B11-CDI BET (800 ITEMS) With Answer

BATCH 11
BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON CRIME DETECTION AND

INVESTIGATION
Prepared by: Prof. Al-Nashrin Mindug, June 2022 CLE Top 5
committed? This are called_______________________ of

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION criminal investigation.
AND INTELLIGENCE
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule
1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a
person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, b. Three I’s d. Bridges burn
collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of
bringing criminal offender to justice. 7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the
identification of criminals, which can be done in any or a
a. Investigation c. Investigative process combination of the following, except:
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal inquest a. By confession or admission by the criminal
2. It is the product resulting from the collection, b. By corpus delicti

evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of all
available information which concerns one or more aspects c. By circumstantial evidence
of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially d. By eyewitness
significant to police planning:
8. It is a term used by the FBI to describe everybody who
a. Investigation C. Data is an informant.
b. Information D. Intelligence A. Cooperative Witness
3. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to B. Active Informant
capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of action
of foreign nations? C. Jailhouse Informant
a. Combat intelligence D. Voluntary Informant
b. National intelligence 9. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of the

operation used in the planning and conduct of tactical
c. Police intelligence operations.
d. Strategic intelligence a. strategic intelligence
4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible b. military intelligence
things maybe used to detect crimes, identify the criminals,
facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving c. combat intelligence
the objectives of criminal investigation.
d. counter intelligence
a. Information c. Instrumentation
10. They are referred to as justice collaborators or
b. Criminalistics d. Interview/Interrogation cooperating witnesses.
5. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the A. Informants

investigator apprised the person of his right under
Republic Act 7438? B. Private Detective
a. During the identification of criminal offender C. Special Investigator
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of D. Voluntary Informant

the offender
11. Which of the following is not an element of corpus
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of delicti?
criminal offender
a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
d. During police line-up
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
6. What specific offence has been committed? Who
c. Additional evidence of a different character to
committed it? When it was committed? Where it was
the same point
committed? Why it was committed? And how it was
d. Proper chain of custody
Amici Review Center Page 1

c. To identify the felon
d. To provide evidence to prove the guilt of the

offender
12. It is the questioning of a person with the main focus
of obtaining a valid and lawful confession or admission of 20. He was the most famous THIEF-CATCHER in 1720s.
guilt. He conceived the idea of charging a fee for locating and
returning stolen property to its rightful owners.
A. Interview
a. JONATHAN WILD
B. Interrogation
b. HENRY FIELDING
C. Invitation
c. JOHN FIELDING
D. All of the above
d. PATRICK COLQUHOUN
13. What is the type of reasoning whereby the collected
information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of the 21. This is the forerunner of the Federal Bureau of
crime. Investigation (FBI).
a. Inductive c. Systematic a. NYPD
b. Deductive d. Logical b. BOSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT
14. The knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes c. TEXAS RANGERS

and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal
offenders is called _____. d. ILONG RANGERS
a. Criminal intelligence 22. Criminal investigation is more an art than a science

because ___
b. External intelligence
a. it involves the application of knowledge of
c. Internal intelligence forensic sciences in the processing of evidence
d. Public safety intelligence b. it is not governed by rigid rules, but more

often rule by intuition
15. Which of the following must be done to maintain the
legal integrity of evidence? c. It is the collection of facts in order to accomplish
the three-fold aims
a. Evidenced must be properly documented
d. All of the above
b. Maintain its chain of custody
23. As a general rule, all crime incidents must be recorded
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence in the official police blotter or logbook with a size of ____
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence a. 15x20
16. The commission of four or more murders in a single b. 18x12
incident within a short span of time.
c. 20x15
A. Mass Murder
d. Nota
B. Manslaughter
24. Refers to the warrant of arrest issued by a judge to
C. Serial Murder the peace officer after returning the original warrant of
D. Sensational murder arrest after the lapse of the 10-day validity period
17. Intelligence should be essential and pertinent to the a. Richard Doe/ John (Jane) Doe Warrant
purpose at hand. This refers to the principle of _____. b. Scattershot warrant
a. Continuity C. Selection c. General warrant
b. Objective D. Timeliness d. Alias warrant
18. This segment of the intelligence process deals with 25. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the
what happens when information is received, processed crime,except
and now integrates with current holdings. This phase is
called _____. a. Over-All and environment’s photograph
a. Data Analysis C. Data evaluation b. Photographs of articles of evidence and

photographs of the deceased
b. Data collation D. Data dissemination
c. Photographs of the scene of the crime
19. The following are the threefold aim of criminal operatives showing their identity
investigation, except;
d. all of the above
a. To locate the whereabout of the victim
26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime,
b. To locate the perpetrator the investigator rational theory of the crime may begins

with deductive logic and later on inductive logic; a. Casing C. Surveillance
Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than
a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have very b. Elicitation D. Surreptitious entry
high order of probability. 33. Which of the following must be done to maintain the
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false physical integrity of evidence?
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true b. Evidence must be properly documented
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false c. Maintain its chain of custody
27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
physical appearance of the crime scene is reconstructed 34. In the absence of any lawyer, no custodial
from the description, of the witnesses and the indication investigation shall be conducted and the suspected person
of the physical evidence. Statement no. 2. In mental can only be detained by the investigating officer in
reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions accordance with what provisions of the Revised Penal
are made about the consistency of the accounts of the Code?
various witnesses. No assumption is made without
supporting evidence. A. Article 124
a. Statement no. 1 is correct B. Article 125
b. Statement no. 2 is incorrect C. Article 225
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct D. Article 212
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect 35. The methodology involving the systematic searching,
handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence
28. In instances where a suspect would like to waive his found at the crime scene, including the documentation of
rights under custodial investigation, what must be done? every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery
A. Waiver must be reduced in writing at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of
examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is
B. Waiver must be done in the presence of the investigator referred to us.
C. Waiver need not be signed by the suspect a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter
D. None of the above b. Necropsy report d. Chain of

custody
29. A biographical data through fictitious which will portray
the personality of the agent which is to assume is better 36. Patrolman Gaudiano submitted an intelligence report
known as _____. evaluated as B-5. What does that mean?
a. Cover C. Cover support a. Information is usually from a reliable source and

is possibly true.
b. Cover story D. Undercover
b. Information is usually from a reliable source and
30. Who is NOT considered as the immediate family of a is probably true.
person under custodial investigation?
c. Information is usually from a reliable
A. Fiancé source and is improbable.
B. Guardian/Ward d. Information is usually form a reliable source and
C. Child/Children is doubtfully true.
D. All of the above 37. What is meant by evaluation of C-1?
e. nota a. Information comes from a fairly reliable

source and is confirmed from other sources
31. Who among the following may not be allowed to visit
or conference with a person under custodial investigation? b. Information comes from an unreliable source and
is improbably true
A. Uncle
c. Information comes from an unreliable source and
B. Nephew is probably true
C. His fancy woman d. Information comes from a fairly reliable source

and is doubtfully true
D. Doctor
38. A method of collecting information wherein the
32. A system or plan whereby information of intelligence investigator mere uses his different senses.
value is obtained through the process of direct
intercommunication in which one or more of the parties to a. observation C. research
the communication is unaware of the specific purpose of
the conversation. b. casing D. interrogation

