ශ්‍රී ලංකා කණිෂ්ඨ විද්‍යා ඔලිම්පියාඩ්- 2022

SRI LANKAN JUNIOR SCIENCE OLYMPIAD-2022

ஸ்ரீ லங் கன் ஜூனியர் சயின் ஸ் ஓல் ய் ம் பிஅட் -2022

Time: Two Hours

EXAM INSTRUCTIONS

1. Write your index number in the space provided on the answer sheet.

2. Select the correct answer for each question from the alternatives A, B,
C, and D and indicate it on the answer sheet with a cross (as shown
below). There is only one correct answer for each question.

Example: If (A) is the correct answer for question 01;

3. If you want to change your answer, circle your first answer and then
indicate the new answer using a cross (as shown below). You can only
make ONE correction per question. Example: If (A) is your first answer
and (D) is your final answer;

4. The total number of questions is 50.

1
1. Which feature/s enable an organism to be identified as a prokaryote?
1. cell wall 2. circular DNA 3. nucleus 4. ribosomes

(A) 2 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 4 only (D) 2 and 4 only

2. The following diagram shows an electronmicrograph of a typical animal cell.

What is the function of the membrane system labelled X?

(A) lipid synthesis
(B) lipid synthesis and transport
(C) protein synthesis
(D) protein synthesis and transport

3. An animal cell and a plant cell are placed in distilled water. The animal cell swells and
bursts, while the plant cell swells but does not burst. What accounts for this difference?
(A) Animal cells have no vacuole.
(B) Animal cells have no cell wall.
(C) Plant cell surface membranes are partially permeable.
(D) Plant cell walls are freely permeable.

4. The diameter of some atoms when they form bonds are given in the following table.

atom single bond / nm Double bond / nm

H 0.060 -
O 0.132 0.110
N 0.140 0.120
C 0.154 0.134

The approximate length of the amino acid shown below was estimated using the
figures in the table.

What would be the approximate length of a dipeptide formed using this amino acid?

(A) 0.9 nm (B) 1.1 nm (C) 1.4 nm (D) 1.7 nm

2
5. The diagram shows a fault in the wall between the atria of human heart.

What effect would this defect have on the blood circulatory system?
(A) increased pressure in the pulmonary artery
(B) irregular heart beat
(C) reduced oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in blood
(D) ventricular systole is delayed

6. Which statements about energy flow in ecosystems are correct?

1. All energy eventually leaves ecosystems in the form of heat.
2. The average energy transfer between trophic levels is 10%.
3. The energy stored and lost from an ecosystem is equal to the energy input
from the Sun.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

7. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds in a length of DNA containing 700
nucleotides?

(A) 350 (B) 700 (C) 1050 (D) 2100

8. Many single-celled animals, living in fresh water, possess vacuoles which contract
regularly, expelling excess water.
Why do the cells of plants living in fresh water not require such vacuoles?
(A) Plant cells have a higher concentration of dissolved solutes than animal
cells.
(B) Plant cell walls are impermeable to water.
(C) Plant cell walls limit cell size.
(D) Plant cells have a lower concentration of dissolved solutes than animal
cells.

9. Which feature of water is least likely affect the life of an animal in a tropical rain
forest?
(A) adhesion with other molecules (B) cohesion between water molecules
(C) low viscosity (D) maximum density at 4 0C

3
10. What determines the rate of water movement from the roots to the leaves of a tall tree?
(A) absorption of water through the root hair cells
(B) root pressure
(C) diffusion of water through the stomata
(D) evaporation of water from the mesophyll cell walls.

11. The diagram below shows a simplified nitrogen cycle.

Which row shows the correct labels for P, Q, R and S?

P Q R S
(A) denitrification nitrogen fixation by decomposition decomposition
lightening
(B) decomposition nitrogen fixation by denitrification decomposition
lightening
(C) nitrification denitrification lightening nitrogen fixation

(D) denitrification nitrogen fixation by decomposition decomposition

rood nodule bacteria

12. The diagram shows the pressure changes in various structures of the right side of the
human heart during the cardiac cycle.

