 has value

1. 10 ohm
2. 20 ohm
3. 30 ohm
4. 40 ohm
Answers:
A. 3
B. 1
C. 1
Q5

A: The relation between 𝑅𝐴 and the actual value of R is

1. R > 𝑅𝐴
2. R < 𝑅𝐴
3. R = 𝑅𝐴
4. Dependent on E and r

B: The relation between 𝑅𝐵 and the actual value of R is

1. R < 𝑅𝐵
2. R > 𝑅𝐵
3. R = 𝑅𝐵
4. Dependent upon E and r

C: If the resistance of the voltmeter is 𝑅𝑉 = 1 kilo ohm and that of ammeter is 𝑅𝐺 =

1 ohm , the magnitude of percentage error in the measurement of R (the value of
Physics / XII (2020-21)

R is nearly 10 ohm ) is
1. Zero in both cases
2. Non-zero but equal in both cases
3. More in circuit A
4. More in circuit B
Answers:
A. 2
B. 2
C. 4
Q6

A: Just after closing the switch

1. 2 mA
2. 3 mA
3. 0 mA
4. None of the above

B: Long time after the switch is closed

1. 2 mA
2. 3 mA
3. 6 mA
4. None of the above

C: Just after reopening the switch

1. 2 mA
2. 3 mA
3. 6 mA
4. None of the above
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Answers:
A. 3
B. 1
C. 1

Q7.
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A: Two fuse wires of same potential material are having length ratio 1:2 and ratio
4:1 Then respective ratio of their current rating will be
1. 8:1
2. 2:1
3. 1:8
4. 4:1
B: The maximum power rating of a 20.0 ohm fuse wire is 2.0 kW,then this fuse
wire can be connected safely to a DC source (negligible internal resistance) of
1. 300 volt
2. 190 volt
3. 250 volt
4. 220 volt
C: Efficiency of a battery when delivering maximum power is
1. 100 %
2. 50 %
3. 90 %
4. 40 %
Answers:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
Physics / XII (2020-21)

A: The charge in capacitor C1 is

1. 20 μC
2. 30 μC
3. 40 μC
4. 10 μC

B: The charge in capacitor C2 is

1. 30 μC
2. 10 μC
3. 20 μC
4. 40 μC

C: The charge on capacitor C3 is

1. 10 μC
2. 30 μC
3. 20 μC
4. 40 μC
Answers:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2

Q9 A network of resistance is constructed with R1 and R2 as shown in figure. The

potential at the points 1, 2, 3.... N are V1, V2, V3,.......VN, respectively, each
having a potential k times smaller than the previous one.
Physics / XII (2020-21)
𝑅
A: The ratio of 𝑅1 is
2

𝑅2
B: The ratio of is
𝑅3

4.
C: The current that passes through the resistance R2 nearest to the V0 is

3.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Answers:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 4

Q10 An ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in series to a battery with an emf
of 10V. When a certain resistance is connected in parallel with the voltmeter, the
reading of the voltmeter decreases three times, whereas the reading of the
ammeter increases two times.

A: Find the voltmeter reading after the connection of the resistance.

1. 1 V
2. 2 V
3. 3 V
4. 4 V

B: If the resistance of the ammeter is 2 ohm, then the resistance of the voltmeter
is:-
1. 1 ohm
2. 2 ohm
3. 3 ohm
4. 4 ohm

C: If the resistance of ammeter is 2 ohm ,then resistance of the resistor which is

added in parallel to the voltmeter is
1. ⅗ ohm
2. 2/7 ohm
3. 3/7 ohm
4. None of the above

Answers:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-III MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT AND

MAGNETISM
Assertion (A) & Reason(R)
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false

1. Assertion(A):
The centripetal force on the test charge qo is qo vB, where v is the velocity of a
particle and B is the magnetic field.
Reason (R):
When a charged particle is fired at right angles to the magnetic field, the radius of its
circular path is directly proportional to the kinetic energy of the particle.

2. Assertion (A):
Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies inversely as the distance
from it.
Reason (R):
The magnetic field due to a straight conductor is in the form of concentric circles.

3. Assertion (A):
A rectangular current loop is in an arbitrary orientation in an external uniform
magnetic field. No work is required to rotate the loop about an axis perpendicular to
the plane of loop
Reason (R):
All positions represent the same level of energy.

4. Assertion (A):
The magnitude of magnetic field in a region is equal to the number of magnetic field
lines per unit area where area should be normal to the field.
Reason (R):
Magnetic field is tangential to a magnetic field line.

5. Assertion (A):
If a proton and an α-particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with the
same speed, the time period of revolution of α-particle is double than that of proton.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Reason (R):
In a magnetic field, the period of revolution of a charged particle is directly
proportional to the mass of the particle and inversely proportional to the charge of
the particle.

6. Assertion (A):
A charged particle is moving in a circular path under the action of a uniform
magnetic field. During the motion, kinetic energy of the charged particle is constant.
Reason (R):
During the motion, magnetic force acting on the particle is perpendicular to
instantaneous velocity.

7. Assertion (A):
When radius of a circular loop carrying current is doubled, its magnetic moment
becomes four times.
Reason (R):
Magnetic moment depends on the area of the loop.

8. Assertion (A):
The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying solenoid is half of that
at the centre.
Reason (R):
If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.

9. Assertion (A):
If an electron and proton enter a magnetic field with equal momentum, then the
paths of both of them will be equally curved.
Reason (R):
The magnitude of charge on an electron is same as that on a proton.

10. Assertion (A):

The coils of a spring come close to each other, when current is passed through it.
Reason (R):
It is because, the coils of a spring carry current in the same direction and hence
attract each other.

11. Assertion (A):

The range of a voltmeter can be both increased or decreased.
Reason (R):
The required resistance (to be connected in series) can be calculated by using the
relation,
Physics / XII (2020-21)
𝑉
R=𝐼 –G
𝑔

12. Assertion (A):

Both A m2 and J T-1 are the units of magnetic dipole moment.
Reason (R):
Both the units are equivalent to each other.
13. Assertion (A):
The true geographic north direction is found by using a compass needle.
Reason (R):
The magnetic meridian of the earth is along the axis of rotation of the earth.

14. Assertion (A):

If a compass needle is kept at magnetic north pole of the earth, the compass needle
may stay in any direction.
Reason (R):
Dip needle will stay vertical at the north pole of the earth.
15. Assertion (A):
The magnetic field at the centre of the current carrying circular coil shown in the fig.
is zero.

Reason (R):
The magnitudes of magnetic fields are equal and the directions of magnetic fields
due to both the semicircles are opposite.
16. Assertion (A):
The voltage sensitivity may not necessarily increase on increasing the current
sensitivity.
Reason (R):
Current sensitivity increases on increasing the number of turns of the coil.

17. Assertion (A):

The angle of dip is maximum at the poles of the earth.
Reason (R):
The magnetic field lines are parallel to the surface of the earth at the poles.

18. Assertion (A):

An electron projected parallel to the direction of magnetic force will experience
maximum force.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Reason (R):
Magnetic force on a charge particle is given by F = (IL x B).

19. Assertion (A):

The torque acting on square and circular current carrying coils having equal areas,
placed in uniform magnetic field, will be same.
Reason (R):
Torque acting on a current carrying coil placed in uniform magnetic field does not
depend on the shape of the coil, if the areas of the coils are same.

20. Assertion (A):

A phosphor bronze strip is used in a moving coil galvanometer.
Reason (A):
Phosphor bronze strip has the maximum value of torsional constant k.

ANSWER KEY:
1. c 11. a
2. b 12. a
3. a 13. d
4. b 14. b
5. a 15. a
6. a 16. b
7. a 17. c
8. b 18. d
9. a 19. a
10. a 20. c

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Case 1. FORCE ON A CHARGE IN ELECTRIC AND MAGNETIC FIELD

A point charge q (moving with a velocity v and located at r at a given time t) in the
presence of both the electric field E and magnetic field B. The force on an electric
charge q due to both of them can be written as
F = q [ E + v x B ] = Fel + Fmag
It is called the ‘Lorentz force’.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

1. If the charge q is moving under a field, the force acting on the charge depends on
the magnitude of field as well as the velocity of the charge particle, what kind of field
is the charge moving in?
(a) Electric field
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Both electric and magnetic field perpendicular to each other
(d) None of these

2. The magnetic force acting on the charge ‘q’ placed in a magnetic field will vanish
if
(a) if v is small
(b) If v is perpendicular to B
(c) If v is parallel to B
(d) None of these

3. If an electron of charge -e is moving along + X direction and magnetic field is

along + Z direction, then the magnetic force acting on the electron will be along
(a) + X axis
(b) - X axis
(c) - Y axis
(d) + Y axis

4. The vectors which are perpendicular to each other in the relation for magnetic
force acting on a charge particle are
(a) F and v
(b) F and B
(c) v and B
(d) All of these

5. A particle moves in a region having a uniform magnetic field and a parallel,

uniform electric field. At some instant, the velocity of the particle is perpendicular to
the field direction. The path of the particle will be
(a) A straight line
(b) A circle
(c) A helix with uniform pitch
(d) A helix with non-uniform pitch
Physics / XII (2020-21)

CASE 2: HELICAL MOTION OF A CHARGED PARTICLE IN A MAGNETIC FIELD

If velocity has a component along B, this component remains unchanged as the

motion along the magnetic field will not be affected by the magnetic field. The
motion in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field is a circular one, thereby
producing a helical motion.
1. The radius of the charge particle, (when v is perpendicular to B) placed in a
uniform magnetic field is given by
(a) R = mv/qB
(b) R = qB/mv
(c) R = Bqm/v
(d) R = vq/mB

2. An electron, proton, He+ and Li++ are projected with the same velocity
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. Which one will experience maximum
magnetic force?
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) He+
(d) Li++

3. The work done by the magnetic field on the charge particle moving perpendicular
to a uniform magnetic field is
(a) Zero
(b) q (v x B). S
(c) Maximum
(d) qBS/v

4. The distance moved by a charged particle along the magnetic field in one
rotation, when v has a component parallel to B is
2v cos
(a)
qBm
2mv cos
(b)
qB
qBm
(c)
2v cos 
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Bq
(d)
2m

CASE 3: AURORA BOREALIS

During a solar flare, a large number of electrons and protons are ejected from the
sun. Some of them get trapped in the earth’s magnetic field and move in helical
paths along the field lines. The field lines come closer to each other near the
magnetic poles, hence the density of charges increases near the poles. The
particles collide with atoms and molecules of the atmosphere. Excited oxygen atoms
emit green light and excited nitrogen atoms emit pink light. This phenomenon is
called ‘Aurora Borealis’.

1. When will the path of the particle be helix, when it is moving in external magnetic
field?
(a) When v has a component parallel to B
(b) When v has a component perpendicular to B
(c) When v is parallel to B
(d) None of these

2. When the charged particle travelling in a helical path enters a region where the
magnetic field is non-uniform, the pitch of helix of the charge particle will be
(a) Same as in uniform magnetic field
(b) Increases as the charge moves inside the magnetic field
(c) Decreases as the charge moves inside the magnetic field
(d) First increases then decreases as the charge moves inside the magnetic field
3. The colour of Aurora Borealis is due to
(a) Excited ozone, chromium atoms
(b) Excited Oxygen and Nitrogen atoms
(c) Due to presence of water vapours in the atmosphere
(d) Excited electrons and protons in the atmosphere

4. The density of magnetic field lines is greater________ on the earth

(a) At the poles
(b) Near the equator
(c) Uniform everywhere on the surface
(d) None of these
Physics / XII (2020-21)

CASE 4: VELOCITY SELECTOR

A charge q moving with a velocity v in presence of both electric and magnetic fields
experience a force F = q [ E + v x B ]. If electric and magnetic fields are
perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, the
electric and magnetic forces are in opposite directions. If we adjust the value of
electric and magnetic field such that magnitude of the two forces are equal. The
total force on the charge is zero and the charge will move in the fields undeflected.
1.What will be the value of velocity of the charge particle, when it moves undeflected
in a region where the electric field is perpendicular to the magnetic field and the
charge particle enters at right angles to the fields.
(a) v = E/B
(b) v = B/E
(c) v = EB
(d) v = EB/q

2. Proton, neutron, alpha particle and electron enter a region of uniform magnetic
field with same velocities. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity. Which
particle will experience maximum force?
(a) proton
(b) electron
(c) alpha particle
(d) neutron

3. A charge particle moving with a constant velocity passing through a space without
any change in the velocity. Which can be true about the region?
(a) E = 0, B = 0
(b) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0
(c) E = 0, B ≠ 0
(d) All of these

4. Proton, electron and deuteron enter a region of uniform magnetic field with same
electric potential-difference at right angles to the field. Which one has a more curved
trajectory?
Physics / XII (2020-21)

(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) all will have same radius of circular path

CASE 5: MOTION OF A CHARGED PARTICLE IN A UNIFORM MAGNETIC FIELD

A charged particle of mass m and charge q moves with a constant velocity along the
positive X direction v = ai. It enters a region of magnetic field which is directed
towards positive Z direction from x = a which is given by B = bk
1.The initial acceleration of the particle is
𝑞𝑎𝑏
(a) a = - i
𝑚
𝑞𝑎𝑚
(b) a = - j
𝑏
𝑞𝑎
(c) a = - j
𝑚𝑏
(d) none of these

2. The radius of the circular path which the particle moves is

𝑚𝑏
(a) 𝑞𝑎
𝑚𝑎
(b) 𝑞𝑏
𝑚𝑎𝑏
(c) 𝑞
(d) None of these

3. Which of the following is true about the motion of the particle in uniform magnetic
field, where the charged particle enters at right angles to the field?
(a) Force will always be perpendicular to the velocity.
(b) Kinetic energy of the particle remains constant.
(c) Velocity vector and magnetic field vector remains perpendicular to each other
during the motion.
(d) All of these.

4. The frequency of the rotation

(a) depends on the value of a
(b) depends on the value of b
(c) depends on the value of a and b both
(d) does not depend on a and b
Physics / XII (2020-21)

CASE 6: MOVING COIL GALVANOMETER

The galvanometer is a device used to detect the current flowing in a circuit or a

small potential difference applied to it. It consists of a coil with many turns, free to
rotate about a fixed axis, in a uniform radial magnetic field formed by using concave
pole pieces of a magnet. When a current flows through the coil, a torque acts on it.
1.What is the principle of moving coil galvanometer?
(a) Torque acting on a current carrying coil placed in a uniform magnetic field.
(b) Torque acting on a current carrying coil placed in a non-uniform magnetic field.
(c) Potential difference developed in the current carrying coil.
(d) None of these.
2. If the field is radial, then the angle between magnetic moment of galvanometer
coil and the magnetic field will be
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d)90°
3. Why pole pieces are made concave in the moving coil galvanometer?
(a) to make the magnetic field radial.
(b) to make the magnetic field uniform.
(c) to make the magnetic field non-uniform.
(d) none of these.

4. What is the function of radial field in the moving coil galvanometer?

(a) to make the torque acting on the coil maximum.
(b) to make the magnetic field strong.
(c) to make the current scale linear.
(d) all the above.

5. If the rectangular coil used in the moving coil galvanometer is made circular, then
what will be the effect on the maximum torque acting on the coil in magnetic field for
the same area of the coil?
(a) remains the same
(b) becomes less in circular coil
(c) becomes greater in circular coil
(d) depends on the orientation of the coil
Physics / XII (2020-21)

6.What is the torque and force in the two cases as shown in the fig.?

(a) τa < τb, Fa ≠ 0, Fb ≠ 0

(b) τa> τb, Fa = Fb = 0
(c)τa = τb = 0, Fa = Fb = 0
(d)τa = τb, Fa = Fb = 0

CASE 7: CONVERSION OF MOVING COIL GALVANOMETER INTO AN

AMMETER

The galvanometer cannot be used as an ammeter to measure the value of the

current directly as it is a very sensitive device. It gives a full-scale deflection for
current of the order of µA. For measuring currents, the galvanometer has to be
connected in series, and as it has a large resistance, this will change the value of
current in the circuit.
1.How is a moving coil galvanometer converted into an ammeter of desired range?
(a)Connecting a shunt resistance in series.
(b)Connecting a shunt resistance in parallel.
(c)Connecting a large resistance in series.
(d)Connecting a large resistance in parallel.

2.A moving coil galvanometer of resistance G gives a full-scale deflection for a

current Ig. It is converted into an ammeter of range 0- I ampere. What should be the
value of shunt resistance to convert it into an ammeter of desired range?
𝐼
(a)S = 𝐼− 𝐼 G
𝑔
𝐼− 𝐼𝑔
(b)S = G
𝐼
Physics / XII (2020-21)
𝐼
(c)S = 𝐼 G
𝑔
𝐼𝑔
(d)S = G
𝐼

3.Which one will have the greatest resistance – a micro-ammeter, a milli-ammeter,

an ammeter?
(a)Micro-ammeter
(b)Milli-ammeter
(c)Ammeter
(d)All will have the same resistance

4.The resistance of the ammeter will be

1 1 1
(a)𝑅 = 𝐺 + 𝑆
𝐴
(b)RA = G + S
𝐺+𝑆
(c)RA = 𝐺𝑆
(d)None of these

CASE 8. MAGNETIC MOMENT OF ELECTRON

In the Bohr model of the Hydrogen atom, the electron revolves around a positively
charged nucleus such as a planet revolves around the sun. The force which binds
the electron-proton system is the electrostatic force. There will be a magnetic
moment associated with this circulating current given by M = I A.
1.What will be the magnetic moment of the electron in the first orbit of H-atom?
𝑒𝑣𝑟
(a) 2
𝑒𝑣
(b)2𝑟
𝑒𝑣
(c) 2𝑟𝑚
𝑒𝑣𝑟
(d) 2𝑚

2. The relation between magnetic moment and angular momentum for an electron
revolving in the first orbit of H-atom is
𝑒
(a) M = 2𝑚 L
𝑒
(b) L = 2𝑚 M
𝑒𝐵
(c) M = 2𝑚 L
𝑒𝐵
(d) L = 2𝑚 M
Physics / XII (2020-21)

3. The angle between magnetic moment vector and angular momentum vector is
(a) 0°
(b)45°
(c)90°
(d)180°

4. The value of gyroscopic ratio M/L

(a) depends on the value of charge
(b) is a constant quantity
(c) depends on mass of the particle
(d) depends on the axis of rotation.
CASE 9: EARTH’S MAGNETISM

The magnetic field lines of the earth resemble that of a hypothetical magnetic dipole
located at the centre of the earth. The axis of the dipole does not coincide with the
axis of rotation of the earth but is presently tilted by approximately 11.3° with respect
to the later. If the magnetic needle is perfectly balanced about a horizontal axis so
that it can swing in a plane of the magnetic meridian, the needle would make an
angle with the horizontal. This is known as the angle of dip (also known as
inclination).
1.What is the angle of dip at the equator?
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
2. At the poles, the dip needle will
(a) stay horizontal
(b) stay vertical
(c) stays at 45° angle with the horizontal
(d) does not remain steady in any fixed position
Physics / XII (2020-21)

3.The angle of dip where the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is
equal to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field will be
(a)0°
(b)45°
(c)60°
(d)90°

4. Which of the following independent quantities is not used to specify the earth’s
magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic declination (θ)
(b) Angle of dip (δ)
(c) Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field (BH)
(d) Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field (BV)

CASE 10: FORCE BETWEEN TWO INFINITELY LONG PARALLEL CURRENT-

CARRYING WIRES

Two current-carrying conductors placed near each other will exert magnetic forces
on each other. Ampere studied the nature of this magnetic force and its dependence
on the product of magnitude of currents in both the conductors, on the shape and
size of conductors as well as the distances between the conductors. Using
Fleming’s left hand rule, it is observed that currents flowing in the same direction
attract each other and currents flowing in the opposite directions repel each other.
Thus, force per unit length acting on a conductor of infinite length is given by
µ0 𝐼1 𝐼2
F=
2𝜋 𝑑
1.A vertical wire carries a current in upward direction. An electron beam sent
horizontally towards the wire will be deflected
(a)towards right
(b)towards left
(c)upwards
(d)downwards

2. A current carrying, straight wire is kept along axis of a circular loop carrying a
current. The straight wire
(a)will exert an inward force on the circular loop.
(b)will exert an outward force on the circular loop.
(c)will not exert any force on the circular loop.
(d)will exert a force on the circular loop parallel to itself.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

3. A proton beam is going from north to south and electron beam is going from
south to north. Neglecting the earth’s magnetic field, the electron beam will be
deflected
(a)towards the proton beam
(b)away from the proton beam
(c)upwards
(d)downwards

4. Consider the situation shown in fig. The straight wire is fixed but the loop can
move under magnetic force. The loop will

(a)remain stationary
(b)move towards the wire
(c)move away from the wire
(d) rotate about the wire.

CASE 11: TOROID

The toroid is a hollow circular ring on which a large number of turns of wire are
closely wound. It can be viewed as a solenoid which has been bent into a circular
shape to close on itself. The magnetic field vanishes in the open space inside and
outside the toroid. The magnetic field inside the toroid is constant in magnitude and
is given by B = µ0 n I, where n is the number of turns per unit length and I is the
current flowing in the toriod, µ0 is the absolute permeability of the free space.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

1.The magnetic field inside a toroid of radius R is B. If the current through it is doubled and
its radius is also doubled keeping the number of turns per unit length the same, magnetic
field produced by it will be
(a) B/2
(b) B/4
(c)B
(d)2B
2. What is the magnetic field in the empty space enclosed by the toroid of radius R?
µ 2𝐼
(a)4𝜋0 𝑅
(b) Infinity
(c) Zero
µ 𝜋𝐼
(d) 4𝜋0 𝑅

3. A toroid of 300 turns/m and radius 2 cm is carrying a current of 5 A. What is the

magnitude of magnetic field intensity in the interior of the toriod?
(a) 1.9 T
(b) 1.9 x 10-6 T
(c) 1.9 x 10-3 T
(d) 1.9 x 10-7 T
4. Magnetic field due to a current carrying toroid is independent of
(a)Its number of turns
(b) Current
(c) Radius
(d) None of these
5. How can you increase the magnetic field inside a toroid?
(a)by increasing the radius
(a) by decreasing the current
(b) by introducing a soft iron core inside a toroid
(d)by decreasing the total number of turns
ANSWER KEY OF CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
CASE 1 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (d)
CASE 2 1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5
CASE 3 1 (a) 2 3 (b) 4 (a) 5
CASE 4 1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5
CASE 5 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5
CASE 6 1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (b)
CASE 7 1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5
CASE 8 1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5
CASE 9 1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5
CASE 10 1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5
CASE 11 1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-IV
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING
CURRENT
ASSERTION (A) & REASONING (R) QUESTIONS
Of the following statements, mark the correct Answers as-
A - if both Assertion and Reason -- are true and Reason -- is correct explanation of the Assertion.
B - if both Assertion and Reason -- are true but Reason -- is not correct explanation of Assertion.
C - if Assertion is true but Reason -- is false.
D - if both Assertion and Reason -- are false.
E - if Assertion is false but Reason -- is true

1. Assertion-- The mutual induction of two coils is doubled, if the self-inductance of the
primary or secondary coil is doubled
Reason -- Mutual induction is proportional to self-inductance of primary and secondary
coils
Answer - C

2. Assertion- Making and breaking of current in a coil produce no momentary current in the
neighboring coil of another circuit
Reason -- Momentary current in the neighboring coil of another circuit is an eddy current
Answer - D

3. Assertion- If primary coil is connected by voltmeter and secondary coil by ac source. If

large copper sheet is placed between two coils, induced emf in primary coil is reduced
Reason -- Copper sheet between coils has no effect on induced emf in primary coil
Answer – A

4. Assertion- An electric motor will have maximum efficiency when back emf becomes
equal to half of applied emf
Reason -- Efficiency of electric motor depends only on magnitude of back emf
Answer – C

5. Assertion- Armature current in DC motor is maximum when the motor has just started
Reason -- Armature current is given by I=E-e/R where e is back emf, R is resistance of
armature
Answer – B

6. Assertion- Eddy current is produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic flux is
changed around it
Reason -- Electric potential determine the flow of charge
Answer - B

7. Assertion -- The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of time

Reason -- to reduce the rate of increase of current through a solenoid should increase the
time constant L/R
Answer - B
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8. Assertion- Faraday laws are consequence of conservation of energy

Reason -- In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current lags behind the emf in phase
Answer - C

9. Assertion- Only a change in magnetic flux through a coil maintain a current in the coil if
the current is continues
Reason -- The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintain a current in the coil
if the current is continues
Answer - C

10. Assertion- magnetic flux can produce induced emf

Reason -- Faraday established induced emf experimentally
Answer - E

11. Assertion- Inductance coil are made of copper

Reason -- Induced current is more in wire having less resistance
Answer - A
12. Assertion- When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between coil
is maximum
Reason -- Mutual induction doesn’t depends on the orientation of the coil s
Answer – C

13. Assertion- an aircraft flies along the meridian, the potential at the ends of its wings will
be the same.
Reason -- Whenever there is change in magnetic flux emf induce
Answer – E

14. Assertion- A spark occur between the poles of a switch when the switch is opened
Reason -- Current flowing in the conductor produce magnetic field
Answer – B

15. In the phenomenon of mutual induction self-induction of each of coils persists

Reason -- Self-induction arises when strength of current in same coil change in the mutual
induction, current is changing in both the individual
Answer – B

16. An induced emf is generated when magnet is withdrawn from the solenoid
Reason -- The relative motion between the magnet and solenoid induced emf
Answer - A

17. A transformer can’t work on DC supply

Reason -- DC changes neither in magnitude nor in direction
Answer - A

18. Soft iron is used as a core of transformer

Reason -- Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small
Answer - A
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19. An AC generator is based on the phenomenon of self-induction

Reason -- in single coil we consider, self-induction only
Answer - E
20. An electric motor will maximum efficient, when back emf is equal to applied emf
Reason -- Efficiency of electric motor is depends only on magnitude of back emf
Answer - D
21. An AC doesn’t show any magnetic effect
Reason -- AC doesn’t vary with time
Answer - D
22. Assertion- A variable capacitor is connected in series with a bulb through AC source if
the capacitance of variable capacitor is decrease the brightness of bulb is reduced
Reason -- The reactance of capacitor increase if capacitance is reduced
Answer - A
23. A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in AC circuit in the place of choke coil
Reason -- A capacitor blocks DC and allow only AC
Answer - B
24. An AC doesn’t show any magnetic effect
Reason -- AC varies with time
Answer - B
25. The division are equally marked on the scale of AC ammeter
Reason -- heat produced is directly proportion to current
Answer - D
26. Average value of AC over a complete cycle is always zero
Reason -- Average value of AC is always defined over half cycle
Answer – B

27. Eddy current is produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic flux is changed
around it
Reason -- electric potential determine the flow of charge
Answer – B
28. In LCR circuit resonance can take place
Reason -- resonance can take place if inductance and capacitive reactance are equal and
opposite
Answer - A
29. When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive reactance in LCR circuit, emf
leads the current
Reason -- The phase angle is angle between alternating emf and alternating current of the
circuit
Answer – B

30. The DC and AC both can be measured by a hot wire instrument

Reason -- The hot wire instrument is based on the principle of magnetic effect of current
Answer - C
Physics / XII (2020-21)

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

TOPIC: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND AC
Question 1: An inductor is simply a coil or a solenoid that has a fixed inductance. It is
referred to as a choke. The usual circuit notation for an inductor is as shown.

Let a current i flows through the inductor from A to B. Whenever electric current changes
through it, a back emf is generated. If the resistance of inductor is assumed to be zero
(ideal inductor) then induced emf in it is given by
e=VB-VA = - L di / dt
Thus, potential drops across an inductor as we movein the direction of current. But
potential also drops across a pure resistor when we move in the direction of the current.
The main difference between a resistor and an inductor is that while a resistor opposes the
current through it, an inductor opposes the change in current through it.
Now answer the following questions.
(1) How does inductor behave when
(a) a steady current flow through it?
(b) a steadily increasing, current flows through it?
(c) a steadily decreasing current flows through it?
(d) Name the phenomenon in which change in current in a coil induces EMF in coil itself?

ANS: (i) (a) As electric current is steady therefore

di / dt = 0;
:: induced emf = e = 0 and the inductor behaves as short circuit.
(b) in the expression
e= - L di / dt
as di / dt is positive EMF is negative. that is VB < VA.
That is back EMF is genreted that opposses the increase in current.
(c ) di / dt is negative, therefore EMF is positive. that is VB > VA. Forward EMF is
generated that opposses fall in current.
(d) Self induction.
Question 2:
(a)A closed loop is held stationary in the magnetic field between the north and south
poles of two permanent magnets held fixed. Can we hope to generate current in the loop
by using very strong magnets?

(b) A closed loop moves normal to the constant electric field between the plates of a large
capacitor. Is a current induced in the loop
(i) when it is wholly inside the region between the capacitor plates
(ii) when it is partially outside the plates of the capacitor? The electric field is normal to the
plane of the loop.
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(c) A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform magnetic field region
(Figure) to a field-free region with a constant velocity v. In which loop do you expect the
induced emſ to be constant during the passage out of the field region? The field is normal
to the loops.

(d) Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation described by the figure

Solution:
(a) No. However strong the magnet may be current can be induced only by changing the
magnetic flux through the loop.
(b) No current is induced in either case. Current can not be induced by changing the
electric flux.
(c) The induced emf is expected to be constant only in the case of the rectangular loop. In
the case of circular loop, the rate of change of area of the loop during its passage out of
the field region is not constant, hence induced emf will vary accordingly,
(d) The polarity of plate 'A' will be positive with respect to plate 'B' in the capacitor.

Question 3:
Given figure shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails AB and positioned between
the poles of a permanent magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in three
mutual perpendicular directions. A galvanometer G connects the rails through a switch K.
Length of the rod = 15 cm, B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed loop containing the rod =
9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be uniform.
(a) Suppose K is open and the rod is moved with a speed of 12 cm s -1 in the direction
shown. Give the polarity and magnitude of the induced emf.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

(b) Is there an excess charge built up at the ends of the rods when K is open? What if K is
closed?
(c) With K open and the rod moving uniformly, there is no net force on the electrons in the
rod PQ even though they do experience magnetic force due to the motion of the rod.
Explain.
(d) What is the retarding force on the rod when K is closed?
(e) How much power is required (by an external agent) to keep the rod moving at the same
speed (=12 cm/ sec) when K is closed? How much power is required when K is open?
(f) How much power is dissipated as heat in the closed circuit? What is the source of this
power?
(g) What is the induced emf in the moving rod if the magnetic field is parallel to the rails
instead of being perpendicular?

Answers:
(a) EMF = vBL = 0.12 0.50 x 0.15 = 9.0 mV;
P positive end and Q negative end.
(b) Yes. When K is closed, the excess charge is maintained by the continuous flow of
current.
(c) Magnetic force is cancelled by the electric force set-up due to the excess charge of
opposite signs at the ends of the rod.
(d) Retarding force = IBL
9 mV / 9 mΩ x 0.5 T x 0.15 m
= 75 x 10-3 N
e) Power expended by an external agent against the above retarding
force to keep the rod moving uniformly at 12 cm s'
= 75 x 10-3 x 12 x 10-2 = 9.0 x 10-3 W
When K is open, no power is expended.

(f) I2 R = 1x1x 9 x 10-3 = 9.0 x 10-3 W

The source of this power is the power provided by the external agent as calculated above.
g) Zero: motion of the rod does not cut across the field lines. [Note: length of Pg has been
considered above to be equal to the spacing between the rails.]

Question 3:
A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 15 km away
from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire line
carrying power is 0.5Ω per km. The town gets power from the line through a 4000-220 V
step-down transformer at a sub-station in the town.
(a) Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.
(b) How much power must the plant supply, assuming there is negligible power loss due to
leakage?
(c) Characterise the step up transformer at the plant.

Answers:
Line resistance = 30 X 0.5 = 15Ω
rms current in the line . 800 x 1000 W / 4000 V = 200 A
Physics / XII (2020-21)

(a) Line power loss = (200 A)2 x 15 Ω = 600 kW.

(b) Power supply by the plant = 800 kW + 600 kW = 1400 kW.
(c) Voltage drop on the line = 200 A 15Ω = 3000 V.
The step-up transformer at the plant is 440 V - 7000 V.

Question 4. Electromagnetic induction is defined as the production of an electromotive

force across an electric conductor in the changing magnetic field. The discovery of
induction was done by Michael Faraday in the year 1831. Electromagnetic induction finds
many applications such as in electrical components which includes transformers, inductors,
and other devices such as electric motors and generators.
Alternating current is defined as an electric current which reverses in direction periodically.
In most of the electric power circuits, the waveform of alternating current is the sine wave.
1. How to increase the energy stored in an inductor by four times?
(a) By doubling the current
(b) This is not possible
(c) By doubling the inductance
(d) By making current 2–√ times

Answer: (a) By doubling the current

2. Consider an inductor whose linear dimensions are tripled and the total number of
turns per unit length is kept constant, what happens to the self-inductance?
(a) 9 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 27 times
(d) 13 times

Answer: (b) 3 times

3. Lenz law is based on which of the following conservation>
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Momentum
(d) Energy
Answer: (d) Energy

4. What will be the acceleration of the falling bar magnet which passes through the ring
such that the ring is held horizontally and the bar magnet is dropped along the axis
of the ring?
(a) It depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
(b) It is equal due to gravity
(c) It is less than due to gravity
(d) It is more than due to gravity
Answer: (c) It is less than due to gravity
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-V
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
ASSERTION (A) AND REASONING (R) QUESTIONS
A. Both assertion and reason are True, and reason is the correct explaination .
B. Both assertion and reason are True, but reason is not the correct explaination .
C. Assertion is True , but reason is False .
D. Both assertion and reason are False .

Assertion: Electromagnetic waves do not require medium for their propagation.

Reason: They can’t travel in a medium.
Answer: C

Assertion: A changing electric field produces a magnetic field.

Reason: A changing magnetic field produces an electric field.
Answer: B

Assertion: X-rays travel with the speed of light.

Reason: X-rays are electromagnetic rays.
Answer: A

Assertion: Environmental damage has increased amount of Ozone in atmosphere.

Reason: Increase of ozone increases amount of ultraviolet radiation on earth
Answer: D

Assertion: Electromagnetic radiation exert pressure.

Reason: Electromagnetic waves carry both - Momentum & Energy.
Answer: B

Assertion: During discharging, there is magnetic field between plates of capacitor.

Reason: Time varying electric field produces magnetic field.
Answer: A

Assertion: In electromagnetic waves, electric and magnetic Field are perpendicular to

each other.
Reason: E and B are self-sustaining.
Answer: B

Assertion: The earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably Cold.

Reason: All heat would escape in the absence of atmosphere.
Answer: A
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Assertion: The EM waves of shorter wavelength can travel longer distances on earth’s
surface than those of longer wavelengths.
Reason: Shorter the wavelength, the larger is the Velocity of propagation.
Answer: C

Assertion: EM waves follow Superposition principle.

Reason: Differential expression of EM wave is linear.
Answer: A
Assertion: Sound waves cannot travel in vacuum, but light waves can.
Reason: Light is an electromagnetic wave - but sound is a Mechanical wave.
Answer: A
Assertion: The Microwaves are better carriers of signals than radio waves.
Reason: The electromagnetic waves do not require any medium to propagate.
Answer: B

Assertion: Transverse waves are not produced in liquids and gases.

Reason: Shorter the wavelength, the larger is the Velocity of propagation.
Answer: B

Assertion: The energy contained in a small volume through which an em wave is

passing, oscillates with the frequency of the wave.
Reason: Energy density of the wave is given by : ½ e0 E2 .
Answer: D

Assertion : Like Light radiation, thermal radiations are also e.m. radiations .
Reason: Thermal radiations require no medium for propagation .
Answer: B

Assertion : X-rays cannot be deflected by electric or magnetic fields .

Reason: These are electromagnetic waves .
Answer: A

Assertion : EM waves are transverse in nature .

Reason : Waves of wavelength 10mm are radiowave and microwave .
Answer: C

Assertion : Dipole oscillations produce em waves.

Reason: Accelerated charge produces em waves.
Answer: A
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Assertion : In an electromagnetic wave, magnitude of magnetic field vector B is much

smaller than the magnitude of vector E .
Reason: This is because in an electromagnetic wave E/B = c = 3x108.
Answer: A

Assertion : The gyrating electron can be a source of EM wave .

Reason: The electron in circular motion is accelerated motion .
Answer: A

Assertion : EM waves interacts with matter and set up oscillations .

Reason: Interaction is independent of em wave’s Wavelength .
Answer: C

Assertion : When an em wave going through vacuum is described as :

E = E0 . sin (kx-wt) , then w/k is independent of wavelength.
Reason: w / k is speed of the wave.
Answer: A

Assertion : Ozone layer is essential for sustaining life on earth .

Reason: Ozone layer absorbs UV radiation, hence preventing it to reach on earth .
Answer: A

Assertion : Microwaves are considered suitable for radar ,used in navigation

Reason: Microwaves have wavelength of few millimeters. Due to this reason, they ]
suffer very small diffraction .
Answer: A

Assertion : Ratio of speed of uv rays & infrared waves (in vacuum) is 1.

Reason: Both; infrared and uv rays are electromagnetic waves .
Answer: A

Assertion : Welders wear face mask,goggles during welding - on eyes.

Reason: ‘Gamma’ rays are produced by welding, is harmful for eyes.
Answer: C

Assertion : Infrared radiation are referred as Heat wave.

Reason: they get readily absorb ny molecules in most material .
Answer: A
Assertion : Ratio of frequencies of ultraviolet waves to infrared waves -
is greater than 1.
Reason: Frequency of u.v. rays is more than infrared rays .
Answer: A
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Assertion : Gamma rays are more energetic than X-rays.

Reason : Gamma rays are of nuclear origin- but X-rays are produced to sudden
deceleration of high energy electrons while falling on a metal of high atomic
number .
Answer: B

Assertion : The velocity of em wave depends on Electric and Magnetic properties of

medium .
Reason: Velocity of em waves in free space is constant.
Answer: B

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

TOPIC: ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Q1)Microwave in aircraft navigation

Microwave are used in aircraft navigation. A radar guns out short bursts of microwave and
it reflect back from oncoming aircraft and are detected by receiver in gun. The frequency of
reflected wave used to compute speed of aircraft

1 Q) How are microwave produced?

a) klystron and magnetron valve
b) sudden deceleration of electron in x- ray tube
c)accelerated motion of charge in conducting wire
d)hot bodies and molecules
Physics / XII (2020-21)

2 Q) why microwave use for aircraft navigation?

A) due to high wavelength
B) due to low wavelength
c) due to low frequency
d)due to their frequency modulation power

3 Q) which is use of microwave?

a) in treatment of cancer
b) to observe changing blood flow
c)used to kill microbes
d)studying details of atoms and molecule

4 Q) where do microwave fall in electromagnetic spectrum?

a) between u.v region and infrared
b) between gamma and u.v
c)between infrared and radio wave
d)between gamma and infrared
ANSWER KEY
1)a 3)d
2)b 4)c

Q 2) GAMMA RAYS IN TREATMENT OF CANCER

Gamma rays are used in radiotherapy to Treat cancer. They are used to spot tumors.
they kill the living cells and damage malignant tumor.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

1 Q) what is the source of gamma rays?

a) radioactive decay of nucleus
b) accelerated motion of charges in conducting wire
c) hot bodies and molecule
d) klystron valve
2 Q) how is wavelength of gamma rays
a) low
b) high
c) infinite
d) zero
3 Q)choose the one with correct radiation order?
a) alpha>beta>gamma
b) beta>alpha>gamma
c) gamma>beta>alpha
d) gamma>alpha>beta
4 Q) what is other use of gamma rays?
a) used to change white topaz to blue topaz
b) used in aircraft navigation
c) used in kill microbes
d) checking fractures of bone

ANSWER KEY
1)a 3)c
2)b 4)a

Q3) X- Rays

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, similar to visible light. Unlike light, however,
x-rays have higher energy and can pass through most objects, including the body. Medical
x-rays are used to generate images of tissues and structures inside the body.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q1. What is the most common method of preparation of X rays ?

a) magnetron valve
b) vibration of atoms and molecules
c) bombardment of metal by high energy electrons
d) radioactive decay of nucleus

Q2) which of the following set of instrument /equipment can detect X- rays
a) Photocells ,photographic film
b) Thermopiles ,bolometer
c) Photographic film ,Geiger tube
d) Geiger tube ,human eye

Q3) where do X rays fall on the electromagnetic spectrum?

a) Between UV region and infrared region
b) Between gamma rays and UV region
c) Between infrared and microwaves
d) Between microwaves and radio waves

Q4) what is the use of rays lying beyond X ray region in electromagnetic spectrum
a) used to kill microbes
b) used to detect heat loss in insulated systems
c) used in standard broadcast radio and television
d) used In oncology, to kill cancerous cells.

ANSWER KEY

Q1 c Q2 c
Q3 b Q4 d

Q4). Green house effect

The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth's surface. When the Sun's
energy reaches the Earth's atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest
is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases. The absorbed energy warms the
atmosphere and the surface of the Earth
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q1 The one which is not considered as naturally occurring greenhouse gas is

(a) methane
(b) CFCs
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) nitrous oxide

Q2) Which of the following is not a use of infrared waves

a) Used in treatment for certain forms of cancer
b) in military and civilian applications include target acquisition, surveillance, night vision,
homing, and tracking.
c) to observe changing blood flow in the skin
d) In imaging cameras, used to detect heat loss in insulated systems

Q3) which of the following is the best method for production of infrared waves
a) bombardment of metal by high energy electrons
b) radioactive decay of nucleus
c) magnetron valve
d) vibration of atoms and molecules

Q4) Wavelength of infrared radiations is

(a) shorter (b) longer (c) infinite (d) zero

(ANSWER KEY)
Q1 b Q2 a
Q3 d Q4 b

Q5 ) ELECTROMAGNETIC (EM) SPECTRUM

 The electromagnetic (EM) spectrum is the range of all types of EM radiation. Radiation is
energy that travels and spreads out as it goes – the visible light that comes from a lamp in
your house and the radio waves that come from a radio station are two types of
electromagnetic radiation. The other types of EM radiation that make up the electromagnetic
spectrum are microwaves, infrared light, ultraviolet rays, X- rays and gamma rays.

Q1. The classification is roughly based on?

I) Wavelength and frequency of waves.
II) Production and detection of waves.
III) The way of travelling of waves.
IV) Year discovered.

Q2. Which of the following is NOT an example of EM RAYS.

I) Radiotherapy(medicine).
II) Checking fractures.
III) Sterilisation.
IV) Explosives.
Q3. Identify the pair having highest frequency and highest wavelength EM WAVES.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

I) UV rays and X- rays

II) Gamma rays and Microwaves.
III) Gamma rays and Radio waves.
IV) Radio waves and UV rays.

Q4. What physical quantity is the same for X rays of wavelength 10-10m, red light of
wavelength 6800 Ao and radiowaves of wavelength 500m?
I) Speed in vacuum (c)
II) frequency (f)
III) Scattering
IV) Energy (e)

ANSWER KEY
1. II) PRODUCTION AND DETECTION OF WAYS
2. IV) EXPLOSIVES
3. III) GAMMA RAYS AND RADIO WAVES
4. I) SPEED IN VACUUM
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-VI
OPTICS
Instructions:
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

1) Assertion : The stars twinkle while the planets do not.

Reason : The stars are much bigger in size than the planets.
Correct Answer: B
Solution : The stars twinkle while the planets do not. It is due to variation in density of
atmospheric layer. As the stars are very far and giving light continuously to us. So, the light
coming from stars is found to change their intensity continuously. Hence they are seen
twinkling. Also stars are much bigger in size than planets but it has nothing to deal with
twinkling phenomenon.

2) Assertion : The air bubble shines in water.

Reason : Air bubble in water shines due to refraction of light
Correct Answer: C
Solution : Shining of air bubble in water is on account of total internal reflection.

3) Assertion : A double convex lens (μm = 1.5) has focal length 10 cm. When the lens is
immersed in water (μl = 4/3) its focal length becomes 40 cm.
Reason : 1/f = [(μl−μm)/μm](1/R1−1/R2)
Correct Answer: A
Solution : Focal length of lens immersed in water is four times the focal length of
lens in air. It means

fw = 4fa = 4×10 = 40 cm

4) Assertion : The colour of the green flower seen through red glass appears to be dark.
Reason : Red glass transmits only red light.
Correct Answer: A
Solution : The red glass absorbs the radiations emitted by green flowers; so flower
appears black.

5) Assertion : The mirrors used in search lights are parabolic and not concave spherical.
Reason : In a concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
Correct Answer: C
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Solution : In search lights, we need an intense parallel beam of light. If a source is placed
at the focus of a concave spherical mirror, only paraxial rays are rendered parallel. Due to
large aperture of mirror, marginal rays give a divergent beam. But in case of parabolic
mirror, when source is at the focus, beam of light produced over the entire cross-section of
the mirror is a parallel beam.

6) Assertion : The size of the mirror affect the nature of the image.
Reason : Small mirrors always forms a virtual image.
Correct Answer: D
Solution : The size of the mirror does not affect the nature of the image except that a
bigger mirror forms a brighter image.

7) Assertion : Within a glass slab, a double convex air bubble is formed. This air bubble
behaves like a converging lens.
Reason : Refractive index of air is more than the refractive index of glass.
Correct Answer: D
Solution : The air bubble would behave as a diverging lens, because refractive index of air
is less than refractive index of glass. However, the geometrical shape of the air bubble
shall resemble a double convex lens.

8) Assertion : The focal length of lens does not change when red light is replaced by blue
light.
Reason : The focal length of lens does not depends on colour of light used.
Correct Answer: D
Solution : Focal length of the lens depends upon it's refractive index as 1/f ∝ (μ−1). Since
μb > μr so fb < fr . Therefore, the focal length of a lens decreases when red light is replaced
by blue light.

9) Assertion : There is no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular glass slab.

Reason : Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of white light into its
constituent colours.
Correct Answer: B
Solution : After refraction at two parallel faces of a glass slab, a ray of light emerges in a
direction parallel to the direction of incidence of white light on the slab. As rays of all
colours emerge in the same direction (of incidence of white light), hence there is no
dispersion, but only lateral displacement.

10) Assertion : A beam of white light gives a spectrum on passing through a hollow prism.
Reason : Speed of light outside the prism is different from the speed of light inside the
prism.
Correct Answer: D
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Solution : Dispersion of light cannot occur on passing through air contained in a hollow
prism. Dispersion take place because the refractive index of medium for different colour is
different. Therefore when white light travels from air to air, refractive index remains same
and no dispersion occurs.

11) Assertion : If objective and eye lenses of a microscope are interchanged then it can
work as telescope. Reason : The objective of telescope has small focal length.
Correct Answer: D
Solution : We cannot interchange the objective and eye lens of a microscope to make a
telescope. The reason is that the focal length of lenses in microscope are very small, of the
order of mm or a few cm and the difference (fo & fe) is very small, while the telescope
objective have a very large focal length as compared to eye lens of microscope.

12) Assertion : Although the surfaces of a goggle lens are curved, it does not have any
power.
Reason : In case of goggles, both the curved surfaces have equal radii of curvature.
Correct Answer: A
Solution : The focal length of a lens is given by 1/f=(μ−1)(1/R1−1/R2) For, goggle, R1 = R2
1/ f= (μ−1)(1/R1−1/R2) = 0. Therefore, P = 1/f = 0.

13) Assertion : If the angles of the base of the prism are equal, then in the position of
minimum deviation, the refracted ray will pass parallel to the base of prism.
Reason : In the case of minimum deviation, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence.
Correct Answer: A
Solution : In case of minimum deviation of a prism ∠i=∠e. so, ∠r1=∠r2

14) Assertion : An empty test tube dipped into water in a beaker appears silver, when
viewed from a suitable direction.
Reason : Due to refraction of light, the substance in water appears silvery.
Correct Answer: C
Solution : The ray of light incident on the water air interface suffers total internal
reflections, in that case the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle. Therefore,
if the tube is viewed from suitable direction (so that the angle of incidence is greater than
the critical angle), the rays of light incident on the tube undergoes total internal reflection.
As a result, the test tube appears as highly polished i.e. silvery.

15) Assertion : Spherical aberration occur in lenses of larger aperture.

Reason : The two rays, paraxial and marginal rays focus at different points.
Correct Answer: A
Solution : In wide beam of light, the light rays of light which travel close to the principal
axis are called paraxial rays, while the rays which travel quite away from the principal axis
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is called marginal rays. In case of lens having large aperture, the behaviour of the paraxial
and marginal rays are markedly different from each other. The two types of rays come to
focus at different points on the principal axis of the lens, thus the spherical aberration
occur. However in case of a lens with small aperture, the two types of rays come to focus
quite close to each other.
16) Assertion : The frequencies of incident, reflected and refracted beam of monochromatic
light incident from one medium to another are same
Reason : The incident, reflected and refracted rays are coplanar.
Correct Answer: B
Solution : If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.

17) Assertion : By roughening the surface of a glass sheet its transparency can be
reduced.
Reason : Glass sheet with rough surface absorbs more light.
Correct Answer: C
Solution : When glass surface is made rough then the light falling on it is scattered in
different direction due to which its transparency decreases.

18) Assertion : Diamond glitters brilliantly.

Reason : Diamond does not absorb sunlight.
Correct Answer: B
Solution : Diamond glitters brilliantly because light enters in diamond suffers total internal
reflection. All the light entering in it comes out of diamond after number of reflections and
no light is absorb by it.
19) Assertion : The cloud in sky generally appear to be whitish.
Reason : Diffraction due to cloud is efficient in equal measure at all wavelengths.
Correct Answer: C
Solution : The clouds consist of dust particles and water droplets. Their size is very large
as compared to the wavelength of the incident light from the sun. So there is very little
scattering of light. Hence the light which we receive through the clouds has all the colours
of light. As a result of this, we receive almost white light. Therefore, the cloud are generally
white.

Case based Questions (Ray optics)

1) Total internal reflection.
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(i) What is refractive index of a medium(in terms of speed of light)

a) Speed of light in medium/speed of light in vacuum
b) Speed of light in vacuum/speed of light in medium
c) Speed of light in medium  speed of light in vacuum
d) None of the above.

(ii) In the above diagram, calculate the speed of light in the liquid of unknown refractive
index.
a) 1.2 × 108 m/𝑠
b) 1.4 × 108 m/𝑠
c) 1.6 × 108 m/𝑠
d) 1.8 × 108 m/𝑠
(iii) What is refractive index of a medium(in terms of real and apparent depth).
a) Real depth/ App depth
b) App/ Real depth
c) App  Real depth
d) Real + App depth
(iv) What is the relation between refractive index and critical angle for a medium.
a) n = 1/sin ic
b) n = sin ic
c) 1 = n/ sin ic
d) None of the above

Answer:
i) (b)
ii) (d)
iii) (a)
iv) (a)

2) Advance sunrise and delayed sunset

(i) What is the principal behind Advance sunrise and delayed sunset.
(a) Reflection.
(b) Refraction.
c) Dispersion
d) Total internal reflection.
(ii) For how much time the sun is visible apparently after sunset.
(a) Approx. 5 minutes
b) Approx. 10 minutes
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c) Approx. 2 minutes
d) None of the above

(iii) The Sun looks reddish while sunset or sunrise, because.

a) red colour is highly scattered.
b) red colour is least scattered.
c) of refraction of light.
d) of dispersion of light.
iv) The above given phenomenon cannot be observed on the moon because
a) total internal reflection could not take place on the moon
b) there is no atmosphere
c) Sun is not visible from the moon
d) None of the above

Answers
i) (b)
ii) (c)
iii) (b)
iv) (b)

3) Optical fibres: Now-a-days optical fibres are extensively used for transmitting audio and
video signals through long distances. Optical fibres too make use of the phenomenon of
total internal reflection. Optical fibres are fabricated with high quality composite
glass/quartz fibres. Each fibre consists of a core and cladding. The refractive index of the
material of the core is higher than that of the cladding. When a signal in the form of light is
directed at one end of the fibre at a suitable angle, it undergoes repeated total internal
reflections along the length of the fibre and
finally comes out at the other end. Since light undergoes total internal reflection at each
stage, there is no appreciable loss in the intensity of the light signal. Optical fibres are
fabricated such that light reflected at one side of inner surface strikes the other at an angle
larger than the critical angle. Even if the fibre is bent, light can easily travel along its length.
Thus, an optical fibre can be used to act as an optical pipe.

i) Which of the following statement is not true.

a) Optical fibres is based on the principle of total internal reflection.
b) The refractive index of the material of the core is less than that of the cladding.
c) an optical fibre can be used to act as an optical pipe.
d) there is no appreciable loss in the intensity of the light signal while propagating through
an optical fibre.
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ii) What is the condition for total internal reflection to occur?

a) angle of incidence must be equal to the critical angle.
b) angle of incidence must be less than the critical angle.
c) angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle.
d) None of the above.

iii) Which of the following is not an application of total internal reflection?

a) Mirage
b) Sparkling of diamond
c) Splitting of white light through a prism.
d) Totally reflecting prism.

iv) Optical fibres are used extensively to transmit

a) Optical Signal
b) current
c) Sound waves
d) None of the above

Answers
i) (b)
ii) (c)
iii) (c)
iv) (a)

PART - B
Wave Optics (Assertion and Reasoning Based Questions)
1) Assertion : When a light wave travels from a rarer to a denser medium, it loses speed.
The reduction in speed imply a reduction in energy carried by the light wave.
Reason : The energy of a wave is proportional to velocity of wave.
Correct Answer: D
Solution : When a light wave travel from a rarer to a denser medium it loses speed, but
energy carried by the wave does not depend on its speed. Instead, it depends on the
amplitude of wave.

2) Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are infinitely
close to each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two slits.
Correct Answer: A
Solution : When d is negligibly small, fringe width β which is proportional to 1/d may
become too large. Even a single fringe may occupy the whole screen. Hence the pattern
cannot be detected.
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3) Assertion : For best contrast between maxima and minima in the interference pattern of
Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light emerging out of the two slits should be
equal.

Reason : The intensity of interference pattern is proportional to square of amplitude.

Correct Answer: B
Solution : When intensity of light emerging from two slits is equal, the intensity at minima,
Imin = (√ Ia - √Ib)2=0, or absolute dark. It provides a better contrast.

4) Assertion: In Young’s experiment, the fringe width for dark fringes is different from that
for white fringes.
Reason : In Young’s double slit experiment the fringes are performed with a source of
white light, then only black and bright fringes are observed.
Correct Answer: D
Solution : In Young’s experiments fringe width for dark and white fringes are same while in
Young’s double slit experiment when a white light as a source is used, the central fringe is
white around which few coloured fringes are observed on either side.
5) Assertion : When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from some
distance, a bright spot is seen at the centre of shadow of the obstacle.
Reason : Destructive interference occurs at the centre of the shadow.
Correct Answer: C
Solution : As the waves diffracted from the edges of circular obstacle, placed in the path
of light interfere constructively at the centre of the shadow resulting in the formation of a
bright spot.

6) Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using blue light instead of red light, the
fringes becomes narrower.
Reason : In Young?s double slit experiment, fringe width is given by relation β = λD/d.
Correct Answer: A
Solution : β = λD/d.
7) Assertion: Diffraction is common in sound but not common in light waves.
Reason : Wavelength of light is more than the wavelength of sound.
Answer (c)
Solution: If assertion is true but reason is false

8) Assertion : In Young's double slit experiment if wavelength of incident monochromatic

light is just doubled, number of bright fringe on the screen will increase.
Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is directly proportional to the
wavelength of light used.
Answer: (d)
Solution: Wavelength is inversely proportional to the number of fringes, hence by doubling
the wavelength the number of fringes decreases. Hence Assertion and reason are false.
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9) Assertion : In interference and diffraction, light energy is redistributed.

Reason :There is no gain or loss of energy, which is consistent with the principle of
conservation of energy.
Answer: (a)

Solution: In interference and diffraction, light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one

region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe.
There is no gain or loss of energy, which is consistent with the principle of conservation of
energy.

10) Assertion : If complete YDSE (Young’s Double Slit Experiment) is dipped in the liquid
from the air, then fringe width decreases.
Reason : Wavelength of light decreases, when we move from air to liquid.
Answer: (a)

11) Assertion: No sustained interference pattern is obtained when two electric bulbs of the
same power are taken.
Reason: Phase difference between waves coming out of electric bulbs is not constant.
Answer: (a)

12) Assertion: The maximum intensity in YDSE (Young’s Double Slit Experiment) is four
times the intensity due to each slit when they are identical.
Reason: The phase difference between the interfering waves is 2nπ at the position of
maxima where n = 0, 1, 2, ......
Answer: (a)

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (WAVE OPTICS)

1) Refraction of a plane wave

i) What is the angle made by the ray of light on the wavefront?

a) 90˚
b) 0˚
c) 45˚
d) None of the above
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ii) Which parameter remains unchanged while a ray of light propagates from one medium
to another?
a) velocity
b) Wave length
c) frequency
d) None of the above
iii) According to the above given fig., identify the correct expression for Snell’s law.
a) n1 sin i = n2 sin r
b) n2 sin i = n1 sin r
c) n21 = sin r/ sin i
d) None of the above

iv) When a ray of light travels from a denser to a rarer medium, it

a) it bends towards the normal
b) it travels in a straight line irrespective of angle of incidence.
c) it bends away from the normal
d) None of the above

Answers:
i) (a)
ii) (c)
iii) (a)
iv) (c)

2) Interference (Young’s Double slit experiment)

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i) What is the path difference between the two light waves coming from coherent sources,
which produces 3rd maxima.
a) 
b) 2
c) 3
d0

ii) What is the correct expression for fringe width().

a) d/D
(b) dD
(c) d/D
(d) D/d
iii) what is the phase diff. between two interfering waves producing 1st dark fringe.
a) π
b) 2π
c) 3π
d) 4π
iv) The ratio of the widths of two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is 4 : 1. Evaluate
the ratio of intensities at maxima and minima in the interference pattern.
a) 1:1
b) 1:4
c) 3:1
d) 9:1
v) In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 0.1 mm, the
wavelength of light used is 600 nm and the interference pattern is observed on a screen
1m away. Find the separation between bright fringes.
(a) 6.6 mm
(b) 6.0 mm
(c) 6m
(d) 60cm
Answers:
i) (c)
ii) (d)
iii) (a)
iv) (d)
v) (b)
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3) Diffraction at a single slit

(i) In the phenomena of Diffraction of light when the violet light is used in the experiment is
used instead of red light then,
(a) Fringe width increases
(b) No change in fridge width
(c) Fringe width decreases
(d) Colour pattern is formed

(ii) Diffraction aspect is easier to notice in case of the sound waves then in case of the light
waves because sound waves
(a) Have longer wavelength
(b) Shorter wavelength
(c) Longitudinal wave
(d) Transverse waves

(iii) Diffraction effects show that light does not travel in straight lines. Under what condition
the concepts of ray optics are valid. ( D = distance of screen from the slit).
(a) D < Zf
(b) D = Zf
(c) D > Zf
(d) D << Zf

(iv) when 2nd secondary maxima is obtained in case of single slit diffraction pattern, the
angular position is given by
(a) 
(b) /2
(c) 3/2
(d) 5/2
Answers:
(i) (c)
(ii) (a)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (d)
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-VII
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed
by a corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the
correct answer as:
(A)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(B)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(C)If assertion is true and reason is false
(D)If both assertion and reason are false

1. Assertion: A photon has no rest mass , yet it carries definite momentum.

Reason: Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
2.Assertion: Mass of moving photon varies inversely as the wavelength.
Reason: Energy of the particle = mass x (speed of light)2
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
3.Assertion: In photoelectron emission, the velocity of electron ejected from near the
surface is larger than that coming from interior of metal.
Reason. The velocity of ejected electron will be zero.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
4.Assertion: A photocell is called an electric eye.
Reason. When light is incident on some semiconductor, its electrical resistance is
reduced .
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
5.Assertion: The de Broglie equation has significance for any microscopic or sub-
microscopic particle.
Reason: The de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of the object if
velocity is constant.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
6.Assertion : A particle of mass M at rest decay into particles of masses m 1 and m2,having
non-zero
velocities will have ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths unity.
Reason. Here we cannot apply conservation of linear momentum.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
7.Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason. The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
8.Assertion:When acertain wavelength of light falls on a metal surface it ejects electron.
Reason. Light has wave nature.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
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9.Assertion: As work function of a material increases by some mechanism, it requires

greater energy to excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason. A plot of stopping potential (V2) versus frequency (v) for different materials,has
greater slope for metals with greater work functions.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
10.Assertion : Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on photo-
sensitive material.If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled the photo current
remains unchanged.
Reason.The photo electric current varies directly with the intensity of light and frequency of
light.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d) D
11. Assertion. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic energy is k is λ. Its
wavelength is 2 λ when its kinetic energy is 4k.
Reason. The de - Broglie wavelength λ is proportional to square root of the kinetic energy.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
12. Assertion. The de – Broglie wavelength of a molecule varies inversely as the square
root of temperature.
Reason. The root mean square velocity of the molecule depends on the temperature.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D

Answers
Q1. (a) Q2. (a) Q3. (c) Q4. (c) Q5. (a)
Q6. (a) Q7. (d) Q8. (b) Q9. (c) Q10. (d)
Q11. (d) Q12. (a) Q13. (b)

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

1. The photoelectric emission is possible only if the incident light is in the form of packets of
energy, each having a definite value, more than the work function of the metal. This shows
that light is not of wave nature but of particle nature. It is due to this reason that
photoelectric emission was accounted by quantum theory of light.
Q1. Packet of energy are called
(a)electron
(b)quanta
(c)frequency
(d)neutron
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Q2. One quantum of radiation is called

(a)meter
(b)meson
(c) photon
(d)quark
Q3. Energy associated with each photon
(a)hc
(b)mc
(c)hv
(d)hk

Q4. Which of the following waves can produce photo electric effect
(a). UV radiation
(b). Infrared radiation
(c). Radio waves
(d) .Microwaves

Q5. Work function of alkali metals is

(a)less than zero
(b)just equal to other metals
(c) greater than other metals
(d) quite less than other metals

Answer
Q1.(b) Q2.(c) Q3.(c) Q4.(a) Q5.(d)

Q2. According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and
sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which
controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving material particle is
called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength called de-Broglie wavelength, is
given by λ = h/mv
1.The dual nature of light is exhibited by
(a) diffraction and photo electric effect
(b) photoelectric effect
(c) refraction and interference
(d)diffraction and reflection.
2. If the momentum of a particle is doubled , then its de-Broglie wavelength will
(a)remain unchanged (b)become four times
(c) become two times (d)become half
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3. If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same
λ , it implies that they have the same
(a)energy (b)momentum
(c)velocity (d)angular momentum
4. Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation
(a) v = λ h/m (b) v = λm/h
(c) v = λ/hm (d) v = h/ λm
5. Moving with the same velocity , which of the following has the longest de Broglie
wavelength?
(a)ᵦ -particle (b) α -particle
(c) proton (d) neutron.

Answer
Q1.(a) Q2.(d) Q3.(b) Q4.(d) Q5.(a)
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-VIII
ATOM AND NUCLEUS
Instructions:
A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D) If the assertion and reason both are false.
E) If assertion is false but reason is true.
1.
Assertion: It is not possible to use 35Cl as the fuel for fusion energy.
Reason: The binding energy of 35Cl is too small.

Correct Answer: C

Solution : In fusion, lighter nuclei are used so, fusion is not possible with 35Cl. Also
binding energy of 35Cl is not too small.

2.
Assertion : 90Sr from the radioactive fall out from a nuclear bomb ends up in the
bones of human beings through the milk consumed by them. It causes impairment of
the production of red blood cells.
Reason : The energetics b-particles emitted in the decay of 90Sr damage the bone
marrow.

Correct Answer: A

Solution : 90Sr38 decays to 90Y39 by the emission of β− rays. Sr gets absorbed in bones
along with calcium. Reason is also true.

3.
Assertion : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.

Correct Answer: B

Solution : Neutron is about 0.1 more massive than proton. But the unique thing about
the neutron is that while it is heavy, it has no charge (it is neutral). Thi s lack of
charge gives it the ability to penetrate matter without interacting as quickly as the
beta particles or alpha particles.
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4.
Assertion : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.

Correct Answer: B

Solution : Neutron is about 0.1 more massive than proton. But the unique thing about
the neutron is that while it is heavy, it has no charge (it is neutral). This lack of
charge gives it the ability to penetrate matter without interacting as quickly as the
beta particles or alpha particles.

5.
Assertion : Radioactive nuclei emit β−1 particles.
Reason : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.

Correct Answer: C

Solution : Nuclear stability depends upon the ratio of neutron to proton. If the n/p ratio
is more than the critical value, then a neutron gets converted into a proton forming
a β− particle in the process. So electrons do not exist in the nucleus but they result in
some nuclear transformation.

6.
Assertion : ZXA undergoes 2α decays 2β− decays and 2Ƴ decays and the daughter
product is Z−2YA−8.
Reason : In a-decay the mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number
decreases by 2. In b- decay the mass number remains unchanged, but atomic
number increases by 1 only.

Correct Answer: A

Solution : A 2(2He4) + 2(−1e0) + 2γ + z−2XA−8

ZX →

7.
Assertion : Density of all the nuclei is same.
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number.
Correct Answer: A
Solution : Experimentally it is found that the average radius of a nucleus is given by R
= R0A1/3 where R0 = 1.1×10−15m = 1.1 fm and A = mass number.
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8.
Assertion : Isobars are the element having same mass number but different atomic
number.
Reason : Neutrons and protons are present inside nucleus.

Correct Answer: B

9.
Assertion : The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus and a-particle varies with
distance according to inverse square law.
Reason : Rutherford did a-particle scattering experiment.

Correct Answer: B

Solution : Rutherford confirmed the repulsive force on a-particle due to nucleus

varies with distance according to inverse square law and that the positive charges
are concentrated at the centre and not distributed throughout the atom.

10.
Assertion : The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a radius of almost 10−15m.
Reason : In a-particle scattering experiment, the distance of closest approach for a-
particles is ≃ 10−15m.

Correct Answer: A

Solution : In a-particle scattering experiment, Rutherford found a small number of a-

particles which were scattered back through an angle approaching to 180∘. This is
possible only if the positive charges are concentrated at the centre or nucleus of the
atom.

11.
Assertion : According to classical theory, the proposed path of an electron in
Rutherford atom model will be parabolic.
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously
emits radiation.

Correct Answer: E

Solution : According to classical electromagnetic theory, an accelerated charge

continuously emits radiation. As electrons revolving in circular paths are constantly
experiencing centripetal acceleration, hence they will be losing their energy
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continuously and the orbital radius will go on decreasing and form spiral and finally
the electron will fall on the nucleus.

12.
Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces.
Reason : The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb?s
law is balanced by the centrifugal force.

Correct Answer: C

Solution : According to postulates of Bohr?s atom model, the electron revolve round
the nucleus in fixed orbit of definite radii. As long as the electron is in a certain orbits
it does not radiate any energy.
13.
Assertion : The electron in the hydrogen atom passes from energy level n=4 to the
n=1 level. The maximum and minimum number of photon that can be emitted are six
and one respectively.
Reason : The photons are emitted when electron make a transition from the higher
energy state to the lower energy state.

Correct Answer: B

Solution : Maximum number of photon is given by all the transitions possible =4C2 =
6. Minimum number of transition = 1, that is directly jump from 4 to 1.

14.
Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission spectrum
has many lines.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom
whereas in the emission spectrum, all the series are found.

Correct Answer: B

Solution : When the atom gets appropriate energy from outside, then this electron
rises to some higher energy level. Now it can return either directly to the lower
energy level or come to the lowest energy level after passing through other lower
energy lends, hence all possible transitions take place in the source and many lines
are seen in the spectrum.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

15.
Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will
also be available in the absorption spectrum.
Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum.

Correct Answer: D

Solution : Emission transitions can take place between any higher energy level and
any energy level below it while absorption transitions start from the lowest energy
level only and may end at any higher energy level. Hence number of absorptions
transitions between two given energy levels is always less than the number of
emission transitions between same two levels.

16.
Assertion : For the scattering of a-particles at a large angles, only the nucleus of the
atom is responsible.
Reason : Nucleus is very heavy in comparison to α particle.

Correct Answer: A

Solution : We know that an electron is very light particle as compared to an a-

particle. Hence electron cannot scatter the a-particle at large angles, according to
law of conservation of momentum. On the other hand, mass of nucleus is
comparable with the mass of a-particle, hence only the nucleus of atom is
responsible for scattering of a-particles.

17.
Assertion : All the radioactive elements are ultimately converted in lead.
Reason : All the elements above lead are unstable.

Correct Answer: C

Solution : All those elements which are heavier than lead are radioactive. This is
because in the nuclei of heavy atoms, besides the nuclear attractive forces,
repulsive forces between the protons are also effective and these forces reduce the
stability of the nucleus. Hence, the nuclei of heavier elements are being converted
into lighter and lighter elements by emission of radioactive radiation. When they are
converted into lead, the emission is stopped because the nucleus of lead is stable
(or lead is most stable elements in radioactive series).
Physics / XII (2020-21)

18.
Assertion : Amongst alpha, beta and gamma rays, a-particle has maximum
penetrating power.
Reason : The alpha particle is heavier than beta and gamma rays.

Correct Answer: D

Solution : The penetrating power is maximum in case of gamma rays because

gamma rays are an electromagnetic radiation of very small wavelength.

19.
Assertion : The ionising power of β-particle is less compared to a-particles but their
penetrating power is more.
Reason : The mass of β-particle is less than the mass of a-particle.
Correct Answer: B
Solution : β particles, being emitted with very high speed compared to α particles,
pass very little time near the atoms of the medium. So the probability of the atoms
being ionised is comparatively less. But due to this reason, their loss of energy is
very slow and they can penetrate the medium through a sufficient depth.

20.
Assertion : The mass of b-particles when they are emitted is higher than the mass of
electrons obtained by other means.
Reason : β-particle and electron, both are similar particles.
Correct Answer: B
Solution : β-particles are emitted with very high velocity (up to 0.99 c). So,
according to Einstein?s theory of relatively, the mass of a β -particle is much higher
compared to is` its rest mass (m0). The velocity of electrons obtained by other
means is very small compared to c (Velocity of light). So its mass remains nearly m0.
But b-particle and electron both are similar particles.

21. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108 un-decayed radioactive nuclei of half-life of 50

days is equal to that of 1.2×108 number of un-decayed nuclei of some other material
with half-life of 60 days.
Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half-life.

Correct Answer : C

Solution : Radioactivity –dN/dt = λN = 0.693/T1/2 Radioactivity is proportional to 1/T 1/2

and not to T 1/2.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

22.
Assertion : Fragments produced in the fission of U235 are radioactive.
Reason : The fragments have abnormally high proton to neutron ratio.

Correct Answer: C

Solution : Fragments produced in the fission of U235 are radioactive. When uranium
undergoes fission, barium and krypton are not the only products. Over 100 different
isotopes of more than 20 different elements have been detected among fission
products. All of these atoms are, however, in the middle of the periodic table, with
atomic numbers ranging from 34 to 58. Because the neutron-proton ratio needed for
stability in this range is much smaller than that of the original uranium nucleus, the
residual nuclei called fission fragments, always have too many neutrons for stability.
A few free neutrons are liberated during fission and the fission fragments undergo a
series of beta decays (each of which increases Z by one and decreases N by one)
until a stable nucleus is reached. During decay of the fission fragments, an average
of 15 MeV of additional energy is liberated.

23.
Assertion : The mass of a nucleus can be either less than or more than the sum of
the masses of nucleons present in it.
Reason : The whole mass of the atom is considered in the nucleus.

Correct Answer: E

Solution : The whole mass of the atom is concentrated at nucleus and M(nucleus) <
(Sum of the masses of nucleus) because, when nucleous combines, some energy is
wasted.

24.
Assertion : Only those nuclei which are heavier than lead are radioactive.
Reason : Nuclei of elements heavier than lead are unstable.

Correct Answer : D
Solution : Some lighter nuclei are also radioactive.

25.
Assertion : In one half-life of a radioactive substance more number of nuclei are decayed
than in one average life.
Reason : Average life = Half -life/Ln (2)

Correct Answer : D)
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Solution : Average life is more Hence more nuclei decay in one average life .

26.
Assertion : Nucleus of the atom does not contain electrons, yet it emits β−particles in the form of
electrons.
Reason : In the nucleus, protons and neutrons exchange mesons frequently.

Correct Answer D

Solution : Nucleus of the atom does not contain electrons, yet it emits β− particles in the form of
electrons. The nucleus contains only protons and neutrons but In the nucleus, protons and
neutrons do not exchange mesons frequently.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

(ATOMS AND NUCLEI)
Everything around us which has mass and
occupies space is matter. An atom is the basic unit of
matter. It cannot be broken down further using any
chemical means because it is the basic building block of
an element. Every state of matter solid, liquid, gas, and
plasma is composed of either atom either it is neutral (un-
ionized), or ionized atoms. An atom is made up of three
particles known as protons, neutrons, and electrons. And
these particles are also made up from sub-particles.
Among these three particles, protons have a positive
charge while electrons carry a negative charge and the
third particle neutrons have no electrical charge. And the
charge of atoms depends on the number of protons and
electrons, i.e an atom is electrically neutral if the number of protons and electrons are
equal. If an atom has more or fewer electrons than protons, then it has an overall negative
or positive charge, respectively. These atoms are extremely small or you can say their
typical sizes are around 100 picometers. So the dense region consisting of protons and
neutrons at the center of an atom is known as the atomic nucleus of an atom. Every atom
is composed of such nucleus and some elections will be surrounding it. Studying these
atoms and Nuclei will help us to have a thorough understanding of matter. Studying about
the nucleus and its reactions will help us to understand more about nuclear energy, which
is a very useful renewable energy. That's why it is very important to study about Atoms and
Nuclei.