A. Tracing evidence C. Corpus delicti
39. The term used for the object of surveillance is subject B. Associative evidence D. Physical or
while the investigator conducting the surveillance is: material evidence
a. Rabbit C. decoy 47. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to avoid

contamination of the specimen?
b. Surveillant D. target
A. Formaldehyde C. Saline solution
40. In counterintelligence, surveillance is categorized
according to intensity and sensitivity. When there is B. Alcohol D. Distilled
intermittent observation varying in occasions, then this water
surveillance is called:
48. A person who provides an investigator with
a. Loose C. open confidential information concerning a past or projected
crime and does not wish to be known as a source of
b. Discreet D. close information.
41. A biographical data through fictitious which will portray A. Informant C. Witness
the personality of the agent which is to assume is better
known as _____. B. Informer D. Confidential
informant
A. Cover C. Cover support
49. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
b. Cover story D. Undercover
a. Classified information must not be discussed with
42. The interview of a witness can be described by the friends and members of the family.
acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
b. Classified information should be known
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, only by one person.
Continuity
c. Cabinets with classified documents must be
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, secured with padlocks and security measures at
Conclusion all times.
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, d. All classified documents must be safeguarded.
Inquiry, Conclusion
50. PATROLMAN JOSE get employed at a restaurant where
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, he can observe the activities of the crew who happens to
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion be subject in his undercover assignment. PATROLMAN
43. Which of the following is the most common reason why JOSE’s undercover assignment is called.
an informer gives information to the police? a. multiple assignment
a. wants to be known to the police b. social assignment
b. monetary reward c. work assignment
c. as a good citizen d. dwelling assignment
d. revenge 51. In the debriefing, the intelligence agent is asked to
44. In recording information while conducting discuss which of the following:
investigation, it is a question as to possible intents, a. His educational profile and school attended
consents, or motive in the commission of the crime. b. His personal circumstances such as his age,
A. Who religious affiliation, address, etc.
c. His political inclination and/or party affiliation.
B. How d. His observations and experiences in the
intelligence function
C. When
52. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique
D. Why whereby the operative conceals his true identity and
adopts an assumed role to obtain information or
45. It is traditionally defined as “treasure island.”
accomplish a specific mission.
A. Crime scene
a. Undercover assignment c. Work
B. Corpus delicti assignment and social assignment
C. Whereabout of criminal b. Dwelling assignment d. Personal

contact assignment
D. All of the above
53. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a
46. Articles and materials which are found in connection suspected murder case which the there is no known
with the investigation and which aid in establishing the suspect, no witnesses nor any other circumstantial
identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances which the evidence, except physical evidence. Where can you get
crime was committed or which, in general assist in the these pieces of evidence that may lead you to the identity
prosecution of the criminal. of the suspect?

a. The Crime Scene c. The Suspect 59. What is the principal psychological factor that
contributes to a successful interrogation?
b. The Victim d. All of the above
a. Privacy
54. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the
crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
situation which you would analyzed?
c. Legality
a. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one
b. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his way mirror
contact with the victim
60. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the
c. Place of exit searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along
radius or spokes. Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the
d. All of the above searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral,
55. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the
damaged or lost because of: center.
a. Improper packaging a. Statement No. 1 is correct
b. Corruption of investigator b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody c. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. A and C are true d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
56. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal 61. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:
description of a person after a short period of visual a. Extent the estimate of the scene
observation is termed Portrait Parle; Statement No. 2-
Description of police characters which a witness may refer b. Search physical evidence at the scene
and that is kept by police unit for purpose of references is
Rogue’s Gallery c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix
with the crowd to listen to their conversation
a. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is
incorrect d. None of the above
b. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect 62. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with:
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct a. Recognition and collection of facts which may be
sensory, documentary and physical forms
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
b. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered
57. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the regular, cultivated and grapevine sources
from the marking should be made immediately after
receipt by the evidence custodian; Statement no. 2- c. Persons and things
Marking or labeling of physical evidence should be made d. A and B only
at the crime scene upon collection.
63. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:
a. Statement No. 1 is correct
a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
b. Duel, abortion and infanticide
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
c. Homicide and murder
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
d. Parricide
Statement no. 1 -Any physical evidence obtained
must tagged BEFORE its submission to the evidence 64. Vincent killed his adoptor after the rendition of
judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime
custodian. committed by Vincent?
Statement No. 2-Marking or labeling of physical a. Parricide c. Homicide
evidence should be made after tagging the
b. Murder d. None of the above
evidence.
65. Principles in homicide investigation that should be
58. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator
custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should
is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda not cross the three bridges which he burns behind him.
doctrine which cannot be waived? Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned
a. At the time of custodial investigation c. bridge”?
During the announcement that he is under arrest a. When the dead person has been moved
b. During the actual questioning d. At the b. When the dead body has been embalmed
moment that he is invited for questioning

c. When the dead body has been contaminated and A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic
the chain of custody was not properly accounted odontology
d. When the body is burned or cremated B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
66. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide 73. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
investigation is:
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of
death B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
b. Process of determining who is responsible for the death 74. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?
c Process of determining how the victim was killed A. Physical injury C. Abduction -chastity
d. Process of determining when the victim was killed B. Mutilation D. Parricide
67. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be 75. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
performed? A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553
a. Death has been caused by violence B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to 76. The notion, which declares that human behavior tends
suspect the probability of homicide. to repeat itself, can serve as basis of the investigator in
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family determining:
d. In all cases involving death A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime
68. Which of the following is the primary role of the B. Modus operandi D. Criminal intent
investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene? 77. IR in intelligence parlance literally means what?
a. Verification of death A. Information requirements
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the B. information requirement
death
C. Intelligence requirement
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
D. Intelligence reservation
d. All of the above
78. AIEI stands for analysis, integration, evaluation and
69. Legally, when does death considered to have interpretation. Its purpose is to determine that
occurred?
information is
a. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the
body A. true and reliable
b. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body B. true and accurate
c. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing C. schools they are enrolled
within the body
D. all of them
d. All of the above
79. This check is done to verify a person’s record entries
70. You were a police officer responded in a violent crime like an application for loan, employment, and others.
just recently occurred. How would you determine signs of
death? A. Personal record check
a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory B. security check

movement
C. Background investigation
b. By hearing heart sounds
D. Security investigation
c. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a
80. A conference held among the team members before
person
dispatching the agents for intelligence operation
d. Any of the above
A. Debriefing
71. Which of the following body system coincide the
B. team conference
stopping of a mental organ function of a person to
medically “dead”? C. Pre-surveillance conference
A. cardiac C. central nervous D. All of them
B. respiratory D. digestive 81. The process wherein the informant reveals all
information he gathered to the intelligence officer.
72. Identification of a dead body through examination of
the teeth: A. Briefing

B. Debriefing B. protection of life and property
C. Report C. Security
D. All of them D. Background information
82. A place or building where agents meet their informants 89. Suppose your police station will be overrun by the
or assets. enemy, what among the item below will you destroy first
as it will be of value for the enemies’ intelligence
A. Apartment house
A. Cache of bullets
B. empty house
B. Radio
C. Safe house
C. Troop deployment report
D. All of them
D. Grenades
83. One reason why our agent failed in their job.
90. In the selection and recruitment of informers, the best
A. Friendship factor to be considered is
B. disloyalty A. Educational attainment
C. Bribery B. charm and sex
D. Tong collection C. age
84. Intelligence fund is a potent source of corruption D. access
among offices of the intelligence units because of
91. It refers to a picture of a person in police custody kept
A. It is too big that detection is difficult for identification purposes.
B. It is not subject to audit by government auditor A. Fingerprinting
C. It is discretionary on the part of intelligence B. Criminal Profiling
officers to use the fund C. Roques Gallery
D. All of the above D. Mug Shot
85. Through the years, intelligence has earned and has 92. It is another term for mug shots.
been identified to have many and varied meanings,
whatever it is in, in total is A. Booking Photos
A. Network B. Line Up Photos
B. Profession C. Laboratory Photos
C. Tradecraft D. All of the above
D. Activity 93. It is the questioning of a person who is suspected to

have committed a crime.
86. There are six applicable principles of police
intelligence, one is police intelligence must be useful, A. Interview
which mean
B. Interrogation
A. It must be capable of changing operatives depending
upon the situation C. Tactical interrogations
B. Logical decision can be made if relevant D. Custodial investigation

intelligence is available 94. It includes the practice of issuing an “invitation” to a
C. There must be initiative and imagination person who is investigated in connection with an offense
he is suspected to have committed, without prejudice to
D. Timeliness is essential the liability of the “inviting” officer for any violation of law.
87. Which of the four below is common in treating best, a A. Interview

suspected captures terrorist under tactical interrogation.
B. Interrogation
A. Use of sex and charm
C. Tactical interrogations
B. giving favors
D. Custodial investigation
C. Tact and diplomacy
95. In a custodial investigation, it refers to any lawyer,
D. Giving monetary consideration except those directly affected by the case,
88. The primary purpose of police counter intelligence is those charged with conducting preliminary investigation,
or those charged with the prosecution
A. Detection of criminal
of crimes.