Which structures are represented by the letters X, Y and Z?

X Y Z
(A) pulmonary artery right atrium right ventricle
(B) right atrium pulmonary artery right ventricle
(C) right ventricle pulmonary artery right atrium
(D) right ventricle right atrium pulmonary artery

4
13. The graph represents data on blood vessels and blood flow.

Which row correctly identifies the curves?

velocity of blood pressure of Total cross

flow blood sectional area
(A) X Y Z
(B) X Z Y
(C) Y Z X
(D) Z X Y

14. The diagram represents the life cycle of a sexually reproducing animal.

Which row correctly identifies meiosis and mitosis?

meiosis mitosis
(A) 1 4
(B) 2 1
(C) 3 2
(D) 4 3

15. A polypeptide molecule contains the amino acid sequence:

glycine – leucine – lysine – valine.

The table shows DNA codes for the above amino acids.

glycine leucine lysine valine

CCC GAA TTT CAA

Which tRNA anticodones are needed for the synthesis of the above polypeptide?

(A) CCC GAA TTT CAA (B) CCC GAA UUU CAA
(C) GGG CUU AAA GUU (D) GGG CUU UUU GUU

5
16. Number of protons and number of neutrons of 4 atoms P, Q, R and S are given below.
The isotope of atom P and the atom, which has the same mass number as atom P are,

Protons Neutrons
P 18 19
Q 16 19
R 18 18
S 17 20

(A) R and S (B) Q and R (C) Q and S (D) Only R

17. What is the correct electron arrangement of phosphorus atom?

(A) (B) (C ) (D)

18. Part of the periodic table is given below. What statement is correct about the elements
given in the periodic table?

Li Be

Na Mg

K Ca

(A) Na is more reactive than K.

(B) Atomic radius Mg is larger than that of K.
(C) Li has more metallic character than Be.
(D) Li is a softer metal than Na.

19. Assume that a mole is defined as the number of petals in the flower given below. If the
mass of one mole of H2O molecules is 18.0 g, what is the mass of one molecule of H2O?

(A) 18.01 g (B) 2.25 g (C) 8.00 g (D) 144.00 g

6
20. Consider the following equation;
2 Al (s) + Fe2O3 (s) Al2O3 (s) + 2 Fe (l)
What is the mass of Al needed to make 28 g of Fe according to the given equation?
(Atomic masses: Al = 27, Fe = 56, O =16).

(A) 13.50 g (B) 58.07 g (C) 27.00 g (D) 16.59 g

21. Mass percentage of Carbon (C) of a compound is 80.00%. What could be this
compound? (Atomic masses: C = 12.00, H = 1.00, N = 14.00, O = 16.00).

(A) CO2 (B) C2H6 (C) C6H6 (D) CH4

22. Freezing point and boiling point of water in Fahrenheit (F) are 32 F and 212 F
respectively. Freezing point and boiling point of water in Celsius (C) are 0 C and 100C
respectively. Temperature of water was increased by 15 C. What is this increment by
F?
(A) 8.3 F (B) 59.0 F (C) 27.0 F (D) 54.0 F

23. Some compounds absorb water and form hydrates. In hydrates, water molecules are
loosely bound to the compound. This hydrated water can be removed by heating the
compound. Hydrate of calcium sulfate is written as CaSO4●2H2O, indicating that two
water molecules are present in the hydrate. 50.0 g of CaSO4●2H2O was heated at 105 C
until it gives a constant mass. What is the expected constant mass? (Atomic masses: Ca
= 40, S = 32, O =16, H = 1).

(A) 13.60 g (B) 2.72 g (C) 23.80 g (D) 39.53 g

24. Concentrated hydrochloric acid (Conc. HCl) is a 11 M (11 mol L-1) solution. What is the
volume of Conc. HCl needed to make 750 mL of 6 M HCl?