Q1. What is the basic unit of matter?

a) Atom
b) Electron
c) Proton
d) Neutron
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q2. Which particle is responsible for the ionization of the atom?

a) Positron
b) Electron
c) Proton
d) Neutron

Q3. If number of protons in an atom is equal to (number of electrons + 2). Then the atom is
said to be
a) Single ionized positive ion
b) Single ionized positive atom
c) Double ionized positive ion
d) Double ionized positive atom

Q4. Which is the most dense part of an atom?

a) The exact central part of the atom.
b) The region at the center of atom containing neutrons and protons.
c) Outer edge of the atom
d) None of the above

Answer : Q1 – a; Q2 – b; Q3 – c; Q4 – b

Bohr’s Atomic Model

To study about atom various scientists perform various experiments and

suggest various models of an atom with some explanation. For example, Thomson gives
the "plum pudding" model in which he said the atom consists of a positive material known
as "pudding" with some negative materials ("plums") distributed throughout. Later, famous
scientist, Rutherford gives Rutherford's model of the atom after performing an Alpha
Particle scattering experiment.
This model is a modification of the earlier Rutherford Model. According to
this model, an atom consists of a small, positively-charged nucleus and negatively-charged
electrons orbiting around it in an orbital. These orbital can have different sizes, energy, etc.
And the energy of the orbit is also related to its size, I.e The lowest energy is found in the
smallest orbit. So if the electron is orbiting in nth orbit then we will study about its Velocity
in nth orbital, Radius of nth orbital, Energy of electron in nth orbit, etc. Energy is also
emitted due to the transition of electrons from one orbit to another orbit. This energy is
emitted in the form of photons with different wavelengths. This wavelength is given by the
Rydberg formula. When electrons make transitions between two energy levels in an atom
various spectral lines are obtained. The emission spectrum of the hydrogen atom has been
divided into various spectral series like Lyman series, Balmer series, Paschen series Etc.

Q1. The formula which gives the wavelength of emitted photon when electron jumps from
higher nergy state to lower was given by
a) Balmer
b) Paschen
c) Lymen
d) Rydberg
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q2. What is true about Bohr’s atomic Model

a) His model was unique totally different from other
b) His model is a modification of Rutherford atomic model.
c) His model is a modification of Thomson atomic model.
d) None of the above

Q3. Bohr’s atomic model is applicable for

a) All types of atoms
b) Only for hydrogen atom
c) For hydrogen like atoms
d) For H2 gas.

Q4. The cause of rejection of Rutherford atomic model was

a) It was totally wrong
b) It could not justify its stability
c) Rutherford was unable to explain it
d) None of the above.

Answer : Q1 – d; Q2 – b; Q3 – c; Q4 – b

SIZE OF THE NUCLEUS

Rutherford was the pioneer who postulated and established the

existence of the atomic nucleus. At Rutherford’s suggestion, Geiger and Marsden
performed their classic experiment: on the scattering of α-particles from thin gold foils.
Their experiments revealed that the distance of closest approach to a gold nucleus of an α-
particle of kinetic energy 5.5 MeV is about 4.0 × 10 –14 m. The scattering of α-particle by the
gold sheet could be understood by Rutherford by assuming that the coulomb repulsive
force was solely responsible for scattering. Since the positive charge is confined to the
nucleus, the actual size of the nucleus has to be less than 4.0 × 10–14 m. If we use α-
particles of higher energies than 5.5 MeV, the distance of closest approach to the gold
nucleus will be smaller and at some point the scattering will begin to be affected by the
short range nuclear forces, and differ from Rutherford’s calculations. Rutherford’s
calculations are based on pure coulomb repulsion between the positive charges of the α
particle and the gold nucleus. From the distance at which deviations set in, nuclear sizes
can be inferred. By performing scattering experiments in which fast electrons, instead of α-
particles, are projectiles that bombard targets made up of various elements, the sizes of
nuclei of various elements have been accurately measured. It has been found that a
nucleus of mass number A has a radius R = R0 A1/3, where R0 = 1.2 × 10–15 m. This means
the volume of the nucleus, which is proportional to R3 is proportional to A. Thus the density
of nucleus is a constant, independent of A, for all nuclei. Different nuclei are likes drop of
liquid of constant density. The density of nuclear matter is approximately 2.3 × 10 17 kgm–3.
This density is very large compared to ordinary matter, say water, which is 10 3 kg m–3. This
is understandable, as we have already seen that most of the atom is empty. Ordinary
matter consisting of atoms has a large amount of empty space.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q1. Relative density of nucleus with respect to water is

a) 2.3 × 1017 kgm–3
b) 2.3 × 1014 kgm–3
c) 23 × 1017 kgm–3
d) .23 × 1017 kgm–3

Q2. From R = R0 A1/3 how can we conclude that density of almost all the nucleus is same
a) Volume being proportional to square of R density becomes independent of mass
number A
b) Volume being proportional to cube of R density becomes independent of mass
number A
c) Volume being proportional to R density becomes independent of mass number A
d) Density has no relation with R

Q3. What is the kinetic energy of α-particles bombarded towards the gold nucleus in
Geiger and Marsden classic experiment?
a) 8.8x10-13 Joule
b) 8.8x10-15 Joule
c) 8.8x10-13 Joule
d) x 10-13 Joule
e) 8.5x10-13 Joule

Q4. What is the range of volume of hydrogen nucleus?

a) 10-45m.
b) 10-30m.
c) 10-15m.
d) 10-60m.

Answer : Q1 – b; Q2 – b; Q3 – a; Q4 – a

Graphical representation Of Scattering of α Particles By Gold Nucleus

A typical graph of the total number of α-

particles scattered at different angles, in a
given interval of time, is shown in Fig. The
dots in this figure represent the data points
and the solid curve is the theoretical
prediction based on the assumption that the
target atom has a small, dense, positively
charged nucleus. Many of the α-particles
pass through the foil. It means that they do
not suffer any collisions. Only about 0.14%
of the incident α-particles scatter by more
than 1º; and about 1 in 8000 deflect by more
than 90º. Rutherford argued that, to deflect
the α-particle backwards, it must experience
a large repulsive force. This force could be provided if the greater part of the mass of the
atom and its positive charge were concentrated tightly at its centre. Then the incoming α-
Physics / XII (2020-21)

particle could get very close to the positive charge without penetrating it, and such a close
encounter would result in a large deflection. This agreement supported the hypothesis of
the nuclear atom. This is why Rutherford is credited with the discovery of the nucleus.
In Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom, the entire positive charge and most
of the mass of the atom are concentrated in the nucleus with the electrons some distance
away. The electrons would be moving in orbits about the nucleus just as the planets do
around the sun. Rutherford’s experiments suggested the size of the nucleus to be about
10–15 m to 10–14 m. From kinetic theory, the size of an atom was known to be 10 –10 m,
about 10,000 to 100,000 times larger than the size of the nucleus. Thus, the electrons
would seem to be at a distance from the nucleus of about 10,000 to 100,000 times the size
of the nucleus itself. Thus, most of an atom is empty space. With the atom being largely
empty space, it is easy to see why most α -particles go right through a thin metal foil.
However, when α-particle happens to come near a nucleus, the intense electric field there
scatters it through a large angle. The atomic electrons, being so light, do not appreciably
affect the α-particles. The scattering data shown in Fig. can be analysed by employing
Rutherford’s nuclear model of the atom. As the gold foil is very thin, it can be assumed that
α-particles will suffer not more than one scattering during their passage through it.
Therefore, computation of the trajectory of an alpha-particle scattered by a single nucleus
is enough. Alpha particles are nuclei of helium atoms and, therefore, carry two units,2e, of
positive charge and have the mass of the helium atom. The charge of the gold nucleus is
Ze, where Z is the atomic number of the atom; for gold Z = 79. Since the nucleus of gold is
about 50 times heavier than α-particle, it is reasonable to assume that it remains stationary
throughout the scattering process. Under these assumptions, the trajectory of an alpha-
particle can be computed employing Newton’s second law of motion and the Coulomb’s
law for electrostatic force of repulsion between the alpha-particle and the positively
charged nucleus.

Q1. What percentage of α particle scattered at an angle more than 90º?

a) .0125%
b) .125%
c) 1.25%
d) 12.5%

Q2. Why the nucleus of gold is about remains stationary throughout the scattering
process?
a) Because its mass is 100 times the mass of proton.
b) Because its mass is 50 times the mass of proton.
c) Because its mass is 150 times the mass of proton.
d) Because its mass is 200 times the mass of proton.

Q3. Why electrons around the gold nucleus were unable to deflect α particles?
a) Size of α particle is much greater than that of electron.
b) Number of electrons around gold nucleus is very small
c) α particles is much heavier than electron.
d) Electrons are negatively charged.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q4. What is the ratio of charge on α particle and gold nucleus?

a) .025
b) .25
c) .2
d) .5

Answer : Q1 – a; Q2 – d; Q3 – c; Q4 – a

THE LINE SPECTRA OF THE HYDROGEN ATOM

According to the third postulate of Bohr’s

model, when an atom makes a transition from the
higher energy state with quantum number ni to the
lower energy state with quantum number nf (nf < ni),
the difference of energy is carried away by a photon
of frequency ν such that hν = Eni – Enf. Since both
nf and ni are integers, this immediately shows that in
transitions between different atomic levels, light is
radiated in various discrete frequencies. For
hydrogen spectrum, the Balmer formula
corresponds to nf = 2 and ni = 3, 4, 5 etc. The
results of the Bohr’s model suggested the presence
of other series spectra for hydrogen atom–those
corresponding to transitions resulting from nf = 1
and ni = 2, 3, etc; nf = 3 and ni = 4, 5, etc. and so
on. Such series were identified in the course of
spectroscopic investigations and are known as the
Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, Brackett, and Pfund
series. The electronic transitions corresponding to these series are shown in Fig. The
various lines in the atomic spectra are produced when electrons jump from higher energy
state to a lower energy state and photons are emitted. These spectral lines are called
emission lines. But when an atom absorbs a photon that has precisely the same energy
needed by the electron in a lower energy state to make transitions to a higher energy
state, the process is called absorption. Thus if photons with a continuous range of
frequencies pass through a rarefied gas and then are analysed with a spectrometer, a
series of dark spectral absorption lines appear in the continuous spectrum. The dark lines
indicate the frequencies that have been absorbed by the atoms of the gas. The explanation
of the hydrogen atom spectrum provided by Bohr’s model was a brilliant achievement,
which greatly stimulated progress towards the modern quantum theory.

Q1. The series of spectrum when electron jumps from n = 5 to n = 3 is

a) Lymen
b) Balmer
c) Paschen
d) Bracket
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q2. Balmer series is obtained when electron transits from

a) n = 1,2,3, … to n = 5
b) n = 3,4,5 … to n = 2
c) n = 1,2,3, … to n = 4
d) n = 1,2,3, … to n = 6

Q3. From Fig. shown predict which series has waves of maximum frequency
a) Lymen
b) Balmer
c) Paschen
d) Bracket

Q4. What is the maximum energy of photon in emission spectrum of hydrogen atom
a) 13.6 eV
b) 1.36 eV
c) 1.5 eV
d) 1eV

Answer : Q1 – c; Q2 – b; Q3 – a; Q4 – a
Physics / XII (2020-21)

UNIT-IX
ELECTRONIC DEVICES
Two statements are given – One labeled assertion (A) and other labeled reason (R).
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A): A Pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of

resistance.
Reason (R): On raising the temperature, more charge carriers are released,
conductance increases and resistance decreases.
2. Assertion (A): At a fix temperature, silicon will have a minimum conductivity when it
has a smaller accepter doping.
Reason (R): The conductivity of and intrinsic semiconductor is slightly higher than of
a lightly doped p-type.
3. Assertion (A): The electrons in the conduction band have higher energy than those in
the valance band of a semi-conductor.
Reason (R): The conduction band lies above the energy gap and valance band lies
below the energy gap.
4. Assertion (A): The energy gap between the valance band and conduction band is
greater in silicon than a germanium.
Reason (R): Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in
germanium.
5. Assertion (A): p- n junction diode can be used even at ultra-high frequencies.
Reason (R): Capacitative reactance p- n junction diode increases as frequency
increases.
6. Assertion (A): The colour of light emitted by LED depends on its forward biasing.
Reason (R): The reverse biasing of p-n junction will lower the width of depletion
layer.
7. Assertion (A): Two p-n junction diodes placed back to back will work as n-p-n
transistor.
Reason (R): The p- reasons of two p-n junction diodes placed back to back will
form the base of n-p-n transistor.
8. Assertion ( A) : The number of electrons in a p- type silicon semi-conductor is less
than the number of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
Reason (R): It is due to law of mass action.
9. Assertion (A): Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor.
Reason (R): Mass of electron is less than the mass of hole.
10. Assertion (A): An n type semiconductor has a large number of electrons but still it is
electrically neutral.
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Reason (R): A n type semiconductor is obtained by doping an intrinsic

semiconductor with a penta valent impurity.
11. Assertion (A): V-I characteristic of p-n junction diode is same as that of any other
conductor.
Reason (R): p-n junction diode behave as conductor at room temperature.
12. Assertion (A): At 0K germanium is a super conductor.
Reason (R): At 0K germanium offers zero resistance.
13. Assertion (A): Semiconductor do not obey’s Om’s Law.
Reason (R): Current is determined by the rate of flow of charge carriers.
14. Assertion (A): Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductors
device.
Reason (R): The energy gap for germanium is more than the energy gap of silicon.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

ELECTRONIC DEVICES
1. SEMICONDUCTOR :
A pure semiconductor germanium or silicon, free of every
impurity is called intrinsic semiconductor. At room temperature, a pure
semiconductor has very small number of current carriers (electrons and holes)
.Hence its conductivity is low.
When the impurity atoms of valance five or three are doped in a pure
semiconductor, we get respectively n- type or p- type extrinsic semiconductor. In
case of doped semiconductor ne nh=ni2. Where ne and nh are the number density
of electron and hole charge carriers in a pure semiconductor. The conductivity of
extrinsic semiconductor is much higher than that of intrinsic semiconductor.
Answer the following questions:
Q (1). Which of the following statements is not true?
a. The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase of
temperature.
b. Doping pures Si with trivalent impurities gives p- type semiconductors.
c. The majority charges in n- type semiconductors are holes.
d. A p-n junction can act as semiconductor diode.
Q (2). The impurity atoms with which pure Si should be doped to make a p- type
semiconductor is
a. Phosphorus
b. Boron
c. Arsenic
d. Antimony
Q (3). Holes are majority charge carriers in
a. Intrinsic semiconductors.
b. Ionic Solids
c. p- type semiconductors
d. Metals
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q (4). At absolute zero, Si acts as

a. Non- metal
b. Metal
c. Insulator
d. None of these
Answers
1. (c) The majority Charge carriers in n-type semiconduch as holes
2. (b) BORON
3. (c) p-type semiconductors
4. (c) Insulators
2. p-n junction diode :
p-n junction is a semiconductor diode. It is obtained by bringing
p-type semiconductor in close contact with n- type semiconductor. A thin layer is
developed at the p- n junction which is devoid of any charge carrier but has
immobile ions. It is called depletion layer. At the junction a potential barrier
appears, which does not allow the movement of majority charge carriers across
the junction in the absence of any biasing of the junction. p-n junction offers low
resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse biased.
Q (1). In the middle of depletion layer of reverse biased p- n junction, the
a. Electric field is zero
b. Potential is zero
c. Potential is maximum
d. Electric field is maximum
Q (2). The energy band gap is maximum in
a. Metals
b. Superconductors
c. Insulators
d. Semiconductors
Q (3). The number of majority carriers crossing the junction of diode depends primarily
on the
a. Concentration of doping impurities
b. Magnitude of potential barriers
c. Magnitude of the forward bias voltage
d. Rate of thermal generation of electron –hole pairs
Q (4). Hole is
a. Antiparticle of electron
b. A vacancy created when an electron leaves covalent bond
c. Absence of free electrons
d. An artificially created particle.
Answers:
1. (c) potential is maximum
2. (c) Insulators
3. (d) Rate of thermal Generation of eleeton-holepair
Physics / XII (2020-21)

4. (b) A Vacancy created when an electon leaves covalent bond

3. Rectifiers :
A semiconductor device is used as a rectifier that allows the voltage to flow in positive
direction and very small value in the reverse direction. Now a days, there is a problem
of supply of less voltage that damages the household appliances.
Q (1). In the depletion region of a diode
a. There are no mobile charges
b. Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral.
c. Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
d. Immobile charge ions exist.
Q(2).When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased then
a. No Current flows
b. The depletion reason is increased
c. The depletion reason is reduced
d. Height of potential barrier is reduced
Q(3). Diode is used as
a. Oscillator
b. Amplifier
c. Rectifier
d. Modulator
Q(4).Which one statement is incorrect?
a. Diode is used as rectifier
b. Diode is used as half wave rectifier
c. Diode is used as Amplifier
d. Diode is used as full wave rectifier
Answers:
1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (c)
4. Zener diode :
Zener diode is a specially designed p-n junction diode in which both p- side and
n- side of p-n junction are heavily dopped. The zener diode is designed specially to
operate in the reverse break down voltage region continuously without being
damaged. Zener diode is used to remove the fluctuations from given voltage and
thereby provides a voltage of constant magnitude (i.e. zener diode is used as
voltage regulator).
Q (1). Zener diode is mostly used as
a. Half wave rectifier
b. Full wave rectifier
c. Voltage regulator
d. LED
Physics / XII (2020-21)

Q (2). Zener diode is designed to specially work in which region without getting
damaged ?
a. Active region
b. Break down region
c. Forward Biased
d. Reverse biased
Q (3). The depletion region of the zener diode is
a. Thick
b. Normal
c. Very thin
d. Very thick
Q (4). What is the level of dopping in zener diode?
a. Lightly dopped
b. Heavily dopped
c. Moderately dopped
d. No dopping
Answers:
1. (c)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (b)
Class: XII Session: 2020-2021
Subject: Physics
Sample Question Paper (Theory)

Maximum Marks: 70 Marks Time Allowed: 3 hours

General Instructions:
(1) All questions are compulsory. There are 33 questions in all.
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E.
(3) Section A contains ten very short answer questions and four assertion reasoning
MCQs of 1 mark each, Section B has two case based questions of 4 marks each,
Section C contains nine short answer questions of 2 marks each, Section D contains
five short answer questions of 3 marks each and Section E contains three long answer
questions of 5 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However internal choice is provided. You have to attempt
only one of the choices in such questions.

Sr. Marks
No.
Section – A
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt
any one of them.

1 Name the physical quantity having unit J/T. 1

2 Mention one use of part of electromagnetic spectrum to which a wavelength 1

of 21 cm (emitted by hydrogen in interstellar space) belongs.

Give the ratio of velocity of the two light waves of wavelengths 4000Å and
8000Å travelling in vacuum.

3 An electron with charge -e and mass m travels at a speed v in a plane 1

perpendicular to a magnetic field of magnitude B. The electron follows a
circular path of radius R. In a time, t, the electron travels halfway around the
circle. What is the amount of work done by the magnetic field?

Page 1 of 10
4 A solenoid with N loops of wire tightly wrapped around an iron-core is 1
carrying an electric current I. If the current through this solenoid is reduced
to half, then what change would you expect in inductance L of the solenoid.
OR

An alternating current from a source is given by i=10sin314t. What is the

effective value of current and frequency of source?

5 What is the value of angular momentum of electron in the second orbit of

Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom? 1

6 In a photoelectric experiment, the potential required to stop the ejection of 1

electrons from cathode is 4V. What is the value of maximum kinetic energy
of emitted Photoelectrons?

7 In decay of free neutron, name the elementary particle emitted along with 1
proton and electron in nuclear reaction.

In the following nuclear reaction, Identify unknown labelled X.

8 How does the width of a depletion region of a pn junction vary if doping

concentration is increased? 1

In half wave rectification, what is the output frequency if input frequency is

25 Hz.

9 When a voltage drop across a pn junction diode is increased from 0.70 V to 1

0.71V, the change in the diode current is 10 mA .What is the dynamic
resistance of diode?

10 Which specially fabricated pn junction diode is used for detecting light 1

intensity?

For question numbers 11, 12, 13 and 14, two statements are given-one
labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

Page 2 of 10
11 Assertion(A) : 1
In a nonuniform electric field, a dipole will have translatory as well as
rotatory motion.
Reason(R):
In a nonuniform electric field, a dipole experiences a force as well as
torque.

12 Assertion(A): 1
Electric field is always normal to equipotential surfaces and along the
direction of decreasing order of potential
Reason(R):
Negative gradient of electric potential is electric field.

13 Assertion (A): 1
A convex mirror cannot form real images.
Reason (R):
Convex mirror converges the parallel rays that are incident on it.

14 Assertion(A): 1
A convex lens of focal length 30 cm can’t be used as a simple microscope
in normal setting.
Reason (R):
For normal setting, the angular magnification of simple microscope is
M=D/f

Section – B
Questions 15 and 16 are Case Study based questions and are
compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub parts from each question. Each
question carries 1 mark.

15 Faraday Cage: 4

A Faraday cage or Faraday shield is an enclosure made of a conducting

material. The fields within a conductor cancel out with any external fields,
so the electric field within the enclosure is zero. These Faraday cages act
as big hollow conductors you can put things in to shield them from electrical
fields. Any electrical shocks the cage receives, pass harmlessly around the
outside of the cage.

Page 3 of 10
1. Which of the following material can be used to make a Faraday
cage?
(i)
a) Plastic
b) Glass
c) Copper
d) Wood

2. Example of a real-world Faraday cage is

a) car
b) plastic box
c) lightning rod
d) metal rod
a)
3. What is the electrical force inside a Faraday cage when it is struck
by lightning?
a) The same as the lightning
b) Half that of the lightning
c) Zero
d) A quarter of the lightning

4. An isolated point charge +q is placed inside the Faraday cage. Its

surface must have charge equal to-
a) Zero
b) +q
c) –q
d) +2q

5. A point charge of 2C is placed at centre of Faraday cage in the shape

of cube with surface of 9 cm edge. The number of electric field lines
passing through the cube normally will be-

a) 1.9105 Nm2/C entering the surface

b) 1.9105 Nm2/C leaving the surface
c) 2.0105 Nm2/C leaving the surface
d) 2.0105 Nm2/C entering the surface

16 Sparking Brilliance of Diamond: 4

Page 4 of 10
The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds to
create a sparking brilliance. By polishing the diamond with specific cuts, it
is adjusted the most of the light rays approaching the surface are incident
with an angle of incidence more than critical angle. Hence, they suffer
multiple reflections and ultimately come out of diamond from the top. This
gives the diamond a sparking brilliance.

1. Light cannot easily escape a diamond without multiple internal

reflections. This is because:
a) Its critical angle with reference to air is too large
b) Its critical angle with reference to air is too small
c) The diamond is transparent
d) Rays always enter at angle greater than critical angle

2. The critical angle for a diamond is 24.4o. Then its refractive index is-
a) 2.42
b) 0.413
c) 1
d) 1.413

3. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut

diamond is that
a) It has low refractive index
b) It has high transparency
c) It has high refractive index
d) It is very hard

4. A diamond is immersed in a liquid with a refractive index greater

than water. Then the critical angle for total internal reflection will
a) will depend on the nature of the liquid
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) increase

5. The following diagram shows same diamond cut in two different

shapes.

Page 5 of 10
The brilliance of diamond in the second diamond will be:

a) less than the first

b) greater than first
c) same as first
d) will depend on the intensity of light

Section – C
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt
anyone.

17 Two straight infinitely long wires are fixed in space so that the current in the 2
left wire is 2 A and directed out of the plane of the page and the current in
the right wire is 3 A and directed into the plane of the page. In which
region(s) is/are there a point on the x-axis, at which the magnetic field is
equal to zero due to these currents carrying wires? Justify your answer.

18 Draw the graph showing intensity distribution of fringes with phase angle 2
due to diffraction through single slit.

What should be the width of each slit to obtain n maxima of double slit
pattern within the central maxima of single slit pattern?

19 Deduce an expression for the potential energy of a system of two point 2

charges q1 and q2 located at positions r1 and r2 respectively in an external
⃗)
field (E

Establish the relation between electric field and electric potential at a

point.
Draw the equipotential surface for an electric field pointing in +Z direction
with its magnitude increasing at constant rate along –Z direction

20 Explain with help of circuit diagram, the action of a forward biased p-n 2
junction diode which emits spontaneous radiation. State the least band gap
energy of this diode to have emission in visible region.

Page 6 of 10
21 A coil of wire enclosing an area 100 cm2 is placed with its plane making an 2
angle 600 with the magnetic field of strength 10-1T. What is the flux through
the coil? If magnetic field is reduced to zero in 10-3 s, then find the induced
emf?

22 Two waves from two coherent sources S and S’ superimpose at X as shown 2

in the figure. If X is a point on the second minima and SX – S’X is 4.5 cm.
Calculate the wavelength of the waves.

23 Draw the energy band diagram when intrinsic semiconductor (Ge) is doped 2
with impurity atoms of Antimony (Sb). Name the extrinsic semiconductor so
obtained and majority charge carriers in it.

24 Define the terms magnetic inclination and horizontal component of earth’s 2

magnetic field at a place. Establish the relationship between the two with
help of a diagram.
OR

Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field at a place is √3 times the

vertical component. What is the value of inclination at that place?

25 Write two characteristics of image formed when an object is placed between 2

the optical centre and focus of a thin convex lens. Draw the graph showing
variation of image distance v with object distance u in this case.

Section -D
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt
any one.

26 A rectangular loop which was initially inside the region of uniform and time 3
- independent magnetic field, is pulled out with constant velocity 𝑣 as shown
in the figure.

Page 7 of 10
a) Sketch the variation of magnetic flux, the induced current, and
power dissipated as Joule heat as function of time.

b) If instead of rectangular loop, circular loop is pulled out; do you

expect the same value of induced current? Justify your answer.
Sketch the variation of flux in this case with time.

27 A variable resistor R is connected across a cell of emf E and internal 3

resistance r.

a) Draw the circuit diagram.

b) Plot the graph showing variation of potential drop across R as
function of R.
c) At what value of R current in circuit will be maximum.

A storage battery is of emf 8V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm is being

charged by d.c supply of 120 V using a resistor of 15.5 ohm

a) Draw the circuit diagram.

b) Calculate the potential difference across the battery.
c) What is the purpose of having series resistance in this circuit?

28 a) Explain de-Broglie argument to propose his hypothesis. Show that de- 3

Broglie wavelength of photon equals electromagnetic radiation.

b) If, deuterons and alpha particle are accelerated through same potential,
find the ratio of the associated de-Broglie wavelengths of two.

State the main implications of observations obtained from various

photoelectric experiments. Can these implications be explained by wave
nature of light? Justify your answer.

Page 8 of 10
29 Derive an expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when a 3
hydrogen atom de-excites from level n to level (n – 1). Also show that for
large values of n, this frequency equals to classical frequency of revolution
of an electron.

30 a) Give one point of difference between nuclear fission and nuclear 3

fusion.

b) Suppose we consider fission of a 5626Fe into two equal fragments of

28
13Al nucleus. Is the fission energetically possible? Justify your answer
by working out Q value of the process.
Given (m)5626Fe = 55.93494 u and (m)2813Al = 27.98191

Section – E
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt
any one.

31 a) State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. Show that with help of suitable figure 5
that outward flux due to a point charge Q, in vacuum within gaussian
surface, is independent of its size and shape.

b) In the figure there are three infinite long thin sheets having surface
charge density +2σ, -2σ and +σ respectively. Give the magnitude and
direction of electric field at a point to the left of sheet of charge density
+2σ and to the right of sheet of charge density +σ.

Page 9 of 10
OR

a) Define an ideal electric dipole. Give an example.

b) Derive an expression for the torque experienced by an electric
dipole in a uniform electric field. What is net force acting on this
dipole.
c) An electric dipole of length 2cm is placed with its axis making an
angle of 600 with respect to uniform electric field of 105N/C.
If it experiences a torque of 8√3 Nm, calculate the (i) magnitude of
charge on the dipole, and its potential energy.

32 a) Derive the expression for the current flowing in an ideal capacitor 5

and its reactance when connected to an ac source of voltage
V=V0sinωt.
b) Draw its phasor diagram.
c) If resistance is added in series to capacitor what changes will
occur in the current flowing in the circuit and phase angle between
voltage and current.
OR

a) State the principle of ac generator.

b) Explain with the help of a well labelled diagram, its working and
obtain the expression for the emf generated in the coil.
c) Is it possible to generate emf without rotating the coil? Explain

33 a) Define a wave front. 5

b) Draw the diagram to show the shape of plane wave front as they
pass through (i) a thin prism and (ii) a thin convex lens. State the
nature of refracted wave front.
c) Verify Snell’s law of refraction using Huygens’s principle.

a) State two main considerations taken into account while

choosing the objective of astronomical telescope.
b) Draw a ray diagram of reflecting type telescope. State its
magnifying power.
c) State the advantages of reflecting type telescope over the
refracting type?

Page 10 of 10
sample question paper preparation
QUESTION NAME OF THE
NAME OF THE KV REVIEW TEAM
PAPER TEACHER

Sample Question Ms. Bindu R KV ERNAKULAM

Paper 1 Ms. Mini Panicker KV Ernakulam Ms. P C Radha,
Mr. Rajender K V Idukki KV Malappuram
Sample Question
Paper 2 Mr. Varun P K K V Ezhimala

Sample Question Mr. Binoj Bose KV Pattom Shift I

Paper 3 Mrs. Liziamma Soy KV RB Kottayam Ms. Susmitha Mary
Robbins,
Sample Question Ms. Sandhya K KV Adoor Shift I KV Kalpetta
Paper 4 Mr. Saji R KV Adoor Shift I

Sample Question Ms. Padmaja M G Pattom Shift II Ms. Beena Mathews,

Paper 5 Ms. Bindu T L Pattom Shift II KV RB Kottayam

document editing
Mr. Prasanth Kumar M KV Payyanur
Mr. Sreekanth S KV No 2 Calicut
Mr. Syam T S KV KPA Ramavarmapuram

1
index
S.No Content Page No

1 Syllabus 6
2 Chapter-1; Electric Charge and Field 13
3 Chapter-2; Electric Potential and Capacitance 37
4 Chapter-3; Current Electricity 54
5 Chapter-4; Moving Charges and Magnetism 71
6 Chapter-5; Magnetism and Matter 85
7 Chapter-6; Electromagnetic Induction 100
8 Chapter-7; Alternating Current 126
9 Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 146
10 Chapter–9: Ray Optics and OpticalInstruments 158
11 Chapter–10: Wave Optics 203
12 Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation andMatter 231
13 Chapter–12: Atoms 250
14 Chapter–13: Nuclei 275
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics:
15 290
Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
16 CBSE sample Question paper with answer key 306
17 Sample Question paper 1 329
18 Sample Question paper 2 345
19 Sample Question paper 3 359
20 Sample Question paper 4 374
21 Sample Question paper 5 389

❖ Every Chapter Contains:

✓ Gist of Lesson
✓ Important formulas used
✓ Mind map
✓ MCQ Questions
✓ Reason Assertion Questions
✓ Case Study Based Questions
✓ 1 Marks, 2 Marks, 3 Marks & 5 Marks Questions with Answer

2
CLASS XII (2022-23)
PHYSICS (THEORY)

Time: 3 hrs. Max Marks: 70

No. of Marks
Periods
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields
26
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and 16
Capacitance
Unit-II Current Electricity
Chapter–3: Current Electricity 18
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism 25
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 17
Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating
Currents 24
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction
Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Unit–V Electromagnetic Waves
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves 04
Unit–VI Optics 18
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical 30
Instruments
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Unit–VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and 8
Matter 12
Unit– Atoms and Nuclei
VIII 15
Chapter–12: Atoms
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Unit–IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: 10
Materials, Devices and Simple 7
Circuits
Total 160 70

6
detailed syllabus
Unit I: Electrostatics 26 Periods

Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields

Electric charges, Conservation of charge, Coulomb's law-force between two- point

charges, forces between multiple charges; superposition principle and continuous charge
distribution.

Electric field, electric field due to a point charge, electric field lines, electric dipole,
electric field due to a dipole, torque on a dipole in uniform electric field.

Electric flux, statement of Gauss's theorem and its applications to find field due to
infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly
charged thin spherical shell (field inside and outside).

Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Electric potential, potential difference, electric potential due to a point charge,a dipole and
system of charges; equipotential surfaces, electrical potential energy of a system of two-
point charges and of electric dipole in an electrostatic field.

Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor.
Dielectrics and electric polarization, capacitors and capacitance, combination of
capacitors in series and in parallel, capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with and
without dielectric medium between the plates, energystored in a capacitor (no derivation,
formulae only).

Unit II: Current Electricity 18 Periods

Chapter–3: Current Electricity

Electric current, flow of electric charges in a metallic conductor, drift velocity,mobility
and their relation with electric current; Ohm's law, V-I characteristics(linear and non-
linear), electrical energy and power, electrical resistivity andconductivity, temperature
dependence of resistance, Internal resistance of acell, potential difference and emf of a
cell, combination of cells in series andin parallel, Kirchhoff's rules, Wheatstone bridge.

Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism 25 Periods

Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment.

Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop.

7
Ampere's law and its applications to infinitely long straight wire. Straight solenoid (only
qualitative treatment), force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic and electric fields.

Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field, force between two

parallel current-carrying conductors-definition of ampere, torqueexperienced by a current
loop in uniform magnetic field; Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole
moment, moving coil galvanometer-its current sensitivity and conversion to ammeter
and voltmeter.

Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter

Bar magnet, bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid (qualitative treatment only), magnetic
field intensity due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along itsaxis and perpendicular to
its axis (qualitative treatment only), torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a
uniform magnetic field (qualitative treatment only), magnetic field lines.

Magnetic properties of materials- Para-, dia- and ferro - magneticsubstances with examples,
Magnetization of materials, effect of temperature on magnetic properties.

Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents 24 Periods

Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction

Electromagnetic induction; Faraday's laws, induced EMF and current; Lenz'sLaw, Self
and mutual induction.

Chapter–7: Alternating Current

Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating current/voltage; reactance and
impedance; LCR series circuit (phasors only), resonance, power in AC circuits, power
factor, wattless current.
AC generator, Transformer.

Unit V: Electromagnetic waves 04 Periods

Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves

Basic idea of displacement current, Electromagnetic waves, their characteristics, their

transverse nature (qualitative idea only).

Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-

rays, gamma rays) including elementary facts about their uses.

8
Unit VI: Optics 30 Periods

Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Ray Optics: Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula, refraction of light,
total internal reflection and optical fibers, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin
lens formula, lens maker’s formula, magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin
lenses in contact, refraction of light through a prism.

Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting andrefracting)

and their magnifying powers.

Chapter–10: Wave Optics

Wave optics: Wave front and Huygen’s principle, reflection and refraction ofplane wave
at a plane surface using wave fronts. Proof of laws of reflection and refraction using
Huygen’s principle. Interference, Young's double slit experiment and expression for
fringe width (No derivation final expression only), coherent sources and sustained
interference of light, diffraction due toa single slit, width of central maxima (qualitative
treatment only).

Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 08 Periods

Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's observations; Einstein's

photoelectric equation-particle nature of light.

Experimental study of photoelectric effect

Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation.

Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei 15 Periods
Chapter–12: Atoms

Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's model of atom; Bohr model of

hydrogen atom, Expression for radius of nth possible orbit, velocity and energy of electron
in his orbit, of hydrogen line spectra (qualitative treatmentonly).

Chapter–13: Nuclei

Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force

Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and itsvariation
with mass number; nuclear fission, nuclear fusion.

9
Unit IX: Electronic Devices 10 Periods

Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and SimpleCircuits

Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative ideas only)

Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n type, p-n junction

Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias,

application of junction diode -diode as a rectifier.

PRACTICALS
Total Periods 60

The record to be submitted by the students at the time of their annual examination has toinclude:

Record of at least 8 Experiments [with 4 from each section], to be performed bythe students.

Record of at least 6 Activities [with 3 each from section A and section B], to beperformed
by the students.

The Report of the project carried out by the students.

Evaluation Scheme
Max. Marks: 30 Time 3 hours

Two experiments one from each section 7+7 Marks

Practical record [experiments and activities] 5 Marks
One activity from any section 3 Marks
Investigatory Project 3 Marks
Viva on experiments, activities and project 5 Marks
Total 30 marks

Experiments SECTION–A

1. To determine resistivity of two / three wires by plotting a graph for potential

difference versus current.
2. To find resistance of a given wire / standard resistor using metre bridge.
3. To verify the laws of combination (series) of resistances using a metre bridge.

To verify the laws of combination (parallel) of resistances using a metre bridge.

4. To determine resistance of a galvanometer by half-deflection method and to find itsfigure of
merit.

10
5. To convert the given galvanometer (of known resistance and figure of merit) into avoltmeter
of desired range and to verify the same.
OR

To convert the given galvanometer (of known resistance and figure of merit) into anammeter of
desired range and to verify the same.
6. To find the frequency of AC mains with a sonometer.

Activities

1. To measure the resistance and impedance of an inductor with or without iron core.

2. To measure resistance, voltage (AC/DC), current (AC) and check continuityof a given
circuit using multimeter.

3. To assemble a household circuit comprising three bulbs, three (on/off) switches, afuse and a

power source.

4. To assemble the components of a given electrical circuit.

5. To study the variation in potential drop with length of a wire for a steady current.

6. To draw the diagram of a given open circuit comprising at least a battery, resistor/rheostat, key,
ammeter and voltmeter. Mark the components that are not connected in proper order and correct
the circuit and also the circuit diagram.

SECTION-B
Experiments
1. To find the value of v for different values of u in case of a concave mirror and to findthe focal
length.
2. To find the focal length of a convex mirror, using a convex lens.
3. To find the focal length of a convex lens by plotting graphs between u and v orbetween
1/u and 1/v.
4. To find the focal length of a concave lens, using a convex lens.
5. To determine angle of minimum deviation for a given prism by plotting a graph between angle of
incidence and angle of deviation.

6. To determine refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling microscope.

7. To find the refractive index of a liquid using convex lens and plane mirror.

8. To find the refractive index of a liquid using a concave mirror and a plane mirror.

9. To draw the I-V characteristic curve for a p-n junction diode in forward and reversebias.

11
Activities

1. To identify a diode, an LED, a resistor and a capacitor from a mixed collection of such items.
2. Use of multimeter to see the unidirectional flow of current in case of a diode and an LED and
check whether a given electronic component (e.g., diode) is in working order.
3. To study effect of intensity of light (by varying distance of the source) on an LDR.
4. To observe refraction and lateral deviation of a beam of light incident obliquely on aglass slab.

5. To observe diffraction of light due to a thin slit.

6. To study the nature and size of the image formed by a (i) convex lens, or (ii) concavemirror, on a
screen by using a candle and a screen (for different distances of the candle from the lens/mirror).
7. To obtain a lens combination with the specified focal length by using two lenses from the given
set of lenses.

Suggested Investigatory Projects

1. To study various factors on which the internal resistance/EMF of a cell depends.
2. To study the variations in current flowing in a circuit containing an LDR because ofa variation
in

(a) the power of the incandescent lamp, used to 'illuminate' the LDR (keeping allthe lamps at
a fixed distance).

(b) the distance of a incandescent lamp (of fixed power) used to 'illuminate' theLDR.
3. To find the refractive indices of (a) water (b) oil (transparent) using a plane mirror, anequiconvex
lens (made from a glass of known refractive index) and an adjustable object needle.
4. To investigate the relation between the ratio of (i) output and input voltage and (ii) number of
turns in the secondary coil and primary coil of a self-designed transformer.
5. To investigate the dependence of the angle of deviation on the angle of incidence using a hollow
prism filled one by one, with different transparent fluids.
6. To estimate the charge induced on each one of the two identical Styrofoam (or pith) balls
suspended in a vertical plane by making use of Coulomb's law.
7. To study the factor on which the self-inductance of a coil depends by observing the effect of this
coil, when put in series with a resistor/(bulb) in a circuit fed up by an A.C.source of adjustable
frequency.
8. To study the earth's magnetic field using a compass needle -bar magnet by plottingmagnetic
field lines and tangent galvanometer

12
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14
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1) Two identical metallic spheres of exactly equal masses are taken. One is given a positive charge q
coulombs and other an equal negative charge. Are their masses after charging equal?
2) Ordinary rubber is an insulator. But the special rubber tyres of aircrafts are made slightly
conducting. Why is this necessary?
3) Two charges q1 and q2 separated by a small distance satisfy the equation q1+q2 = 0. What does it tell
about the charges?
4) Name the experiment which established the quantum nature of electric charges?
5) Can a body have a charge of 0.8x10-19 C? Justify your answer by comment.
6) Two equal balls having equal positive charge ‘q’ coulombs are suspended by two insulating strings
of equal length. What would be the effect on the force when a plastic sheet is inserted between the
two?
7) Force between two-point charges kept at a distant d apart in air F. If these charges are kept at the
same distance in water how does the electric force between them change?
8) Why is electric field zero inside a charged conductor?
9) Why do the electrostatic field lines not form closed loops?
10) Draw lines of force to represent a uniform electric field?
2 MARK QUESTIONS
1) A force F is acting between two charges placed some distance apart in vacuum. If a brass rod is
placed between these two charges how does the force change?
2) Two dipoles made charges + q and + Q respectively have equal dipole moments. Give the (i) ratio
between the separation of these two pairs of charges (ii) angle between the dipole axes of these two
dipoles.
3) A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R1 and outer radius R2. A charge Q is placed at the
center of the spherical cavity. What will be the surface charge density on (i) the inner surface and
(ii) the outer surface?
4) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q on its surface. A point charge Q/2 is
placed at its center C and another charge +2Q is placed outside the shell at a distance x from the
center as shown.

(ii) 2Q

Find ( i) the force on the charge at the center of the shell and at the point A .
(ii) the electric flux through the shell.

15
5) Explain the meaning of the statement ‘electric charge of a body is ‘quantized’.
6) Why can one ignore quantization of electric charge when dealing with macroscopic i.e., large scale
charges?
7) When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charges appear on both. A similar phenomenon is
observed with many other pairs of bodies. Explain how this observation is consistent with the law
of conservation of charge.
8) Four-point charges qA = 2 μC, qB = –5 μC, qC = 2 μC, and qD = –5 μC are located at the corners of
a square ABCD of side 10 cm. What is the force on a charge of 1 μC placed at the center of the
square?
9) A system has two charges qA = 2.5 × 10–7 C and qB = –2.5 × 10–7 C located at points A: (0, 0, –15
cm) and B: (0, 0, +15 cm), respectively. What are the total charge and electric dipole moment of
the system?
10) (a) An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve. That is, a field line cannot have sudden breaks.
Why not?
(b) Explain why two field lines never cross each other at any point?
3 MARK QUESTIONS

1) Define the term dipole moment of an electric dipole indicating its direction. Write its S.I unit.

An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field . Deduce the expression for the Torque
acting on it.
2) Electric charge is uniformly distributed on the surface of a spherical balloon. Show how electric
intensity and electric potential vary (a) on the surface (b) inside and (c) outside.

3) Two point charges +q and +9q are separated by a distance of 10 a. Find the point on the line
joining the two changes where electric field is zero?

4) Consider a uniform electric field . (a) What is the flux of this field through a
square of 10 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the yz plane? (b) What is the flux through the
same square if the normal to its plane makes a angle with the x-axis?
5) A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has an unknown charge. If the electric field 20 cm from the

centre of the sphere is and points radially inward, what is the net charge on the
sphere?

16
6) A system has two charges C and C located at points

A: and respectively. What are the total charge and electric

dipole moment of the system?
7) A small metal sphere carrying charge +Q is located at the centre of a spherical cavity in a large
uncharged metallic spherical shell. Write the charges on the inner and outer surfaces of the shell.
Write the expression for the electric field at the point P1 .

8) A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Using
Gauss’s law, derive an expression for an electric field at a point outside the shell.
Draw a graph of electric field E(r) with distance r from the centre of the shell for 0 ≤ r ≤ ∞
9) Two point charges + q and -2q are placed at the vertices ‘B’ and ‘C’ of an equilateral triangle ABC
of side as given in the figure. Obtain the expression for (i) the magnitude and (ii) the direction of
the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to these two charges.

10) Two point charges + 3q and – 4q are placed at the vertices ‘B’ and ‘C’ of an equilateral triangle
ABC of side ‘a’ as given in the figure. Obtain the expression for

(i) the magnitude and

(ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to these two charges.
11) Two spherical conductors of radii Ra and R2 (R2 > R1) are charged. If they are connected by a
conducting wire, find out the ratio of the surface charge densities on them.

17
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. (a) State Gauss theorem in electrostatics. Using it, prove that the electric field at a point due to a
uniformly charged infinite plane sheet is independent of the distance.
(b) How is the field directed if (i) the sheet is positively charged, (ii) negatively charged?
2. Use Gauss’s law to derive the expression for the electric field (E⃗) due to a straight uniformly
charged infinite line of charge λ Cm-1.
3. Define electric flux and write its SI unit. The electric field components in the figure shown are :
Ex = αx, Ey = 0, Ez = 0 where α = 100N/cm. Calculate the charge within the cube, assuming
a = 0.1m.

MCQ
1. Three-point charges Q1, Q2and Q3 are placed equally spaced in order along a straight line. Q2 and Q3
are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign . If the net force on Q3 is zero, the value of Q1 is
(a) Q1 = 4Q3 (b) Q1 = 2(Q3) (c) Q1= √2 Q3 (d) Q1 = | Q3|
2. Two-point charges are placed at a distance d apart. If a copper plate is placed between the charges the
effective force will be
(a) F (b) 2F (c) √F (d) zero
3. The charges on two spheres are +7µC and -5 µC respectively. They experience a force F. If an
additional charge of-2 µC is given to each of them the force between them is
(a) F (b) F/2 (c) F/√3 (d)2F
4. What is the flux through a cube if q is at one corner of the cube?
(a) q/Є0 (b)2q/ Є0 (c) q/8 Є0 (d) q/4 Є0
5. Two positive ions each carrying a charge q are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion
between the ions , the number of electrons missing from each ion will be
4𝜋Є0𝐹𝑑2 4𝜋Є0𝐹𝑒2 2 4𝜋Є0𝐹𝑒2
(a) 𝑒2 (b) √ 𝑑2
(c) √4𝜋Є0𝑒𝐹𝑑
2 (d) 𝑑2

6. A plane square sheet of charge of side 0.5m has uniform surface charge density. An electron at 1cm
from the center of the sheet experiences a force of 1.6x10-19 N directed away from the sheet. The total
charge on the plane square sheet is
16.25 µC (b) -22.15 µC (C) -44.27 µC (d) 144.27 µC
(a)
7. Seven charges of equal magnitude q are placed at the corners of a cube of side b. The force
experienced by another charge Q placed at the center of the cube is
(a) Zero (b ) KQq/ 3b ( c) 7KQq/3b (d) 2KQq/3b

18
8. Electric charge is uniformly distributed along a long straight wire of radius 1mm. The charge per cm of
the wire is Q coulomb. Another cylindrical surface of length L meter encloses the wire symmetrically,
The total flux through the surface is
(a) Q/𝞮0 (b) LQ/ 𝞮0 (c) QL/ 10-3𝞮0 (d) Q/L 10-3𝞮0
9. The total electric flux emanating from an alpha particle is
(a) 2e/𝞮0 ( b)e/ 𝞮0 ( c ) 4e/ 𝞮0 (d) e2/ 𝞮0
10. A positive charge Q is placed at the center of a neutral conducting metal sphere and an electric field E
is applied outside the sphere. Then
(a) force on Q is due to E is zero (b) Net force on Q is zero (c) Net force on Q
and conducting shell as a single system is zero (d) Net force on the shell due to E is zero
Assertions & Reasons

1. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).

Assertion(A) Insulators do not allow flow current through themselves.
Reason(R) They have no free charge carriers.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(i) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

2. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).

Assertion(A) During charging by rubbing, the insulating material with lower work function becomes
positively charged.
Reason(R) Electrons are negatively charged.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(i) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

3. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).

Assertion(A) A metallic shield in the form of a hollow shell, can be built to block an electric field.
Reason(R) In a hollow spherical shell, electric field inside is not zero at every point.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(i) Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true and, R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

19
4. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).
Assertion (A). A charge is quantized because only integral number of electrons can be transferred.
Reason (R) There is no possibility of transfer of some fraction of electron.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(i) Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true and, R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false and R is also false

5. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R).

Assertion (A): The Coulomb force is dominating force in the universe.
Reason(R): The Coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(i) Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A.
(ii) Both A and R are true and, R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false
(iv) A is false and R is also false

6. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R) Assertion (A): Gauss
theorem can used to find the electric field at any point.
Reason (R): Gauss theorem can be applied to any type of charge distribution.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

7. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R) Assertion (A): If a dipole
is enclosed by a surface, then according to the gauss theorem, electric flux linked with it is zero
Reason (R): The charge enclosed by the surface is zero.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

8. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R) Assertion (A): positive
electric flux indicates that electric lines of force are directed outwards
Reason (R): Positive electric flux is due to a positive charge
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

20
9. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R) Assertion (A): Coulombs
law is useful for calculation of electric field intensity due to point charges
Reason (R): Gauss law is used for calculating electric field intensity due to symmetric charge
distributions
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

10. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion(A) and Reason(R) Assertion (A): A graph
showing the variation of electric field at a point with distance due to an infinite plane sheet of
charge is a straight line parallel to the distance axis
Reason (R): The electric field at a point due to an infinite plane sheet of charge is independent of
the distance to the point.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false

ASSERTION REASON
1. Ans. Option (i)
2. Ans. Option (ii)
3. Ans. Option(iii)
4. Ans. Option (i)
5. Ans. Option (iv)
6. Ans. Option(iii)
7. Ans. Option(i)
8. Ans. Option(ii)
9. Ans. Option(ii)
10. Ans. Option(i)

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

1. Lightning is an electric current. Within a thundercloud way up in the sky, many small bits of ice (frozen
raindrops) bump into each other as they move around in the air. All of those collisions create an electric charge.
After a while, the whole cloud fills up with electrical charges. The positive charges or protons form at the top of
the cloud and the negative charges or electrons form at the bottom of the cloud. Since opposites attract, that causes
a positive charge to build up on the ground beneath the cloud. The grounds electrical charge concentrates around
anything that sticks up, such as mountains, people, or single trees. The charge coming up from these points
eventually connects with a charge reaching down from the clouds and lightning strikes.

21
(i) Charge is the property associated with matter due to which it produces and experiences
(a) electric effects only
(b) magnetic effects only
(c) both electric and magnetic effects
(d) None of these
(ii) When some charge is transferred to ...A... it readily gets distributed over the entire surface of ... A... If
some charge is put on ... B..., it stays at the same place. Here, A and B refer to
(a) insulator, conductor
(b) conductor, insulator
(c) insulator, insulator
(d) conductor, conductor
(iii) On charging by conduction, mass of a body may
(a) increase
(b) decreases
(c) increase or decrease
(d) None of these
(iv) If one penetrates a uniformly charged spherical cloud, electric field strength
(a) decreases directly as the distance from the centre
(b) increases directly as the distance from the centre
(c) remains constant
(d) None of these
(v) The law, governing the force between electric charges in the cloud is known as
(a) Ampere's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law
(d) Coulomb's law

2. Neurons maintain different concentrations of certain ions across their cell membranes. Imagine the

case of a boat with a small leak below the water line. In order to keep the boat afloat, the small
amount of water entering through the leak has to be pumped out, which maintains a lower water level
relative to the open sea. Neurons do the same thing, but they pump out positively charged sodium
ions. In addition, they pump in positively charged potassium ions. Thus there is a high concentration
of sodium ions present outside the neuron, and a high concentration of potassium ions inside. Thus
sodium channels allow sodium ions through the membrane while potassium channels allow potassium
ions through.

22
(i) When neuron pump out and in the positive sodium and positive potassium ions respectively which
property of charge is to be followed
(a) Quantisation of charge
(b) Additivity of charges
(c) Conservation of charges
(d) Associativity of charge
(ii) Coulomb’s law is true for
(a) atomic distances (= 10–11 m)
(b) nuclear distances (= 10–15 m)
(c) charged as well as uncharged particles
(d) all the distances
(iii) Electric lines of force about a positive sodium or potassium ions are
(a) circular anticlockwise
(b) circular clockwise
(c) radial, inwards
(d) radial, outwards
(iv) Electric flux produced by positive Potassium ions indicates that electric lines are directed
(a) outwards
(b) inwards
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these
(v) Electric flux over a surface of neuron in an electric field may be
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) All of the above

23
3. Animals emit low frequency electric fields due to a process known as osmoregulation. This
process allows the concentration of ions (charged atoms or molecules) to flow between the inside
of our bodies and the outside. In order for our cells to stay intact, the flow of ions needs to be
balanced. But balanced doesn't necessarily mean equal. The concentration of ions within a shrimp’ s
body is much lower than that of the sea water it swims in. Their voltage, or potential difference
generated between the two concentrations across "leaky" surfaces, can then be measured.

(i) The Gaussian surface for ions in the body of animals

(a) can pass through a continuous charge distribution.
(b) cannot pass through a continuous charge distribution.
(c) can pass through any system of discrete charges.
(d) can pass through a continuous charge distribution as well as any system of discrete charges.

(ii) Gauss's law is valid for

(a) any closed surface
(b) only regular close surfaces
(c) any open surface
(d) only irregular open surfaces
(iii) The electric field inside a shrimp’s body of uniform charge density is
(a) zero
(b) constant different from zero
(c) proportional to the distance from the curve
(d) None of the above
(iv) If a small piece of linear isotropic dielectric is swallowed by a shrimp and inside the body it is
influenced by an electric field of strength E, then the polarization P is
(a) independent of E
(b) inversely proportional to E
(c) directly proportional to √𝐸
(d) directly proportional to E
(v) Field due to multiple charges/ions inside Shrimp’s body at a point is found by using
I. superposition principle.

24
II. Coulomb’s law.
III. law of conservation of charges.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III

4. Electric Charge: When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the rod acquires one kind of charge and the
silk acquires the second kind of charge. This is true for any pair of objects that are rubbed to be
electrified. Now if the electrified glass rod is brought in contact with silk, with which it was rubbed,
they no longer attract each other. They also do not attract or repel other light objects as they did on
being electrified. Thus, the charges acquired after rubbing are lost when the charged bodies are
brought in contact. What can you conclude from these observations? It just tells us that unlike charges
acquired by the objects neutralise or nullify each other’s effect. Therefore, the charges were named
as positive and negative by the American scientist Benjamin Franklin. We know that when we add a
positive number to a negative number of the same magnitude, the sum is zero. This might have been
the philosophy in naming the charges as positive and negative. By convention, the charge on glass
rod or cat’s fur is called positive and that on plastic rod or silk is termed negative. If an object
possesses an electric charge, it is said to be electrified or charged. When it has no charge it is said to
be electrically neutral

(i) When you charge a balloon by rubbing it on your hair this is an example of what method of charging?
(a)Friction (b)Conduction (c)Grounding (d)Induction
(ii) Neutral atoms contain equal numbers of positive and negative .
(a)Electrons and Protons (b)Protons and Electrons (c)Neutrons and Electrons (d)Protons and
Neutrons

25
(iii) During charging by rubbing which of the following is not true?
(a) Mass is conserved (b)charge is conserved (c)mass of each object is conserved (d)Net charge before
and after rubbing is zero
(iv) If a negatively charged rod touches a conductor, the conductor will be charged by what method?
(a) Friction (b) Conduction (c) Induction (d) Convection
(v) If we bring charged plastic rod near-neutral aluminium rod, then rods will
(a)Repel each other (b)Attract each other (c)Remain their position (d)Exchange charges

5. Electric Dipole: The electric field due to a charge configuration with total charge zero is not zero, but for
distances large compared to the size of the configuration, its field falls off faster than 1/r 2 , typical of the
field due to a single charge. An electric dipole is the simplest example of this fact. An electric dipole is a
pair of equal and opposite charges +q and -q separated by some distance 2a. Its dipole moment vector p has
magnitude 2qa and is in the direction of the dipole axis from -q to +q. The electric field of the pair of charges
can be found out from Coulomb’s law and the superposition principle. The magnitude and the direction of
the dipole field depend not only on the distance r but also on the angle between the position vector r and the
dipole moment p. In some molecules, like H2O, the centers of -ve charges and of +ve charges do not coincide.
So they have permanent dipole moment. Such molecules are called polar molecules.

(i) What will be the value of electric field at the centre of the electric dipole?

(a) Zero (b) Equal to the electric field due to one charge at Centre
(c) Twice the electric field due to one charge at Centre
(d) Half the value of electric field due to one charge at Centre
(ii) If r is the distance of a point from the Centre of a short dipole, then the electric field intensity due to the
short dipole remains proportional to
(a)r2 (b) r3
(c) r-2 (d) r-3
(iii) An electric dipole coincides on Z-axis and its midpoint is on origin of the coordinate system. The
electric field at an axial point at a distance z from origin is Ez and electric field at an equatorial point at a
distance y from origin is Ey. Here z=y>>a, so |Ez|/|Ey| is equal to…
(a)1 (b)4 (c) 3 (d) 2

26
(iv) An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E. The maximum torque
experienced by the dipole is…
(a) pE (b) p/E (c) E/p (d) p . E
(v) An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field parallel to the field
(a) It experiences a force and moves parallel to the field
(b) It experiences a torque and moves in a circular path
(c) It experiences no force and no torque and remains at rest
(d) It experiences force as well as torque and has translatory and rotational motion
Answers (Electric Charges and Fields very short answers)
1) No. the positive charge of the body is due to deficit of electron while the negative charge is due to
surplus of electrons. Hence the mass of negatively charged sphere will be slightly more than that of the
positively charged sphere
2) During landing the tyres of aircrafts may get highly charged due to friction between tyres and the
air strip. If the tyres are made slightly conducting they will lose the charge to the earth otherwise too much
of static electricity accumulated may produce spark and result in fire.
3) The equation signifies that the electric charges are algebraically addictive and here q1 and q2 are
equal and opposite.
4) Millikan’s oil drop experiment for determining electronic charge.
5) The charge on anybody is always an integral multiple of e here ,
N = q/e=0.8x10-19 C
1.6x10-19 C
This is not an integer .so a body cannot have a charge of 0.8x10-19 C
6) The force between the two balls decrease because K( plastic ) > 1 and
F =1/K
7) Dielectric constant for water K = 80
FWATER = FAIR / K = F/80
Thus the force in water is 1/80 times the original force in air .
8) This is because charges reside on the surface of a conductor and not inside it.
9) Electrostatic field lines start from positive charge and end on a negative charge or they fade out
at infinity in case of isolated charges without forming any closed loop.
10) The lines of force of a uniform electric field are equidistant parallel lines

27
Answers (short answer questions )
1) For any metal ,K=∞
F brass =fvac /K = F/∞= 0
i ,e in the presence of brass rod the force between the two charges becomes zero
2) As the two dipoles have equal dipoles moments so
(i) qa = Qa’ = a’/a = q/Q
(ii) their dipoles axes must have same direction.
3) Change -Q is induced on the inner surface and charge +Q is induced on the surface of the cavity .
Therefore surface charge density on the inner surface = -Q /4πR2
Surface charge density on the outer surface =Q /4πR2
4) Net force on the charge Q/2placed at the center of the shell is zero .
Force on the charge 2Q kept at point A at distance r from the center is
F=E x 2Q =1/4πε0 ( +Q/2+Q)2Q
R2

ii) electric flux through the shell ,

ΦE = Q/2 = Q/2E0

5) Electric charge of a body is quantized. This means that only integral (1, 2, ....., n) number of
electrons can be transferred from one body to the other. Charges are not transferred in fraction.
Hence, a body possesses total charge only in integral multiples of electric charge
6) In macroscopic or large-scale charges, the charges used are huge as compared to the magnitude of
electric charge. Hence, quantization of electric charge is of no use on macroscopic scale. Therefore,
it is ignored and it is considered that electric charge is continuous.
7) When two bodies are rubbed with each other transfer of charge takes place. One body receives
charge and other loses, becoming negatively and positively charged respectively. In the whole process
no new charge is created or destroyed. This implies that in an isolated system the total charge is always
conserved.
8) The charges of equal magnitude and same sign are at the corners of same diagonal. So they will
exhibit equal and opposite forces at the charge situated at center, cancelling out each other. So, the force
is zero Newton.
9) Total charge of electric dipole = zero coulomb
Magnitude of Dipole moment,
|p| = (Magnitude of either charge) × (Distance between 2 charges) = q.2a
Given, 2a = 30 cm, q = 2.5 × 10‒7 C
= (2.5 × 10‒7) × (30)
= 7.5 × 10‒8 C-m

28
10 ) (a) The direction of electric field is given by tangent at each point on the curve. At sudden
breaks, the field will have more than one direction which is not possible. That’s why electrostatic
field line is a continuous curve.
(b) At the crossing point there will be two directions of electric field at that point given by the two
tangents. This cannot happen, and so two field lines never cross each other at any point
Answers (3 mark questions )
1) Electric dipole moment is defined as the product of the magnitude of either charge and the length of
dipole. Its direction is from –ve to +ve charge.

Its S.I. unit is coulomb meter (Cm)

Consider a dipole placed in uniform electric field and makes an angle ( ) with the electric

field Since two forces acts on the charges constituting an electric dipole which are equal and
opposite in direction, thus a torque acts on the dipole which makes the dipole rotate.

And Torque
Here force (F) = qE

( ) = PE Sin

2) Electric field intensity on the surface of a shell

E= / o& V = Kq/R
Inside E = o& V = Kq/R

29
Outside E = & V = Kq/r

3) Let P be the pt where test charge (+qo) is present then electric field at pt. P will be zero if Field at pt. P
due to +q = field at p+. P due to + 9q————1

Substituting in eq. 1

a from change (+q)

Or
a from change (+9q)

4)(a) Electric field intensity,

Magnitude of electric field intensity,

Side of the square, s = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Area of the square,

The plane of the square is parallel to the y-z plane. Hence, angle between the unit vector normal to the plane
and electric field,
Flux ( through the plane is given by the relation,

30
=

(b) Plane makes an angle of 60° with the x-axis. Hence, θ = 60°

Flux, =

5) The both the charges can be located in a coordinate frame of reference as shown in the given figure.

At A, amount of charge,
At B, amount of charge,
Total charge of the system,

Distance between two charges at points A and B,

Electric dipole moment of the system is given by,

along positive z-axis

Therefore, the electric dipole moment of the system is m along positive z-axis.. Therefore,
the net charge on the sphere is 6.67 nC.
6)

1. Charge on inner surface : – Q

2. Charge on outer surface : + Q
3. Electric field at point P1 (E) = (1/4πε0)Q/r21

(ii) τ = p⃗ ×E→ = pE sin θ

For θ = π/2, sin θ = 1 and τ is maximum

31
7) Electric field at a point outside the shell :
(a) (i) To find out electric field at a point outside a spherical charged shell we imagine a
symmetrical Gaussian surface in such a way that the point lies on it.

Graph of electric field E(r) :

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33
10) When two charged spherical conductors of Radii R1 and R2 respectively (R2 > R1) are connected by a
conducting wire, we know that the common potential (V) is given by,

ANSWERS OF LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. It states, “The net electric flux through any Gaussian surface is equal to 1ε0 times the net electric charge
enclosed by the surface.
Mathematically, Φ = ∫ 𝐸⃗⃗ . ⃗𝑑⃗⃗⃗𝑆⃗⃗ =q/ε0
Consider an infinite plane sheet of charge. Let a be the uniform surface charge density, i.e. the charge per
unit surface area. From symmetry, we find that the electric field must be perpendicular to the plane of the
sheet and that the direction of E on one side of the plane must be opposite to its direction on the other side as
shown in the figure below. In such a case let us choose a Gaussian surface in the form of a cylinder with its
axis perpendicular to the sheet of charge, with ends of area A.
The charged sheet passes through the middle of the cylinder’s length so that the cylinder’s ends are equidistant
from the sheet. The electric field has a normal component at each end of the cylinder and no normal
component along the curved surface of the cylinder. As a result, the electric flux is linked with only the ends
and not the curved surface.

Therefore by the definition of electric flux, the flux Linked with the Gaussian surface is given by
Φ = ∮AE⃗⋅Δ𝐴⃗⃗
Φ = EA + EA = 2EA … (1)
But by Gauss’s Law
Φ = q/ε0=σA/ε0 [∵ q = σA] … (2)

34
From equations (1) and (2), we have
2EA = σA/ε0 … (3)
E = σ/2ε0 …. (4)
This gives the electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge which is independent of the distance
from the sheet.
(b) (i) directed outwards
(ii) directed inwards.
2.
Consider an infinitely Long, thin wire charged positively and having
uniform Linear charge density λ. The symmetry of the charge distribution
shows that must be perpendicular to the tine charge and directed
outwards. As a result of this symmetry, we consider a Gaussian surface in
the form of a cylinder with arbitrary radius r and arbitrary Length L. with
its ends perpendicular to the wire as shown in the figure. Applying
Gauss’s theorem to curved surface ΔA1 and circular surface ΔA2.
Φ EΔA1 cos 0°+ EΔA2 cos 90° = qε0 = λlε0 [∵ λ = q/l]
Or
E . 2πrl = λlε0 ⇒ E = 1/2πε0λr
This is the expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long thin
wire.
The graph is as shown.

3.Electric Flux is the dot product of the electric field and area vector.
Φ = ∮E⃗ ⋅ds→
SI Unit: Nm2/C or Vm
For a given case
Φ = Φ1 – Φ2 = [Ex(atx= 2a) – Ex (atx = a)]a2
= [α(2a)-α(a)]a2 = αa3
= 104 × (0.1 )3 = 10 Nm2/C
But

Φ = qε0

∴ q = ε0Φ = 8.854 × 10-12 × 10 C = 8.54 pC

35
Answers-MCQ
1. Ans (a) Given Q2 = Q3 = Q ;

Net force on Q3 = -KQ2/x2 + KQ1Q/4x2 = 0

Q1 = 4Q ; Q1 = 4Q3
2. Ans (d) K for metals is infinity. Fm = F0/K = 0

3. Ans (a) When -2𝞵C is given to +7𝞵C and -5𝞵C they become +5C and -7𝞵C. Force remains same

4. Ans (c)

4𝜋Є0𝐹𝑑2
5. Ans ( c ) F = Kq2/d2 ; q = ne ; F = Kn2e2/d2 ; n = √
𝑒2

6. Ans ( c) qE = 1.6 x 10-19 E = 𝝈/𝞮0 ; Q = 𝝈A ; Q = -44.27𝞵C

7 (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. .(a)
Case Study ANSWERS

1. (i). (c) both electric and magnetic effects

(ii). (b) conductor, insulator
(iii). (c) increase or decrease
(iv). (a) decreases directly as the distance from the centre
(v). (d) Coulomb's law
2. (i). (c) Conservation of charges
(ii). (d) all the distances
(iii). (d) radial, outwards
(iv). (a) outwards
(v). (d) All of the above
3. (i). (d) can pass through a continuous charge distribution as well as any system of discrete charges.
(ii). (a) any closed surface
(iii). (a) zero
(iv). (d) directly proportional to E
(v). (a) I and II
4 Electric charge
(i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) b (v) b
5.Electric dipole
(i)c (ii) d (iii) d (iv) a (v) c

36
electric potential & capacitors
GIST / KEY POINTS OF THE LESSON :-
Electrostatic Potential: Work done per unit positive Test charge 𝑉 = 𝑊
to move it from infinity to that point in an electric field. It is a 𝑞𝑜
scalar. SI unit: J/C or V
Electric potential at a distance ‘r’ from a point charge Q 1 𝑄
𝑉(𝑟) =
4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑟
Definition of 1 Volt: The electrostatic potential at any point in an 1𝑉 = 1𝐽
electric field is said to be one volt when one joule of work is done 1𝐶
in bringing one unit charge from infinity to that point.
Relation between Electric field intensity & Potential: The 𝑑𝑉
𝐸=− . 𝑂𝑅,
electric field intensity at any point is the negative gradient of 𝑑𝑟
𝑟
potential at that point
𝑉(𝑟) = − ∫ 𝐸⃗⃗ . ⃗𝑑⃗⃗⃗𝑟⃗
∞
𝑛
Potential due to a system of charges 𝑞𝑖
𝑉(𝑟) = ∑ 𝐾
𝑖=1
𝑟𝑖
Variation of field/potential with distance
1 1
𝐸∝ ; V∝
𝑟2 𝑟

Potential due to Electric dipole (i) 𝑉 =

1 𝑝 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

(i) At any point distant ‘r’ from the centre of the dipole 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑟2
1 𝑝
(ii) At a point along the axial line 𝜃 = 0; 𝑉 =
(ii) 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑟2
(iii) At equatorial line ( along the perpendicular bisector) 𝜃 = 90 ; 𝑉 = 0
(iii)

Potential difference between two points. (i) 𝑉𝐴⃗ > 𝑉𝐵 ; 𝑉𝐴⃗ − 𝑉𝐵 = +𝑣𝑒
(i) +Q
(ii) 𝑉𝐴⃗ < 𝑉𝐵 ; 𝑉𝐴⃗ − 𝑉𝐵 = − 𝑣𝑒
(ii) -Q
A B Example :- Work done by
A B external agency is
Example: 𝑊 = 𝑞∆𝑉= 𝑞(𝑉𝐴⃗ − 𝑉𝐵)
Work done by the field in moving a positive charge from ‘B’ to # W is +ve by external agency
‘A’ ? # W is -ve by the field
# ∆ 𝑈 𝑖𝑠 + 𝑣𝑒 & ∆𝐾 𝑖𝑠 − 𝑣𝑒

Potential energy of two charges: U=

𝑘𝑞1𝑞2
𝑟
Potential energy of a dipole kept in a uniform electric field ⃗⃗
U = −𝑝⃗. 𝐸
Stable equilibrium : Dipole is parallel to electric field. 𝜃 = 0 = p E [𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃1 -𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃2 ]
Unstable equilibrium: Dipole antiparallel to electric field 𝜃 =
180
Equipotential surfaces:
The surfaces on which the potential is same at every point
+ve charge

37
Two equal +ve charges Uniform electric field Electric dipole
Properties of equipotential surface:
(i) Workdone in moving a charge between any to points
on an equipotential surface is zero
(ii) The field lines are normal to the equipotential surface
(iii) No two equipotential surfaces intersect.
(iv) Equipotential surfaces are closer where electric field is
stronger
• Electrostatics of conductors
(i) Inside a conductor Electrostatic field is zero
(ii) On the surface E is always Normal to the surface
(iii) No excess charge resides inside the conductor
(iv) Charge distribution on the surface is uniform if the
surface is smooth
(v) Electric field is zero in the cavity of hollow conductor
and potential remains constant which is equal to that on
the surface.

Capacitor: An arrangement to store charge will act as a capacitor

𝑸
Capacitance: Ability to store charge. 𝑪=
𝑽
Mathematically, it is the ratio of charge stored to potential
1𝜇𝐹 = 10−6𝐹 .
applied
1𝑛𝐹 = 10−9𝐹
It is a scalar quantity. S I unit is Farad.
Capacitance is said to be 1Farad when a charge of 1C increases 1𝑝𝐹 = 10 𝐹
−12

the potential difference between the plates by 1 Volt.

Parallel plate capacitor: An arrangement of two conductors Electric field between the
separated by a small distance without any electrical contact plates
between them is called parallel plate capacitor. 𝑬=
𝝈
𝜺𝒐

Capacitance with air as

medium
𝜀 𝐴⃗
𝐶𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 𝑜
𝑑

Parallel plate Capacitor with a medium of dielectric constant K Capacitance with dielectric as
𝜖 𝐴⃗
medium Cm = 𝑜 𝑡
(𝑑−𝑡+ )
𝑘
𝜖𝑜𝐴⃗
If t=0 => C0 =
(𝑑)
𝜖𝑜𝐴⃗
If t=d => Cm =k = k C0
(𝑑)
2
Energy stored in capacitors: The work done in charging a 1 2 1 1Q
U= CV = QV =
capacitor is stored as electrostatic PE 2 2 2 C
Total energy is additive in series & parallel combinations
𝑼𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 = ∑ 𝑼𝒊

38
Slope = 𝑸= C C is constant for a given capacitor The area under V-Q graph
𝑽 U = 1 𝑄𝑉
2

n
Combination of capacitors: Series 1 1
=
c i =1 ci
Charge Q stored is same in When ‘n’ identical capacitors
all capacitors C are connected in series,
Potential divides among the 𝐶
capacitors 𝐶𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 =
𝑛

n
Combination of capacitors: Parallel
c =  ci
i =1
Potential difference V
is same for all capacitors, When ‘n’ identical capacitors
Charge Q =𝑞1 + 𝑞2 + 𝑞3 C are connected in parallel,
𝐶𝑝 = 𝑛𝐶

1 2
Energy density : Energy stored per unit volume of a capacitor 𝑈 = 𝜖 𝐸2= 𝜎
𝐸 2 0 2𝜖0

When two charged capacitors are connected : The energy lost is appeared as
𝑪 𝑽 +𝑪 𝑽
Common potential = 𝑽 = 𝟏 𝟏 𝟐 𝟐 heat energy in the circuit.
𝑽𝟏+𝑽𝟐
𝟏 𝑪𝟏𝑪𝟐
Energy loss during sharing of charges, ∆𝑼 = (𝑽 − 𝑽 )𝟐
𝟐 𝑪𝟏+𝑪𝟐 𝟏 𝟐

𝑄
The capacitance of a spherical conductor of radius R is 𝑉= ; where 4𝜋𝜀 𝑅 is the
𝑜
C = 4𝜋𝜖𝑜𝑅. 4𝜋𝜀𝑜𝑅
capacitance of the conductor

Dielectric strength of a medium:- Dielectric strength of air is

The maximum external electric field the dielectric can withstand 3MV/m
without losing its insulating property is called dielectric strength.
SI unit Vm-1.