A. Attorney 2. A branch of medicine dealing with the application of
medical knowledge for legal purposes. The application of
B. Corporate Lawyer medicine to legal cases.
C. Assisting Counsel a. Medical jurisprudence
D. Personal Lawyer b. Legal medicine
c. Forensic medicine
96. It is an identification process which is done by placing
the suspect within a group of people who matches the d. All of the above
general description of the suspect with the purpose of
allowing the witness to view them and identify the suspect. 3. The Highest form of Evidence
A. Police line-up a. Real Evidence
B. Fingerprint Identification b. Autoptic
C. Rogues gallery c. Expert Witness
D. All of the above d. Either A or B
97. This is otherwise known as the police line-up. e. nota
A. Rogues gallery 4. These are articles and materials which are found in
connection with the investigation and which aid in
B. Identification Parade establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the
circumstances under which the crime was committed, or
C. identification line up in general assist in the prosecution of a criminal.
D. identification Display a. Corpus Delicti
98. It refers to the unwanted transfer of material between b. Associative Evidence
two or more sources of physical evidence.
c. Tracing Evidence
A. Cross-Contamination
d. Nota
B. Deterioration
Correct Answer: Physical evidence
C. Contamination
5. Evidence which proves the fact in dispute without the
D. All of the above aid of any inference or presumption. The evidence
99. It is the unwanted transfer of material from another presented corresponds to the precise or actual point at
source to a piece of physical evidence. issue.
A. Cross-Contamination a. Direct Evidence
B. Deterioration b. Circumstantial Evidence
C. Contamination c. Object evidence
D. All of the above d. Documentary evidence
100. A type of evidence which by its very nature or the 6. Which of the following are the questions in incidents
conditions at the scene will lose its evidentiary value if not involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by a medico
preserved and protected. legal?
A. Trace Evidence A. How many are the victims?
B. Transient Evidence B. What is the position of the victim when he was

assaulted
C. Impression Evidence
C. Was there evidence of defense mark or
D. All of the above struggle
SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION 1 WITH D. From what direction was the force applied
LEGAL MEDICINE coming from
1. This is the investigation of cases that are unique and 7. Instantaneous rigidity of the muscle of the body right
often require special training to fully understand their after death.
broad significance.
a. Rogor Mortis
a. Criminal investigation
b. Migor Rortis
b. Homicide investigation
c. Rigor mortis
c. Special crime investigation
d. Ragor Mortis
d. All of the above

8. The fall of a body temperature that shows a conclusive 14. In R.A. 8353, Carnal knowledge refers to what?
sign of death.
a. Knowledge of sex
a. 15 degree Celsius to 20 degree Celsius
b. Forcible sex
b. 20 degree Fahrenheit to 25 degree Fahrenheit
c. Sexual knowledge
c. 10 degree Fahrenheit to 15 degree Celsius
d. Sexual Penetration
d. Either a or B
11. It usually takes _________ for the stomach to empty
e. Nota its contents after meals.
9. With treachery, taking advantage of superior strength, A. 1-2 hours

with the aid of armed men, or employing means to weaken
the defense or of means or persons to insure or afford B. 2-3 hours
impunity are some of the elements of the crime of Murder. C. 3-4 hours
As such, are all these circumstances necessary to be
present during the commission of the crime, for the killing D. 4-5 hours
to be considered a consummated murder?
12. The transient loss of consciousness with temporary
a. Murder cessation of the vital functions of the body is known as?
b. Homicide a. death
c. No b. state of suspended animation
d. Definitely yes c. coma
10. A man who suddenly casts sand upon the eyes of the d. rigor mortis
victim and then stabs him to death is liable for what
offense? 13. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide
investigation is:
a. Murder
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of
b. Parricide death
c. Physical Injuries b. Process of determining who is responsible for the death
d. Homicide c. Process of determining how the victim was killed
11. He who kills an illegitimate grandfather, or an d. Process of determining when the victim was killed
illegitimate grandson is not guilty of parricide, but of
homicide or murder. 14. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be
performed?
a. The above statement is erroneous
a. Death has been caused by violence
b. The above statement is true
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to
c. The above statement is partly correct suspect the probability of homicide.
d. The above statement is inadmissible c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
12. What aggravating circumstance is present when the d. In all cases involving death
offended party was not given the opportunity to make a
defense? 15. Which of the following is the primary role of the
investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
a. Employing means to weaken the defense
a. Verification of death
b. Taking advantage of superior strength
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the
c. Means to afford impunity death
d. Treachery c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
13. Mr. Police Officer, as a general rule, can you arrest a d. All of the above
person with a warrant of arrest?
16. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the
a. No, because that would be a violation of the 1987 discoloration of the body after death.
Philippine Constitution, Article III, Section 1
a. livor mortis
b. Yes, by means of In Flagrante Delicto or Caught in the
act b. rigor mortis
c. No, because you must have a warrant of arrest to c. algor mortis

apprehend a suspect.
d. all of the above
d. Yes
17. Identification of a dead body through examination of
the teeth: (Nov- Dec 2019 Board Exam Question)

a. Forensic pathology b. to check if there is presence of smudging and tattooing
b. Forensic chemistry c. to check if the fingers are complete
c. Forensic odontology d. to check if there is the presence of cadaveric

spasm
d. Forensic medicine
26. The body of a person cools following death at
18. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the approximately _______ under normal conditions and
mother’s womb: assuming that temperature at death is 37 degrees Celsius.
a. Infanticide c. Abortion a. 1.5 degrees/hour
b. Parricide d. Murder b. 2.5 degrees/hr
19. In what circumstances change murder to homicide? c. 1.5 degrees/half hour
a. Treachery d. 2.5 degrees/half hour
b. Absence of qualifying circumstances
c. Lack of intent 27. How many hours does blood remain fluid inside the
d. Taking advantage of superior strength blood vessel?
20. Rape is committed either by sexual intercourse or by a. 3-4 hours

sexual assault. Which of the following is not a rape by b. 5-7 hors
sexual assault?
c. 6-8 hours
A. Inserting penis into another person's anal orifice
d. 10-12 hours
B. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
28. It is the act of killing of large cattle, or taking its meat
C. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or hide without the consent of owner/raiser.
or anal orifice of another person a. cattle rustling
D. Inserting penis into another person's mouth b. bestiality
c. violation of animal welfare act

21. He is considered as the Father of Toxicology. d. Nota
a. Mathieu Orfila 29. It is a proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the
b. Hippocrates existence of a particular fact in dispute may be inferred as
a necessary or probable consequence.
c. Paracelsus
a. prima facie evidence
d. Edmond Locard
b. circumstantial evidence
22. Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance
c. corpus delicti
A. Inverted edge B. Bigger size
d. primary evidence
C. Protrusion of tissue D. No definite shape
30. it is the best method to use for searching wide areas.
23. What refers to the cutting of a body part of another
person to weaken his defense? a. zone method
A. Castration B. Mayhem b. wheel method
C. Mutilation D. Amputation c. spiral method
24. it is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts d. strip search method
and circumstances surrounding the death of a person 31. It is the condition of a woman where the hymen of her
which is expected to be unlawful. vagina is still intact or unruptured
a. Murder Investigation a. Virginity
b. Homicide Investigation b. Defloration
c. Death Investigation c. Hymen
d. Criminal investigation d. none of the above
25. Why is there a need to conduct a careful inspection on
a dead person’s hand holding the gun?
a. to check if there is lividity

32. A police officer have the legal authority to pronounce C. Locus Minoris Resistencia D.
death. Extensive injury
a. true 40. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor at his
own apartment. On the deductive process of the
b. false investigation, the cause of the victim’s death is asphyxia
c. yes by applying pressure to the latter’s neck while the assailant
using his arms was on the back of the victim. The
d. no statement best describes:
33. Suppose that the child is Kian’s legitimate grandson, A. strangulation