(A) 49.500 mL (B) 0.409 L (C) 1.275 L (D) 40.900 mL

25. 250 mL of 0.10 M H2SO4 solution was mixed with 200 mL of 0.05 M H2SO4 solution.
What is the H+ concentration of the final solution?

(A) 0.070 mol L-1 (B) 0.156 mol L-1

(C) 0.030 mol L-1 (D) 0.035 mol L-1

26. The volume of H2 gas produced by the following reaction collected at 1 atm pressure and
temperature 0 C is 12.5 L. How much Mg was needed for this reaction according to the
following equation?

Mg (s) + 2 HCl (aq) MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)

(A) 13.392 g (B) 0.999 g (C) 24.000 g (D) 12.000 g

7
27. Among the three compounds given below, one compound is a solid, one compound is a
gas and one compound is a liquid. What is the correct statement given below about these
compounds?

X = CH3CH2CH3 Y = C6H5 COOH Z = CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3

(A) X is a gas, Y is a liquid and Z is a solid.

(B) X is a gas, Y is a solid and Z is a liquid.
(C) X is a liquid, Y is a gas and Z is a solid.
(D) X is a liquid, Y is a solid and Z is a gas.

28. Consider the following reaction;

5 Br- (aq) + BrO3- (aq) + 6 H+ (aq) 3 Br2 (aq) + 3 H2O (l)

In an experiment, rate of removal of BrO3- was found to be 0.10 mol s-1. What is the rate
of formation of Br2 in the reaction?

(A) 0.10 mol s-1 (B) 0.003 mol s-1

(C) 0.30 mol s-1 (D) 0.75 mol s-1

29. Most of the recent explosions done by terrorists were by using an explosive called
“mother of satan”. This explosive is made by reacting the major compound present in nail
polish removing liquid and the major compound present in a disinfectant. What are those
two compounds?

(A) hexane and glycerine (B) acetone and glycerine

(C) acetone and hydrogen peroxide (D) Glycerine and hydrogen peroxide

30. A New method of making acetic acid (CH3COOH) in industries use the reaction given
in the following equation.

CH3OH (l) + CO (g) CH3COOH (l)

When 2 moles of CH3OH is reacted with 1 mole of CO, 40.0 g of CH3COOH was
formed. What is the percentage yield of the reaction?

(A) 100.0 % (B) 33.3 % (C) 66.6 % (D) 0.15%

31. The densities of metals X and Y are 7.0 g cm-3 and 3.0 g cm-3 respectively. The metals
of equal mass are melted and mixed to form an alloy. What is the density of this alloy?
(A) 1.8 g cm-3 (B) 2.1 g cm-3 (C) 4.2 g cm-3 (D) 5.3 g cm-3
32. A step-down transformer changes 240 a.c to 12 a.c. There are 600 turns in the primary
coil. How many turns are there in the secondary coil?
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 120

8
33. The diagram shows three identical lamps connected to two 2V cells.

2V 2V

V
A

When the switches are open the ammeter reads 10 mA. What would be the readings of
the voltmeter and ammeter when the switches are closed?
(A) 4 V, 20 mA (B) 2 V, 20 mA (C) 4 V, 40 mA (D) 4 V, 60 mA

34. The figure below shows how a ray of light from an object O enters the eye, after being
reflected twice. What is the distance to the final virtual image of O form the mirror X?

Mirror X

4 cm

20
cm Mirror Y

(A) 20 cm (B) 24 cm (C) 28 cm (D) 30 cm

35. A cup of hot coffee of mass 200 g is at an initial temperature of 90 C. A wind at
temperature of 20 C is blowing across the cup of coffee at a rate of 0.1 kg s-1. After
moving over the cup, the temperature of the wind increased to 25 C.

0.1 kg s-1

20 C

If the specific heat of coffee is 4 kJ kg-1 C-1 and that of air is 1 kJ kg-1 C-1, what is the
time needed to cool the cup of to 40 C?
(A) 20 s (B) 40 s (C) 50 s (D) 80 s

9
36. A load of 9.0 N has been placed on a light rod which is suspended from two scales, P
and Q as shown in the diagram. The length of the rod is 36 cm.