Dielectric Polarisation : ⃗𝑷⃗⃗ The induced dipole moment per unit 𝑃⃗ ∝ ⃗𝐸⃗⃗⃗ ; 𝑃⃗ = 𝜀𝑜 𝜒𝑒 ⃗𝐸⃗⃗⃗
volume is called Polarisation Vector. The direction of
polarisation vector is same as that of external electric filed. Unit is Cm-2

Electric susceptibility of a dielectric medium (𝜒𝑒) 𝑃

𝜒=
Dimensionless quantity. Greater the value of susceptibility, 𝜖𝑜𝐸
greater the polarization of dielectrics

39
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1 A capacitor of capacitance C has a charge Q and stored energy W. If the charge is
increased to 2Q, the stored energy will be
(a) 𝑊 (b) 𝑊 (c) 2W (d) 4W
4 2

2 A battery is used to charge a capacitor till the potential difference between the
plates become equal to the emf (V) of the battery. The ratio of the energy stored in
the capacitor to the work done by the battery will be
(a) ½ (b) 2 (c) ¼ (d) 4

3 The electric potential V at any point (x,y,z) in space is given

by V=3x2 where x,y,z are all in metre. The electric field at the point (1m,0,2m) is
(a) 6V/m along -x axis
(b) 6V/m along +x axis
(c) 1.5V/m along -x axis
(d) 1.5V/m along +x axis

40
4 A parallel plate capacitor with oil in between the plates (dielectric constant of oil is
2) has a capacitance ‘C’. If the oil is removed, what will be the new capacitance
𝐶 𝐶
(a) (b) (c)2𝐶 (d) √2 𝐶
√2 2

5 A conducting sphere of radius R carrying charge Q lies inside an uncharged

conducting shell of radius 2R. If they are connected by a metal wire, the amount of
heat that will be produced is
2 2 2 2
(a) 1 𝑄 (b) 1 𝑄 (c) 1 𝑄 (d) 1 𝑄
4𝜋𝜀𝑜 𝑅 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 2𝑅 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 3𝑅 4𝜋𝜀𝑜 4𝑅

6 A metallic sphere has a charge of 10μC. A unit negative charge is brought from
point A to another point B both 100cm away from the sphere, but A being east of it
while B being on west. The net work done is
1
(a) 2 J (b) − 𝐽 (c) Zero (d) Data insufficient
10 10

7 A parallel plate air capacitor having a capacitance ‘C’ is half-filled by a medium of

dielectric constant 5. What % change will be there in the capacitance of the
capacitor?
(a) 200% increase (b) 400% decrease
(c) 400% increase (d) 66.6% increase
8 Two parallel plate capacitors X and Y have same plate area and same separation
between the plates. X has air between the plates and Y has a dielectric medium of
K=4. When they are connected in series with a source of 12V, what is the ratio of
energies stored in X to Y
(a) 1:4 (b) 8:1 (c) 4:1 (d)√2 :

9 An electric charge 10-3 µC is placed at the origin (0,0) of (x, y) co-ordinate system.
Two points A and B are situated at (√2, √2) and (2,0) respectively. The potential
difference between the points A and B will be
(a) 4.5 V (b) Zero (c) 2.0V (d) 9.0V

10 Two identical metal plates are given positive charges q1 and q2 (q1> q2). If they are
now brought near to each other to form a capacitor with capacitance C, what will be
the potential difference between the plates?
(a) (q1+q2)/2C (b) (q1+q2)/C (c) (q1- q2)/C (d) (q1-q2)/2C

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (1 MARK)

11 A charge ‘q’ is moved from a point A above a dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ to a point B
below the dipole in equatorial plane without acceleration. Find the work done in the
process.

12 Why electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor and has the
same value as on its surface?

41
13 The given graph shows the variation of charge q versus potential difference V for two
capacitors C1 and C2. Both the capacitors have same plate separation but plate area of
C2 is greater than that C1. Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and why?

A uniform electric field exists between the two parallel plates of a capacitor. What is the
work done in taking a unit positive charge along the path ABCD?
15 Is the electro static potential necessarily be zero at a point where electric field is zero?
Justify
16 A large hollow metallic sphere A is charged positively to a potential of 100V and a small
sphere B to a potential of 50V. Now B is placed inside A and they are connected by a
wire. In which direction will the charge flow?
17 An Aluminium sheet foil is introduced midway between the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor of capacitance ‘C’. What will be the new capacitance if (a) the foil is electrically
insulated (b) the foil is connected to the positive plate of the capacitor?
18 What is the total potential energy of the configuration shown here:

19 How does the energy stored in a capacitor change if after disconnecting from the battery,
the plates are moved farther? Justify
20 Draw the equipotential surfaces corresponding to
(a) A constant electric field in Z-direction
(b) A field that uniformly increases in magnitude
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2MARK)
21 (i) Two circular metal plates, each of radius 10cm are kept parallel to each other
at a distance of 1mm. What kind of capacitor do they make?
(ii) If the radius of each of the plates is increased by a factor of √2 and distance of
separation reduced to half, calculate the ratio of capacitance in both case
22 A regular hexagon of side 10cm has charge 5μC at all vertices. Calculate the potential at
the centre.

23 Calculate the potential difference in the capacitance C2 in the circuit shown. The potential
at A is 90V and C1 = 20 μF , C2 = 30 μF, C3=15 μF.

42
24 Find the charge on the 6 μF capacitor shown in the figure.

25 A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The charge

stored in it is 360 μC. When the potential is reduced by 120V, the charge stored in it
becomes 120 μC. Calculate the potential V and capacitance C
26 Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and
series combination of two identical capacitors so that energy stored, in two cases, becomes
the same.
27 A parallel plate capacitor having plate area 100cm2 and separation 1.0mm holds a charge
of 0.12μC when connected to a 120V battery. Find the value of dielectric constant of
material filling the gap.
28 A capacitor 200 pF is charged by a 300V battery. The battery is disconnected and the
charged capacitor is connected to another uncharged capacitor 100pF. Calculate the
difference in the final and initial energy stored.
29 The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is completely filled in two ways.
In the first case, it is filled with a slab of dielectric constant K. In the second case, it is
filled with two slabs of equal thickness and dielectric constants K1 and K2 respectively as
shown in the figure. The capacitance of the capacitor is same in the two cases. Obtain the
relationship between, K, K1 and K2

30 An electric field E = 20i+30j exists in space. if the potential at the origin is taken to be
zero, then what is the potential at (2m,2m)?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

31 A parallel plate is charged by a battery. When the battery remains connected, a dielectric
slab is inserted in the space between the plates. Explain what changes if any, occur in the
values of
(a) its capacitance
(b) electric field between the plates and
(c) energy stored in the capacitor be affected? Justify your answer giving necessary
mathematical expression for each case.

32 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential. The battery is

disconnected and a dielectric slab is inserted to completely fill the space between the
plates.
How will
(a) its capacitance
(b) electric field between the plates and
(c) energy stored in the capacitor be affected? Justify your answer giving necessary
mathematical expression for each case.

43
33 In the figure given below, find the equivalent capacitance of the network between A and B

C1 = C5 = 8µF, C2 = C3 = C4 = 4 µF
(i) Calculate effective capacitance between A and B
(ii) Maximum charge supplied by the source
(iii) The energy stored in the network
34 Two point charges +Q1 and -Q2 are placed at a distance ‘r’ apart. Obtain the expression for
the amount of work done to place a third charge Q3 at the midpoint of the line joining the
two.

Calculate the work done to dissociate the system of three charges placed at the vertices of
a triangle as shown. Given: q = 1.6 x 10-10 C
36

The variation of potential with distance from a fixed point is as shown in the figure. What
is the electric field at (i) x = 8m (ii) x = 14m?
37 A graph showing variation between two physical quantity ‘x’ with ‘r’, where ‘r’ is the
distance from the center of a charged conducting sphere.
(i) Name the physical quantity ‘x’
(ii) What does the distance ‘OB’ represent?
(iii) At what point the electric field of this conducting sphere (a) minimum (b)
maximum?
Write the values

38 What should be the charge on a sphere of radius 4cm, so that when it is brought in contact
with another sphere of radius 2cm carrying a charge of 10μC, there is no transfer of
charge from one to another.
39

44
Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor of charge densities +σ and – σ. A dielectric slab of
constant K and a conducting slab both are of thickness ‘d’ are inserted in between the
plates.
Find the potential difference between the plates. Plot the graph between the E and x taking
x=0 at +ve plate and x = 5d at -ve plate
40 (a) Two isolated metal spheres A and B have radii R and 2R respectively and same
charge q. Find which of the two spheres has greater (i) capacitance (ii) energy
density just outside the spheres.
(b) Concentric equipotential surfaces due to a point charge at the centre are shown.
Identify the polarity of the charge and draw the field lines.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

41 (a) Derive the expression for the PE of a system of 2 charges q1 and q2 located at r1
and r2 respectively in an external electric field.
(b) Can electric field exist tangential to equipotential surfaces? Give reason.
42 Explain briefly the process of charging a parallel plate capacitor when it is connected
across DC battery. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is charged to ‘V’ volts by a battery.
After sometime battery is disconnected and distance is doubled. Now a dielectric slab of
constant, 1 < K < 2, is introduced to fill the gap between the plates. How will the
following get affected: (i) the electric field between the plates (ii) the energy stored in the
capacitor. Justify your answer by writing necessary expressions.
43 Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are connected to a battery V volt with a
switch ‘S’ closed. The switch is now opened and the free space between the plates of the
capacitor is filled with a medium of dielectric constant K. Find the ratio of the total energy
stored in both capacitors before and after the introduction of the dielectric.

44 (a) Define Electrostatic potential due to point charge.

(b) If ‘n’ similar drops of mercury each of capacitance C, surface charge density ‘σ’,
Energy ‘E’ and potential ‘V’ combine to form a big drop, then calculate the
capacitance, surface charge density, energy and potential of the big drop.
45 (a) Does the capacitance C of a capacitor increase, decrease or remain same when (i)
the charge on it is tripled (ii) the potential difference across the plates is halved?
Justify your answer.
(b) Two metal spheres A and B of radius ‘r’ and ‘2r’ whose centres are separated by a
distance ‘6r’ are given charges Q each and are potential V1 and V2 respectively.
Find the ratio of V1 to V2
(c) If the spheres are now connected by a wire, what amount of charge will flow
through the wire?

45
CASE BASED QUESTIONS (Each sub question carry 1 mark)
46 The electrical capacitance of a conductor is the measure of its ability to hold electric
charge. Figure shows an isolated spherical conductor of radius R. The charge Q is
uniformly distributed over its entire surface. It can be assumed to be concentrated at the
centre of the sphere. The potential at any point on the surface of the spherical conductor
will be V=Q/4πε0R. Capacitance of the spherical conductor situated in vacuum is C = QV
= 4πε0R Clearly, the capacitance of a spherical conductor is proportional to its radius

(i) If an isolated sphere has a capacitance 50pF. Then radius is

(a) 90 cm (b) 45 cm (c) 45 m (d) 90 m
(ii) How much charge should be placed on a capacitance of 25 pF to raise its potential to
l05 V?
(a) 1μC (b) 1.5μC (c) 2μC (d) 2.5μC
(iii) Metallic sphere of radius R is charged to potential V. Then charge q is proportional to
(a) V (b) R (c) both V and R (d) none of these.
(iv) If 64 identical spheres of charge q and capacitance C each are combined to form a
large sphere. The charge and capacitance of the large sphere is
(a) 64q, C (b) 16q,4C (c) 64q,4C (d) 16q,64C
47 A dielectric slab is a substance that does not allow the flow of charges through it but
permits them to exert electrostatic forces on one another.
When a dielectric slab is placed between the plates, the field Eo polarises the dielectric.
This induces charge -Qp on the upper surface and + Qp on the lower surface of the
dielectric. These induced charges set up a field Ep inside the dielectric in the opposite
direction of external field E.

(i) In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance increases from 4μF to 80μF on
introducing a dielectric medium between the plates. What is the dielectric
constant of the medium?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 80
(ii) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8
pF. The separation between the plates is now reduced by half and the space
between them is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 5.
Calculate the value of capacitance of the capacitor in the second case.
(a) 20 pF (b) 40 pF (c) 60 pF (d) 80 pF
(iii) A dielectric introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor with
battery remain connected
(a) decreases potential difference between the plates
(b)decreases the electric field between the plates
(c) increases the charge on the plates
(d) all the above

46
(iv) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 pF has separation between the
plates d. When the distance of separation becomes 2d and wax of dielectric
constant x is inserted in it the capacitance becomes 2 pF. What is the value
of x? (a) 2 (b)
8 (c) 4 (d) 1

48 The surface on which all points have the same potential is called the equipotential surface.
On the equipotential surface, to move a charge from one point to another no work is
required.
Equipotential Points: The same electric potential points on the electric field are called
equipotential points. The line or curve connecting the points is known as an equipotential
line. The surface on which the point lies is called the equipotential surface. The volume in
which the points are filled is known as an equipotential volume.
In an equipotential surface, if a point charge is said to move from point VA to
VB, then the work done in moving the charge is given by,
W = q0 (VA –VB)
As VA – VB is said to be zero and the total work done, W = 0.

(i) Which of the above figures represent uniform electric field?

(a) fig (a) only (b) fig (a & c) (c) fig (b & d) (d) all the above
(ii) A charge +Q is moved from point A to point B. Choose the correct
statement: (a) Work
done in fig(d) is the least
(b) Work done in fig (a) is greater than that in other cases
(c) Work done in fig (a) & (c) are equal but greater than that in fig(b &d)
(d) Work done in all three cases is equal
(iii) A charge -3μC is taken from a point P to point Q where potential difference is
2.4V. Calculate the work done
(a) 0 J (b) 7.2 J (c) – 7.2 J (d) -7.2 μJ
(iv) Suppose a charge +20 μC is trapped at the centre of a uniformly charged
conducting sphere of radius 5cm and surface charge density 15 μC/cm2. What
is the work done required to move the 20 μC to the surface?
(a) 100 μJ (b) 300 μJ (c) Zero (d) 25 μJ
Assertions & Reasons Questions

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false and R is also false.
1. A- The work done by an electrostatic field in moving a charge from one point to another
depends only on the initial and the final points.
R- Electrostatic force is a conservative fore.
2. A- For a point charge potential V=kQ/r is applicable for Q>0 &Q<0
R- for Q < 0, the force on a unit positive test charge is attractive

47
3. A- The electric field at every point is normal to the equipotential surface passing
through that point.
R- No work is required to move a test charge on an equipotential surface.
4. A- For a uniform electric field E along the x -axis, the equipotential
surfaces are planes parallel to the y-z plane.
R- Electric field is in the direction in which the potential increases.
5. A- A non polar molecule is one in which the centres of positive and negative charges are
separated.
R- Non polar molecules have a permanent dipole moment.
6. A- In an external electric field, the positive and negative charges of a non polar molecule
are displaced in opposite directions.
R- Oxygen & Hydrogen are non polar molecules.
7. A- When a dielectric is inserted between the plates of a capacitor, capacitance increases.
R- The dielectric is polarised by the field.
8. A- A capacitor with large capacitance can hold large amount of charge Q at a relatively
small V.
R- The charge of the capacitor leaks away due to the reduction in insulating power of the
intervening medium.
9. A- When capacitors are connected in series net capacitance decreases.
R- In series combination, charges on the two plates are the same on each capacitor.

10. A- Two concentric spherical shell of different radius are at potential VA and VB. If outer
shell is earthed then potential difference will not be changed.
R- Potential difference between the surfaces of two concentric spherical shells does not
depends on the charge on the outer shell.

11. A- When a capacitor is charged by a battery, both the plates receive charge equal in
magnitude, no matter sizes of plates are identical or not.
R -. The charge distribution on the plates of capacitor is in accordance with charge
conservation principle

12. A- When a charged capacitor is filled completely with a metallic slab, its capacitance is
increased by a large amount.
R -The dielectric constant for metal is infinite.
13. A: Electric potential of a positively charged body may be negative.
R - The potential of a conductor does not depend on the charge of the conductor.
14. A – In the absence of an external electric field, the dipole moment per unit volume of a
polar dielectric is zero.
R – The dipoles of a polar dielectric are randomly oriented.

ANSWERS - ASSERTION REASON

1. A

2. A

3. A

4. C

5. D

48
6. B

7. A

8. B

9. B

10.D

11.C

12.A

13.C

ANSWERS
1 (d) 4W
2 (a) ½.
If V is the emf of the battery, Work done = QV = CV2 . The energy stored = ½ CV2

3 (a) 6V/m along -x axis

Electric potential V = 3x2
E = −dV/dx
E = −6x
At the point (1,0,2)
Electric field E = 6×1 = −6V/m
4 (b) 𝐶
2
2
5 (d) 1 𝑄
4𝜋𝜀 𝑜 4𝑅
6 (c) Zero
7 (d) 66.6% increase (Hint: Series combination of 2 capacitors of spacing d/2)
8 (c) 4:1
9 (b) Zero
𝜎 −𝜎 𝑞 −𝑞
10 (d) (q1-q2)/2C Hint: E = E1 – E2 = 1 2 = 1 2 ; V = Ed
2𝜀 𝑜 2𝜀 𝐴⃗ 𝑜
11 Work done in the process is zero. Because, equatorial plane of a dipole is equipotential
surface and work done in moving charge oh equipotential surface is zero.
W = qVAB = q × 0 = 0
12 Since, electric field intensity inside the conductor is zero. So, electrostatic potential is a
constant.
But, E = –ΔV/Δr
∴ E = 0, ΔV = 0
or V2 – V1 = 0, V2 – V1
The potential at every point inside the conductor remains same.

13 Line B corresponds to Q because slope (q/V) of B is less than slope of A.

14 Zero. Electrostatic field is a conservative field

49
𝑑𝑉
15 No. 𝐸 = − . That is, even when E = 0, potential can be a non zero constant
𝑑𝑟

16 From B to A. When sphere B is placed inside the sphere A, total potential of B become
150V. So charge flow from higher potential to lower potential.

17 (a) With foil electrically insulated, the arrangement is a series combination. Both
capacitors having d/2 separation between the plates. So effective capacitance Cs
= 2C/2 = C

(b) Capacitance become twice as the distance reduces to d/2

18 𝑄. 𝑄 𝑄. (−𝑄) (−𝑄). 𝑄
𝑈=𝑘 +𝑘 +𝑘 =0
𝑑 2𝑑 2𝑑

19 Energy increases.
The capacitance, C decreases as plate distance increase. As the battery is disconnected,
𝑞2
𝑈 = which will increase
2𝐶

(a) (b)
21 (i) Parallel plate capacitor
𝑟 𝐴⃗ 𝑑 𝐶 1
(ii) 𝑟′ = . 𝐴⃗′ = . 𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝑑′ = . 𝑆⃗𝑜 𝐶′ = 4𝐶. ∴ 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 , =
√2 2 2 𝐶′ 4
1 𝑞
22 Potential V = 6. = 2.7x106 V
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟
23 For series combination Cs = 20/3 μF
Charge on Cs , Q = Cs V = 600 μC.
Charge stored is same for all capacitors in series.
Potential drop on C2 , V2 = Q/ C2 = 20V

2 1
24 Current through the circuit𝐼 = = 𝐴⃗
6+10 8

3
Voltage across 6Ω resistor, V’= IR = 6 = 𝑉
8 4
Charge on the capacitor, Q = CV’ = 4.5 μC
25 Given, Q = CV = 360 μC. .................... (i)
On reducing the voltage by 120V,
Q’ = C (V-120) = 120 μC ................ (ii)
On solving eqn(i) & (ii) ; V = 180V
Then unknown capacitance, C = Q/V = 2 μF
𝐶
26 For identical capacitors: 𝐶 = ; 𝐶 = 2𝐶
𝑠 2 𝑝
𝑈𝑠 = 𝑈𝑝

50
1 𝑉𝑝 𝐶/2 1
𝐶 𝑉𝑠2 = 𝐶 𝑉𝑝2. ∴ = √ =
𝑠 2 𝑝 𝑉𝑠 2𝐶 2
27 𝑄 𝜀𝑜𝐴⃗
𝐶 = = 10−9𝐹. 𝐹𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎, 𝐶 = 𝐾 , 𝐾 = 11.3
𝑉 𝑑
1
28 𝑈 = 𝐶 𝑉 2 = 9 × 10−6𝐽
𝑖
2 1 1 𝐶 𝑉 +𝐶 𝑉
Common potential after both capacitors connected, 𝑉 = 1 1 2 2 = 200𝑉
𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑛 𝐶1+𝐶2
1 1
𝑈𝑓 = 𝐶𝑝𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚2 = 300𝑝𝐹 𝑥(200)2 = 6 × 10−6𝐽
2 2
Difference in energy = (9 – 6) x 10-6 J = 3 x 10-6 J

29 Case 2 is a series combination

𝜀 𝐴⃗ 2𝐾 𝐾 𝜀 𝐴⃗
𝐶 = 𝐾 𝑜 ; 𝐶 = ( 1 2) 𝑜
1 𝑑 2 𝐾1+𝐾2 𝑑
2𝐾1𝐾2
𝑆⃗𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑒, 𝐶1 = 𝐶2 ; 𝐾 =
𝐾1 + 𝐾2
30 ∆𝑉 = −𝐸𝑥∆𝑥 − 𝐸𝑦∆𝑦 = (−20 × 2 − 30 × 2) = −100𝑉
31 (i) Capacitance increases as C’ = KC (K>1)
(ii) Potential difference remans same as battery remain connected. So E = 𝑉
𝑑
remain same
2
(iii) Energy, U = 1𝐶𝑉 ; U’ = KU
2
32 (a) The capacitance increases as the dielectric constant K>1.
Potential difference V= CQ. As C increases and Q remains the same since the battery is
disconnected, the p.d. between the plates decreases.
(b) Electric field E = 𝑽 where V is the p.d. and d the separation between the plates.
𝒅
As V decreases and d remains the same, electric field also decreases.
𝟐
(c) Energy stored in a capacitor U = 𝟏𝑸 . As Q is constant and C increases, U decreases.
𝟐𝑪
33 Since C1,C2 are short circuited, the net charge on them = 0
Similarly, net charge on C4 and C5 =0
So effective capacitance = C3 = 4µF
Then, Q = CV = 4µF x 5 = 20 µC
Energy stored, U = 1 𝐶𝑉2 = 50µJ
2
34 Q3
-Q2
+Q1
r/2 r/2

𝑄1𝑄3 𝑄3𝑄2 𝑄1𝑄3−𝑄3𝑄2

𝑊=𝑘 − = 2𝑘 ( )
𝑟/2 𝑟/2 𝑟
35 Work done = - ( PE)
𝑞1𝑞2 + 𝑞1𝑞3 + 𝑞2𝑞3
𝑊=𝑘
𝑟
Substituting, W = 2.3 x 10-8 J
dV
36 E=−
dx
(i) At x = 8m, V is constant. E = 0
(10−30)
(ii) At x = 14m, V is gradually decreasing. 𝐸 = − = 5𝑉/𝑚
(16−12)

51
37 (i) Electric potential (ii) OB = radius of the sphere
(iii) E max is at surface (x = radius) ,
at B Emin is x < radius
38
For no transfer of charge, V1 = V2
𝑞 𝑞
𝑘 1 = 𝑘 2 ; then q1 = 20μC
𝑟1 𝑟2
𝐸𝑜𝑑 𝐸𝑜𝑑
39 (i) V=𝐸 𝑑 + + 𝐸 𝑑 + 0 + 𝐸 𝑑 = 3𝐸 𝑑 +
𝑜 𝐾 𝑜 𝑜 𝑜 𝐾

40 (a) (i) 𝐶 ∝ 𝑅 ; Capacitance of sphere B is greater

𝑈 𝑄 2⁄2𝐶
(𝑖𝑖) 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦 = = 4 . On solving, 𝑈𝐴⃗ = 16: 1
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝜋𝑅3 𝑈𝐵
3
(b) Negative charge.

41 Derivation.
No, if the electric field has tangential component, then work done in moving a charge
between any two points on an equipotential surface will not be zero.
42 Hint: C1 = C; V1 = V and Q1 = CV
When battery is disconnected, Q remains same.
So after distance is doubled and battery disconnected, C2 = KC/2
C1V1 = C2V2 ; Electric field E1 = Vd and E2 = E1/K
1
43 When switch is connected, UA = UB = 𝐶𝑉2
2
1
Total energy Ui = 2 ( 𝐶𝑉2) = 𝐶𝑉2
2
After the introduction of dielectric slab and switch opened, CA = CB = KC
P.D across A = V; P.D across B = V/K ( since Q remains same for A and B)
1 1
UA = 𝐾𝐶𝑉2 ; UB = 𝐶𝑉2
2 2𝐾
𝐾2+1 1
On adding final energy, Uf = ( ) 𝐶𝑉2
𝐾 2
𝑈𝑓 𝐾2+1
Ratio, =
( )
𝑈𝑖 2𝐾

52
44 (b) Volume of big drop =n× volume of small drop
4/3πR3 = n×4/3πr3
R = n1/3 r
Capacitance of small drop, C = 4πε0r
Capacitance of big drop, C’ = 4πε0R = 4πε0 n1/3r
C’ = n1/3 C
The potential of small drop V =q/C = q/4πε0r
The potential of big drop V’ = nq/ n1/3 C
V’ = n2/3 V
∴ Energy of small drop E = ½ CV2
Energy of big drop E’= ½C'V’2
∴ Energy E’ = n5/3 E
45 (a) No change in capacitance since C does not depend on Q or V
(b) V = kQ/r . So the ratio V1:V2 = 2:1
(c) When connected by a wire, the potentials become equal.
On equating, Q1’ = Q2’/2.
Charge flowing = Q/3
( electric charge is conserved. 2Q = Q1’+ Q2’ = 3 Q2’/2.)
46 (i) 45 cm
(ii) 2.5μC
(iii) V and R
(iv) 64q,4C (q’ = nq; C’ = n1/3 C)

47 (i) 20 (C’ = KC)

(ii) 80 pF
(iii) increases the charge on the plates ( Battery connected V remains same)
(iv) 4

48 (i) fig (a) only

(ii) Work done in all three cases is equal
(iii) -7.2 μJ
(iv) Zero (the potential inside a charged sphere is uniform)

53
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
(Gist of the lesson)
Electric Current The net flow of charge
I= Q/t
It is a scalar quantity
Its unit is ampere
Flow of electric When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a conductor
charges in a the electron will drift from one end to the other
metallic
conductor
Drift velocity The average velocity acquired by the free electrons in a conductor when
subjected to an electric field
vd= 𝑒𝐸Ʈ/𝑚 = 𝑒𝑉Ʈ/𝑚𝐿 (where E = V/L) where ι is called the relaxation
time – it is the average time interval between two successive collision of
free electrons of a conductor when subjected an electric field

Mobility Drift velocity = 𝑒𝐸Ʈ/𝑚 =µE

Where µ is called mobility
Expression for 𝐼 = 𝑄/t
current in terms I = 𝑛𝑒𝐴⃗𝐿/𝑡 ( (n is number density of free electrons, A is area of cross
of drift velocity section and L is the length of the conductor)
𝐼 = 𝑣𝑒𝑛A
Current density j= I /A – current through unit area and it is a vector quantity

Ohm’s law V = IR, 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝑣𝐴⃗

𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒(𝑒𝐸𝜄/𝑚)A
I/A = ne2ƮE/m
V-I Ohmic device – Devices that obey Ohm’s law, the V I graph will be
characteristics linear
(linear and Non Ohmic device – Devices that does not obey Ohm’s law, the V I
nonlinear) graph will not be straight line (example diode)

Conductivity σ= ne2Ʈ/m

Resistivity Ρ= m/ne2Ʈ the reciprocal of conductivity (depends on temperature and

nature of the material)
Resistance and 𝑅 = 𝜌𝐿/A
temperature R dependence on temperature, nature and dimension of the material
dependence 𝑅 = 𝑅0 + 𝛼𝑅0𝛥T
Where α is called the temperature coefficient of resistance
Material like constantan and manga nine are having very low value for
coefficient of resistance hence used to make standard resistors

Resistors in Series
series and : Current through all resistors same but potential difference across each
parallel resistor is different
Effective resistance is larger than the largest
R effective = R1 + R2 +R3
Parallel:
Potential difference across each resistor is same but current through the
resistors are different
Effective resistance is smaller than the smallest
1 /𝑅 𝑒𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 = 1/ 𝑅1 + 1/ 𝑅2 + 1/ 𝑅3

54
Electrical The rate at which electric energy is consumed is called electric power
𝑉2
energy and P = VI, 𝑃 = , P = I2R
Power 𝑅
Electric cell The device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy is called
electric cell
Emf Electromotive force – The work done to move a unit charge through the
circuit

Internal Resistance offered by the cell

resistance Depends on
Nature of the electrolyte
Directly proportional to the concentration of the electrolyte
Directly proportional to the distance between the electrodes
Varies inversely as the common area of the electrodes
Increases with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte
Terminal The potential difference between the terminals of a cell, when current is
voltage and emf drawn from the cell

Relation Emf = terminal voltage + internal resistance x current

between internal Emf = V + Ir
resistance, emf In open circuit ie when I is zero then emf =terminal voltage (When a
and terminal cell gets charged then emf = V – Ir)
voltage

Combination of Series
cells in series
and parallel

Effective emf = E1 + E2………….

Effective internal resistance = r1 + r2 +……...
If cells are identical then effective emf = nE (where n is the number of
cells)
Effective resistance = nr
If connected across an external resistor R then 𝐼 = 𝑛𝐸 / (𝑅 + 𝑛𝑟)

Parallel

55
Eeffctive /r effective = E1 r2 + E2 r1/(r1+r2)
If n identical cells are connected in parallel then E effective = E (emf of
a single cell)
1/r eff = n/r
If connected across an external resistor then current is

𝐼 = 𝐸 / (𝑅 + 𝑟/𝑛)

Kirchhoff’s Junction rule and loop rule

rules Junction rule is based on law of conservation of charge
Loop rule is based on law of conservation of energy

Wheatstone’s It is an arrangement of four resistors

bridge

The bridge is said to be balanced when the points B and D are at the
same potential. Then the current through the galvanometer is zero.
When bridge is balanced then
P/Q = R/S
If the position of the cell and the galvanometer is interchanged, then
also the galvanometer will show null deflection

56
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. If a wire is stretched to double its original length without loss of mass, how will the resistivity of the
wire be influenced?
2. Does the value of resistance of a wire depend on the potential difference applied across it?
3. What happens if the galvanometer and cell are interchanged at the balance point of the bridge?
Would the galvanometer show any current?
4. Two wires A and B of the same material and having same length have their cross-sectional areas in
the ratio 1:4. What would be the ratio of heat produced in the wires when same voltage is applied?
5. A potential difference V is applied across a conductor of length L. How is the drift velocity affected
when V is doubled and L is halved?
6. Plot a graph showing the variation of resistance of conducting wire as a function of its radius,
keeping the length of the wire and its temperature as constant
7. Two wires A and B of the same material having length in the ratio 1:2 and radii in the ratio 2:1.
What is the ratio of the resistance?
8. Draw a graph showing the variation resistivity with temperature for nichrome
9. What are the factors affecting the internal resistance of a cell?
10. A 100 W and 500W bulb are joined in parallel to the mains. Which bulb will glow brighter?

SHORT ANSWR QUESTIONS

11. Using the concept of drift velocity of charge carriers in a conductor deduce the relationship between
current density and resistivity of the conductor
12. Two bulbs are marked 220V,100W and 220V and 50W respectively. They are connected in series
to 220V mains. Find the ratio of heat generated in them
13. A potential difference of 6V is applied across a conductor of length 0.12m. Calculate the drift
velocity of the electrons, it the electron mobility is 5.6 x 10-6m2v-1s-1
14. Explain why electric power transmitted at high voltages and low currents to distant places
15. The V-I curve for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in the
figure. Which temperature is greater and give reason:

57
16. A wire when connected to 220V main supply, has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into
two equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply, power dissipation in this case
is P2. Find the ratio P2/P1
17. Three identical cells each of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.2Ω are connected in series to an
external resistor of 7.4 Ω. Calculate the current in the circuit
18. Distinguish between emf and terminal voltage
19. Why alloys like constantan are used for making standard resistors?
20. Distinguish between ohmic and non ohmic devices. Give one example each
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARK)
21. Three identical resistors, each of resistance R when connected in series with a d c source dissipate
power X. If the resistors are connected in parallel to the same d c source, how much power will be
dissipated?
22. The thickness of a conductor continuously decreases from its one end A to another end B. It is
connected across the terminals of a battery. What will be the effect on the value of?
(I) electric field
(ii) current density
(iii) mobility of the electron
at a point on the conductor as one moves from end A to end B
23. A battery of emf e and internal resistance r is connected to a variable external resistance R. Find
the value of R for which current in the circuit is maximum, terminal potential difference across the
battery is maximum also find the maximum value of current and terminal voltage in each case
24. Derive the condition for balanced Wheatstone’s bridge
25. Prove that when electrical appliances are connected in parallel, the total power consumed is equal
to the sum of the powers of the individual appliances.
26. The resistance of a tungsten filament at 1500C is 133 Ω. What will be its resistance at 5000C?
Given the temperature coefficient of tungsten is 0.0045/0C.
27. A battery of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1Ω is being charged by a current of 5A. What will be
the direction of current inside the battery? What is the potential difference between the terminals of
the battery?
28. Define drift velocity and derive an expression for drift velocity of electrons in a conductor hence
deduce Ohm’s law
29. State and explain Kirchhoff’s laws. In the electric network shown in the figure, use Kirchhoff’s
rules to calculate the power consumed by the resistance R=4Ω

58
30. Using Kirchhoff’s rules determine the value of unknown resistance R in the circuit shown, so that
no current flows through 4Ω resistance. Also find the potential difference between A and D

VERY LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

31. Define the term drift velocity
On the basis of electron drift derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms of number
density of free electrons and relaxation time.
On what factors does resistivity of a conductor depend on
32. Define the terms internal resistance, potential difference and emf. Derive the relation between
internal resistance, emf and terminal potential difference of a cell. Draw a graph showing the
variation of current verses resistance connected to a cell of emf E and internal resistance r
33. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 are and internal resistances r1 and r2 respectively are connected in
series and in parallel. Obtain expressions for the equivalent emf and effective resistance of the
combination in the two cases
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
34. How many electrons pass through a lamp in 1 min if the current is 300mA?
(I) 1.125x1020
(II) 1.875x10-18
(III) 1.875x1018
(IV) 1.125x10-20
35. Drift velocity varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation
(I) VαE

59
(II) V α 1/E
(III) V α E2
(IV) V α E-2
36. The current through the 5Ωresistor is

(I) 2A
(II) 4A
(III) Zero
(IV) 1A
37. In a Wheatstone bridge circuit, P = 7Ω, Q =8Ω, R = 12 Ω and S = 7 Ω. Find the additional
resistance to be used in series with S, so that the bridge is balanced
(I) 6.72 Ω
(II) 7.62 Ω
(III) 2.67 Ω
(IV) 6.27 Ω
38. A cell of emf 2V, when short circuited gives a current of 4A. What is the internal resistance of the
cell in ohm?
(I) 0.5
(II) 1.0
(III) 2.0
(IV) 4.0
39. When a current of 0.2 A is drawn from a battery then the potential difference between its terminals
is 20V and when a current of 2A is drawn, then the potential difference drops to 16V. The emf of
the battery is
(I) 15.1V
(II) 20.4V
(III) 18.9V
(IV) 23.3V
40. If two identical cells when connected in series or in parallel, supply the same amount of current
through an external resistance of 2Ω, the internal resistance of the cell is
(I) 8Ω
(II) 2Ω
(III) 4Ω

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(IV) 1Ω
41. Kirchhoff’s second law for the electric network is based on
(I) Law of conservation of charge
(II) Law of conservation of energy
(III) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(IV) Law of conservation of mass
42. If percentage change in current through a resistor is 1%, then the change in power through it would
be
(I) 1%
(II) 2%
(III) 1.7%
(IV) 0.5%
43. In the given circuit, the potential drop across the resistor is

(I) V
(II) V/2
(III) V/3
(IV) 2V/3
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
44. The materials can be classified as conductors, semi-conductors and insulators depending on their
resistivities. Metals have low resistivities in the range of 10-8Ωm. At the other end are insulators like
ceramic, rubber and plastics having resistivities 10-18 times greater than metals or more. In between
these two are the semiconductors. These however have resistivities characteristically decreasing with
a rise in temperature. The resistivities of semiconductors can be decreased by adding small amount
of suitable impurities. This last feature is exploited in use of semiconductors for electronic devices.
(a) Which of the following material can be used for heating purpose in electric geyser?
(i) Copper
(ii) Aluminium
(iii) Gold
(iv) Nichrome
(b) The temperature of coefficient of resistance is negative for
(i) Copper
(ii) Gold
(iii) Carbon

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(iv) Silver
(c) The resistance of a wire at 200C is 20Ω and at 5000C it is 60Ω. At what temperature the
resistance is the temperature is 25Ω
(i) 1600C
(ii) 2500C
(iii) 1000C
(iv) 800C
(d) The product of resistivity and conductivity of a conductor depends on
(i) Area of cross section ‘
(ii) Temperature
(iii) Length
(iv) None of these
( e) Nichrome and copper wires of same length and same radius are connected in series .
current I is passed through them. The wire that heated up more is
(i) Nichrome
(ii) Copper
(iii) Bothe will be heated to the same temperature
(iv) Can’t be predicted
45. An electric cell is source of energy that maintains a continuous flow of charge in a circuit. it
changes chemical energy into electrical energy. It has two electrodes – positive and negative.
Electric cell has to do some work in maintaining the current through a circuit. The work done by
the cell in moving unit positive charge through the whole circuit is called the emf of the cell.
(a) When two electrodes of a cell are immersed in an electrolytic solution the charges are
exchanged between
(i) Positive electrode and electrolyte only
(ii) Negative electrode and electrolyte only
(iii) Both electrodes and electrolyte
(iv) Directly between two electrodes
(b) The current flowing in the sell is
(i) I = E /(R+r)
(ii) I = E/R
(iii) I=E/r
(iv) I = (R+r)/E

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(iii) R=0
(iv) R =r
(d) When R is infinite, then potential difference V between P and N is
(i) E
(ii) 2E
(iii) E/2
(iv) E/4
46. An electrical appliances (geysers) uses a lot of electric energy when it is operated. The electrical
energy consumed is dependent on the time for which a specific appliance of fixed power rating is
used. The commercial unit of electric energy is KWh (I unit). Different electric appliances have
different power consumption which is mentioned in the device clearly.
(a) A bulb is rated 60W, 220V.It signifies
(i) It consumes 60J in one second
(ii) It consumes 220J in one second
(iii) It has 60W energy
(iv) None of the above
(b) Which of the following does not represent electric power?
(i) VI
(ii) I2R
(iii) V2/R
(iv) I2V
(c) The electric bulbs P and Q having resistance ratio 1:2 will consume power in the ratio when V is
constant
(i) 1:2
(ii) 2:1
(iii) 1:4
(iv) 4:1
(d) An electric heater consumes 1.5KW power. If it is used every day for 2 hours, then the electric
energy used in January is
(i) 90unit
(ii) 92unit
(iii) 93unit
(iv) 95 unit
47. A single cell provides a feeble current. In order to get higher current in a circuit we use
combination of cells . Cells can be joined in series and in parallel and in a mixed way. Two cells
are said to be connected in series when negative of one cells in connected to the positive of the
other cell and so on .Cells are said to be connected in parallel when positive terminal of each cell is

63
connected to one point and negative terminal of each cell is connected to another point .In mixed
grouping of cells certain number of cells are joined in series and all such rows are connected in
parallel with each other
(a) To draw the maximum current from a combination of cells, how should the cells be
Grouped

(i) Parallel
(ii) Series
(iii) mixed combination
(iv) Depends upon the relative value of internal and external resistance
(b) The total emf of the combination of cells, when n identical cells each of emf E are connected
in parallel
(i) E
(ii) nE
(iii) E/n
(iv) 2nE
( c) Two cells out of n number of cells each of internal resistance r are connected in series , then total
resistance of the cells is
(i) nr
(ii) nr-2r
(iii) nr -4r
(iv) r
(d) Two identical but non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel. Consider the following statements
I. The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs
II. The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than the resistance of the two internal resistance
(i) Both I and II are correct
(ii) I is correct and II is not correct
(iii) II is correct but I is wrong
(v) Both I and II are wrong
48. Wheatstone bridge, also known as the resistance bridge, is the setup that is used for measuring the
unknown resistance. It was invented by Samuel Hunter Christie in 1833 and was later popularized by Sir
Charles Wheatstone in 1843.
A Wheatstone bridge comprises four arms which are termed as resistors, and among which the ratio of two
resistors is kept at a fixed value and the two arms left, that is, the remaining arms are balanced, one of them
can be varied while the other arm is an unknown resistor.

64
Then through the method of balancing or null condition, the unknown resistance is calculated. The circuit
of the Wheatstone bridge provides the exact measurement of the resistance. There are many variations of
the Wheatstone bridge that are utilised for the AC circuits.
(a) Why the Wheatstone bridge is more accurate than the other methods of measuring resistance?
(i) It has four resistor arms
(ii) It is based on Kirchhoff’s laws
(iii) It does not involve ohm’s law
(iv) It is null method
(b) In a balanced Wheatstone’s bridge network, the resistance in arms Q and S are interchanged. As a
result of this
(i) galvanometer and cell must be interchanged to balance
(ii) galvanometer shows null deflection
(iii) Network is not balanced
(iv) network is still balanced
(c) In a Wheatstone bridge circuit P= 5Ω, Q =6Ω, R = 10Ω and S = 5Ω. What is the additional resistance
to be used in series with S, so that the bridge is balanced
(i) 5Ω
(ii) 7 Ω
(iii) 10 Ω
(iv) 9 Ω
(d) Five equal resistors each of R are connected in a network as shown in the figure. The equivalent
resistance between the points A and B is

(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) R/2
(d) 4R.

Assertions & Reasons Questions

Following questions consider two statements: one labelled as statement-1 and another as statement-2. Study
both statements and mark your answer using the codes given blow.

A. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is correct explanation of Statement-1.

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B. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not a correct explanation of Statement-1.

C.Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false.

D. Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true.

E. Statement-1 is false and also statement-2 is true.

Question-1
Statement-1 Free electrons in conductor are always in state of continuous random motion.
Statement-2 The random motion of free electrons is due to thermal energy of the conductor.

Question-2
Statement-1 Drift velocity of electrons in a conductor increase on increasing the temperature of the
conductor.
Statement-2 On increasing the temperature of a conductor, resistivity of the conductor increases.

Question-3
Statement-1 For metals relaxation time for electrons decreases with increase in temperature.
Statement-2 With the increase in temperature, number of collision per unit time that electrons made with
lattice ion also increases.

Question-4
Statement-1 Fuse wire has high resistance and low melting point.

.Statement-2 Fuse wire is for small current flow only.

Question-5
Statement-1 Power rating of resistance is not so important when used in a circuit.
Statement-2 The resistance value changes with temperature.

Question-6
Statement-1 The potentiometer A is more sensitive than the potentiometer B as per the graph shown.

Statement-2 Potential gradient of a potentiometer decides its sensitivity proportionally.

Question-7
Statement-1 After a long use, a potentiometer is declared to be less sensitive.

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Statement-2. The potential gradient of a potentiometer depends on the area of cross section of the wire
used.

Question-8

Statement-1 In meter bridge experiment, a high resistance is always connected

in series with a galvanometer.

Statement-2 As resistance increases current through the circuit increases.
Question-9
Statement-1 In a balanced Wheatstone’s bridge no current runs across the galvanometer.
Statement-2. The terminals of the path across which the galvanometer is connected are at the same
potential.

Question-10
Statement-1 Kirchhoff’s junction law follows from conservation of charge.
Statement-2. Kirchhoff’s loop law follows from conservative nature of electric field.

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS:

Question1 Question2 Question3 Question4 Question5

A D B C B

Question6 Question7 Question8 Question9 Question10

E A C A B

ANSWER KEY
1 No change. Resistivity depends on the nature of the material and temperature
2 No. Resistance depends on the temperature, nature and dimensions of the material
3 No change . The galvanometer will not show any current
𝑉2
4 𝑃= since voltage is same power is inversely proportional to resistance
𝑅
𝑃1 𝑅2 𝐴⃗1
= = = 1: 16
𝑃2 𝑅1 𝐴⃗2

5 𝑉 = 𝑒𝜄𝑉/𝑚𝐿 and hence becomes 4 times

6 𝑅 𝛼1/𝑟2 graph is rectangular hyperbola
7 𝐿 𝑅1 𝐿1 𝐴⃗2
𝑅𝛼 =( ) 𝑥 ( ) = 2: 1
𝐴⃗ 𝑅2 𝐿2 𝐴⃗1

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8

9 Nature of the electrolyte

Directly proportional to the concentration of the electrolyte
Directly proportional to the distance between the electrodes
Varies inversely as the common area of the electrodes
Increases with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte
10 In parallel same voltage V is applied to both the bulbs. But 500W bulb has smaller
resistance , so it will produce more heat
11 𝐽 = 𝐸/𝜌 ( explained in the summary)
𝑅1
12 In series connection current is same 𝐻1 =
𝐻2 𝑅2

13 𝑉
𝑉 = µ𝐸 = µ
𝐿

14 To minimise power loss due to Joule heating

15 Current is less for T2 means resistance if more for T2
Resistance increases with increase in temperature
Hence T2 is more than T1
𝑃1 𝑅2
16 𝑃 = 𝑉2/𝑅 = = 1: 4
𝑃2 𝑅1

17 E effective= 6
r effective = 0.6
Total resistance 7.4+0.6=8
I = 6/8=.75A
18 Definition given in summary
19 Low value for temperature coefficient of resistance. Hence resistance wont vary
much with change in temperature
20 Given in summary
21 P = V2/R
R effective in series is 3R
R effective in parallel is R/3
Hence power = 9X

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22 𝐸 = 𝑉 /𝐿 𝐼𝑅 /𝐿 = 𝐼/𝐿 (𝜌𝐿/𝐴⃗) = 𝐼𝜌/𝐴⃗
E is proportional to 1/A hence decreases from end A to end B
J =I/A
Hence j decreases from end A to B
µ = 𝑒𝜄/𝑚 hence constant

23 𝐼 = 𝐸 /(𝑅 + 𝑟)
Hence to get maximum current R = 0
I=E/r
V= E -Ir
For maximum value of V , I must be zero and for that R = infinity
Hence V = E

24 Derivation
25 Derivation
26 𝑅 = 𝑅0 + 𝛼𝑅0 𝑥 𝛥𝑇
27 During charging a battery the current inside the battery flows from the positive to
the negative terminal of the battery, so the terminal potential difference is greater
than the emf
V = E +Ir = 2+5 x 0.1
V = 2.5V

28 Derivation
34 ii
35 i
36 i
37 I
38 i
39 ii
40 ii
41 ii
42 ii
43 Iii
44 (a) (iv)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (iv)

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45 (a) (iii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
46 (a) (i)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iii)
47 (a) (iv)
(b) (i)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)
48 (a) (iv)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)

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Important points/Formulae
1. Biot-Savart law

The magnetic field due to a small current element can be obtained using this law.
𝜇𝑜 𝐼𝑑𝑙 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑑𝐵 =
4𝜋 𝑟2
Direction of the magnetic field can be obtained by Right Hand Thumb Rule.

2. Applications of Biot-Savart law

(i) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying coil

𝜇𝑜𝐼
𝐵=
2𝑎
(ii) Magnetic field at a point on the axis of a circular current carrying coil
having N turns
𝜇𝑜𝑁𝐼𝑎2
𝐵= 3
2(𝑎2 + 𝑥2)2

3. Ampere’s circuital law

Ampere’s circuital law states that the line integral of the magnetic field B taken
over a closed loop is  0 times the current I threading the path.

⃗⃗ . ⃗𝑑⃗⃗⃗𝑙 = 𝜇0𝐼
∮𝐵

4. Applications of Ampere’s circuital law

i) Magnetic field due to a straight infinitely long current carrying
conductor.
𝜇0𝐼
𝐵=
2𝜋𝑟

ii) Magnetic field well inside a current carrying a solenoid

𝐵 = 𝜇0𝑛𝐼
𝑛 − 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ.
5. Force on a moving charge

i) Force on a charge in an electric field, 𝐹⃗𝐸 = 𝑞 𝐸⃗⃗ (Electric Lorentz force)

ii) Force on a charge in a magnetic field, ⃗𝐹⃗⃗⃗𝐵⃗ = 𝑞(𝑣⃗ × 𝐵⃗⃗ ) (Magnetic Lorentz
force).
iii) Lorentz force - The total force experienced by a charged particle moving
in a region where both electric and magnetic fields are present, is called
Lorentz force. 𝐹⃗ = 𝑞 𝐸⃗⃗ + 𝑞(𝑣⃗ × ⃗𝐵⃗⃗⃗)⃗

73
6. Shape of the path of the charged particle moving inside the field.
i) Charged particle entering perpendicular to the magnetic field moves in a

circular path.

𝐶𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑝𝑒𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒 = 𝑀𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝐿𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑧 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒

𝑚𝑣2
= 𝑞𝑣𝐵
𝑟
𝑚𝑣
𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ , 𝑟 =
𝑞𝐵
𝐵𝑞𝑟
𝑆⃗𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒, 𝑣 =
𝑚
2𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑟 2𝜋𝑚
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑, 𝑇 = = =
𝑣 𝐵𝑞𝑟 𝐵𝑞
𝑚

2𝜋𝑚
𝑇=
𝐵𝑞
1 𝐵𝑞
𝐹𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 , 𝑓 = =
𝑇 2𝜋𝑚

ii) A charged particle is entering a magnetic field making an angle with it

(inclined) will move in helical path.

iii) A charged particle is entering perpendicular to an electric field moves in

a parabolic path.
2𝑚𝑣2
Equation of the path is 𝑥2 = ( )×𝑦 .
𝑞𝐸

7. Force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in an external

magnetic field.

𝐹⃗ = (𝐼𝑙⃗ × 𝐵⃗⃗ )

For finding the direction of this force Fleming’s Left Hand Rule can be

used.

8. Force per unit length between two infinitely long straight parallel current
carrying wires.
𝐹1 𝜇0𝐼1𝐼2
𝑓1 = =
𝑙 2𝜋𝑟
• If the currents are in the same direction, the force is attractive.
• If the currents are in the opposite direction, the force is repulsive.

74
9. Torque acting on a current carrying loop suspended in a uniform magnetic
field.
𝜏 = 𝑁𝐼𝐴⃗𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝜏⃗ = 𝑚 ⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗ × 𝐵
10 magnetic dipole moment
𝑚
⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑁𝐼𝐴⃗⃗
11. Moving coil galvanometer
• 𝜏 = 𝑁𝐼𝐴⃗𝐵 = 𝑘𝜙
• Figure of merit of a galvanometer
𝐼 𝑘
𝐺= =
𝜙 𝑁𝐴⃗𝐵
• Current sensitivity.
𝜙 𝑁𝐴⃗𝐵
𝐼𝑆⃗ = =
𝐼 𝑘
• voltage sensitivity.
𝜙 𝜙 𝑁𝐴⃗𝐵
𝑉𝑆⃗ = = =
𝑉 𝐼𝑅 𝑘𝑅
𝐼𝑆⃗
𝑉𝑆⃗ =
𝑅
12. Conversion a galvanometer into an ammeter of given range.
• This can be done by connecting a low resistance in parallel (shunt S) with
the galvanometer.
• 𝐼𝑔𝐺
𝑆⃗ =
(𝐼−𝐼𝑔)

• Effective resistance of the converted ammeter (𝑅𝐴⃗)

𝐺𝑆⃗
𝑅𝐴⃗ =
𝐺 + 𝑆⃗
13. Conversion a galvanometer into a voltmeter of given range
• This can be done by connecting a high resistance in series with the
galvanometer.
𝑉
𝑅= −𝐺
𝐼𝑔
The effective resistance of the converted voltmeter is 𝑅𝑉 = 𝑅 + 𝐺

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QUESTIONS
1 mark

1. What is the magnitude of the force experienced by a stationary charge in a uniform

magnetic field?
2. A moving neutron enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly. What is the force
on the neutron due to the magnetic field?
3. An electron beam is moving vertically upwards. It passes through a magnetic field
directed from south to north in a horizontal plane. In which direction the beam will
be deflected?
4. Does a current carrying coil produce a uniform magnetic field?
5. There are two identical galvanometers. One is converted into an ammeter and the
other into a milliammeter. Which of the shunts will be larger resistance?
6. A body is suspended from the lower end of a vertical spring. A direct current is
passed through the spring. What will happen?
7. A charge of 3C is moving with a velocity 𝑣⃗ = (4𝑖 + 3𝑗̂)𝑚𝑠−1in a magnetic field
⃗⃗ = (4𝑖 + 3𝑗̂)𝑇. What is the force acting on the charge?
𝐵
8. An 𝛼 particle and a 𝛽 particle are projected with the same velocity perpendicular to a
magnetic field. Which one will experience more force?
9. An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform electrostatic
field in a north to south direction. Specify the direction in which a uniform magnetic
field should be set up to prevent the electron from its straight line path.
10. A solenoid 1.5cm long and 0.4cm in diameter possesses 10 turns per cm of length. A
current of 5A flows through it. Find the magnetic field at the axis inside the solenoid.

2 marks

11. An electric current passes through a long straight wire. At a distance 10 cm from the
wire , the magnetic field is 8T. Find the magnetic field at 80cm from the wire.
12. A current of 4A is passing through a long wire which
has a semi-circular loop of radius 10cm as shown in
figure. Find the magnetic field produced at the centre
of the loop.
13. A closely wound helix made of stiff wire is mounted vertically
with its lower end just touching a dish of mercury, as shown in
fig. When a current from a battery is started in the coil through
the mercury, the wire executes oscillatory motion with the lower
end jumping out of and into the mercury. Give reason.

14. In figure the straight wire AB is fixed while the loop PQRS
is free to move under the influence of the electric currents
flowing in them. In which direction does the loop begin to
move? Give reason for your answer.

15. Why is the magnetic field radial in a moving coil galvanometer? Explain how it is
achieved.
16. A straight wire of length ‘L’ carrying a current ‘I’ stays suspended horizontally in
mid-air in a region where there is a uniform magnetic field𝐵⃗⃗ . The linear mass density
of the wire is 𝜆. Obtain the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field.
17. A galvanometer of resistance 25Ω is shunted by a 2.5Ω wire. Find the part of total
current that flows through the galvanometer .

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18. The scale of a galvanometer of resistance 100Ω contains 25 divisions. It gives a
deflection of one division on passing a current of 4 × 10−4𝐴⃗. Find the resistance
required to convert it into a voltmeter of range 2.5𝑉.
19. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 10Ω and the metre shows full scale
deflection for a current of 1𝑚𝐴⃗.Find the shunt resistance required to convert the
galvanometer into an ammeter of range 0-100mA.
20. Which one of the following will describe the smallest circle when projected with the
same velocity 𝑣 perpendicular to the magnetic field 𝐵 : (i) 𝛼 particle, and (ii) 𝛽
particle?

3 Marks

21. A long wire with a small current element of 6mm is placed at the origin and carries a
current of 2A along the X-axis. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic
field due the element on the Y axis at a distance 0.2m from it.
22. A circular coil, having 100 turns of wire, of radius 20cm each, lies in the XY plane
with its centre at the origin of co-ordinates. Find the magnetic field, at the point
2
(𝑜, 𝑜, 20√3 𝑐𝑚), when the coil carries a current of ( ) 𝐴⃗.
𝜋
23. Two coaxial circular loops 𝐿1 and 𝐿2 of radii 3cm
and 4cm are placed as shown. What should be the
magnitude and direction of the current in the loop
𝐿2 so that the net magnetic field at the point O be
zero?

24. The wire shown in figure carries a current of 10A.

Determine the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre
O. Given the radius of the bent coil is 3cm.

25. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a certain place is 5× 10−5𝑇
and the direction of the field from the geographic south to north. A very long straight
conductor is carrying a steady current of 2A. What is the force per unit length on it
when it is placed on a horizontal table and the direction of the current is (a) east to west
(b) south to north?
26. What is the magnitude of the force on a wire of length 0.05m paced inside a solenoid
near its centre, making an angle of 30𝑜 with its axis? The wire carries a current of 8A
and the magnetic field due to the solenoid is of magnitude 0.50T.
27.
A rectangular loop of wire of size 2𝑐𝑚 × 5𝑐𝑚 carries a steady
current of 1A. A straight long wire carrying 4A current is kept
near the loop as shown in figure. If the loop and the wire are
coplanar, find (i) the torque acting on the loop and (ii) the
magnitude and direction of the force on the loop due to the current
carrying wire.

28. A moving coil galvanometer has the following particulars: Number of turns, 𝑁 = 24;
Area of the coil, 𝐴⃗ = 20 × 10−3𝑚2; magnetic field strength, 𝐵 = 0.20𝑇 ; Resistance
of the coil, 𝑅 = 14Ω.
(i) Indicate a simple way to increase the current sensitivity of the meter by
25%. (It is not east to change A or B).

77
(ii) If in doing so, the resistance of the coil increases to 21Ω , is the voltage
sensitivity of the modified meter greater or less than the original meter?
29. To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by 50%, its
resistance is increased so that the new resistance becomes twice its initial resistance.
By what factor does its voltage sensitivity change?
30. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter of certain range by connecting a
resistance of 980Ω in series with it. When the resistance is 470Ω connected in series,
the range is halved. Find the resistance of the galvanometer.

5 marks

31. a) State Biot – Savart law. Using this law, find expression for the magnetic field
at a point on the axis of a circular current carrying coil.
b) From the above result obtain an equation for magnetic field at the centre of
the coil.
c) Schematically represent the direction of the magnetic field lines through a
coil carrying current. Also mention the law used to find the direction.
32. a) Using Ampere’s circuital law obtain an equation for magnetic field due to
straight current carrying conductor.
b) Derive an equation for magnetic field well inside a solenoid using the above
law.
33. a) Show that the path of a charged particle moving inside a uniform electric field
with initial velocity perpendicular to the field is parabolic.
b) An 𝛼 particle is describing a circle of radius 0.45m in a magnetic field of
strength 1.2T. Find its speed and frequency. (Use the known values of mass
and charge of 𝛼 particle).
34. a) Describe the principle, construction and working of a moving coil
galvanometer.
b) ‘Increasing the current sensitivity may not necessarily increase the voltage
sensitivity.’ Justify the statement.
35. a) Derive an expression for torque acting on a rectangular current carrying loop
placed in a uniform magnetic field.
b) What is magnetic dipole moment? Write its SI unit and dimensions.
36. a) How can a galvanometer be converted into a voltmeter of required range?
b) How can a galvanometer be converted into an ammeter of required range?
37. a) Obtain an equation for current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer.
b) Obtain an equation for voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer.
c) Write any 3 methods to improve the sensitivity of a galvanometer.
38. a) Find an expression for force per unit length between two parallel current
carrying conductors.
b) Define ampere using the above expression.
39. a) Write an equation for force acting on a moving charge inside a uniform
magnetic field.
b) Using the concept derive an equation for force acting on a current carrying
conductor kept inside a magnetic field.
40. Show that a current carrying loop behaves as a magnetic dipole. Hence write an
expression for its magnetic dipole moment.

MCQ
41. A straight wire carrying a current of 12A is bent into a semicircular arc
of radius 2cm as shown in fig. The magnitude of magnetic field at the
center O of the arc is

78
𝑎) 1.89 × 10−4 𝑇 𝑏) 1.72 × 10−3𝑇 𝑐) 4.25 𝑑) 2.1 × 10−5 𝑇
× 10 𝑇
−6

42. A and B are two concentric coils of centre O and carry currents 𝐼1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2 as shown in fig. If the
ratio of their radii is 1:2 and ratio of the flux densities at O due to A and B is 1:3, then value of 𝐼1 is
𝐼2
𝑎) 1 /4 𝑏) 1 /3 𝑐)1 /6 𝑑)1 /2
43. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its plane
becomes
a) Inclined at 45𝑜 to the magnetic field.
b) Inclined at 30𝑜 to the magnetic field.
c) Parallel to the magnetic field.
d) Perpendicular to the magnetic field.
44. To make the magnetic field radial in a moving coil galvanometer
a) Poles are cylindrically cut.
b) The number of turns in the coil is increased.
c) Coil is wound on Aluminium frame.
d) Phosphor bronze spring is used.
45. A neutron, a proton, an 𝛼 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒 and an electron enter a region of
constant magnetic field with equal velocities. The magnetic field is along
the inward normal to the plane of the paper. The tracks of the particles are
labelled in figure. The electron follows track…. and the alpha particle
follows track….

𝑎) 𝐴⃗, 𝐶 𝑏) 𝐶, 𝐴⃗ 𝑐) 𝐵, 𝐷 𝑑) 𝐷, 𝐵
46. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter of given range, a resistance is connected in
with the galvanometer.
𝑎) 𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑏) 𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 𝑐) ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ , 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑑) ℎ𝑖𝑔ℎ , 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙
47. A certain electric motor wire that carries a current of 4A is perpendicular to a magnetic field of
0.8T. What is the force on each cm of the wire?
𝑎) 0.08𝑁 𝑏) 0.06𝑁 𝑐) 0.03𝑁 𝑑) 0.01𝑁
48. Two parallel wires of 9m each are separated by a distance of 0.15m. If they carry equal currents in
the same direction and exert a total force of 30 × 10−7𝑁 on each other, then the value of current
must be
𝑎) 2.5𝐴⃗ 𝑏) 3.5𝐴⃗ 𝑐) 1.5𝐴⃗ 𝑑) 0.5𝐴⃗
49. ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗
In a certain region of space, the electric field 𝐸 and magnetic field 𝐵 are perpendicular to each
other. An electron enters perpendicularly to both the fields and moves undeflected. The velocity of
the electron is
𝑎) (𝐸 )/𝐵 𝑏) (𝐵 )/𝐸 𝑐) 𝐸⃗⃗ × 𝐵
⃗⃗ 𝑑) ⃗𝐸⃗⃗⃗⃗. 𝐵
⃗⃗
50. An electron is moving in a region of electric field and magnetic field, it will gain energy from,

𝑎) 𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑏) 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑 𝑐) 𝑏𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑𝑠 𝑑) 𝑛𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

51. Velocity selector is an arrangement used to select charged particles of a specific velocity from a
beam in which particles move with different speeds. It consists of a region of crossed electric and
magnetic fields. These two fields are perpendicular to each other. In the figure, the electric field is
upwards. Magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper and coming outward.

79
The positively charged particle is deflected upwards (towards the negative plate) with a force, 𝐹𝐸 =
𝑞𝐸
This particle is deflected downwards with
a force
𝐹𝐵 = 𝑞𝑣𝐵
When these two forces are equal the particle is not
deflected in any direction.
𝑞𝑣𝐵 = 𝑞𝐸

𝐸
𝑣=
𝐵
Hence particles with velocity ‘v ’ only will be coming out through the straight path. Velocity
selector is used in accelerator mass spectroscopy to select particles of a particular velocity
Answer the following questions.
1. The magnetic field employed in a velocity selector is 25T and the electric field is 200N/C.
This can select particles of velocity
𝑎) 10𝑚/𝑠
𝑏) 3𝑚/𝑠
𝑐) 8𝑚/𝑠
𝑑) 80𝑚/𝑠
2. Instead of a positive charge let an electron enter into the same arrangement as shown in
figure. The electrons will be deflected by the electric field and magnetic field respectively in
directions:
𝑎) 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
𝑏) 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
𝑐) 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
𝑑) 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑
3. Let the magnetic field direction is reversed in the above arrangement. Magnetic field is
directed into the plane of the paper. Then the positive charge will be
𝑎) 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠
𝑏) 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠
𝑐) 𝑢𝑛 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑
𝑑) 𝑚𝑜𝑣𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑎 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ
4. You are requested to select only particles with velocity 10m/s in the selector. The magnetic
field provided is 25T. What should be the surface charge density given to the parallel sheets
to produce the required electric field.
𝑎) 3.5 × 10−9𝐶𝑚−2

80
𝑏) 4.4 × 10−9𝐶𝑚−2
𝑐) 6.9 × 10−9𝐶𝑚−2
𝑑) 2.2 × 10−9𝐶𝑚−2
52. A uniform magnetic field 3000G is established along the positive Z direction. A rectangular loop of sides
10cm and 5cm carries a current of 12A.

1. The
magnitude of the
magnetic dipole
moment is

𝑎) 0.06𝐴⃗𝑚2
𝑏) 0.09𝐴⃗𝑚2
𝑐) 6.06𝐴⃗𝑚2
𝑑) 2.86𝐴⃗𝑚2
2. The torque acting on loop in figure (a) is
𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑏) 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑐) − 1.8 × 10 −2 𝑘𝑁𝑚
𝑑. 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
3. The torque acting on loop in figure (b) is
𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑏) 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑐) − 1.8 × 10 −2 𝑘𝑁𝑚
𝑑. 𝑁𝑜 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑞𝑢𝑒
4. The torque acting on loop in figure (e) is
𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
𝑏) 𝑁𝑜 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑞𝑢𝑒
𝑐) − 3.6 × 10 −2 𝑘𝑁𝑚
𝑑. 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚

53.
When a conductor carrying a current is placed in an external
magnetic field, it experiences a mechanical force. A current is
an assembly of moving charges and a magnetic field exerts a
force on a moving charge. That is why a current carrying
conductor when placed in a magnetic field experiences a
sideways force as the force experienced by the moving
electrons is transmitted to the conductor as a whole. A
conductor of length ′𝑙′ carrying a current ′𝐼′ held in a magnetic
field 𝐵⃗ ⃗ at an angle 𝜃 with it, experiences a force given by
𝐹 = 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
In vector form,⃗𝐹⃗ = 𝐼(𝑙⃗ × 𝐵⃗⃗ )
The direction of ⃗𝐹⃗ is perpendicular to both𝑙⃗ & 𝐵⃗⃗ and is given by Fleming’s left -hand rule. A conducting bar
with mass ′𝑚′ and length ′𝑙′ slides over horizontal rails that are connected to voltage source ′𝑉′.the source
maintains a constant current ′𝐼′ in the rails and bar, and a uniform magnetic field 𝐵⃗ ⃗ acts in the region
between the rails vertically upwards.
Answer the following questions.
1. Ignoring friction, air resistance and electrical resistances, the magnitude and direction of the net
force on the conducting bar is

81
𝑎) 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
𝑏) 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑓𝑡
𝑐) 2𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
𝑑) 2𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑓𝑡
2. If the bar has mass ‘𝑚’, find the distance ‘𝑑’ that the bar must move along the rails from rest to attain
speed ‘𝑣’.
3𝑣2𝑚 5𝑣2𝑚 𝑣2𝑚 𝑣2𝑚
𝑎) 𝑏) 𝑐) 𝑑)
2𝐼𝑙𝐵 2𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝐼𝑙𝐵 2𝐼𝑙𝐵

3. A force acting on a conductor of length 5m carrying a current of 8A kept perpendicular to the

magnetic field of 1.5T is

𝑎) 100𝑁 𝑏) 60𝑁 𝑐) 50𝑁 𝑑) 75𝑁

4. A straight wire of mass 200g and length 1.5m carries a current of 2A. It is suspended in mid - air by
a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. The magnitude of B in tesla is
𝑎) 2 𝑏) 1.5 𝑐) 0.55 𝑑) 0.65

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). While answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation

of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation

of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1. Assertion: When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled, its magnetic moment becomes
four times.
Reason: Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop.
2. Assertion: When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, only a torque acts on
the dipole.
Reason: Force would also act on dipole if magnetic field were uniform .
3. Assertion: The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two pieces.
Reason: The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is broken into two equal
pieces.
4. Assertion: Magnetic moment of an atom is due to both, the orbital motion and spin motion of every
electron.
Reason : All charged particles produce a magnetic field.
5. Assertion: The coils of a spring come close to each other, when current is passed through it.
Reason: The coils of a spring carry current in the same direction and hence attract each other.
6. Assertion: If an electron and proton enter a magnetic field with equal momentum, then the paths of
both of them will be equally curved.
Reason: The magnitude of charge on an electron is same as that on a proton.
7. Assertion: Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies inversely as the distance from
it.
Reason: The magnetic field due to a straight conductor is in the form of

82
concentric circles.
8. Assertion: Force experienced by moving charge will be maximum if direction of velocity of charge
is parallel to applied magnetic field.
Reason: Force on moving charge is independent of direction of applied
magnetic field.
9. Assertion : The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying solenoid is half of that at
the centre.
Reason : If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.
10. Assertion : If the current in a solenoid is reversed in direction while keeping the same magnitude,
the magnetic field energy stored in the solenoid remains unchanged.
Reason : Magnetic field energy density is proportional to the magnetic field.

ANSWERS
A&R ANS

1 a
2 d
3 b
4 c
5 a
6 a
7 b
8 d
9. b
10. c

ANSWERS/HINTS
1. Zero ( Reason ,v=0 )
2. Zero ( reason q=0)
3. South ( Hint , Fleming’s left hand rule)
4. No, however at the centre of the coil, the magnetic field is nearly uniform.
5. Milli ammeter.(Reason: It need to measure only less current and hence its resistance
can be higher.)
6. The body will be lifted upwards.
(Reason: The direction of current through each turn of the coil is same. Parallel
currents in the same direction attract each other. Hence the coils contract.)

83
7. 𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒, 𝐹⃗ = 𝑞(𝑣⃗ × 𝐵⃗⃗ ) = 0
Cross product of two equal vectors is zero.
8. 𝐹⃗ = 𝑞(𝑣⃗ × 𝐵⃗⃗ )

𝐹⃗ ∞𝑞
𝛼 particle has more charge than 𝛽particle. Hence 𝛼 particle will experience more
force.
9. Magnetic field must act in vertically down ward direction.
(Hint: Apply Fleming’s left hand rule)
10. 2𝜋 × 10−3𝑇
1
11. 1𝑇 (𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡 ∶ 𝐵 ∝ )
𝑟
𝜇𝑜𝐼
12. 4𝜋 × 10−6𝑇 (𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐵 = )
4𝑅
13. • The windings of the helix carry currents in the same direction.
• They exert attractive forces pulling the lower end out of the mercury.
• Hence circuit breaks and the current and force disappears.
• The helix then regains its original condition.
• Then the lower end again dips in mercury.
• Then current starts and the process repeats.
14. • The currents in QR and PS have no effect on AB.
• There is a force of attraction between AB and PQ.
• There is repulsion between AB and RS.
• But PQ is closer to AB. Hence attraction is stronger.
• Hence the loop begins to move towards AB.
15. (Find from text book)
16. 𝐷𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 − 𝐻𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒.
𝜆𝑔
𝐵=
𝐼
17. 𝐼𝑔 1
=
𝐼 11
18. 150Ω
19. (0.1Ω)
𝑚
20. ( 𝛽 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒. 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝑟 ∞ )
𝑞

21. 𝐵 = 3 × 10−8𝑇
Direction – Perpendicular to the plane of the paper outwards.
𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡 ∶ 𝐵𝑖𝑜𝑡 − 𝑆⃗𝑎𝑣𝑎𝑟𝑡 𝑙𝑎𝑤 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛

84
22. 𝐵 = 25𝜇𝑇
23. 𝜇𝑜𝐼𝑎2
𝐼2 = 0.56𝐴⃗, 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐵 = 3
2(𝑎2 + 𝑥2)2
24. 3 𝜇𝑜𝐼
𝐵 = 1.57 × 10−3𝑇, 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝐵 = ×
4 2𝑅
𝐹
25. (𝑎), 𝑓 = 10−4𝑁𝑚−1, (𝑏)𝑧𝑒𝑟𝑜. 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝑓 = = 𝐼𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
𝑙
26. 𝐹 = 0.1𝑁, 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐹 = 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
27. (𝑖)𝜏 = 0, (𝑖𝑖)𝐹 = 2.67𝜇𝑁, 𝑡𝑜𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒
28. (𝑖)𝑁 𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑑 𝑏𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑑 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 24 𝑡𝑜 30. 𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝐼𝑠 ∞𝑁
(𝑖𝑖)𝑀𝑜𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑑 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 ℎ𝑎𝑠 𝑙𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦
𝑁
𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: 𝑉𝑠 ∞
𝑅
29. 𝑉𝑠, = 0.75𝑉𝑠; 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑠 𝑏𝑦 25%.
30. 𝐺 = 40Ω
𝑉 𝑉
𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: =
980 + 𝐺 2(470 + 𝐺)
41. 𝑎) 1.89 × 10−4 𝑇
42. 𝑐)1 /6
43. d) Perpendicular to the magnetic field.
44. a) Poles are cylindrically cut
45. 𝑑) 𝐷, 𝐵
46 𝑏) 𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙
47. 𝑐) 0.03𝑁
48 𝑑) 0.5𝐴⃗
49 𝑎) (𝐸 )/𝐵
50 𝑏) 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑
51. 1. 𝑐) 8𝑚/𝑠
2. 𝑏) 𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑, 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑 3. 𝑎) 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑢𝑝𝑤𝑎𝑟𝑑𝑠
4. 𝑑) 2.2 × 10−9𝐶𝑚−2
52. 1. 𝑎) 0.06𝐴⃗𝑚2
2. 𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚 3. 𝑎) − 1.8 × 10−2𝑗̂𝑁𝑚
4. 𝑏) 𝑁𝑜 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑞𝑢𝑒
53. 1. 𝑎) 𝐼𝑙𝐵 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
𝑣2𝑚
2. 𝑑) 3. 𝑏) 60𝑁
2𝐼𝑙𝐵
4. 𝑑) 0.65

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86
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1. How does the pole strength and magnetic moment of each part of a bar magnet change if it is cut into
two equal pieces transverse to its length.
2. Can two magnetic lines of force intersect? Justify your answer.
3. Magnetic lines of force always forms closed loops. Comment.
4. How are magnetic field lines different from electrostatic field lines.
5. Why is a current loop considered a magnetic dipole?
6. Why is diamagnetism independent of temperature?
7. What happens when a diamagnetic substance is placed in a varying magnetic field?
8. How can paramagnetic and diamagnetic material rods be distinguished in a magnetic field?
9. An iron bar is heated to 1000°C and then cooled in a magnetic field free space-will it retain magnetism?
10. A certain region is to be shielded from magnetic fields. Suggest a method.
2 MARK QUESTIONS

1. A coil of N turns and radius R carries a current I. It is unwound and rewound to make another coil of
radius R/2, current remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new coil and
the original coil.
2. Define ‘intensity of magnetization’ of a magnetic material. How does it vary with temperature for a
paramagnetic material?
3. Two identical bars, one of paramagnetic material and other of diamagnetic material are kept in a
uniform external magnetic field parallel to it. Draw diagrammatically the modifications in the magnetic
field pattern in each case.
4. State any four properties of magnetic field lines.
5. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -0.085. Identify the magnetic type of the substance. A
specimen of this material is kept in a uniform magnetic field. Draw the modified field pattern.
6. A bar magnet is held perpendicular to a uniform field, Find the angle by which the magnet is to be
rotated so that the torque acting on it becomes half.
7. A magnet of magnetic moment 2J/T is aligned in the direction of magnetic field of 0.1T, What is the net
work done to bring the magnet normal to the magnetic field?
8. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30º with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.50T
experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 9.0x10-2J. What is the magnetic moment of the magnet?
9. Three identical specimens of magnetic materials Nickel, Antimony, Aluminium are kept in a uniform
magnetic field. Draw the modification in the field lines in each case. Justify your answer.
10. The relative magnetic permeability of a magnetic material is 800. Identify the nature of the magnetic
material and state its two properties.

