During preparation of class I amalgam if a noncarious fissure is evident in the occlusal surface

of preparation
A) The preparation should be extended solely to include the fissure and filled with amalgam
B) he preparation should not be extended to include the fissure, the fissure Chould instead be sealed
after the amalgam has been placed
C) The preparation should be extended to include the fissure and the fissure should be left for
remineralization
D) Nothing of the above are true
ANSWER: B
Minimal occlusal gingival thickness of amalgam to resist fracture during function is:
A-0.5 B-0.8. C- 1.5 D- 2.5
Answer: C
A carious lesion that appears radiographically to have penetrated about two thirds of the way
through proximal enamel:
A) Has actually penetrated DEJ
B) Has not penetrated DEJ
C) Still has the potential for remineralization of the etiologic conditions are changed
D) No potential for remineraliation since it penetrated dentin
Answer: A
A carious lesion that appears radiographically to have penetrated about two thirds of the way
through proximal enamel:
A) Has actually penetrated DEJ
B) Has not penetrated DEJ
C) Still has the potential for remineralization if the etiologic conditions are changed
D) No potential for remineralization since it penetrated dentin
1. (A+B). 2. (A+C). 3.(B+D) 4. (A+D)
Answer: 4
Life expectancy of a restoration is dependent on all of the following except:
1- The dentist's age
2- The age of the patient.
3- The restorative material

4- Changing dentists
A-1
B-1.4
C-1,2,4
D- non of the above
Answer: B
Cavity can be extended for all the following reasons except:
A soft carious dentin,
B for marginal modification,
discolored dentin under amalgam,
D-to create a retentive cavity form.
Answer: C
Diamonds are superior to carbide bur for cutting:
Cementum.
Dentine
Enamel
Soft tissue.
Carries
Answer: enamel
Instruments made for handling resins are made of:
a. stainless steel
b.carbon steel.
c.teflon coated metal
d platinum.
e.gold.
Answer: A
most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is seen at:
a. cavosurface margin
b. the contact area.
C. the isthmus area

d. proximal box.
e. gingival floor
Answer: C
Fluoride rich materiais include?
A. Silicate cement
B Glass ionomer cement
C. Polycarboxylate cements
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Role of Calcium hydroxide as liner is:
A) Obtundent effect
B) Stimulate formation of dentin bridge in cases of Direct pulp capping
C) Make a good seal against thermal Insulaters
D) Two of the above are true
E) None is true
Answer: D
According to amalgam bonding which is true:
A. It's useless procedure and not recommended anymore
B. Potentially doesn't reduce microleakage or increase fracture resistance
C. The mechanism of bonding is predominantly mechanical in nature
D. None of the above is true
Answer: C
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………
About matrix band adaptation in class Il amalgam restoration which of the following is false :
A- It should be 0.5 below gingival floor of proximal box
B-Matrix band will temporarily form a wall to adapt amalgam restoration
C-Prewedging may be helpful in cases of largerly spaced teeth
D-Matrix band should be used in cases of large class I extending to the buccal surface

Answer: C
About wedges in class Il which of the following is false :
A- Double wedging is a scenario in which one wedge is inserted from buccal embrasure ,while the
other from lingual embrasure
B-piggyback wedging One wedge is inserted normally from lingual embrasure and the other one is
inserted between the wedge and matrix at right angle to the first one
C-Wedge-Wedging in which Two wedges are used from the same embrasure the larger one is
inserted normally while the other a smaller one is inserted above the first one
D- Wedges move the gingival apically and help in support matrix
Answer: B
36-The clinical function of zinc in amalgam alloy is:
A- De oxidizer
B- Hydrogen scavenger
C- Alloys without zinc are plastic
D- All of the above
Answer: A
Pain after 3-5 days of amalgam restoration most likely due to:
A -Delayed Expansion
B- Formation of Nitrogen ion
C-Oil contamination
D-Pulpal involvement
Answer: A
About Arrested Caries which of the following is false:
A-Inactive Caries
B- Highly remineralized surface
C- remineralized lesion consists mainly of Hydroxyapatite Crystals
D-Highly resistant to Acid attacks
Answer: C

Your patient came to you after doing Class II Amalgam restoration complaining of pain on
biting of tooth 36 (lower left first molar) and he can't insert the floss between 36,37, the
probable diagnosis is:
A- Underfilled class II composite restoration
B- Broken mesiolingual cusp
C- Overhanged restoration in the proximal area
D-Overfilled restoration on the occlusal part
Answer: C
Retention of Amalgam in Class Il cavity depends on:
A-Micromechanical retention
B-Macromechanical retention
C- Chemical retention
D- Microchemical retention
Answer: B
- Very grainy mix of amalgam indicates:
A- Overtrituration
B- Over carving
C-Undertrituration
D-None of the above
Answer: C
Regarding Amalgam restorations which of the following is true:
A- Too much carving may cause flattening of restoration and facilitate burnishing
B- If the carving is too deep, the bulk of amalgam may become too thin and may cause fracture under
occlusal load
C-Amalgam tends to expand and cause microleakage after few days
D- longer trituration time will not accelerate setting reaction of amalgam
Answer: C
amalgam restoration may be applied in which of the following teeth:
A-Class III of upper left canine
B-Class V of upper first premolar
C-Class I of upper lateral

