Ata 36

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ATA 36

1. What is the engine bleed air source if engine runs at higher power settings?
a) High Pressure stage of engine compressor.
b) Intermediate Pressure stage of engine compressor.
c) Engine fan discharge pressure.

2. When will the BMC close the PRV?


a) In case of bleed airflow unbalance between opposite engines.
b) When upstream pressure is not sufficient to open the valve.
c) In case of fault in the system, starting of corresponding engine or APU bleed supply.

3. APU bleed is selected on, which valve is commanded open?


a) The Cross-Bleed Valve.
b) The RH PRV.
c) Both Pack FCVs.

4. What is the purpose of the THS?


a) To send a pneumatic signal to the OPV, in case of overpressure.
b) To send an electrical signal to the HPV, for IP/HP switching.
c) To send a pneumatic signal to regulate or shut off the PRV.

5. When the bleed P/B is pushed in, what will be the result for the BMC?
a) The PRV and the HPV are allowed to operate.
b) The PRV is allowed to operate.
c) The HPV is allowed to operate.

6. When is the fan air 150°C regulation active?


a) Solenoid energized with Wing Anti Ice OFF.
b) Solenoid energized with Wing Anti Ice ON.
c) Solenoid de-energized with Wing Anti Ice OFF.

7. The leak detection system is:


a) a loop detection system installed in the engine nacelle
b) a loop system of sensing elements installed in the pylon only
c) a system which concerns the pylons, the wings and APU bleed lines

8. When regulating a setting of temperature, the fan air valve is:


a) Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
b) Pneumatically controlled and operated by the ThC.
c) Pneumatically controlled and operated by the ThS.

ATA 21

9. What are the main functions of the Pack Controllers?


a) Basic temperature elaboration (lowest demand)/ optimize temperature.
b) Basic temperature regulation / Flow setting/ Monitoring.
c) Basic temperature regulation/ Controls the Cabin Fans.

10. Which are the controllers related to the temperature control system?
a) CPC 1 and CPC 2.
b) Zone Controller and Pack Controllers.
c) AEVC and VENT controller.

11. What is the function of the Recirculation Valves?


a) To cut off mixed air supply to avionics if both Packs are off.
b) To create sufficient ventilation of the avionics equipment when both Packs are off.
c) To vent air overboard if both Packs are off.

12. What is the function of the Trim Air Shut-Off Valve?


a) To maintain trim air supply to all ducts in case of a Trim Air pressure Regulation Valve
(TAPRV) failed closed.
b) To cut off trim air supply in case of duct-overheat.
c) To cut off trim air supply in case of overpressure.

13. When are the Re-Circulation Valves commanded closed by the Ventilation Controller
(VC)?
a) At least one Pack operating.
b) Both Pack off.
c) During insufficient cabin ventilation.

14. Which components are used in the pack temperature regulation?


a) TCV, PTS, and Ram Air Doors.
b) FCV, PTS, and Ram Air Doors.
c) TCV, TAV, and Ram Air Doors.

15. What is the position of both Outflow Valves when the Emergency Ram-Air Inlet is
activated during flight and the Δ P is less than 1 psi?
a) Closed.
b) Fully open.
c) Mid position.

16. The Pack Controller consist of two lanes, how is lane control arranged?
a) Lane 1 is always in control, lane two is hot standby.
b) One lane in control other lane hot standby, automatic switch over after the end of
the flight.
C. Both lanes are in control

17. Which controller controls the Cabin Fans?


a) Zone Controller (ZC).
b) Avionics Equipment Ventilation Controller (AEVC).
c) The ventilation Controller (VC).
18. What is the position of the avionics ventilation valves when on the ground, both engines
stopped and in AUTO mode?
a) Under-floor Valve closed - Overboard Valve open.
b) Under-floor Valve open - Overboard Valve closed.
c) Under-floor Valve closed - Overboard Valve partially open.