what crime will he be liable for killing the 2- day old child?
B. burking
a. murder
C. throttling - using hands to compress the neck,
b. parricide
D. mugging
c. infanticide
41. Several tests could be administered to the victim’s
d. homicide body in order to ascertain if there is still sign of life. What
is that test in which a ligature will be applied around the
34. Rigor mortis can be first seen on what muscle? victim’s finger?
a. jaw A. Icard’s test B. finger
webs test
b. back
C. Magnus test D. Winslov
c. chest
test
d. foot
42. Approximately, height can be measure by extending
35. A test best for determining the presence of nitrates in the middle fingers of both hands laterally. What age when
cloth fiber. a person ceases to increase in height?
a. Paraffin test A. 24 B. 23
b. Flourence test
C. 25 D. 26
c. Walkers test
43. What would be the presumption if fleas were still alive
d. Nota on the clothing of a dead person that allegedly drowned?
36. Mr. Yoso walks like a robot. His legs are held together A. fleas could not survived for more than 24 hour on the
and the steps are dragged and short. It is the best water
description of what manner of walking?
B. fleas would indicate that person was drowned
A. Cerebellar B. Ataxic
C. indicates that the person was in the water for not
C. Paretic D. Spastic more than 24 hours
37. Mr. Yoso was abandoned by the family, unvisited and 44. Which of the following is true about post mortem
let alone to die. This is the best example of what type of rigidity?
clinical death?
A. It is the instant stiffening of the muscles in a certain
A. Sociological death B. Psychic death group
C. Biologic death D. Physiologic death B. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles due to
the coagulation of proteins
38. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit
found in the body of the victim is even, the presumption is C. It lasts from 12-36 hours
that no bullet is lodged in the body, but if the number of
gunshot wounds entrance and exit is odd, the presumption D. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles due to
is that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the the solidification of proteins
body. What principle is this?
45. It is mostly associated with violent death due to
A. Presumption of Similarity B. Odd- extreme nervous tension and injury to the central nervous
Even Rule system, the statement is referring to the spontaneous rigor
what if all the muscles of the body totally stiffed due to
C. Principle of Infallibility D. Numbering death?
Principle
A. cadaveric spasm B. cold
39. Mr. Yoso suffered from external hemorrhage of its left stiffening
ear after Mr. Jeson hit him at the back with a baseball bat
after the latter defamed him infront of their classmates. C. heat stiffening D. rigor mortis
What particular injury is greatly described?
46. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that
A. Coup in jury B. Contre death has occurred not more than 24 hours hence are
coup injury useful to approximate the time of death.

A. Flies B. Bees D. Fine of P3, 000.00
C. Earthworms D. 56. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction to govern

Butterflies and execute the laws whether as individuals or as
members of some court or government corporations board
47. Stab wound is produced by: or commission.
A. Sharp-pointed instrument A. Public officer C. False testimony
B. Sharp-edged and sharp-pointed instrument B. Persons in authority D. None of the above
C. Sharp-edged instrument 57. Three men broke into a National Authority
D. Blunt instrument (Government Entity) forcibly destroyed the lock of the
warehouse and lamented sufferings of the people within
48. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill-treat or the area. Thus, they called on the people to help them by
incapacitated for work or require medical attendance for a eating all they could and then to empty the warehouse of
period of one to nine days. all the goods stored therein. The 3 men did not even help
themselves to a single grain or any good. What crime was
A. Slight physical injury B. Serious physical committed?
injury
A. Direct assault C. Sedition
C. Less serious physical injury D. None of these
B. Indirect assault D. All of the
49. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of foregoing
tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained
that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of
the body to the gun is approximately. 59.. When a woman is kidnapped with lewd or unchaste
designs, the crime committed is:
A. 6 inches B. 18 inches A. Forcible abduction
C. Illegal detention
C. 12 inches D. 24 inches B. Kidnapping
D. Coercion
50. Accident classified according to severity are-
60. When the kidnapping is without lewd designs, the
A. Death, property damage crime committed is:
B. Fatal, non-fatal, property damage A. Illegal detention C. Forcible

abduction
C. Physical injuries and death
B. Coercion D. All of the
D. Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries above
51. When a public officer deprives a person of his liberty 61. Under Art. 122, Revised Penal Code, the crime of
without any legal ground, such officer may be held Piracy is committed by:
answerable for:
a. Non-member of the complement of the vessel &
A. Illegal Detention C. Arbitrary Non-passenger of the vessel
Detention b. Crew members of the vessel
c. All of the above
B. Expulsion D. Abuse of Power d. None of the above
52. Persons directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as 62. Under R.A. 7659, PD 532 and Art. 122, RPC, the crime
individuals or as members of some court or government
of Piracy shall be committed by:
corporations, board or commission, are denominated:
A. Governmental Officers C. Public a. Member of the crew
Officers b. Non-members of the vessel
B. Persons in Authority
c. Passenger of the vessel
D. Agents of Persons in Authority
d. B & C only
53. It is qualified theft when the coconuts stolen are taken
from the: 63. Considered as the golden hour of homicide and
kidnapping investigation
A. Marketplace C. Residence
a. First 36 hrs
B. Premises of the coconut plantation
b. First 48 hrs
D. Police Station c. First 72 hrs
d. First 24 hrs
54. Removing, concealing or destroying any court record
is: 64. Swindling or estafa shall be considered as syndicated
if there are ___
A. Malicious Mischief C. Estafa or Swindling
a. Two or more victims
B. Theft D. Falsification b. Atleast 5 victims
c. Two or more offenders
55. A concubine once proven guilty is punishable by:
d. Atleast 5 offenders
A. Two (2) years imprisonment C. Destierro
B. Six (6) months imprisonment

65. Mr. Yoso, by force upon things entered inside the Art. 299 (b) The robbery be committed under any of
house of Kardo and stole the brand new Bicycle of the the following circumstances:
latter. What was the crime committed?
1. By the breaking of doors, wardrobes, chests, or any
a. Robbery by force upon things other kind of locked or sealed furniture or receptacle;
b. robbery by threat, violence and intimidation 2. By taking such furniture or objects to be

broken or forced open outside the place of the
c. qualified theft robbery.
d. nota 72. Which of the following is not included in the essential
66. Mr. Yoso surreptitiously entered to the house of Kardo elements of sketching?
through the open door and stole cash and gadgets once A. Measurements must be accurate
inside. The investigator found out that the perpetrator left
by breaking and jumping from the window to avoid arrest. B. Compass direction may be indicated to
What is the crime committed? facilitate proper orientation in the case of crime
scene.
a. Robbery by force upon things
C. Essential item that has bearing in the
b. robbery by threat, violence and intimidation investigation must be included.
c. qualified theft D. There must be a title and legend to tell what
d. nota it is and then meaning of certain marks indicated
Correct Answer: Theft 73. A person who habitually intakes beverages containing
alcohol and impose risk to himself and to other person
67. Kardo wants to get fair with Mr. Yoso so the former while under the influence of it.
went to the house of the latter and burned it without
knowing that the former was inside. Mr. Yoso died because A. alcoholic B. drunkard
of asphyxia. What is the crime commited by Kardo? C. addict D. chronic drunkard
a. Arson with homicide 74. It is a painful contraction of the skeletal muscles
b. Arson usually seen among manual workers in hot environment
c. Homicide whose bodily fluids have been depleted of sodium chloride
d. Murder not replaced by heavy loses of sweat.
68. The scenario above was just an imagination, instead A. Sensible heat B. Heat cramp
of burning the house of Mr. Yoso, Kardo broke the door of
Kardo’s house merely just to caused damage, but he did C. Specific heat D. Heat temperature
realized that the he can somehow use the door so he
brought it with him. What is the crime committed? 75. It is mostly associated with violent death due to
extreme nervous tension and injury to the central nervous
a. Malicious mischief system, the statement is referring to the spontaneous rigor
b. Theft what if all the muscles of the body totally stiffed due to
c. Robbery death?
d. None
A. cadaveric spasm B. cold stiffening
69. Breaking the window of the car parked at the garden
then stealing what is inside is ___ C. heat stiffening D. rigor mortis
a. theft 76. Which of the following is true about post mortem

b. robbery with force upon things rigidity?
c. qualified theft A. It is the instant stiffening of the muscles in a
d. carnapping certain group
70. Mario entered the dwelling of another thru an open B. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles
door. Once inside, he broke the door of master’s bedroom due to the coagulation of proteins
and stole all cash there. What is the crime commited?
C. It lasts from 12-36 hours
a. Theft
b. robbery with force upon things D. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles
c. robbery with malicious mischief due to the solidification of proteins
d. nota
71. What if Mario did not break the door, however, once
inside of the room, he cannot make the combination of 77. It is an increase of temperature due to fast, early
vault, so he just brought it with him outside to break it putrefactive and chemical changes in the body, which
with his axe. What is the crime commmited? occur 1-3 hours after death.
a. Theft A. Post- mortem caloricity B. Post- mortem

b. robbery with force upon things rigidity
c. robbery with malicious mischief
C. Instantaneous rigor D. Putrefaction
d. nota