D-Class V of lower first molar

Answer: D
About Class II which of the following is false :
A-occlusal preparation is mandatory in case of presence of Deep Caries occlusally
B-Lathecut amalgam tends to overhang proximally
C- In case of superficial caries occlusally we can do Resin Fissure sealant occlusally after restoring
the proximal box with amalgam
D-Fracture of Amalgam in the proximal box sometimes happens due to inadequate isthmus depth
Answer: B
Amalgam polishing is done immediately after restoration
Answer: false
Retaining unsupported enamel is permissible in caries-control procedures because this tooth
structure, although undermined, assists in the retention of the restorative material. Removal of
unsupported enamel occurs when the final restoration is placed at a later date
Answer: false
Low sensitivity of broken amalgam restoration 10 years ago maybe explained by:
A-Presence of good liner
B. self-sealing ability d B-self-sealing ability due to corrosion byproducts of amalgam alloy
C-sealing of dentinal tubules with desensitizing agent
D- using spherical type of amalgam alloy
Answer: B
Secondary retentive features in Class Il amalgam restorations includes all of the following
except
A-Keys and grooves
B-Pins
C-Slots
D- perforations
Answer: D
Reparative dentin is:
A-Secondary dentin
B-Caused by long standing irritation to pulp
C-It's caused after doing root canal treatment
D- None of the above is true
Answer: B
The single most important factor in protecting the pulp form insult is:
a. Rinsing the preparation with chlorhexidine
b. Placing base or liner on every cavity
C. Using composite as a restorative material
d. The amount of remaining dentin
Answer: D
is needed to remove the smear layer.........
a. Diamond bur
b. Carbide bur
C. 7th generation bonding agent
d. None of the above
Answer: D
Calcium hydroxide is used as a liner in deep cavity preparation because
a. It acts as a thermal insulator
b. Distributes the stress from the restoration and creates thermal insulation
C Stimulates secondary dentin formation
d. None of the above
Answer:C

Most Important Operative Dentistry MCQs With Explanations

1. The following chemically bond to the tooth:
A. Composite resin.
B. Dental sealants.
C. Glass ionomer cement. ***
D. All of the above.

2. Compomer restorative materials are:

A. Glass ionomer with polymer components
B. Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses. ***
C. Composite resin for cervical restorations only.
3. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class II amalgam cavity should be removed using
:
A. Straight chisel.
B. Hatchet.
C. Gingival curette
D. Gingival marginal trimmer. ***
4. Removal of Undermined Enamel in Class II cavity is done by :
A. Chisel. ***
B. Angle former
C. Excavator
5. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam restoration:
A. 30 degree
B. 60 degree
C. 90 degree ***
D. 130 degree.
6. Hand instrument which we used to make internal angles retentive grooves and preparation
of cavity walls in the cavity is:
E. Angle former. ***
F. Chisel.
G. File.
H. Enamel hatchet
7. To provide maximum strength of amalgam restoration the cavo-surface angles
should:
1. Approach 75 with outer surface.
2. Approach 90 with outer surface.
3. Be supported by sound dentine.
4. Be located in area free of occlusal stress.
A. 1+3 and 4.
B. 1+3.
C. 2+3+4. ***
D. 3+4.
8. Which of the following materials has been shown to stimulate reparative dentine
formation most effectively when applied to the pulpal wall of a very deep cavity:
A. Copalite varnish.
B. Calcium hydroxide preparation. ***
C. Zinc phosphate cement.
D. Anhydrous glass ionomer cement.
9. Calcium hydroxide is the best pulp capping material because:
A. It has the best seal over pulp.
B. It is alkaline + less irritating to the pulp.
C. It induces reparation dentine formation. ***
10. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from:
A. Improper cavity preparation. ***
B. Faulty manipulation.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.
11. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics:
1. Micro leakage decrease with the aging of the amalgam restoration.
2. It is the least technique sensitive of all current direct restorations.
3. High dimensional changes.
A. 1 , 2 and 3.
B. 1 and 3.
C. 1 and 2. ***
D. 2 only.
12. When polishing the amalgam restoration:
A. Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.
B. Wait 24 hours.
C. A and b. ***
D. B only.
13. Maximum time elapsed before condensation of amalgam after titration:
A. 1minute.
B. 3minutes. ***
C. 9minutes.
14. After amalgam trituration, the mix should be placed within:
A. 1 min. ***
B. 3 min. ***
C. 5 min.
15. MOD amalgam restoration with deep mesial box, patient comes with pain related to it after
1 month due to:
A. Pulp involvement. ***
B. Supraocclusion.
C. Upon contact.
D. Gingival recession.
16. Reduction in amalgam restoration should be:
A. 1-1.5 mm.
B. 1.5-2 mm. ***
C. 2-3 mm.
D. 3-5 mm.
17. Depth of amalgam restoration should be:
A. 1 – 1.5 mm.
B. 1.5 – 2 mm. ***
C. 2 – 3 mm.
D. 3 – 5 mm.

18. Silicate cement:

1. First tooth colored restoration.
2. It can be used as permanent filling.
3. It contains 15 % fluoride.
A. 1 , 2 and 3.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 1 and 3. ***
D. 1 only.
19. Length of pins must be equals in both tooth and restoration by a depth of:
A. 1 mm.
B. 2 mm. ***
C. 3 mm.
D. 4 mm.
20. Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for:
A. Increased retention. ***
B. Increased resistance.
C. Increased strength.
D. A and b.
21. What can we use under composite restoration:
A. Ca (oh). ***
B. ZOE.
C. ZINC phosphate cement.
22. The x- ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior teeth is:
A. Periapical x-ray. ***
B. Bitewing x-ray.
C. Occlusal x-ray.
D. None of the above.
23. What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:
A. 2% copper
B. 4% copper
C. 10 % copper
D. 13 % copper ***
24. To prevent discoloration under amalgam filling:
A. Use Zn phosphate box.
B. Use cavity varnish. ***
C. Wash the cavity with NaOCL b4 filling.
D. Use the correct amalgam-alloy ratio.
25. Polishing bur have:
A. Less than 6 blades.
B. 6-7 blades.
C. 10-12 blades.
D. More than 12 blades. ***
26. Rubber dam is contraindicated in:
A. Pt with obstructive nose. ***
B. Mentally retarded Pt.
C. Un comparative child.
D. A and b.
27. Pt complain from pain in 45 which had gold onlays. The pain could be due to:
A. Chemicals from cement.
B. High thermal conductivity of gold. ***
C. Related to periodontal ligament.
D. Cracked tooth or fractured surface.
28. Pt complain from pain during mastication which had gold onlays. The pain could be
due to:
A. Chemicals from cement.
B. High thermal conductivity of gold.
C. Related to periodontal ligament. ***
D. Cracked tooth or fractured surface.
29. Class II composite resin is lined by:
A. G.I. ***
B. Reinforced ZOE.
C. ZOE with epoxy cement.
D. Cavity varnish.
30. In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is:
A. 1/2 inter cuspal distance.
B. 1/3 inter cuspal distance. ***
C. 2/3 inter cuspal distance.
31. Selection of shade for composite is done:
A. Under light.
B. After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam.
C. None of the above. ***
32. Most commonly, after placement of amalgam restoration PT. Complain from pain with:
A. Hot.
B. Cold. ***
C. Occlusal pressure.
D. Galvanic shock.
E. Sweet.
33. Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it is:
A. Simulate formation of 2nd dentine. ***
B. Not irritant to the pulp.
C. For thermal isolation.
34. In placement of rubber dam:
A. 4 jaw contact in teeth.
B. Only 4 contacts 2 lingual surface and 2 buccal surface. ***
C. Only 4 contacts 2 mesial and 2 distal.