87
3 MARK QUESTIONS
1. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and M√3 are joined to form a cross. The combination is
suspended in a uniform magnetic field B. The magnetic moment M now makes an angle θ with the field
direction. Find the value of angle θ.

2. The magnetic moment of a current loop is 2.1x10-25Am2. Find the magnetic field on the axis of the loop
at a distance of 1.0Aº from the loop.
3. An iron ring of relative permeability µr has windings of insulated copper wire of n turns per metre.
When the current in the windings is I, find the expression for the magnetic field in the ring.
4. What is the basic difference between the atom or molecule of a diamagnetic and paramagnetic material?
5. From molecular point of view, discuss the temperature dependence of susceptibility for diamagnetism,
paramagnetism and ferromagnetism.
6. A ball of superconducting material is dipped in liquid nitrogen and placed near a bar magnet. (i) In which
direction will it move? (ii) What will be the direction of its magnetic moment?
7. The following figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetization versus the applied magnetic field
intensity, H, for two magnetic materials A and B.

(a) Identify the materials A and B

(b) For the material A, plot the variation of
intensity of magnetisation versus temperature.

8. The following figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation versus the applied magnetic field
intensity, H, for two magnetic materials A and B.
a) Identify the material A and B b) Draw the variation of susceptibility with temperature for B.

9. A planar loop of irregular shape encloses an area of 7.5x10-4 m2 and carries a current of 12A. The sense
of flow of current appears to be clockwise to an observer. What is the magnitude and direction of the
magnetic moment vector associated with the current loop?

88
11. A current of 3A flows through a plane circular coil of radius 4cm and having 20 number of turns. The
coil has been placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5T. Find 1) dipole moment of the coil 2) potential
energy of the dipole.

ANSWER KEY
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1.i) pole strength remains same.
ii)magnetic moment of each part is halved.
2. No
3. Magnetic poles always exist in pairs.
4. Electric field lines do not form closed loops, but magnetic field lines form closed loops.
5. A current loop possesses a magnetic dipole moment and it experiences a torque in a magnetic field.
6. The induced dipole moment in a diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the magnetising field no
matter what the internal motion of the atom is.
7. Tend to move from stronger to weaker parts of the field.
8. When suspended freely in a magnetic field the paramagnetic rod sets itself parallel to the field and the
diamagnetic rod sets itself perpendicular to the field.
9. Iron loses its magnetism when heated to 1000°C and it does regain its magnetism.
10. Surround the region by soft iron rings. Magnetic field lines will be drawn into the rings, and the
enclosed space will be free of magnetic field.
2 MARK QUESTIONS
1. If L is the length of the wire, then
L = N×(2πR) = N′ 2πR/2
Let the number of turns in new coil be N′=2N
Original magnetic moment, M=NIA= NIπR2
New magnetic moment,
M′ = N′IA′ = 2NI × (πR/2)2 = NI × πR2/2
M′/M = 1/2= 1:2
2. The intensity of magnetization of a paramagnetic material varies inversely with its temperature.
3. i) A para magnetic material develops feeble magnetization in the direction of the magnetizing field.
Hence the lines of force become denser in the paramagnetic material.
ii)Lines of force become less dense in the diamagnetic material.
4. a) magnetic field lines are closed curves.
b) never cross each other.
c) tangent to the field line at any point gives the direction of magnetic field in that region.
d) relative closeness of the field line gives the strength of the field.
5. As the susceptibility has a small negative value, the given material is diamagnetic in nature.

89
6. τ1=mB sin 90=mB
Τ2=mB sinθ=mB/2
Sinθ=1/2 θ=30º
7. W=MB(cosθ1-cosθ2)
=2x0.1x(cos0-cos90)
=0.2J
8. m=τ/Bsinθ
=9.0x10-2 /0.5xsin30
=0.36J/T
9. Nickel -ferromagnetic
Antimony-diamagnetic
Aluminium-paramagnetic
10.As relative magnetic permeability is large, it is ferromagnetic.
1) they are strongly attracted by magnets.
2)susceptibility is positive and large.
3 MARK QUESTIONS
1. In the position of equilibrium
MBsinθ= √3 MBsin(90-θ) =√3 MBcosθ
2. The current loop is a magnetic dipole.
So Baxial=µ0 2m/4πr3 =4.2X10-2 T
3. The magnetic field inside the ring has constant magnitude and tangential direction at every point.
Total number of turns in the windings=2πrn
I enclosed =2πrnI
From Amperes circuital law, we have
BX2πr=µ0 µrx2πrnI
B=µ0µr nI
4. In a diamagnetic substance, the electrons occur in pairs and their magnetic moments cancel out. The net
magnetic moment of the atom is zero.
In a paramagnetic substance, the atoms have a net dipole moment due to the presence of some unpaired
electron or due to the non-cancellation of the spins of two electrons.
5. Diamagnetism is due to orbital motion of electrons developing magnetic moments opposite to applied
field and hence is not much affected by temperature.
Para magnetism and ferromagnetism is due to alignments of atomic magnetic moments in the direction of
the applied field. As temperature increases, this alignment is disturbed and hence susceptibilities of both
decrease as temperature increases.
6. As the ball is dipped in liquid nitrogen, its temperature becomes less than the critical

90
temperature and it becomes a super conductor and it becomes diamagnetic. The ball moves away
from the bar magnet.
7. The slop of the graph gives susceptibility of the material. Material A is paramagnetic and material B is
ferromagnetic.

8. For material A, the susceptibility is small and positive, so it is paramagnetic.

For material B the susceptibility is small and negative, so it is diamagnetic.

9. Magnetic moment associated with the loop is m=IA

=12X7.5X10-4 =9.0X10-3J/T
The direction of magnetic moment is along the normal to the plane of the loop away from the observer.
10 1). m=NIA=0.3 Am2
2) U= -mB=-0.15J

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS(5MARKS)

1. Derive an expression for the torque experienced by a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field.
Hence obtain the expression for potential energy of the dipole.
2. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.16 T
experience a torque of magnitude 0.032 J. (a) estimate the magnetic moment of the magnet. (b) If the
bar were free to rotate, which orientation would correspond to its (i) stable (ii) unstable equilibrium?
(c) What is its potential energy in the field for (i) stable (ii) unstable equilibrium?
3. (a)Distinguish the magnetic properties of dia, para and ferromagnetic substances in terms of (i)
susceptibility (ii) permeability. Give one example of each of these materials.
(b) Draw the field lines due to an external magnetic field near a (i) diamagnetic (ii) ferromagnetic
substance
(c) Why does the magnetisation of a paramagnetic material decrease on cooling?
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 mark)
1. The domain formation is a necessary feature of
(a) diamagnetism
(b) Para magnetism
(c) ferromagnetism

91
(d) all of these

2. A bar magnet is cut into two equal halves by a plane parallel to the magnetic axis. Of the following
physical quantities, the one which remains unchanged is
(a) pole strength
(b) magnetic moment
(c) intensity of magnetisation
(d) None of these
3. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
(b) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(c) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(d) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic
4. The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material is χ at 27°C. At what temperature will its susceptibility be
0.5 χ ?
(a) 54°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 600°C
(d) 237°C
5. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are εr and μr, respectively. Which of the following
values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?
(a) εr=1.5, µr=0.5
(b) εr=0.5, µr=0.5
(c) εr=1.5, µr=1.5
(d) εr=0.5, µr=1.5
6. Consider the given statements with respect to the figure showing a bar of diamagnetic material placed
in an external magnetic field.

I. The field lines are repelled or expelled and the field inside the material is reduced
II. When placed in a non–uniform magnetic field, the bar will tend to move from high to low field.
III. Reduction in the field inside the material is slight, being one part in 105.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) I and III

92
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III
7. If a magnetic dipole of moment M situated in the direction of a magnetic field B is rotated by 180°, then
the amount of work done is
(a) MB
(b) 2MB

9. The relative permeability of a medium is 0.075. What is its

magnetic susceptibility?
(a) 0.925
(b) – 0.925
(c) 1.075
(d) -1.075
11. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance
respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will
(a) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
(b) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
(c) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly
(d) attract all three of them
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

93
1) Assertion: If a compass needle be kept at magnetic north pole of the earth the compass needle may stay in
any direction.
Reason: Dip needle will stay vertical at the north pole of earth
ANSWER: (b)
2) Assertion: Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
Reason: Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.
ANSWER: (c)
3) Assertion: Electromagnetic are made of soft iron.
Reason: Coercivity of soft iron is small.
ANSWER: (b)
4) Assertion: A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetic field) when cooled.
Reason: The magnetisation does not depend on temperature.
ANSWER: (d)
5) Assertion: The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two pieces.
Reason: The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is broken into two equal pieces.
ANSWER: (b)

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1. In small fields, ferromagnetic materials typically have much larger susceptibility, and therefore larger
permeability than paramagnetic materials. Ferromagnetism results because of spontaneous, self-
aligning, cooperative interaction among relatively large number of iron atoms in regions called
domains. As a result of molecular interactions the molecular magnetic moments in each domain are
aligned parallel to one another. In other words, each domain is spontaneously magnetised to saturation
even in the absence of any external magnetic field. The directions of magnetisation in different
domains are random, so that the resultant magnetisation is zero and the specimen is un-magnetised.

(i) What changes will occur in specimen on placing it inside a solenoid and increasing H
(magnetising intensity)?
(a) Intensity of magnetisation decreases
(b) Intensity of magnetisation increases
(c) Magnetic susceptibility of specimen increases
(d) Magnetic susceptibility of specimen decreases
(ii) With an increase in temperature, magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic
material
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases and then decreases

94
(iii) For a diamagnetic material, which of the following option is correct?
(a) Magnetic susceptibility < 0
(b) Magnetic susceptibility > 0
(c) Magnetic susceptibility = 0
(d) Magnetic susceptibility = 1
(iv) The property possessed by a ferromagnetic substance only is
(a) Hysteresis
(b) Susceptibility
(c) Directional property
(d) Strong attraction of magnetic substance
2. By analogy to Gauss’s law of electrostatics, we can write Gauss’s law of magnetism as ∫ B. dS = 0.
We do not have an isolated magnetic pole in nature. At least none has been found to exist till date.
The smallest unit of source of magnetic field is a magnetic dipole where the net magnetic pole is
zero. Hence, the net magnetic pole enclosed by any closed surface is always zero. Correspondingly,
the flux of the magnetic field through any close surface is zero.

Consider the two idealised systems:

(i) (I) A parallel plate capacitor with large plates and small separation and
(II) A long solenoid of length L>>R the radius of cross section.
In case (I) 𝐸̅ is ideally treated as a constant between the plates and zero outside. In (II)
magnetic field B is constant inside the solenoid and zero outside. These idealised assumptions,
however, contradict fundamental laws as
(a) Case (I) agrees with ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝑙 = 0
(b) Case (II) contradicts ∫ 𝐵. 𝑑𝑙 = I
(c) Case (II) contradicts Gauss’s law for magnetic fields
(d) Case (I) contradicts Gauss’s law for electrostatic fields.
(ii) Net magnetic flux through any closed surface kept in a magnetic field is
(a) Zero
(b) µ0/2𝜋
(c) 2𝜋𝜇0
(d) 4 𝜇0/𝜋

95
(iii) A closed surface S encloses a magnetic dipole of magnetic moment 2ml. The magnetic flux
emerging from the surface
(a) µ0 m
(b) 2 µ0 m
(c) 2m/ µ0
(d) Zero
(iv) The surface integral of a magnetic field over a surface is
(a) Proportional to mass enclosed
(b) Proportional to charge enclosed
(c) Zero
(d) Equal to its magnetic flux through that surface
3. Before the 19th century, scientists believed that magnetic properties were confined to a few materials
like iron, cobalt and nickel. But in 1846, Curie and Faraday discovered that all the materials in the
universe are magnetic to some extent. These magnetic substances are categorised in two groups. Weak
magnetic materials are called diamagnetic and para magnetic materials. Strong magnetic materials
are called ferromagnetic materials. According to the modern theory of magnetism, the magnetic
response of any material is due to circulating electrons in the atoms. Each such electron has a magnetic
moment in a direction perpendicular to the plane of circulation. In magnetic materials all these
magnetic moments due to the orbit and spin motion of all the electrons in any atom vectorially add
up to a resultant magnetic moment. The magnitude and direction of these resultant magnetic moment
is responsible for the behaviour of the materials. For diamagnetic materials χ is small and negative
and for paramagnetic materials χ is small and positive. Ferromagnetic materials have a large χ and are
characterised by non–linear relation between 𝐵̅and 𝐻̅.
(i) The universal (or inherent) property among all substance is
(a) Diamagnetism
(b) Para magnetism
(c) Ferromagnetism
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(ii) When a bar is placed near a strong magnetic field and it is repelled, then the material of the
bar is
(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Ferromagnetic
(c) Paramagnetic
(d) Anti-ferromagnetic
(iii) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
(a) Decreases with temperature
(b) Is not affected by temperature
(c) Increases with temperature
(d) First increases then decreases with temperature

96
(iv) For a para magnetic material, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility χ on the absolute
temperature is given as
(a) χ ∝ T
(b) χ ∝ 1/T2
(c) χ ∝ 1/T
(d) independent
4. There exists a perfect diamagnet, namely, a superconductor. This is a metal at very low
temperatures. In this case χ = –1, µr = 0, µ= 0. The external magnetic field is totally expelled.
Interestingly, this material is also a perfect conductor. However, there exists no classical theory
which ties these two properties together. A quantum-mechanical theory by Bardeen, Cooper, and
Schrieffer (BCS theory) explains these effects. The BCS theory was proposed in1957 and was
eventually recognised by a Nobel Prize in physics in 1970.

1. The value of magnetic susceptibility for a superconductor is

(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) +1
(d) -1
2. Superconductors are
(a) Insulators
(b) Semiconductors
(c) Conductors
(d) Perfect conductors
3. Resistance of a superconductor is
(a) Infinite
(b) Zero
(c) Maximum
(d) Minimum
4. Which of the following is a property of superconductors?
(a) Meissner Effect
(b) Hall Effect
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Doppler effect

97
5. A magnet is a material or object that produces a magnetic field. This magnetic field is invisible but
is responsible for the most notable property of a magnet: a force that pulls on other ferromagnetic
materials, such as iron, steel, nickel, cobalt, etc. and attracts or repels other magnets.
A permanent magnet is an object made from a material that is magnetized and creates its own
persistent magnetic field. An everyday example is a refrigerator magnet used to hold notes on
a refrigerator door. Materials that can be magnetized, which are also the ones that are strongly
attracted to a magnet, are called ferromagnetic (or ferrimagnetic). The resemblance of magnetic
field lines for a bar magnet and a solenoid suggest that a bar magnet may be thought of as a
large number of circulating currents in analogy with a solenoid. Cutting a bar magnet in half is
like cutting a solenoid. We get two smaller solenoids with weaker magnetic properties. The
field lines remain continuous, emerging from one face of the solenoid and entering into the
other face. One can test this analogy by moving a small compass needle in the neighbourhood
of a bar magnet and a current-carrying finite solenoid and noting that the deflections of the
needle is similar in both cases.

The arrangement of iron filings surrounding a

bar magnet. The pattern mimics magnetic field
lines. The pattern suggests that the bar magnet
is a magnetic dipole.

(a) What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two pieces: (i) transverse to its length, (ii) along its length?
(b) A magnetised needle in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque but no net force. An iron nail
near a bar magnet, however, experiences a force of attraction in addition to a torque. Why?
(c) Must every magnetic configuration have a north pole and a south pole?
(d) Two identical looking iron bars A and B are given, one of which is definitely known to be
magnetised. (We do not know which one.) How would one ascertain whether or not both are
magnetised? If only one is magnetised, how does one ascertain which one? [Use nothing else
but the bars A and B.]
Answers to LAQs
1. Torque=MxB (derivation)
PE = M.B
2. (a)Magnetic moment M= τ/Bsinθ = 0.032/0.16*sin 30 = 0.40J/T
(b)In stable equilibrium potential energy is minimum or θ=0. So the bar will be in stable equilibrium
when magnetic moment M is parallel to B.
It will be in unstable equilibrium when M is antiparallel to B or θ=180°.
(c)PE in stable equilibrium is minimum=-MB= -0.4*0.16 = -0.064J
PE in unstable equilibrium is maximum=+MB= 0.4*0.16 = +0.064J

98
3.
diamagnetic paramagnetic ferromagnetic
susceptibility Small and negative Small and positive Very large and positive
permeability µ<µ0 µ>µ0 µ>>µ0

Field lines

( c)The magnetisation increases as temperature decreases because the tendency to disrupt the
alignment of dipoles (with the magnetising field) arising from random thermal motion is reduced at
lower temperature.
Answer to MCQs
1. Answer ( c)
2. Answer ( c)
3. Answer (a)
4. Answer (b)
χ1/χ2=T2/T1
χ/0.5χ=T/300
T = 600K= 327°c
5. Answer (a) εr>1, µr<1
6. Answer (d)
7. Answer (b)
Work done in rotating the magnetic dipole from
position 𝜃1= 0° to 𝜃2= 180°
W = MB (cos𝜃1– cos𝜃2)
W = MB (cos0 – cos 180°) = 2MB
8. Answer (c) Magnetism of a magnet falls with rise of temperature and becomes practically
zero above curie temperature

9. Answer (b) χ=µr-1= 0.075-1= -0.925

10. Answer (b)

Answers to CBQs
1. (i) b
(ii) a
(iii) a
(iv) d

99
2. (i) c
(ii) a
(iii) d
(iv) c
3. (i) a
(ii) a
(iii) b
(iv) c
4. (i) d
(ii) d
(iii) b
(iv) a
5. (i)In either case, one gets two magnets, each with a north and south pole.
(ii) No force if the field is uniform. The iron nail experiences a non-uniform field due to the bar magnet.
There is induced magnetic moment in the nail, therefore, it experiences both force and torque. The net
force is attractive because the induced south pole (say) in the nail is closer to the north pole of magnet
than induced north pole.
(iii) Not necessarily. True only if the source of the field has a net non-zero magnetic moment.
(iv) Try to bring different ends of the bars closer. A repulsive force in some situation establishes that
both are magnetised. If it is always attractive, then one of them is not magnetised. In a bar magnet the
intensity of the magnetic field is the strongest at the two ends (poles) and weakest at the central region.
This fact may be used to determine whether A or B is the magnet. In this case, to see which one of the
two bars is a magnet, pick up one, (say, A) and lower one of its ends; first on one of the ends of the
other (say, B), and then on the middle of B. If you notice that in the middle of B, A experiences no
force, then B is magnetised. If you do not notice any change from the end to the middle of B, then A
is magnetised.

100
Electromagnetic Induction

Magnetic Flux (Φ): Magnetic Flux through any surface is the number of magnetic lines of force passing
normally through that surface.
It can also be defined as the product of the area of the surface and the component of the magnetic field
normal to that surface.
dΦ = B . ds = B d s n
Φ=B.A=BAn or Φ = B A cos θ
Positive Flux: Magnetic Flux is positive for 0° ≤ θ < 90° & 270°< θ ≤ 360° Negative Flux: Magnetic Flux
is negative for 90°< θ < 270
Magnetic Flux is zero for θ = 90° & θ = 270° Flux is maximum when θ = 0° and Φ = BA
Magnetic Flux across a coil can be changed by changing :
1) the strength of the magnetic field B
2) the area of cross section of the coil A
3) the orientation of the coil with magnetic field θ or
4) any of the combination of the above

101
Magnetic flux is a scalar quantity.
* SI unit of magnetic flux is weber or tesla-metre2 or ( wb or Tm2).
* cgs unit of magnetic flux is maxwell.
* 1 maxwell = 10-8 weber

Faraday’s Experiment - 1:
If North-pole of a bar magnet is pushed towards the coil, the

pointer in the galvanometer deflects, indicating the presence of

electric current in the coil. This deflection lasts as long as the bar

magnet remains in motion.

The galvanometer doesn’t show any deflection when the magnet

is held at rest.

When the magnet is pulled away from the coil, the galvanometer shows deflection in the opposite direction,

which indicates reversal of the current’s direction.

This shows that the relative motion between the magnet and the coil is responsible for generation (induction)

of electric current in the coil.

Faraday’s Experiment - 2:
If the bar magnet is replaced by a second coil C2 (as

shown in figure given above) connected to a battery. The

steady current in the coil C2 produces a steady magnetic

field.

If coil C2 is moved towards the coil C1, then the

galvanometer shows a deflection. This indicates that

electric current is induced in coil C1.

When C2 is moved away, the galvanometer shows a deflection again, but this time in the opposite direction.

The deflection will be observed as long as coil C2 is in motion.

102
Faraday’s Experiment - 3:
When the coil C2 is held fixed and C1 is moved, the
same effects are observed. Again, it is the relative
motion between the coils that induces the electric
current. The galvanometer shows a momentary
deflection when the tapping key K is pressed. The
pointer in the galvanometer returns to zero
immediately. If the key is held pressed continuously,
there is no deflection in the galvanometer.
When the key is released, a momentary deflection is observed again, but in the opposite direction. It is also
observed that the deflection increases when an iron rod is inserted into the coils along their axis.
Faraday’s Laws of Electromagnetic Induction:
I Law: Whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a circuit, an emf and hence a
current is induced in the circuit. However, it lasts only so long as the magnetic flux is changing.
II Law: The magnitude of the induced emf is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic
flux linked with a circuit.
E α d Φ / dt
E = k d Φ / dt (where k is a constant and units are chosen such that k = 1)
E = d Φ / dt
E = ( Φ2 – Φ1) / t

Lenz’s Law: The direction of the induced emf or induced current is such that it opposes the change
that is producing it.
i.e. If the current is induced due to motion of the magnet, then the induced current in the coil sets itself to
stop the motion of the magnet. If the current is induced due to change in current in the primary coil, then
induced current is such that it tends to stop the change.
Lenz’s Law and Law of Conservation of Energy:
According to Lenz’s law, the induced emf opposes the change that produces it. It is this opposition against
which we perform mechanical work in causing the change in magnetic flux. Therefore, mechanical energy
is converted into electrical energy. Thus, Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of conservation of
energy.
Expression for Induced emf based on both the laws:
E = - d Φ / dt
E = - ( Φ2 – Φ1) / t
And for ‘N’ no. of turns of the coil, E = - N d Φ / dt E = - N ( Φ2 – Φ1) / t
Expression for Induced current: I = - d Φ / (R dt)
Expression for Charge: dq / dt = - d Φ / (R dt)

103
******************************************************************************************
* dq = - dΦ / R *
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** :MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS **
!* L 'When curr,ent :in a coil change from S A to 2 A rn O_1 s, a:verage voltage of 50V is produced !*
! The self-inductance of !he coil is !
!* (a)L67H (b) 6H (c) 3H (d) 0_67 H !*
* *
!* 2- A coil having 500 sq_ loops of side 1lO om is placed normal to magnetic flux which increases !*
! .at a rare of 1 T/s_The :induoed emf is !
!* {a) o_ lV (h) 0.5V (c)l \ (d) 5 V !*
*
!* 3_ Lenz's bw ofefoctromagnetic induction iis ais per faw of conservation of !*
!* (a)e-nergy_(b)Angularmomentum (c) ge_(d) Mass !*
* *
** 4_The.re are tvi•o coils A and B a.1s shown :in !he figure_ A current starts flow:ing in B as sho **
*
! \vhen A is movoo towarrds B and stops \\"hen A stops mov:ing_ The ourrent in A is cmmter !*
! clockw'iise_ B iis kept stationary when A mov,es_We can infer that !
** *
! !

00
A B

!*
i*
* *
** (a) lhe-.re is a constant CU1'rent in the clockwise di:rectiion in A **
:* (b) there is a Va[ymg current in A :*
! (c) lhe-.re is no curr,e-nt :in A !
!* (d) there iis a constant current in the counter dockwiise cfuection in A !*
* **
!* 5_ In a. coil of sdf-iinduction 5 H, the mite of change of current is 2 Ns_ Then emf induced in the !*
! roil !
!* (a) 10V(b)-10V(c) 5 V(d)-5 V !*
* *
** 6_A solenoid is.0000.ected to a battery so that a. steady current flows thmugh it If an iron core **
!* is .inserted into the so]enoid, the current ,vill !*
! (a) :increase (b) decrease (c) rnma.in same (d) fust mcreaise then decreaise !
* *
!* 7_ Much of the following statements is not correot? !*
:* (a) 'Whenever !he am.Ollilit of magnetic flux. ]iinlk:oo with a. c.irou.it changes, an emf lS i:ndu.coo in :*
! c !
** Ob) The induce,demf fasts so long a line dhange iin magnetic flmx continues_ **
:* (C) The direction of mducoo emf iis given by Lenz's law_ :*
** (d) Lenz,s law is a consequence of the faw of conservation of Charge_ **
* *
** 8 _ Them is a !lJIWform magnetic field dir,ect,ed perpendicular and into the plane of the paper_ .A.n **
!* irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing mto a circular loop in the plane of line !*
!* paper... Then !*
! (a) cuu-ent is induoed in the ]oop in the anti-dock"r.ise drrect.iion_ !
!* (b) current is. mduoed :in lh,e loop in the dockvi,;ise direction_ !*
! (c) ac is induced in the loop_ !
!* (d no current is induce.cl in the loop_ !*
* *
!* 9.Inductm.oe pJays the role of !*
********,*?a-Jt**
mer*fu.a**u
*/}
L I¥T·K*Uo*n***fc) *s.*o*u.*ro*e**or, e.,1*il*iJ*..IP*to )ro*ro*e.*****************************************
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these
questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1. Assertion: Induced emf will always occur whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Reason : Current always induces whenever there is change in magnetic flux.

2.Assertion: Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of energy.

Reason : Self inductance of a coil depends on current flowing through the coil.

3.Assertion : Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil.
Reason : The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintain a current in the coil if the circuit is
continuous.

4.Assertion: Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.

Reason: Induced emf always opposes the change in magnetic flux responsible for its production.

5.Assertion : In the phenomenon of mutual induction, self-induction of each of the coils persists.
Reason : Self -induction arises when strength of current in same coil changes. In mutual induction, current
is changing in both the individual coils.

6. Assertion : Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases.

Reason : The induced current produced in a circuit always flow in such direction that it
opposes the change to the cause that produced it.

7. Assertion : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is placed on a
smooth surface, the axis of the ring being horizontal. As the switch is closed, the ring will move away from the
solenoid.

Reason : Induced emf in the ring, e=-dΦ/dt

8. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a magnetic field.

Reason : An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.

107
9. Assertion : Figure shows a metallic conductor moving in magnetic field. The induced emf across
its ends is zero.

Reason : The induced emf across the ends of a conductor is given by e = Bvℓ sinθ.

10. Assertion : Eddy currents are produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic flux is changed
around it.
Reason : Electric potential determines the flow of charge

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

1. Electromagnetic induction is defined as the production of an electromotive force across an electric
conductor in the changing magnetic field. The discovery of induction was done by Michael Faraday in
the year 1831. Electromagnetic induction finds many applications such as in electrical components
which includes transformers, inductors, and other devices such as electric motors and generators.
Alternating current is defined as an electric current which reverse in direction periodically. In most of
the electric power circuits, the waveform of alternating current is the sine wave.
i). How to increase the energy stored in an inductor by four times?
(a) By doubling the current
(b) This is not possible
(c) By doubling the inductance
(d) By making current 2 times
ii). Consider an inductor whose linear dimensions are tripled and the total number of turns per unit
length is kept constant, what happens to the self-inductance?
(a) 9 times (b) 3 times (c) 27 times (d) 13 times
iii). Lenz law is based on which of the following conservation
(a) Charge (b) Mass (c) Momentum (d) Energy
iv). What will be the acceleration of the falling bar magnet which passes through the ring such that the
ring is held horizontally and the bar magnet is dropped along the axis of the ring?
(a) It depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet
(b) It is equal due to gravity
(c) It is less than due to gravity
(d) It is more than due to gravity

108
2. Self Induction. When a current I flows through a coil, flux linked with it is φ = LI, where L is a
constant known as self inductance of the coil.

Any charge in current sets up an induced emf in the coil. Thus, self inductance of a coil is the induced
emf set up in it when the current passing through it changes at the unit rate. It is a measure of the
opposition to the growth or the decay of current flowing through the coil. Also, value of self
inductance depends on the number of turns in the solenoid, its area of cross-section and the
permeability of its core material.
i) The inductance in a coil plays the same role as
(a) inertia in mechanics
(b) energy in mechanics
(c) momentum in mechanics
(d) force in mechanics
ii) A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is
(a) 0.5 Wb
(b) 12.5 Wb
(c) zero
(d) 2 Wb
iii) The inductance L of a solenoid depends upon its radius R as
(a) L ∝ R
(b) L ∝ 1/R
(c) L ∝ R2
(d) L ∝ R3
iv) The unit of self-inductance is
(a) Weber ampere
(b) Weber-1 ampere
(c) Ohm second
(d) Farad
v) The induced emf in a coil of 10 henry inductance in which current varies from 9 A to 4 A in 0.2
second is
(a) 200 V
(b) 250 V
(c) 300 V
(d) 350 V

109
3. Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current in a circuit is such that it opposes the change which

produces it. Thus, if the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit increases, the induced current flows in

such a direction that magnetic flux is created in the opposite direction of the original magnetic flux. If the

magnetic flux linked with the closed circuit decreases, the induced current flows in such a direction so as to

create magnetic flux in the direction of the original flux.

(i) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The induced e.rn.f is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux so as to

oppose the cause which produces it.

(b) The relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux.

(c) Emf is induced only if the magnet is moved towards coil.

(d) Emf is induced only if the coil is moved towards magnet

(ii) The polarity of induced emf is given by

(a) Ampere's circuital law (b) Biot-Savart law

(c) Lenz's law (d) Fleming's right hand rule

(iii) Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) charge (b) mass (c) momentum (d) energy

(iv) Near a circular loop of conducting wire as shown in the figure, an electron moves along a straight

line. The direction of the induced current if any in the loop is

a)Variable b)clockwise c)anticlockwise d)zero

(v) Two identical circular coils A and B are kept in a horizontal tube side by side without touching

each other. If the current in coil A increases with time, in response, the coil B.

(a) is attracted by A (c) is repelled

(c) is repelled (d) rotates

110
4. In year 1820 Oersted discovered the magnetic effect of current. Faraday gave the thought that reverse of
this phenomenon is also possible i.e., current can also be produced by magnetic field. Faraday showed that
when we move a magnet towards the coil which is connected by a sensitive galvanometer. The
galvanometer gives instantaneous deflection showing that there is an electric current in the loop.
Whenever relative motion between coil and magnet takes place an emf induced in coil. If coil is in closed
circuit then current is also induced in the circuit. This phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction.

(i) The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected to a
galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with the north pole in the middle of
the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed
when the magnet was
(a) moving towards the solenoid (b) moving into the solenoid
(c) at rest inside the solenoid (d) moving out of the solenoid.
(ii) Two similar circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. On moving the coils further
apart, the electric current will
(a) remain unaltered (b) increases in one and decreases in the second
(c) increase in both (d) decrease in both
(iii) A closed iron ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its
length along the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet is
a) Equal to g b)less than g c)more than g d)depends on diameter of ring and length of magnet
(iv) Whenever there is a relative motion between a coil and a magnet, the magnitude of induced emf
set up in the coil does not depend upon the
a) relative speed between coil and magnet
b) magnetic moment of coil
c) resistance of coil
d) number of turns in the coil
(v) A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field
(a) an emf and current both are induced in the coil
(b) a current but no emf is induced in the coil
(c) an emf but no current is induced in the coil
d) neither emf nor current is induced in the coil

111
5. Currents can be induced not only in conducting coils, but also in conducting sheets or blocks. Current is
induced in solid metallic masses when the magnetic flux threading through them changes. Such currents
flow in the form of irregularly shaped loops throughout the body of the metal. These currents look like
eddies or whirlpools in water so they are known as eddy currents. Eddy currents have both undesirable
effects and practically useful applications. For example it causes unnecessary heating and wastage of power
in electric motors, dynamos and in the cores of transformers.
(I) The working of speedometers of trains is based on
(a) wattless currents (b) eddy currents
(c) alternating currents (d) pulsating currents
(ii) Identify the wrong statement
(a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field
(b) Induction furnace uses eddy currents to produce heat.
(c) Eddy currents can be used to produce braking force in moving trains
(d) Power meters work on the principle of eddy currents.
(iii) Which of the following is the best method to reduce eddy currents?
(a) Laminating core (b) Using thick wires
(c) By reducing hysteresis loss (d) None ofthese
(iv) The direction of eddy currents is given by
(a) Fleming's left hand rule (b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Lenz's law (d) Ampere-circuital law

(v) Eddy currents can be used to heat localised tissues of the human body. This branch of medical therapy
is called
(a) Hyperthermia (b) Diathermy
(c) Inductothermy (d) none of these
NUMERICALS
1.A jet plane is travelling westward at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the potential difference
developed between the ends of a wing 25 m long? Its earth’s magnetic field at the location has a
magnitude of 5.0 ×10-4 T and the dip angle is 30°. [CBSE (AI) 2009]
2. A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0 ms-1
at right angles to the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field equal to0.30 ×10 -4 Wbm-2. (a)
What is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire? (b) What is the direction of emf? (c)
Which emf of the wire is at the higher electrical potential?
3. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V is induced,
calculate the self-induction of the circuit.

112
4. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside normal to the
axis of the solenoid. The current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 2 A to 4 A in 0.1 s,
what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing? [CBSE (F) 2016
5. An air cored solenoid with length 30 cm, area of cross-section 25 cm2 and number of turns 500
carries a current of 2.5 A. The current is suddenly switched off in a brief time of 10 -3 s. How much is
the average back emf induced across the ends of the open switch in the circuit ? Ignore the variation in
magnetic field near the ends of the solenoid.
6. An area A = 0.5 m2 shown in the figure is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 Wb/m2 and
its normal makes an angle of 60° with the field. Find the magnetic flux passing through the area A .

7. A rectangular loop of sides 8 cm × 2 cm with a small cut is stationary in a uniform magnetic field
produced by an electromagnet. If the current feeding the electromagnet is gradually reduced so that the
magnetic field decreases from its initial value of 0·3 T at the rate of
0·02 Ts-1. If the cut is joined and the loop has a resistance of 1·6 Ω, how much power is dissipated by
the loop as heat ? What is the source of this power?
8. A 0.5 m long solenoid of 10 turns/cm has area of cross-section 1 cm2 . Calculate the voltage
induced across its ends if the current in the solenoid is changed from 1A to 2A in 0.1s.
9. A 0.4 m long straight conductor is moved in a magnetic field of induction 0.9 Wbm-2
with velocity of 7 ms-1. Calculate the maximum emf induced in the conductor.

10. A metal disc of radius 200 cm is rotated at a constant angular speed of 60 rads-1
In a plane at right angles to an external field of magnetic induction 0.05 Wb m -2.
Find the emf induced between the centre and a point on the rim.
One mark question

1. Two spherical bobs, one metallic and the other of glass, of the same size are allowed to fall freely
from the same height above the ground. Which of the two would reach earlier and why?
2.When current in a coil changes with time, how is the back emf induced in the coil related to
it?
3. State the law that gives the polarity of the induced emf.
4.A long straight current carrying wire passes normally through the centre of circular loop. If the
current through the wire increases, will there be an induced emf in the loop? Justify.
5 (a) How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when (i) distance between the
coils is increased and (ii) number of turns in the coils is increased?

113
6.A plot of magnetic flux (φ) versus current (I), is shown in the figure for two inductors A and B.
Which of the two has large value of self-inductance?

7. On what factors does the magnitude of the emf induced in the circuit due to magnetic flux depend?
8. A bar magnet is moved in the direction indicated by the arrow between two coils PQ and CD.
Predict the directions of induced current in each coil.

9. The closed loop PQRS is moving into a uniform magnetic field acting at right angles to the plane of
the paper as shown. State the direction of the induced current in the loop.

10. Predict the directions of induced currents metal rings 1 and 2 lying in the same plane where current I in
the wire is increasing steadily.

114
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1. How is the mutual inductance of a pair of coils affected when (i) separation between the coils is
increased? (ii) the number of turns in each coil is increased? (iii) a thin iron sheet is placed
between the two coils, other factors remaining the same? Justify your answer in each case.
2. Two loops of different shapes are moved in the region of a uniform magnetic field pointing downward.
The loops are moved in the directions shown by arrows. What is the direction of induced current in each
loop?

3. A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free
region with a constant velocity. In which loop do you expect the induced emf to be a constant during the
passage out of the field region? The field is normal to the loop.

4. Predict the polarity of the capacitor C connected to coil, which is situated between two bar magnets
moving as shown in figure

5. The magnetic field through a circular loop of wire 12 cm in radius and 8.5 Ω resistance, changes with
time as shown in the figure. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Calculate the
induced current in the loop and plot it as a function of time.

115
6. A rectangular conductor LMNO is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T. The field is directed
perpendicular to the plane of the conductor. When the arm MN of length of 20 cm is moved towards
left with a velocity of 10 ms-1. Calculate the emf induced in the arm. Given the resistance of the arm to
be 5 Ω (assuming that other arms are of negligible resistance), find the value of the current in the arm.

7. (i) When primary coil P is moved towards secondary coil S (as shown in the figure below) the
galvanometer shows momentary deflection. What can be done to have larger deflection in the
galvanometer with the same battery? (ii) State the related law.

8. A current is induced in coil C1 due to the motion of current carrying coil C2. (a) Write any two ways
by which a large deflection can be obtained in the galvanometer G. (b) Suggest an alternative device to
demonstrate the induced current in place of a galvanometer.

9. (i) Define mutual inductance. (ii) A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the
current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other
coil?
10. (a) What is induced emf? Write Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Express it mathematically.

116
3 MARK QUESTIONS
1. The current flowing through an inductor of self- inductance L is continuously increasing.
Plot a graph showing the variation of (i) Magnetic flux versus the current (ii) Induced emf
versus dI/dt (iii) Magnetic potential energy stored versus the current.
2. Derive expression for self- inductance of a long air-cored solenoid of length l, cross-sectional
area A and having number of turns N.
3. Obtain the expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids S1 and S2 wound
one over the other, each of length L and radii r1 and r 2 and n1 and n2 be number of turns per unit
length, when a current I is set up in the outer solenoid S2.
4. A coil of number of turns N, area A is rotated at a constant angular speed ω, in a uniform
magnetic field B and connected to a resistor R. Deduce expression for (i) maximum emf induced
in the coil. (ii) power dissipation in the coil.
5. State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Figure shows a rectangular conductor PQRS
in which the conductor PQ is free to move in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the
plane of the paper. The field extends from x = 0 to x = b and is zero for x > b. Assume that only
the arm PQ possesses resistance r. When the arm PQ is pulled outward from x = 0 to x = 2b and
is then moved backward to x =0 with constant speed v, obtain the expressions for the flux and
the induced emf. Sketch the variations of these quantities with distance 0 ≤ x ≤ 2b.

6. The currents flowing in the two coils of self-inductance L1=16 mH and L2=12 mH are
increasing at the same rate. If the power supplied to the two coils are equal, find the ratio of (i)
induced voltages, (ii) the currents and (iii) the energies stored in the two coils at a given instant.
7. Define mutual inductance. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the
current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the
other coil? (CBSE Delhi 2016)
8. In the given diagram a coil B is connected to a low voltage bulb L and placed parallel to another
coil A as shown. Explain the following observations
(i) Bulb lights, and
(ii) Bulb gets dimmer if coil B is moved upwards.
.

117
9. Two concentric circular coils one of small radius r1 and the other of large radius r2, such that
r1 << r2, are placed co-axially with centres coinciding. Obtain the mutual inductance of the
arrangement.
10. A bar magnet is dropped so that it falls vertically through coil C. The graph obtained for the
voltage produced across the coil versus time is as shown in figure (b).
(i) Explain the shape of the graph and
(ii) why is the negative peak longer than the positive peak?

5 MARK QUESTIONS
1. a) State Faradays and Lenz’s Law of electromagnetic induction.
b) Use Lenz’s law to determine the direction of induced current in the situation described by
following figs.
i) A wire of irregular shape turning into a circular shape.
ii) A circular loop being deformed into a narrow straight wire.

2. (a) Define mutual inductance and write its SI units.

(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids of
same length wound one over the other.
(c) In an experiment, two coils C1 and C2 are placed close to each other. Find out the
expression for the emf induced in the coil C1 due to a change in the current through
the coil C2.
3. a) Define self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build up the
current I in a coil of self inductance L is given by U= ½ LI 2
b. A 1.0 m metallic rod is rotated with an angular velocity of 400 rad/s about an axis
normal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact
with a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to
the axis exists everywhere. Calculate the emf developed between the centre and the ring.

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Answers
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. a) 1.67H
2. d) 5V
3. a) Energy
4 (d) there is a constant current in the counter clockwise direction in A.
5. (b) -10 V
6. (b) decrease
Reason. The current will decrease. This is because on inserting an iron core in the solenoid, the magnetic
field increases and hence magnetic flux linked with the solenoid increases. As per Lenz’s law, the emf
induced in the solenoid will oppose this increase, which can be achieved by a decrease in Current.
7(d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of Charge.
8. (a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction.
Reason. Due to change in the shape of the loop, the magnetic flux linked with the loop increases. Hence,
current is induced in the loop in such a direction that it opposes the increases in flux. Therefore, induced
current flows in the anticlockwise direction.
9. (a) inertia
10. (a) becomes 4 times
Case based questions
1. i (a) By doubling the current
ii (b) 3
iii). (d) Energy
iv) (c) It is less than due to gravity
2 i ) (a) inertia in mechanics
ii) (b) 12.5 Wb
iii) (c) L ∝ R2
iv) (c) ohm second
v) (b) 250 V
3(i) (b): The relative motion between the coil and the magnet produces change in the magnetic flux in
the coil. The induced emf is always in such a direction that it opposes the change in the flux.
(ii) (c)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (a): When an electron is moving from right to left, the flux linked with loop (which is going into
the page) will first increase and then decrease as the electron passes by. So the induced current I, in the
loop will be first clockwise and will change direction (i.e. will become anticlockwise) as the electron
passes by.

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(v) (c): When current in coil A increases with time, there will be a change of flux in coil B which will
induce a current in B. Now, according to Lenz's law, the direction of induced current in B will be
opposite to the direction of current in A. Thus, if two loops carry current in opposite direction they will
repel each other.
4. (i) (d) :More rapid is the movement of bar magnet, more is the deflection observed in the galvanometer
(ii) (c) : Two circular loops carrying current in the same direction will attract each other. If they are now
separated, induced currents will try to keep status quo, by increasing the current in both the coils.
(iii) (b): Acceleration of the magnet will not be equal to g. It will be less than g. This is because, as the
magnet falls, amount of magnetic flux linked with the ring changes.
An induced emf is developed in the ring which opposes the downward motion of the magnet.
(iv) (c) : The magnitude of induced emf set up in the coil does not depend upon the resistance of the coil
whereas induced current set up in the coil depend upon the resistance of the coil.
(v) (d): As long as a coil of metal is kept stationary in a magnetic field, even if it is non-uniform, unless it
is changing with respect to time, there will be no induced emf or current in the coil.
5.(i) (b) : The working of speedometers is based on eddy currents.
(ii) (a)
(iii) (a): To reduce the eddy currents in the metal armature of motors, wire is wrapped around a number of
thin metal sheets called lamination.
(iv) (c) : Eddy currents also oppose the change in magnetic flux, so their direction is given by Lenz's law.
(v) (c)
NUMERICALS

1. 3.1 V
2.a)1.5mV b) By Fleming’s right hand rule, the direction of induced current in wire is from west to
east, therefore, direction of emf is from west to east
c) along negative x-axis, i.e., from east to west. The induced emf will oppose the flow of electrons
from east to west, so eastern end will be at higher potential.
3. 4H
4. M= 120X3.14x10-9 H and e2 = 7.5x 10-6V
5. 6.5V
6. 1.0Wb
7) 6.4 x 10-10 W
8. 0.628mV

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9. 2.52 V( e =BLV)
10.6V (1/2 Br2w)
One mark
1. Ans. Glass would reach earlier. This is because there is no effect of electromagnetic induction in glass,
due to presence of earth’s magnetic field, unlike in the case of metallic ball.
2. Ans. The back emf induced in the coil opposes the change in current.
3. Lenz’s Law: The polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to produce a current which
opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it.
4. Ans. No. Justification: As the magnetic field due to current carrying wire will be in the plane of the
circular loop, so magnetic flux will remain zero. Also, magnetic flux does not change with the change in
current.
5 (i) With the increase in the distance between the coils, the magnetic flux marked with the stationary
coil decrease and hence the mutual inductance of the two coils will decrease.
(ii) M ∝ n1n2 so with the increase in the number of turns mutual inductance increases.
6. The slope of the graph is equal to self-inductance L. It is larger for inductor A; therefore, inductor A
has larger value of self-inductance ‘L’
7. It depends on the rate of change in magnetic flux (or simply change in magnetic flux).
8. In figure, N-pole is receding away coil (PQ), so in coil (PQ), the nearer faces will act as S-pole and in
coil (CD) the nearer face will also act as S-pole to oppose the approach of magnet towards coil (CD), so
currents in coils will flow clockwise as seen from the side of magnet. The direction of current will be from
P to Q in coil (PQ) and from C to D in coil (CD).
9. Due to the motion of coil, the magnetic flux linked with the coil increases. So by Lenz’s law, the current
induced in the coil will oppose this increase, hence tend to produce a field upward, so current induced in
the coil will flow anticlockwise. i.e., along PSRQP
10.

2 marks
1.(i) When the relative distance between the coil is increased, the leakage of flux increases which
reduces the magnetic coupling of the coils. So magnetic flux linked with all the turns decreases.
Therefore, mutual inductance will be decreased.
(ii) Mutual inductance for a pair of coil is given by
M= K ( L1 L 2)1/2
where L =µ 0 N 2A/l = and L is called self-inductance. Therefore, when the number of
turns in each coil increases, the mutual inductance also increases.

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(iii) When a thin iron sheet is placed between the two coils, the mutual inductance increases
because M∝ permeability. The permeability of the medium between coils increases.
2. Loop abc is entering the magnetic field, so magnetic flux linked with it begins to increase. According to
Lenz’s law, the current induced opposes the increases in magnetic flux, so current induced will be
anticlockwise which tends to decrease the magnetic field
3.In rectangular coil the induced emf will remain constant because in this the case rate of change of area in
the magnetic field region remains constant, while in circular coil the rate of change of area in the magnetic
field region is not constant.
4. Current induced in coil will oppose the approach of magnet; therefore, left face of coil will act as N-pole
and right face as S-pole. For this the current in coil will be anticlockwise as seen from left, therefore, the
plate A of capacitor will be positive and plate B will be negative.
5.

6. Induced emf in a moving rod in a magnetic field is given by ε = Blv

Since the rod is moving to the left so ε = Blv = 0.5 × 0.2 × 10 = 1 V
Current in the rod I = ε /R = 1/5 =0.2 A
7 (i) For larger deflection, coil P should be moved at a faster rate.
(ii) Faraday law: The induced emf is directly proportional to rate of change of magnetic flux
linked with the circuit.
8 a) The deflection in galvanometer may be made large by (i) moving coil C2 towards C1 with high
speed.
(ii) by placing a soft iron laminated core at the centre of coil C1.
(b) The induced current can be demonstrated by connecting a torch bulb (in place of galvanometer) in
coil C1. Due to induced current the bulb begins to glow.
9 (i) Mutual inductance of two coils is the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil when a unit
current flows through the primary coil,

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10.definition and proof
4 marks
1. 1.

2. Derivation
3. Derivation
4. Correct derivation
5.

123
6.

7. Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the magnetic flux linked with a coil when the unit current
passes through the neighbouring coil.
Given M = 1.5 H, dl = 20 – 0 = 20 A,
dt = 0.5 s, Φ = ?
Φ = – Mdl/dt
or
Φ = – 1.5 × 20/0.5 = – 60 Wb
8. (a) When ac is applied across coil A an induced emf is produced in coil B due to mutual induction
between the
two coils. This makes the lamp light up.
(b) When coil B is moved upwards the mutual induction and hence induced emf in coil B decreases.
This makes the lamp dimmer.
9. Derivation
10. (a) As the magnet approaches the coil, an emf is induced in it. As the magnet approaches the coil the

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magnetic flux linked with the coil increases. As a result, the induced emf increases. When the magnet
enters the coil, the change in magnetic flux linked with the coil begins to decrease and becomes zero
when the magnet is completely inside the coil. This starts decreasing the emf and makes it zero. When
the magnet comes out of the coil the direction of induced emf changes direction and begins to increase
in the opposite direction. When the magnet moves far away from the coil the induced emf becomes
zero.
5 marks
1.a) Statement

b) i)For the given periphery the area of a circle is maximum. When a coil takes a circular shape, the
magnetic flux linked with coil increases, so current induced in the coil will tend to decrease the flux and so
will produce a magnetic field upward. As a result the current induced in the coil will flow anticlockwise
i.e., along a′d′c′b′.
(ii) For given periphery the area of circle is maximum. When circular coil takes the shape of narrow
straight wire, the magnetic flux linked with the coil decreases, so current induced in the coil will tend to
oppose the decrease in magnetic flux; hence it will produce upward magnetic field, so current induced in
the coil will flow anticlockwise i.e., along a′ d′ c′ b′
2.a) statement
b) derivation

3. a) Derivation
b)

Emf developed between the centre of ring and the point on the ring
e = ½ B 𝜔l2
Given B= 0.5T, 𝜔= 400rad/s, l=1.0m
e = 100 V

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ALTERNATING CURRENT

• Alternating current (a.c.) : When the current changes continuously in magnitude and direction
periodically,then the current is said to be alternating.
I= I0 sin ωt= I0 sin 2π𝜔t
I0= Peak or maximum value of current
𝜔= frequency of a.c.
I is instantaneous value of current

• Direct current (d.c.) : The current which flows with a constant magnitude in the same direction is
called direct current.

• Alternating voltage : The voltage whose magnitude changes continuously and the direction
reverses periodically, then voltage is said to be alternating.
V= V0 sin ωt= V0 sin 2π𝜔t
V= Instantaneous value of voltage
V0= Peak or maximum value of voltage
𝜔= frequency of alternating voltage
T= Time period of alternating voltage

• Average or mean value of a.c. over half a cycle: It is that value of steady current which sends the
same charge through a resistor as is sent by given a.c. in the same resistor in its half time period.
Iav over half a cycle= 2I0/π = 0.637 I0

• Average or mean value of alternating voltage over half a cycle:It is that value of steady voltage
which sends the same charge through a resistor in the same time as is sent by the given alternating voltage
through the same resistor in its half cycle.
Vav over half a cycle= 2V0/π = 0.637 V0

• Average or mean value of a.c. over a cycle: It is that value of steady current which sends the same
charge through a resistor in the same time as is sent by the given a.c. through the same resistor in its one
cycle. Average of a.c. over a cycle= 0
• Average of alternating voltage over a cycle is zero.

• Root Mean Square (rms) value of A.C. : It is that value of steady current which produces the
same amount of heat in a given resistor in the same time as is produced by the a.c. in the same resistor in
one time period.
Irms= I0/ √2 = 0.707 I0
Vrms= V0/ √2 = 0.707 V0

• Phasor: A rotating vector that represents a sinusoidally varying quantity is called a phasor.

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• Phasor diagram: A diagram that represents alternating current and voltage of same frequency as
phasor along with proper phase angle between them is called a phasor diagram.

• A.C. source connected across a pure resistor:

As V= V0 sin ωt
I= I0 sin ωt
The voltage is in phase with the current
I0 = V0/R, Irms= Vrms/R

Average power consumed by a pure resistor connected to an a.c. source

Vrms Irms = V0 I0 /2

• A.C. source connected across a pure inductor:

When a source of alternating voltage V= V0 sin ωt is connected to a pure inductor, it drives a current
I= I0 sin (ωt- π/2)
Current lags behind potential by π/2
Peak value of current
I0= V0 / XL Irms = Vrms / XL
Where XL = ωL is called inductive reactance. Inductive reactance is the opposition offered by a pure
inductor to flow of a.c. through it.

Variation of XL with frequency:

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• A.C. source connected across a capacitor:
When a source of alternating voltage V= V0 sin ωt is connected across a capacitor of capacitance C. The
current leads voltage by π/2.
I= I0 sin (ωt+ π/2)
Peak value of current
I0= V0 / XC Irms = Vrms / XC

Where XC= 1/ωC is called capacitive reactance. Capacitive reactance is the opposition offered by a
capacitor to flow of current through it.

Variation of XC with frequency:

• A capacitor blocks d.c. but allows a.c. to pass because for d.c., frequency =0
XC= 1/ωC =1/2πfC = ∞
So I0= V0 / XC =0
For a.c. frequency f has finite value so XC and hence I0 has finite value.

• LCR series circuit:

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(i) If VL > VC, tan ϕ= (XL -XC)/R
Voltage leads current by ϕ. Circuit is inductive.
Z= [R2 + (XL -XC)2]1/2

(ii) If VL < VC, tan ϕ= (XC-XL)/R

Voltage lags current by ϕ. Circuit is capacitive.
Z= [R2 + (XC-XL)2]1/2

• Variation of current with frequency in a series LCR circuit:

Z= [R + (XL -XC)2]1/2
2

Z= [R2 + (ωL-1/ωC)2]1/2
And I=V/Z

Case I: If ω→0, Z→ ∞
So, I=0, i.e. Z is very high and I is very low.
Case II: If ω→ ∞ i.e. ω is very high
Z→ ∞, I→0
So again, Z is very high and I is very low.
Case III: When XL =XC (at resonance)
ωL= 1/ωC
Or ω= 1/√LC
Z is minimum and Z=R.
So I is maximum. This frequency is called resonant frequency of circuit.
ω= 1/√LC
Or 𝝂r= 1/2π√LC

• Impedance (Z): It is the total opposition to the flow of a.c. in a circuit containing R and L,R and C,
or R,L and C.

tan ϕ= X/R or cos ϕ= R/Z

Average power consumed by series LCR circuit in a complete cycle of a.c.
P = Vrms Irms cos ϕ

Transformer: It is a device works on the principle of mutual induction.

Vs/Vp = Ns/Np = Ip/Is

Step up transformer

Ns > Np, Vs < Vp and is > ip

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Step down transformer

Ns < Np, Vs > Vp and is < ip

Different Power losses in a transformer

1. Copper loss
2. Eddy current loss
3. Magnetic flex leakage
4. Hysteresis loss

QUESTIONS
1 Mark Questions:

1. What will be effect on inductive reactance XL and capacitive reactance XC , if frequency of ac source
is increased ?
2. Sketch a graph showing variation of reactance of a capacitor with frequency of the applied voltage.
3. The peak value of emf in ac is E0. Write its (i) rms (ii) average value over a complete cycle.
4. The power factor of an a.c. circuit 0.5. What is the phase difference between voltage and current in
the circuit?
5. Sketch a graph showing the variations of impedance of LCR circuit with the frequency of applied
voltage.
6. In series LCR circuit, the plot of Imax vs ω is shown in the figure. Find the bandwidth and mark in the
figure.

7. An inductor is connected in series with a bulb to an a.c. source. What happens to brightness of bulb
when number of turns in the inductor is reduced?
8. A device X is connected to an a.c. source V=V0 sin ωt. The variation
of voltage, current and power in one complete cycle is shown in the
following figure.
(a) Which curve shows power consumption over a full cycle?
(b) Identify the device ‘X’.

130
9. For a series LCR circuit, connected to an a.c. source,
identify the graph that corresponding to ω > 1/√LC.
Give reason.

10. In the circuit shown, when the frequency of supply is

doubled, how should the values of L and C be changed so
that the glow in the bulb remains unchanged?

2 Mark Questions:

1. A 15 µF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance and the
currents (rms and peak) in the circuit. If the frequency is doubled, what happens to the capacitive reactance
and the current?
2. Why is the use of a.c. voltage preferred over d.c. voltage? Give two reasons.
3. Calculate the current drawn by the primary coil of a transformer which steps down 200 V to 20 V to
operate a device of resistance 20 Ω. Assume the efficiency of the transformer to be 80%.
4. An AC voltage V= Vm sin ωt is applied across:
(i) A series RC circuit in which capacitive impedance is ‘a’ time the resistance in the circuit.
(ii) A series RL circuit in which inductive impedance is ‘b’ times the resistance in the circuit. Find the
value of power factor of the circuit in each case.
5. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source (200 V, 50
Hz). The voltage across the resistor, capacitor
and inductor are respectively 200 V, 250 V and 250 V.
(i) The algebraic sum of the voltages across the three elements
is greater than the voltage of the source.
How is this paradox resolved?
(ii) Given the value of the resistance of R is 40 Ω. Calculate
the current in the circuit.

6. Draw a plot showing the variation of the current I as a function of angular frequency ‘ω’ of the applied ac
source for the two cases of a series combination of (i) inductance L1, capacitance C1 and resistance R1 and
(ii) inductance L2, capacitance C2 and resistance R2 where R2 > R1 . Write the relation between L1, C1 and L2,
C2 at resonance. Which one of the two, would be better suited for the fine tuning of receiver set? Give reason.

131
7. Figure shows how the reactance of an inductor varies with
frequency.
(i) Calculate the value of the inductance of the inductor using
information given in the graph.
(ii) If this inductor is connected in series to a resistor of 80 ohm,
what would be the impedance at 300 Hz?
8. A resistor ‘R’ and an element’ are connected in series to an ac source of voltage. The voltage is found to
lead the current in phase by 𝝅/4. If ‘X’ is replaced by another element ‘Y’, the voltage lags behind the current
by 𝝅/4.
(i) Identify elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(ii) When both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are connected in series with R to the same source, will the power dissipated in
the circuit be maximum or minimum? Justify your answer.
9. An ac voltage of 100 V, 50 Hz is connected across a 20-ohm resistor and a 2mH inductor in series. Calculate
(i) impedance of the circuit (ii) wattless current of the given ac circuit.
10. How is the large-scale transmissions of electric energy over long distances done with the use of
transformers?
3 Mark Questions:

1. The primary coil of an ideal step-up transformer has 100 turns and transformation ratio is also 100.
The input voltage and power are 220 V and 1100 W respectively. Calculate:(i) The current in the primary
coil (ii) The voltage across the secondary coil (iii) The power in the secondary coil
2. A circuit containing an 80 mH inductor and a 250 µF capacitor connected in series connected to a
240 V, 100 rad/s supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. Obtain (i) rms value of the current (ii)
What is the total average power consumed by the circuit?
3. The graph shown below depict the variation of current im V/s angular
frequency ω for two different series
LCR circuits. Observe the graphs carefully.
(i) State the relation between the L and C values of the two circuits when
the current in the two circuits is maximum.
(ii) Indicate the circuit for which power factor is higher.
4. A resistor of 200 ohm and a capacitor of 15 µF are connected in series to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source.
Calculate the current in the circuit and rms voltage across the resistor and the capacitor. Is the algebraic sum
of these voltages more than the source voltage? If yes, resolve the paradox.
5. Given below are two electrical circuits A and B. Calculate the ratio of power factor of circuit B to the
power factor of circuit A.

132
6. An inductor of unknown value, a capacitor of 100 µFand a resistor of 10 ohm are connected in series to a
200 V, 50 Hz ac source. It is found that power factor of the circuit is unity. Calculate the inductance of the
inductor and current amplitude.
7. (a) Determine the value of phase difference
between the current and the voltage in the given
series LCR circuit.
(b) Calculate the value of additional capacitor
which may be joined suitably to the capacitor C that
would make the power factor of the circuit unity.
8. Figure a,b and c shows three alternating circuits with equal
currents. If the frequency of alternating emf be increased, what
will be the effect on currents in the three cases? Explain.

9. (a) For given a.c. i=im sin ωt, show that the average power dissipated in a resistor R over a complete cycle
is 1/2 im2 R.
(b) A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V a.c. supply. Calculate the resistance of the bulb.
10. A circular coil of radius 8 cm and 20 turns rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of 50
rad/s in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3x10-2 T. Obtain the maximum and average emf
induced in the coil. If the coil forms a closed loop of resistance 10 ohm, calculate the maximum value of
current in the coil.
5 Mark Questions:

1 (i) A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200 V to a step-down transformer with its primary
windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of turns in the secondary to get the power output at 220 V.
(ii) A step-up transformer converts a low voltage into high voltage. Does it not violate the principle of
conservation of energy? Explain.
(iii) Write any two sources of energy loss in a transformer.
2. (i) A coil of number of turns N, area A is rotated at a constant angular speed ω in a uniform magnetic field
B and connected to a resistor R. Deduce an expression for maximum emf induced in the coil.

133
(ii) A circular coil of cross-sectional area 200 cm2 and 20 turns is rotated about the vertical diameter with
angular speed of 50 rad/s in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 3x 10-2 T. Calculate the maximum value
of emf in the coil.
3. (a) Figure shows the variation of resistance and reactance versus angular
frequency. Identify the curve which corresponds to inductive reactance and
resistance.
(b) Show that series LCR circuit at resonance behaves as a purely resistive
circuit. Compare the phase
relation between current and voltage in series LCR circuit for (i) XL > XC
(ii) XL = XC using phasor diagrams.
(iii) What is an acceptor circuit and where it is used?

MCQ
1. The phase difference between instantaneous voltage and current of purely capacitive circuit is
a. 180 b. 90 c. 0 d. 360
2. The current flowing in purely capacitive circuit connected with ac source
a. conventional current b. electronic current c. wattless current d. none
3. For unity power factor the circuit should be
a. purely capacitive b. purely resistive c. LCR series circuit d. purely inductive
4. An inductor of reactance 1 Ω and a resistor of 2 Ω are connected in series to the terminals of a 6 V
(rms) AC source. The power dissipated in the circuit is
a. 8 W b. 12 W c. 14.4 W d. 0 W
5. The output of a step-down transformer is measured to be 24 V when connected to a 12 W light bulb.
The value of the peak current is
a. 1/√2 A b. 2 A c. 2 √2 A d. 18 A
6. As frequency of an ac circuit increases, the current first increases and then decreases. What
combination of circuit elements is most likely to comprise the circuit?
a. Inductor and capacitor b. Resistor and inductor c. Resistor
and capacitor d. Resistor, inductor and capacitor
7. Electrical energy is transmitted over large distances at high alternating voltages. Which of the
following statements is (are) correct?
a. For a given power level, there is a lower current
b. Lower current implies less power loss
c. Transmission lines can be made thinner
d. It is easy to reduce the voltage at the receiving end using step-down transformers
8. When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C
a. the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.

134
b. the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
c. the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage.
d. power delivered to the capacitor is zero
9. In an AC circuit V and I are given by V = 50 sin 50t Volt and I = 100 sin (50t + π/3) mA. The power
dissipated in the circuit
a. 2.5 kW b. 1.25 kW c. 5.0 kW d. 500 W
10. A coil of resistance 2000Ω and self-inductance 1.0 Henry has been connected to an AC source of
frequency 2000/2π Hz. The phase difference between voltage and current is
a. 30o b. 60o c. 75o d. 45o

Assertions & Reasons Questions

a.) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b.) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c.) A is true but R is false. d.)A is false and R is also false

1. Assertion(A): A capacitor blocks DC and offers an easy path to AC.

Reason (R): Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.
2. Assertion(A):It is advantageous to transmit electric power at high voltage.
Reason(R): High voltage implies high current.

3. Assertion(A): In series LCR circuit,resonance occurs at one frequency only.

Reason(R):At resonance,the inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance.
4. Assertion(A): When the capacitive reactance is less than the inductive reactance in a
series LCR circuit, the emf leads the current.
Reason(R): The angle by which the alternating voltage leads the alternating current in a series LCR
circuit is given by tanφ=(XL-XC)/R

5. Assertion(A): A transformer doesn’t work on DC.

Reason(R): The magnitude and direction of DC keeps
changing periodically.
6. Assertion(A): Most of the electrical energy sold by power companies is transmitted
and distributed in the form of alternating voltage.
Reasoning(R): AC voltage cannot be easily and efficiently converted from one value to the other by
means of transformers.

7. Assertion(A): An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency ω and fixed

amplitude V0 is connected in series with a capacitance C and an electric bulb of
resistance R (inductance zero). When ω is increased, the bulb glows brighter.
Reason(R): When frequency is increased the inductive reactance increases.
8. Assertion(A) : At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit
is minimum.
Reasoning (R): The impedance of the circuit is maximum at resonant frequency.

9. Assertion(A) : An alternating current doesn’t show any magnetic effect.

Reason (R): Alternating current doesn’t vary with time.

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10. Assertion (A): A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to an ac
source. If a soft iron core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb will glow dimmer.
Reason (R) : On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance decreases.

Case Study
1. When a resistor of resistance R, inductor of inductance L,
and a capacitor of capacitance C are connected in series
to an AC source. The current at any instant through the
three elements has the same amplitude and is represented
as I = Io sin ωt. However, voltage across each element has
a different phase relationship with the current as shown
in the phasor diagram.
The effective resistance of LCR circuit is called impedance (Z)
of the circuit and the voltage leads the current by a phase angle 𝜑.
A resistor of 12Ω, a capacitor of reactance 14 Ω and an inductor of inductance 0.1 H are connected in series
with a source 200V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(i) The value of inductive reactance is
(a) 0.1 Ω (b) 62.8 Ω (c) 14 Ω (d) 31.4
(ii) Impedance of the circuit is
(a) 21.13 Ω (b) 42.26 Ω (c) 15 Ω (d) 30 Ω
(iii) The value of current in the circuit is
(a) 14 A (b) 5 A (c) 9.46 A (d) 6.28 A
(iv) The phase angle between current and voltage is
(a) 50o (b) 53o4’ (c) 55o4’ (d) 63o9’
(v) Find the correct relationship from the phasor diagram
(a) VL > VC (b) VL < VC (c) VL = VC (d) VL ≥ VC
2. An AC source of emf E = Em sinωt is connected in series with an
inductor of inductance L. The instantaneous current in the circuit is I = Im
sin (ωt−π/2). The inductive reactance is XL = Lω.

(i) A 50 Hz AC is flowing in a 14 mH coil. The reactance of the circuit is

(a) 15 Ω (b) 7.5 Ω (c) 8.8 Ω (d) 4.4 Ω
(ii) In a pure inductive circuit, the resistance offered to current is called

136
(a) Resistance (b) Inductive reactance
(c) Capacitive reactance (d) Resistance and reactance
(iii) In a pure inductive circuit, the phase angle between current and emf.
(a) 120o (b) 90o (c) 45o (d) 60o
(iv) How much inductance should be connected to 100V, 50Hz AC supply so that a maximum
current of 0.45A flows through it
(a) 5 H (b) 15 H (c) 1 H (d) 10 H
(v) Find the maximum value of current when inductance of 2 H is connected to 300V, 50 Hz supply.
(a) 0.337 V (b) 0.676 V (c) 1.512 V (d) 2.224 V

2. Transformer is a device which works only in AC not in DC, it working principle is mutual
induction. It changes AC voltage and current but does not alter the frequency of AC. A transformer
consists of two coils wounded over a soft iron core.
The number of turns in the primary and secondary coils of a transformer are 1000 and 100
respectively. The primary coil is connected to a main supply of 12 V and secondary is connected to
a resistor of resistance 6 Ω.
(i) The value of output voltage in the secondary coil is
(a) 1.2 V (b) 3 V (c) 12 V (d) 6 V
(ii) The value of current flowing through the resistor connected in the secondary
(a) 0.6 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 2 A (d) 3A
(iii) The value of current in the primary coil is
(a) 2 A (b) 0.2 A (c) 0.02 A (d) 0.4 A
(iv) The power dissipated in the primary coil is
(a) 12 W (b) 0.24 W (c) 24 W (d) 6 W
(v) The power dissipated in the primary coil is
(a) 12 W (b) 24 W (c) 0.24 W (d) 6 W
3. In an LCR circuit for a particular value of frequency of ac supply, the inductive reactance and
capacitive reactance become equal, the impedance of circuit is equal to the ohmic resistance in the
circuit only. This condition is called resonance and the frequency of the ac supply is known as
resonant frequency. Unlike the LCR circuit, resonance cannot be observed in an RL or RC circuit.
A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V as supply.
(i) The value of source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum.
(a) 222.32 Hz (b) 550.52 Hz (c) 770Hz (d) 663.48Hz
(ii) At resonance, find the value of current
(a) 22.52 A (b) 14.14 A (c) 47.41 A (d) 50.25 A
(iii) Find the Q factor of this circuit
(a) 42.21 (b) 35.42 (c) 21.74 (d) 25

137
(iv) Find the maximum power dissipated in the circuit
(a) 2299.3 W (b) 5500 W (c) 2200 W (d) 4700 W
(v) At resonance, which of the physical quantity(s) is/are maximum?
(a) Current (b) Impedance (c) both a and b (d) None of these
4. Step-down transformers reduce the voltage level of an input ac. They are used to supply required
voltage to domestic use as well as factories. A small town has a demand of 800 kW of electric
power at 220 V is situated 15 km away from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The
resistance of the two wires line carrying power is 0.5Ω per km. The town gets power from the line
through a 4000 – 220 V step-down transformer at a sub-station in the town.
(i) The total resistance of the wire is
(a) 30 Ω (b) 35 Ω (c) 25 Ω (d) 15 Ω
(ii) Find the power loss in the line as heat
(a) 700 kW (b) 600 kW (c) 650 kW (d) 550 kW
(iii) Find the power suppled by the electric plant, if the power loss is negligible
(a) 1400 kW (b) 500 kW (c) 1600 kW (d) 600 kW
(iv) The total voltage transmitted from the plant is
(a) 7 kV (b) 3 kV (c) 4 kV (d) 0.5 kV
(v) The voltage drop in the power line is
(a) 3 kV (b) 2 kV (c) 1.7 kV (d) 2.8 kV

ANSWERS:

1 Mark Questions:

1. The inductive reactance XL= ω L=2𝝅fL will increase with increase of frequency f, while capacitive
reactance XC = 1/ωC = 1/2𝝅fC will decrease with increase of frequency.

3. peak value of emf in ac = E0

(i) Erms = E0/√2
(ii) Eavg= 0
4. Power factor= cos ϕ =0.5 =1/2

138
ϕ =60°
There is a phase difference of 60°
5.