78. This is an interlacing discoloration commonly purplish B. Marriage or the union of a man and a woman.
brown that forms a network on the large part of the
cadaver such as the chest and abdomen. C. Rights granted by law are different to different
sexes.
A. putrefaction B. marbolization
D. There are certain crimes wherein a specific sex can only
C. livor mortis D. maceration be the offender or victim.
79. An open wound produced by the penetration of shots 90. Gavino Ang was found dead in the garage with a deep
that usually lodge on the body of the victim is categorized stab wound on the neck. Kim Pang was found with a
as shotgun wound which is generally under the kitchen knife, his hand stained with blood. Examination of
investigative process of: the weapon showed that the stain was blood of human
origin and belonging to the same group as that of the
A. shotgun wound B. ballistics deceased Gavino Ang, with such result of the examination,
C. firearms identification D. gunshot wounds the investigating authorities have a very strong
presumption that Kim Pang was the one who committed
80. What would be the presumption if fleas were still alive the crime. This case would help us evaluate the legal
on the clothing of a dead person that allegedly drowned? importance of blood and blood stain as to:
A. fleas could not survived for more than 24 hour A. Determination of the direction of the escape of the
on the water victim or the assailant.
B. fleas would indicate that person was drowned B. Circumstantial or corroborative evidence against
or in favor of the perpetrator of the crime.
C. indicates that the person was in the
water for not more than 24 hours C. Determination of the approximate time the crime was
committed.
D. fleas indicates that early stage of putrefaction
D. Determination of the place of commission of the crime.
81. In a tropical country, if the blood is found to be soft
with the abdomen distended with gases without the 91. Mr. Xanzo was caught stealing the personal belongings
presence of rigor mortis, it may have been dead for about of Mr. Zanny particularly a pale of paint. When Mr. Xanzo
fled together with the stolen item, he did not noticed that
A. 24 hours B. 12 hours there was a hole in the pale that cause a continues
dropping of the paint. These drops of paint are example of
C. 36 hours D. 48 hours
physical evidence which can be considered as…
82. This is the second stage of death investigation that
A. Corpus Delicti Evidence B. Associative evidence
involves thorough and meticulous examination of the
cadaver C. Tracing evidence D. None of these
A. Autopsy B. Post-mortem Investigation 92. Police Investigator found on a crime scene dried liquid
purporting to be saliva. They have a suspect by a name of
C. Exhumation D. Crime scene investigation
James McKay, an American boyfriend of the victim. What
the police should do so that the saliva can be used in the
83. A condition characterized by hardening of the muscles process of investigation?
due to solidification of fats, muscles and fluids due to
A. secretor test
exposure to ice or snow.
B. microscopic test for saliva analysis
A. Cold stiffening B.
rigor mortis C. test the saliva if it is really of the suspect
C. Heath stiffening D. algor D. DNA analysis to determine if the saliva is
mortis of the suspect
84. It is the system used in the Philippines at present which 93. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor at his
is handled by a medico-legal officer who is a registered own apartment. On the deductive process of the
physician duly qualified to practice medicine in the investigation, the cause of the victim’s death is asphyxia
Philippines. by applying pressure to the latter’s neck while the assailant
using his arms was on the back of the victim. The
A. Medical Jurisprudence B. Medico-
statement best describes:
Legal System
A. strangulation B. burking
C. Medical Evidence D.
Physical Evidence C. throttling D. mugging
89. A Daughter above twenty one but below twenty three 94. Pedro A. Laskado suffered from external hemorrhage
years of age cannot leave the parental home without the of its left ear after Jose T. Angaon hit him at the back with
consent of the father or mother in whose company she a baseball bat after the latter defamed him infront of their
lives, except to become a wife, or when she exercise a classmates. What particular injury is greatly described?
professional calling. This statement pertains to a legal
importance of sex determination which is… A. Coup in jury B. Contre coup injury
A. To determine whether an individual can exercise certain C. Locus Minoris Resistencia D. Extensive injury
obligations vested by law to one sex only.

95. Mr. Sengiam walks like a robot. His legs are held c. applied force upon things
together and the steps are dragged and short. It is the
best description of what manner of walking? d. Applies force, threat or violence
A. Cerebellar B. Ataxic 3. Mario entered thru the fire exit to rob the house. The
fire exit is not intended for entrance. Will it qualify for
C. Paretic D. Spastic robbery?
96. Mr. Calimutan was abandoned by the family, unvisited a. Yes because entry thru an opening not intended
and let alone to die. This is the best example of what type for entrance to rob is robbery
of clinical death?
b. No. The entry is thru an opening intended
A. Sociological death B. Psychic death for egress.
C. Biologic death D. Physiologic death c. It must be theft
97. If you are an investigator, how would you know that d. No idea
the crime of homicide was committed during night time?
4. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The
A. if the body was discovered at night time wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night,
a man entered through that opening without breaking the
B. if the victim is a prostitute same and rob the store. What is the crime committed?
C. if the victim was wearing her lingerie a. Theft
D. all of these b. Robbery
98. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit c. Trespass to dwelling
found in the body of the victim is even, the presumption is
that no bullet is lodged in the body, but if the number of d. none
gunshot wounds entrance and exit is odd, the presumption
is that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the 5. If accused entered the house through a door, and it was
body. What principle is this? while escaping that he broke any wall, floor or window
after taking personal property inside the house, then there
A. Presumption of Similarity B. Odd-Even Rule is ___
C. Principle of Infallibility D. Numbering Principle a. Robbery
99. It is the recognition of an individual as determine, by b. Theft

characteristics which distinguish that individual from all
others. c. Malicious mischief
A. Recognition B. Identification d. none
C. Investigation D. Interpretation 6. Mario entered the house of Juan because the latter left
it open. While inside, Mario uses his false key to open a
100. A wound that is produced as a result of a sharp edged receptacle where cash and jewelries are being kept. what
instrument under an eminent danger and act of restoring is the crime committed by Mario?
of one’s safety.
a. Robbery
A. incised wound B. lacerated wound
b. Theft
C. defense wound D.justifying circumstance
c. Qualified theft
SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION 2 WITH
INTERROGATION AND INTERVIEW d. Qualified robbery
1. In robbery by force upon things, the offender must 7. If A and B told the occupant of the house that they were
enter the house or building in which the robbery was the nephews of the spouse of the owner of the house and
commited, by any of the following means, except; once inside, they robbed. What is the crime committed?
a. Through a opening not intended for entrance or a. Robbery

egress. b. Theft
b. By breaking any wall, roof, or floor or breaking c. Qualified theft
any door or window.
d. Qualified robbery
c. By using any fictitious name or pretending the
exercise of public authority. 8. A, B, C and D robbed a bank. When they were about
to flee, policemen came, and they traded shots with them.
d. By using keys borrowed from the owner If one of the policemen was killed, the offense is______
2. Important for robbery by use of force upon things, it is a. Robbery with homicide
necessary that offender ______
b. Robbery and murder
a. Broke anything as a means of entry
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating
b. enters the building or where object may be
found.

d. Homicide and the robbery is only aggravating a. Amateurs
9. From the scenario above, If one of the robbers was the b. Professionals
one killed, the remaining robbers shall be_____
c. Organized
a. Robbery with homicide
d. nota
b. Robbery and murder
16. the burglar is an aerialist, the stopover robber steps
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating from a fire escape, balcony or other building to a nearby
window. The “human fly” robber can progress upward or
d. Homicide and the robbery is only aggravating downward or the sides of a building to a selected point of
10. What if a bank employee was the one killed either by entry.
the robbers or by the policemen in the course of the latter’s a. The open door or window entry
action of arresting or trying to arrest the robbers, the crime
is______ b. The jimmy entry
a. Robbery with homicide c. The celluloid entry
b. Robbery and murder d. The stopover or human fly entry
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating 17. All but one are special aggravating circumstance in
arson.
d. Homicide and the robbery is only aggravating
a. Committed with intent to gain
11. If, on the occasion or by reason of the robbery,
somebody is killed, and there are also physical injuries b. Committed to conceal a crime.
inflicted by reason or on the occasion of the robbery
c. Committed for the benefits of others
a. Robbery with homicide and physical injury
d. Offender is motivated by spite, revenge or hatred
b. Robbery with homicide and the physical towards the owner or occupant of the house;
injury shall be aggravating
18. Is a conversation with a purpose, motivated by a desire
c. Robbery with physical injury, homicide is to obtain certain information from the person being
separate crime interviewed as to what was done, seen, felt, heard, tasted,
smell or known.
d. Only robbery, homicide and physical injury
aggravate the crime. a. Interview
12. The robbers enter the house. In entering through the b. Interrogation
window, one of the robbers stepped on a child less than
three days old. The crime is_____ c. Elicitation
a. Robbery and homicide d. Survey
b. Robbery with homicide
c. Robbery with infanticide 19. “Never conduct or let anyone conduct an interview if
the interviewer has not gone to the crime scene.”
d. Robbery with murder
a. The cardinal rule of interview
13. The tactics and style of the robbery includes this one
which is the least planned of all and is based on the b. The golden rule of interrogation
element of surprise. c. The cardinal rule interrogation
a. The selective raid d. The golden rule interview
b. The ambush 20. It is the friendly relation between the interviewer and
c. The planned operation the interviewee which is conducive to a fruitful result.
d. Nota a. The interviewer must be in a respectable civilian