1.Toilet of cavity is:

A. Removal of debris by washing with H2O.
B. Removal of debris by cold air spray.
C. Removal of debris by hot air spray.
D. Washing the cavity with soap solution.

Answer:A

2.Most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is Seen at:

A. Cavosurface margin.
B. The contact area.
C. The isthmus area.
D. Proximal box.

Answer : C

3.Which one of the following statements about cavity preparations is FALSE?

A.Class II cavity preparations for amalgam restorations must be extended onto the occlusal surface to
provide adequate retention
B.If thin walls remain following a multisurface cavity preparation, these should be reduced and a
cuspal coverage restoration provided
C.Resin composite should not be used to restore a cavity with subgingival margins
D.The ‘slow’ hand piece should be used with water

Answer : A

4.Tooth surfaces involved in class II design 6 are:

A. Occlusal, proximal, part of facial and lingual surfaces.
B. Occlusal, facial and lingual surfaces.
C. Proximal and facial/ lingual surfaces.
D. Proximal, axial angle and facialcervical

Answer : A

5.Class III amalgam restorations are usually prepared on:

A. Distal surfaces of anterior teeth.
B. Mesial surfaces of canine.
C. Distal surfaces of canine.
D. Distal surfaces of incisors and mesial surfaces of canine.

Answer : C

6.When preparing a cavity the size of the access is dictated by:

A.The type of bur used in the air rotor
B. The need to remove excess tooth tissue
C. The need to allow access to the decay
D. The rule of extension for prevention

Answer: C.

7.In a cavity preparation cavo-surface margin will be junction between:

A. Cavity wall/ floor and adjacent tooth surface.
B. Cavity wall and floor.
C. Floor of occlusal box and approximial box.
D. Approximial wall of one tooth with another.

Answer : A

8. The optimum depth of a self threading pin for an amalgam restoration is:
A. 0.5 mm.
B. 1 mm.
C. 2 mm.
D. 4 mm.

Answer: C
9. G.V. Black concluded that the following areas on tooth surface are relatively non self
cleanable:
A. Pits and fissures.
B. Tips and cusps.
C. Crests of marginal/ crusing ridges.
D. All inclined planes of cusps and ridges.

Answer : A

10. Caries-affected dentine:

A. Contains bacteria
B. Is demineralised
C. Is the same as caries-infected dentine
D. Should always be removed when a cavity is present

Answer: B.

Reparative dentin is:

a.none is true

b.Caused by long standing irritation to pul

c.It's caused after doing root canal treatment

d.Secondary dentin

Tooth preparation for class Il direct composite restoration rives, excepti

A. Removing faulty structure (Caries or old restoration)
B. Lingual approach is preferred
C.Microfilled composite is preferred in cases where centric stops occlude on the restoration.
D. Unsupported facial enamel may be preserved for bonding and no need to be removed.
During composite restorations it is generally recommended that no more than 1.5 to 2-mm
increments be light cured at a time (Depth of cure), that's because an

A Filler particles tend to scatter the light and some small particles from penetrating deep areas will
prevent
B. Photoinitiators present only on top surface of composite
C. Oxygen prevent light cure from penetration
D. Matrix phase prevent light cure from entering and interact with Silane coupling agent
Shade selection should be determined:

A. After removal of caries or faulty restorations

B. Before removal of caries or faulty restorations
C. At dry environment
D. After applying rubber dam

If bleaching (whitening) the teeth is contemplated, it should be done 14-21 days before any
composite restorations are placed, this is because:
A. Residual bleaching material will affect the color of the new composite restoration
B. Formation of oxygen inhibited layer that will interfere with polymerization of resin composite
C. Residual bleaching material will prevent the etching process
D. It's not true to wait after bleaching instead you can make your resin restoration directly

During preparation of class I amalgam if a noncarious fissure is evident in

the antall of preparation: Occlusal Surface

A) The preparation should be extended solely to include the fissure and filled with amalgam
B.The preparation should not be extended to include the fissure, the fissure Should instead be sealed
after the amalgam has been placed
C) The preparation should be extended to include the fissure and the fissure should be left for
remineralization
D) Nothing of the above are true
Minimal occlusogingival thickness of amalgam to resist fracture during function is
A) 0.5 mm
B) 0.8 mm
C.1.5 mm
D)2.5

A carious lesion that appears radiographically to have penetrated about two. thirds of the way
through proximal enamel

A) Has actually penetrated DEJ

B) Has not penetrated DEJ

C) Still huas changed the potential for remineralization if the etiologic condition conditions are

D) No potential for remineraliation since it penetrated dentin

Answer 4.(A+D)
Tunnel restoration refers to

A) making a a restoration with amalgam or Glass ionomer for huge caries cavity like MOD
B) small restoration when minmal caries presents in the proximal wall of class two without breaking
the proximal marginal ridge
C.large restoration when large caries presents in the proximal wall of class wo without breaking the
proximal marginal ridge
D) large restoration when large caries presents in the proximal wall of class two with breaking the
proximal marginal ridge