Bandwidth is the difference of two frequencies when I=I0max /2

From figure we see that
Δ ω= 1.2- 0.8= 0.4 rad/s
7. Current through the bulb
Irms = Vrms/ Z
Z= [R2 +ω2 L2]1/2
When the no. of turns n in the inductor increases, L will increase as L∝n2 so Z will increase which will lead
to decrease in the current flowing through the bulb, so the brightness of the bulb will decrease.
8. (i) Curve A= Power
(ii) Device X is a capacitor.
9. When ω > 1/√LC, XL= ω L will be large and XC = 1/ωC will be small. So, XL > XC. So, the circuit will be
inductive. In inductive circuit, voltage leads current. i.e. current lags behind voltage. So, graph (a)
corresponds to ω > 1/√LC.
10. As Z= [R2 + (ωL-1/ωC)2]1/2

= [R2 + (2𝝅fL-1/2𝝅fC)2]1/2 and Iv =Ev /Z

The glow of the bulb will remain same when Iv remains same.
So, when f is doubled, L should be halved and C should be halved.
2 Mark Questions:

1. Vrms = 220 V , 𝝂 = 50 Hz, C= 15 µF

139
XC = 1/ωC = 1/2𝝅 𝝂 C
= 1/(2 × 𝝅 ×50 × 15 ×10-6)
= 212 ohm
Irms = Vrms/XC = 220/212= 1.04 A
Io= √2 Irms = 1.414× 1.04 = 1.47 A
2. (i) A.C. can be transmitted to distant places without any significant line loss by using step up transformers.
(ii) A.C. can be reduced by using a choke coil without any significant loss of energy. As average power
consumed by a choke coil in one cycle is zero.
3. EP = 200 V, ES= 20 V, RL = 20 ohm
Efficiency= η= 80 %
IS= ES/ RL= 20/20 = 1A
η = Po/ Pi = ES IS/ EP IP
So IP =ES IS / η IP = (20×1×100) / (80 ×200) = 0.125 A
4.a) Power factor cos ϕ= R/Z where Z= [R2 + X2]1/2
(i) X= XC= aR
So, Z= [R2 + (aR)2]1/2
= R [a2 +1]1/2
So, cos ϕ= R/ R [a2 +1]1/2 = [a2 +1]-1/2
(ii) X= XL= bR
So, Z= [R2 + (bR)2]1/2
== R [b2 +1]1/2
So, cos ϕ= R/ R [b2 +1]1/2 = [b2 +1]-1/2
5. (i) In case of a resistor the current (I) and potential (V) are in phase.
In case of an inductor, V leads I by 𝝅/2. So VL leads VR by 𝝅/2.
In case of a capacitor, V lags behind I by 𝝅/2. So VC lags behind VR by
𝝅/2.
So VL and VC have a phase difference of 𝝅 so the phasor is
Veff = [VR 2+ (VL-VC)2]1/2
As VL= 250 V, VC = 250 V and they are out of phase so Veff = 200 V
(ii) As R= 40 ohm, VL=VC given
So XL= XC
Z= [R2 + (XL -XC)2]1/2 = R
So I= Veff/R =200/40= 5A

140
6.
ωr = 1/ √L1C1 = 1/√L2C2
So √L1C1 = √L2C2
For fine tuning, L1, C1 and R1 is better suited because Q-factor is high and
resonance will be sharp.

7. (i) As per given graph for a frequency f= 100 Hz, XL= 20 ohm
So XL= ω L=2𝝅fL
⇒ L= XL/ 2𝝅f = 20/(2× 3.14×100) = 0.032 H
(ii) As at a ftrequency f0= 300 s-1 , XL= 60 ohm
Impedance, Z= [R2 + XL 2]1/2
= [802 + 60 2]1/2
=100 ohm
8. (i) X is an inductor, because in series R-L circuit voltage leads current.
Y is a capacitor because in series R-C circuit voltage lags behind current.
(ii) In series LCR circuit Pav= Vrms Irms cos ϕ
If inductive reactance is not equal to capacitive reactance, so V and I are not in phase i.e. cos ϕ<1 so
power dissipated is minimum.
If XC = XL then ϕ=0 then power dissipated will maximum.
9. Given V= 100 V, 𝝂 =50 Hz , R= 20 ohm, L= 2 mH
(ii) Impedance of R-L circuits ,Z = [R2 + XL 2]1/2
= [R2 + (ωL) 2]1/2 = [R2 + (2𝝅 𝝂L) 2]1/2
=[202 + (2×3.14 ×50 ×2 ×10-3) 2]1/2
= [400 + (0.628) 2]1/2 ≈ 20 ohm
(iii) rms current = Irms = V/Z = 100/20 = 5A
10. At the power station, the voltage of AC is stepped up by using step up transformer. This reduces the
current that flows through the cable. As energy lost as heat is I2Rt so it reduces the resistive power loss. Then
at the consumer end, the voltage is decreased using step down transformer.
3 Mark Questions:

1. Np = 100, k=100 , EP= 220 V, Pin = 1100 W

(i) Pin = EP IP or IP = Pin / EP = 1100/220 = 5A
(ii) k = NS/ Np= ES/EP or ES= kEP = 100 × 220 = 22000V
(iii) PO = ES IS = 22000 × 5/100 = 1100 W
2. (i) L= 80 mH = 80 × 10-3 H, C= 250 µF, Vrms = 240 V, ω=100 rad/s
Irms XC- Irms XL = 240, Irms =240 / XC-XL
= 240 / [(1/ 100 × 250 × 10-6)- (100 × 80 × 10-3 )]

141
Irms = 240/ (40-8) = 240/32= 7.5 A
(ii) Total average power consumed by the circuit is zero.
3. (i) As ωr = 1/ √LC
As ωr is same for two circuits
So √L1C1 = √L2C2 i.e. L1C1= L2C2
(ii) At resonance Z=R
Power factor = cos ϕ = R/Z= 1
Power factor is same for both the circuit and is equal to 1.
4. Given R= 200 ohm , C= 15 ×10-6 F , V=220 V, f=50 Hz
Capacitive reactance, XC = 1/ (2 ×3.14 ×50 × 15 ×10-6) = 212 ohm
Impedance of circuit, Z= [R2 + XC 2]1/2 = [(200)2 + (212) 2]1/2 = 291.5 ohm
Irms = Vrms /Z = 220/ 291.5 = 0.75 A
Voltage across resistance, VR = IR = 200 × 0.75= 150 V
Voltage across capacitor, VC = IXC = 212 × 0.75= 159 V
Algebraic sum of VR and VC = VR+ VC = 150+159= 309 V > 212 V
This is because these voltage are not in same phase but VC lags behind VR by an angle 𝝅/2
So V= [VR 2 + VC 2]1/2 = [(150) 2 + (159) 2]1/2 =220 V
5. Impedance of circuit A
ZA= [R2 + XL2]1/2 = [R2 +9R2]1/2= √10 R
Impedance of circuit B
ZB = [R2 + (XL- XC)2 ]1/2 = [R2 + (3R- R)2 ]1/2 = [R2 + 4R2]1/2 = √5 R
Power factor = cos ϕ = R/Z
(cos ϕ)A/ (cos ϕ)B = ZB/ ZA = √5 R/√10 R= 1/√2
6. For power factor unity, XL = XC
ωL = 1/ωC
L=1/ω2C = 1/ 4 𝝅2f2 C
L= 1/ (4 ×3.14 ×3.14 ×50 ×50 ×10-4)= 0.1 H
Current amplitude, I0= V0/Z
At resonance Z=R So I= 200√2/10= 28.28 A
7. (i) In a series LCR circuit
tan ϕ =XL- XC/ R or XC- XL/ R
XL=ωL = 1000 × 10-1 = 100 ohm
XC= 1/ωC= 1/ (1000 ×2 ×10-6)= 500 ohm
tan ϕ = (500-100)/ 400= 1
So ϕ= 45°
(ii) For power factor to be unity, R=Z
i.e. XL=XC

142
Let the new capacitance be C’
1/ω C’= 100 or C’= 1/(1000×100)= 10-5 F= 10 µF
We need to increase the capacitance from 2 µF to 10 µF. So, we should connect a capacitor of 8µF in
parallel with a 2 µF capacitor.
8. In circuit (a) there will be no change in current as in case of a resistor, the opposition to current is not
affected by change in frequency.
(b) In this case as frequency increases, XL= 2𝝅fL will also increase.
(c) In case of a capacitor XC= 1/2𝝅fC
As the frequency of source will increase, the XC will decrease so the current will increase.
9. (i) When a.c. source is connected across a resistor, current and potential are in phase so
V=Vm sin ωt
Instantaneous power P= dW/dt
dW= Pdt = VI dt =Vm sin ωt Im sin ωt dt
W=∫ dW = 0∫T Vm Im sin2 ωt dt
= Vm Im 0∫T (1- cos 2 ωt)/2 dt
= Vm Im T/2
Pav= W/T= Vm Im/2 = I m2R/2
(ii) P= 100 W, Vrms =220 V
Pav= Vrms2/ R or R=Vrms2/Pav= (220)2/100 = 484 ohm
10. N=20 , r= 8 cm, ω= 50 rad/s
B= 3×10-2 T, R=10 ohm
(i) Max induced emf= E0= NBAω = NB𝝅r2ω
E0= 20× 3×10-2 ×3.14×64 ×10-4 ×50= 0.603 V
(ii) As Eav= E0 sin ωt =0 as average of sin ωt over a cycle is zero.
(iii) Maximum current, I0 = E0/ R= 0.603/10= 0.0603 A
5 Mark Questions:

1.(i) EP= 2200 V, nP= 3000, nS= ?, ES= 220 V

ES/EP = nS/nP

So nS= 3000 ×1/10 = 300

(ii) A step up transformer converts a low voltage into high voltage, it does not violate principle of
conservation of energy as the increase in voltage is at the cost of current. When voltage increases the
current decreases.
(iii) Energy loss in a transformer:
(a) Eddy current loss: Alternating magnetic flux induces eddy currents in the iron core, which leads to
energy loss in the form of heat. It can be minimized by using laminated core.

143
(b) Hysteresis loss: AC carries the core to the process of magnetization and demagnetization. Work is
done in each of these cycles resulting into loss of energy.
2. (i) Consider a coil consisting of N turns of insulated copper wire rotated in a uniform magnetic field B. Let
the angle between magnetic field and area vector at any point of time be θ. The coil is rotated with angular
velocity ω.
ϕ= NBA cos θ
θ= ωt
So ϕ= NBA cos ωt
E= -dϕ/ dt= -NBAω (- sin ωt)= ANBω sin ωt
E=0 when ωt=0
E= max when ωt=𝝅/2
Emax = NBAω =E0
Ein = E0 sin ωt
(ii) A= 200 cm2 = 200 ×10-4 m2, N=20, ω= 50 rad/s , B= 3×10-2 T
E0= NBA ω= 20× 3×10-2× 200 ×10-4× 50 = 0.6 V
3. (i) Curve B is for inductive reactance and Curve C for resistance.
(ii) Impedance of a series LCR circuit is
Z= [R2 +(XL- XC )2]1/2
At resonance, XL= XC
So Z=R. So the circuit behave as a purely resistive
circuit at resonance. Phase relationship between current and
voltage in series LCR circuit.
(i) When XL> XC (ii) XL= XC , tanϕ=0
(iii) It is a series LCR circuit. It is used in tuning of radio sets.
MCQ
1. b
2. c
3. b
4. c
5. a
6. a
7. b
8. d
9. b
10. d

Assertions & Reasons Questions

144
1 A
2 C
3 A
4 A
5 C
6 C
7 B
8 D
9 D
10 C
Case study
1. i - (d) 31.4 XL = ωL = 2πf L
ii - (a) 21.13 Z = √𝑅2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿)2
iii - (c) 9.46A Im = Vm/Z
iv - (c) 55o4’ tanφ = 𝑋𝐶−𝑋𝐿
𝑅

v - (a) VL > VC
2. i - (d) 4.4 Ω XL = ωL = 2πf L
ii - (b) Inductive reactance
iii - (b) 90o
iv - (c) 1 H Im = Em/XL
v - (b) 0.676 V Im = Em/XL
3. i - (a) 1.2 V Ip/Is = Vs/Vp
ii - (b) 0.2 A Is = Vs/R
iii - (c) 0.02 A Ip/Is = Vs/Vp
iv - (b) 0.24 W Pp = VpIp
v - (c) 0.24 W Ps = VsIs

4. i - (d) 663.48Hz ω = 2πf, ω = 1/√𝐿𝐶

ii - (b) 14.14 A Is = Vs/R
iii - (c) 21.74 Q = XL/R
iv - (a) 2299.3 W Pmax = ½ Im2R
v - (a) Current
5. i - (d) 15 Ω Total resistance = (15+15) x 0.5
ii - (b) 600 kW I = P/V, P =I2R
iii - (a) 1400 kW
iv - (a) 7 kV
v - (a) 3 kV V = IR

145
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157
RAY OPTICS

Refraction of light
The bending of the ray of light passing from one medium to the other medium is called refraction.

Prin (B) (C)

(1) The refraction of light takes place on going from one medium to another because the speed of light is
different in the two media.
(2) Greater the difference in the speeds of light in the two media, greater will be the amount of refraction.
(3) A medium in which the speed of light is more is known as optically rarer medium and a medium is
which the speed of light is less, is known as optically denser medium.
(4) When a ray of light goes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it bends towards the normal.

Incident ray
i Rarer medium

Deviation  = (i – r) 

Denser medium Refracted ray

158
(5) When a ray of light goes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.

Denser medium

i
Deviation  = (r – i )

r

Rarer medium

(6) Snell’s law : The ratio of sine of the angle of incidence to the angle of refraction (r) is a constant
called refractive index
sin i  2 sini
i.e. = (a constant). For two media, Snell's law can be written as 1  2 = =
sin r 1 sinr
 1  sini = 2  sinr i.e.  sin = constant
Also in vector form : ˆi  nˆ =  ( rˆ  nˆ )
Refractive Index
(1) Refractive index of a medium is that characteristic which decides speed of light in it.
(2) It is a scalar, unit less and dimensionless quantity.
(3) Absolute refractive index : When light travels from vacuum to any transparent medium then

refractive index of medium w.r.t. vacuum is called it’s absolute refractive index i.e. medium = c
vacuum
v
Absolute refractive indices for glass, water and diamond are respectively
3 4 12
 = = 1.5,  = = 1.33 and  = = 2.4
g w D
2 3 5

(4) Relative refractive index : When light travels from medium (1) to medium (2) then refractive index
2 v1
of medium (2) w.r.t. medium (1) is called it’s relative refractive index i.e.  = = (where v1 and v2 are
1 2
1 v2

the speed of light in medium 1 and 2 respectively).

(5) When we say refractive index we mean absolute refractive index.
(6) The minimum value of absolute refractive index is 1. For air it is very near to 1. ( ~= 1.003 )
B C
(7) Cauchy’s equation :  = A + + +......
2 4
(Red  violetso Red  violet)

(8) If a light ray travels from medium (1) to medium (2), then
2 1 v1
 = = =
1 2
1 2 v2

(9) Dependence of Refractive index

(i) Nature of the media of incidence and refraction.
(ii) Colour of light or wavelength of light.
(iii) Temperature of the media : Refractive index decreases with the increase in temperature.
Table 29.2 : Indices of refraction for various substances, Measured with light of vacuum wavelength
0 = 589 nm

159
Substance Refract Substance Refract
ive ive
index index
Solids at 20°C Liquids at
20°C
Diamond (C) 2.419 Benzene 1.501
Fluorite 1.434 Carbon 1.628
(CaF2) disulfide
Flused quartz 1.458 Carbon 1.461
(SiO2) tetrachloride
Glass, crown 1.52 Ethyl alcohol 1.361
Glass, flint 1.66 Glycerine 1.473
Ice (H2O) (at 1.309 Water 1.333
0oC)
Polystyrene 1.49 Gases at
0°C,
1 atm
Sodium 1.544 Air 1.00029
chloride 3
Zircon 1.923 Carbon 1.00045
dioxide

(10) Reversibility of light and refraction through several media

Incident
1
1 ray

i 2

r 3
2
1

1 12  2 3  3 1 = 1
(A) 1  2 = (B) 
2 1 or 2 3 = 1 3
1 2

Real and Apparent Depth

If object and observer are situated in different medium then due to refraction, object appears to be
displaced from it’s real position.
(1) When object is in denser medium and observer is in rarer medium

160

h
h O
d O

Real depth h
(i)  = =
Apparent depth h

(ii) Real depth > Apparent depth

'  1 4 h
(iii) Shift d = h − h = 1 −  h . For water  = 3 d = 4 ;
 

For glass  = 3  d = h
2 3

(iv) Lateral magnification : consider an object of height x placed vertically in a medium 1 such that the
lower end (B) is a distance h from the interface and the upper end (A) at a distance (h – x) from the interface.
Opti

1
(h – x) A'
h B'
A
B

Distance of image of B (i.e. B') from the interface = 2 h

1
2
Distance of image of A (i.e. A') from the interface = (h − x)
1

Therefore, length of the image 2 x

1
2 1
or, the lateral magnification of the object m= =
1 

(v) If a beaker contains various immiscible liquids as shown then

Apparent depth of bottom = d1 d2 d3
+ + + ....
1 2 3 d1
1

dAC d + d + ..... 2 d2
 combination = = 1 2
 d
d App . d1 + d2 3 3
....
1 2 +
21 2
(In case of two liquids if d =d than  = )
1 2
1 2
+
(2) Object is in rarer medium and observer is in denser medium
O d
h
O h

161
h'
(i)  =
h

(ii) Real depth < Apparent depth.

(iii) d = ( − 1)h
h h
(iv) Shift for water dw = ; Shift for glass d =
g
3 2
Refraction Through a Glass Slab
(1) Lateral shift : The refracting surfaces of a glass slab are parallel to each other. When a light ray
passes through a glass slab it is refracted twice at the two parallel faces and finally emerges out parallel to
it's incident direction i.e. the ray undergoes no deviation  = 0. The angle of emergence (e) is equal to the
angle of incidence (i)
i

r 
t N

M e

The Lateral shift of the ray is the perpendicular distance between the incident and the emergent ray, and
it is given by
MN = t sec r sin (i – r)
(2) Normal shift : If a glass slab is placed in the path of a converging or diverging beam of light then point
of convergence or point of divergence appears to be shifted as shown

O' O
Normal shift x

 1 t
OO ' = x = 1 −  t



(3) Optical path : It is defined as distance travelled by light in vacuum in the same time in which it
travels a given path length in a medium.
x
Time taken by light ray to pass through the medium = ; where x = geometrical path and x = optical
c

path 
Light

Total Internal Reflection (TIR)

When a ray of light goes from denser to rarer medium it bends away from the normal and as the angle of
incidence in denser medium increases, the angle of refraction in rarer medium also increases and at a certain
angle, angle of refraction becomes 90o, this angle of incidence is called critical angle (C).

162
When Angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle than light ray comes back in to the same medium
after reflection from interface. This phenomenon is called Total internal reflection (TIR).
r
90°

i C  >C 

O
1
(1)  = = cosec C where  → Rarer Denser
sin C

(2) Conditions for TIR

(i) The ray must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
(ii) The angle of incidence i must be greater than critical angle C
(3) Dependence of critical angle
1
(i) Colour of light (or wavelength of light) : Critical angle depends upon wavelength as    sin C


(a) R  V  CR  CV
1  R D v D (for two media)
(b) Sin C = = = =
R D  D R v R

(ii) Nature of the pair of media : Greater the refractive index lesser will be the critical angle.
(a) For (glass- air) pair → Cglass = 42 o

(b) For (water-air) pair → C water = 49 o

(c) For (diamond-air) pair → Cdi amond = 24 o

(iii) Temperature : With temperature rise refractive index of the material decreases therefore critical angle
increases.
Common Examples of TIR
(1) Looming : An optical illusion in cold countries
(2) Mirage : An optical illusion in deserts

(3) Brilliance of diamond : Due to repeated internal reflections diamond sparkles.

(4) Optical fibre : Optical fibres consist of many long high quality composite glass/quartz fibres. Each
fibre consists of a core and cladding.
(i) The refractive index of the material of the core (1) is higher than that of the cladding (2).

163
(ii) When the light is incident on one end of the fibre at a small angle, the light passes inside, undergoes
repeated total internal reflections along the fibre and finally comes out. The angle of incidence is always
larger than the critical angle of the core material with respect to its cladding.
(iii) Even if the fibre is bent, the light can easily travel through along the fibre
(iv) A bundle of optical fibres can be used as a 'light pipe' in medical and optical examination. It can also
be used for optical signal transmission. Optical fibres have also been used for transmitting and receiving
electrical signals which are converted to light by suitable transducers.
2
1

(5) Field of vision of fish (or swimmer) : A fish (diver) inside the water can see the whole world through
a cone with.
r

C  >C
h
C C

(a) Apex angle = 2C = 98 o

h 3h
(b) Radius of base r = h tan C = ; for water r=
 −12 7

9
(c) Area of base A = 2 h ; for water
2
a= h2
( − 1) 7

(6) Porro prism : A right angled isosceles prism, which is used in 45o 90
45 45
periscopes or binoculars. It is used to deviate light rays through 90 o
and 45
45o 45o
90 45o
180 o and also to erect the image. B A
B
A
90

Refraction From Spherical Surface 45o 45o

1 2 1 2
O P I O P I

(1) Refraction formula :  2 − 1 =

2
−
1
R v u

Where 1 = Refractive index of the medium from which light rays are coming (from object).
2 = Refractive index of the medium in which light rays are entering.

u = Distance of object, v = Distance of image, R = Radius of curvature

164
(2) Lateral magnification : The lateral magnification m is the ratio of 1
2
h0 C
the image height to the object height P hi
 hi   1   v  u v
or m = h  =   u 

 0   2  

Lens
(1) Lens is a transparent medium bounded by two refracting surfaces, such that at least one surface is
curved. Curved surface can be spherical, cylindrical etc.
(2) Lenses are of two basic types convex which are thicker in the middle than at the edges and concave
for which the reverse holds.

Biconvex Plano convex Concavo convex

Biconcave Plano concave Convexo concave

(3) As there are two spherical surfaces, there are two centres of curvature C1 and C2 and correspondingly
two radii of curvature R1 and R2
(4) The line joining C1 and C2 is called the principal axis of the lens. The centre of the thin lens which is
on the principal axis, is called the optical centre.
(5) A ray passing through optical centre proceeds un-deviated through the lens.
Incident light R1 → Positive

C2 R2 O C1

(A)
Incident light R1 → Negative

C1 R1 C2

(B)

(6) Principal focus : We define two principal focus for the lens. We are mainly concerned with the
second principal focus (F). Thus wherever we write the focus, it means the second principal focus.
First principal focus : An object point for which image is formed at infinity.

F1 F1

(A) (B)

165
Second principal focus : An image point for an object at infinity.

F2 F2

(A) (B)

Focal Length, Power and Aperture of Lens

(1) Focal length (f) : Distance of second principle focus from optical centre is called focal length
fconvex →positive, fconcave → negative, fplane → 

(2) Aperture : Effective diameter of light transmitting area is called aperture. Intensityof image  (Aperture)2

(3) Power of lens (P) : Means the ability of a lens to deviate the path of the rays passing through it. If the
lens converges the rays parallel to the principal axis its power is positive and if it diverges the rays it is
negative.
1 100
Power of lens P = = ; Unit of power is Diopter (D)
f(m) f(cm )

Pconvex → positive, Pconcave → negative, Pplane → zero .

Rules of Image Formation by Lens

Convex lens : The image formed by convex lens depends on the position of object.
(1) When object is placed at infinite (i.e. u = )
Image
At F
2F F F 2F
Real
Inverted
Very small in size
Magnification m << – 1
(2) When object is placed between infinite and 2F (i.e. u > 2f)
Image
Between F and 2F
Real F 2F
2F F
Inverted
Very small in size
Magnification m < – 1
(3) When object is placed at 2F (i.e. u = 2f )
Image
At 2F
Real F 2F

Inverted 2F F

Equal in size

166
Magnification m = – 1
(4) When object is placed between F and 2F (i.e. f < u < 2f )
Image
Beyond 2F F 2F

Real 2F F

Inverted
Large in size
Magnification m > – 1
(5) When object is placed at F (i.e. u = f )
Image
At  F 2F

Real 2F F

Inverted
Very large in size
Magnification m >> – 1
(6) When object is placed between F and optical center
(i.e. u < f )
Image
Same side as
that of object
Virtual F 2F

Erect F

large in size
Magnification m > 1
Concave lens : The image formed by a concave lens is always virtual, erect and diminished (like a convex
mirror)
(1) When object is placed at 
Image
At F 2F F 2F

Virtual
Erect
Point size
Magnification m << + 1
(2) When object is placed any where on the principal axis

167
Image
Between optical centre and focus
Virtual
Erect
Smaller in size F

Magnification m < + 1

Lens Maker's Formula and Lens Formula

(1) Lens maker's formula : If R1 and R2 are the radii of curvature of first and second refracting surfaces
of a thin lens of focal length f and refractive index  (w.r.t. surrounding medium) then the relation between
f, , R1 and R2 is known as lens maker’s formula.
1  1 1 
= ( − 1) − 
f  R1 R2 

Focal length of different lenses

Lens Focal length For  = 1.5
Biconvex lens
R1 = R R
f =
f=R
2( − 1)
R2 = −R

Plano-convex
lens
R
R1 =  f =
f = 2R
( − 1)
R2 = −R

Biconcave
R
R1 = −R f=−
f = −R
2( − 1)
R2 = +R

Plano-concave
R1 =  −R
f= f = −2R
R2 = R
( − 1)

(2) Lens formula : The expression which shows the relation between u, v and f is called lens formula.
1 1 1
= −
f v u

168
Magnification
The ratio of the size of the image to the size of object is called magnification.
I v f f −v
(1) Transverse magnification : m= = = = (use sign convention while solving the problem)
O u f +u f
2 2
I v −v dv  v 2  f   f −v 
(2) Longitudinal magnification : m= = 2 1
. For very small object m= =  =  = 
O u 2 − u1 du  u   f + u   f 
2
Ai f 
(3) Areal magnification : ms = =m =  2
,
Ao  f +u

(Ai = Area of image, Ao = Area of object)

(4) Relation between object and image speed : If an object moves with constant speed (Vo )

towards a convex lens from infinity to focus, the image will move slower in the beginning and then faster.
2
 f 
Also Vi =  f + u  . Vo
 

Lens Immersed in a Liquid

If a lens (made of glass) of refractive index g is immersed in a liquid of refractive index l, then its focal
1  1 1 
length in liquid, fl is given by f = ( l g − 1)  R − R  . .... (i)
l  1 2 

If fa is the focal length of lens in air, then

1  1 1 
f = ( a g − 1)  R − R  . .... (ii)
a  1 2 

fl (aμg − 1)
 =
fa (lμg − 1)

(1) If g  l, then fl and fa are of same sign and fl  fa .

That is the nature of lens remains unchanged, but it’s focal length increases and hence power of lens
decreases.
(2) If g = l, then fl =  . It means lens behaves as a plane glass plate and becomes invisible in the medium.

(3) If g  l, then fl and fa have opposite signs and the nature of lens changes i.e. a convex lens diverges
the light rays and concave lens converges the light rays.

169
Displacement Method
By this method focal length of convex lens is determined.
Consider an object and a screen placed at a distance D (> 4f) apart. Let a lens of focal length f be placed
between the object and the screen.
x
Object

O
I2
I1
D > 4f
S cr e en
(1) For two different positions of lens two images (I1 and I )2 of an object are f o r m e d at the screen.
D2 − x 2 x
(2) Focal length of the lens f = =
4D m1 − m 2

I1 I2
where m1 = ; m = and m1 m 2 = 1.
2 O
O

(3) Size of object O= I1 . I2

Cutting of Lens
(1) A symmetric lens is cut along optical axis in two equal parts. Intensity of image formed by each part
will be same as that of complete lens. Focal length is double the original for each part.
(2) A symmetric lens is cut along principle axis in two equal parts. Intensity of image formed by each
1
part will be less compared as that of complete lens.(aperture of each part is times that of complete lens).
2

Focal length remains same for each part.

2f 2f
f, P
P/2 P/2

f, P

Combination of Lens
(1) For a system of lenses, the net power, net focal length and magnification are given as follows :
P = P + P + P ............. , 1 1 1 + 1 +............. , m = m  m  m .......... ..
1 2 3
= + 1 2 3
F f1 f2 f3

(2) In case when two thin lens are in contact : Combination will behave as a lens, which have more power
or lesser focal length.
1 1
= +
1  F= f1 f2 and P=P +P
1 2
F f1 f2 f1 + f2

170
(3) If two lens of equal focal length but of opposite nature are in contact then combination will behave as
a plane glass plate and Fcombination = 

(4) When two lenses are placed co-axially at a distance d from each other then equivalent focal length
(F).
f1 f2

1 1 1 d and d
= + − P = P1 + P2 − dP1 P2
F f1 f2 f1 f2

(5) Combination of parts of a lens :

 and

f F=f F=f

and
F = f/2
F=
f

Silvering of Lens
On silvering the surface of the lens it behaves as a mirror. The focal length of the silvered lens is
1 2 1
= +
F fl fm

where fl = focal length of lens from which refraction takes place (twice)
fm = focal length of mirror from which reflection takes place.
(1) Plano convex is silvered

 +

F fl fm
R R R
f = , f = so F=
m
2 l
( − 1) 2

 +

F fl fm

R R
fm = , fl = so F=
( − 1) 2 ( − 1)

171
ii) Double convex lens is silvered

 +

Since F
R Rf l so fm
R
fl = , fm = F=
2 ( − 1) 2 2 (2 − 1)

Defects in Lens
(1) Chromatic aberration : Image of a white object is coloured and blurred because  (hence f) of lens
is different for different colours. This defect is called chromatic aberration.

Real Violet
White
light FV FR

fV
fR
V  R so fR  fV

Mathematically chromatic aberration = fR − fV = ωfy

 = Dispersive power of lens.

fy = Focal length for mean colour = fR fV

Removal: To remove this defect i.e. for Achromatism we use two or more lenses in contact in place of
single lens.
1 2
Mathematically condition of Achromatism is : + =0 or  f = − f
1 2 2 1
f1 f2

(2) Spherical aberration: Inability of a lens to form the point image of a point object on the axis is called
Spherical aberration.
In this defect all the rays passing through a lens are not focussed at a single point and the image of a point
object on the axis is blurred.

Marginal rays
Marginal rays

Paraxial ray F F F

Paraxial rays

Removal : A simple method to reduce spherical aberration is to use a stop before and infront of the lens.
(but this method reduces the intensity of the image as most of the light is cut off). Also by using plano-convex
lens, using two lenses separated by distance d = F – F ', using crossed lens.

172
(3) Coma : When the point object is placed away from the principle axis and the image is received on a
screen perpendicular to the axis, the shape of the image is like a comet. This defect is called Coma.
It refers to spreading of a point object in a plane ⊥ to principle axis.
Image of P
P

Axis

Removal : It can be reduced by properly designing radii of curvature of the lens surfaces. It can also be
reduced by appropriate stops placed at appropriate distances from the lens.
(4) Curvature : For a point object placed off the axis, the image is spread both along and perpendicular
to the principal axis. The best image is, in general, obtained not on a plane but on a curved surface. This
defect is known as Curvature.
Removal : Astigmatism or the curvature may be reduced by using proper stops placed at proper locations
along the axis.
(5) Distortion : When extended objects are imaged, different portions of the object are in general at
different distances from the axis. The magnification is not the same for all portions of the extended object.
As a result a line object is not imaged into a line but into a curve.

Object Distorted images

(6) Astigmatism : The spreading of image (of a point object placed away from the principal axis) along
the principal axis is called Astigmatism.
Prism
Prism is a transparent medium bounded by refracting surfaces, such that the incident surface (on which
light ray is incidenting) and emergent surface (from which light rays emerges) are plane and non parallel.
(1) Refraction through a prism
A
i – Angle of incidence,
A

e e – Angle of emergence,
i r1 r2

A – Angle of prism or
 refracting
C B

A = r1 + r2 and i+ e = A +
sini
For surface AC  = ; For surface AB 1
=
sin r2
sin r1  sin e

(2) Deviation through a prism : For thin prism  = ( − 1)A . Also deviation is different for different colour

light e.g. R  V so  R   V .

173
Flint  Crown so  F   C
(i) Maximum deviation : Condition of maximum deviation is  i = 90 o  r = C, r = A − C and from Snell’s
1 2

law on emergent surface max

e
 sin(A − C)
−1 i = 90o r2
e = sin   r1 = C
 sin C 
  sin(A − C)
 max = + sin−1 −A
2  sin C 
 

(ii) Minimum deviation : It is observed if i = e and r1 = r2 = r , deviation produced is minimum.

i e
r r
m

(a) Refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to the base of the prism for equilateral and isosceles prisms.
A A +m
(b) r= and i=
2 2

A + m
sin
sin i 2
(c) = or  = (Prism formula).
sin A / 2 sin A / 2

(3) Condition of no emergence : For no emergence of light, TIR must takes place at the second surface
For TIR at second surface r2 > C
A
So A > r1 + C (From A = r1 + r2) i r1 r
2

As maximum value of r1 = C
TIR

So, A  2C. for any angle of incidence.

If light ray incident normally on first surface i.e.  i = 0° it means r1 = 0°. So in this case condition of
no emergence from second surface is A > C.
1
 sin A  sin C  sin A     cosec A


Dispersion Through a Prism

The splitting of white light into it’s constituent colours is called dispersion of light.

174
(1) Angular dispersion ( ) : Angular separation between extreme colours i.e. θ = δV − δR = (μV − μ R )A . It

depends upon  and A.

V
 R Y Screen
Incident
R

Y
V

(2) Dispersive power () :

 
= V −  R wher e  = V +  R 
=
 
y y − 1 
y
2 

 It depends only upon the material of the prism i.e.  and it doesn't depends upon angle of prism A
(3) Combination of prisms : Two prisms (made of crown and flint material) are combined to get either
dispersion only or deviation only.
(i) Dispersion without deviation (chromatic combination)
A' ( y − 1)
=−
A ('y −1)
 ' 
 = 1 − = ( − '  ' )
net  
 

(ii) Deviation without dispersion (Achromatic combination)

A' (V −  R ) Flint
=−
A (  'V − ' R ) A
  R
 = 1−
 
net
 '  V A

Crown
Lens Camera
(1) In lens camera a converging lens of adjustable aperture is used.
(2) Distance of film from lens is also adjustable.
(3) In photographing an object, the image is first focused on the film by adjusting the distance between
lens and film. It is called focusing. After focusing, aperture is set to a specific value and then film is exposed
to light for a given time through shutter.
(4) f-number : The ratio of focal length to the aperture of lens is called f-number of the camera.
2, 2.8, 4, 5.6, 8, 11, 22, 32 are the f-numbers marked on aperture.
Focal length 1
f-number =  Aperture 
Aperture f - number

(5) Time of exposure : It is the time for which the shutter opens and light enters the camera to expose
film.
(i) If intensity of light is kept fixed then for proper exposure
1
Time of exposure (t) 
(Aperture)2

(ii) If aperture is kept fixed then for proper exposure

175
1
Time of exposure (t) 
[Intensity(I)]2

 I t = constant  I1t1 = I2t2

(iii) Smaller the f-number larger will be the aperture and lesser will be the time of exposure and faster
will be the camera.
(6) Depth of focus : It refers to the range of distance over which the object may lie so as to form a good
quality image. Large f-number increase the depth of focus.
Microscope
It is an optical instrument used to see very small objects. It’s magnifying power is given by
Visual angle with instrument ( )
m=
Visual angle when object is placed at least distance of distinct vision ()

(1) Simple microscope

(i) It is a single convex lens of lesser focal length.
(ii) Also called magnifying glass or reading lens.
 D
(iii) Magnification’s, when final image is formed at D and  (i.e. m and m ) m = 1+ and
D  D  
 f max

 D
m =  
 f min

D−a D−a
(iv) If lens is kept at a distance a from the eye then mD = 1 + and m =
f f

A

Virtual and
enlarged image
A

B F B

Compound microscvoe =pD eto 

uo vo ue

B
B Q E

O A

ve=D to 

(i) Consist of two converging lenses called objective and eye lens.
(ii) feye lens  fobjective and (diameter) eye lens  (diameter )objective

(iii) Intermediate image is real and enlarged.

(iv) Final image is magnified, virtual and inverted.
(v) uo = Distance of object from objective (o), vo = Distance of image (AB) formed by objective from
objective, ue = Distance of AB from eye lens, ve = Distance of final image from eye lens, fo = Focal length of
objective, fe = Focal length of eye lens.

176
vo  D
(vi) Final image is formed at D : Magnification mD = − 1 + f  and length of the microscope tube
uo  e 

(distance between two lenses) is LD = vo + ue .

Generally object is placed very near to the principal focus of the objective hence uo ~= fo . The eye piece is
also of small focal length and the image formed by the objective is also very near to the eye piece.
So vo ~= LD , the length of the tube.
−L D
Hence, we can write mD = f 1 + f 
o  e 

(vii) Final image is formed at  : Magnification

v0 D
m =− . and length of tube L =v + f
  0 e
u0 fe

(L − fo − fe )D
In terms of length m =
fo fe

(viii) For large magnification of the compound microscope, both fo and fe should be small.
(ix) If the length of the tube of microscope increases, then its magnifying power increases.
(x) The magnifying power of the compound microscope may be expressed as M = mo  me ; where mo is
the magnification of the objective and me is magnifying power of eye piece.
Astronomical Telescope (Refracting Type)
By astronomical telescope heavenly bodies are seen.
A fo ue

B
B
O Q E

A

P
ve=D to 

(1) fobjective  feyelens and d objective  d eye lens .

(2) Intermediate image is real, inverted and small.

(3) Final image is virtual, inverted and small.
(4) Magnification : m D = − f0 1 + fe  and m  = − fo
f D f
e   e

(5) Length : LD = f0 + ue and L = f0 + fe

177
Reflecting Telescope
Reflecting telescopes are based upon the same principle except that the formation of images takes place
by reflection instead of by refraction.
T1

Light from

45o
M

Objective Eye piece

If fo is focal length of the concave spherical mirror used as objective and fe, the focal length of the eye-
fo
piece, the magnifying power of the reflecting telescope is given by m=
fe

Further, if D is diameter of the objective and d, the diameter of the pupil of the eye, then brightness ratio
D2
() is given by  =
d2

Resolving Limit and Resolving Power

(1) Microscope : In reference to a microscope, the minimum distance between two lines at which they
are just distinct is called Resolving limit (RL) and it’s reciprocal is called Resolving power (RP)

and R.P. = 2 sin 1
R.L. =  R.P. 
2 sin   
O
Objective

 = Wavelength of light used to illuminate the object,

 = Refractive index of the medium between object and objective,
 = Half angle of the cone of light from the point object,  sin  = Numerical aperture.

(2) Telescope : Smallest angular separations (d) between two distant objects, whose images are
1.22 
separated in the telescope is called resolving limit. So resolving limit d =
a

and resolving power (RP) =

1 a  R.P.  1
= where a = aperture of objective.
d 1.22  

178
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A lens of refractive index 1.5 is dipped in to a medium of refractive index 1.5. Then the new
refractive index of lens a) 1.5
b) 1.5x1.5 c) 1 d) 1.8
2. A convex lens has focal length f. It is cut in to two equal parts perpendicular to its principal axis.
The focal length of each part is
a) f/2 b)f c)3/2 f d) 2f
3. The brilliance of diamond is due to a)
Reflection b) Refraction c) TIR d) Scattering
4. The refractive index is greater for
a) light of low frequency b) light of shorter wavelength c) lighter of
greater wavelength d) All the above
5. A ray of light travels from vacuum to a medium of refractive index n. If the angle of incidence is
found to be twice angle of refraction, then angle of incidence is
a) cos-1 (n/2) b) 2 cos-1 (n/2) c) sin-1 (n/2) d) 2 sin-1 (n/2)
6. A convex lens is used to form a real inverted image of an illuminated object. If the top half of the
lens is covered with a black paper then the
a) bottom half of the image will vanish b) top half of the image will vanish
c) brightness of the image will decrease d) magnification of image will decrease
7. When a ray of light incident normally on one refracting surface of an equilateral prism of refractive
index 1.5 then
a) emergent ray is deviated by 300 b) emergent ray is deviated by 450
c) emergent ray just grazes the second refracting surface
d) the ray undergoes TIR at the second refracting surface
8. When a ray is refracted ,which of the following does not change
a) frequency b) wavelength c) velocity d) amplitude
9. The focal length of an equi convex lens in air is equal to either of its radii of curvature. The
refractive index of the material of the lens is
a) 4/3 b) 2.5 c) 1.25 d) 1.5
10. If the critical angle for a material to air is 300 , then the refractive index of the material will
be a) 1
b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 2.5
11. The angle of the prism is 300 .The rays incident at 600 at one refracting face suffer a deviation of
300. The angle of emergence is
a) 0 b) 30 c) 60 d) 90

179
12. Light travelling from a transparent medium to air undergoes TIR at an angle of
incidence 450. Then the refractive index of the medium may be
a) 1.5 b) 1.4 c) 1.1 d) 1/√2
13. A convex lens is made of three different materials as shown in figure. For a point
object on the principal axis, the number of images formed are

a) 5 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4
14. A compound microscope has two lenses. The magnifying power of one is 5 and the combined
magnifying power is 100. The magnifying power of the other lens is
a) 10 b) 20 c) 50 d) 25
15. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm produces a real image twice the size of the object. Then the
distance of the object from the lens is
a) 10 cm b) 20 cm c) 30 cm d)60 cm
16. An astronomical telescope has two lenses of powers 0.5 D and 20 D. Then its magnifying power
will be a) 8
b) 20 c) 30 d)40
17. In a compound microscope the intermediate image is
a) virtual, inverted and magnified b) real, inverted and diminished
c) virtual erect and magnified d) real , inverted and magnified
18. An endoscope is employed by a physician to view the internal parts of a body organ. It is based on
the principle of
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) TIR d) Dispersion
19. A prism of refractive index √2 has a refracting angle of 600. At what angle a ray must be incident
on it so that it suffers a minimum deviation
a) 45 b) 60 c) 90 d) 180
20. A lens acts as converging in air and diverging when immersed in water.
The refractive index of lens is ( nw=1.33 )
a) 1 b) below 1.33 c) greater than 1.33 d) less than unity

180
ANSWERS
1. c
2. d
3. c
4. b
5. b
by snell’s law, sin i/sin r=n
i=2r
n=sin2r/sinr=2sinr.cosr/sin r= 2cos r
r=cos-1 n/2 , then i= 2 cos-1 n/2
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. d
1/f= (n-1)( 1/R1-1/R2) , For equi convex lens R1=R and R2= -R
1/R= (n-1)2/R
10. c
11. a
d= i1+i2-A
12. b
sin ic= i/n
13. c
14. b
MC= MO* ME
15. c
F=20 cm
v/u =-2, v=-2u
1/f= 1/v -1/u
Sub, u= -30 cm
16. d
M= fo/fe=Pe/Po
17. d
18. c
19. a
at minimum deviation D, 2r=A r= A/2 =30 n=sin i/sin r
sub, i=45
20. b

181
Assertion Reason type Question
Option A: Both Assertion and reason are right and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Option B: Both Assertion and reason are right and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

Option C : Assertion is right but reason is wrong

Option D: Both Assertion and reason are false

1. Assertion: Power of a lens is inversely proportional to its focal length

Reason: focal length is measured in metres whereas power of a lens in dioptre

2. Assertion: focal length of lens varies when it is immersed in liquids

Reason: focal length of lens depends on refractive index of medium in which it is placed

3. Assertion: A glass slab is placed over different colored dots ( violet to red) and viewed through it,
then violet dot appeared to be raised more compared to red dot.

Reason: Red has least deviation than violet color

4. Assertion: Magnifying power of a telescope depends on its focal lengths of objective and
eyepiece Reason: In telescope focal
length of eyepiece is greater than that of objective

5. Assertion: A convex can act as divergent lens

Reason: when a convex lens placed in medium of higher refractive index, it behaves like concave
lens

Answers
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. A

182
1 MARK QUESTIONS
1. When a converging and diverging lens of equal focal length are combined what is the power of the
combination?
2. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary if the incident violet light is replaced
by red light?
3. For the same angle of incidence, the angle of refraction in two media A and B are 25° and 35°
respectively. In which one of the two media is the speed of light lesser?
4. The focal length of an equiconvex lens is equal to the radius of curvature of either face. What is the
value of refractive index of the material of the lens?
5. A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the
nature of the lens ?
6. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling
through the slab which colour will emerge out first from it?
7. Does the magnifying power of a microscope depend on the colour of the light used? Justify your
answer.
8. An unsymmetrical double convex thin lens forms the image of a point object on its axis. Will the
position of the image change if the lens is reversed?
9. State the condition under which a large magnification can be achieved in an astronomical telescope.
10. A lens of power of –4.0 D what is its focal length? Identify the nature of the lens.
ANSWERS
1. P=0, P=1/f1+1/f2
2. Decreases. dR<dV
3. 𝑣𝐴⃗<𝑣𝐵
4. N=sini/sinr=v1/v2,
nA/nB=sinrB/sinrA=𝑣𝐵/𝑣𝐴⃗
𝑟𝐴⃗<𝑟𝐵 , 𝑣𝐴⃗<𝑣𝐵
N=1.5
2
1 = (𝑛 − 1) , f=R, (n-1)=1/2
𝑓 𝑅

5. Convex lens
1 𝑛 −2
= ( 𝑔 − 1)(
), nm>ng, so fm =+ve
𝑓𝑚 𝑛𝑚 𝑅

6. red
7. Yes. M= 𝐿 x(1+ 𝐷 ), fαλ
𝑓𝑜 𝑓𝑒

8. No change. Principle of reversibility of light.

9. focal length of objective must be greater than focal length of eyepiece. M=fo/fe
10. f=-25cm,concave

183
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. What will be the Focal length of lens,
when immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 ?
2. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism such that the angle of incidence is equal to
angle of emergence and each of these angles is equal to 3/4 of angle of prism. What is the value of
angle of deviation?
3. A spherical convex surface of radius of curvature 20 cm, made of glass (n = 1.5) is placed in air. Find
the position of the image formed, if a point object is placed at 30 cm in front of the convex surface on
the principal axis.
4. Calculate the radius of curvature of an equi-concave lens of refractive index 1.5, when it is kept in a
medium of refractive index 1.4, to have a power of –5D.
5. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
separation between the objective and an eye piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity.
Calculate the focal length of the objective and the focal length of the eye piece?
6. The refractive index of a material of a concave lens is n1. It is immersed in a medium of refractive
index n2. A parallel beam of light is incident on the lens. Trace the path of emergent rays when (i) n2
= n1 (ii) n2>n1 (iii) n2< n1.
7. The radii of curvature of both the surfaces of a lens are equal. If one of the surfaces is made plane by
grinding, then will the focal length of lens change? Will the power change?
8. Give two reasons to explain why a reflecting telescope is preferred over a refracting telescope.
9. Calculate the speed of light in a medium whose critical angle is 45°. Does critical angle for a given
pair of media depend on wave length of incident light? Give reason.
10. An equilateral glass prism has a refractive index 1.6 in air. Calculate the angle of minimum deviation
of the prism, when kept in a medium of refractive index 4√2 /5 .
ANSWERS
1. 1 =(n-1)2 ,1/2=(1.5-1)*2/R, R=2cm
𝑓 𝑅

1 =(1.5/1.25-1)*2/R, f=5cm
𝑓

2. In prism i + e = A + D = and i= e=3/4A

A+D=3/4A+3/4A, D=A/2=30°
3. 𝑛2 𝑛1 𝑛2−𝑛1
- =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑅

𝑉 = −180𝑐𝑚
4. 1 =(n-1)2 , R=2.86cm
𝑓 𝑅

5. Magnification m = f0 / fe = 5
f0 = 5 fe length of the tube, L = f0 +fe=36cm

184
fe=6cm & fo=30cm
6.

7. 1 =(n-1)2, f=R/2(n-1)
𝑓 𝑅

𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑎 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝑅 = 𝛼

F’=R/(n-1)=2f, f is doubled
P=1/f , p’=p/2, power is halved
8. Reflecting telescope is preferred over refracting telescope because
(a) No chromatic aberration, because mirror is used.
(b) Spherical aberration can be removed by using a parabolic mirror.
(c) Image is bright because no loss of energy due to reflection.
(d) Large mirror can provide easier mechanical support.
9. n=1/sinic=1/sin45=√2
Yes, critical angle for a pair of media depends on wavelength, because n=a+b/λ2 where a and
b are constants of the media.
𝐴⃗+𝑑𝑚)
sin (
10. n= 2
𝐴⃗ =𝑛2
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑛1
2
60+𝑑𝑚)
1.6𝑥5 sin (
= = 𝑠𝑖𝑛
2
60
4√2
2

Dm=30
3 MARKS
1. Three rays 1,2, 3 of different colours fall normally on one of the sides of an isosceles right angled
prism as shown in fig. The refractive indices of prism for these rays are 1.39, 1.47 and 1.52
respectively. Find which of these rays get normally reflected and which get only refracted from AC.
Trace the path of rays. Justify your answer with the necessary calculations ?

185
2. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate image formation by a Newtonian type reflecting telescope? Hence
state two advantages of it over refracting type telescopes?
3. Write two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to take place.
4. When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media, the reflected and refracted
light both have the same frequency as the incident frequency. Explain why?
5. What is total internal reflection? Under what conditions does it occur? Find a relation between critical angle
and refractive index and name one phenomenon which is based on total internal reflection.
6. A ray of light incident on face AB of an equilateral glass prism shows a
minimum deviation of 30°. Calculate the speed of light through the prism
also find the angle of incidence at face AB so that the emergent ray grazes
along with the face AC.

7. Find the radius of curvature of the convex surface of a plane convex lens, whose focal length is 0.3m
and the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5?
8. Show that the limiting value of the angle of prism is twice its critical angle? Hence define critical
angle?
9. Drive the expression for the angle of deviation for a ray of light passing through an equilateral prism
of refracting angle A?
10. Define total infernal reflection of light? Hence write two advantages of total reflecting prisms over a
plane mirror?
ANSWERS
1. When light is incident normally on face AB, so no deviation
occur. Light is incident on face AC at an angle of 45 . The face
AC will transmit light for which i is less than ic .

2. Advantages
a. The image formed in reflecting type telescope is
free from chromatic aberrations.
b. The image formed is very bright due to its large
light gathering power.

Newtonian telescope (reflecting type)

186
3. (a) The incident ray should travel from the denser to the rarer medium.
(b) The angle of incidence, in the denser medium, should be greater than the critical angle for the given
pair of media.
4. Reflection and refraction arise through the interaction of incident light with the atomic constituents of
matter. Atoms may be viewed as oscillators that take up the frequency of the external agency (light)
causing forced oscillations. The frequency of light emitted by a charged oscillator equals its frequency
of oscillation. Thus the frequency of scattered light equals the frequency of incident light.
5. Reflection of a light by a substance through which light can pass is called total internal reflection, it occurs when
the angle made by the incidence ray is more than critical angle. critical angle is that angle which is made by
incidence ray with normal above which the total internal reflection will take place. When the angle of refraction
is equal to 90°, the angle of incidence is called the critical angle, at any angle of incidence greater than the critical
angle, the light cannot pass through the surface - it is all reflected. Optical fiber works on total internal reflection

For plane convex lens

R = 0.15 m

187
8. Angle of the prism

For limiting (Maximum) Value of angle of prism for means

But when =C

Amax = 2C
The angle of incidence for which angle of refraction is 90o is called critical angle.

9. At the surface AB

At
the surface AC

—-(1) In
quadrilateral AQOR

—-(2)

Now in

—-(3)
From (2) and (3)

—-(4)
Substituting equation (4) in equation (1)

=i+e–A
Or

A+ =i+e
10. The phenomenon of reflection of light when a ray of light traveling from a denser medium is sent
back to the same denser medium provided the angle of incidence is greater than the angle called
critical angle is called total internal reflection.

188
Advantages
1. It does require silvering
2. Multiple reflections do not take place in a reflecting prism due to this; only one image is formed,
which is very bright.
5 marks Questions
1. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of focal length 15 cm are kept 30 cm apart
with their principal axes coincident. When an object is placed 30 cm in front of the convex lens,
calculate the position of the final image formed by the combination. Would this result change if the
object were placed 30 cm In front of the concave lens? Give reason.
2. Draw a labelled diagram of telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct
vision? Hence derive the expression for its magnifying power?
3. Derive the relation
Where 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 are focal lengths of two thin lenses and F is the focal length of the combination in
contact.
4. A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam 12
cm from P. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is (a) a convex lens of focal length 20
cm, and (b) a concave lens of focal length 16 cm?
5. A ray of light Is an Incident on one face of a glass prism and emerges out from the other face. Trace
the path of the ray and derive an expression for the refractive index of the glass prism. Also, plot a
graph between the Angle of incidence and angle of deviation.
6. A) Below given figure shows a cross-section of a ‘light pipe’ made of a glass fibre of refractive
index 1.68.

The outer covering of the pipe is made of a material of refractive index 1.44. What is the range of
the angles of the incident rays with the axis of the pipe for which total reflections inside the pipe
take place, as shown in the figure.
B) What is the answer if there is no outer covering of the pipe?

189
7. Derive the lens maker formula.
8. a) under what conditions is the phenominon of total internal reflection of light observed ? Obtain the
relation between the critical angle and refractive index of the medium ?
b) three lenses of focal lengths + 10 cm, -10 cm and + 30 cm are arranged co axially as shown in the
figure.Find the position of the final image formed by the combination ?

9. a) Draw a ray diagram for the final image formed at a distance of distinct vision (D) by a compound
microscope and write expression for its magnifying power
b) An angular magnification of 30 is desired for a compound microscope using an objective of focal
length 1.25 cm and eye piece of focal length 5 cm. How will you set up the compound microscope
?
10. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between the optic centre
and focus of the convex lens. Write the characteristics of image formed. Using this diagram, derive
the relation between object distance , image distance and focal length of the convex lens. Write the
assumptions and conventions of signs used. Draw the graph showing the variation of u and v .
ANSWERS
1. The image of an object can be obtained at two different positions of a convex lens for a fixed value of
the distance between the object and the screen if values of u and v are interchanged in these two
positions. This situation is as shown below.

Here x + 20 + x = 90 cm or x = 35cm
Therefore, u = -35 cm, v = + 55 cm, f = ?

190
Or

For image formed by a convex Lens

f1 = + 20 cm, u = – 30 cm

Therefore, u for concave Lens = 60 – 30 = + 30 cm and f2 = – 15 cm

Now for concave lens

No, the result will not change as per the principle of reversibility.
2.

magnifying power =

(since angles are very small)

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—-(i)
For eye piece

Multiply by D

Substituting in e.g. (i)

3. Consider two thin lenses in contact having focal length For the first lens

For the second lens acts as an object which forms the final image I

Adding equation (1) & (2)

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Using lens formula

For n no. of thin lenses is contact

4. In the given situation, the object is virtual and the image formed is real.
Object distance, u = +12 cm
(a) Focal length of the convex lens, f= 20 cm
Image distance = v
According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Hence, the image is formed 7.5 cm away from the lens, toward its right.
(b) Focal length of the concave lens, f= –16 cm
Image distance = v
According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Hence, the image is formed 48 cm away from the lens, toward its right.
5.
Consider a cross-section XYZ of a prism as shown in the
figure. Let A be the angle of the prism. A ray PQ of
monochromatic light is incident on face XY of the prism at an
angle i. The ray is called the incident ray and the angle is

193
called the angle of incidence. This ray is refracted towards the normal NQE and travels in the prism
along QR. This ray is called the refracted ray at the face XY.
Let r1 be the angle of refraction at this surface. The refracted ray QR is incident at an angle r 2 on the
surface XZ. The ray QR again suffers refraction and emerges out of face XZ at an angle e along with
RS. The ray is called the emergent ray and the angle e is called the angle of emergence. When the ray
SR is extended backwards it meets the extended ray PQ at point D such that δ is the angle of
deviation of the ray.
As seen from figure we have in triangle QDR that ∠DQR = i – r1 and
∠DRQ = e – r2. Therefore from triangle QDR we have
δ = ∠DQR + ∠DRQ = (i – r1) + (e – r2)
or
δ = (i + e) – (r1 + r2) …(1)
Now from the quadrilateral XQER, we have
A + E = 180° …(2)
In triangle QER we have r1 + r2 + e – 180° …(3)
From equations (2) and (3) we have
A = r1 + r2 …(4)
Substituting in equation (1) we have
δ=i+e–A or
i + e = A + δ … (5)
The deviation produced by a prism depends upon (i) the angle of incidence (ii) the angle of prism and
(Hi) the refractive index of the material of the prism. It is found that as the angle of incidence
changes, the angle of deviation also changes.
A graph between the angle of incidence and the angle of deviation is
shown in the figure above. As the angle of incidence increases, the
angle of deviation first decreases becomes a minimum for a
particular angle of incidence and then increases. The minimum
value of the angle of deviation is called the angle of minimum
deviation. It is denoted by δm. In this position the ray of light passes
symmetrically through the prism, i.e. the refracted ray QR is parallel to the base of the prism. In this
position, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence, i.e. i = e. Also in this position, the
angle of refraction at the faces of the prism are equal, i.e. r 1 = r2. Substituting these values in
equations (4) and (5) we have
A = r1 + r2 = r + r = 2r
or
r = A/2 …(6)
and i + i = A + δm

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or
2i = A + δm
n =sin((A+δm )/ 2) / sin(A/2). Thus, above is the prism formula.

6. Refractive index of the glass fibre,

Refractive index of the outer covering of the pipe, = 1.44

Angle of incidence = i
Angle of refraction = r
Angle of incidence at the interface = i‘

The refractive index of the inner core – outer core interface is given as:

For the critical angle, total internal reflection (TIR) takes place only when , i.e.,

Maximum angle of reflection,

Let, be the maximum angle of incidence.

The refractive index at the air – glass interface,

We have the relation for the maximum angles of incidence and reflection as:

Thus, all the rays incident at angles lying in the range will suffer total internal
reflection.
(b) If the outer covering of the pipe is not present, then:

Refractive index of the outer pipe, = Refractive index of air =1

For the angle of incidence , we can write Snell’s law at the air – pipe interface as:

195
Since > r, All incident rays will suffer total internal reflection
7.

The following assumptions are taken for the derivation of lens maker formula. Let us consider the
thin lens shown in the image above with 2 refracting surfaces having the radii of curvatures R1 and
R2, respectively.
Let the refractive indices of the surrounding medium and the lens material be n1 and n2, respectively.
The complete derivation of lens maker formula is described below. Using the formula for refraction at a
single spherical surface we can say that,
For the first surface,

For the second surface,

Now adding equation (1) and (2),

When u = ∞ and v = f

196
But also,

Therefore, we can say that,

Where μ is the refractive index of the material. This is the lens maker formula derivation.

8. a) sin ic / sin r = 1/n , r= 90°, when i= ic

sin ic = 1/n
b) For the image formed by first lens
- 1/u1 + 1/v1 = 1/f1
- 1/-30 + 1/v1 = 1/10,
v1 = 15 cm
The image formed by first lens acts as object for second lens. It is at a distance (15-5 ) = 10 cm to the
right of the second lens. Although the image is real it serves as a virtual object for the second lens so
as the rays appears to come from it . Thus for the second lens
1/v2 –1/u2 = 1/f2
so 1/v2-1/10 = 1/-10 ,
v2 = α , the virtual image is formed at infinite distance to the right of the second lens. It acts as the
object for the third lens.
1/v3 -1/u3 = 1/f3 , 1/v3 – 1/α = 1/30 ,
there fore v3 = 30 cm
9. a ) Refer NCERT TEXT
b) In the normal adjustment position for microscope, image is formed at least distance of
vision, D= 25 cm, fe= 5 cm, Angular magnification of eye piece = (1+ D/fe ) = 6
Total magnification =30. M= Me x Mo
Angular magnification of the objective , Mo = M/ Me = 30/6 = 5, Since real image is formed by the objective
there fore Mo = vo/ uo = - 5 or vo= -5 uo, fo= 1.25 cm, Usinf the formula -1/u + 1/vo = 1/fo
Uo = - 1.5 cm. Thus the object should be held at 1.5 cm in front of the objective lens, Also vo = -5 uo = 7.5
cm
As 1/ve -1/ue = 1/fe , ue = -4.17 cm. separation between the objective lens and eye piece is sum of
modulas of ue and vo = 4.17 + 7.5 = 11.67 cm.

197
10.

The image formed in the same side of the lens. It is virtual and erect. It is magnified. The lens
equation for this is given blow.

The graph showing the variation of object distance u and image distance v as follows

198
CASE BASED QUESTION: 1
An optical fibre is extremely thin and long strand of very fine quality glass or quartz
coated with the thin layer of a material of refractive index less than refractive index of strand. They are
used as a guided medium for transmission of signals over long distances. The inner layer is called core and
outer layer is called cladding. In order to provide the safety and strength the core cladding of optical fibre,
it is enclosed in a plastic jacket called as buffer coating.

1. Optical fibres are used extensively to transmit

a) Optical Signal b) current c) Sound waves d) None of the above
2. Which of the following statement is not true.
a) Optical fibres is based on the principle of total internal reflection.
b) The refractive index of the material of the core is less than that of the cladding.
c) An optical fibre can be used to act as an optical pipe.
d) There is no appreciable loss in the intensity of the light signal while propagating through an
optical fibre
3. In which of the following the principle of total internal reflection is not used.
a) Endoscope b) Mirage c) Total reflection prism d) Periscope

199
4. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond is that
(a) It has low refractive index (b) It has high transparency
(c)It has high refractive index (d) It is very hard
5. A substance has critical angle 45° for yellow light. What is its refractive index?
a) √2 b) 1/√2 c) 2 d) ½
ANSWERS
1. A) optical signal
2. B)
3. D)
4. C)
5. A)

CASE BASED QUESTION: 2

A prism is a portion of a transparent medium bounded by two plane faces inclined to each other at a suitable
angle. A ray of light suffers two refractions on passing through a prism and hence deviates through a certain
angle from its original path. The angle of deviation of a prism is, δ = (μ- 1) A, through which a ray deviates
on passing through a thin prism of small refracting angle A.
A+δm
sin ( )
If μ is refractive index of the material of the prism, then prism formula is,μ= sinA/2
2

1. For which colour, angle of deviation is minimum?

(a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) Violet (d) Blue
2. When white light moves through vacuum
(a) all colours have same speed (b) different colours have different speeds
(c) violet has more speed than red (d) red has more speed than violet.
3. The deviation through a prism is maximum when angle of incidence is
(a) 45° (b) 70°
(c) 90° (d) 60°
4. A ray of light falling at an angle of 50° is refracted through a prism and suffers minimum deviation.
If the angle of prism is 60°, then the angle of minimum deviation is
(a) 45° (b) 75°
(c) 50° (d) 40°
Ans: i) a
(ii) a
(iii) c
(iv) d

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CASE BASED QUESTION-3
A compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly magnified images of tiny
objects. Magnifying power of a compound microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the
eye by the final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object, when both the final image and the
objects are situated at the least distance of distinct vision from the eye. It can be given that: M=MO x Me ,
where Me is the magnification produced by the eyepiece and Mo is the magnification produced by the
objective lens. In the case of telescope , its magnification is given by the ratio of focal length of objective
lens to eye piece for normal adjustment condition.

1. A compound microscope with an objective of 1 cm focal length and an eyepiece of 2 cm focal

length has a tube length of 20 cm. Then the magnifying power of the microscope if the final image
is formed at the near point of eye
(a) 280 (b) 270 (c) 255 (d) 300
2. The final image in an astronomical telescope with respect to object is
(a) virtual erect (b) real erect (c) real and inverted (d) virtual and
inverted
3. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between
the objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. Then the focal lengths of lenses ?
(a) 10 cm, 10 cm (b)15 cm, 5 cm (c) 18 cm , 2 cm (d) 11 cm , 9 cm
4. The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is
(a) real, inverted and magnified (b) real, erect and magnified
(c) virtual, erect and magnified (d) virtual, inverted and magnified
Ans: i) b (ii) d (iii) c (iv) a
CASE BASED QUESTION : 4
Power of a lens is given by the reciprocal of focal length (f) of the lens ie P= 1/f where f is in metre
power in dioptre. For a convex lens power is positive and for concave lens power is negative. When a
number of thin lenses of powers P1, P2,P3…. Are held in contact with each other, power of the combination
is given by the algebraic sum of the powers of all the lenses . ie P= P1 + P2+ P3+………..
1. When two thin lenses of equal and opposite focal lengths are placed in contact then what is the
power of the combination
a) 0 b) α c) P1 + P2 d) P1 -P2
2. Two thin lenses are in contact and focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of
one is 20 cm , what would be the power of the other lens
a) 2 D b) 3.75 D c) -3.75 D d) 0
3. What is the focal length and power of a plane mirror
a) 0, α b) 0, 1 c) α, 0 d) α, 1

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4. Three lenses of powers 3D, -0.5 D and 1.5 D are placed in contact. Will the combination produce
converging or diverging effect
a) converging effect b) Diverging effect c) no effect d) sometimes converging sometimes
diverging
Ans: (i) a (ii) c (iii) c (iv) a
CASE BASED QUESTION : 5
The criteria for image formation by a mirror or a lens is , mimimum two reflected or refracted light rays
actually meet at a point or appears to meet at a point. The image formed by actal meeting of light rays is
called real image. When two light rays appears to meet at point , the image formed is called virtual image.
Real image can be focussed on screen but virtual image cannot be focussed on screen. Real image always
inveted while virtual image is erect.
1. A convex lens is of focal length 20 cm is cut in to two equal halves horizotally parallel to principal
axis. Then the focal length of each halves
a) 10 cm, 10 cm b) 5 cm, 5 cm c) 20 cm , 20 cm d) 20 cm , 10 cm
2. The half portion ( both sides) of a convex lens is painted with black colour, the what happens to the
image
a) the image will not be formed b) the size of the image will be half
c)image will be formed but its intensity will be half d) blurred image will be formed
3. A concave mirror and a convex lens are immerced in water, then what happens to focal length
a) focal length of both will not change b) focal length of both will change
c) mirror focal length will not change but lens focal length will increases
d) ) mirror focal length will not change but lens focal length will decreases
4. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm and concave lens of focal length 15 cm combined together
then the combination will acts as
a) converging b) diverging c) neither converging nor diverging d)it will not pass light
rays
Ans: (i) c (ii) c (iii) c (iv) c

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WAVE OPTICS

CONCEPT MAP

WAVE OPTICS

HUYGENE'S INTERFERENCE
PRINCIPLE DIFFRACTION

LAWS OF
REFLECTION CONDITION FOR YOUNG'S
CONSTRUCTIVE AND DOUBLE SLIT SINGLE SLIT
AND
REFRACTION DESTRUCTIVE EXPERIMENT EXPERIMENT
INTERFERENCE

CONDITION
FRINGE CONDITION FOR FOR MINIMA
WIDTH CENTRAL AND
MAXIMA SECONDARY
MAXIMA

SHORT NOTES
WAVE FRONT:
The surface of constant phase. ( It is the locus of all points where particles vibrate with same phase).
TYPES OF WAVE FRONT:
(i) Spherical wavefront : The wave front emerging from a point source.
(ii) Cylindrical Wavefront : the wave front emerging from a linear source
(iii) Plane Wave front : The wave front emerges from a distant source (point or linear)

203
HUYGEN’S PRINCIPLE :
It is the geometrical construction which allows to determine the position of wave front at any time.
1. Every point on the primary wave front act as the source
of secondary wavelets (part of the wavefront) which
spread out in all directions with same speed of the wave.
2. The surface touching these secondary wavelets
tangentially in the forward direction gives the position
of new wave front at that instant.

REFLECTION ON THE BASIS OF WAVE THEORY:

Consider a reflecting surface MN. Let AB be
a plane wavefront incident at an angle ∠ 𝑖
with the surface MN. After ‘t’ sec, the ray at
B travels a distance of ‘vt’ where v is the
speed of wave.
From the diagram, BC = AE = vt
Also ⊿ 𝐴⃗𝐵𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ⊿𝐴⃗𝐸𝐶, ∠𝐸 = ∠𝐵 = 90°
AC = AC
∴ ⊿ 𝐴⃗𝐵𝐶 ≅ ⊿ 𝐴⃗𝐸𝐶 and ∠𝑖 = ∠𝑟 Thus law of reflection is proved.
REFRACTION OF WAVE ON THE BASIS OF WAVE THEORY :
Let PP’ be the surface that separates two media in which velocity of light be V1 and V2.
Let AB be a plane wave front incident at an angle ∠𝑖.

𝑣1𝑡 𝑣2𝑡
𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑟 ⊿𝐴⃗𝐵𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ⊿𝐴⃗𝐸𝐶, sin 𝑖 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 sin 𝑟 =
𝐴⃗𝐶 𝐴⃗𝐶
sin 𝑖 𝑣1 --------------------------
= (1)
sin 𝑟 𝑣2
𝐶 𝑛2 𝑣1 ---------------------------------
Also we know that , 𝑛 = 𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 = = (2)
1 𝑣1 2 𝑣2 𝑛1 𝑣2
sin 𝑖
From (1) and (2) , 𝑛2 = =𝑛 and since V2 < V1, ∠𝑟 < ∠𝑖
𝑛1 sin 𝑟 21

Hence Snell’s law of refraction is verified.

204
BEHAVIOUR OF PRISM , LENS AND SPHERICAL MIRROR TOWARDS A PLANE WAVE
FRONT :
Prism : Refracted wavefront is tilted
towards the base of the prism.
Convex Lens : The refracted
wavefront is spherical and
converging.
Concave Mirror : Reflected
wavefront is converging and
spherical.

PRINCIPLE OF
SUPERPOSITION OF WAVES :
When a number of waves travelling through a medium, superpose on each other, the resultant displacement
at any point is equal to the vector sum of the displacements due to individual waves.⃗𝒚⃗⃗ = ⃗𝒚⃗⃗⃗⃗𝟏⃗ + ⃗𝒚⃗⃗⃗⃗𝟐⃗ +
………….+⃗𝒚⃗⃗⃗⃗𝒏⃗
INTERFERENCE :
When two light waves of same frequency
having constant phase difference
travelling in the same direction superpose each
other, the intensity in the region of super
position gets redistributed becoming maximum at some points and minimum at other points. This
phenomenon is Interference.
Constructive Interference :
An increase in intensity takes place at points
where crest of one wave falls on the crest of
other wave.
Destructive Interference :
A decrease in intensity takes place if crest of one
wave falls on the trough of another wave.
Condition for Interference :
Interference pattern is observed only when light waves being superposed are coherent.
Coherent Sources :
Sources which emit waves of constant phase difference and same frequency.
To obtain coherent sources, the waves emitted by a single source is split in to two parts. Two independent
sources can not act as coherent.
Conditions for Sustained Interference :

205
(i) Sources must be coherent
(ii) Amplitudes of two waves must be equal(which gives complete contrast in pattern)
(iii) Sources must be narrow.
(iv) Sources must be close to each other( to avoid overlapping, path difference must be small)
Conditions For constructive and Destructive Interference :
Let us consider two light waves, 𝑦1 = 𝑎1 sin 𝜔𝑡 and
𝑦2 = 𝑎2 sin(𝜔𝑡 + ∅) 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 ∅ 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑏𝑒𝑡𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑠.
𝑦 = 𝑦1 + 𝑦2 = 𝑎1 sin 𝜔𝑡 + 𝑎2 sin(𝜔𝑡 + ∅)
Y = A sin 𝜔𝑡 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝐴⃗ cos 𝜔𝑡 sin 𝜃
Y = A sin(𝝎𝒕 + 𝜽), resultant wave with amplitude A.
A2 = a12 + a22 + 2a1a2 Cos∅-------------(1)
Intensity of the wave ∝ (amplitude)2
I = I1 + I2 + 2 √𝑰𝟏𝑰𝟐 cos∅ ------------- (2)
When I1 = I2 =Io ( intensity of light from the two slits are equal)
I = 2 Io + 2Io cos ∅ = 2 Io(1 + cos∅)

I = 4 Io cos2∅⁄𝟐
Constructive Interference : Maximum intensity, cos∅ = +1
∅ = 0, 2𝜋, 4𝜋 , … … = 2𝑛 𝜋 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 = 0, 1,2 … ..
2𝜋
For ′𝑥′ path difference, 𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒, 𝜙 = 𝑥
𝜆

Therefore, 2𝜋 𝑥 = 2𝑛 𝜋
𝜆

𝒙 = 𝒏𝝀, 𝒏 = 𝟎, 𝟏, 𝟐, … …
Destructive Interference : Minimum intensity, cos∅ = −1
∅ = 𝜋, 3𝜋 , … … = (2𝑛 − 1)𝜋 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 = 1,2 … ..
2𝜋 𝑥 = (2𝑛 − 1) 𝜋
𝜆
𝝀
𝒙 = (𝟐𝒏 − 𝟏) , n = 1,2, 3…..
𝟐

Fringe Width :
The intensity of light at a point on screen will depend upon the
path difference between two waves arriving at that point. At C, the
path difference between the waves from the slits S1 and S2 is zero.
Therefore intensity is maximum.
𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ 𝑑𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒, 𝑥 = 𝑦𝑑
𝐷

If the point P is bright ( constructive interference),

𝑥 = 𝑛𝜆, 𝑦𝑑 = 𝑛𝜆
𝐷
𝐷𝑛𝜆
𝑦= , n = 0,1,2,3…….
𝑑

206
If the point P is dark ( destructive interference),
(2𝑛−1)𝜆 𝑦𝑑 (2𝑛−1)𝜆
𝑥= , =
2 𝐷 2

(2𝑛 − 1)𝐷𝜆
𝑦= , 𝑛 = 1, 2, 3 ….
2𝑑
Fringe width, 𝛽 = distance between two consecutive bright or dark fringes.
𝑫𝝀
𝜷= , all bright and dark fringes are of equal width.
𝒅

Width of central fringe = 2 x the distance of first dark fringes on either side.
𝐷𝜆 𝐷𝜆
𝛽𝑜 = 2 =
2𝑑 𝑑

Graphical Pattern of Interference

All bright fringes are equally bright.