attire.
14. A robbery which involves a minimum of planning but
some casing of the robbery scene. b. RAPPORT
a. The selective raid c. CONVERSATIONAL TONE OF VOICE
b. The ambush d. KNOWLEDGE OF HUMAN BEHAVIOR
c. The planned operation 21. He/she must be courteous, sympathetic and humble,
ready to ask apologies for the inconvenience of the
d. Nota interview.
15. They are robbers described as those persons who a. COMMON INTEREST
worked at robbery as a trade making it their living and
having no other means of income. b. ACTING QUALITIES

c. HUMILITY a. Interview
d. KNOWLEDGE OF HUMAN BEHAVIOR b. Investigative interview
22. It is a form or technique in the conduct of interview c. Interrogation

upon willing and cooperative witnesses, where they are
given the full opportunity to narrate their accounts without d. Custodial investigation
intervention. 29. The questioning of the suspect or person believed to
a. PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW have been committed a crime after he was taken into
custody.
b. OPEN INTERVIEW
a. Interview
c. UNSTRUCTURED INTERVIEW
b. Investigative interview
d. COGNITIVE INTERVIEW
c. Interrogation
23. This is the uncooperative and indifferent subject. To
deal with them is to find out their field of interest d. Custodial investigation
a. The Drunken Type 30.The interrogation of a friendly interrogee who has

information at the direction of or under the control of the
b. Know-Nothing Type friendly intelligence service.
c. Disinterested Type a. Debriefing
d. NOTA b. Briefing
24. These are the reluctant type of witnesses. They are c. Orientation
found among uneducated and of low level of intelligence.
d. Nota
a. The Drunken Type
31. This is a technique where the investigator, combining
b. Know-Nothing Type his skills of an actor and a psychologist, addresses the
suspect with an emotional appeal to confess. Devotees of
c. Disinterested Type a religion may belong to this type.
d. NOTA a. FRIENDLINESS
25. These are the truthful and cooperative witnesses b. SYMPATHETIC APPROACH
where the investigator could rely upon, with little or no
problem in handling them. c. EMOTIONAL APPEAL
a. Deceitful Witness d. Nota
b. Honest Witnesses 32. The investigator indicates he does not consider his
subject’s indiscretion a grave offense.
c. Timid Witnesses
a. SHIFTING THE BLAME
d. Talkative Type
b. EXTENUATION
26. These are witnesses who are prone to exaggerate,
adding irrelevant or new matters to their narration. c. BLUFF ON A SPLIT PAIR
a. Deceitful Witness d. Nota
b. Honest Witnesses 33. This is applicable when there is more than one suspect.
The suspects are separated and one is informed that other
c. Timid Witnesses has talked.
d. Talkative Type a. SHIFTING THE BLAME
27. All but one are the Purposes/Objectives of b. EXTENUATION
Interrogation
c. BLUFF ON A SPLIT PAIR
a. To obtain valuable facts.
d. Nota
b. Eliminate the innocent.
34. Subject Interrogee is placed in a longer period of
c. To determine the veracity of the statement interrogation without rest or sleep. The interrogator
of the subject permits the source to go to sleep and subsequently
d. Identify the guilty party; and awaken for another series of questioning (this is done
repeatedly).
e. Obtain confession/admission
a. OPPOSITE PERSONALITY TECHNIQUE
28. Is the skillful questioning of a hostile person suspecting
of having committed an offense or a person who is b. EXASPERATION
reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in his c. THE MUTT AND JEFF/ SWEET AND SOUR
possession which is pertinent to the investigation. METHOD

d. nota 41. What interrogation techniques when the investigator
indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a
35. These can be questions such as; “What happened?” or grave offense.
questions that begin by asking the suspect to “tell”,
“explain” or “describe” some event or situation A. Sympathetic Appeal C. Mutt and Jeff
a. Open-ended Questions B. Extenuation D. Emotional Appeal
b. Closed Questions 42. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence

in court; it should be taken from ____.
c. Forced-choice Questions
A. General View
d. Multiple Questions
B. Mid-range
36. This can easily confuse an interviewee and make the
answers given equally confusing to the interviewer. An C. Close-up view
example would be to ask, “When did he say that and what
did he do ‘and who else was present? D. General to Specific
a. Open-ended Questions 43. One of the qualities of a good investigation report

states that it must short but concise, meaning, the report
b. Closed Questions must be -
c. Forced-choice Questions A. Fair C. Clear
d. Multiple Questions B. Brief D. Impartial
37. An example would be to ask, “You wanted to injure 44. It is existing between the investigator and the subject,
him, didn’t you?” and it is usually determines the success of the
investigation.
a. Open-ended Questions
a. rapport
b. Closed Questions
b. personality
c. breadth of interest
d. Nota
d. the approach
38. Such questions allow more control over what the
suspect says and are useful where the suspect has left out 45. It is the investigation conducted by the investigator on
information that you need. However, they can limit the the suspect who is under police custody.
account given
a. investigation
a. Open-ended Questions
b. interrogation
b. Closed Questions
c. custodial investigation
d. custodial interrogation
d. Nota
46. Is the act of any person, who, with intent to gain, for
39. It is an inductive approach where each individual himself or for another shall buy, possess, keep, acquire,
suspect is evaluated with respect to specific observations concealed, sell or in any other way, deal on any articles,
relating to the crime. items, objects, or anything of value which he knows to
have been derived from the proceeds of crime or robbery
a. Factual Analysis or theft.
b. Behavior Analysis Interview a. Cattle rustling
c. Reid Method b. Fencing
d. Nota c. Lending
40. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ d. Fence
custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter
is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda 47. Refers to small bruises or punctuate wounds on the
doctrine which cannot be waived? skin
a. At the time of custodial investigation a. Stippling
b. During the announcement that he is under b. Tattooing

arrest
c. Either a or b
c. During the actual questioning
d. Neither a nor b
d. At the moment that he is invited for
questioning 48. It is the carrying away of someone else's property that
is an element of larceny. The taking away is accomplished

without violence or intimidation against a person or force 55. Refers to the totality of the electronic means employed
upon things. to systematically collect, process, store, present and share
information to end-users in support of their activities.
a. Lost Property
a. Directorate for Information and Communication
b. Damage to Property Technology Management (DICTM)
c. Asportation b. Information and Communication
Technology (ICT)
d. Hunting or Gathering c. Information and Communication System
d. Nota
49. Anti-Bouncing Check Law punishes the acts of making
and issuing a check is issued, he does not have sufficient 56. This refers to the kind of emotional violence that can
funds, and the failure to keep sufficient funds to cover the be enacted online such as bullying or harassment.
full amount of the check if presented within a period a. Cyber-Violence
of_______ b. Cyber-Deception and Theft
c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
a. 30 days from the date appearing on the check d. Cyber-Trespass
b. 60 days from the date appearing on the check 57. Crimes that involve crossing or violating boundaries of
other people digitally. For example, hacking, accessing
c. 90 days from the date appearing on the
data without consent.
check
a. Cyber-Violence
d. 180 days from the date appearing on the check
b. Cyber-Deception and Theft
50. known as the new Principles on Effective Interviewing c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
for Investigations and Information Gathering. It is a d. Cyber-Trespass
concrete alternative to interrogation methods that rely on
58. this involves offenses such as online fraud and IP theft.
coercion to extract confessions.
a. Cyber-Violence
a. Mendez Method
b. Cyber-Deception and Theft
b. Reid Method c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
d. Cyber-Trespass
c. PEACE Method
59. This involves the exploitation of children and
d. Nota distribution of pron materials through the internet.
51. The use of a computer as an instrument to further a. Cyber-Violence

illegal ends. b. Cyber-Deception and Theft
c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
a. computer crime
d. Cyber-Trespass
b. Cyber Dependent Crimes
c. Cyber Enabled Crimes 60. Refers to the instruction, communication with, storing
d. Cyber Assisted Crimes data in, retrieving data from, or otherwise making use of
any resources of a computer system or communication
52. Crimes in which the use of computer in an incidental network
aspect of the commission of the crime but many afford
evidence of the crime Example, address found in the a. Access
computer of the murder suspect, or records of messages b. Alteration
sent between the victim and the suspect before the c. Data Interference
homicide d. System Interference
a. computer crime 61. refers to any device or group of interconnected or

b. Cyber Dependent Crimes related devices, one or more of which, pursuant to a
c. Cyber Enabled Crimes program, performs automated processing of data.
d. Cyber Assisted Crimes
a. Computer system
53. Traditional crimes that are increased in their scale or b. Computer data
reach by the use of computers, computer networks or
other ICT. Examples are: Child pornography, cyber c. Data Interference
stalking, criminal copyright infringement and fraud d. System Interference
a. computer crime 62. This refers to the interception made by technical

b. Cyber Dependent Crimes means without the right of any non-public transmission of
c. Cyber Enabled Crimes computer data to, form, or within a computer system
d. Cyber Assisted Crimes including electromagnetic emissions from a computer
system carrying such computer data
54. Crimes that can only be committed through computer,
computer networks, or other form of ICT. Examples of a. Illegal Interception
these are hacking malware, and Dos Attacks b. Data Interference
c. System Interference
a. computer crime d. computer virus
b. Cyber Dependent Crimes
c. Cyber Enabled Crimes
d. Cyber Assisted Crimes