How does it take time for complete reminerlization for an accidntally etched tooth surface:
A) one week
B.two weeks
C) one month
D) two months
To provide a good resistance form for class two amalgam restoration the occlusal-extention-of-
preparation should be of the intercuspal distance
A.1/4
B) 1/5
C) 2/3
D)1/2
7- In class two amalgam restoration the narrower faciolingual extention through occlusal
preparation the more breakdown will occur, secondly the junction between occlusal and
proximal preparation must have adequate depth occlusogingivally of 1-2 mm.
A) First statement is true second is false
B.First statement is false second is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false
Complete rentoval of etchant and dissolved calcium phosphate and preservation of the clean
etched field is crucial to the longevity of resin enamel bond. For this reason the isolation with
rubber diam is of than Isolation with cotton rolls X no diference
A.First statement is true, second is false
B) First statement is False, second is true
C) Both staternents are true
D) Both statements are false
Fifth generation adhesives, which is false
A) Called Total etch or etch and rinse system
B) require multisteps so it's time consuing and technique sensitive
C.does not remove the smear layer but dissolve it X
D) It's the golden standards of adhesives we use nowdays

Main problem with Fifth generation adhesive is

A) One step system
B) does not require a good isolation
C.may cause post operative sensitivity
D)Technique insensitive
. In molar, incisor hypomineralization which of the following is correct:
A.it mainly affects the occlusal surfaces of the 1st permanent premolars.
B- affected teeth are usually not sensitive.
C- its a systemic disorder in children between the age of 4-6 years.
D- several causes may be responsible including respiratory diseases & high fever.
Regarding generalized enamel hypoplasia which is false:
A-teeth may appear yellow because of the exposed dentin.
B-bonded restorations will perform as good as when boning to a normal tooth.
C-there is a defect in the formation of the enamel matrix.
D- enamel may appear pitted or granular.

regarding micro abrasion which is false:

A. micro abrasion can be beneficial in cases of shallow and deep white patches caused by
developmental or hereditary conditions.
-B-the procedure Includes rubbing the affected enamel with pumice after etching it.
C- it is advised to polish the enamel and to apply fluoride after micro abrasion.

which of the following sentences is correct:

A- in classill composite restoration the bur access is usually buccal.

B-we polish the composite after placement in order not to wear the opposing tooth.
C-in class V restorations the bevel is not important.
D- in class ll composite restorations the inter proximal wall is beveled safely using oscillating
instruments.
Life expectancy of a restoration is dependent on all of the following except:

1- The dentist's age.

2- The age of the patient.
3- The restorative material.
4- Changing dentists.
A-1
8-1,4
C-1,2,4
D-non of the above
Cavity can be extended for all the following reasons except:
A- soft carious dentin.
B- for marginal modification.
C-discolored dentin under amalgam
D- to create a retentive cavity form

When two teeth adjacent to each other have class. Illesions Liesiges, you should prepare the
(smaller/larger) one first and fill the (smaller larger) one first
A. Larger/Larger.
B. Larger/Smaller.
C. Smaller/Larger.
D. Smaller/Smaller.
Tooth preparation for class Il direct composite restoration rives, exce

A. Removing faulty structure (Caries or old restoration)

B. Lingual approach is preferred
C.Microfilled composite is preferred in cases where centric stops occlude on thei restoration.
D. Unsupported facial enamel may be preserved for bonding and no need to be removed
During composite restorations it is generally recommended that no more than 1.5 to 2-mm
increments be light cured at a time (Depth of cure), that's becautan

A .Filler particles tend to scatter the light and some small particles from penetrating deep areas will
prevent
B. Photoinitiators present only on top surface of composite
C. Oxygen prevent light cure from penetration
D. Matrix phase prevent light cure from entering and interact with Silane coupling agent

Shade selection should be determined:

A. After removal of caries or faulty restorations
B. Before removal of caries or faulty restorations
C. At dry environment
D. After applying rubber dam

If bleaching (whitening) the teeth is contemplated, it should be done 14-21 days before any
composite restorations are placed, this is because:
A Residual bleaching material will affect the color of the new composite restoration
B. Formation of oxygen inhibited layer that will interfere with polymerization of resin composite
C. Residual bleaching material will prevent the etching process
D. It's not true to wait after bleaching instead you can make your resin restoration directly

According to amalgam bonding which is true:

A. It's useless procedure and not recommended anymore
B. Potentially doesn't reduce microleakage or increase fracture resistance
C. The mechanism of bonding is predominantly mechanical in nature
D. None of the above is true

. A procedure where the deepest layer of the remaining affected carious dentin is covered with
a layer of biocompatible, material in order to prevent pulpal exposure and further trauma to
pulp is called:
A.Direct pulp capping
B. Apexogensis
C.Indirect pulp capping****
D. Apexification
Fluorapatite resists attacks by acids better than apatiteitselt?
A True
B. False.
Diamonds are superior to carbide bur for cutting:
A.Cementum
B.Dentine
c. Enamel.
d.Soft tissue.
e.Carries.
When restoring a darker shade of composite, keep in mind the following?
A.UV light is better than visible light
B. You must keep the light 2 mm away or more
C. You should cure for longer than normal
D. Darker shades have less chemical bonding
most common fracture occurring in amalgam restoration is seen at:
a. cavosurface margin.
b. the contact area.
c. the isthmus area.
d. proximal box.
e. gingival floor.
. Fluoride rich materials include?
A. Silicate cement
B. Glass ionomer cement
C. Polycarboxylate cements
D. All of the above
The material of choice for restorative treatment for root caries is
a. amalgam restoration
b. resin composite restoration
c. glass ionomer restoration
d. cast restoration
Class II composite resin is lined by:
A.Glass ionomer
B.Reinforced ZOE.
C.ZOE with epoxy cement.
D. Cavity varnish.
The addition of enables the universal bonding agents to be used with any etching technique
and bond zirconia:
A. Hema
B. TEGOMA
C. BPDM
D. None of the above
Main drawback of amalgam restoration is:
Corrosion products
Shrinkage
delayed expansion
marginal breakdown
During prepration of deep class I and after cleaning off the whole caries a pin point pulp
exposure occurs
A.apply Calcium hydroxide to the whole floor, then Glass ionomer base and final restoration
B.Apply MTA to the area of exposure then Amalgam as base and Glass ionomer as final restoration
C.Apply MTA of thickness of 4 mm then Amalgam restoration
D.apply Calcium hydroxide only to the area of exposure, then Glass ionomer base and final
restoration