Maximum and Minimum Intensity in terms of amplitudes :

Imax = a12 + a22 + 2 a1 a2 = (a1 + a2)2
Imin = a12 + a22 – 2 a1 a2 = (a1 - a2)2
𝑰𝒎𝒂𝒙 (𝒂𝟏 + 𝒂𝟐)𝟐
=
𝑰𝒎𝒊𝒏 (𝒂𝟏 − 𝒂𝟐)𝟐
𝟐
Also, 𝒘𝟏 = 𝑰𝟏 = 𝒂𝟏 where w is width of slits S and S
1 2
𝒘𝟐 𝑰𝟐 𝒂𝟐𝟐

Angular width
𝛽 𝜆
𝜃= =
𝐷 𝑑
Interference with white light :
While using white light, coloured fringes are formed with central white.
𝐷𝜆
𝛽=
𝑑
Since 𝜆𝑅 > 𝜆𝑣 , 𝛽𝑅 > 𝛽𝑣 , red fringe is wider.
DIFFRACTION :
The phenomenon of bending of light around the corners of small
obstacles or apertures and its consequent spreading into the regions
of geometrical shadow.

207
Types of Diffraction :
1. Fresnel’s Diffraction :
Here source and screen are placed close to the aperture and no lens is required.
2. Fraunhoffer’s Diffraction :
Here source and screen are placed at large distances from the aperture. Convex lens is used to observe the
diffraction pattern.
Diffraction – Condition :
Size of the obstacle should be comparable with the wavelength of waves.
It is common to all types of waves. Radio waves and sound waves are of larger wavelength, it is readily
observable. But for visible light, its wavelength is small, so it is not so common because the obstacle of this
size is not hardly available.
DIFFRACTION AT SINGLE SLIT :
All the wavelets going straight (𝜃 = 0°)
across the slit are focused at the central
point of the screen. The wavelets from any
two corresponding points of the two halves
of the slit reach the point ‘O’ in same phase,
added constructively to produce central
bright fringe. This is called central maxima.
Path Difference :
The secondary wavelets from different parts of the slit reach the point P in different phases.
The path difference between the wavelets from A and B is
BC = a sin𝜃
Position of Minima (dark fringes)
Suppose the point P is at a distance from the screen, so that the path difference is ′𝜆′𝑎𝑛𝑑
𝜃 = 𝜃1 , then 𝑎 sin 𝜃1 = 𝜆
𝜆
sin 𝜃1 = [ first minima]
𝑎

To get 𝜆 path difference, the slit is assumed to have two halves. The wavelets from these two halves are out
of phase with path difference 𝜆 , causes minimum intensity.
2

BC = 2 𝜆 = 𝜆
2
th 𝑛𝜆
For n minimum, sin 𝜃 = = 𝜃 , since angles are small.
𝑛 𝑎 𝑛
𝑦𝑛
From the figure, tan 𝜃 = =𝜃
𝑛 𝐷 𝑛

∴
𝑦𝑛
=
𝑛𝜆 and 𝑦 = 𝐷𝑛𝜆 , distance of nth minimum. n = 1, 2, 3……
𝐷 𝑎 𝑛 𝑎

Width of maxima = distance between two consecutive minima

208
𝑫𝝀
𝜷=
𝒂

Position of Maxima (bright fringes) :

Suppose the point is located such that BC = 3𝜆 and 𝜃 = 𝜃1′
2
𝜆
3
sin 𝜃′ = [ first secondary maxima]
1 2𝑎
For nth secondary maxima, sin 𝜃′ =
(2𝑛+1)𝜆 , n = 1,2, 3…..
𝑛 2𝑎
𝑦′ (2𝑛+1)𝜆 (2𝑛+1)𝐷𝜆

𝐷
𝑛
= and 𝑦𝑛′ = , distance of nth maxima
2𝑎 2𝑎

Width of minima = distance between two consecutive maxima

𝑫𝝀
𝜷′ =
𝒂
Width of central maxima :
𝟐𝑫𝝀
𝜷𝒐 =
𝒂
𝜆
Angular Width of maxima and minima : 𝜃 =
𝑎
2𝜆
Angular width of central maxima, 𝜃𝑜 = 𝑎

GRAPHICAL REPRESENTATION OF DIFFRACTION PATTERN :

IMPORTANT FORMULAE
SL. TERMS FORMULA
NO

1 Position of 𝑛𝑡ℎ bright fringe from the 𝐷𝑛𝜆

𝑦𝑛 =
centre in Young’s Double slit 𝑑

Experiment
2 Position of 𝑛𝑡ℎ dark fringe from the (2𝑛 − 1)𝐷𝜆
𝑦𝑛′ =
centre in Young’s Double slit 2𝑑

Experiment

209
3 Fringe Width 𝐷𝜆
𝛽=
𝑑

4 Condition for constructive Interference Path difference , 𝑥 = 𝑛𝜆 n=0,1,2,3…

Phase Difference, 𝜙 = 2𝑛𝜋
𝜆
5 Condition for destructive Interference Path difference , 𝑥 = (2𝑛 − 1)
2

n=1,2,3..
Phase Difference, 𝜙 = (2𝑛 − 1)𝜋
6 Resultant amplitude of interfering waves A = √𝑎2 + 𝑎2 + 2𝑎1𝑎2 Cos∅
1 2

7 Resultant Intensity of interference I = I1 + I2 + 2 √𝐼1𝐼2 cos∅

pattern
∅
8 When I1 = I2 =Io ( intensity of light from I = 4 Io cos2
2
the two slits are equal)

9 Ratio of intensity of maxima and minima 𝐼𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑎1 + 𝑎2)2

=
𝐼𝑚𝑖𝑛 (𝑎1 − 𝑎2)2

2
10 Ratio of width of the two slits 𝑤1
=
𝐼1
=
𝑎1
𝑤2 𝐼2 𝑎22
𝑛𝜆
11 Condition for nth minimum of diffraction Sin 𝜃 = , n= 1, 2, 3,
𝑛 𝑎
pattern
12 Width of central maxima 2𝐷𝜆
𝛽𝑜 =
𝑎

13 Width of maxima = Width of minima 𝐷𝜆

𝛽=
𝑎

14 Angular Width of maxima and minima λ

θ=
a
15 Angular width of central maxima 2λ
θ=
a

210
Important Graphs :
Interference Pattern:

Diffraction Pattern :

Important Diagrams :
Reflection of Plane wavefront :

Refraction of plane wavefront from rarer to Denser medium

Refraction of plane wavefront from denser to rarer medium

211
QUESTIONS:
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The phase difference between any two points of a wavefront is:
a) 0 b) π/4 c) π/2 d) π
2. In the adjoining figure, a wavefront AB moving in air is incident on a plane glass surface XY. Its
position CD, after refraction through a glass slab, is as shown also along with the normal drawn at A and D.
The refractive index of glass with respect to air will be equal to

3. The intensity of light issuing out of two slits in young’s experiment is in ratio 1:4. The intensity of the
minimum to the maximum will be in the ratio
a) 1:2 b) 1:4 c) 1:9 d) none of the above
4. In Young’s double-slit experiment, if there is no initial phase difference between the light from two slits,
a point on the screen corresponding to the fifth minimum has path difference
a) 5 λ/2 b) 10λ/2 c) 9λ/2 d) 11λ/2
5. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm.
The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 x 10-5 cm. The distance of the first
dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is:
(a) 0.20 cm (b) 0.15 cm (c) 0.10 cm (d) 0.25 cm

212
6. Two slits in young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 :1. The ratio of the amplitudes of
light waves is
(a) 3 :1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 9 :1 (d) 6:1
7. The colour of bright fringe nearest to central achromatic fringe in the interference pattern with white
light will be
(a) violet (b) red (c) green (d) yellow
8. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single -slit diffraction, the phase difference
between the Huygens’s wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is
(a) π radian (b) π/8 radian (c) π/4 radian (d) π/2 radian
9. A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000A0 is incident normally on a single narrow
slit of width 0.001mm. The light is focussed by a convex lens on a screen placed in focal plane. The first
minimum will be formed for the angle of diffraction is equal to
(a) 00 (b) 150 (c) 300 (d) 50
10. In a Young’s double slit experiment, two slits of equal width are arranged symmetrically w.r.to the
sources. The intensity of the central bright fringe is I. If one of the slits is closed, the intensity at the Centre
of the screen will be
a) I b) I/4 c) I/2 d) 2I
11. How does the diffraction band of blue light look in comparison with the red light?
a. No changes b. Diffraction pattern becomes narrower
c. Diffraction pattern becomes broader d. Diffraction pattern disappears
12. Two coherent sources of light can be obtained from
a. Two different lamps
b. Two different lamps and of different colours
c. Two different lamps of the same colour
d. None of these
13. Which of the following phenomenon is not explained by Huygen’s wave theory?
a. Diffraction b. interference c. Photoelectric effect d. None of these

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

For the following questions , two statements are given- one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled
as Reason (R) . Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a) , (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false and R is also false

213
(1) Assertion (A) All bright interference bands have the same intensity
Reason (R ) Because all bands do not receive same light from two sources.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

(2) Assertion (A) No diffraction is produced in sound waves near a very small opening.
Reason ( R) For diffraction to takes place, the aperture of opening should be of same order as the
wavelength of the waves.

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

(3) Assertion (A) Crystalline solids can cause X- rays to diffract.

Reason ( R) Interatomic distance in crystalline solids is of the order of 0.1 nm

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

(4) Assertion (A) In YDE, the fringe width for dark fringes is different from that for the white fringes

Reason ( R) In YDE, when fringes are formed with a source of white light, then only dark and
bright fringes are observed
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

(5) Assertion (A) The phase difference between any two points on a wavefront is zero.

Reason ( R) corresponding to a beam of parallel rays of light, the wavefronts are planes parallel to
one another.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

(6). Assertion: According to Huygens’s principle, no backward wave-front is possible.

Reason: Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ is the

angle between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of secondary
wavelet.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(7) Assertion: No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are
infinitely close to each other.
Reason: The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two
sources.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(8) Assertion : It is necessary to have two waves of equal intensity to study interference pattern.
Reason : There will be an effect on clarity if the waves are of unequal intensity.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

(9) Assertion: When tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from some
distance, a bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle.
Reason: Destructive interference occurs at the centre of the shadow.

214
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

(10) Assertion: When tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from some
distance, a bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle.
Reason: Destructive interference occurs at the centre of the shadow.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1) Refraction of a plane wave

i) What is the angle made by the ray of light on the wave front?
a) 90˚ b) 0˚ c) 45˚ d) None of the above
ii) Which parameter remains unchanged while a ray of light propagates from one medium to another?
a) velocity b) Wave length c) frequency d) None of the above

iii) According to the above given fig., identify the correct expression for Snell’s law.
a) n1 sin i = n2 sin r b) n2 sin i = n1 sin r c) n21 = sin r/ sin i d) None of the above
iv) When a ray of light travels from a denser to a rarer medium, it
a) it bends towards the normal b) it travels in a straight line irrespective of angle of incidence. c) it
bends away from the normal d) None of the above
v) Which parameter changes while a ray of light propagates from one medium to another?
a) velocity b) Wave length c) frequency d) both a and b

2) Diffraction at a single slit

215
(i) In the phenomena of Diffraction of light when the violet light is used in the experiment is used instead of
red light then,
(a) Fringe width increases (b) No change in fridge width
(c) Fringe width decreases (d) Colour pattern is formed
(ii) Diffraction aspect is easier to notice in case of the sound waves then in case of the light waves because
sound waves
(a) Have longer wavelength (b) Shorter wavelength
(c) Longitudinal wave (d) Transverse waves
(iii) Diffraction effects show that light does not travel in straight lines. Under what condition the concepts
of ray optics are valid. ( D = distance of screen from the slit).
(a) D < Zf (b) D = Zf
(c) D > Zf (d) D << Zf
(iv) when 2nd secondary maxima is obtained in case of single slit diffraction pattern, the angular position is
given by
(a)  (b) /2
(c) 3/2 (d) 5/2

(v) intensity of secondary maxima in diffraction has

(a) same intensity as central maxima
(b) less intensity than central maxima
(c) more intensity than central maxima
(d) None of these

216
3. Young’s Double slit experiment

i) What is the path difference between the two light waves coming from coherent sources, which produces
3rd maxima.
a)  b) 2 c) 3 d 0
ii) What is the correct expression for fringe width().
a) d/D (b) /dD (c) d/D (d) D/d
iii) what is the phase difference between two interfering waves producing 1st dark fringe.
a) π b) 2π c) 3π d) 4π
iv) The ratio of the widths of two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is 4: 1. Evaluate the ratio of
intensities at maxima and minima in the interference pattern.
a) 1:1 b) 1:4 c) 3:1 d) 9:1
v) In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 0.1 mm, the wavelength of light
used is 600 nm and the interference pattern is observed on a screen 1m away. Find the separation between
bright fringes.
(a) 6.6 mm (b) 6.0 mm (c) 6 m (d) 60cm
4. Diffraction
In the single slit diffraction experiment, we can observe the bending of light or diffraction that causes light
from a source interfere with itself and produce a distinctive pattern called the diffraction pattern.
Diffraction is evident when the sources are small enough that they are relatively the size of the wavelength
of light.
i) To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
a) Should be λ/2, where λ is the wavelength of light
b) Should be of the order of wave length of light
c) Has no relation to wavelength of light
d) Should be much larger than the wavelength

217
ii) When violet light of wavelength 415nm falls on a single slit, it creates a central diffraction peak that is
9.2cm wide on a screen that is 2.55m away. How wide is the slit
a)3x108m b)3.8x10-7m c)2.3x10-5m d)4.2x10-7m
iii) A single slit 1mm wide is illuminated by 450nm light. What is the width of the central maximum in the
diffraction pattern on a screen 5cm away?
a)300x10-7m b)800x10-7cm c)450x10-7m d)500 x10-7m
iv) What happen with the diffraction pattern if the whole apparatus is immersed in water
a) Width of central maximum increases b) Width of central maximum decreases c) Wavelength of light
increases d) Frequency of light decreases
5. Interference
Interference is based on the superposition principle. According to this principle, at a particular point in the
medium, the resultant displacement produced by a number of waves is the vector sum of the displacements
produced by each of the waves. If two sodium lamps illuminate two pinholes S1 and S2. the intensities will
add up and no interference fringes will be observed on the screen. Here the source undergoes abrupt phase
change in times of the order of 10-10 seconds

i) In Young’s double slit experiment, the central bright fringe can be identified
(a)By using white light instead of monochromatic light (b) As it narrower than other bright fringes
(c)As it wider than other bright fringes (d)As it has greater intensity than the other bright fringes
(ii) In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To maintain the same fringe spacing
on the screen, the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to
(a) 2D (b) 4D (c) D/2 (d) D/4
(iii) In an interference experiment, third bright fringe is obtained at a point on the screen with a light of
700 nm. What should be the wavelength of the light source in order to obtain 5th bright fringe at the same
point
(a)500nm (b)420nm (c) 750nm (d)630nm
(iv) The resultant amplitude of a vibrating particle by the superposition of the two waves
y1=a sin[ωt+π/3] and y2=a sinωt is
(a) a (b)2√2 a (c) 2a (d) √3 a.

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FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK )
1. How does the angular separation of interference fringes change in young’s experiment, if the distance
between the slits is increased?
λ 1
Angular separation θ = 𝑠𝑜 θ =
𝑑 d

2. State the reason, why two independent sources of light cannot be considered as coherent sources.
Answer: Two independent sources of light cannot be coherent. This is because light is emitted by
individual atoms, when they return to ground state. Even the smallest source of light contains billions of
atoms which obviously cannot emit light waves in the same phase.
3.What type of wavefront will emerge from a (i) point source, and (ii) distant light source?
Answer: (i) Point source – Spherical wavefront (ii) Distant light source – Plane wavefront.
4. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is reduced to half its original width. How
would this affect the size and intensity of the central maximum?
Answer: Β=λD/d=2β ,when d=d/2 Iα(width)2 Hence, I=I/4
5. Define the term ‘coherent sources’ which are required to produce interference pattern in Young’s double
slit experiment.
Answer: Two monochromatic sources, which produce light waves, having a constant Phase
difference are defined as coherent sources.
6. Define the term ‘wavefront’
Answer: The wavefront is defined as the locus of all particles of a medium, which are vibrating in
the same phase.
7. Two independent monochromatic sources of light cannot produce a sustained interference pattern. Give
reason.
Answer: The phase difference between the light waves originating from two on dependent
monochromatic sources will change rapidly with time. The two sources will not be coherent and therefore
will not produce a sustained interference pattern.
8.How does the fringe width of interference fringes change, when the whole apparatus of Young’s
experiment is kept in a liquid of refractive index 1.3?
Answer: β(water)=β(air)/n=β(air)/1.3
9.A interference pattern is obtained using a red light, what will be effect on interference fringes, if the red
light is replaced by blue light?
Answer: Fringe width β is directly proportional to wavelength. The wave length of blue light is less
than that of red light, hence if red light is replaced by the blue light, the fringe width decreases
10. A plane wavefront is incident on a convex lens. What will be the shape of the wave front emerging
from the lens?
Ans. Emerging wavefront will be spherical.
11. The ratio of intensities of two waves is 1: 25, what is the ratio of their amplitudes?
Ans. 1: 5

219
12. How does the fringe width, in young’s double-slit experiment, change when the distanceof separation
between the slits and screen is doubled?
Answer: Doubled, Fringe width α D
13. Draw a diagram to show refraction of a plane wave front incident in a convex lens and hence draw the
refracted wave front

14. Draw the shape of the wavefront coming out of a concave mirror when a plane wave is incident on it.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. Define secondary wavelets and how can we construct new wavefront with them?
Ans. According to the Huygens’ principle, every particle of the medium, situated on the wavefront,
acts as a new source of light wave from which new similar waves originate. These waves are called
secondary wavelets. 1 The envelop of the secondary wavelets in the forward direction at any instant gives
the new wavefront at that instant
2. In a single slit diffraction experiment, width of the slit is increased. How will the (a) size and (b) intensity
of central bright band be affected? Justify your answer
Ans. The width of the central bright band = 2D × λ d where d = width of the slit. (i) As the width of
the slit is doubled, the size of the central diffraction band will be half. 1 (ii) Intensity of central bright band
is proportional to d2. So, the intensity will get quadrupled.
3.(i)State one feature by which the phenomenon of interference can be distinguished from that of
diffraction. (ii)A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of width ‘a’. If
the distance between the slits and the screen is 0.8 m and the distance of 2nd order maximum from the
centre of the screen is. 15 mm, calculate the width of the slit.

220
Answer: (i) In interference all the maxima are of equal intensity. In diffraction pattern central fringe
is of maximum intensity while intensity of secondary maxima falls rapidly. (ii) Position of nth maximum,
y=(2n+1) λD/2d,
here n=2 y=5λD/2d Substituting and solving, we get, d=80µm
4. State two conditions required for obtaining coherent sources In Young’s arrangement to produce
interference pattern, show that dark and bright fringes appearing on the screen are equally spaced.
Answer: Two conditions for obtaining coherent sources: (i) Two sources should give
monochromatic light. (ii)Coherent sources of light should be obtained from a single source by some device.
The fringe width (dark and bright) is given by Hence, it is same for both dark and bright fringes, so they are
equally spaced on the screen.
5. Laser light of wavelength 640 nm incident on a pair of slits produces an interference pattern in which
the bright fringes are separated by 7.2 mm. Calculate the wavelength of another source of light which
produces interference fringes separated by 8.1 mm using same arrangement. Also find the minimum value
of the order ‘n’ of bright fringe of shorter wavelength which coincides with that of the longer wavelength.
Answer: Distance between two bright fringes = Fringe width β=λD/d ,for same values of D and d
,we get β1/β2=λ1/λ2 Substituting and solving we get ,λ2=720 nm Calculation of minimum value of order for
n to be minimum (n + 1)th maxima of shorter wavelength should coincide with nth maximum of longer
wavelength (n+1)640= n(720),n=8.Hence minimum order of shorter wavelength is (n+1)=8+1=9
6. Define the term wavefront. State Huygen’s principle.
Ans. Wave front: Wavefront is locus of all points in which light waves are in same phase. Huygens’
Principle: Each point of the wavefront is the source of a secondary disturbance and the wavelets emanating
from these points spread out in all directions. These travel with the same velocity as that of the original
wavefront.
7. Two slits are made 1mm apart and the screen is placed away. What should be the width of each slit to
obtain 10 maxima of the double slit pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern.
Answer: As per question, width of central maxima of single slit pattern = width of10 maxima of
double slit pattern 2λD/a=10(λD/d) a=0.2d , 0.2×10−3=0.2×10−3m=0.2mm
8. Sketch a graph showing the variation of fringe width versus the distance of the screen from the plane of
the slits (keeping other parameters same) in young’s double slit experiment What information can one
obtain from the slope of this graph?

Graph gives Wavelength λ = Slope x d

221
9. Yellow light (λ = 6000Å) illuminates a single slit of width 1 x 10-4 m. Calculate (i)the distance between
the two dark lines on either side of the central maximum, when the diffraction pattern is viewed on a screen
kept 1.5 m away from the slit; (ii)the angular spread of the first diffraction minimum.
Answer: (i) Distance between two dark lines, on either side of central maximum is =2λD/a,
Substituting and solving we get,18mm
(ii)Angular spread of the first diffraction minimum (on either side) ϴ=λ/a
Substituting and solving we get ϴ=6x10-3 rad
10. A parallel beam of light of 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed
on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the centre of the
screen. Calculate the width of the slit.
Answer: Path difference for nth minimum is asinϴ=nλ or aϴ=nλ
Also,ϴ=x/D From this we get, ax/D=nλ Substituting and solving we get. a=2x10-4 m
11. (i) In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern in a double slit
experiment? (ii) When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distance source, a bright
spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain, why.
Answer: (i) Diffraction from each slit is related to interference pattern in a double slit experiment in
the following ways: The intensity of minima for diffraction is never zero, while for interference it is
generally zero. All bright fringes for diffraction are not of uniform intensity, while for interference, these
are of uniform intensity
(ii) Waves from the distant source are diffracted by the edge of the circular obstacle and these diffracted
waves interfere constructively at the centre of the obstacle’s shadow producing a bright spot
12. Write the distinguishing features between a diffraction pattern due to a single slit and the interference
fringes produced in Young’s double slit experiment?
Interference Diffraction
1. Interference is due to Diffraction is due to superposition of the
superposition of two distinct secondary wavelets coming from different
waves coming from two parts of the same wavefront.
coherent sources.
2. Interference fringes may or may Diffraction fringes are not to be of the same
not be of the same width. width
3. The intensity of minima is The intensity of minima is never zero.
generally zero.
4. All bright fringes are of uniform All bright fringes are of not uniform
intensity. intensity.

222
03 Marks questions
1. Two monochromatic waves emanating from two coherent sources have the displacements represented by
y1 = a cos ωt and y2 = a cos (ωt + ϕ ), where ϕ is the phase difference between the two displacements.
(a)Show that the resultant intensity at a point due to their superposition is given by I = 4I0 cos2 ϕ/2, where I0
= a2 . (b) Hence obtain the conditions for constructive and destructive interference.
Answer: (a) Let the two waves be represented by equations y1=acosωt,y2=a cos(ωt+φ) From the
Principle of superposition of waves we get, y=y1+y2=2acos(φ/2) cos (ωt+φ/2) Resultant Amplitude is A
=2acos(φ/2) Hence, Resultant Intensity α (amplitude)2 =4a2 cos2 (φ/2)
(a) For constructive interference: (ii)For destructive interference: Cos (Ф/2) = 0 or Ф/2 = (2n-1)π/2 Ф =
(2n-1)π
2. In Young’s double slit experiment to produce interference pattern, obtain the conditions for constructive
and destructive interference. Write the expression for fringe width
Answer: Let the Resultant wave Amplitude be ‘A’ A2=a1 2+a2 2+2a1a2cosφ
For constructive interference: Cosφ=+1, so, Phase difference is φ=2nπ and path difference is x=nλ For
destructive interference,Cosφ=-1,So φ=(2n-1)π,n=1,2,3….
Hence path difference is x= (2n-1)λ/2 Fringe width β= λD/d
3. Draw the intensity pattern for single slit diffraction and double slit interference. Hence, state two
differences between interference and diffraction pattern.

Interference All maxima have equal intensity All fringes have equal width Diffraction Maxima have
different (rapidly decreasing) intensities All fringes have different (changing) width Superposition of two
wavefronts Superposition of wavelets from the same wavefront
4. The intensity pattern at the central maxima in Young’s double slit experiment is I0. Find out the intensity
at a point where the path difference is λ/4 &λ/3.
Answer: If the path difference =λ/4 Here for the given, first case, the path difference is given as
Δx=λ/4 , Δx=2π/λ× ϕ ⇒ϕ=π/2 Now substituting the value of ϕ=π/2 in the equation I=4I0cos2ϕ/2
⇒I=4I0cos2π/4 ⇒I=2I0 Therefore the intensity at a point on a screen in Young’s double-slit experiment
where interfering waves of equal intensity have a path difference of λ/4 is given as 2I0.

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Ii). For λ/3 ⇒ϕ=2π/3 ⇒I=4I0cos2 (2π/6 )⇒ ∴I=I0 Therefore the intensity at a point on a screen in Young’s
double-slit experiment where interfering waves of equal intensity have a path difference of λ/3 is given as
I0.

5. A beam of light consisting of two wavelength 800 nm and 600 nm is used to obtain the interference
fringes in young’s double slit experiment on a screen held 1.4 m away. If the two slits are separated by 0.28
mm, calculate the least distance from the central bright maximum, where the bright fringes of the two
wavelengths coincide.
Answer: The two bright fringes will coincide when n1λ1=n2λ2
⇒ n1×800×10−9= n2×600×10−9
⇒4n1=3n2 n1≠=0,n2≠ 0
For y to be minimum and since n are integers,
n1=3,n2=4
y=n1λ1D/d= 3x800x10-9 x1.4/0.28x10-3 ⇒y=1.2×10−2m ⇒y=1.2 cm
6. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is placed 1.4 m
away. The distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth bright fringe is measured to be 1.2 cm.
Determine the wavelength of light used in the experiment.
Answer: Distance between the slits, d = 0.28 mm = 0.28 × 10 -3 m
Distance between the slits and the screen, D = 1.4 m
Distance between the central fringe and the fourth (n = 4) fringe = 1.2 cm = 1.2 × 10 -2 m
For constructive interference, the distance between the two fringes is given by relation: x = nλ D/d where,
n = Order of fringes wavelength of the light can be given as:
λ = xd/nD = 1.2x10-2x0.28x10-3 /4x1.4 = 6x10-7 m
7. In a double-slit experiment the angular width of a fringe is found to be 0.2° on a screen placed 1 m away.
The wavelength of light used is 600 nm. What will be the angular width of the fringe if the entire
experimental apparatus is immersed in water? Take refractive index of water to be 4/3. Answer Distance of
the screen from the slits, D = 1 m
Wavelength of light used, λ1 =600 nm Angular width of the fringe in air, θ1 = 0.2°
Angular width of the fringe in water = θ, Refractive index of water, µ = 4/3
Refractive index is related to angular width as: µ = θ1/ θ2
θ2 = 3/4 θ1 = 3/4 x 0.2 = 0.15°.
8. A slit of width “a” is illuminated by light of wavelength, 650nm.What will be the value of the width ‘a’
when
a) first minimum falls at an angle of diffraction 300?
b) first maximum falls at an angle of diffraction 300?
(c) Why does the intensity of the secondary maximum become less as compared to the central maximum?
Answer:

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(i) first minimum at 300 satisfies the condition, d sinθ=λ, d= λ/sin 30 =1300nm
(ii) first maxima at 300 satisfies the condition d sinθ =3λ/2 d= 3λ/2sin 30 =1950nm
(b) As the order increases only 1/nth (where n is an odd number) of the slit, will contribute in producing
brightness at a point in diffraction. So the higher order maxima are not so bright as the central
maximum
9. (a) If one of two identical slits producing interference in Young’s experiment is covered with glass, so that
the light intensity passing through it is reduced to 50%, find the ratio of the maximum and minimum
intensity of the fringe in the interference pattern. (b) What kind of fringes do you expect to observe if white
light is used instead of monochromatic light
(a) After the introduction of the glass sheet (say, on the second slit),
we have = 50% = 1/ 2
Ratio of the amplitudes = a1/ a2 = √1/2
Hence
I max/ I min = (a1+a2)2/(a1-a2)2
(1+1/√2)2 / (1-1/√2)2= (√2+1)2/ (√2-1)2 =34.55
b) central fringe remains white. No clear fringe pattern is seen after a few (coloured) fringes on either side
of the central fringe
10. (a) Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference pattern?
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light
at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a point where
path difference is λ/3.
Answer:
(a) Coherent sources are needed to ensure that the positions of maxima and minima do not change with
time. These have a constant phase difference and, therefore produce sustained interference pattern.

I’=k/4

225
05 marks questions
1.State Huygen’s principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a plane wave front incident at
the interface of the two media gets refracted when it propagates from a rarer to a denser medium. Hence
verify Snell’s law of refraction. (b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium,
explain the following, giving reasons : (i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the
frequency of incident light? (ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light
wave?
Answer: (a) Huygen’s Principle ; Huygen’s Principle is based on two assumptions : (i) Each point
on the primary wavefront is a source of a new disturbance called secondary wavelets which travel in all
directions with same velocity as that of original waves. (ii) A surface tangential to the secondary . wavelets
gives the position and shape of new wavefront at any instant. This is called secondary wavefront.
Verification of Snell’s Law, From the figure

If ‘ τ‘ represents the time taken by the wavefront from the point B to C, then the distance =v1 τ
So, to determine the shape of the refracted wavefront, we draw a sphere of radius v2 τ from the
point A in the second medium. Let CE represent a tangent plane drawn from the point C on to the
sphere. Then, AE = v2 τ, and CE would represent the refracted wavefront. If we now consider the
triangles ABC and AEC, we obtain sin i = BC/AC = v1 τ /AC
sin r =AE/A C= v2 τ /AC
where’ i ‘ and ‘ r ‘ are the angles of incidence and refraction, respectively. Substituting the values of
v1 and v2 in terms of sini/sinr=v1/v2= n21
we get the Snell’s Law
(c) (i) Yes, frequency is the property of source. Hence, frequency does not change when light is reflected
or refracted.
(d) (ii) No, decrease in speed does not imply reduction in energy carried by light wave.

226
This is because the frequency does not change and according to the formula E = hv, energy will be
independent of speed. Energy carried by a wave depends on the amplitude of the wave, not on the
speed of wave propagation
2.(a) State the essential conditions for diffraction of light (b) In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width
of the slit is made double the original width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the central
diffraction band? (c) In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern in a double-
slit experiment? (d) Draw the intensity pattern for double and single slit experiment.
(a) Size of the slit or aperture must be smaller the wavelength of light used
(b) When width of single slit is made double, the half angular width of central maximum which is λ/a,
reduces to half. The intensity of central maximum will become 4 times. This is because area of central
diffraction band would become 1/4th.
(c) If width of each slit is of the order of λ, then interference pattern in the double slit experiment is
modified by the diffraction pattern from each of the two slits
(d) Intensity pattern due to a single slit

Position of central maximum. Let C be the centre of the slit AB. According to Huygen’s principle,
“when light falls on the slit, it becomes a source of secondary wavelets.” All the wavelets
originating from slit AB are in same phase. These secondary waves reinforce each other resulting
the central maximum intensity at O
∴ Path difference between the secondary waves reaching P from points A and B is,
BN = a sin θ

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3.(a) A plane wavefront is incident at an angle of incidence I on a reflecting surface . Draw a diagram
showing incident wavefront, reflected wavefront and verify the laws of reflection on the basis of Huygens
wave theory the shape of
(b) Two wavelengths of sodium light of 590 nm and 596 nm are used in turn to study the diffraction
taking place at a single slit of aperture 2 × 10-6 m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m.
Calculate the separation between the positions of first maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained in the
two cases.

Consider a plane wave AB incident at an angle i on a reflecting surface MN. If v represents the speed of
the wave in the medium and if τ represents the time taken by the wavefront to advance from the point B to
C then the distance BC = vτ In order to construct the reflected wavefront draw a sphere of radius vτ from
the point A as shown in Fig. Let CE represent the tangent plane drawn from the point C to this sphere.
Obviously, AE = BC = vτ
Consider the triangles EAC and BAC they are congruent and therefore, the angles i and r would be equal.
This is the law of reflection
b) Wavelengths of sodium light, λ1 = 590 nm and λ2 = 596 nm The general expression for nth secondary
maxima is given
First maxima due to λ1(β1) = λ1D x3/2d
First maxima doe to λ2(β2) = λ2D x3/2d
β1- β2 = 3D (λ2-λ1)/2d = 6.75 mm
4. (a) Why cannot the phenomenon of interference be observed by illuminating two pin holes with two
sodium lamps? (b) Two monochromatic waves having displacements y1 = a cos ωt and y2 = a cos (ωt + θ)
from two coherent sources interfere to produce an interference pattern. Derive the expression for the
resultant intensity and obtain the conditions for constructive and destructive interference.
(a) The interference phenomenon cannot be observed by using two illuminating pin holes with two
sodium lamps because the light emitted from sodium lamps undergoes abrupt phase changes in 1s which
will not have any fixed phase relationship as they are incoherent.
(b) The displacement equations for two monochromatic waves are given as
y1 = acos wt and
y2 = acos (wt + θ)
Now, net displacement y = y1 + y2 = acos wt + acos (wt + θ)

228
= acos wt + acos wt cos θ – asin wt. sinθ
= acos wt (1 + cosθ) – asin wt. sin θ
put a(1 + cos θ) = Asin φ...(i)
and – asin wt = Acos φ ...(ii)
y = Asin φ. cos wt + Acos φ sin wt
y = Asin (wt + φ)
Now, from equation (i) and (ii), A2 (sin2 φ+ cos2 φ) = [a(1 + cos wt)]2 + (– asin wt) 2
A2 = a2 [1 + cos2 wt + cos2 wt+ sin2 wt]
A2 = 2a2 [1 + cos 2wt] A2 = 4a2 cos2 wt/2 This is the required expression.
For constructive interference, I should be maximum I max = 4a2 , if wt= 0, ± 2π, ± 4 π...
For destructive interference, I should be minimum I min = 0, if wt = ± π, ± 3 π, ± 5 π....
5. (a) Use Huygens’ geometrical construction to show how a plane wave front at t = 0 propagates and
produces a wave front at a later time.
(b) Verify, using Huygens’ principle, Snell’s law of refraction of a plane wave propagating from a denser
to a rarer medium
c) When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separation two media, the reflected and refracted
light both have the same frequency. Explain why?
Answer:
. (a) Let us consider a plane wavefront X1 Y1 at t = 0. According to Huygen’s principle each point on this
wavefront may be considered as a point source. points are considered for the convenience of drawing. 3
circular arcs are drawn centring each point with radius ct where c is the velocity of light and t is the time
difference. A common tangent is drawn to these 3 arcs which gives the new wavefront X2 Y2 parallel to
X1 Y1 after time t.

The figure drawn here shows the refracted wave front corresponding to the given incident wave front. It is
seen that sini= BC/ AC= v1 t/ AC = sinr= AE /AC= v2 t /AC
= sini/ sinr=v1/v2=n21 This is Snell’s law of refraction

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ANSWER KEY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1) (a) wavefront is the locus of all the points on a surface which are in the same phase i.e ,phase
difference is zero
2) (a) refractive index , n = 𝑣1/𝑣2 = (𝐵𝐷 𝑋 𝑡)/(𝐴⃗𝐶 𝑋 𝑡) = 𝐵𝐷/𝐴⃗𝐶
3) (c) ( a1 /a2) 2 = I1 /I2 = 1/4,
a1/a2 = 1/2 now, Imax / I min = (a1+a2) 2 /(a1 ---a2) 2 = 9/1 I min/Imax = 1:9
4) (c) Path difference for nth minima = (2n−1)λ/2 For fifth minima (n = 5) = 9λ/2
5 ) (b) f=D = 60 cm For first minima, y=λ D /a = 5×10−5× 60x / 0.02 = 0.15cm
6. (c) W1/W2= a1 2 /a2 2
7. (b) red
8. (a) πradian
9.(c) Dsinθ = nλ θ = sin−1(nλ/d/) =s in−1 ((1)(5000×10−10/0.001 x10-3 )) θ=30o .
10. (b) When one slit is closed, then no interference pattern will be formed and the intensity at the
center is I/4
11. (b) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower.
12. (d) None of these
13. c. Photoelectric effect

ASSERTION REASON QUESTION ANSWERS

Answers : 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7 .(a) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10. (c)

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1) Refraction of a plane wave
i) a ii) (c) iii) (a) iv) (c) v) d
2) Diffraction at a single slit
(i) (c) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (d) (v) c
3. Young’s Double slit experiment
i) (c) ii) (d) iii) (a) iv) d v) b
4. Diffraction
1. (b) 2. (c) a = 2λD/β =2.3x10-5 m
3. (c) β=2λD/a =2λD/a = 450x10-7m 4. (b) Wave length decrease
5. Interference
(i) a (ii) a ( β=λ D/d) (iii) b , 3x700D/d = 5 λ D/d λ = 420nm
(iv) d Resultant amplitude =√ a 2+a2+2axacos π/3 = √3a

230
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
MIND MAP:

231
GIST OF LESSON:
Work function of a metal - The minimum energy needed by an electron to come out from a metal surface
(Wo or фo).
Electron emission - The electrons from a metal surface can be emitted by supplying energy greater than Wo
by suitably heating (thermionic emission) or applying strong electric field (field emission) or irradiating it by
light of suitable frequency (photoelectric emission).
K.E. gained by an accelerated electron
An electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volts,
Gain in K.E = 1 mv2 = eV
2

Electron Volt
Kinetic energy gained by an electron when accelerated through a a potential difference of V volts.
1eV = 1.6 x 10 -19 J, 1 MeV = 1.6 x 10 -13 J
Particle nature of light -The photons
According to Planck’s quantum theory of radiation, an electromagnetic wave travels in the form of discrete
packets of energy called quanta. One of quantum of light radiation is called a photon.
Photon nature of electromagnetic radiation -
1. In its interaction with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made of particles, called photons.
2. Each photon carries an energy (E = hυ) and momentum (p = (h / λ), which depends upon the frequency
of radiation and not on its frequency.
3. Photons are electrically neutral not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
4. In photon – electron collision, total energy and total momentum are conserved but the number of
photons may not be conserved.
5. The rest mass of a photon is zero.
6. The equivalent mass of a photon is given by
E = mc 2 = h υ or m = hν2
c

Photoelectric effect -
The phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metal surface, when electromagnetic radiation of suitable
frequency is incident on it. Metals like Li, Na, K, Ce show photoelectric effect with visible light while metal
like Zn, Cd, Mg respond to ultraviolet light.
Photoelectric Current -
The current constituted by photoelectrons.
It depends on: (i) the intensity of incident light, (ii) potential difference applied between the two electrodes,
and (iii) the nature of emitter material.
Cut off or stopping potential -
The minimum value of negative potential applied to the anode of a photocell to make the photoelectric current
zero.

232
It depends on (i) frequency of incident light and (ii) the nature of emitter material.
For a given frequency of incident light, it is independent of its intensity.
It is related to the maximum K.E. of the emitter electrons as
Threshold frequency -
The minimum value of the frequency of incident radiation below which the photoelectric emission stops
altogether is called threshold frequency. It is a characteristic of the metal.
Laws of Photoelectric emission -
1. For a given metal and a radiation of fixed frequency, the rate of emission of photoelectrons is proportional
to the intensity of incident radiation.
2. For every metal, there is a certain minimum frequency below which no photoelectrons are emitted;
however high is the intensity of the incident radiation. This frequency is called threshold frequency.
3. For the radiation of frequency higher than the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons is directly proportional to the frequency of incident radiation and is independent of the
intensity of incident radiation.
4. The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process.
Failure of wave theory to explain photoelectric effect -
The picture of continuous absorption of energy from the radiation could not explain
1. The independent of Kmax on intensity,
2. The existence of threshold frequency 𝜈o, and
The instantaneous nature of photoelectric emission.
Einstein’s theory of photoelectric effect -
When a radiation of frequency 𝜈 is incident on a metal surface, it is absorbed in the form of discrete photons
each of energy h𝜈. Photoelectric emission occurs because of single collision of a photon with a free electron.
The energy of the photon is used to
1. Free the electron from the metal surface. It is equal to the work function Wo of the metal.
2. Provide kinetic energy to the emitted electron
h𝜈 = Kmax + W0
1
or Kmax= mv 2 max = h𝜈 – W0
2

This is Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

Explanation of photoelectric emission on the basis of Einstein’s photoelectric emission
1. Clearly, above the threshold frequency 𝜈0, Kmax is directly proportional to 𝜈 i.e. the maximum K.E.
of the emitted electrons depends linearly on the frequency of incident radiation.
2. When 𝜈 < 𝜈0, Kmax become negative. The kinetic energy becomes negative which has no physical
meaning. Hence there is no photoelectric emission below the threshold frequency υ0.
3. It is obvious from the photo-electric equation that the maximum K.E. of photo-electrons does not
depend on the intensity of incident high.

233
Dual nature of radiation:
Light has dual nature. It manifests itself as a wave in diffraction, interference, polarization etc. while it shows
particle nature in photoelectric effect, Compton scattering etc.
Dual nature of matter:
According to De-Broglie hypothesis, material particles in motion display wave like properties. This
hypothesis was based on
(i) de-Broglie concept of nature loves symmetry, and
(ii) matter can be converted into energy and vice versa.
So moving particles like protons, neutrons, electrons etc. are associated with de-Broglie waves and their
wavelength is given by
λ=h= h
p mv

Davisson and Germer experiment:

This electron diffraction experiment has verified and confirmed the wave-nature of electrons. De-Broglie
wavelength of an electron:
The wavelength associated with an electron beam accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is
given by
1.227 12.27
λ= h
= nm = A0
√2meV √V √V

IMPORTANT GRAPHS
Effect of Intensity of light on Photo electric Current Effect of Potential on Photo electric Current

Effect of frequency of incident radiation on Stopping Potential

Variation of Photo electric current with collector plate potential for different frequencies of incident
radiation:

234
Formulae at a glance: -

Sl. No. Formulae Symbol Application

1. E = h𝜈 = hc E = energy of photon, To find energy of photon
λ
h = Planck’s constant,
𝜈 = frequency
2. фo= hυo = hc Фo = work function , Relation between work
λo
𝜈o = threshold frequency, function фo and λo
λo = threshold wavelength
Kmax = ½ mv2 Kmax = Maximum kinetic Einstein’s photoelectric
3. = hυ – фo energy of emitted electron, equation
= h (υ– υo) vmax = maximum velocity
4. e = charge on electron, Relation between
Kmax = ½ mv2 = eVo Vo = stopping potential maximum kinetic energy
and stopping potential
5. λ=h= h λ =wavelength of matter wave, de- Broglie wavelength of
p mv
p = momentum of matter particle matter wave

6. λ= h = h E = kinetic energy Relation between de-

√2mE √2meV
V = accelerating potential Broglie wavelength

1.227 12.27 and kinetic energy E

= nm = A0
√V √V and V

7. eVo = hυ– фo λ = wavelength of incident Relation between

= hc – фo radiation, wavelength of incident
𝜆
фo = work function, radiation and φo,Vo when
λ = hc/(eVo +фo )
Vo = stopping potential photoelectric current is
brought to zero. Straight

235
line curve between V0
and 𝜈

8 N=P N = no. of photons emitted by the To find no. of photons

E
source per sec, emitted per sec on an
P = power ofincident radiation, average by the source.
E = energy of photon
9 Vo = stopping potential Slope of Vo vs υ gives
dVo
=
h 𝜈 = frequency of incident Planck’s constant, Also
dν e
radiation slope is constant for all
metals

Multiple choice questions

1. Cathode ray consists of
a. Photons
b. Electrons
c. Protons
d. α-particles
2. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
a. Thermionic emission
b. X-rays emission
c. Photoelectric emission
d. Secondary emission
3. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit photo electrons?
a. UV radiations
b. Infrared radiation
c. Radio waves
d. Microwaves
4. Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible light?
a. Cesium
b. Sodium
c. Rubidium
d. Cadmium
5. Photons are deflected by
a. electric field only
b. magnetic field only

236
c. electromagnetic field
d. None of these
6. The momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is
a. hλ
b. h/λ
c. λ/h
d. h/c λ
7. Maximum KE of photo electrons is 4 e V Then the stopping potential is
a. 4V
b. 1.6 V
c. 4J
d. 4eV
8. The slope of stopping potential vs frequency of the incident light graph is
a. e/h
b. h/e
c. h/c
d. c/h
9. Photoelectric effect shows
a. wave like behaviour of light
b. particle like behaviour of light
c. both wavelike and particle like behavior
d. neither wave like nor particle like behaviour of light.
10. An electron and a proton have the same de Broglie wave length. Which of them have greater
velocity.
a. Electron
b. proton.
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

ASSERTION- REASON

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given followed by a
corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as:

(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion (B)If both
assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(C) If assertion is true and reason is false

(D) If both assertion and reason are false

237
1. Assertion: A photon has no rest mass , yet it carries definite momentum.
Reason: Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
2. Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason. The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
(a)A b)B (c)C (d)D
3.Assertion: When light of certain wavelength falls on a metal surface it ejects electron.
Reason: Light has wave nature.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
4. Assertion: As work function of a material increases by some mechanism, it requires greater energy to
excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason. A plot of stopping potential (V) versus frequency (v) for different materials, has greater slope
for metals with greater work functions
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D
5. Assertion: Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on photosensitive material. If
the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled the photo current remains unchanged.
Reason:The photo electric current varies directly with the intensity of light and frequency of light.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d) D
6. Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic energy is k is λ. Its wavelength is 2
λ when its kinetic energy is 4k.
Reason. The de - Broglie wavelength λ is proportional to square root of the kinetic energy.
(a)A (b)B (c)C (d)D

1 Marks Questions
1. If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is doubled what will happen to the energy of
photons?
2. Two metals A and B have work functions 4 eV and 10 eV, respectively. Which metal has higher
threshold wavelength?
3. What is the momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV?
4. A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-Broglie wavelength
and why?
5. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a potential difference V
is λ. What will be its wavelength when the accelerating potential is increased to 4V?
6. The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is 3 eV. What is its stopping potential ?
7. It is difficult to eject out an electron from copper than sodium, which of the two metals has greater
work function and which has greater threshold wavelength?
8. Electrons are emitted from a photosensitive surface when it is illuminated by green light but electron
emission does not take place by yellow light. Will the electrons be emitted when the surface is
illuminated by (i) red light, (ii) blue light?
9. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an α particle have same energy. Then their de- Broglie
wavelengths compare as?
10. Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?

238
2 Marks Questions
1. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volt. What is the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this value of
wavelength correspond?
2. Two lines, A and B, in the plot given below show the variation of de-Broglie wavelength, λ versus
1√V, Where V is the accelerating potential difference, for two particles carrying the same charge.
Which one of two represents a particle of smaller mass?

3. An alpha particle and a proton are accelerated through same potential difference. Find the ratio
(vᾳ/vp) of velocities acquired by two particles.
4. (i). The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 1.5 V. What is the maximum
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted?
(ii) State one factor which determines the intensity of light in the photon picture of light.
5. Monochromatic light of frequency 6x1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2x103 W
i) What is the energy of photon in the light? ii) How many photons per second on the average are
emitted by the source
6. The work function of a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for incident
radiation of wavelength 330 nm?
7. The graph shows variation of stopping potential Vo verses frequency of incident radiation ϑ for two
photosensitive metals A and B
8. (i) Which of the two metals has higher threshold frequency and why?
(ii)What does intercept on –ve y axis represent?

9. What is the effect of wavelength of incident photons on velocity of photoelectrons?

A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive surface. Do the emitted
photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy ? Explain
10. In an experiment on photoelectric emission, following observations were made 1) Wavelength of the
incident light = 2 × 10–7 m 2) Stopping potential = 3 V Find (i) kinetic energy of photoelectrons with
maximum speed (ii) work function

239
3 Marks Questions
1. The work function of Caesium metal is 2.14eV. When light of frequency 6 x 10 14Hz is incident on
the metal surface photoemission of electrons occurs.
a. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
b. stopping potential
c. maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons
2. Define the terms (i) cut-off voltage and (ii) threshold frequency in relation to the Phenomenon of
photoelectric effect. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation show how the cut -off voltage and
threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material can be determined with the help of a suitable
plot.
3. The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric emission for
incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm?
4. X-rays of wavelength fall on a photo sensitive surface emitting electrons. Assume that the work
function of the metal can be neglected, prove that the de-Broglie wave length of the emitted electron
hλ
will be √ .
2mc

5. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength 10-9 m. Find (i) Their momenta (ii) The energy of
the photon and (iii) The kinetic energy of electron.
6. When a given photo sensitive material is irradiated with light of frequency 𝜈, and maximum speed of
the emitted photoelectrons equals vmax. The square of v𝑚𝑎𝑥
2 is observed to vary with v, as per the
graph shown in fig. Obtain expression for (i) Planck's constant and (ii) the work function of the given
photo sensitive material, in terms of the parameter l, n and the mass m of the electrons.
(iii) How is threshold frequency determined from the graph?

7. Light of wavelength 2000 A0 falls on an aluminum surface. In aluminum 4.2 eV are required to remove
an electron. What is the kinetic energy of (a) fastest (b) the slowest photoelectron?
8. A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive Surface. Answer the following
questions giving reasons.
a. Do the emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy?
b. Does the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depend on the intensity of incident radiation?
c. On what factors does the number of emitted photoelectrons depend?

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9.The following graph shows the variation of stopping potential V0 with the frequency v of the incident
radiation for two photosensitive metals X and Y

i. Which of the metals has larger threshold wavelength? Give reason.

ii. Explain, giving reason, which metal gives out electrons, having larger kinetic energy, for the same
wavelength of the incident radiation.
iii. If the distance between the light source and metal X is halved, how will the kinetic energy of electrons
emitted from it change? Give reason.
11. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2nmfrom a neon lamp irradiates a photosensitive metal
made of tungsten. The stopping potential is measured to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced by an iron source
which emits radiation of wavelength 427.2nm which irradiates at the same potential. Calculate the stopping
potential.

5 Marks Questions

1. Draw properly labelled graphs to show the following concerning photo electric emission:
(i) Variation of photo electric current with the intensity of incident radiation.
(ii) Variation of photo electric current with accelerating and stopping potential.
(iii) Variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident radiation.
From the graph how the following can be determined.
1) Plank’s constant.
2) The work function of the material.
2. Obtain Einstein s photoelectric equation. Explain how it enables us to understand the
(i) Independence of maximum energy of the emitted photo electrons from the intensity of incident light
(ii) Linear dependence of the maximum energy of the emitted electrons on the frequency of the incident
radiation .
(iii) The existence of threshold frequency for a given photo emitter.
3. Derive the expression for the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving under a potential difference
of V volts .
A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same accelerating potential .Which one of
the two has; (i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength (ii) Less kinetic energy? Explain.

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CASE BASED QUESTIONS:
1. According to wave theory of light, the light of any frequency can emit electrons from metallic surface
provided the intensity of light be sufficient to provide necessary energy for emission of electrons, but
according to experimental observations, the light of frequency less than threshold frequency cannot emit
electrons; whatever be the intensity of incident light. Einstein also proposed that electromagnetic radiation is
quantized.
If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength λ1 = 550 nm is incident on it. The
stopping potential for such electrons is Vs =0.19. If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of
wavelength λ1 = 550 nm is incident on it. The stopping potential for such electrons is Vs =0.19. Suppose the
radiation of wavelength λ2 = 190 nm is incident on the surface.
i) Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because
a. there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
b. the maximum K.E. of photoelectric depends only on the frequency of light and not on its intensity
c. even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photo electrons leave the surface immediately.
d. electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized.
ii) In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light has a certain minimum
a. Wavelength
b. Frequency
c. Amplitude
d. angle of incidence
iii) Calculate the stopping potential Vs2 of surface.
a. 4.47
b. 3.16
c. 2.76
d. 5.28
iv) Calculate the work function of the surface
a. 3.75
b. 2.07
c. 4.20
d. 3.60
v) Calculate the threshold frequency for the surface
a. 500 x 1012 Hz
b. 480 x 1013 Hz
c. 520 x 1011 Hz
d. 460 x 1013 Hz

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2. Lenard observed that when ultraviolet radiations were allowed to fall on the emitter plate of an evacuated
glass tube, enclosing two electrodes (metal plates), current started flowing in the circuit connecting the plates.
As soon as the ultraviolet radiations were stopped, the current flow also stopped. These observations proved
that it was ultraviolet radiations, falling on the emitter plate, that ejected some charged particles from the
emitter and the positive plate attracted them.

i. Alkali metals like Li, Na, K and Cs show photo electric effect with visible light but metals like
Zn, Cd and Mg respond to ultraviolet light. Why?
a. Frequency of visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
b. Frequency of visible light is less than that for ultraviolet light
c. Frequency of visible light is same for ultraviolet light

d. Stopping potential for visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light

ii. Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?
a. For non-metals the work function is high
b. Work function is low
c. Work function can’t be calculated

d. For non-metals, threshold frequency is low

iii. What is the effect of increase in intensity on photoelectric current?

a. Photoelectric current increases
b. Decreases
c. No change

d. Varies with the square of intensity

iv. Name one factor on which the stopping potential depends

a. Work function
b. Frequency
c. Current

d. Energy of photon

v. How does the maximum K.E of the electrons emitted vary with the work function of metal?
a. It doesn’t depend on work function
b. It decreases as the work function increases
c. It increases as the work function increases
d. It’s value is doubled with the work function

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3. According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and sometimes as a
particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which controls the particle in every respect.
The wave associated with moving material particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose
wavelength called de-Broglie wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv
i. The dual nature of light is exhibited by
a. diffraction and photo electric effect
b. photoelectric effect
c. refraction and interference
d. diffraction and reflection
ii. If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will
a. remain unchanged
b. become four times
c. become two times
d. become half
iii. If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ , it implies that
they have the same
a. Energy
b. Momentum
c. Velocity
d. angular momentum
iv. Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation
a. v = λ h/m
b. v = λm/h
c. v = λ/hm
d. v = h/ λm
v. Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de Broglie wavelength?
a. ᵦ -particle
b. α -particle
c. proton
d. neutron
4. Observations in Photoelectric Effect
1. For each metal there is a characteristic minimum frequency below which photoelectric effect is
not observed. This is called threshold frequency.
If frequency of light is less than the threshold frequency, there is no ejection of electrons no matter
how long it falls on surface or how high is its intensity.
2. The kinetic Energy of electrons emitted is directly proportional to frequency of striking photons
& independent of their intensity.

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3. The no. of electrons that are ejected per second from metal surface depends upon intensity of
striking radiations and doesn’t depend upon their frequency.
4. If frequency of incident light is more than threshold frequency, then the excess energy is imparted
to electrons in the form of kinetic energy. (E − W = ½ mv 2)
i. Electrons are emitted with zero velocities from metal surface when exposed to radiation of
wavelength 6800 Ao. Calculate (ν0 = photon’s frequency & W0 = work function)?
a. 3.21x 10 12 /sec &9.7 x 10 -19 J
b. 4,14x 10 14 /sec & 2.92 x 10 -19 J
c. 7.76 x 10 14 /sec &9.7 x 10 -19 J
d. 4.14 x 10 -14 /sec & 2.922 x 10 -19 J
ii. A proton of wavelength 400 nm strikes metal surface. The electrons are ejected with velocity 5.85
× 10 5 m/s. Calculate min. energy required to remove electron from metal surface. (Mass of
electron = 9.1 × 10 -31 kg)
a. 29.43 ×10 -20 J
b. 34.50 ×10 20 J
c. 29.43 ×10 20 J
d. 34.50 ×10 -20 J
iii. Einstein could explain photoelectric effect using Plank’s Quantum theory as follows: -
a. Greater he frequency of incident light, greater the kinetic energy of e –
b. Greater the intensity of light more the no. of electrons ejected.
c. Both are correct
d. Only b is correct
iv. Who discovered the Photoelectric effect?
a. Hertz.
b. Einstein.
c. Max Planck
d. de-Broglie
5. PHOTOELECTRIC EMISSION: The photoelectric emission is possible only if the incident light is in the
form of packets of energy, each having a definite value, more than the work function of the metal. This
show that light is not of wave nature but of particle nature. It is due to this reason that photoelectric
emission was accounted by quantum theory of light
i. Packet of energy are called
a. Electron
b. Quanta
c. Frequency
d. Neutron
ii. One quantum of radiation is called

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a. Meter
b. Meson
c. Photon
d. Quark
iii. Energy associated with each photon
a. Hc
b. Mc
c. Hv
d. mc2
iv. Which of the following waves can produce photoelectric effect?
a. UV radiation
b. Infrared radiation
c. Radio waves
d. Microwaves
v. Work function of alkali metals is
a. less than zero
b. Just equal to other metals
c. greater than other metals
d. Quite less than other metals
ANSWERS
MCQ
1) b . 2) b. 3) a . 4) d . 5 ) d. 6) b. 7 ) a . 8) b . 9) b . 10 ) a .

ASSERTION- REASON

1. (A)

2. (D)

3.(B)

4.(C)

5. (D)

6.(A)

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1 mark questions
1. Energy of photon reduces to one half.
2. Wavelength is inversely proportional to work function, so metal A with lower work function has higher
threshold wavelength.
3. Energy E = 1 MeV = 1.6 x 10 -13J, p = E/c= 5.33x 10-22Kg m/s
4. λ = h /𝑝 = ℎ/ √2𝑚𝐾, λe > λp
5. 𝜆 = 12.27/ √𝑉 𝐴⃗̇0
for V = 4 V, 𝜆 = 12.27/ √4 𝐴⃗̇ = 6.135𝐴⃗̇0
6. KEmax = 3 eV => 3eV = eV0 => V0 = 3V
7. Since electron ejection is difficult from copper than sodium, so copper has greater work function than
sodium. As threshold wavelength is inversely related with work function, so sodium has higher threshold
wavelength than copper.
8. Since electron ejection is difficult from copper than sodium, so copper has greater work function than
sodium. As threshold wavelength is inversely related with work function, so sodium has higher threshold
wavelength than copper.
9. λ α 1/√m mα > mp = mn > me, λe < λp = λn > λα
10. Non-metals have high work function.

2marks questions
1. λ = 1.227/√V nm = 1.227/√100 =1.227A0
X rays
2. B line represents particle of larger mass because slope 1/√m
3. Gain in K.E = qV
½ mpvp2 =qp V, ½ mαvα2 =qα V
½ mαvα2 / ½ mpvp2 = qα /qα
Vα2 / Vp2 = qα /qα x mp /mα = 2/1 x 1/4 =1/2
Vα / Vp = 1/√2
4. (i) 1.5eV
(ii) Number of photons emitted per second
5. ν = 6 x 1014 Hz, P = 2 x 10-3 W
(ii) energy of photon = E = hν = 6.6x10-34 x 6 x1014 = 3.98 x10-19 J
(iii) If N is the number of photons emitted per second by the source then Power = N x energy
of photon P = NE N=
P/E = 2x10-3/3.98 x 10-19 = 5 x 1015 photons per second
6. E = hc/λ = 6.6×10−34×3×108 / 330 x10-9 = 3.767eV ϕo = 4.2eV
Since E < W0 no photoelectric emission.
7. (i) From Einstein photoelectric equation,

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eV0 = h𝜈- ϕ0 or

248
V0 =h𝜈/e − ϕ0/e
It is an equation of straight line as shown by line of A and B in figure
∴ slope of the line AB = ΔV0/Δ𝜈 = h/e also threshold frequency is value from origin to point where line
meets /cuts frequency axis.
Hence from the graph, the threshold frequency of Metal A is greater than the Metal B, therefore the work
function of Metal A is more than Metal B
(ii) Intercept on potential axis = − ϕ0/e from the equation Where, Work function = ϕ0, e = charge of electron
8. K.E. of photoelectron KEmax= = h (ν – ν0)
KEmax = h(𝑐𝜆 − 𝑐𝜆0) = mv2max/2 ,
vmax∝ 1 √𝜆
As the wavelength of incident light decreases, the velocity of photoelectrons increases.
9. No, the different electrons belong to different energy level in conduction band. They need different energies
to come out of the metal surface. For the same incident radiation, electrons knocked off from different energy
levels come out with different energies.
10. Vs = 3 V and Kmax = eVo, so Kmax = 3 eV
(ii) λ = 2000 Å = 2 × 10–7m.
Energy of incident photon = hc/ λ = 6.6 x 10-34x 3 x 108 / 2 × 10–7 = 6.20 eV
W = E – Kmax = 3.2 eV
3 marks questions
1. Kmax = hv – ϕ0
i) 6.63x10-34x 6 x1014/1.6x10-19 – 2.14eV = 0.314eV
ii) eV0 = Kmax = 0.314eV V0 = 0.314V
iii) 345.8 X 103 m/s
2. Definitions.
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, eV0 = hν – φ0 for ν > ν0.
Cut off voltage V0 = (h/e) ν – (φ0/e )
h/e is the slope of the graph.
ν0 = φ0/h
3. E = hc/λ =6.6×10−34×3×108 / 330 x10-9 = 3.767eV ϕo = 4.2eV since E < W0 no photoelectric emission.
4. As x ray photon of wavelength λ is incident on the metal surface, so KE of electrons KE max= hc/λ (since,
work function is negligible)
De Broglie wavelength of emitted electron, λ’= h / √ (2mKEmax) But, KEmax = hc/λ
So, λ’=h/ √(2m(hc/λ))=√(hλ/2mc)
5. p= h/λ = 6.63x10-25 m (ii) 𝐸= hc/λ= 1243 eV (iii) 𝐸= 𝑝2/2m= 1.52 eV.
6. Einstein photoelectric equation can be used to determine the plank's constant 'h'.
We know, the slope of the graph is plank's constant h= ml/2n
(b) From the graph 2фo/m = l

249
Hence, the work function will be ф0 = ml/2
(c)The threshold frequency is the intercept on horizontal axis
7. Given wavelength is λ = 2000Ao = 2×10−7 m
ϕo= 4.2eV.
(a) The kinetic energy is K.Emax = 1/2mv2max = hv−½ mV2max= hc/λ−ϕo = (6.6×10−34×3×108 /2×10−7)−4.2
½ mV2max = 2eV This is the K.E of the fastest electron is 2eV
(b) The velocity of the slowest electron would be zero, hence the kinetic energy it possesses is also zero.
8. a) No kinetic energy or photoelectrons depends on the energy level from which it comes out. Electrons
from different energy levels beer different kinetic energies.
b) No kinetic energy depends on the energy of each photon only and not on the number of photons (i.e.
intensity of light)
c) The number of photoelectrons depends on the intensity of incident light.
9.(i) X as X has smaller threshold frequency
(ii) Since фY > фX so KEy > KEx Therefore x gives out electrons with large KE
(iii) no change
10. Use Einstein equation eVo = hc/λ – Φo
For neon lamp
eVo1= hc/λ1– Φo
for iron source
eVo2=hc/λ2–Φo
V02 – V01 =hc/e [1/ λ1- 1/ λ2} Place values and solve = 0.97 V
V02=V01+ 0.97=1.51V
Case Study Questions:
ANS(i) ANS(ii) ANS(iii ANS(iv) ANS(v)
)
Q.NO.1 a b a b a
Q.NO.2 b a a b a
Q.NO.3 a d b d a
Q.NO.4 b d c a ----
Q.NO.5 b c c a d

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ATOMS
IMPORTANT POINTS
1. All elements consists of very small invisible particles, called atom. Every atom is a sphere of radius of
the order of 10-10 m, in which entire mass is uniformly distributed

and negative charged

electrons revolve around the nucleus.
2. Experimental arrangement for α-scattering experiment and trajectory followed by α -particles

3. Impact parameter perpendicular distance of the velocity vector of α-particle from the central line of the
nucleus of the atom is called impact parameter (b).

where, K is KE of α-particle, θ is scattering angle, Z is atomic number of the nucleus and e is charge of
nucleus.
4. Basic assumption of Rutherford’s atomic model
(i) Atom consists of small central core, called atomic nucleus in which whole mass and positive charge is
assumed to be concentrated.
(ii) The size of nucleus is much smaller than the size of the atom.

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(iii) The nucleus is surrounded by electrons and atom is electrically neutral.
(iv) Electrons revolves around the nucleus and centripetal force is of electrostatic nature.
5. Distance of Closest Approach At a certain distance r0 from the nucleus, whole of the KE of α-particle
converts into electrostatic potential energy and α-particle cannot go farther close to nucleus, this distance
(r0) is called distance of closest approach.

6. Angle of Scattering Angle by which a-particle gets deviated from its original path around the nucleus is
called angle of scattering.
7. Drawbacks of Rutherford’s Model
(i) Could not explained stability of atom clearly.
(ii) Unable to explain line spectrum.
8. Bohr’s Theory of Hydrogen Atom Bohr combined classical and early quantum concepts and gave his
theory in the form of three postulates. These are
(i) Bohr’s first postulate was that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the
emission of radiant energy, contrary to the predictions of electromagnetic theory.
(ii) Bohr’s second postulate defines these stable orbits. This postulate states that the electron revolves
around the nucleus only in those orbits for which the angular momentum is some integral multiple of h/2π,
where h is the Planck’s constant (= 6.6 x 10-34 J – s). Thus, the angular momentum (L) of the orbiting
electron is
quantised, i. e. L = nh/2π
As, angular momentum of electron (L) = mvr
∴ For any permitted (stationary) orbit, mvr = nh/2π
where, n = any positive integer i.e. 1, 2, 3, ….
It is also called principal quantum number.
(iii) Bohr’s third postulate states that an electron might make a transition from one of its specified non-
radiating orbits to another of lower energy. When it does so, a photon is emitted having energy equal to the
energy difference between the initial and final states.
The frequency of the emitted photon is then given by
hv – Ei– Ef
where, Ei and Ef are the energies of the initial and final states and Ei >Ef .
9. Limitations of Bohr’s Model
(i) Applicable only for hydrogen like atom.
(ii) Does not explain the fine structure of spectral lines in H-atom.
(iii) Does not explain about shape of orbit.

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10. Important formulae related to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atoms are given below:

11. Energy Level The energy of an atom is the least when its electron is revolving in an orbit closest to the
nucleus i.e. for which n = 1.
12. The lowest state of the atom is called the ground state; this state has lowest energy. The energy of this
state is -13.6 eV. Therefore, the minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of the
hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
13. (i) Emission Spectrum Hydrogen spectrum consists of discrete bright lines a dark
background and it is specifically known as hydrogen emission spectrum.
(ii) Absorption Spectrum There is one more type of hydrogen spectrum exists where we get dark lines on

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the bright background, it is known as absorption spectrum
14. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of various series.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Write the expression for Bohr’s radius in hydrogen atom
2. Why is the classical (Rutherford) model for an atom—of electron orbiting around the nucleus—not
able to explain the atomic structure?
3. What is the maximum number of spectral lines emitted by a hydrogen atom when it is in the third
excited state?
4. State Bohr’s quantization condition of angular momentum
5. Which series of the hydrogen spectrum has wavelength in the visible range

254
6. When an electron jumps from fourth excited state to the ground state identify the number of spectral
lines produced in H spectrum
7. What is the energy required for transition from ground state to the highest permitted state
8. What is the significance of negative energy of electron in the orbit
9. If λ1 and λ2 are the wavelengths of first line of Lyman and Paschen series Find the ratio λ1: λ2
10. In Rutherford scattering experiment what is the scattering angle corresponding to zero impact
parameter
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1. What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground state in a
hydrogen atom?
2. The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10-11 m. What is the radius of
orbit in the second excited state?
3. Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen atom
from its
(i) second permitted energy level to the first level, and
(ii) the highest permitted energy level to the first permitted level.
4. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential energies
of electron in this state?
5. An α-particle moving with initial kinetic energy K towards a nucleus of atomic number z
approaches a distance ‘d’ at which it reverses its direction. Obtain the expression for the distance of
closest approach ‘d’ in terms of the kinetic energy of α-particle K
6. Find out the wavelength of the electron orbiting in the ground state of hydrogen atom.
7. Calculate the shortest wavelength of light emitted in the Paschen series of hydrogen spectrum.
8. Using Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of orbital angular momentum show that the
circumference of the electron in the nth orbital state in hydrogen atom is n times the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it.
9. The electron in hydrogen atom is initially in the third excited state. What is the maximum number of
spectral lines which can be emitted when it finally moves to the ground state?
10. In the ground state of hydrogen atom, its Bohr radius is given as 5.3 × 10-11 m. The atom is excited
such that the radius becomes 21.2 × 10-11 m. Find the value of the principal quantum number
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Construct a quantity with the dimensions of length from the fundamental constants e, me, and h, where
these letter have their usual meanings.
2. In the Fig. for the stationery orbits of the hydrogen atom, mark the
transitions representing the Balmer and Lyman series.

255
3. The energy levels of an atom are as shown in Fig.
Which one of these transitions will result in the
emission of a photon of wavelength 275 nm?

4. What is the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an electron from the ground state of
doubly ionised Li atom (Z = 3)?
5. Calculate the impact parameter of a 5MeV alpha particle scattered by 90 ͦ when it approaches a gold
nucleus (Z=79)
6. The H-line of the Balmer series is obtained from the transition n = 3 (energy = - 1.5eV) to n=2
(energy=-3.4 eV). Calculate the wave length of this line. Given that h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js; 1 eV = 1. 6 *
10- 19J and c = 3 * 108 m / s.
7. Determine the speed of electrons in n = 3 orbit of Hydrogen atom.
8. Calculate the longest and shortest wavelength in Balmer series of hydrogen atom. Given RH =
1.097 x 107 m-
9. 18 kV accelerating voltage is applied across an X-ray tube. Calculate (a) the velocity of the fastest
electron striking the target and (b) the minimum wave length in the continuous spectrum of the X-
rays produced. Given mass of electron, m = 9 x 10-31 kg; charge of electron, e = 1.6 x 10-19 C,
Planck's constant, h=6.6 x 10-34 Js and c= 3 x 108 m/s.
10. What is the angular momentum of an electron in Bohr’s hydrogen atom whose energy is -3.4eV
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Photoelectrons are emitted, when 400nm radiation is incident on a surface of work function 1.9eV.
These photoelectrons pass through a region containing –particles. A maximum energy electron
combines with –particle to form a He+ ion, emitting a single photon in this process. He+ ions thus
formed are in their fourth excited state. Find the energies in eV of photons lying in the 2 to 4 eV
range, that are likely to be emitted during and after the combination. Take h = 4.14 x 10 -15eVs.
2. Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of sodium. The kinetic
energy of the fastest electrons emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. The work function for sodium is 1.82
eV.
Find (a) the energy of the photons causing the photoelectric emission,
(b) the quantum numbers of the two levels involved in the emission of these photons,
(c) the change in the angular momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the above transition.
(d) the recoil speed of the emitting atom assuming it to be at rest before the transition. (Ionisation
energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV)
3. A hydrogen-like atom of atomic number Z is in an excited state of quantum number 2n. It can emit a
maximum energy photon of 204 eV. If it makes a transition to quantum state n, a photon of energy
40.8 eV is emitted. Find n, Z and the ground state energy (in eV) of this atom. Also calculate the

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minimum energy (in eV) that can be emitted by this atom during de-excitation. Ground state energy
of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1 The ratio between Bohr radii is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 2 : 4 : 6
(c) 1 : 4 : 9
(d) 1 : 3 : 5
2. The K.E. of the electron in an orbit of radius r in hydrogen atom is proportional to

3. In terms of Rydberg constant R, the wave number of the first Balmer line is
(a) R
(b) 3R
(c) 5R/36
(d) 8R/9
4. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohr’s theory the energy corresponding
to a transition between 3rd and 4th orbits is
(a) 3.40 eV
(b) 1.51 eV
(c) 0.85 eV
(d) 0.66 eV
5. The transition of electron from n = 4, 5, 6, .............. to n = 3 corresponds to
(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) Brackettseries
6. Which of the following spectral series in hydrogen atom gives spectral line of 4860 A?
(a) Lyman
(b) Balmer
(c) Paschen
(d) Brackett
7. Which of the following postulates of the Bohr model led to the quantization of energy of hydrogen
atom?
(a) The electron goes around the nucleus in circular orbits.

257
(b) The angular momentum of the electron can only be an integral multiple of h/2π.
(c) The magnitude of the linear momentum of the electron is quantized.
(d) Quantization of energy is itself a postulate of the Bohr model.
8. The transition from the state n = 5 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom results in UV radiation. Infrared radiation
will be obtained in the transition
(a) 2 → 1
(b) 3 → 2
(c) 4 → 3
(d) 6 → 2
9. For ionising an excited hydrogen atom, the energy required (in eV) will be
(a) a little less than 13.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(c) more than 13.6 eV (d) 3.4 or less
10. In terms of Rydberg constant R, the shortest wavelength in Balmer series of hydrogen atom spectrum
will have wavelength

ASSERTION –REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Answer: A Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

Answer: B Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: C Reason is wrong.
Answer: D Both are wrong.

1. Assertion: According to Bohr’s atomic model the ratio of angular momenta of an electron in first excited
state and in ground state is 2:1.

Reason: In a Bohr’s atom the angular momentum of the electron is directly proportional to the principal
quantum number.
2. Assertion: The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus and a-particle varies with distance according to
inverse square law.
Reason: Rutherford did a-particle scattering experiment.
3. Assertion: The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a radius of almost 10−15m.
Reason: In a-particle scattering experiment, the distance of closest approach for particles is ≃ 10−15m.
4. Assertion: Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces
Reason: The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is balanced by the
centrifugal force.
5. Assertion: For the scattering of a-particles at a large angles, only the nucleus of the atom is responsible.
Reason: Nucleus is very heavy in comparison to α particle.

258
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
1. Direction: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows.
At room temperature, most of the H-atoms are in ground state. When an atom receives some energy
(i.e. by electron collisions), the atom may acquire sufficient energy to raise electron to higher energy
state. In this condition, the atom is said to be in excited state. From the excited state, the electron can
fall back to a state of lower energy, emitting a photon equal to the energy difference of the orbit.