Which of the following gives the correct readings of scales P and Q?

Reading on P Reading on Q
(A) 3.0 N 6.0 N
(B) 4.5 N 4.5 N
(C) 6.0 N 3.0 N
(D) 9.0 N 9.0 N

37. The speed time graphs of car A and car B are shown below. When will the two cars
meet?

(A) 18 min (B) 36 min (C) 40 min (D) 45 min

38. The atmospheric pressure (P) is equal to the pressure at the bottom of 10 m deep water.
An air bubble rises to the surface of a lake from its bottom which is 20 m deep. The
volume of the air bubble is 6 cm3 at the bottom of the lake. What would be the volume
of air bubble at the surface of the lake?

(A) 9 cm3 (B) 12 cm3 (C) 15 cm3 (D) 18 cm3

10
39. A ray of light is incident on three glass blocks as shown in the figure. The critical angle
of glass is 41.

42 42

42
O
45

(1) (2) (3)

In which of the diagram(s) is /are the path of the light ray is correct?
(A) (1) only (B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (1) and (3) only (D) All Correct

40. A trolley runs from P to Q along a track. At Q, its potential energy is 50 kJ less than at
P. At P, the kinetic energy of the trolley is 5 kJ. Between P and Q, the work trolley does
against friction is 10 kJ. What is the kinetic energy of the trolley at Q?

(A) 35 kJ (B) 45 kJ (C) 55 kJ (D) 65 kJ

41. Two wooden blocks connected by a string are moving with the acceleration of 2 m s-2.

Which gives the force F and tension T in the string respectively?

(A) F =10 N, T= 16 N (B) F =16 N, T= 10 N
(C) F =10 N, T= 10 N (D) F =16 N, T= 16 N

42. A crane lifts a load of 6000 N through a vertical distance of 15 m in 30 s. what is the
average power during this operation?
(A) 200 W (B) 400 W (C) 3000 W (D) 6000 W

11
43. A set up has been arranged using a battery, a coil, a metal nail and a pivoted light rod.

What happens to the edge of P when the switch is closed?

(A) It goes down and stays down.
(B) It goes up and stays up.
(C) It goes down and then returns to its original position
(D) It goes up and then returns to its original position.

44. A measuring cylinder containing some water stands on a scale pan. A solid ball is
lowered into water and the water level rises from the 30 cm3 mark to the 40 cm3 mark.
The scale reading increases from 100 g to 180 g.

What is the density of the material of the ball?

(A) 2 g cm-3 (B) 4.5 g cm-3 (C) 8.0 g cm-3 (D) 18 g cm-3
45. The diagram shows a thin converging lens of focal length f. Where must an object be
placed to produce a real image in the four positions, A, B, C and D shown?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

46. If 22𝑥−2 = 2𝑥−1 × 8 , then x is

(A) -2 (B) -1 (C) 2 (D) 4

12
 (𝑆+𝑇)2
47. If 𝑅 = P, then S is
3

3𝑅 2 3𝑃 2
(A) 𝑠 = ( 𝑃 ) − 𝑇 (B) 𝑠 = ( 𝑅 ) − 𝑇

3𝑅 3𝑃
(C) 𝑠 = √ 𝑃 − 𝑇 (D) 𝑠 = √ 𝑅 − 𝑇

48. Which gives the gradient and intercept of the shown line respectively?

3 7 3 5
(A) − , (B) − ,
4 3 2 3

1 3 2 7
(C) − , (D) − ,
3 5 3 3

4𝑥+3 2𝑥−1
49. If − = 3 , 𝑤ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑥?
2 3
7 3 8 7
(A) 3 (B) -7 (C) 7 (D) 8

50. What is the area of shape shown below?

(A) 582 cm2 (B) 707 cm2 (C) 732 cm2 (D) 750 cm2

((((((((((((((())))))))))))))

13