About Arrested Caries which of the following is false :

A.reminerlized lesion consists mainly of Hydroxyapetite Crystals
B.Highly reminerlized surface
C.Inactive caries
D.Highly resistant to Acid attacks
Regarding Amalgam restorations which of the following is true
A.If the carving is too deep, the bulk of amalgam may become too thin and may cause fracture under
oc
B.longer trituration time will not accelerate setting reaction of amalgam
C.Amalgam tends to expand and cause microleakage after few days
-D.Too much carving may cause flattening of restoration and facilitate burnishing

Low sensitivity of broken amalgam restoration 10 years ago maybe explained by:
A.self sealing ability due to corrosion byproducts of amalgam alloy
B.Presence of good liner
C.using spherical type of amalgam alloy
D.sealing of dentinal tubules with desensitizing agent
If you want to re-do class I amalgam restoration because of broken amalgam piece occlusally,
which is false:
A.Any old material (base or liner) remaining maybe left in place if there's no evidence of recurrent
caries and if it's periphery intact and the tooth pulp with no symptoms
B.All amalgam restoration should be removed completely including base and liner if present
regardless the status of pulp
C.If there's risk of pulpal exposure it's advisable not to remove the deepest portion of restoration,
provided that the tooth is wit na symptoms
Pain after 3-5 days of amalgam restoration most likely due to :
A.Pulpal involvement
B.Delayed Expansion
C.Oil contamination
D.Formation of Nitrogen ion
A procedure where the deepest layer of the remaining affected carious dentin is covered with a
layer of blocompatible material order to prevent pulpal exposure and further trauma to pulp is
called:
A.Indirect pulp capping
B.apexogenesis
C.apexification
D.direct pulp cap
Main problem with amalgam is:
A.elastic
B. malleable
C.brittle
D. plastic
In judging the adequacy of removal of infected dentin, the best way to assess:
A.Caries detecting solution (Dye)
B.high speed bur
C.low speed bur
D.hand instrument
What Class/Classes of cavities is/are found on all teeth anterior and posterior
A.class i
B.Class I and Class III
C.Class I,V,VI
D.Class I,V,IV

Remineralization of the carious lesion in teeth occurs when the pH:

A.decrease below3.8
B.Rises above 8
C.decrease below 5.2
D.Rises above 5.5
 In cases with dentinal hypersensitivity and you don't have enough time for placement of
definitive restoration, which material would you prefer to use as a base and temporary
restoration
Al conventional glass ronomer
B) 206 or IRM
C.RMGI
D) Water settable Glass ionomer
One of the following is a major privilege of using glass ionomer as base:
A) Sedative effect to pulp
B.Chemically adhesion to tooth structure
C) Technique insensitive
D) Short setting time

amalgam restoration may be applied in which of the following teeth:

A.Class III of upper left canine
B.Class V of upper first premolar
C-Class I of upper lateral
D.Class V of upper first premolar
E.Class V of lower first molar

Hand instrument that is used to make internal angle retentive grooves and preparation of the
cavity walls is:
A.Hoe
B.hatchet
C.reamer
Which permanent teeth are most susceptible to dental caries
A.Lower first molars.
B. upper incisans
C. upper third molars
D.upper premolars
The floor of the occlusal portion of a classil cavity for amalgam should be
A. in enamel
B.at least 2mm into de
C.extended to the ercamel-gentin junction:
D. extended just beyond the enamel dentin junction
The maxillary lateral incisor overjets what tooth or teeth?
A. the mandibular central incisors.
B.the mandibular canines.
C.the mandibular lateral mosor
D.the mandibular canines and lateral incisors
Reverse curve in class II proximal outline:
A) Mesiolingual Enamel wall is parallel to enamel rod direction
B) Buccally reverse curve is unnecessary
C.Mesiobuccal Enamel wall is parallel to enamel rod direction
D) None of the above is true

Which of the following is true about proximal box in class II:

A) Supragingival margins should be avoided as possible because of difficulty to make a good
isolation from gingival cervicular fluid
B) Extending gingival margins into gingival sulcus should be avoided as possible
C) The location of final proximal margins should be done with high speed
D.All are true
If you want to re-do class i amalgam restoration because of broken amalgam plece occlusally,
which is false
A) Any old material (base or liner) remaining maybe left in place if there's no
evidence of recurrent caries and if it's periphery is intact and the tooth pulp with
no symptoms
B) All amalgam restoration should be removed completely including base and liner if present
regardless the status of puip
C) If there's risk of puipal exposure it's advisable not to remove the deepest partion of restoration,
provided that the tooth is with no symptoms
D) Best liner up to date is MTA

Which of the following is above the base of the gingival sulcus?

A the crown of the tooth.
B. the muco-gingival junction.
C. the attached gingiva.
D. the vestibule.
How wide is the attached gingiva?
A. 2-3mm.
B. 1-2mm.
C. 3.5-4mm
D.it varies.

What is the typical maximunt hight of the free gingiva?