In a mixture of H – He+ gas (He+ is single ionised He atom) H – atoms and He+ ions are excited to
their
respective first excited states. Subsequently H-atoms transfer their total excitation energy to He+ ions
(by collisions).
i) Calculate the wavelength of radiation emitted, when an
electron having total energy -1.5 eV makes a transition to
the ground state.
[Given energy in the ground state = -13.6eV and Rydberg’s
constant=1.09 x 107 m-1 )
ii) Hydrogen atom has only one electron but its emission
spectrum has many lines. Explain with reason.
iii) Find the relation between the three wavelengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy level diagram
shown below.

259
2. Due to many reasons, Rutherford model of atom had many limitations.
Rutherford model failed to explain the stability of an atom. As the
electron's energy decreases gradually, it collapses into the nucleus
Hence the charge of the atom will disrupt making the atom unstable. In
Rutherford model, an electron can revolve in orbit of all possible radii
hence it should emit a continuous spectrum but atoms like hydrogen
always emit a discrete line spectrum. From the developing ideas of
quantum hypothesis, Bohr made modifications to Rutherford's model.
By studying the Rutherford's model for months he presented three
postulates by combining classical and early quantum concepts. Bohr
gave the conditions of momentum and energy associated with different
orbits. By following his postulates, we were able to find total energy on
an electron, the radius of the orbit, velocity of an electron revolving
around the nucleus.
A) In Bohr Model, what is the atomic radius of 3rd orbit?
a) 𝑟0 c) 9𝑟0
9

b) 𝑟0 d) 3𝑟0

B) Radii of the permitted orbits increase in .................... ratio.

a) 1 : 2 : 3
b) 2: 4 : 6
c) 1 : 4 : 9
d) 1: 4 : 6
C) As per Bohr model, the radius of stationary orbit are related to principal quantum number n as
a) Inversely proportional to square of n
b) Inversely proportional to n
c) Directly proportional to n
d) Directly proportional to square of n
D) If the orbital radius of electron in the hydrogen is 4.7x10-11m. Kinetic energy of electron
a) 15.3 eV
b) -15.3 eV
c) 13.6 eV
d) -13.6 eV
E) What is the angular momentum of an electron in the third orbit of an atom?
a. x 10-34 Js
b. 3.15 x 10-35 Js
c. 3 x 10-34 Js
d. 1.15 x 10-28 Js

260
3. Rutherford's model of atom was modified by Bohr using classical quantum concepts. The greatness
of Bohr's theory is that it not only successfully explained the already known series of layman, Balmer
and Paschen but also predicted two new series in the infrared region which was later discovered by
Brackett and Pfund. From Bohr's theory, energy level diagram was established in which different
energies of different stationary states of an atom are represented by parallel horizontal lines, drawn
according to some suitable energy scale. An electron can have definite values of energy while
revolving in different orbits. This is called energy quantisation. Atoms may acquire sufficient energy
to raise the electron in higher energy level. It is known as excitation energy and the accelerating
potential which excites the electron to higher energy level is known as excitation potential. In various
lines, when photons are emitted, it means electrons jump from higher energy to lower energy state.
Those spectral lines are called emission lines. But when an atom absorbs a photon, it has energy equal
to the energy needed by the electron in a lower. State to make the transition to higher state. This is
called absorption spectra.
A) For scattering -particles, Rutherford suggested that
a) Mass of atom and its positive charge were concentrated at centre of atom
b) Only mass of atom is concentrated at centre of the atom
c) Only positive charge of atom is concentrated at centre of atom
d) Mass of atom is uniformly distributed throughout it’s volume
B) In Pfund series, the ratio of maximum to minimum wavelength of emitted spectral lines is
a) 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 4
=
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥 3

b) 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 9
=
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥 5

c) 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 2
=
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥 3

d) 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 36
=
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥 11

C) A set of atoms in excited state decays

a) In general to any of the state with lower energy
b) Into a lower state only when excited by an external field
c) All together simultaneously into lower state
d) To emit photons only when they collide
D) Which of the following spectral series in hydrogen atom gives line of 4860 Å
a) Lyman c) Paschen
b) Balmer d) Brackett
E) The ground state energy of the hydrogen atom is E0. The Kinetic energy of the electron in 3rd excited
level is
(a) – 𝐸˳ (b) – 𝐸˳
16 9

261
4. The trajectory traced by an α-particle depends on the
impact parameter, b of collision. The impact parameter
is the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector
of the α-particle from the centre of the nucleus. A given
beam of α-particles has a distribution of impact
parameters b, so that the beam is scattered in various
directions with different probabilities. (In a beam, all particles have nearly same kinetic energy.) It is
seen that an α-particle close to the nucleus (small impact parameter) suffers large scattering. In case
of head-on collision, the impact parameter is minimum and the α-particle rebounds back (𝜃 ≅ π). For
a large impact parameter, the α-particle goes nearly undeviated and has a small deflection (𝜃 ≅ 0).
A) If an α particle collides head on with the nucleus, what is impact parameter?
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) 10-10 m
(d) 1010 m
B) The size of the atom is proportional to
(a) A
1⁄
(b) 𝐴⃗ 3

2⁄
(c) 𝐴⃗ 3

−1⁄
(d) 𝐴⃗ 3

C) An alpha particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 1800 by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance
of closest approach is of the order of
(a) 10-10 m
(b) 10-10 cm
(c) 10-12 cm
(d) 10-15 m
D) According to classical theory of Rutherford’s model, the path of electron will be
(a) Parabolic
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Circular
(d) Elliptical
E) An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
Coulomb force F between the two is
𝒆𝟐 𝒆𝟐
(a) k 𝒓𝟐 r (b) – k 𝒓𝟑 r

𝟐
(c)
𝟐
k𝒆 𝒓 (d) k 𝒓
𝒆

262
𝒓𝟐 𝒓𝟐

263
5. Bohr’s theory was successfully able to explain the spectrum of hydrogen, but it had many
shortcomings. For example, it was only successful for hydrogen like single electron atoms and fails
in case of atoms with two or more electrons. Bohr’s theory does not explain why only circular orbits
should be chosen when elliptical orbits are also possible. As electrons exhibit wave properties also,
so orbits of electrons cannot be exactly defined as in Bohr’s theory. Bohr’s theory predicts only the
frequency of these lines and fails to explain anything about the relative intensities of various spectral
lines.
A. As per Bohr’s model, the minimum energy required to remove an electron from the ground state of
doubly ionized Li atom is
a) 20.8
b) 1.51
c) 13.6
d) 122.4
B. Bohr’s atom model assumes
a) The nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest
b) Electrons in the quantized orbit will not radiate energy
c) Mass of electron remains constant
d) All of the above
C. Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom failed to explain
a) Emission Spectra
b) Diameter of H atom
c) Ionisation energy
d) The fine structure of even hydrogen spectrum.
D. According to Bohr theory, relation between quantum number n and radius of orbit r is,
a) n α r
b) r α 1/n
c) r α n2
d) r α 1/n2
E. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, which of the following is quantized?
a) Linear velocity of electron
b) Angular velocity of electron
c) Linear momentum of electron
d) Angular momentum of electron

264
ANSWER KEY
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Bohr’s radius in hydrogen atom,

2. As the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into
the nucleus. So it was not able to explain the atomic structure.
3. For third excited state, n2 = 4, and n1 = 3, 2, 1 Hence there are 3 spectral lines.
4. Bohr’s Quantisation condition: Only those orbits are permitted in which the angular momentum of
the electron is an integral multiple of h/2π.
5. .Balmer
6. Number of spectral lines =10
7. 13.6eV
8. Electrons are bound to the nucleus.
9. 7:108
10. 180 degrees
TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1.

. Kinetic energy, Ke = + T.E. = 13.6 eV

Potential energy, Pe = 2 T.E. = 2 (-13.6) = – 27.2 eV

265
5.

8. According to the de-Broglie hypothesis, this electron is also associated with wave character.
Hence a circular orbit can be taken to be a stationary energy state only if it contains an integral number of
de- Broglie wavelengths i.e. we must have
2πr = nλ
According to Bohr’s-second postulate

9. For third excited state n = 4

For ground state n = 1
Hence, possible transitions are :

266
10.

Therefore, Value of principal quantum number in this excited state is 2

THREE MARK QUESTIONS
1. The quantity is radius of the innermost orbit (n=1) of the H-atom. It is given by
a = 4 ℎ2
0 0 . 2
4 𝑚 𝑒 𝑒
2

It is also called Bohr’s radius

The transitions representing the Balmer and Lyman series are as shown in Fig.

Energy of emitted photon E = ℎ𝑐


= 4.5eV

The photon of energy 4.5eV will be emitted, corresponding to transition B.

4. For LI-atom, Z = 3, Doubly ionised Li-atom (Li++) is a hydrogen –like atom. Therefore, minimum
energy (ionization energy) required to remove an electron from the ground state of Li ++ atom will be Z2
times the ionization energy for hydrogen atom i.e. 32 x 13.6 = 122.4 eV
5. KE = 5 MeV = 5 x 106 x 1.6 x 10-19 J , θ = 90° , For gold, Z = 79

267
6.

E2 = -3.4 eV
E3 = - 1.5 eV
hv = E3 – E2 = 1.9 eV
Therefore  = 6513 Å
7.
1 2𝑒2
vn = .
40 𝑛ℎ

= 7.29 x 105 ms-1

1 1 1
8. = RH ( - ) where ni = 3, 4, 5 ………..
2
 22 𝑛𝑖

Minimum energy corresponds to ni = 3

n = 6,563 Å
Maximum energy corresponds to ni = 
 = 3,646 Å
9.
1 mv2 = eV
2

Therefore v = 8 x 107 m/s-1

Minimum wavelength = ℎ𝑐 = 0.6875 Å
𝑒𝑉

10. Energy of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom

En=−13.6eV/n2
-3.4=− -13.6/ n2
n2 = 4
n=2
Angular momentum = nh/2π= h/π
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
1.

Here, work function of the surface,  = 1.9 eV;

wavelength of the incident photons,
 = 400nm = 400x10-9 m
and Planck’s constant, h = 4.14x10-15 eV s
Now, energy of the photon of incident light,
ℎ𝑐 4.14 10−15  3 108
hv = = = 3.1 eV
 400 x 10−9

From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, we have

hv =  + ½ m vmax2
or½ m vmax2 = hv -  = 3.1 – 1.9 = 1.2 eV

268
When a photoelectron of maximum kinetic energy combines with an -particle, it is raised to its fourth
excited state ( n= 5) and a single photon is emitted in the process. If E5 is the energy of the –particle in the
fourth excited state and E, the energy of the emitted photon, then the process can be represented as
½ m vmax2 → E5 + E
Hence, the energy of the emitted photon,
E= ½ m vmax2 - E5 = E
Now, the energy of the electron in nth orbit of He+ ion,
13.6 𝑍2
En = -
𝑛2 2
= -13.6 ×2
E = - 2.18eV (for He, Z=2)
5
52

E=1.2 – (-2.18) = 3.38 eV

Inorder to find the energies with which the photons are emitted in the energy range 2 to 4 eV, let us first find
the energy associated with different energy levels He+ ion. They are as obtained below:
2
E = -13.6 × 2 = -54.4eV;
1
12
2
= -13.6× 2
E = -13.6eV;
2
22
2
= -13.6× 2
E = -6.04eV;
3
32
2
= -13.6 ×2
and E = -3.4eV;
4
42

In the possible transitions, which can take place between the energy levels ranging from n = 5 to n = 1, the
energies of the photons will be as calculated below:
ΔE = E5 – E4 = -2.18 – (-3.4) = 1.22 eV (not in the energy range 2 to 4 eV)
For transition from n = 5 to n = 3,
ΔE = 3.86 eV
For transition from n = 5 to n = 2,
ΔE = 11.42 eV
Therefore, there is no need to make calculations for transition from n = 5 to n = 1,
For transition from n = 4 to n = 2, (not in the energy range 2 to 4 eV)
ΔE = E4 – E2 = -3.4 – (-13.6) = 10.2 eV
Therefore, there is no need to make calculations for transition from n = 4 to n = 1,
For transition from n = 3 to n = 2,
ΔE = E3 – E2 = -6.04 – (-13.6) = 7.56eV (not in the energy range 2 to 4 eV)
Therefore, there is no need to make calculations for transition from n = 3 to n = 1.
Hence, the photons that are likely to be emitted in the energy range 2 to 4eV are of energies 3.86 eV (transition
from n = 5 to n = 3) and 2.64 eV (transition from n = 4 to n = 3)
2. Here, work function of sodium,  = 1.82 eV and maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons,
½ m vmax2 = 0.73 eV

269
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation, we have
hv =  + ½ m vmax2
Therefore, energy of the photon of incident light,
hv = 1.82 + 0.73 = 2.55 eV
b) Here, ionization energy of hydrogen = 13.6eV
Therefore, energy of the electron in nth orbit,
13.6
En = - 𝑛2
eV

Suppose that the photon of energy 2.55 eV is emitted when electron jumps from the energy level of quantum
number ni to nf. If Ei and Ef are the energies associated with these levels , then
Ei - Ef = 2.55
or –
13.6
-(
13.6 = 2.55 or 1
-
1
=
2.55
2 2 ) 2 2
𝑛𝑖 𝑛𝑓 𝑛𝑓 𝑛𝑖 13.6

or𝑛12 - 𝑛12 = 0.1875

𝑓 𝑖

The two quantum numbers must satisfy the equation (i). Let us first try for photons emitted in Lyman series:
If ni = 2 and nf =1 , then
1
-
1
= 2-
1 1 = 0.75
2 2
𝑛𝑓 𝑛𝑖 1 22

If ni = 3 and nf =1 , then
1
-
1
= 2-
1 1 = 0.89
2 2
𝑛𝑓 𝑛𝑖 1 32

As the calculated values of ( 1 - 1 ) differ more and more from 0.1875, the emitted photons do not correspond
2 2
𝑛𝑓 𝑛𝑖

to the radiation emitted in Lyman series.

Let us now try for photons emitted in Balmer series:
If ni = 3 and nf = 2 , then
1 1 1 1
2 - 𝑛2 =22 - 32 = 0.139
𝑛𝑓 𝑖

If ni = 4 and nf = 2 , then
1 1 1 1
2 - 𝑛2 =22 - 42 = 0.1875
𝑛𝑓 𝑖

There the emitted photons corresponds to the second member Balmer series and the energy levels involved
in the emission of this photons are of quantum numbers ni = 4 and nf = 2.
c) Change in angular momentum = 4(h/2) – 2(h/2) = h/
d) Initially hydrogen atom having mass mH is at rest. When photon is emitted, let vH be the recoil speed of
hydrogen atom. Since the momentum of photon is h v/c, from the principle of conservation of momentum
ℎ𝑣
m H vH + =0
𝑐

hv = 2.55 eV = 2.55 x 1.6 x 10-19 J

mH = 1 a.m.u. = 1.67 x 10-27 kg

270
Therefore vH = - 0.814 ms-1
Conclusion: The negative sign tells that H-atom moves in the direction opposite to that in which the photon
is emitted.
3.

E2n – E1 = 204 eV ................(i)

and E2n – En = 40.8 eV............... (ii)
𝐸1 𝐸1
E2n = =
(2𝑛)2 4𝑛2
𝐸1
Therefore - E1 = 204
4𝑛2
1
E1( 2 − 1) = 204 .................. (iii)
4𝑛
𝐸1
En =
𝑛2

Therefore equation (ii) becomes

𝐸1
- 𝐸1 = 40.8
4𝑛2 𝑛2

Therefore E1 = -54.4 n2 ........................... (iv)

From equation (iii) and (iv) n2 = 4
Therefore n = 2
In equation (iv) substituting n= 2
E1 = -217.6 eV
For Hydrogen like atom
E1 = -13.6 Z2
Therefore -13.6 Z2 = -217.6
Therefore z = 4
During de-excitation from state 2n, minimum energy will be emitted by this atom, when it goes to the state
which is just below this excited state (2n-1).
Emin = E2n – E2n-1
E2n = 13.6 eV
E2n-1 = - 24.2 eV
Therefore Emin = 10.58 eV
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Answer: c
(c) 1 : 4 : 9, In Bohr’s atomic model, rn n²
2. Answer: b
(b) e2/2r, Scince K.E = ke2/2r

271
3. Answer: c

4. Answer: d

5. Answer: c
(c) In transition from n1 = 3 and n2 = 4, 5, 6,….
Infrared radiation of Paschen spectral is emitted.
6. Answer: b
(b) Since spectral line of wavelength 4860 A
lies in the visible region of the spectrum which is Balmer series of the spectrum.
7. Answer: b
8. Answer: c
9. Answer: d
(d) As the energy of the electron is – -3.4 eV in first excited state and magnitude is less for higher excited
state.
10. Answer: b
(b) For shortest wavelength n1 =∞, n2 = 2

ASSERTION –REASON TYPE QUESTIONS ANSWER

1. Correct answer: A
2. Correct Answer: B
Rutherford confirmed the repulsive force on a-particle due to nucleus varies with distance according
to inverse square law and that the positive charges are concentrated at the centre and not distributed
throughout the atom.
Correct Answer: A
3. In a-particle scattering experiment, Rutherford found a small number of particles which were scattered
back through an angle approaching to 180∘. This is possible only if the positive charges are
concentrated at the centre or nucleus of the atom.
4. Correct Answer: C
According to postulates of Bohr’s atom model, the electron revolve round the nucleus in fixed orbit
of definite radii. As long as the electron is in a certain orbits it does not radiate any energy.

272
5. Correct Answer: A

We know that an electron is very light particle as compared to an alpha particle. Hence electron cannot
scatter the a-particle at large angles, according to law of conservation of momentum. On the other hand,
mass of nucleus is comparable with the mass of a-particle, hence only the nucleus of atom is responsible
for scattering of a-particles

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1.
(i) Every atom has different energy states. In the ground state, the electron occupies lowest energy
level. When an atom is excited by means of some external energy from outside, then the electron
jumps to a higher energy level. Within nano-seconds (10-9 s), the electron jumps back from higher
energy level to lower energy level. This process can take in either one step (ie, from highest
possible energy level to ground state) or in multiple state by passing through other lower energy
levels.
These are countless atoms in a light-source, hence all possible transitions can take place an many
lines are observed in the spectrum.
(ii) According to question,
ℎ𝑐
EB – EC = …(i)
𝜆1
ℎ𝑐
EA – EB = …(ii)
𝜆2
−ℎ𝑐
EC – EA = …(iii)
𝜆3

On adding Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get

E B – E C + E A– E B + E C – E A
1 1
= hc 1
+ -
𝜆1 𝜆2 𝜆3
1 1 1
⇒ = +
𝜆3 𝜆1 𝜆2
1 𝜆1𝜆2
=
𝜆3 𝜆1+𝜆2

This is the required expression.

2.
A) (c) 9r0
Explanation:
rn = r0n2
r3= 32 r0 = 9r0
B) c) 1 : 4 : 9
Explanation:
rn ∝ n2
Taking n = 1, 2, 3 we get

273
r1 :r2 : r3 = 1: 4: 9
C) (d) Directly proportional to n2
Explanation: Centripetal force = electrostatic force
𝑚𝑣2 𝑒2 ………. (1)
=
𝑟 40 𝑟2
2
r= 𝑒
……… (2)
40 𝑟2
Since 𝑚𝑣 𝑟 = 𝑛ℎ => r= 𝑛ℎ
𝑛 𝑛 2 2𝑚𝑣

Solving this
𝑛2ℎ2 40
r=
42 𝑚𝑒2

ie; r ∝ n2
The radius of stationary orbit is directly proportional to n square.
D) a) 15.3 eV
Explanation:
2
K.E = ½ mv2 = 𝑘𝑧𝑒 Calculating
𝑧𝑟

E) a) 3.15 x 10-34 Js
Explanation:
n = 3, h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js
Angular momentum,
𝑛ℎ
L=
2𝜋
3𝑥6.6𝑥10−34
=L=
2𝑥3.14

=3.15x10-34 Js
3.
Answers:
(A)(a) Mass of atom and its positive charge were concentrated at centre of atom.
Explanations: Through scattering experiment, Rutherford was able to explain the most of the
alpha particles passed through the atom suggesting most of the space is empty and most deflection
(180) was observed when alpha particles retaliated from the nucleus due to like charge.
(B) (d) 𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 36
𝜆𝑚𝑖𝑥 11

Explanations:
In P fund series
1
=R
1
–
1 = 6, 7 …
𝜆 52 𝑛2

Maximum wavelength is given by

1 1 1
= –
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥 52 62

274
In transition 5 to 6
Minimum wavelength is given by
1 1 1
= –
𝜆 52 ∞

In transition 5 to ∞
So, ratio is 36
11

(C) (a) In general to any of the state with lower energy

Explanations: A set of atoms in excited state decays to any state with lower energy because they
are more stable than the excited state.
(D)(b) Balmer
Explanations: Spectral line wavelength 4860 Å lies in visible region of spectrum which is Balmer
series of spectrum.
(E) (a) 𝐸˳
16

Explanations:
𝐸˳
E = 𝑛2

For third excited level, n = 4

Kinetic Energy = – 𝐸˳ = – 𝐸˳
16

4.
Answers: (A) Zero
1⁄ 1⁄
(B) (b) R=R0 𝐴⃗ 3 => 𝐴⃗ 3

Explanations: The radius of a nucleus is proportional to the cube root of its mass number. So, the size of the
1⁄
atom is proportional to 𝐴⃗ 3

Explanations: Here, q1 = -e
q2 = Ze, where Z = 1 for hydrogen atom, then
2
𝑒
q2=e Thus F = – k r
𝑟3

5.
Answers:
(A) (d) 122.4
Explanations: The doubly ionized Li atom is hydrogen like atom
−13.6𝑍 2
En = eV
𝑛2

The ground state energy of doubly ionized Li atom will be

275
2
E1 = −13.6𝑥3 eV = 122.4eV
1

(B) (d) all of the above

Explanations: Bohr’s model of atom assumes that the nucleus is off infinite mass and is at
rest. Electron in a quantized orbit will not radiate energy and mass of the electron remains
constant.
(C) (d) the fine structure of even hydrogen atom.
Explanations: Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom did not fully explain the fine structure of even
hydrogen atom.
(D) (c) r α n2
𝑛 2ℎ2
r = 4𝜋 2𝑚𝑘𝑍𝑒 2

= r α n2
(E) (d) Angular momentum of electron
Explanations: In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, angular momentum of an electron is
quantized.

276
NUCLEI
Key points and Short Notes:
Composition of the Nucleus:
Nucleus consists of protons and neutrons.
Nucleus is practically responsible for the whole mass of the atom.
Every atomic nucleus except that of Hydrogen has two types of particles – Protons and
neutrons which are known as Nucleons.
Proton is a fundamental particle with positive charge 1.6 x 10-19 C and mass 1.67 x 10-27
kg (1836 times heavier than an electron).
Neutron is also a fundamental particle with no charge and mass 1.675 x 10-27 kg (1840
times heavier than an electron).
Atomic Mass Unit (u):
Atomic Mass Unit (amu) is 1/12thof mass the carbon (12 C) atom.
1 u = (1/12) x 1.992647 X 10 -26 kg
1u = 1.6605 X 10-27 kg

277
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278
Binding Energy per nucleon as a function of Mass number:

Mains features of the Binding Energy per nucleon Vs Mass number curve.
• The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of
middle mass number (30 < A < 170).
• The curve has a maximum of about 8.75 MeV for A= 56 and a value of 7.6 MeV for A = 238.
• B.E/nucleon is lower for both light nuclei (A < 30) and heavy nuclei (A>170).
• For mass numbers ranging from 2 to 20, there are sharply defined peaks corresponding to ₂He⁴, ₆C¹²,
₈O¹⁶, etc. indicating that these nuclei are relatively more stable than the other nuclei in their
neighbourhood.
From these observations it can be concluded that
• The force is attractive and sufficiently strong to produce a binding energy of a few MeV per
nucleon.
• The constancy of the binding energy in the range 30 < A < 170 is a consequence of the fact that
the nuclear force is short ranged.
• The property that a given nucleon influences only nucleons close to it is referred to as saturation
property.
• B.E/nucleon is smaller for heavier nuclei than the middle ones. Hence, when a heavier nucleus
splits into lighter nuclei, B.E/ nucleon increases from about 7.6 MeV to 8.4 MeV associated with
the liberation of energy. This explains why heavier nuclei are more prone to fission.
• B.E/nucleon is smaller for lighter nuclei than the middle ones. That is, they are less stable.
Hence, when two lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, B.E/Nucleon increases
associated with the liberation of energy. This explains why lighter nuclei are more prone to
fusion.

279
NUCLEAR FORCE:
• The protons and neutrons are held together by the strong attractive forcesinside the nucleus. These
forces are called as nuclear forces.
• These forces, which act between the nucleons, are mainly responsible for thestability of the nucleus.

Characteristics of nuclear forces:

(i) Nuclear forces are attractive in nature: - The magnitude which depends uponinter nucleon distance
is of very high order.
(ii)Nuclear forces are charge independent: - Nature of force remains the same whether we
consider force between two protons, between two neutrons or betweena proton and a neutron.
(iii) These are short range forces: - Nuclear forces operate between two nucleonssituated in close
neighborhood only.
(iv) Nuclear forces decrease very quickly with distance between two nucleons: - Their rate of
decrease is much rapid than that of inverse square law forces. The forces become negligible when
the nucleons are more than 10-12 cm apart.
Nuclear forces are spin dependent: - Nucleons having parallel spin are morestrongly bound to each other
than those having anti-parallel spin.
Potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation:

• The potential energy is a minimum (Negative PE) at a distance r0 of about 0.8fm.

• At large distances (> r0) the force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8fm and negative PE goes on
decreasing.
For distances < r0, the forces become repulsive i.e if they are separated by distances less than 0.8 fm. The
negative PE decreases to zero and becomes positive.

280
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282
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS:
(VSA 1 mark)
1. Why is the mass of a nucleus always less than the sum of the masses of its
constituents?
Ans. The difference in masses of the constituents of the nucleus and the nucleus is known as mass defect,
This mass defect is converted into equivalent energy and released as binding energy when the nucleus
is formed.
2. Write the relation connecting the radius R, of nucleus and its mass number A.
Ans. Nuclear radius, R = R0 A1/3 where R0 = 1.1 x 10-15m.
3. Name the reaction responsible for energy production in the sun.
Ans. Nuclear fusion.
4. What is the nuclear radius of 125Fe, if that of 27Al is 3.6 fermi?
Ans. Hint: R = R0 A1/3
RFe/RAl = 5/3,
RFe = 6.0 fermi.
5. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 27 : 125. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii?

Ans. R1/R2 = {A1/A2}1/3

= {27/125}1/3 = 3/5 = 3 : 5.
MCQs
1. The ratio of the volume of an atom to the volume of its nucleus is of the order of:
(a) 10 (b) 105 (c) 1010 (d) 1015
[Hint: The radius of an atom is of the order of 10-10m.]
2. Binding energy of a nucleus is of the order of:
(a) Electron volt (eV)
(b) Kilo electron volt (keV)
(c) Mega electron volt(MeV)
(d) joule (J)
3. As the mass number of a nucleus increases, the binding energy per nucleon:
(a) Goes on increasing
(b) Goes on decreasing
(c ) Remains the same
(d) First increases, then decreases.
4. The stability of a nucleus is decided by its:
(a) Binding energy
(b) Binding energy/nucleon
(c) Number of protons
(d) Number of nucleons

283
5. The curve of binding energy per nucleon against mass number has a sharp peak for helium nucleus.
This
means that helium nucleus:
(a) Is very stable
(b) Is radioactive
(c) Is easily fissionable
(d) None of these.
6. The radius of a nucleus is
(a) directly proportional to its mass number
(b) inversely proportional to its atomic weight

(c) directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number

(d) None of these
7. A neutron can cause fission in
(a) Hydrogen (b)Uranium – 235
(c) Thorium (d)Uranium – 238
8. One milligram of matter converted into energy, will give

(a) 9 J (b)9 x 103 J

(c) 9 x 105 J (d)9 x 1010J
9. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass number A as
(a) A2 (b)A (c) Constant (d)1/ A

10. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

(a) Nuclei break up at high temperature
(b) Atoms gets ionised at high temperature

(c) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
(d)Molecules break up at high temperature.

Ans: 1 (d), 2 (c), 3 (d), 4 (b), 5 (a), 6(c), 7(b), 8(d), 9(c), 10(c)
ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Given below two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Select the most appropriate answer
from the following:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
1. Assertion: The nuclear force becomes weak if the nucleus contains too many protons compared to neutrons
Reason: The electrostatic forces weaken the nuclear force.

284
2. Assertion: Mass is not conserved, but mass and energy as a single entity called mass- energy.
Reason: Mass and energy are inter-convertible in accordance with Einstein’s relation, E = mc2
3. Assertion: Two protons can attract each other.
Reason: The distance between the protons within the nucleus is about 10-15 m.
Ans: 1. c 2. a 3. a
SA (2 marks)
1. Imagine the fission of a 56𝐹𝑒 into two equal fragments of 28𝐴⃗𝑙 nucleus. Is the fission energetically
26 13

possible? Justify your answer by working out Q value of the process.

Given: m {56𝐹𝑒}= 55.93494u, m {28𝐴⃗𝑙} = 27.98191u.
26 13

Ans. Mass Difference = 55.93494 – 2 x 27.98191

= -0.02888u.
Fission not possible.
2. Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion.
Nuclear Fission Nuclear Fusion
The phenomenon in which a heavy nucleus The process in which two light
when excited splits into two smaller nuclei of nuclei combine to form a single
comparable masses is called nuclear fission. heavier nucleus is called nuclear
fusion.

The conditions of high temperature The conditions of high temperature

and pressure are not necessary for and pressure are necessary for its
its occurrence. occurrence.

The conditions of high temperature The conditions of high

and pressure are not necessary for temperature and pressure are
its occurrence. necessary for its occurrence.

Neutrons are the link particles for Protons are the link particle for this
this process Process

It is a quick process It occurs in several steps

Energy available per nucleon is Energy available per nucleon is
small, about 0.85 MeV large, about 6.75 MeV

It produces very harmful The products of fusion are

radioactive wastes Harmless

285
3. Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. Write two
important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of nuclear forces.

a) Nuclear force is short ranged

b) The force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8fm and repulsive if the distances less than 0.8fm
4. Why do stable nuclei never have more protons than neutrons?
Ans. Protons are positively charged and repel one another electrically.
This repulsion becomes so great in nuclei with more than 10 protons or so, that an excess of neutrons which
produce only attractive forces, is required for stability.
5. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of one U235 nucleus, how many fissions must occur per
second to produce a power of 2KW?
Ans. Energy released in fission of U235 nucleus = 200 MeV
= 3.2 x 10-11J
If the number of fissions required per second to produce a power of 2 kW is n, then
3.2 x 10-11 x n = 2 x 1000
n = 2 x 1000 / 3.2 x 10-11 = 6.25 x 1013.
SA (3 marks)
1. The figure shows the plot of binding energy (BE) per nucleon as a function of mass number A. The letters
A, B, C, D and E represent the positions of typical nuclei on the curve. Point out, giving reasons, the two
processes (in terms of A, B, C, D and E), one of which can occur due to nuclear fission and the other due
to nuclear fusion.

Ans: a) Nuclear fission of E to D and C; as there is increase in binding energy per nucleon b) Nuclear fusion of
A and B into C; as there is increase in binding energy per nucleon.

286
2. (a)Draw a graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) vs mass number A for
the nuclei in 20≤ A ≤ 170.
(b) A nucleus of mass number 240 and having binding energy/nucleon 7.6 MeV splits into two
fragments Y, Z of mass numbers 110 and 130 respectively. If the binding energy/nucleon of Y, Z is equal to
8.5 MeV each, calculate the energy released in the nuclear reaction.

Energy released
= [(110+130) x 8.5 – 240 x 7.6] MeV
= 240(8.5 – 7.6) MeV
= 216 MeV

3. Draw the curve showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon with the mass number of
nuclei. Using it, explain the fusion of nuclei lying on ascending part and fission of nuclei lying on
descending part of this curve.

Explanation for fusion

On the ascending part of the curve B.E./A increases with mass number (A). So, B.E. of
The resultant will be greater than that of the nuclei which are fused together. Hence,
the fusion of the nuclei on the ascending part, results in an increase in binding energy

287
i.e. a more stable nucleus.
Explanation for fission

On the descending part of the curve, the B.E. of the heavier nuclei is lower. Hence the
fission of the heavier nuclei, on the descending part will again cause an increase in B.E.
and, therefore, more stable nucleus.
4 (a) Write two characteristic properties of nuclear force.

(b) How does one explain the release of energy in the processes of nuclear fission and
nuclear fusion?

Ans. (a) Characteristics of nuclear forces (Any two)

(i) Nuclear forces are attractive in nature: - The magnitude which depends upon inter nucleon distance is of

very high order.

(iii) Nuclear forces are charge independent: - Nature of force remains the same whether we consider
force between two protons, between two neutrons or between a proton and a neutron.
(iv) These are short range forces: - Nuclear forces operate between two nucleons situated in
close neighbourhood only.
(v) Nuclear forces decrease very quickly with distance between two nucleons: - Their rate of
decrease is much rapid than that of inverse square law forces.
(vi) Nuclear forces are spin dependent: - Nucleons having parallel spin are more strongly bound to
each other than those having anti-parallel spin.
(b) The breaking of a heavy nucleus into smaller nuclei is called nuclear fission while the combining of
two light nuclei to form a heavy nucleus is called nuclear fusion.
In both the processes, the binding energy of the daughter nuclei is more than that of the parent nuclei.
The difference in binding energy is released in the form of energy. In both processes, some mass gets
converted into energy.
5. (a)Draw the plot of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) as a function of mass number A. Write two
important conclusions that can be drawn regarding the nature of nuclear force.
(b) Use this graph to explain the release of energy in both the processes of nuclear fusion and

fission. Write one typical reaction for each

288
Ans (a) The constancy of binding energy per nucleon over a wide range of mass number
30< A <170 indicates that

(i) Nuclear force is a short range force.

(ii) Nuclear force shows saturation effect.
Nuclear fusion: Lighter nuclei have smaller BE/A than heavier nuclei, so they are less stable. When two light
nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, the higher binding energy per nucleon results in the release of
energy.
Nuclear fission: BE/A is smaller for heavier nuclei than the middle ones, so they are less stable when a
heavier nucleus splits into the lighter nuclei, the BE/A increases resulting in the release of energy.

Case Study
1. NUCLEAR FORCE
Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly the same and the
force, called nuclear force, does into distinguish them. Nuclear force is the strongest force. Stability of
nucleus is determined by the neutron Proton ratio or mass defect or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is
calculated by quadrupole moment and the spin of nucleus depends on even or odd mass number. Volume
of nucleus depends on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%)is centred at the nucleus.
1. The incorrect statement about the nuclear force is
(a) Charge independent (b) Short range force

(c) Non conservative force (d) Obeys inverse square law

2. The range of nuclear force is the order of
(a) 2 x10 -10 m (b) 1.5 x10-20 m
(c) 1.2 x10 – 4m (d) 1.4 x10 – 15 m
3. Density of a nucleus

(a) Increases with mass number

(b) Decreases with mass number
(c) Constant for any nucleus
(d) low density for small nuclei and large for heavy nuclei

4. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because
of the fact that

(a) Neutrons are heavier than protons.

(b) Electrostatic force between protons are repulsive.
(c) Neutrons decay into protons through beta decay.
(d) Nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons.
Ans: 1(a), 2(d), 3(c), 4(b)

289
2. BINDING ENERGY OF A NUCLEUS
An atomic nucleus is composed of protons and neutrons. The measurements using mass spectrometer have
revealed that the mass of a stable nucleus is always less than the sum of the masses of its constituent protons
and neutrons. The difference in the mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called mass defect, ∆m = Zmp + (A
– Z)mn – M. Using Einstein’s mass energy relation, we express this mass difference in terms of energy as ∆Eb =
mc2. This energy ∆Eb is called the binding energy of the nucleus. This energy represents the surplus energy
which the nucleons give upby virtue of their mutual attraction when they become bound together to form a
nucleus. The value of binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus gives a measure of the stability of that nucleus.
Greater is the binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus, more stable is the nucleus. In the mass number range A
= 30 to 170, the binding energy per nucleon is nearly constant, about 8 MeV/nucleon.

(i) If the number of nucleons increases, then binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus
(a) First increases and then decreases with mass number
(b) Continuously increases with mass number
(c) Continuously decreases with mass number
(d) Remains constant with mass number.
(ii) The average binding energy per nucleon is maximum for the nucleus
(a) 4𝐻𝑒 (b) 168𝑂
2
26𝐹𝑒
(c) 56 92𝑈
(d) 238
(iii) The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of a atomic mass number has a sharp peak for
helium nucleus. This implies that helium nucleus
(a) Can easily be broken up
(b) Is very stable
(c) Can be used as fissionable material
(d) Is radioactive
(iv) If mo is the mass of isotope 168𝑂, mp and mn are the masses of a proton and neutron respectively, the
nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
(a) (mo - 16 mn)c2
(b) (mo - 8mp)c2
(c) (8mp + 8 mn - mo)c2
(d) moc2
(v) The binding energy per nucleon is almost same for many nuclei. It indicates that the nuclear forces
are:
(a) Attractive
(b) short-range
(c) charge-independent
(d) saturated
Ans: (i)a, (ii) c, (iii) b, (iv)c, (v) d

290
3. NUCLEAR FISSION
In a single uranium fission about 0.9 x 235 MeV (≈ 200MeV) of energy is liberated. If each nucleus of about 50
kg of U235 undergoes fission the amount of energy involved is about 4 x 1015J. This energy is equivalent to about
20000 tons of TNT, enough for a super explosion. Uncontrolled release of large nuclear energy is called an atomic
explosion. On August 6, 1945 an atomic device was used in warfare for the first time. The US dropped an atom
bomb on Hiroshima, Japan. The explosion was equivalent to 20000 tons of TNT. Instantly the radioactive
products devastated 10 sq km of the city which had 343000 inhabitants. Of this number 66000 were killed and
69000 were injured, more than 67% of the city structures were destroyed.
(i) When 92U235 undergoes fission, about 0.1% of the original mass is converted into energy. The energy released
when 1 kg of 92U235 undergoes fission is
(a) 8.2 x 1011 J (b) 8.2 x 1013 J
(c) 8.2x 1015 J (d) 8.2 x 1018 J
(i) In any fission process, ratio of mass of daughter nucleus to mass of parent nucleus is

(a) Less than 1 (b) Greater than 1

(c) Equal to 1 (d) Depends on the mass of parent nucleus

(iii)A nuclear fission is said to be critical when multiplication factor or K
(a) K = 1 (b) K > 1
(c) K < 1 (d) K = 0

(iv) On an average, the number of neutrons and the energy of a neutron released per fission of a uranium
atom are respectively
(a) 2.5 and 2 keV (b) 3 and 1 keV

(c) 2.5 and 2 MeV (d) 2 and 2 keV

Ans: (i) b
(ii) a
(iii) a
(iv) c

291
SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS
(MATERIALS, DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS)

Short notes

• In metals, the conduction band and valence band partly overlap each other and there is no forbidden

energy gap.

• In insulators, the conduction band is empty and valence band is completely filled and forbidden gap

is quite large = 6 eV. No electron from valence band can cross over to conduction band at room

temperature, even if electric field is applied. Hence there is no conductivity of the insulators.

• In semiconductors, the conduction band is empty and valence band is totally filled. But the forbidden

gap between conduction band and valence band is quite small, which is about 1 eV. No electron from

valence band can cross over to conduction band. Therefore, the semiconductor behaves as insulator.

At room temperature, some electrons in the valence band acquire thermal energy, greater than energy

gap of 1 eV and jump over to the conduction band where they are free to move under the influence of

even a small electric field. Due to which, the semiconductor acquires small conductivity at room

temperature.

Metals Insulators Semiconductors

292
Distinguish between Intrinsic and Extrinsic Semiconductor
Intrinsic Extrinsic
1 It is pure semiconducting material 1 It is prepared by doping a small quantity of
and no impurity atoms are added to it impurity atoms to the pure semiconducting
material.
2 Examples are crystalline forms of 2 Examples are silicon and germanium crystals
pure silicon and germanium. with impurity atoms of arsenic, antimony,
phosphorous etc. or indium, boron, aluminium
etc.
3 The number of free electron in 3 The number of free electrons and holes is never
conduction band and the number of equal. There is excess of electrons in n-type
holes in valence band is exactly equal semiconductors and excess of holes in p-type
and very small indeed. semiconductors.
4 Its electrical conductivity is low 4 Its electrical conductivity is high.
5 Its electrical conductivity is a 5 Its electrical conductivity depends upon the
function of temperature alone. temperature as well as on the quantity of impurity
atoms doped in the structure.

Distinction between n-type and p-type semiconductors

n-type semiconductors p-type semiconductors
1 It is an extrinsic semiconductors 1 It is an intrinsic semiconductors which is obtained by
which is obtained by doping the doping the impurity atoms of IIIrd group of periodic
impurity atoms of Vth group of table to the pure germanium or silicon
periodic table to the pure semiconductor.
germanium or silicon
semiconductor.
2 The impurity atoms added, provide 2 The impurity atoms added, create vacancies of
extra electrons in the structure, and electrons (i.e. holes) in the structure and are called
are called donor atoms. acceptor atoms.
3 The electrons are majority carriers 3 The holes are majority carriers and electrons are
and holes are minority carriers. minority carriers.
4 The electron density (ne) is much 4 The hole density (ne) is much greater than the
greater than the hole density (nh)i.e. electron density (nh) i.e. nh>> ne
ne>>(nh)
5 The donor energy level is close to 5 The acceptor energy level is close to valence band
the conduction band and far away and is far away from the conduction band.
from valence band.
6 The Fermi energy level lies in 6 The Fermi energy level lies in between the acceptor
between the donor energy level and energy level and valence band.
conduction band.

293
p-n junction diode
Two important processes occur during the formation of p-n junction - diffusion and drift. The motion of
majority charge carriers give rise to diffusion current.

Due to the space charge on n-side junction and negative space charge region on p-side the electric field is set
up and potential barrier develops at the junction Due to electric field e- on p-side moves to n and holes from
n-side to p-side which is called drift current.

In equilibrium state, there is no current across p-n junction and potential barrier across p-n junction has
maximum value .

The width of the depletion region and magnitude of barrier potential depends on the nature of semiconductor
and doping concentration on two sides of p-n junction.

Forward Bias

P-n junction is FB when p-type connected to the +ve of battery and n-type connected to –ve battery

Potential barrier is reduced and width of depletion layer decreases.

Reverse Bias

P-n junction in RB p-type connected to the –ve battery and n-type connected to +ve

Resistance of p-n junction is high to the flow of current.

FORWARD BIAS REVERSE BIAS

DIODE CHARACTERISTICS HALF WAVE RECTIFIER

294
FULL WAVE RECTIFIER

SPECIAL PURPOSE DIODES

LED PHOTODIODE SOLARCELL

Forward biased Reverse biased No external biasing, It generates emf

when solar radiation falls on it.

Recombination of electrons Energy is supplied by light to Generation of emf by solar cells is due
and holes take place at the take an electron from valence to three basic process generation of e-h
junction and emits e m band to conduction band.
radiations pair, separation and collection

It is used in Burglar alarm, It is used in photo detectors in It is used in satellites, space vehicles,
remote control communication calculators etc.

295
1-mark questions
1. Give the ratio of number of holes and the no. of conduction electrons in an intrinsic
semiconductor.
𝑛𝑒
Answer: =1 (As in intrinsic semiconductor ne = nh)
𝑛ℎ

2. A semiconductor has equal electron and hole concentration of 6 x 108 m-3. On doping
with a certain impurity electron concentration increases to 3 x 1012 m-3. Identify the type of
semiconductor after doping?
Answer: As ne > nh, thus resulting semiconductor is of n-type.
3. Why is a semiconductor damaged by a strong current?
Answer: When a strong current passes through a semiconductor large amount of heat is produced
which breaks the covalent bonds in the semiconductor due to which it gets damaged.
4. The graph shown in the figure represents a plot of current versus voltage for a given semi-conductor.
Identify the region, if any, over which the semi-conductor has a negative resistance.

Answer: Between the region B and C, the semiconductor has a negative resistance
5. State the reason, why GaAs is most commonly used in making of a solar cell.
Answer:
GaAs is most commonly used in making of a solar cell because :
(i) It has high optical absorption.
(ii) It has high electrical conductivity.
6. Draw the symbol for p - n junction diode
7. In the middle of the depletion layer of reverse biased pn junction, the electric field is …….
Answer: Very small nearly zero
8. Name the two processes involved in the formation of p-n junction?
Answer: diffusion and drift
9. Give an approximate value for the potential barrier of silicon type junction diode
Answer: 0.7 v
10. What is the name of the ability of a junction diode to convert an AC to DC
Answer: Rectification

296
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Draw a pn junction with reverse bias? Which biasing will make the resistance of a
p-n-junction high?
Answer:

Reverse biasing will make the resistance high as it will not allow the current to pass.
2. For a extrinsic semiconductor, indicate on the energy band diagram the donor and
acceptor levels?
Answer:
N-type Extrinsic Semiconductor P-type Extrinsic Semiconductor

``
1. What do you mean by depletion region and potential barrier in junction diode?
Answer: A layer around the junction between p and n-sections of a junction diode where charge
carriers electrons and holes are less in number is called depletion region. The potential
difference created across the junction due to the diffusion of charge carriers across the junction
is called potential barrier.
2. What do you mean by hole in a circuit? Write its two characteristics?
Answer: A vacancy created in a covalent bond in a semiconductor due to the release of electron
is known as hole in a semiconductor.
Characteristics of hole
(i) Hole is equivalent to a positive electronic charge.
(ii) Mobility of hole is less than that of an electron

3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of semiconductor devices over vacuum tubes?
Answer: Advantages – Semiconductor devices are very small in size as compared to the
vacuum tubes. It requires low voltage for their operation
Disadvantage – Due to the rise in temperature and by applying high voltage it can be damaged.

297
4. In the following diagram, which bulb will glow and why?

Answer: B1 will glow as the diode D1 is forward biased

5. Determine the currents through the resistances of the circuits shown in Fig.

Answer: In Fig. (a), both the diodes D₁ and D₂ are forward biased and offer no resistance.

.. Current in the circuit 2.0 V/ 20 Ω = = 0.1 A

In Fig. (b), diode D₂ being reverse biased offers infinite resistance, so current through the series
circuit = zero.
6. Why does the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction increase in reverse biasing?
Answer: During reverse biasing, the positive terminal of the external battery attracts electrons from
the n-region and its negative terminal attracts holes from the p-region i.e., the majority charge
carriers move away from the junction. This increases the width of the depletion layer
7. Define the term dynamic resistance for the junction diode?
8. Draw the circuit diagram of full wave rectifier?
3 MARKS QUESTIONS
1. What is an ideal diode? Draw the output wave form across the load resistor R, if the input
waveform is as shown in the figure.

Answer: An ideal diode has zero resistance when forward biased and an infinite resistance when it
is reverse biased. Output wave from is

298
2. Two semiconductor materials A and B shown in the figure are made by doping germanium
crystal with arsenic and indium respectively. The two are joined end to end and connected to
a battery as shown.

(a) Will the junction be forward biased or reverse biased? Justify

(b) Sketch a V-I graph for this arrangement
Answer: Material A is n-type as it is doped with pentavalent impurity and material B is p-type as it
is doped with trivalent impurity. As a result the junction becomes reverse biased because positive
terminal of the battery is connected to n-type and negative terminal to the p-type hence it is reversed
biased.
V-I graph for the given circuit

3. In the following diagrams indicate which of the diodes are forward biased and which are
reverse bias?

Answer:
(a) Forward Biased
(b) Reverse Biased
(c) forward Biased

299
4. Distinguish between conductors and semiconductors on the basis of energy band diagrams?
Answer: Conductor – Conduction band in a conductor is either partially filled or conduction and
valence band overlap each other. There is no energy gap in a conductor.

Semiconductor – In semiconductors the energy gap is very small i.e. about 1ev only.

5. For the circuit shown ,find the current flowing through the 1Ω resistor. Assume that the two diodes,
D1, and D2, are ideal diodes

Answer: Diode D₁ is forward biased and offers zero resistance.

Diode D₂ is reversed biased and offers infinite resistance.
By Ohm's law, the current through the 1Ω resistor is
I=6 A/ (2+1) = 2 A
6. Draw the circuit diagram of half wave rectifier and explain its working
7. Explain with the help of diagrams, the forward and reverse biasing of a pn junction diode. Also
draw their characteristic curves
8. Figure shows the characteristic curve of a junction diode. Determine the d.c. and a.c. resistance of
the diode, when it operates at 0.3 V.

300
9.
The d.c. resistance is just equal to the voltage divided by current.
VB/ IB = 0.3 V/(4.5 × 10 -3 A ) = 66.67 Ω
Consider two points A and C around the point of operation B.
Then
rac = ΔV/ ΔΙ =VC -VA / IC -IA =0.35 -0.25 /(6-3)x 10-3 = 33.33 Ω

MCQ
1. The expected energy of the electrons at absolute zero is called
(a) Fermi energy (b) Emission energy
(c) Work function (d) Potential energy
Answer: (a) The highest energy level which an electron can occupy in the valence band at 0 K, is
called Fermi energy level.
2. When a semiconductor is heated, its resistance
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains unchanged (d) Nothing is definite
Answer: A): On heating, bonds between the electrons of semiconductors break because of the
energy gained due to heating. Electrons become free & help in the conduction of electric current if there
is a potential difference applied across the semiconductor. Hence the resistance decreases on heating.
3. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is of the
order of
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV (c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV
Answer: (d) In insulators, the forbidden energy gap is largest and it is of the order of 6 eV.
4. The forbidden energy band gap in conductors, semiconductors and insulators are EG1 , EG2 and EG3

respectively. The relation among them is

(a) EG1 = EG2 = EG3 (b) EG1  EG2  EG3

(c) EG1  EG2  EG3 (d) EG1  EG2  EG3

Answer: (b) In insulators, the forbidden energy gap is very large, in case of semiconductor it is
moderate and in conductors the energy gap is zero.
5. Wires P and Q have the same resistance at ordinary (room) temperature. When heated, resistance of
P increases and that of Q decreases. We conclude that
(a) P and Q are conductors of different materials
(b) P is N-type semiconductor and Q is P-type semiconductor
(c) P is semiconductor and Q is conductor
(d) P is conductor and Q is semiconductor

301
Answer: (d) Conductor has positive temperature coefficient of resistance but semiconductor has
negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
6. In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, number of electrons and holes are
(a) Equal (b) Zero (c) Unequal (d) Infinite
Answer: (a) At room temperature the number of electrons and holes are equal in the intrinsic
semiconductor.
7. If NP and Ne be the numbers of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor, then
(a) N P  Ne (b) N P = Ne (c) N P  Ne (d) N P  Ne or N P  Ne

depending on the nature of impurity

Answer: D)
P − Type(np  ne )
Extrinsic
S.C. N − Type(ne  np )

8. Fermi level of energy of an intrinsic semiconductor lies

(a) In the middle of forbidden gap (b) Below the middle of forbidden gap
(c) Above the middle of forbidden gap (d) Outside the forbidden gap
Answer:

9. At room temperature, a P-type semiconductor has

(a)Large number of holes and few electrons
(b) Large number of free electrons and few holes
(c) Equal number of free electrons and holes
(d) No electrons or holes
Answer: (a) In P-type semiconductor, holes are majority charge carriers.
10. Which impurity is doped in Si to form N-type semi-conductor?
(a) Al (b) B
(c) As (d) None of these
Answer: (c) Because As is pentavalent impurity.
11. When p-n junction diode is forward biased, then
(a) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
(c) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
(d) both the depletion region and barrier height are increased.
Answer: c

302
12. In an unbiased pn junction, electrons diffuse from n-region to p-region because
(a) electrons travel across the junction due to potential difference
(b) electron concentration in n-region is more as compared to that in p-region
(c) only electrons move from n to p region and not the vice-versa
(d) holes in p-region attract them.
Answer: b
13. In a p-n junction diode, not connected to any circuit
(a) the potential is the same everywhere
(b) the p-type side is at a higher potential than the n-type side
(c) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the n-type side to the p-type side
(d) there is an electric field at the junction directed from the p-type side to the n-type side.
Ans) c
14. A full wave rectifier circuit along with the output is shown. The contribution from the diode 1 are

a) C b) A,C c) B, D d ) A, B, C, D
Answer: c
(5 Marks)
1. Distinguish between an intrinsic semiconductor and p-type semiconductor. Give reason, why, a p-
type semiconductor crystal is electrically neutral although nh >> ne?

303
(ii) In a p-type semiconductor, the trivalent impurity atom shares its three valence electrons with the
three tetravalent host atoms while the fourth bond remains unbounded. The impurity atom as a
whole is electrical neutral. Hence the p-type semiconductor is also neutral.
2. Define the terms ‘potential barrier’ and ‘depletion region’ for a p – n junction diode.
State how the thickness of the depletion region will change when the p-n junction diode is (i)
forward biased and (ii) reverse biased.
Answer:
Potential barrier: The potential barrier is the fictitious battery, which seems to be connected across
the p-n junction with its positive terminal in the n-region and the negative terminal in the p-region.
Depletion region: The region around the junction, which is devoid of any mobile charge carriers, is
called the depletion layer or region.
I) When the p-n junction is forward biased, there is a decrease in the depletion region.
II) When the p-n junction is reverse biased, there is an increase in the depletion region.
3. Explain with the help of suitable diagram, the two processes which occur during the formations of
p-n junction diode. Hence define the terms depletion region and potential barrier?
4. Diode can be used as both full wave rectifier and half wave rectifier. Explain with circuit diagram?
Draw the output wave form.
Competency based questions
Graphical Questions
1. Different voltages are applied across a P-N junction and the currents are measured for each value. Which
of the following graphs is obtained between voltage and current?

I I

(a) (b)

–V +V –V +V

I I

–V +V –V +V

Solution: (c) PN junction has low resistance in one direction of potential difference +V, so a large
current flows (forward biasing). It has a high resistance in the opposite potential difference direction
–V, so a very small current flow (Reverse biasing).

304
2. The curve between charge density and distance near P-N junction will be

Solutions: (a) In the depletion layer of PN junction, stationary, positive ions exist in the N-side and
stationary negative ions exists in the P side

3. In the circuit given below, V(t) is the sinusoidal voltage source, voltage drop VAB(t) across the resistance
R is
D1 D2

R VAB
R1=100  R2=150 

V(t)

(a) Is half wave rectified

(b) Is full wave rectified
(c) Has the same peak value in the positive and negative half cycles
(d) Has different peak values during positive and negative
Solution: (d) In positive half cycle one diode is in forward biasing and other is in reverse biasing
while in negative half cycle their polarity reverses, and direction of current is opposite through R for
positive and negative half cycles so output is not rectified.
Since R1 and R2 are different hence the peaks during positive half and negative half of the input
signal will be different.
4. assertion and reason type questions
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false, but reason is true

305
5. Assertion: Semiconductors do not obey Ohm's law.
Reason : Current is determined by the rate of flow of charge carriers.
Solutions: (e)The assertion is not true. In fact, semiconductor Obeys Ohm's law for low values of
electric field (~ 106 V/m). Above this, the current becomes almost independent of electric field.
6. Assertion: Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.
Reason : The energy gap for germanium is more than the energy gap of silicon
Solutions: (c)The energy gap for germanium is less (0.72 eV) than the energy gap of silicon (1.1eV) .

Therefore, silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.

7. When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk, called knee voltage,
the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n junction, the potential barrier is
overcome and the current increases rapidly with increase in forward voltage. When the diode is reverse
biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very small current about a few microamperes which almost
remains constant with bias. This small current is reverse saturation current.
(i) In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased.

Ans) c
8. Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as
(a) Bidirectional
(b) ohmic device
(c) non-ohmic device
(d) passive element
Ans) d
9. If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I is

a) 0.013 A (b) 0.02 A (c) 0.01 A (d) 0.1 A

ans) a

306
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** r-..J.,/,'I-JVW,,--+-- ;x)l ----1 **
* *
:* L----1Vl ---- : *

* ------ . *
! 50"2sin rot !
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! (ii) 30 V (ii} 58 V (iiii) 29 V (iv) 15 V !
* I **
: 15 The electriic potential Vas a function of distance X is shown in the 1 :
:* f1igur,e. :*
! V !
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:* The graph of the mag1niitude of ell,ectric fi,elld intensiity E as a :*
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*
* *
* 16 Two statements ar,e given-one labelled Assertiion (A),and the otber 1 *
:* labelled Reason ,(R).,Select th,e correct answer to these questions :*
:* frorn the codes (a), (b), (c) and {d) as giv,en below,. :*
** a) Both A and R.ar,e true and Riis the cor r e c, et .xp,lanatiion of A **
: * b) Both A and IR are tirue and R iis NOT the corr,ect explanation of :*
* A *
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** - *
*
* c) A iis true but R iis fallse *
!* d) A iis fals,e and R is also false !*

!* ASSERTllON(A): 1

!*
! The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor iincreases on dlopingi. !
! REASON: !
:* Dopiing always iincreases the number of electrons iin the :*
! semioonductor. !
** *
* t + + , **
* I*
! 17 Two statements ar,e giv,en-one llabell,ed Assertion (A) and the 1 !
:* other labelled R.eason ,(R)., S,el,ect the correct answer to thes,e :*
:* questions from th,e codes (a.), ,(b}, (c), and (d) as given below., :*
! a) Both A and R ar,e true and Riis the correc,texplanatiion of A !
!* b) Both A and IR are true and R.iis NOT the correc,texpllanation of !*
** A *
:* c) .A iis true but R iis fallse :*
! d) A iis fals,e and R is also false !
*
** **
* AS.S,ERTllON: 1

*
** **
! llln an interference pattern observed in Young's doulblle slit experiment, !
:* if the separation (di) between coherent sources as well as the diistance :*
! (D) ,of the screen from the ooherent sources both are reduced to H3rc1, !
:* then new friinge width remaiins the same,. :*
!* REASON: !*
* *
! 1Friing1e width is proportional to {dl/D). !
* * f + + i **
:* 18 Two statements are giv,en-one llabell,ed Assertion (A) and the 1 :*
** other labelled Reason ,(R)., s.el,ect the correct answer to thes,e **
!* questions from th,e codes (a), ,(b}, (c), and (d) as given below., !*
:* a) Both A and R ar,e true and Riis the correc,texplanatiion of A :*
:* b Both A and Rare true and Riis NOT the correct explanatiion of A :*
:* c) .A iis true but R iis falls,e :*
! d) A iis fals,e and R is also false !
:* Assertiion(A) : :*
* *
: The phatoellectrons produced by a monochromatiic lliight beam iincidlent :
! ,on a metall surface have a spreadl in their kinetic energies. !
* *
** R.eason,(R),: **
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* triangullar prism of refracting angle 60°as shown in figure.
*
** The prism is made of a transparent material of refractive
*
*
index J3
. Trace the path of the ray as it passes through

* the prism. Calculate the angle of emergence and the

*
* angle of deviation.,
*
* p
**
*
**
*
**
*
**
* e.
** e
*
** O,R
*
** a) Write two points of difference between an interference
*
* pattern
*
* and a diffraction pattern..
*
* b) (i) A ray of light incident on face AB of an equilateral gllass
*
* prism, shows minimum deviation of 30 . Calculate the
*
* speed of light through the prism.
*
* A
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
* (ii) Find the angle of incidence at face AB so that the
*
** emergent ray grazes allong the face AG.
*

!* SIECTION E !*
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! 34 Case Study : !
* *
! Read the following paragraph a.nd answer the questions. !
!* A numbe1r of optical devices and instruments have been !*
:* designed and developed such as periscope, binoculars, :*
: microscopes and telescopes utiilising the reflecting and refracting1 :
! properties of m11rrors, lenses andl prisms.. Most of them are in !
:* common use. Our knowledge about the formation of images by :*
:* the mirrors and lenses iiis the basiiic requiirement for :*
!* u1nderstandliiing the working of these devices. !
* *
! (iii) Why the ima,ge formed at infinity iiis often considered most !
:* suitable for viewing. Explain :*
* *
: (iiii) llln modern miicroscopes multicomponent lenses are used for :
!* both the objective and the ey,e,pieoe·.. Why? !
* *
: (iii) Write two poiints of diffe1renoe, between a compound :
:* microscope and an astronomicalll tel,escope :*
* *
! OR !
!* (iiiii) Write two distinct adlvantages of a refleding1type telescope !*
:* over a refractiing type telescope. :*
* *
*
! 35 Case study: Light emitting1diode. !*
* *
:* Read the following p,a1ragraph and answer the questions :*

:* ILED, is a heavilly doped IIP-N junction which under forward bias emits :*
! spontaneous radiation. Wh,en iit.iis for.-i/ard biased, due to recombinatiion of !
:* holies and electrons at the junction, energy is released in the form of :*
: photons. llln the case of Si and Ge diode, the energy relleased in :
! recombiination lies in the infrared region. LEDs that can emiit red, yellow, !
:* orange,,green and blue lig1h1t are commerciallly availablle. The :*
: semioond1uctor used for fabrication of visiiblle LEDs must at lleast. have a :
! ba.nd gap of 1.8 eV. The compound semiiconductor Gallium Arsenide - !
: * Phosphide is used f:or making LEDs of dlifferent collours.. :*
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!* LEDs ,of diifferent kinds !*
* *
!* (ii)1. Why are LEIDs made of compound s,emiconductor and not of ellementall !*
! semiconductors? !
:* (iii)1What shoulld lbe the order of bandgap of an LEID, iif iit is required :*
! to emiit llig1ht in the viisilblle range? !
:* (iiiii)1A student connects the blue coloured LED as shown in the figure. :*
:* The LEID diid not gllow wf11en swiitch S iis closed. Explla.in why? :*
** **

;
:

*
-- 1 1.5 V
( -s -- ;:
*
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:* (iii) Draw V-1cha.racteristic of a p-n junction diode in :*
:* (i) forward lbias andl (ii) reverse bias :*
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(ii) At face AC let the angle of
** incidence be n.. For grazing ray
*
**
1
* it=-_]_ ,.= sin-1 (- -) = 45° ,.,,. 1½
* "" sm r2 2 "'2,
* Let angle of refraction at face AB be n.
*
* C
B
* _·_ n = A - r. = 60" -
*** Let angle of iacidence ait this face be i
** P , = --
SP ! l
'\
.
}12=. .Sm l
* sin · · · sin15'°
*
*
*
* SECTIONE
** 34(i) '\rVhen the image is formed at infiru.ty, we can see it with mini.mum strain 1
*
* in the cilia1y muscle of the eye.
* (ii) The multi-component lense are used for both objective and the eyepiece 1
*
* to improve image quahty by minimising a1ious optical abeffations in
lense _
* (iH (a) The compound micro cope is used to ob erve minute nearby objects 1
** whereas the telescope is used to ob erve distant objects.
*
* (b) In compmmd !microscope the focal length of the objective is lesser 1
* Hmn that of the eyepiece wherea in telescope the focal length of the
* objective -i larger than tl1at of the eyepiece.
* OR
* (iH
* (a) The image fOI"med by reflecting type telescope is b1ighter than that 1
* fonned by refrading telescope.
* (b) The image formed by the reflecting type telescope is more magnified 1
*
* than that fonned by the refracting type telescope.
*
** 35(i.) LEDs are made up of compound semiconductors and not by the 1
* elemental conductor beeause the band gap in the elemental conductor has
* a value that ran deted the light of a wavelength whieh lies in the infrared
* (ffi.) region..
* (ii) LS eVto3 eV 1
* (iH
* LED is reversed bia ed tlmt is why it is not glowing.. 2
* OR
* V-I Characietis:tic cmves of pn junction diode in fon;i,;ard biasing and 1+ 1
* re, erse biasin· ..
*
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331
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN ERNAKULAM REGION
Class: XII SESSION: 2022-2023
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (THEORY) - 1
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
Maximum Marks: 70 Time Allowed: 3 hours.
General Instructions:
(1) There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. All the
sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions of two marks
each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D contains three long questions of five
marks each and Section E contains two case study-based questions of 4 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D and E.
You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(5) Use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A
Q No. MARKS
1 Two large vertical and parallel metal plates having a separation of 1 cm are connected 1
to a dc voltage source of potential difference X. A proton is released at rest midway
between the two plates. It is found to move at 450 to the vertical just after release.
Then X is nearly
(a) 1x10-5 V
(b) 1x 10-7V
(c) 1×10-9 V
(d) 1x 10-10 V

2 The electric flux for Gaussian surface A that encloses the charged particles in free 1
space is
(Given q1=-14nC, q2=78.85 n C, q3=-56nC)

( a) 103 Nm²C-1
(b) 103 CN-1m-2
(c) 6.32 x 103 Nm² C-1
(d) 6.32 x 103 CN-1m-2

332
3 Two capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 are connected in parallel. If a charge q is 1
given to the assembly, the charge gets shared. The ratio of the charge on the capacitor
C1, to the charge that on C2, is
(a)C1/ C2
(b)C2/C1
(c) C1C2
(d) 1/C1C2

4 The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent 1
decrease in diameter, the change in the resistance of the wire will be
(a) 200%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 300%

5 An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same 1
material, connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio of
4/3 and 2/3, then the ratio of the currents passing through the wire will be
(a) 3
(b) 1/3
(c) 8/9
(d) 2
6 The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire carrying current I is 0.4 tesla. The 1
magnetic field at a distance
(a) 0.1 tesla
(b) 0.2 tesla
(c) 0.8 tesla
(d) 1.6 tesla

7 Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the first coil 1
is twice that of the second coil. What ratio of the potential difference (in volt) should
be applied across them, so that the magnetic field at their centres is the same?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

333
8 The variation of magnetic susceptibility with the temperature of a 1
ferromagnetic material can be plotted as
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

9 A coil having n turns and resistance R Ω is connected with a galvanometer of 1

resistance 4R Ω. This combination is moved in time t seconds from a magnetic flux
ɸ1 weber to, ɸ2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
(a) (ɸ1-ɸ2)/5 R n t
(b) -n(ɸ1-ɸ2)/5Rt
(c) -( ɸ1-ɸ2)/R n \]t
(d) -n(ɸ1-ɸ2)/Rt
10 In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to
remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to
(a) 4L 1
(b) 2L
(c) L/2
(d) L/4
11 An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric 1
medium with permittivity ε= 4. Then,
(a) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
(b) wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged.
(c) wavelength is doubled and the frequency becomes half.
(d) wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged.

334
12 If wavelength of light in air is 2400 x 10-10 m, then what will the wavelength of light 1
in glass (µ = 1.5)?
(a) 1600 Å
(b) 7200 Å
(c) 1080 Å
(d) none of these

13 The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodium corresponds to a 1

wavelength of 5000 Å. Its work function is
(a) 4× 10-19 J
(b) 1 J
(c) 2 × 10-19 J
(d) 3 x 10-19 J

14 The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the 1
ground state. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energies decrease.
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy
remains the same
(c) Its kinetic and total energies decrease and its potential energy increases
(d) Its kinetic, potential and total energies decrease

15 If the binding energy per nucleon in 3Li7 and 2He4 nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 1
MeV respectively, then in reaction
1 7 4
1H + 3Li → 2 2He energy of proton must be
(a) 28.24 MeV
(b) 17.28 MeV
(c) 1.46 MeV
(d) 39.2 MeV

16 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason 1
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion: It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two
violins.
Reason: For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must
remain constant.
17 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason 1
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A 1
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

335
Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitudes at higher
temperatures thereby increasing its resistivity.

18 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason 1
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A 1
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

Assertion: In photoelectron emission, the velocity of electron ejected from near the
surface is larger than that coming from interior of metal.

Reason: The velocity of ejected electron will be zero

SECTION B

19 Name the constituent radiation of electromagnetic spectrum which i 2

a. used to study crystal structure
b. suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
Write one another application of each of these radiations.

20 Two similar bars, made from two different materials P and Q, are placed one by 2
one, in a non-uniform magnetic field. It is observed that
a) bar P tends to move from the weak to the strong field region.
b) bar Q tends to move from the strong to the weak field region. Identify the
magnetic material used for making these two bars. Show with the help of
diagrams, the behaviour of the field lines, due to an external magnetic field, near
each of these two bars.
21 Find the ratio between the wavelengths of the ‘most energetic’ spectral lines in the 2
Balmer and Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum.
OR
The Bohr radius of Hydrogen atom is 5.3 x 10-11m. Find its radius in the first
excited state. Also calculate the total energy in this state.

22 Use the mirror equation to show that an object placed between F and 2F of a 2
concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2F.
23 Two material bars A and B of equal area of cross-section are connected in series to 2
a dc supply. A is made of usual resistance wire and B of an n-type semiconductor.
In which bar is the drift speed of free electrons greater? Why?
OR
Draw the energy band diagram of an n-type semiconductor. How does the energy
gap of an intrinsic semiconductor vary with increase in temperature?

336
24 Determine the angular separation between central maximum and first order 2
maximum of the diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 0.25mm when light
of wavelength 5890A0 is incident on it normally.
25 A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is charged to a potential ‘V’. It is then 2
connected to another uncharged capacitor having the same capacitance. Find out the
ratio of the energy stored in the combined system to that stored initially in the single
capacitor.

SECTION C

26 State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for magnetic 3
field at a normal distance ‘r’ from an infinitely long current carrying straight wire.
How will the magnetic field intensity at the centre of a current carrying circular
coil change, if the current through the coil is doubled and the radius of the coil is
halved?

27 An inductor L of reactance XL is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC 3

source. How would the brightness of the bulb change when
a) The number of turns in the inductor is reduced
b) An iron rod is inserted in the inductor and
c) A capacitor of reactance Xc = XL is inserted in series in the circuit. Justify your
answer in each case.
OR
A capacitor of unknown capacitance, a resistor of 100Ω and an inductor of self-
inductance L= 4/π2 henry are connected in series to an ac source of 200V and 50Hz.
Calculate the value of the capacitance and impedance of the circuit when the current
is in phase with the voltage.

28 a) State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction. 3

b) A metallic rod of 1m length is rotated with a frequency of 50 rev/s, with one end
hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring
of radius1m, about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane
of the ring. A constant uniform magnetic field of 1T parallel to the axis is present
everywhere. What is the emf between the centre and the metallic ring?

29 Draw a graph between the frequency of incident radiation (ϒ) and the maximum 3
kinetic energy of the electrons emitted from the surface of a photo sensitive
material. State clearly how this graph can be used to find a) Planck’s constant and
b) work function of the material.
OR
The work function of Caesium metal is 2.14eV. When light of frequency 6x
1014Hz is incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is
a) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron
b) stopping potential and
c) maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons
30 Draw a schematic arrangement of Geiger- Marsden experiment. Calculate the 3
distance of closest approach when a 7.7MeV α-particle approaches a gold nucleus
(Z = 79)

337
SECTION D

31 a) Derive an expression for the electric field ‘E’ due to a dipole of length ‘2a’ at a point, 5
distant ‘r’, from the centre of the dipole, on the axial line.
b) Draw a graph of E varies ‘r’ for r>>a.
c) Four equal point charges each 16µC are placed on the four corners of a square of side
0.2m. Calculate the force on any one of the charges
OR
a) Using Gauss’ law, deduce the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly
charged spherical conducting shell of radius ‘R’ at a point i) outside and ii) inside the
shell.
b) Two charges of magnitude -2Q and +Q are located at point (a,o) and (4a, o)
respectively. Find the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius 3a with
its centre at the origin.
32 a) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a combination of two thin convex 5
lenses in contact.
b) Obtain the expression for power of the combination in terms of focal length of the
lenses.
c)You are given the following three lenses. Which two lenses will you use as an eye piece
and as an objective to construct an astronomical telescope? Give reason.

Lenses Power (D) Aperture (cm)

L1 3 8
L2 6 1
L3 10 1

OR
a) Define a wave front.
b) Use Huygen’s geometrical construction to show the propagation of plane wavefront
from a rarer medium to a denser medium.
Hence derive Snell’s law of refraction.
c)What is the effect on the interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment, if the
separation between the two slits is decreased? Justify your answer.

33 Define relaxation time of free electrons drifting in a conductor. How is it related to the 5
drift velocity of free electrons? Use this relation to deduce the expression for electrical
resistivity of the material.
What is the effect of temperature on the relaxation time of electrons in a metal?
OR
a) State the two Kirchhoff’s rules
b) Obtain the balancing condition in a Wheatstone bridge
c)Using Kirchohoff’s rules, calculate the values of I1, I2 and I3

338
SECTION E

34 Case Study: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions. 4
Two sources of light which continuously emit light waves of same frequency (or
wavelength) with a zero or constant phase difference between them, are called coherent
sources. Two independent sources of light cannot act as coherent sources, they have to
be derived from the same parent source.In Young's double slit experiment, two identical
narrow slits S1 and S2 are placed symmetrically with respect to narrow slit S
illuminated with monochromatic light. The interference pattern is obtained on an
observation screen placed at large distance D from S1 and S2.
a) Mention any 2 conditions for sustained interference.
b) In the Young's double slit experiment using a monochromatic light of wavelength λ,
what is the path difference (in terms of an integer n) corresponding to any point having
half the peak intensity?
c) Calculate the ratio of the fringe width for bright and dark fringes in YDS experiment.
OR
c)In Young's double slit experiment, while using a source of light of wavelength 4500
Å, the fringe width obtained is 0.4 cm. If the distance between the slits and the screen is
reduced to half, calculate the new fringe width.
Case Study: Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
A p-n junction is a single crystal of Ge or Si doped in such a manner that one half
35 portion of it acts as p-type semiconductor and other half functions as n-type 4
semiconductor. As soon as junction is formed, the holes from the p-region diffuse into
the n-region and electrons from -region diffuse into p-region. This results in the
development of potential barrier VB across the junction which opposes the further
diffusion of electrons and holes through the junction. The small region in the vicinity of
the junction which is depleted of free charge carriers and has only immobile ions is
called the depletion region.
a) Why is germanium preferred over silicon for making semiconductor devices?
b) Which type of biasing results in a very high resistance of a p n junction diode. Draw
a diagram showing this bias.
c) How does the width of the depletion region of a pn junction vary, if the reverse bias
applied to it decreases.
OR
(c)Name the 2 important processes involved in the formation of a p n junction.