19. Which controller controls the optional forward cargo temperature control system?
a) AEVC.
b) Zone Controller.
c) VENT Controller.

20. When does the optional Fan Heater automatically stop?


a) The Bulk Cargo Door is open.
b) The AFT Outflow Valve is open.
c) A Passenger Door is open.

21. Which controllers are controlling the pressurization system?


a) CPC 1 or CPC 2.
b) Zone Controller and Pack Controllers.
c) AEVC and VENT Controller.

ATA 32 LANDING GEAR

22. In case of one LGCIU failure, is the landing gear system normal control affected?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Not on the ground.

23. Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system?
a) Green
b) Blue
c) Green and blue

24. Which gear wheels are fitted with carbon disk brakes?
a) Main gear wheels.
b) Main and centre line gear wheels.
c) Main, centre line and nose gear wheels.

25. In case of green hydraulic system loss, what is the correct statement?
a) Gear extension is done using the BLUE hydraulic system, nose wheel steering is lost.
b) Gear extension is done by gravity, nose wheel steering is lost but hydraulic braking is
available.
c) Gear extension is done by gravity, nose wheel steering and braking are unaffected.
26. The A330 landing gear is provided with:
a) Two inboard retracting main gears.
b) A forward retracting nose gear and centre gear.
c) Both answer a. and b. are correct.

27. Landing gear operation is inhibited:


a) Below 100 knots.
b) Above 260 +/- 5 knots.
c) On ground and above 280 knots.

28. By what is the normal landing gear operating sequence controlled?


a) Either LGCIU in turn.
b) Both LGCIUs simultaneously
c) Hydraulic sequence valve.

29. How can the brake accumulators be re-pressurized?


a) With the yellow electric hydraulic pump.
b) With the blue electric hydraulic pump.
c) Both are answer a. and b. correct.

30. What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?
a) Open gear doors, unlock gear, pressurize the gear actuators.
b) Open gear doors, drop gear, shut doors again.
c) Shutoff hydraulic pressure, relief pressure, release door up-lock, release gear uplock.

31. To control the nose steering, the signals used may come from:
a) Steering hand wheels or Rudder pedals.
b) Autopilot.
c) Both answer a. and b. are correct.

32. There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page, what do they
represent?
a) Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear.
b) Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two LGCIU computers.
c) Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear.

33. When depressing the pedal disconnect pushbutton on a steering hand wheel:
a) Rudder pedal and steering hand wheel orders to nose wheel steering is
disconnected.
b) Hydraulic isolation valve is closed, cutting hydraulic supply to nose wheel steering.
c) Rudder pedal order to nose wheel steering are disconnected.
34. The Cruising altitude is 20, 000 ft. If the crew selects landing gear down at 300 kts IAS,
what will happen?
a) The landing gear will extend and the Captain will have to write up a special report.
b) The landing gear will not extend until below 10.000 ft.
c) Being protected by a safety valve down to 280 kt, the landing gear will not extend.

35. When does the "DECEL" light in Automatic Braking come on?
a) When the AUTO BRAKE pushbutton is selected.
b) When the AUTO BRAKE pushbutton is "OFF".
c) When the deceleration value is correct.

ATA 49 - APU

36. Which valve is not controlled by the ECB?


a. De-oiling solenoid valve.
b. APU Bleed air valve.
c. Fuel nozzle flow divider.

37. When is an APU over-speed detected by the ECB?


a. >100% N
b. >107% N
c. >125% N

38. When will APU ignition be activated?


a. From 7% to 50% N during start.
b. From 95% to 50% during operation.
c. Both answer a. and b. are correct.

39. How is the APU bleed air demand controlled?


a. By the APU bleed air valve.
b. By Load compressor IGV’s and surge control valve.
c. By increasing/decreasing the APU rotation (N).

40. When is a 2 minute APU cool down cycle performed?


a. Always after operation when shutdown.
b. Only after shutdown when APU bleed air is used.
c. Only after shutdown when Generator power is used. 11. Why should the APU

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