A.1mm.
B. 2mm.
C.3mm.
D. 4mm.
what is the name of the inter-proximal free gingiva?
A.papilla.
B.sulcus.
C.ingival crest
D.masticatory mucosa.
in cavity preparation the width of the cavity :
A) intercuspal distance
B) 2/3 intercuspal distance
C) 1/3 intercuspal distance
D.Intercuspal distance

The CSA margin in cavity preparation is:

A.Cavity wall/floor and adjacent tooth structure
B. Wall of the cavity and the floor of the cavity
C) Floor of occlusal box with the interproximal box
D) None of the above

Causes of marginal ridge fracture are, exc

A) Marginal ridge left too high
B) Improper removal of matrix band
C.Incorrect gingival embrasure????
D) Axiopulpal line angle not rounded(beveled) in class Il tooth preparation

For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should

A) Reduce cusp by 2mm on flat base for more resistanc
B) Reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of cusp
C) Reduce 2 mm for retention form
D) None of the above

RMGI or Gl can be used as bases to:

A) Insulates against thermal stimuli
B) Bonds to dentin mechanically
C) May cause microleakage
D.Has obtundent effect
In judging the adequacy of removal of infected dentin, the best way to assess:
A) Caries detecting solution (Dye)
B) Low speed bur
C) High speed bur
D Hand Instrument (1.e. spoon excavator!

Number of point angles in class Iil cavity preparation:

A.5
B.3
C) 6

All of the following are external walls of cavity preparation except:

A) Gingival
B.Axial
C) Buccat
d.Distal

Which of the following considered as universal operator position or the most common operator
position in operative dentistry:
A.9 o'clock
B.7 o'clock
C) 11 a'clock
D.12 o'clock
The zone of Enamel caries which is relatively not affected by carious attack:
A) Dark zone
B) Body zone,
C.Translucent zone
D) Surface zone

Generally, Amalgam restorations are indicated for the following cases except:
A) Class I,Il caries X
B) Restoration around pins in tooth 23
C) Class V palatally of tooth 11
D) Class V in non esthetic area
E) Caries control program
F) Foundation

All of the following are parts of dental hard instrument except:

A) Shank
B) Blade
C) Handle
D.Neck

Resistance ante form in cavity preparation allows for:

A.the restoration to withstand occlusal forces
b) Preventing displacement of restoration
C) Preventing displacement of the restoration and withstanding occlusal forces
D) Adequate instrumentation
The most determinant factor to restoration longevity is

A) Type of restorative material used

B) Using adhesive technique
C.Remaining tooth structure after removal of caries, fractice or old restention
D) None of the above
About dovetail preparation in class Il amalgam restoration, which fatur

A) A dovetail preparation is not required in the perlusal step of a single proximal surface preparation,
unless a fissure emanating from an occlusal pit indicates
(B) Without dovetail however the occlusal step shouldn't be in a straight direction
C) Divergence preparation of occlusal step all increase the retention form
D). This type of retention form ane is provided by any extension of the centrst foure preparation that
is not in a straight direction from pet to to pit

Before extending into the involved proximal marginal ridge the dentist should visualizer the
final form of facial and lingual walls of the proximal bor relative to the contact area, this action
is done to

A) Expose good area of marginal area to be assessed again

B .Prevent overextension of the occlusal outine form where it joins the proximal outline form
C) Decide to use the suitable restorative material
D.Decide which material I can use as liner in the gingival floor.

The ideal clearance in class i preparation with adjacent proximal surface:

A) 0.5 mm
0.7 mm
C) 0.8 mm

The main objective of cavity preparation is to restore

A. to decrease plaque formation.
B. to increase masticatory efficiency
C. to prevent caries formation.又 D. to prevent periodontal disease..
E non of the above.

************************************************************************

# In class II cavity for inlay, the cavosurface margin of the gingival seat clears the
adjacent toothby:
A. 0.20 ± 0.05mm
*****B. 0.50 ± 0.20mmC.
0.80 ± 0.35mm

D. 1.10 ± 0.45mm

# Cavities beginning in the proximal surfaces of bicuspids and molars are:

A. Class 1
*******B. Class 2
C. Class 4
D. Class 6

# Incipient caries consists of opaque, chalky white areas that appear when the tooth
surface isdried, this is referred as:
******A. white spot
B. hot spot
C. translucent zone
D. body of lesion
 # Pit and fissure caries is seen in:
*****A. Class I
B. Class I compound
C. Class II
D. Class II compound

# Smear Layer consists of:

A. Enamel debris
B. Micro organisms
C. Dentinal chips
******D. all of the above

# A butt joint is a:
*****A. 90° joint

B. 120° joint
C. 70° joint
D. 180° joint

# Enameloplasty is:
A. Filling of enamel fissures with amalgam
*******B. Elimination of shallow enamel fissures
C. Is same as prophylactic odontomy
D. All of the above

# A prepared cavity is best protected from moisture by:

A. Cotton rolls
B. Saliva ejector
C. Rubber dam
D. Paper napkin

# Retentive grooves in the proximal box of a class II amalgam cavity should be:
A. Sharp and elongated at the dentinoenamel junction
*****B. Round and elongated in the dentin
C. Round and short in the dentin
D. Sharp and elongated in the dentin

# The term ' Primary Prevention' means all of the following except:
A. Planning the patient's diet
B. Prophylactic odontomy
C. Topical application of fluoride
********D. Extending cavity preparation to prevent Recurrence

# Infected dentine shows:

A. Both organic and inorganic components in reversible form
********B. Both organic and inorganic components in irreversible form
C. Organic components in irreversible form and inorganic components in reversible form
D. Inorganic component in reversible form and organic component in irreversible form
# Deepening the pulpal floor during cavity preparation provides for:
A. Outline form
B. Retention form
C. Convenience form
******D. Resistance form

# In which type of lesion 'eburnation' of the dentine is seen?

A. Acute caries
B. Chronic caries
******C. Arrested caries
D. Root Caries

# In case of a deep carious lesion incomplete debridement is done to:

A. Allow secondary dentin formation first
B. To seal the cavity and create aseptic field
*******C. Prevent pulp exposure and allow a thin layer of a dentin to remain
D. Avoid microleakage

# Beveling of the pulpoaxial line angle of a class II cavity is done to:

A. Increase the strength of the restoration
B. Improved marginal adaptation
C. To prevent the fracture of enamel
******D. To prevent the fracture of amalgam