339
CLASS XII : SESSION : 2022-2023
ANSWER KEY
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER (THEORY) – 1
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
SECTION A Marks
1 (c) When the proton moves at 45° with vertical, 1
qE=mg

q.(X/d) = mg

1.6 × 10-9 × (X/0.01) = 1.6 X 10-27 X 10

X = 1× 10-9 V
2 (a) ΦE =qnet/ε0 1

= [ (-14+78.85-56) × 10-9] / [8.85x10-12]

= [ 8.85x10-9] / [8.85x10-12]

= 1000 Nm²C-1.

3 (a) For the two capacitors connected in parallel, 1

V₁ = V2

C1/q1 = C2/q2

or q1/q2 = C1/C2

4 (d) When the length is increased by 100%, it becomes 2l and area of cross-section 1
decreases to A/2. New resistance,

R'= ⍴(l’/A’) = ⍴( 2l / [A/2] ) = 4⍴(l/A) = 4R

Change in resistance,
[(R'-R)/ R] x100 = [(4R-R)/ R] × 100 = 300%.
2 2 2
5 (b) R1/R2 = (l1/ l2 ). (A2/A1) = ( l1/l2) .(πr2 / πr1 ) = (l1/l2) . (r2/r1)=(4/3).(3/2) = 3 1
For wires connected in parallel, V1 = V2 OR I1R1 = I2R2

I1/I1 = R1/R2 = ⅓

6 (b)For a straight current carrying wire, 1

B∝ 1/r
B’/B = r/2r = ½
OR
B’ = (1/2)B = (1/2) x 0.4 = 0.2 T

340
7 (c) Let the radii of the two coils be 2a and a, then their resistances will be 2 R and R 1
respectively.
Given
B₁ = B₂
(μ0I1)/(2x2a)= (μ0I2)/2a
OR
(μ0/4a).(V1/2R) = (μ0/2a).(V2/R)
OR
V1/V2=4
8 (b) Susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material decreases with the increase in 1
temperature and above the Curie temperature TC, it becomes paramagnetic
9 (b) The emf induced in the coil, 1
੬= Total resistance,
R’=R+4R=5RΩ
Induced current, I = ੬/R’ = -n( ɸ1-ɸ2)/5Rt

-n(dɸ/dt) = -n( ɸ1-ɸ2)/t

10 (c) Resonance frequency, 1

fr=1 / [2π√(LC)]
when C is changed to 2C, L should be changed to L/2 so that f, remains unchanged
11 (d) The frequency of the e.m. wave remains same when it passes from one medium 1
to another.
Refractive index of the medium, n = √(ε/ε0)=√(4/1)= 2

Wavelength of the electromagnetic wave in the medium.

λmed =λ/n = λ/2.
12 (a) μ = λa/λg 1
λg = λa/ μ= (2400 x 10-10m )/15 = 1600 Å

13 (a) Wo= hc/ λ0 = (6.63×10-34×3×108 ) / (5000 × 10-10 )J 1

= 4 × 10-19 J.
14 (a) P.E. of an electron = -kZe2/r 1

K.E. of an electron= (1/2) kZe2/r

Total energy of an electron =-(1/2) kZe2/r

When an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state, the
value of r decreases.
K.E. increases
P.E. decreases as it becomes more negative.
Total energy decreases as it becomes more negative.

15 (b) Energy released, 1

=2B.E(2He4)-B.E(1H1+ 3Li7 )

=2x4x7.06-[0+7x 5.60]

=56.48-39.20=17.28 MeV.

341
16 (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of 1
the assertion. The waves produced by the two violins are not coherent
17 d) Both the assertion and reason are false. 1
Resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with temperature. Larger amplitudes of
atoms at higher temperatures increase conductivity of a semiconductor.
18 (c) For an incident photon of given energy, velocity of photoelectron ejected from 1
near the surface is larger than that coming from the interior of the metal because
less energy is required to eject an electron from the surface than from the interior.
The velocity of ejected electron may not be zero.
SECTION B
19 a. X rays - Used as a diagnostic tool in medicine 2
b. Micro wave - Used in micro wave oven
Any one other application of each

20 2
a. Paramagnetic

b. Diamagnetic

21 Balmer, ni = α and nf = 2 2
Paschen, ni = α and nf = 3
1/ λ = R ( 1/nf 2 - 1/ni 2 )
ΛB / λP = 4/9
OR
For first excited state, n = 2
r2 = n2 a0 = 22 x 5.3 x 10-11 = 21.2 x 10-11 m
Total energy = - 13.6/ n2 eV = -13.6/ 4 = -3.4Ev

342
22 From mirror formula,1/v = 1/f – 1/u , Now for a concave mirror, f < 0 and for an object
at u < 0, 2f<u<f or 1/2f> 1/u >1/f
1/2f < 1/v < 0
This implies that v < 0 so that image is formed on left.
Also the above inequality implies 2f>v OR I2 f l <l v l [2 f and v are negative] i.e.,
the real image is formed beyond 2f.

23 Drift speed in B is higher. Since the two bars are connected in series, the current 2
through both same.
I = neAvd , vd α 1/n. Since n is much lower in semiconductors, drift velocity will be
more.
OR

The energy gap does not change with temperature

24 λ = 5890 x 10-10m, a= 0.25 x 10-3m 2

Angular separation Ɵ= 3λ/ 2a = 3.534 x 10-3 radian
25 Energy stored in the capacitor = ½ CV2 2
When it is connected to another uncharged capacitor, common potential
V’ = V/2
Energy stored in the combined system = ½ ( C+ C ) x ( V/2)2
= 1/4 c v2
Required ratio = 1/2

SECTION C

26 Statement of Ampere’s law 3

Expression for magnetic field

Magnetic field at the centre B = μ I/2a
0
If I = 2I and a= a/2, B’ = 4B
27 a. As n decreases, L= μ n2 Al decreases, X = Lω decreases, brightness increases 3
0 L
b. When an iron rod is inserted, L increases, XL = Lω increases, brightness decreases
c. When a capacitor is introduced, since XL = Xc , impedance = R, minimum, hence
brightness increases.

343
OR

R = 100Ω, L= 4/π2 H, Vrms = 200V, v = 50Hz

At resonance, Impedance Z = R = 100Ω

Lω = 1/ Cω, C = 1/ ω2 L

ω = 2πv = 2π x 50 = 100π

C= 1/400 farad

28 Statement of Faraday’s law 3

Emf induced = ½ BR2ω

B = 1T, R = L = 1m, ω = 2πv = 2π x 50 = 100π

Emf = ½ x 1x 12x 2π x 50 = 50π = 157V

29 3

K
max = hv – Ф0

Slope of the graph gives the value of Planck’s constant

Intercept on the negative Y axis gives the value of work function

Ф0 = 2.14eV, v = 6 x 1014Hz
1.K
max = hv – Ф0 = 0.34eV
2.K
max = eV0

V
0 = 0.34V

3.Kmax = ½ m v2max

v2max = 345.8 x 10
3
m/s

344
30 3

K = 7.7MeV = 7.7 x 106x 1.6 x 10-19

K = Ze x 2e / 4πϵ0 r0

Substituting, r0 = 30fm

SECTION D

31 a.Derivation of expression for electric field 5

345
F= q1 q2 / 4πϵ0r2

F1 = 57.6N along AD produced F2 = 28.8N along BD produced

F3 = 57.6N along CD produced

Resultant of F1 and F3 is 81.5N

Total force on q4 = 28.8 + 81.5 =110.3 N along BD produced

a.Expression for electric field

b.ФE = Net charge enclosed / ϵ0 = -2Q/ ϵ0

32 5
a.Ray diagram b.Expression for powe c. m = f0/ fe , P = 1/f

To increase magnification, focal length of objective maximum and focal length of

eye piece minimum. To increase the light gathering power, aperture of objective
must be maximum. Hence objective is L1 and eyepiece is L3

a. Defenition of wavefront

b.Geometrical construction

c.Derivation of Snell’s rule

d.Fringe width = λD/d

As d decreases, fringe width increases

346
33 Defenition of relaxation time 5
Drift velocity vd = eEԎ/m
Derivation of the expression Resistivity = m/ne2 Ԏ
In metals, as temperature increases, relaxation time decrases
OR

a. Statement of Kirchhoff’s rules

b. Obtaining the balancing condition in a Wheatstone bridge
c. Applying Kirchhoff’s rules, I1 + I2 = I3
For the loop ABEFA, 2I3 + 5I1 = 12
For the loop BCDEB, -2I3 – 3I2 = -6
Solving the above equations, I1 = 48/31 A, I2 = 18/ 31 A, I3 = 66/31 A

34 a. Conditions for sustained interference 4

b.I = I0 Cos2Ф/2

Cos2Ф/2 = ½

Cos Ф/2 = 1/√2

Ф/2 = π/4

Ф = π/2 (2n+1)

∆x = λ/2π (Ф) = = λ/2π x π/2( 2n+1)

35 = λ/4 (2n+1) 4

a.Ratio = 1:1

β = λ D/ d

Taking the ratio new fringe width is half the first one = 0.2cm

a. This is because the energy gap for Ge (E=0.7 eV) is smaller than the energy gap
for Si (E=1.1 eV).

b. Reverse Bias, figure

c. if the reverse bias decreases the width of the depletion region decreases

c.Drift and Diffusion.

347
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SAGATHAN
ERNAKULAM REGION
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2 (2022-23)
CLASS XII – PHYSICS (THEORY)
Maximum Marks: 70 Marks Time Allowed: 3 hours.

General Instructions:
(1) There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E. All the sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions
of two marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D
contains three long questions of five marks each and Section E contains two case study
based questions of 4 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section
B, C, D and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(5) Use of calculators is not allowed.

Section A

Q.No Marks
1 If an object contains n1 protons and n2 electrons the net charge on the object is 1
i)(n1 + n2)e ii) (n1- n2)e iii)(n2-n1)e iv) Zero

2 When the separation between two identical charges is increased the electric potential 1
energy of the charges
i) increases ii) decreases
iii) remains same iv) may increase or may decrease
3 The current - voltage graph for a given metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and 1
T2 as shown in figure, then

i) Temperature T2 is greater than T1

ii) Temperature T1 is greater than T2
iii) Both T1 and T2 are equal
iv) Resistance of metallic wire is independent of temperature

348
4 An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform magnetic field in 1
north to south, then the direction of deflection is
i) Upwards ii) Downwards iii) North iv)South

5 Two rings, each having equal radius R, are placed mutually perpendicular to each other 1
and each have common centre at the origin of coordinate system . If the current i is
flowing through each ring then the magnitude of the magnetic field at the common centre
is

i) 𝜇0𝑖 ii) 𝜇0𝑖 iii)𝜇0𝑖 d) 𝜇0𝑖

√2𝑅 2𝑅 𝑅 4𝑅

6 Needles N1,N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic , paramagnetic and diamagnetic 1

substance respectively . A magnet is brought close to them will
i) Attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
ii) Attract N1 strongly , but repel N2 and N3 weakly
iii)Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
iv)Attract all these of them.
7 An iron cored coil is connected in series with an electric bulb with an AC source as shown 1
in figure. When iron piece is introduced into the coil, the brightness of the bulb will

i) increase ii) decrease

iii) remains unaffected iv) fluctuate
8 Which of the following rays has minimum frequency? 1
i) U V rays ii) X-rays iii) Microwaves iv) Infrared rays
9 A Current carrying wire is placed below a coil in its plane, with current flowing as shown. 1
If the current increases.

i) No current will be induced in the coil.

ii) An anti clock wise current will be induced in the coil.
iii) A clockwise current will be induced in the coil.
iv) The current induced in the coil will be first anti clockwise and then clockwise.
10 The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is 25:1 . Then the 1
ratio of amplitudes of the interfering beam is
i) 3:2 ii)5:1 iii)2:3 iv)5:3
11 A metal of work function 4eV is exposed to a radiation of wavelength 1400Å then the 1
maximum energy of photoelectrons

i) 2.43eV ii) 4.86eV iii) 5.24eV iv) 6.24eV

12 The energy of electron in the ground state of Hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. The kinetic 1
energy of the electron is the 4th orbit is
i) 3.4eV ii)0.85eV iii) 1.7eV iv) 0.425eV

349
13 Which of the following is not correct about nuclear forces. 1
i) They are short range attractive forces
ii) They are independent of charge
iii) They change to repulsive at very close distance
iv) They obey inverse square law
14 In an LCR series circuit , the voltage across R,L and C at resonance are 40V,50V and 50V 1
respectively. The applied voltage is
i) 50V ii) 40V iii) 140V iv) 90V
15 A slab of copper of thickness y is inserted in between the plates of parallel plate capacitor. 1
The separation between the plates is d. If y =d/4 , then the ratio of capacitance of the
capacitor after and before inserting the slab is
i) 4:3 ii) 1:2 iii) 1:1 iv) 3:2

16 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). 1
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

Assertion: When a diode is forward biased it acts like a conductor.

Reason: Width of depletion layer increases in forward bias.
17 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). 1
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

Assertion: In Young’s double slit experiment interference pattern disappears when one of
the slits is closed.
Reason: Interference occurs due to superposition of light waves from two coherent
sources.

18 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). 1
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false

Assertion: Maximum photoelectric current in a photocell depends upon intensity of

incident light if the frequency of incident light is above threshold frequency.
Reason: Greater the frequency of incident light, greater will be the maximum velocity of
emitted electrons

350
Section B

19 Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is 2

(i) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
(ii) used to kill germs in water purifier.
20 (a) The susceptibility of a magnetic materials is – 4.2×10–6. Name the type of 2
magnetic materials it represents.
(b) State any two properties of the above type of materials.
21 A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency 2
of radiation emitted when the atom makes transition from the upper level to the lower
level?
OR
Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1 : 8. What is the ratio of their nuclear
radii?
22 A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass prism such that the angle of 2
incidence is equal to angle of emergence and each of these angles is equal to
3of angle of prism. What is the value of angle of deviation?
4
23 Write two characteristic features to distinguish between n-type and p-type
semiconductors.
OR
Draw energy band diagrams of an n-type and p-type semiconductor at temperature
T > 0 K.
24 How does the fringe width of interference fringes change, when the whole apparatus 2
of Young’s experiment is kept in water (refractive index 4/3) ?
25 Two concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R and 2R are given charges Q1 and 2
Q2 respectively. The surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are
equal. Determine the ratio Q1 : Q2.

Section C

26 Deduce an expression for magnetic dipole moment of an electron revolving around a 3

nucleus in a circular orbit. Indicate the direction of magnetic dipole moment. Use the
expression to derive the relation between the magnetic moment of an electron moving
in a circle and its related angular momentum.

27 A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm 2 placed inside 3
normal to the axis of the solenoid. The current carried by the solenoid changes
steadily from 2A to 4A in 0.1s, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current
is changing?
28 A series LCR circuit with R=20 Ω, L =1.5 H and C = 35 µF is connected to a variable 3
frequency 200V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural
frequency of the circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one
complete cycle?
OR
Obtain the resonant frequency of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, C=32 µF and R
= 10 Ω. What is the quality factor (Q) of this circuit?

351
29 (a) If the potential difference used to accelerate electrons is doubled, by what 3
factor does the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons change?
(b) Show on a graph the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated
with an electron, with the square root of accelerating potential (V).
(c) An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the
two has the larger de Broglie wavelength and why?
OR
(a) Draw a graph showing variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a
particular intensity of incident radiation. Mark saturation current and
stopping potential.
(b) How much would stopping potential for a given photosensitive surface go
up if the frequency of the incident radiations were to be increased from
4×1015 Hz to 8 × 1015 Hz?

30 A photon emitted during the de-excitation of electron from a state n to the first excited 3
state in a hydrogen atom, irradiates a metallic cathode of work function 2 eV, in a
photo cell, with a stopping potential of 0.55 V. Obtain the value of the quantum
number of the state n.

Section D

31 (a) A point charge of 2.0 nC is at the centre of a cubic gaussian surface 9.0 cm 5
on edge. What is the net electric flux through the surface?
(b) Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their
inner faces, the plates have surface charge densities of opposite signs and of
magnitude 17.0 × 10–22 C/m2 . Calculate the electric field strength E:
(i) in the outer region of the first plate
(ii) in the outer region of the second plate
(iii) between the plates
OR
(a) A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 μC at each of its vertices.
Calculate the potential at the centre of the hexagon.
(b) Derive an expression for the electric potential at an axial point due to an
electric dipole of dipole length 2a.
(c) What is the electric potential at any point on the equatorial line of an electric
dipole?

32 (a) Plot a graph showing the variation of resistance of a conducting wire as a 5

function of its radius, keeping the length of the wire and its temperature as
constant.
(b) Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional
to the drift speed of electrons.
(c) The number density of free electrons in a copper conductor is 8.5×1028m3 .
How long does an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3 m long, to its
another end? The area of cross section of the wire is 2.0 ×10–6 m2 and it is
carrying a current of 3.0 A.
OR

352
(a) Use Kirchhoff ’s laws to determine the value of current I1 in the given
electrical circuit.

(b) Draw a circuit diagram showing balancing of Wheatstone bridge. Use

Kirchhoff ’s laws to obtain the balance condition in terms of the resistances of
four arms of Wheatstone Bridge.

33 (a) The focal length of an equiconvex lens is equal to the radius of curvature of 5
either face. What is the value of refractive index of the material of the lens?
(b) Draw the diagrams to show the behaviour of plane wavefronts as they
(i) pass through a thin prism
(ii) pass through a thin convex lens
(iii) reflect by a concave mirror.
OR
(a) Draw the intensity distribution for
(i) the fringes produced in interference
(ii) the diffraction bands produced due to single slit.
(b) Draw a ray diagram for formation of image of a point object by a thin double
convex lens having radii of curvature R1 and R2. Hence, derive lens maker’s
formula for a double convex lens.

Section E

34 Case Study: 4
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
When light moves from one medium to another, part of the light gets refracted and the
remaining part of it will get reflected back into the same medium. Under certain
conditions, the whole of the light can be made to be reflected back into the same
medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.

(i) Define critical angle for a pair of media.

(ii) Write the relation between the refractive index and critical angle for a given
pair of optical media.
(iii) What are the two essential conditions required for total internal reflection
to take place?
OR
(iii) Write any two advantages of totally reflecting prisms over plane mirrors.

353
35 Case Study: 4
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
A P-N junction is an interface or a boundary between two semiconductor material
types, namely the p-type and the n-type, inside a semiconductor. In a semiconductor,
the P-N junction is created by the method of doping. p–n junctions are elementary
"building blocks" of semiconductor electronic devices such as diodes, transistors,
solar cells, LEDs, and integrated circuits; they are the active sites where the electronic
action of the device takes place.

(i) For the same order of doping, why does n-type semiconductor exhibit larger
conductivity than p-type semiconductor?
(ii) Give one application of P-N junction diodes.
(iii) Why does a potential barrier set up across the P-N junction?
OR
(iii) What are the two types of biasing in P-N junction diode? Draw the
respective diagrams.

354
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SAGATHAN
ERNAKULAM REGION
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2 -ANSWER KEY
CLASS XII – PHYSICS (THEORY)
Maximum Marks: 70 Marks Time Allowed: 3 hours.

Section A

Q.No Marks
1 ii) (n1- n2)e, additivity of charges 1
2 ii) Decreases 1
3 ii) Temperature T1 is greater than T2 1

Slope of the graph is inverse proportional resistance and resistance increases with the
temperature.
4 i) Upwards , Flemings left hand rule 1
5 i)
𝜇0𝑖 1
√2𝑅
The magnetic field mutually perpendicular to each other.
6 iii)Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly 1
7 ii) decrease 1
When it is inserted there will be induction current effect and bulb glows with less
intensity.
8 iii) Microwaves 1
9 iii) A clockwise current will be induced in the coil. 1
10 i) 3:2 1

11 ii) 4.86eV 1

12 ii)0.85eV 1
13 iv) They obey inverse square law 1
14 ii) 40V 1
15 i) 4:3 1
16 c) A is true but R is false 1
17 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
18 b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A 1

355
Section B

19 (i) microwaves 1+1

(ii) Ultra violet rays
20 (a) Diamagnetic materials 1+1
(b) any two properties of diamagnetic materials
21 2

22 2

23 N-type 1+1
1. It is formed by doping pentavalent impurities.
2. The electrons are the majority carriers and holes are minority carriers.
P -type
1. It is formed by doping trivalent impurities.
2. The electrons are the minority carriers and holes are majority carriers.
OR

24 Fringe width equation. 1+1

fringe width decreases to 𝟑times.
𝟒
25 2

356
Section C

26 Derivation 1+1+1

Perpendicular to the plane of loop directed outwards for anticlockwise current in loop
and is directed inwards for clockwise current in loop.

Relation between the magnetic moment of an electron moving in a circle and its
related angular momentum.

27 1+1+1

28 3

29 (a) 3

(b)

(c) DeBroglie wavelength is inversely proportional to mass for a given value of

kinetic. As an electron has a smaller mass than a proton, an electron has
larger de Broglie wavelength than a proton for the same kinetic energy.
OR

357
(a)

(b)

30 3

Section D

31 (a) 5

(b)
(i) In the outer region of plate I, there is no charge enclosed by
plate I.Thus, the intensity of electric field is zero in the outer region of plate I.
(ii) In the outer region of plate II, there is no charge enclosed by plate II.
Thus, the intensity of electric field is zero in the outer region of plate II.
(iiii)

358
OR
(a)

(b) Derivation.
(c) Zero since angle is 900.
32 (a) 5

(b) Derivation.
(c)

OR
(a)

359
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* *
* *
* *
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* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
*
* *
* *
** *
* *
** *
* *
* *
** *
* (b) Diagram, Derivation. *
* 33 (a) 5 *
** *
* *
** *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* (b) *
* (i) *
* *
* *
* *
* (ii) *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* (iii) *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* *
* OR *
* *
* (a) *
* *
* *
** **
****************************************************************************************** **
360
(b) Diagram, Derivation.

Section E

34 1+1+2
0
(i) It is the angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is 90 .
(ii)

(iii) * Light ray should move from denser medium to rarer medium
* The angle of incidence should be greater than critical angle
OR
(iii) *When light is reflected from total reflecting prism , whole of the light is
totally internally reflected Intensity of reflected light is more in prism than
that of the light reflected from plane mirror .
*No multiple reflections take place in total reflecting prism as compared
with that of plane mirror .
35 1+1+2
(i) It is because the mobility of electrons is greater than that of hole.
(ii) Used as rectifiers (or any other application)
(iii) The accumulation of negative charges in the p region and positive charges in then
region sets up a potential difference across the junction.
OR
(iii) Forward biasing and reverse biasing, Diagrams

361
Class: XII
SESSION: 2022-2023
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 3 (THEORY)
SUBJECT: PHYSIS

Maximum Marks: 70 Marks Time Allowed: 3 hours

General Instructions:

1. There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory

2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section
E. All the sections are compulsory
3. Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions of two
marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D contains three
long question of five marks each and Section E contains two case study-based questions of 4
marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D
and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed

SECTION A

Q Question Marks
No.
1. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole P is placed as shown. Which
of the following statements is correct?

a. The dipole will not experience any force.

b. The dipole will experience a force towards right.
c. The dipole will experience a force towards left
d. The dipole will experience a force upwards.
2. Two equal and opposite charges (+q and -q) are situated at a distance x from each other.
The value of potential at very far point will depend upon
a. Only on q
1
b. Only on x
c. On q.x
d. On 𝑞
𝑥

362
3. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an alloy used for making resistors is
a. Small and positive
b. Small and negative 1
c. Large and positive
d. Large and negative
4. A current l flows through a long straight conductor which is bent into a circular loop of
radius R in the middle as shown in the figure

The magnitude of the net magnetic field at point 0 will be

a. Zero
b. 𝜇0𝐼(1+𝜋)
2𝑅
c. 𝜇˳𝐼
4𝜋𝑅
d. 𝜇˳𝐼(1-1)
2𝑅 𝜋

5. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry currents l1 and l2 in the same
direction. They exert a force F on each other. Now, the current in one of them is
increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increase to 3d.
The new value of the force between them is
a. -𝐹
3 1
b. 𝐹
3
c. 2𝐹
3
d. −2𝐹
3

In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is

a. Virtual, erect and magnified
6. b. Real, erect and magnified 1
c. Real, inverted and magnified
d. Virtual erect and reduced
7. An indictor ‘L’ of reactance XL, is connected in series with a bulb ‘B’ to an a.c.

When the number of turns of the inductor is reduced, the brightness of the bulb will
a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain unaffected
d. fluctuate

363
8. The magnetic field in a travelling electro-magnetic wave has a peak value of 20 nT. The
peak value of electric field strength is
a. 3 V/m
1
b. 6 V/m
c. 9 V/m
d. 12 V/m

9. A square loop of wire, side length 10 cm is placed at angel of 45° with a magnetic field
that changes uniformly form 0.1 T to zero in 0.7s. The induced current in the loop (its
resistance is 1Ω is
a. 1.0 mA 1
b. 2.5 mA
c. 3.5 mA
d. 4.0 mA

10. In an AC circuit the emf (e) and the current (i) at any instant are given respectively by,

e= Eo sin ωt and i = lo sin (ωt -ɸ) The average power in the circuit over one cycle of AC
is
𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ
a. 2
1
𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ sin ɸ
2
b.
𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ cos ɸ
c. 2
Eₒlₒ
d.
11. A parallel plate capacitor with oil between the plates (dielectric constant of oil, K=2) has
a capacitance C. If the oil is removed, then capacitance of the capacitor becomes
a. 4C
1
b. 2C
c. C/2
d. Zero

12. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. Photographic plates are sensitive to infrared rays
b. Infra-red rays are invisible but can cast shadows like visible light 1
c. Photographic plates are sensitive to ultraviolet rays
d. Infrared photons have more energy than photons of visible light.

13. If the electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from third orbit to second orbit to second
orbit, the wavelength of the emitted radiation in terms of Rydberg constant is

a. 6
5𝑅
b. 36 1
5𝑅
c. 64
7𝑅
d. None of the above

364
14. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a neutron. A given nucleus of binding
energy B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus is by
(where c is the velocity of light)
a. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2 1
b. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
c. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
d. M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2

15. The wave front of distant source of unknown shape is approximately

a. Spherical
b. Cylindrical 1
c. Elliptical
d. Plane
16. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the 1 other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
1
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason: The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
17. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the 1 other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false 1
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion: The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature
Reason: The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with larger amplitudes at higher
temperature thereby increasing its resistivity.
18. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the 1 other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
1
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion: it is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two
violins
Reason: For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must
remain constant.

365
SECTION B
Name the Constituent radiation of electromagnetic spectrum which
a. Is used in satellite communication
19 b. Is used for studying crystal structure
c. Is similar to the radiations emitted during decay of radioactive nuclei 2
d. Has a wavelength range between 390 nm and 770 n.
Draw magnetic field lines when a (i) diamagnetic (ii) paramagnetic substance is placed
in an external magnetic field.

20 OR 2

The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -2.6 x10-5. Identify the type of magnetic
material and state its two properties.
What changes in the focal length of a (i) concave mirror and (ii) convex lens occur,
21 when the incident violet light on them is replaced with red light? 2

The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and
22 2
potential energies of the electron in his state?
In the following diagrams, indicate which of the diodes are forward biased and which
are reverse biased.

A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it
detect a wavelength of 6000 nm?
In Young’s experiment, the width of the fringes obtained with light of wavelength 6000
24 Å is 2.0 mm. Calculate the fringe width if the entire apparatus is immersed in a liquid 2
medium of refractive index 1.33.
A uniformly charged conducting sphere of diameter 2.5 m has a surface charge density
100 µC/m2 calculate
25 2
1. Charge on the sphere and
2. Total electric flux passing through the sphere

SECTION C
26
Draw labeled diagram of a moving coil galvanometer and explain its working. What is 3
the function of radial magnetic field inside the coil?

366
27 A 0.5m long metal rod PQ completes the circuit as shown in fig: The area of the circuit is 3
perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density 0. 15T.If the resistance of the total
circuit is 3ᾩ, calculate the force needed to move the rod in the direction as indicated
with a constant sped of 2ms-1.

28 An a.c. source generating a voltage ε = ε0 sin ωt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Derive 3
the expression for the average power dissipated over a cycle. Under what condition is
(i ) no power dissipated even though the current flows through the circuit
(ii)maximum power dissipated in the circuit .
OR
An ac voltage V = V0 sin ωt is applied across a series LCR circuit. Obtain an expression
for the impedance of the circuit. Obtain an expression for the resonant frequency.
29 The graphs show the variation of the stopping potential V0 with the frequency (υ) of the 3
incident radiation for two different photosensitive materials M1and M2..(i) What are the
values of work functions for M1 and M2..(ii) The values of stopping potential for M1and
M2 for a frequency of incident radiations are V1 and V2 respectively. Show that the
𝑉1−𝑉2
slope of the lines =
𝜐01−𝜐02

OR
(a) Find the ratio of De-Broglie wavelength associated with (i) protons through the
potential difference of 128V (ii) alpha particles accelerated through a potential difference
of 64V
(b) What is the rest mass of a photon?
30 The energy levels of an atom are as shown in figure. (a) Which one of these transitions 3
will result in the emission of photon of wave length 275nm? (b) Which transition
corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum wave length?

367
SECTION D
31 a) What work must be done in carrying an alpha particle across a 5

potential difference of 1volit?

(b) A uniform field E exists between two charged plates as shown in fig. What would be
the work done in moving a charge q along the closed rectangular path ABCDA?

(c) A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference V by a d.c source. The
battery remains connected and a dielectric slab of thickness d and dielectric constant K is
introduced between the plates of the capacitor. How the following will change: (i)
Electric field between the plates (ii) capacitance and(iii) charge on the plates of the
capacitor
OR
(a) S1 and S2 are two parallel concentric spheres enclosing charges Q and 2Q as shown
in fig.

(i) What is the ratio of the electric flux through S1 and S2?

(ii) How will the electric flux through the sphere S1 change, if a medium of dielectric
constant 5 is introduced in the space inside S1 in place of air?

(b) Obtain the expression for the electric field intensity due to a uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet

32 (a) Define drift speed? 5

(b) The electron drift speed is estimated to be very low. How there is current established
almost instant a circuit is closed?

(c) Four identical cells each of emf 2V are joined in parallel providing supply of
current to external circuit consisting of two 15-ohm resistors joined in parallel. The
terminal voltage of the cells as read by an ideal voltmeter is 1.6v. Calculate the
internal resistance id each cell

368
OR
(a)Draw the circuit diagram showing a Wheatstone’s bridge
Use Kirchhoff’s laws to obtain the balanced condition in
terms of the values of the four resistors
(c) In the network shown P=2Ω, Q=2Ω, R=3Ω, S=7Ω C=3µF and E=6V.
(i) Find the charge and energy stored in the capacitor.
(ii) For what value of Q, the charge on the capacitor will be zero?

33 (a)What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Youngs doble slit experiment due 5
to each of the following conditions? (i) screen is moved away from the plane of the slits
(ii) The monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of shorter
wavelength
(b) A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of apex angle 30°
and refractive index √2. Find the angle of deviation for the ray of light.

OR
1. In a single slit diffraction pattern, how is the width of the central bright maximum
changed when,
a) the slit width is decreased?
b) the distance between the slit and the screen is increased

369
2. AB and CD are two slabs. The medium between the slabs has refractive index 2. Find
the minimum angle of incidence at Q, so that the ray is totally reflected by both the slabs

SECTION E
34 Case Study:1 4

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

If light travels from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, then at the interface,
the light is reflected back into the denser medium and partly refracted to the rarer
medium. This reflection is called internal reflection. As the angle of incidence i
increases, the angle of refraction r also increases. At a certain value of I, the angle of
refraction becomes 90°.This angle of incidence is known as critical angle. If the angle of
incidence exceeds critical angle, the incident ray is totally reflected to the denser
medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection. Brilliance of diamond,
totally reflecting prisms and mirage are some of the applications of total internal
reflection.
(i) What are the conditions for producing total internal reflection?
(ii) What is the maximum possible angle of refraction?
(iii Light takes t1 sec to travel a distance x in vacuum and the same light takes t2 sec to

travel 10x cm in a medium. Critical angle for corresponding medium will be

 10t2   t2 
(a) sin−1 (b) sin−1
   
 t1   10t 1 
−1 10t 1   t1 
(c) sin (d) sin−1
   
 t2   10t 2 

OR
(iii) A fish looking through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular
horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and fish is 12 cm below the
surface, then the radius of the circle in cm is

(a) 12 × 3 × 5 (b) 4  5

(c) 12 3 7 (d) 12 3 / 7

370
35 Case study: 2 4

Read the following paragraph and answer the questions

A P-N junction is the key to all semiconductor devices. When such a junction diode is
made, a depletion layer is formed consisting of immobile ions devoid of their electrons
or holes. This is responsible for a junction potential barrier. By changing the external
applied voltage, junction barrier can be changed. In forward bias, the barrier is
decreased while the barrier increases in reverse bias. Hence, forward bias current is
more while it is very small in reverse biased junction diode.

(i). How the reverse current is formed in a PN junction diode?

(ii) Name the two processes, by which PN junction is formed?

(iii) The diodes in the circuit have a forward resistance of 50 Ohm and infinite
backward resistance. Find the current through the 100ohm resistance?

OR
(iii) What will happen to the intrinsic semiconductor, when placed at absolute zero?

371
CLASS: XII
SESSION: 2022-2023
MARKING SCHEME
CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 3 (THEORY)
SUBJECT: PHYSICS

Q. No: SECTION A MARKS

1. c). The dipole will experience a force towards left 1
2. c). On q.x 1
3. a). Small and Positive 1
4. d). 𝜇˳𝐼(1-1) 1
2𝑟 𝜋
−2𝐹
5. d). 1
3
6. c). real, inverted and magnified 1
7. b). increase 1
8. b). 6 V/m 1

9. a). 1.0 mA 1
𝐸ₒ𝑙ₒ
10 𝑐). cos ɸ 1
2

11. c). C/2 1

12. d). Infrared photons have more energy than photons of visible light 1
13. b). 36 1
5𝑅

14. c). M (N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2 1

15. d). Plane 1

16. d). A is false and R is also false 1

17. d). A is false and R is also false 1

18. a). Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

SECTION B

19. a. Microwaves ½
b. X-rays ½
c. gamma rays ½
d. Visible light ½
20. Diamagnetic - diagram 1
Paramagnetic – diagram 1
OR
Diamagnetic 1
Two properties ½ +½
21. For a concave mirror, f is independent of the wavelength of light. ½
Hence focal length remains the same. ½
For a convex lens, f α 1/n-1
NR < nv,, fR > fV ½

372
So focal length increases ½

22. KE = -E = 13.6 eV 1
P.E = 2TE = x 2 x -13.6 =-27.2eV 1
23. a. Forward biased ½
b. Reverse biased ½
c. Forward biased ½
d. Reverse biased ½
OR

E = hc/λ ½
E = 0.207 eV 1
E < Eg, cannot detect the wavelength 6000 nm ½
24. n = λ /λ’ ½
In air ꞵ = Dλ /d ½
In liquid ꞵ’ = Dλ’ /d = 1.5 mm 1
25. (i) Q = ϭ. 4ΠR2 ½
Q = 1.96mC ½

φ = Q /Ɛ
(ii) 0 = 2.21 x 108 Nm2/C 1

SECTION C
26. Labelled diagram 1
Theory and working 1
When the magnetic field is radial, torque will be maximum and hence the sensitivity 1
of galvanometer increases

27 E=Blv=0.15v 1
I=E/R=0.05A 1
F=Bil=3.75 × 10−3 N 1

28 Derivation of power dissipated in LCR circuit 1½

(1) No power dissipated when R=0 or Ф=90° ½
(2) Maximum power dissipated at resonance when 𝑋𝐿=XC,Ф=0 1
Then Pmax =𝑉0𝐼0
2
OR
1½
Expression for impedance
1½
Expression for resonant frequency

29 (i) Work function for the material M1,ω1=h υ01 1½

And for material M2, ,ω2=h υ02

(ii) The slope of the graphs,=

difference in stopping potentials
=
V1−V 2 1½
difference in threshold freqencies υ01−υ02
OR
λ √MPQpVP 2
(a) P= =2
λᵪ
√MᵪQᵪVᵪ

373
(b) Zero 1

30 (a)For λ=275nm, E = hc/λ=4.5eV.The photon of energy 4.5eV will be emitted 2

,corresponding to the transition B.
(b) The transition A corresponds to emission of radiation of minimum energy and 1
hence maximum wavelength.

SECTION D
31 (a) W=q×dV=2× 𝑒 × 1 1
=3.2× 10−19 J
(b) Zero .Work done in moving a charge in a closed path is zero. 1
(c) (i) Since the battery remains connected, the potential difference remains 1
constant, hence E also remain unchanged
(ii)Capacitance becomes K times 1
(iii).Charge becomes K times since capacitance becomes K times. 1

(a) (i) Ф = 𝑄 and Ф = 3𝑄 so Ф1 =1 1

1 𝜀0 2 𝜀0 Ф2 3
𝑄
(ii) Ф = ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝑆⃗ =
1 𝜀0
.On introducing medium of dielectric constant L inside the sphere S1,the 2
eelectic field becomes K times
𝑄 𝑄
Now the new flux Ф′ = On solving K=5 .So new flux Ф′ =
1 𝐾𝜀0 1 5𝜀0
(b) Derivation of electric field intensity 2
32 (a) Definition of drift speed 1
(b) All the electrons in the conductor drift simultaneously under the action of an 1
electric field
(c) Net emf =2V
Total internal resistance =𝑟
4
Net resistance of the two external resistors= 7.5 ohm
The internal resistance of the parallel combination of cells =(𝐸 − 1)R. On
𝑉 3
solving r=7.5 ohm
OR
(a) Circuit diagram and derivation of balancing condition of Wheatstone’s
bridge
(b) (i)In steady state capacitor behaves as an open path. Now 𝑉𝐴⃗ =6V and
𝑉𝑐 = 0
Since battery is connected across the series combination of P and Q ½ + 1½
,𝑉𝐵=3V
Since the battery is connected across the series combination of R and S ,
𝑉𝐷=4.2 V
Now 𝑉𝐷−𝑉𝐵 =1.2V
Charge on the capacitor=C(𝑉𝐷−𝑉𝐵 )=3.6μC.

374
So energy stored in the capacitor= 1 C(𝑉 )2 2
2 𝐷−𝑉𝐵
=2.16× 10−6 J
(ii) When 𝑉𝐵= 𝑉𝐷 means bridge is balanced, no charge will be stored in the
capacitor. The value of Q for balanced bridge is given by 2 =3 1
𝑄 7
So Q=14 ohm .
3
33 (a) (i) When the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits, D increases 1
and hence fringe width will increase
(ii)the decrease in λ will decrease fringe width
(b) 1 𝑆⃗𝑖𝑛𝑖 1 𝑆⃗𝑖𝑛𝑖30 1
= or =
𝜇 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟 √2 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟

3
Sin r = 1 r=45° δ=I - r=15°
√2
OR

1. (a) the width of the central maximum is

2𝐷λ
𝛽= . From the eqation, when the slit width is decreased, the width of the
𝑎 1
central maximum will increase.
(c) As the distance between slit and the screen is increased, the width of the
central maximum will also increase. 1
2. Let C1 and C2 be the values of critical angle at the points Q and R
respectively. Then

SinC1=𝜇1 = 1 C1=45°
𝜇2 √2

SinC2 = 𝜇3 = √3 C2=60°
𝜇42 2 3

SECTION E
34 (i) Light should travel from a denser medium to rare medium. Angle of 1
incidence should be greater than critical angle
(ii) 90° 1
−1 10t 1 
(iii) sin
 
 t2  2
OR
(III) 12 3 / 7 2

35 (i) The reverse current is due to the presence of minority charge carriers 1
(ii) Diffusion and drift 1
(iii) Due to infinite reverse resistance,D2 will not conduct
Total resistance= 300ohm
So current I=V/R= 6 =0.02A.
300
2
OR
(iv) When an intrinsic semiconductor is placed at absolute zero, the electrons
in the conduction band come to the valence band. hence no free electrons

375
BLUE PRINT OF CLASS XII PHYSICS SAMPLE PAPER-4 2022-2023

Sl. MCQ (1 VSA (2 SA ( 3 LA (5 Case

No. Name of the Chapter Mark) Marks) Marks) Marks) study(4Marks) Total
1 Electric Charges and Field 1 1 6
Electrostatic Potential and

2 Capacitance 2 1 5
3 Current Electricity 1 5
Moving Charges and

4 Magnetism 3 1 5
5 Magnetism and Matter 1 4
6 Electromagnetic Induction 1 1 4
7 Alternating Current 2 1 4
8 Electromagnetic Waves 1 1 3
Ray Optics and Optical

9 Instruments 2 1 1 10
10 Wave Optics 1 1 5
Dual Nature of Radiation and

11 Matter 1 1 5
12 Atoms 2 1 4
13 Nuclei 1 1 3
Semiconductor Electronics:
Materials, Devices and Simple

14 Circuits 3 1 7

18 7 5 3 2 70
will be available for conduction. Hence an intrinsic semiconductor at
absoluter zero behaves like an insulator. 2

376
Class: XII
SESSION : 2022-2023
CBSE SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER-4 (THEORY)
SUBJECT: PHYSICS

Maximum Marks: 70 Marks Time Allowed: 3 hours.

SECTION A

1. A solid spherical conductor has charge +Q and radius R. It is surrounded by a solid spherical shell
with charge -Q, inner radius 2R, and outer radius 3R. Which of the following statements is true?

(i) The electric potential has a maximum magnitude at C and the electric field
has a maximum magnitude at A
(ii) The electric potential has a maximum magnitude at D and the electric field
has a maximum magnitude at B.
(iii) The electric potential at A is zero and the electric field has a maximum
magnitude at D.
(iv). Both the electric potential and electric field achieve a maximum
magnitude at B.

377
2, A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 μF capacitor and 40𝛺 resistor is connected to 230
V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to
the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be:
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s (2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s (4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s

3. Drift velocity of the free electrons in a conducting wire carrying a current i is v. If in a wire of the
same metal, but of double the radius, the current be 2i then the drift velocity of the
electrons will be
(a) v/4 (b) v/2 (c) v (d) 4v

4. An electromagnetic wave of frequency = 3 MHz passes from vacuum into dielectric medium with
permittivity Er =4 then:
(a) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
(b) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency become half
(c) Wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged
(d) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
5. Velocity of light in a liquid is 1.5 X 108 m and in air, it is 3 X 108 m/s. If a ray of light passes from
liquid into the air, the value of critical angle is
A) 450 B) 350 C)300 D) 250
6. The power factor of a series LCR circuit at resonance will be
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/ √2

7. In the  particle scattering experiment, the shape of the trajectory of the −particles depend upon :−
(a) only on impact parameter
(b) only on the source of −particles.
(c) both impact parameter and source of −particles
(d) impact parameter and the screen material of the detector.

8. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the depletion region of a diode?
(a) There the mobile charges exist.
(b) Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral.
(c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
(d) None of these
9. Find the ratio of maximum wavelength of minimum wavelength for the lines of Balmer series in hydrogen
spectrum.
A) 5/9 B) 9/5 C) 5/36 D) ¼

10. In figure given, assuming the diodes to be ideal.

(a) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(b) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A and vice
versa.
(c) D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A toB.
(d) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B and vice versa.

378
11. A charge q is accelerated through a potential difference V. It is then passed normally through a uniform
magnetic field, where it moves in a circle of radius r. The potential difference required to move it in a circle
of radius 2r is?
A) 1V B) 4V C) 3V D) 2V

12. A convex lens is made of a material having refractive index 1.2 Both the surfaces of the lens are
convex. If it is dipped into water (μ = 1.33), it will behave like
(a) a convergent lens (b) a divergent lens
(c) a rectangular slab (d) a prism.
13. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery as shown in figure. Consider two situations
(i) key K is kept closed and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulating handle
(ii) key k is opened and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulating handle.
Which of the following statement is correct?

A) In (i) Q remains same but C changes

B) In (ii) V remain same but C changes
C) In (i) V remain same but Q changes
D) In (ii) both Q and V changes
14. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire such that the
wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I
is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop will

(a) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire.

(b) Move away from the wire or towards right.
(c) Move towards the wire or towards Left.
(d) Remain stationary.
15. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field E(volt/m)
acting along the same plane at an angle with the horizontal side of the square as shown in figure. The electric
flux linked to the surface,in units of volt−m, is

379
A) EL2
B) ZERO
C) EL2COSθ
D) EL2SINθ

ASSERTION REASON
16. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion (A): Total induced emf in a loop is not confined to any particular point but it is distributed
around the loop in direct proportion to the resistances of its parts.
Reason (R): In general when there is no change in magnetic flux, no induced emf is produced.

17. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion (A): When a pure semiconductor is doped with a pentavalent impurity, the number of
conduction electrons is increased while the number of holes is decreased.
Reason (R): Some of the holes get recombined with the conduction electrons as the concentration of
the conduction electrons is increased

18. Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion (A): The voltage sensitivity may not necessarily increase on increasing the current
sensitivity.
Reason (R): Current sensitivity increases on increasing the number of turns of the coil

SECTION B

19. A square loop of side 20 cm carrying current of 1A is kept near an infinite long straight wire
carrying a current of 2A in the same plane as shown in the figure.
377
Calculate the magnitude and direction of the net force exerted on the loop due to the current
carrying conductor.
20. A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. Predict your observations for dc and ac connections.
What happens in each case if the capacitance of the capacitor is reduced?

21. Write down the expression for the displacement current. The charging current of a capacitor in a
circuit is 0.25 mA, find the displacement current n the circuit?

22. Define wave front of a travelling wave. Which type of wave front is there for a source at infinity?

Find the intensity at a point on a screen in Young’s double slit experiment where the interfering
waves of equal intensity have a path difference of (i) /4, and (ii) 3.

23. Write two main observations of photoelectric effect experiment which could only be explained by
Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

24. A hydrogen atom is in its third excited state. How many spectral lines can be emitted by it before
coming to the ground state ? Show these transitions in the energy level diagram.

25. Define the' distance of closest approach. An a-particle of kinetic energy 'K' is bombarded on a thin
gold foil. The distance of the closest approach is 'r'. What will be the distance of closest approach for an a-
particle of double the kinetic energy ?

Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.

SECTION C

26. Two parallel plate capacitors X and Y have the same area of plates and same separation between
them. X has air between the plates while Y contains a dielectric medium of ɛr = 4.

378
(i) Calculate capacitance of each capacitor if equivalent capacitance of the combination is 4 μF.
(ii) Calculate the potential difference between the plates of X and Y.
(iii)Estimate the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and Y.

27. Derive the expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of magnetic field B, area
A and length l of the solenoid carrying a steady current I. How does this magnetic energy per unit volume
compare with the electrostatic energy density stored in a parallel plate capacitor?

Figure shows planar loops of different shapes moving out of or into a region of a magnetic field
which is directed normal to the plane of the loop away from the reader. Determine the direction of
induced current in each loop using Lenz’s law.

28. Define the term ‘critical angle’ for a pair of media. A point source of monochromatic light ‘S’ is kept
at the centre of the bottom of a cylinder of radius 15.0 cm. The cylinder contains water (refractive
index 4/3) to a height of 7.0 cm. Draw the ray diagram and calculate the area of water surface
through which the light emerges in air.

379
29. Derive an expression for the fringe width of interference pattern obtained in Young’s double slit
experiment.

30. Draw a graph showing the variation of de Broglie wavelength of a particle of charge q and mass m
with the accelerating potential. Proton and deuteron have the same de Broglie wavelengths. Explain which
has more kinetic energy.
OR
The work function of caesium is 2.14 eV. Find
(a) the threshold frequency for caesium,
(b) the wavelength of the incident light if the photocurrent is brought to zero by a stopping potential
of 0.60 V.

SECTION D

31 (a) Two thin lenses are placed coaxially in contact. Obtain the expression for the focal length of this
combination in terms of the focal lengths of the two lenses.
(b) . A glass convex lens has a power of + 10 D +10D . When this lens is totally immersed in a
liquid, it acts as a concave lens of focal length 50 c m 50cm. Calculate the refractive index of the
liquid. Given . a n g = 1.5

OR
(i) Plot a graph to show variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle of incidence for
light passing through a prism. Derive an expression for refractive index of the prism in terms of
angle of minimum deviation and angle of prism.
(ii) A ray of light incident normally on one face of a right isosceles prism is totally reflected as
shown in fig. What must be the minimum value of refractive index of glass ? Give relevant
calculations.

32. (i) Define the term drift velocity.

(ii) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms of
number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On what factors does resistivity of a conductor
depend ?
(iii) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making standard resistors ?

380
(i) State kirchhoff’s loop rule. (2)
(ii) Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in figure: (3)

33. (a) Define torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment P placed in a uniform electric field Express it
in the vector form and point out the direction along which torque acts.
(b) What happens if the field is non-uniform ?
(c) What would happen if the external field E is increasing (i) parallel to P and (ii) anti-parallel to P
?
(d) An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of intensity 3 × 104 N ⁄
C. It experiences a torque of 5 Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length is
5 cm
OR
Find the electric field intensity due to an infinetly thin uniformly charged plane sheet of
surface charge density σ using Gauss’s theorem. A charge +Q is located somewhere inside a vertical
cone such that the depth of the charge from the free surface of the cone is H. It is formed that the flux
associated with the cone with thw curved surface is 3Q/5ϵ0

If the charge is raised vertically through a height 2H then what is the flux through the curved surface.

SECTION E
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

34. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions

P-N junction diode : P-N junction is a semiconductor diode. It is obtained by bringing p-

type semiconductor in close contact with n- type semiconductor. A thin layer is developed at the p- n
junction which is devoid of any charge carrier but has immobile ions. It is called depletion layer. At
the junction a potential barrier appears, which does not allow the movement of majority charge

381
carriers across the junction in the absence of any biasing of the junction. p-n junction offers low
resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse biased.

(i) Can we take one slab of p-type semiconductor and physically join it to
another n-type semiconductor to get p-n junction? 1 mark
(ii) Is p-type semiconductor a charged material? 1mark
(iii) Draw the energy level diagram shows the variation of Barrier potential
under forward bias and reverse bias.
OR
Draw circuit diagram of p-n junction diode under forward bias and reverse bias.
2marks
35. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions

Magnetic materials: All substances exhibit some type of magnetism. Magnetic materials are
classified according to their bulk susceptibility. Ferromagnetism is responsible for most of the effects
of magnetism encountered in everyday life, but there are actually several types of
magnetism. Paramagnetic substances, such as aluminum and oxygen, are weakly attracted to an
applied magnetic field; diamagnetic substances, such as copper and carbon, are weakly repelled;
while antiferromagnetic materials, such as chromium and spin glasses, have a more complex
relationship with a magnetic field.
(i) The susceptibility of a magnetic material is −0.085. Identify the type of magnetic material .
1mark
(ii) From the figure, identify the material suitable for making permanent magnet.

1 mark

(iii) Why soft iron is preferred for making the core of electromagnet?
OR
Suggest a method to move a device in Physics Lab without affecting magnetic field.
2marks

382
ANSWER KEY SAMPLE PAPER-4 2022-23
SOLUTION MARKS
1. (iv). Both the electric potential and electric field achieve a maximum 1
magnitude at B
2 . (4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s 1

3. (b)I =neAVd as per question I=neπr 2V than for 2I= neπ(2r) 2 V2 by 1

solving V2=V/2
4 (c) Wavelength is halved and the frequency remains unchanged 1

5 (C) 1
6 a) 1 1
7 (a) only on impact parameter 1

8 (a) There the mobile charges exist 1

9 B) 9/5 1
10 Correct option is D) 1

In circuit, A is at −10V and B is at 0V. So, B is positive than A. So, D2 is in

forward bias and D1 is in reverse bias so no current flows from A to B or B to A

11 Correct option is B) 1
½ mv2=qV
⇒r = √2mqV r α √V Since r is doubled; V becomes 4 times
qB
12 d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion 1
between nuclei
13 (C . In (i) V remain same but Q changes 1
14 (c) Move towards the wire or towards Left. 1

1
15. (b) , The angle between the area vector and the field lines is 90o.
Thus, ϕE=EAcosθ=0

16 (B). Both are correct but reason is not correct explanation of 1

assertion
17 (A )Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of 1
assertion
18 ( A )Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of 1
assertion

19. Here I1=2A ; I2=1A d1 =10 cm ; d2=30 cm μo=4π × 10-7 Tm A-1 ½

We have
𝜇0 𝐼 2 𝐼 1 𝑙
F = 2𝜋𝑑 ½
−2
Net force on ab and cd = 𝜇0 2∗ 1∗20∗ 10 [ 1
- 1 ] = 5.33 × 10-7 N 1
2𝜋 10∗ 10−2 30∗ 10−2
This net force is directed towards the infinitely long straight wire. ½

20. When a dc source is connected to a capacitor, the capacitor gets charged and after charging no
current flows in the circuit and the lamp will not glow. ½
There will be no change even if C is reduced. ½

383
With ac source, the capacitor offers capacitative reactance (1/wC) and the current flows in the circuit.
Consequently, the lamp will shine. Reducing C will increase reactance and the lamp will shine less
brightly than before 1
𝑑𝜑𝐸
21. Id = ∈ 0 1
𝑑𝑡
Charging current = displacement current = 0.25 mA 1

22. The locus of all point which has same phase of vibration is called a wave front. 1
Plane wave front. 1
OR
𝐼 = 4𝐼0 cos2 (∅/2)
(i) Path difference 𝜆/4⟹ phase difference 𝜋/2 ½
𝐼1 = 4𝐼0 𝑋1/2 = 2𝐼0 ½
i. Path difference 𝜆/4⟹ phase difference 2𝜋/3 ½
𝐼1 = 4𝐼0 𝑋1/4 = 𝐼0 ½

23. (a) (i) There in minimum frequency required for the incident light to produce photoelectric effect.
1
(ii) Stopping potential does not changes with intensity of light. 1

24. number of spectral lines =6 1

energy level diagram

25. It is the distance of charged particle from the centre of the nucleus, at which the whole of the initial
kinetic energy of the (far off) charged particle gets converted into the electric potential energy of the
system. ½2
Distance of closest approach (r) is given by, r = 1 ×2𝑍𝑒 ½
4𝜋∈0 𝐾
Therefore when K is doubled r becomes r/2 1

1. According to Rutherford model, electron orbiting around the nucleus, continuously radiates energy
due to the acceleration; hence the atom will not remain stable. 1
2. As electron spirals inwards; its angular velocity and frequency change continuously; therefore it
will emit a continuous spectrum. 1
26. i) Let Cx = C, Cy= 4C
For series combination C = CxCy / (Cx+Cy)
4 µF = 4C/5
C = 5 µF
Cx = 5 µF , Cy = 20 µF 1
ii) Total charge Q = CV = 4 µF *15V = 60 µC
Vx = Q/ Cx = 60/5 = 12 V
Vy = Q/ Cy =60/20 = 3 V 1
iii) Ex/ Ey = (½ QX 2/CX) / (½ QY2/CY) = 20/5 = 4:1 1

27. Derivation of the equation E = ½ LI2 and hence arrive the equation energy
Energy = ½ ɛ0 E2 3

384
OR
(i) Direction of induced current is abcda ( Clockwise ) 1
(ii) Direction of induced current is acba ( Clockwise ) 1
(iii) Direction of induced current is abcda (Clockwise ) 1
28. For an incident ray, travelling from an optically denser medium to optically rarer medium, the angle
of incidence, for which the angle of refraction is 90o, is called the critical angle. 1

2
29. Derivation of the expression β = Dʎ/d 3

30.

1
ℎ ℎ
ʎ= = , now md > mp 1
√2𝑚𝑞𝑉 √2𝑚𝐾
For the same ʎ we must have Kp > Kd
i.e Proton has more kinetic energy. 1
OR

(a) For the cutoff or threshold frequency, the energy h𝜗0 of the incident radiation must be equal
to work function 𝜑0 so that
𝜑0
𝜗0 = = 5.16 ×1014 Hz 1
ℎ

385
(b) Photocurrent reduces to zero, when maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
equals the potential energy e V0 by the retarding potential V0. Einstein’s Photoelectric equation is
1
eV0 = h𝜗 – 𝜑0= hc/ ʎ - 𝜑0
ʎ = hc / (eV0+ 𝜑0) = 454 nm 1

31 (a) diagram 1
derivation 2
(b)

OR
i) Plot showing the variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle of incidence (1)

ii)

Derivation of expression of refractive index 2

i= (A+D)/ 2
𝜇 = sin i/ sin r = sin [(A+D)/2] / sin(A/2)

ii) Calculation of minimum value of refractive index 2

For total internal reflection I = c
45 ≥ c
Sin (45) ≥ sin c

1/ √2 ≥ 1/ n
i.e. n ≥ √2
Hence minimum value of refractive index must be √2

386
32. i) Average velocity acquired by the electrons in the conductor in the presence of external electric
field. (1)
We know that vd = - eE𝜏/m
Where E = V/l
vd = - eV𝜏/ml
Current I = nAe vd = nAe2V𝜏 / ml
I/V = nAe2𝜏 / ml
1/R = nAe2𝜏 / ml
RA/l = m/ ne2𝜏
𝜌 = m/ ne2𝜏 (2)
(ii) Resistivity of the material of a conductor depends on the relaxation time, i.e.,
temperature and the number density of electrons. (1)
iii) Because constantan and manganin show very weak dependence of
resistivity on temperature (2)
OR
Kirchhoff’s loop rule statement (2)

(3)

33. (a) Definition , Vector form and direction of torque (½+ ½ )

a. Torque , 𝜏 = pE sin 𝜃
⃗⃗
𝜏⃗ = 𝑝⃗ × 𝐸
b. If the field is non uniform the net force on the dipole will not be zero. There will be translatory
motion of the dipole. (1)
c. Net force will be in the direction of increasing electric field.

387
(ii)Net force will be in the direction opposite to the increasing field.
or in the direction of decreasing field
d) The torque on a dipole in electric field is given by:
τ = PE sin θ
q = τ ⁄ l E sin θ = 5 ⁄ (0.05 × 3 × 104 × sin30°) C
= 6.7 mC
Hence, charge on the dipole is 6.7 mC.
OR
a) Diagram (1)
Derivation (2)
b) If we place another similar cone on this, net flux = Q/ ∈ 0
Flux with the upper cone = Q/ ∈ 0 – 3Q /5 ∈ 0 = 8Q / 20∈ 0
This must also be the flux associated with the lower when charge is raised through a height
2H because of symmetry. ( 2)
34.
(i) No! Any slab, howsoever flat, will have roughness much larger than the inter-atomic crystal
spacing (~2 to 3 Å) and hence continuous contact at the atomic level will not be possible.
(ii) No. P semiconductor material didn’t lost or gains electrons. Hence it is neutral material.
(iii)

35.
(i) Diamagnetic material
(ii) Material A is ferromagnetic because here its slope is more. Hence material A is suitable for
making permanent magnet.
(iii) The core of electromagnet should have high permeability, low retentively and low coercivity.
Hence soft iron used.
OR
Keep the device in an iron cavity and move. Iron has high permeability hence it converges all
the magnetic filed through it and the device will be safe.

388
SAMPLE PAPER -5
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
MAX. MARKS:70 TIME:3HRS
General Instructions:

1) There are 35 questions in all.All questions are compulsory.

2) There are five sections Section A, Section B, Section C,Section D and Section E.
3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1mark each, Section B contains 7 questions of 2marks each,
Section C contains five questions of 3marks each, Section D contains three long answer type
questions of 5marks each and Section E contains two case study questions of 4marks each.

SECTION A
1. If a charge ‘q ‘is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the 1
system is in equilibrium,the the value of ‘q ‘ is
i) Q/2 ii) -Q/2 iii) Q/4 iv) -Q/4
2. A cube of metal is given a positive charge Q. For the above system, which of the 1
following statement is true?
i)Electric potential at the surface of the cube is zero ii) electric potential within the cube is
zero iii) Electric field is normal to the surface of the cube iv) Electric field varies within
the cube
3. A piece of copper and another of Germanium are cooled from room temperature 77K.The 1
resistance of
i)copper decreases and Ge increases ii) copper increases and Ge decreases iii) each of
them increases iv) each of them decreases
4. Two identical circular wires P and Q each of radius Rand carrying current I are kept in 1
perpendicular planes such that they have a common centre. The magnitude of the net
magnetic field at the common centre of the two coils is

𝜇𝑜𝐼
i) 𝜇𝑜𝐼 ii) 𝜇𝑜 𝐼𝑅 iii) zero iv)
2𝑅 √2𝑅

389
5. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current i.It is placed in a uniform 1
magnetic field Bo such that Bo is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.The magnetic
force on the loop is
i) Ir Bo ii) 2πirBo iii) πirBo iv) zero
6. The magnetic susceptibility of a material of a rod is 499,permeability of vacuum is 4π x 1
10-7 H/m.Absolute permeability of the material of the rod in H/m is
i) π x 10-4 ii) 2π x 10-4 iii) 3π x 10-4 iv) 4π x 10-4
7. 1

In the circuit diagram shown ,voltage across the capacitor is

i)in phase with the source voltage ii) leads the source voltage by 90o iii) leads the source
voltage by an angle between 0o and 90o iv) lags behind the source voltage by an angle
between 0o and 90o
8. Pick out the statement which is not true 1
i) Sun is a natural source of UV radiations
ii) UV radiations have wavelength extending from 200nm to 400nm
iii) Shortest wavelength UV radiations are beneficial to living tissues while longer
wavelength UV rays are harmful.
iv) UV radiations are used for sterilisation of water.
9. The flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by 1
φ=10t2-50t+250
The induced emf at t=3s is
i) 10V ii) 190V iii) -190V iv) -10V
10. Two coherent sorces of different intensities send waves which interfere.The ratio of 1
maximum intensity to minimum intensity is 25.The intensities of the sources are in the
ratio
i) 25:1 ii) 5:1 iii) 9:4 iv) 625:1
11. Light of wavelength 200Ao falls on a metallic surfaceof work function4.21eV.The 1
stopping potential is
i) 2V ii) 4V iii) 9V iv) 0V

12. In the Bohr model of Hydrogen atom,the lowest orbit corresponds to 1

i) Infinite energy ii) the maximum energy
iii) the minimum energy iv) zero energy

390
13. Which of the following statement is correct? 1
i) The current in a photo cell increases with increasing frequency of light ii) The photo
current is proportional to applied voltage iii)The stopping potential increases
with increasing intensity of incident light
iv) The photo current increases with increasing intensity of incident light
14. In the circuit the phase difference between the p.d across C and L is 1

i) π/2 ii) zero iii) π/4 iv) π

15. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5cm is charged such that potential on its surface is 1
10V.The potential at a distance of2cm from the centre of the sphere is :
i) zero ii) 10 V iii) 4V iv) 10/3 V
For Q16 to 18 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
16. ASSERTION(A): Convex mirrors cannot form real images 1
REASON(R): Convex mirror converges the parallel rays that are incident on it.
17. ASSERTION(A): When the Temperature of a semiconductor is increased, the its 1
resistance decreases
REASON(R): The energy gap between valence band and conduction band is very small
for semiconductors
18. ASSERTION(A): Photo electric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light 1
REASON(R): The number of photoelectron s is proportional to the frequency of incident
light
SECTION B
19. a. Write the following radiations in ascending order in respect of their frequencies. 2
X-ray, microwaves, UV Rays, radio waves, Gama rays
b. Name the em wave used in radar.
20. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 2.6x10 -5 . Identify the type of magnetic 2
material and state its two properties.

391
21. The radius of the first electron of the hydrogen atom is 5.3x10 -11 m. What is the radius 2
of the second orbit.
(OR)
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. What are the kinetic energy and
potential energy of the electron in this state.
22. 22. Double convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55, 2
with both faces of the same radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature required if
the focal length is to be 20cm.
23. In a single slit detraction experiment, first minimum of red light (660nm) coincides with 2
the first maximum of some other wavelength λ. Calculate λ.
24. A spherical conducting shell of inner radius r1 and outer radius r2 has charge Q. 2
a) A charge q is placed at the centre of the shell. What is the surface charge density on the
inner and outer surfaces of the shell?
25. a) Two plane sheets of charge having charge densities σ and - σ are parallel to each other. 2
What will be the magnitude of electric field at a point between the plates? b) State Gauss’s
law in electrostatics.
SECTION C
26. A circular coil of radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘I’ .Obtain the expression for the magnetic 3
field due to this coil at a point on the axis of the loop using Biot-Savart’s law.
27. Define mutual inductance between a pair of coils. Derive an expression for the mutual 3
inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of same length wound one over the other.
28. 3

The above fig. shows how the reactance of an inductor varies with frequency
1. Calculate the value of the inductance of the inductor using the information given in
the graph
2. If this inductor is connected in series to a resistor of 8Ω, find what would be the
impedance at 300Hz

392
OR
An a.c. source generating a voltage ε = ε0 sin ωt is connected to a capacitor of
capacitance C. Find the expression for the current I flowing through it. Plot a
graph of ε and I versus t to show that the current is ahead of the voltage by π/2.
29. The graph shown in fig 1 and 2 are for the phenomenon of photoelectric effect 3
1)

i) Identify which of the characteristics of(intensity/frequency) incident light, is

being kept constant in each case.
ii) A metal has a work function of2eV and is illuminated by monochromatic light
of wavelength500nm (a) calculate the threshold wavelength (b) the stopping
potential
OR
(1) Sketch the graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of
incident radiation for two photo sensitive materials A and B having threshold
frequencies νA >νB.
(2) In which case is the stopping potential more and why?
(3) Does the slope of the graph depend on the nature of the material? Explain.

393
30. 3
A hydrogen atom initially in the ground state absorbs a photon which excites it to the n=4
level. Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon.

SECTION D

31. (a) What is electrostatic shielding? Write its two applications 5

(b) An electric field E0=3x104V/m is established between the plates,0.05m apart, of a

parallel plate capacitor. After removing the charging battery, an uncharged metal plate of
thickness t=0.01mm is inserted between the plates. Find the p.d

(i) before and (ii) after the introduction of the metal plate (iii) what would be the p.d if a
dielectric slab(K=2) were introduced in place of metal plate?

(a) Two point charges 20x10-6 C and -4x10-6 C are separated by a distance of 50cm in
air (i) Find the point on the line joining the charges, where the electric potential is
zero (ii) Find the electrostatic potential energy of the system.
(b) Obtain the expression for electric field at a point near a thin infinite plane sheet of
charge density σ Cm-2

32. 5
(a) Define relaxation time of the free electrons drifting in a conductor. Write the relation
between drift velocity of free electrons and relaxation time.
(b) Derive the condition for balance in a Wheatstone bridge.
OR
(a) (i)What is internal resistance of a cell. Write two factors on which it depends.
(ii) A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected to a resistance R,a
current I flows through it.Derive the relation between E,I, r and R
(b) Two cells of e.m.fs and internal resistances E1,r1 and E2,r2 are connected in series.
Obtain expressions for the equivalent emf and resistance of the combination.

33. 5
(a) State Huygens principle.
(b) Define the term wavefront.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope. Derive an
expression for its magnifying power.
OR

394
(a) Write two points of difference between interference pattern and diffraction pattern.
(b) Draw the ray diagram to show the working of a refracting telescope. Derive an
expression for its magnifying power (normal adjustment).
SECTION E
34. 4
Case study
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.
The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds to create a sparkling
brilliance by polishing the diamond with specific cuts, it is adjusted so that most of the
light rays approaching the surface are incident with an angle of incidence greater than
critical angle. Hence, they suffer multiple reflections and this gives the diamond a
sparkling brilliance.

(i) Light cannot easily escape a diamond without multiple internal reflections. What is the
reason?

(ii) The critical angle for diamond is 24.4o. What is its refractive index?

(iii) Write two conditions for total internal reflection

Name a device used in communication which is based on the principle of total internal
reflection.Write one more application of it.

395
35 Case study 4
Semiconductors may exist as elemental semiconductors and also compound
semiconductors. Si and Ge are elemental semiconductor and CdS, GaAs, CdSe,
anthracene, poly pyrrole etc. are the compound semiconductors. Each electron in an atom
has different energy level and such different energy levels continuing forms the band of
energy called as energy bands. Those energy band which has energy levels of Valence
electrons is called as Valence band. And the energy band which is present above the
Valence band is conduction band. On the basis of energy bands materials are also defined
as metals, semiconductors and insulators. In case of metals, conduction band and Valence
band overlaps with each other due to which electrons are easily available for conduction.
In case of insulators, there is some energy gap between conduction band and Valence
band due to which no free electrons are easily available for conduction. In
semiconductors, there is a small energy gap between conduction band and Valence band
and if we give some external energy then electron from Valence band goes to conduction
band due to which conduction will be possible. These semiconductors are classified as
intrinsic semiconductors and extrinsic semiconductors also. Intrinsic semiconductors are
those semiconductors which exist in pure form. The semiconductors doped with some
impurity in order to increase its conductivity are called extrinsic semiconductors.

(i) What is the energy gap between valence band and conduction band for a pure
germanium semiconductor?
(ii) Draw the energy band diagram of a metal.
(iii) Carbon, silicon and germanium have the same lattice structure. Why is carbon
insulator while silicon and germanium intrinsic semiconductor.
Or
Name dopants used to make i) n-type semiconductor ii) p-type semiconductor

396
Class XII
Session: 2022-23
MARKING SCHEME
CBSE SAMPLE PAPER 5 (Theory)
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
QNo Marks
SECTION A
1 (iv) 1
2 (iii) 1
3 (i) 1
4 (iii) 1
5 (iii) 1
6 (ii) 1
7 (iv) 1
8 (iii) 1
9 (iv) 1
10 (iii) 1
11 (i) 1
12 (iii) 1
13 (iv) 1
14 (i) 1
15 (iv) 1
16 A is true but R is false 1
17 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 1
18 Both A and R are false 1
19 a) Radio waves, micro waves, uv rays, x-ray, gamma ray. 1
b) micro wave 1
20 a) Paramagnetic 1
b) any two properties 1
21 rnαn2 . r2/r1=4 1
r2=2.12x10-10m 1
(or)
K=_ve of total energy. K= 13.6eV 1
Potential energy= -13.6-13.6=-27.2eV 1
22 1 =(n21-1) (1/R1-1/R2) 1
𝑓
1
Substitution, calculation and result
R=22cm
23 For diffraction minimum,sin ϴ= nλ/d 1
For diffraction maximum,sin ϴ=(2n+1)λ/2d 1
Λ= 2/3x660=440 nm

24 Surface charge densityon the inner surface=-q/4πr12 1

Surface charge density on outer surface=Q+q/4πr22 1
25 Gauss’s law 1
E=σ/ϵ0 1
26 Diagram 1
derivation 2
27 Definition 1
derivation 2
28 L=XL/2πf = 1/2π X slope of the graph = 3.18x10-3 Hz 2
Z=(R2+XL2)1/2 =10ohm 1
29 a)Intensity, frquency 1
b) λ0=hc/Ф0 = 6.18x10-7m 2
(OR)

397
1) graph 1
2) V0=h/e (ѵ-ѵ0) V0 is more for B 1
3) Slope = h/e so it does not depend on the material 1
30 En=-13.6/n2
E4-E1= 12.75Ev
λ = hc/E4-E1= 0.97x10-7m 2
ѵ = c/ λ = 3.07x1015Hz 1

31 1) making a region free from electric field. It is based on the fact that electric 1
field vanishes inside the cavity of a hollow conductor.
2) Two applications
b) (i) V0=E0Xd=1500V 1
(ii) V=E0(d-t)=1200V 1
(iii) E0(d-t)+(E0/k) t=1350V
(OR) 1
−6 −6
20𝑋10 4𝑋10
a) V= 𝑘 [ 𝑋 - 50−𝑥 ] =0
x= 41cm
𝑞 1
u= 1 1𝑞2 = -1.44J
4𝜋€𝑜 𝑟
derivation of electric field 1
3
32 i) Definition 1
Two factors 1
ii) Diagram
I= 𝐸 1
𝑅+𝑟
2
b) cells in series, diagram, derivation
(OR)
1
Definition
1
Relation, vd=Ee/m𝜏
3
derivation

33 Huygens principle 1
Definition 1
Ray diagram 1.5
derivation 1.5

33 OR
Two points 2
Ray diagram 1.5
derivation 1.5
34 CASE STUDY
(i)since its critical angle with reference to air is very small. 1
(ii)2.42 1
(iii)angle of incidence must be greater than critical angle.ray should travel from
denser to rarer medium
Or 2
Optical fibre,any one use
35 (i)nearly 0.75 eV 1
(ii) E B diagram 1
Iii Energy gap will be least for Ge,followed by Si and highest for C.Hence number
of free electrons is negligible in C. 2
Or
As,Sb,P (any one)/Ga ,In,Al (any one)

398

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