# Restoration of a cusp using dental amalgam requires that:

A. All enamel be removed to provide bulk
B. Only the enamel be removed to conserve tooth structure
C. At least 2 mm of cusp be removed to provide retention form
******D. At least 2mm of cusp be removed to provide resistance form
# What is common in class I cavity preparation for amalgam and gold inlay?
A. Buccolingually divergent walls
********B. Mesiodistally divergent walls
C. Maximum depth is needed in both cases to provide sufficient thickness
D. All of the above

# In class 2 inlay preparation, How should the pulpal floor be placed in comparison
with pulpalfloor in amalgam class 2 preparation?
A. Deeper
******B. Pulpal floor for amalgam should be placed deeper in dentin
C. Same as Amalgam
D. None of the above

# Class IV cavity:
A. Occurs on the proximal surface not involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth
******B. Occurs on proximal surface involving the incisal edge of anterior teeth
C. Occurs on proximal surface involving the incisal edge of posterior teeth
D. Involves the buccal surface of Anterior and posterior teeth

# The retention for class 5 restoration are placed:

A. In mesial and distal areas
*****B. Occlusal and gingival area
C. In all except the axial wall
D. At expense of axial wall

# Extension for prevention is directly related to:

A. Removal of unsupported enamel on proximal surface of Class III cavity
B. Depth of the axial wall of a class III cavity preparation
C. Elimination of all carious dentin beyond average depth of pulpal wall
*********D. The outline form of the cavity preparation

# While preparing a Class II cavity on a maxillary first molar which of the pulp horns are
likely toget exposed:
*******A. Mesiolingual and mesiobuccal
B. Distolingual and distobuccal
C. Mesiolingual and distobuccal
D. Distolingual and mesiobuccal

# In a class 1 cavity prepared for silver amalgam is extended to half the distance
between thecontact area and the fissures and the cusp tip, the direction of the buccal
and lingual walls is:
A. Diverging
******B. Converging
C. Parallel
D. Independent

# The reason for sealing caries during cavity preparation is:

A. To eliminate the need for eventual direct pulp capping
B. Produce an aseptic filed when pulp exposure is inevitable
*******C. To allow the formation of secondary dentin before excavation
D. To produce a hard surface as a foundation for subsequent restoration

# In a cavity preparation in which the remaining thickness of dentin is more than 1.5mm,
the idealbase is:
A. Ca(OH)2

********B. Zinc Phosphate

C. Silicophosphate
D. Glass ionomer

# The function of proximal grooves in a class II cavity is:

A. Resistance form
B. Retention form
C. Increases strength
*******D. Resistance and retention form

# An incipient carious lesion on an inter proximal surface is usually located:

A. At the contact area
B. Facial to contact area
*******C. Gingival to contact area
D. Lingual to contact area

# In an ideal restoration, gingival margin should be:

*******A. Below contact point but 1mm occlusal to gingival crest
B. Below contact point but at level of gingival crest
C. Below gingival crest
D. At contact point

# Gingival extension for a restoration should be:

A. At the gingival crest
B. At least 1mm above the alveolar crest
*********C. At least 3mm above the alveolar crest
D. Doesn't have any relation with alveolar crest height

# Resistance form of cavity preparation is:

A. Flat pulp floor
B. enough depth of the cavity
C. Restricted size of the external walls
********D. all of the above

# During M.O.D. preparation one of the cusps is undermined, indicated treatment is:
*******A. Reduction of cusp and include in the preparation for on lay
B. Reduction of all the cusps and crown is indicated
C. Strengthened by use of Amalgam core
D. Cusp is beveled and the patient is advised not to exert force on the cusp

# Resistance form is that shape of cavity which:

A. Prevents displacement of restoration
******B. permits the restoration to withstand occlusal forces
C. Allows adequate instrumentation
D. Allows the restoration to withstand occlusal forces and prevent displacement

# A dental floss is applied to the distal bow of a clamp, its function is:
A. To facilitate the removal of the clamp
******B. To prevent aspiration of clamp
C. To anchor the dam as cervically as possible
D. To stabilize the damp

# Which of the following is commonly recommended procedure for debridement?

A. Citric acid
B. Hydrogen peroxide - 10%
*******C. Air and water spray
D. Hydrochloric acid

# The axiopulpal depth of the proximal box in class II cavity is:

*******A. 0.2 to 0.8 mm
B. 0.5 to 1 mm
C. 1 to 2 mm
D. 2 to 3 mm

# Purpose of cavity preparation is:

*******A. To receive restorating material
B. To cleanse the caries
C. To remove bacteria
D. None

# First step in removing a rubber dam is to:

A. Remove the clamp
B. Release the holder
C. Apply a water soluble Lubricant
*******D. Cut the interseptal rubber with scissors

# To avoid pulpal irritation below a resistant metallic restoration, the minimum dentin
thicknesswhich should remain is:
A. 0.5 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 1.0 mm
******D. 2.0 mm

# According to Black's classification caries on lingual pits of maxillary central incisors are:
******A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

# In a class II cavity in an incisor the retentive points are placed:

A. At the DEJ
******B. In the dentin
C. In the axial wall
D. Never on labial or Lingual walls

# Inappropriate margins in restorations are corrected primarily because:

A. They retain food debris
********B. Inhibit proper plaque removal
C. Disturb occlusion
D. Create Sensitivity

# The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental amalgam restoration
is:
A. Delayed expansion
*******B. Inadequate depth at the isthmus area
C. Inadequate width at the isthmus area
D. Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement.

# 'Saucering" out of small pits to improve self cleansing property is called:

A. Saucerisation
*********B. Enameloplasty
C. Odontotomy
D. None of the above

# Mesial and distal wall of class V cavity depends on:

******A. Direction of enamel rods
B. Presence of carious Lesion
C. Contour of gingiva
D. Location of contact area

# The base of class III preparation is:

******A. Axial wall
B. Gingival wall
C. Facial wall
D. Lingual wall

# While preparing occlusal cavity for amalgam in mandibular first premolar, the bur:
A. Is kept absolutely vertical
B. Is tilted slightly buccally
*******C. Is tilted slightly lingually
D. Can be kept in any direction

# Which of the following is not a consideration for obtaining a resistance form

during cavitypreparation?
A. Stress patterns of teeth
B. Direction of enamel rods
C. Designing outline form with minimal extension
*****D. Dovetail preparation of restoration to occlusal loading

Gingivally the depth of a class V cavity is:

A. 0.5 - 1 mm

***B. 0.75 - 1 mm
C. 1-1.25 mm

D. 2-3 mm

# For cast restorations the cavity wall should have a

taper of:
A. 30-45
B. 5-10
****C. 2-5
D. none of the above

# In modified class III cavity restoration retention is obtained mainly by:

****A. Acid etching
B. Retentive groove/slot
C. Retentive point
D. Retentive pin

# During cavity preparation, more incidence of exposure is in:

****A. Class V cavity in first premolar
B. Class II mesio occlusal cavity
C. Class II disto occlusal cavity
D. Class IV cavity

# Transverse section of Class V through the axial wall is:

A. Convex
B. Concave
C. Kidney shaped
D. Straight

# The cavosurface angle for inlay cavity preparation:

A. 90 degree
***B. 150 degree
C. Less than 90 degree
D. 180 degree

# Caries detection dye can stain the following except:

A. Granular necrotic tissue
B. Dry, leathery dentin
C. Reversibly denatured collagen
D. lrreversibly denatured collagen

# The modified class III preparation uses a dovetail on the lingual side in:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular canine
C. Mandibular central incisor
D. Mandibular lateral incisor

# Preparation of class I cavities for dental amalgam, direct filling gold or gold in lays
have incommon:
A. Occlusally diverging facial and lingual walls
***B. Occlusally diverging mesial and distal
C. Occlusally converging facial and lingual walls
D. Occlusally converging mesial and distal walls

# Which of the following prevents fracture of MO amalgam:

****A. Beveling of axiopulpal line angle
B. Occlusal dovetails
C. Pin retained amalgam
D. Removal of unsupported enamel rods

# The non-active carious lesion is distinguished by all except:

A. Covered by a layer of plaque
B. Soft and leathery in consistency
C. Brown or black discolouration
*****D. Severe pain during caries removal

# In a class III cavity in an incisor tooth the retentive points are placed:
A. At the expense of facial and lingual walls and not in dentin
B. Entirely in dentin
C. In axial wall
D. By placing a groove in the lingual surfaces

# All enamel walls of a cavity preparation must consist of full length enamel rods on
A. Affected enamel
B. Affected dentin
C. Sound enamel
********D. Sound dentin

# In air-abrasive technology the abrasive particles used are:

A. Iron oxide
B. Tin oxide
*****C. Aluminium oxide
D. Silicon oxide
# In an early carious lesion, the first structure to show evidence of destruction is the:
A. Enamel prism
B. Cuticle
******C. Inter-prismatic substance
D. Lamellae

# Which of the following principles of the cavity preparation is not considered much in
modernmethods of restorative Dentistry?
*****A. Extension for prevention
B. Convenient form
C. removal of the undermined enamel
D. Removal of the carious dentine

# The wall absent in class V lesion:

A. Axial wall
B. Mesial
C. Distal
D. Pulpal wall

# It is essential to lubricate dam before applying it. Which of these is NOT a suitable
lubricant?
A. Shaving cream
B. Liquid soap
C. Scrub gel
D. Vaseline

# Which is the WRONG way to apply dam using a wingless clamp?

A. Put the clamp on the tooth
B. Place the dam on the tooth with fingers, and then position the clamp over it
C. Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, then put the assembly over the
tooth using clamp holders OVER THE dam
D. Attach the dam over the clamp and frame outside the mouth, and then put the assembly over
the tooth using clamp holders UNDER the dam

# When composites are given, exposed dentin should be covered with:

A. Varnish
*****B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Phosphoric acid
D. ZnO eugenol cements

# Dental Pulp under any restoration is best protected by:

A. Cavity liner
B. Cavity base
****C. 2 mm thick dentin
D. All of the above
# Which one of the following provides most conservative approach while restoring the
tooth?
A. Cast gold
B. Dental amalgam
C. Glass ionomer cement
***D. Composite resin

# In cavity preparation, line angle is:

A. Union of three surfaces
B. Union of four surfaces
******C. The junction of two plane surfaces of different orientation along a line
D. Internal boundary of a cavity

# The tip diameter of a 245 bur used for conventional amalgam preparation is:
A. 2 mm

*****B. 0.8 mm

C. 0.3 mm

D. 0.4 mm

# The total number of point angles present for Class II amalgam restorations is:
A. 4

******B. 6
C. 8

D. 11

# Whenever the caries cone in enamel is larger or at least the same size as that in
dentin, it iscalled as:
A. Residual caries
B. Recurrent caries
*******C. Forward caries
D. Backward caries

# What is the major difference between a class V cavity preparation for amalgam and
one forcomposite resin by the acid-etch technique?
A. Depth
B. Convenience form
C. Position of retentive points
D. Angulation of enamel cavosurface margins

# Cervical restorations fail mostly due to:

A. Inadequate moisture control
B. Marginal gingivitis
C. Cuspal flexure
D. All of the above

# Proximal walls in a class I tooth preparation for amalgam should:

A. Converge occlusally
****B. Diverge occlusally
C. Remain straight
D. Rounded

# The configuration factor ["C" factor] for an occlusal class I cavity is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
*******D. 5

# Preventive resin restorations are indicated in ?

A. Non-cavitated pit and fissures
B. Deep caries to prevent progress of lesion
C. Cavitated fissures which require restoration
D. Wide cavity to prevent cusp fracture

# In diagnosing the carious lesions, the tooth surface is examined visually and tactilely.
Which ofthe following is NOT considered as visual examination?
A. Cavitations
B. Surface roughness
C. Opacification
****D. Softness of the tooth surface

# For gold inlays gingival margin finish line should be:

A. Shoulder preparation
B. Chamfer preparation
C. Bevel
D. Knife edge

# The base of class III preparation is:

A. Axial wall
B. Lingual wall
C. Gingival wall
D. Facial wall