63. refers to any representation of facts, information, or c. Web Scripting Virus
concepts in a form suitable for processing in a computer d. Boot Sector Virus
system
72. This type of virus comes into action when you execute
a. Computer system a file containing a virus. Otherwise, it remains dormant
b. Computer data
a. Action virus
c. Data Interference b. Direct action virus
d. System Interference c. Action worm
d. Direct action worm
64. This refers to the intentional or reckless alteration,
damaging, deletion or deterioration of computer data 73. written in the same macro language used for software
applications. Such viruses spread when you open an
a. Illegal Interception
infected document, often through email attachments
b. Data Interference
c. System Interference a. File Infector Virus
d. computer virus b. Multipartite Virus
c. Macro Virus
65. Refers to the modification or change, in form or d. Nota
substance, of an existing computer data or program
74. This common virus inserts malicious code into
a. Access
executable files or files used to perform certain functions
b. Alteration or operations on a system
c. Data Interference
d. System Interference a. File Infector Virus
b. Multipartite Virus
66. The intentional alteration or reckless hindering or
c. Macro Virus
interference with the functioning of a computer network
d. Nota
a. Illegal Interception
75. This kind of virus infects and spreads in multiple ways.
b. Data Interference It can infect both program files and system sectors
c. System Interference
d. computer virus a. File Infector Virus
b. Multipartite Virus
67. is a type of malicious code or program written to alter
c. Macro Virus
the way a computer operates and is designed to spread
d. Nota
from one computer to another.
76. This refers to the acquisition of a domain name over
a. computer virus
the internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy
b. worm reputation, and deprive others from registering the same
c. trojan horse
d. malware a. Misuse of Devices
b. Cybersquatting
68. This type of virus can take control when you start-or
c. Cyber theft
boot- your computer. One way it can spread is by plugging d. Cyber fraud
an infected USB drive into your computer
77. The input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data
a. Polymorphic Virus
without right resulting in inauthentic data with the intent
b. Resident Virus
that it be considered or acted upon for legal purposes as
c. Web Scripting Virus if it were authentic
d. Boot Sector Virus
a. Computer-related Forgery
69. changes its code each time an infected file is
b. Computer-related Fraud
executed. It does this to evade antivirus programs
c. Computer-related Identity Theft
a. Polymorphic Virus d. CONTENT-RELATED OFFENSE
b. Resident Virus
78. This is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse,
c. Web Scripting Virus
transfer, possession, alteration or deletion of identifying
d. Boot Sector Virus
information belonging to another, whether natural or
70. This type of virus “hijacks” certain web browser juridical, without right
functions, and you may be automatically directed to an
unintended website
a. Browser virus c. Computer-related Identity Theft
b. Browser Hijacker d. CONTENT-RELATED OFFENSE
c. Browser malware
d. Browser worm
79. This refers to the unauthorized input, alteration, or
71. This type of viruses exploits the code of web browsers
deletion of computer data or program or interference in
and web pages. If you access such a web page, the virus
the functioning of a computer system, causing damage
can infect your computer
thereby with fraudulent intent
a. Polymorphic Virus
b. Resident Virus

c. Computer-related Identity Theft 87. This refers to any personal information controller or
d. CONTENT-RELATED OFFENSE personal information processor or any of its officials,
employees or agents, who, with malice or in bad faith,
80. This refers to the willful engagement, maintenance, discloses unwarranted or false information relative to any
control, or operation, directly or indirectly, of any personal information or personal sensitive information
lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity, obtained by him or her.
with the aid of a computer system, for favor or a. Malicious Disclosure
consideration b. Unauthorized Disclosure
c. Fraudulent disclosure
a. Cybersex d. Nota
b. Cyber voyeurism
c. Child Sexual Exploitation 88. It is the focus of the preliminary investigation and also
d. Cyber libel the primary source of physical evidence
81. Every defamatory imputation is____________, if no a. The Crime Scene

good intention and justifiable motive for making it is b. The Victim
shown, c. The Suspect
d. Sana all
a. Presumed to be false even if it be true
b. presumed to be a warning even if it be true 89. It’s admissible win it fairly and accurately reflects the
c. presumed to be malicious even if it be true witness testimony is more probative than prejudicial.
d. presumed to be true even if with malice
a. Documentary Evidence
82. This refers to the acts of hiring, employing, using,
persuading, inducing or coercing child perform in obscene b. Demonstrative Evidence
exhibition and indecent shows c. Physical Evidence
d. All of the above
a. Child Trafficking
b. Obscene Publications and Indecent Shows 90. Is used to refer to a declaration that is made at an
c. Child Prostitution and Other Sexual Abuse event that proves the event happened because the words
d. nota were uttered upon witnessing the event.
a. Res gestae
83. refers to any card, plate or other means of account b. Part of res gestae
access that can be used to obtain money, good, services, c. Common Reputation
or any other thing value or to initiate a transfer of funds d. Nota
a. Access program 91. This is the most common type of witness. It is a person
b. Access Devices who watched certain events and describes what they saw.
c. Access regulation
d. Nota a. A character witness
84. Copying or counterfeiting any credit card, payment b. A lay witness

card or debit card, and obtaining information there in with
the intent of accessing the account and operating the c. An expert witness or a specialist
same whether or not cash is withdrawn or monetary injury
is caused by a perpetrator against the account holder or d. Nota
the depositary bank.
92. Tasked to investigate all cyber related crimes
a. Phishing punishable under Cybercrime Prevention Act and related
b. Skimming laws, and to establish and maintain an Incident Response
c. Hacking Team and Digital Forensic Section that will be responsible
d. Cracking for responding to the current and emerging cyber threats,
and conducting digital forensic examination and analysis.
85. Refers to an authorized access into or interference in
a computer system or server, or information and a. National Bureau of Investigation
communication system, or axis in order to corrupt, alter, Cybercrime Division (NBI-CCD)
steal, or destroy using a computer
b. PNP Anti- Cybercrime Group (PNP-ACG)
a. Phishing
b. Skimming c. Department of Justice – Office of Cybercrime
c. Hacking (DOJ-OOC)
d. Cracking
d. All of the above
86. Refers to a system for generating, sending, receiving,
storing or otherwise processing electronic data messages
93. Central Authority in all matters relating to international
or electronic documents and includes the computer system
mutual assistance and extradition for cybercrime and
a. Directorate for Information and Communication cyber-related matters.
Technology Management (DICTM)
a. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime
b. Information and Communication Technology
Division (NBI-CCD)
(ICT)
c. Information and Communication System
b. PNP Anti- Cybercrime Group (PNP-ACG)
d. Nota

c. Department of Justice – Office of environment. From proxemics to mirroring or the use of
Cybercrime (DOJ-OOC) enhanced information gathering skills.
d. All of the above a. Body Language Cues
94. Is a National Operational Support Unit primarily b. Verbal Cues

responsible for the implementation of pertinent Philippine
laws on cybercrimes and advocating the anti-cybercrime c. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis
campaign
d. Kinesic Subject Control
a. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime
Division (NBI-CCD) 100. Involves the interviewer determining the subject’s
frame of mind in response to the interview stress. It also
b. PNP Anti- Cybercrime Group (PNP-ACG) helps the interviewer in determining if the subject is
suffering from personality disorder or psychosis.
c. Department of Justice – Office of Cybercrime
(DOJ-OOC) a. Practical Kinesic Interrogation phase
d. All of the above b. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis
95.is the actual police intervention in a computer crime c. Kinesic Subject Control
incident where the acquisition of matters of evidentiary
value is traceable within the computer’s hardware, d. Practical Kinesic Analysis Phase
software, and its network.
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT
a. Computer Crime Response INVESTIGATION WITH DRIVING
b. Digital Forensic 1. The minimum age for non-professional driver’s license

applicant is:
c. Cyber Security
A. 16 C. 18
d. Cyber Response
B. 17 D. 21
96. The traffic data and subscriber information relating to
2. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave
communication services provided by a service provider
from the accident area, if any of the circumstances below
shall be preserved for a minimum period of______
are present, except:
a. 3 months from the date of the transaction. A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other
persons by reason of an accident
b. 12 months from the date of the transaction.
B. He surrenders to proper authority
c. 6 months from the date of the transaction.
C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to
d. 1 month from the date of the transaction. aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause

97. Refers only to the communication’s origin, destination,
route, time, date, size, duration, or type of underlying 3. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is
service, but not content, nor identities. both rotating a slipping is called:
a. traffic data A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark
b. Content data B. Centrifugal force D. Skid mark
4. The chronological arrangement of the color of the

c. All of the above
traffic lights from the top.
d. Nota A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow,
green
98. Assessment of truth and deception through the use of
verbal cues coupled with methods of human recall and B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow, red
symptoms made self-evident in the statement taking
process. 5. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is
referred to as:
a. Body Language Cues
A. final position C. hazards
b. Verbal Cues B. disengagement D. stopping
c. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis 6. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest
due to
d. Kinesic Subject Control
traffic violation, the following procedures are followed
99.It refers to the various techniques available to the except:
interviewer to take control and command of the interview
A. bring the suspended person before the court

B. detention of the arrested person may take place d. HPG
C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant 13. Early Warning Device must be installed___________
to the front and at the rear of the motor vehicle whenever
D. impose the probable penalty that might be the motorcycle is stationary for any reason, or it is
imposed compelled to stop on an area where standing or parking is
prohibited.
7. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of a. At least at least 3 meters

the following evidence will show how the accident b. At least at least 4 meters
happened?
c. At least at least 5 meters
A. hole on the road pavement
d. At least at least 6 meters
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
14. A traffic citation issued by Local Government Unit.
C. point of impact
a. TVR
D. vehicle has break failure
b. OVR
8. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in
traffic control is c. TOP
A. selection of geographical areas for strict d. SOP

enforcement
15. liability as a result of civil negligence or tort or quasi-
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic delict.
hours
a. Culpa Contractual
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
b. Culpa Aquiliana
D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
measure for future violation c. Culpa Criminal
9. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is d. All of the above

to 16. A groove made by a hard part of a motor vehicle to
A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather another car after side sweeping each other or it may be
than as causes KVB left on a road surface by a motor vehicle which overturned
then slid on the road surface.
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other
factors as secondary causes a. Ruts
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately b. Gouge

prior to the accident as a cause c. Paint Strips
D. look for the "key event" that cause the d. Furrows
accident
17. It is the first action taken by a traffic nit to escape from
10. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion a collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
engine shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor
vehicle passes through a street of any city, municipality a. Perception of Hazard
or thickly populated district or barrio.
b. Start of the evasive action.
A. wiper
c. Initial Contact.
B. light
d. Maximum Engagement
C. muffler
18. It is greatest collapse or overlap in a collision. The
D. windshield force between the traffic unit and the object collided with
are greatest at maximum engagement.
11. Originally meant “trade
a. Initial Contact.
a. TRAFICO
b. Disengagement
b. TRAFIGA
c. Key event
c. TRAFALGAR SQUARE
d. Nota
d. TRAFFIC
19. The place and time of which the hazard could have
12. Who issued TVR or Traffic Violation Report? been perceived by a normal person. It precedes actual
a. MMDA perception and is the beginning of perception delay.
b. LGU a. Perception Delay
c. LTO b. Point of Possible Perception

c. Point of no Escape d. Right of way
d. Final Position
20. It is the adjusting of speed, position on the road, and 27. This principles refers to the legal or customary
direction of motion, giving signals of intent to turn or slow precedence which allows one vehicle to cross or pass in
down, or any other action in situations involving potential front of another.
hazards.
a. The doctrine of right of way
a. Strategy
b. The doctrine of last clear chance
b. Tactic
c. Last clear chance
c. Safe Speed
d. Right of way
d. Nota
28. Whenever the load of any vehicle extends
_____beyond the bed or body, there shall be displayed at
every projecting end of such load a red flag not less than
21. Any circumstance contributing to a result without thirty centimeters both in length and width
which the result could not have occurred or it is an element
necessary to produce the result, but not by itself sufficient. a. More than two meter
a. Factor b. More than one meter
b. Cause c. More than two centimeter
c. Attribute d. More than one centimeter
d. Modifier. 29. In lieu of the required red flags from the question
above, there shall be displayed red lights visible_________
23. The combination of simultaneous and sequential
factors without any one of which result could not have a. at least ten meters away
occurred.
b. at least thirty meters away
a. Factor
c. at least fifty meters away
b. Cause
d. at least 100 meters away
c. Attribute
30. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade
d. Modifier. has been ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross
the route. While the parade is in progress, an ambulance
24. Any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or driver on an emergency run attempts to drive his
other purposes as a pedestrian or driver, including any ambulance across the route while the parade is passing.
vehicle, or animal which he is using. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should.
a. Pedestrian A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police
b. Motorists officer contact his superior and obtains decisions
c. Traffic users B. stop the parade long enough to permit

the ambulance to cross the street
d. Traffic unit
C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the
25. The following are the three E’s of traffic management, superior's order
except
D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest
a. Economy detour which will add at least then minutes to run
b. Engineering 31. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on
one of the following ground:
c. Enforcement
A. offense committed is serious
d. Education
B. bringing the person to your custody
e. Nota
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge
26. Provides that where both parties are negligent but the of violation
negligent act of one is appreciably later in point of time
than that of the other, or where it is impossible to D. if the person is under the imminent danger
determine whose fault or negligence brought about the
occurrence of the incident. 32. Before making a U-turn, make a right turn signal
_______before you start moving to the right side of the
a. The doctrine of right of way road
b. The doctrine of last clear chance a. at least 100 m
c. Last clear chance b. at least 100 ft.

c. at least 10 ft. 40. The entire width between boundary lines of every way
or place of which any part is open to the use of the public
d. at least 10m for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or
33. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more custom.
traffic accidents than any other part in the area. The Police A. Traffic way C. Traffic units
unit assignment to the area should.
B. Road way D. Subway
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and
wait for violators. 41. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?
B. Park your motorcycle at the center of A. To teach the rudiments of driving

intersection to caution motorist
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral
C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden responsibilities in traffic
from view
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for
D. Cruise all the assigned area but give a driving license
extra attention to the intersection
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and
34. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned regulations
with accidents that involves one or both of the elements
namely 42. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation
but preoccupied at a moment.
A. motor vehicles and traffic way
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. motor vehicle and victim
B. written warning D. oral warning
C. victim and traffic way
43. Considered as emergency vehicle, except:
D. victim and traffic unit
A. Police car on call C. Ambulance on call
35. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other
than fatal to one or more persons. B. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car
A. non-fatal injury accident 44. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes
were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not
B. fatal accident free to rotate.
C. traffic law enforcer A. skid marks C. scuff marks
D. property damage accident B. key event D. debris
36. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or 45. The linkages between two municipalities with right of
stolen automobile license plates. The best reason for this way from 15 meters to 60 meters.
practice is to
a. National Roads
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
b. Provincial Roads
B. prevent cards from being stolen
c. City Roads
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
d. Municipal Roads
D. detain any person found using or attempting to
use any of these plates. 46. Traffic lights were first introduced on______
a. Subway
38. One of the following statements that best indicates the b. Railway
main purpose of traffic law enforcement is c. Airport
a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules d. Highway
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottleneck 47. One of the world’s first electric traffic lights was
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas developed in 1912 in Utah, USA by _______a detective on
the city police force.
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow
of traffic a. Wester Lire
39. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion b. Lester Wire
is best characterized by, except: c. Lester lire
A. Poor legislative activities d. Wester Wire
B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit 48. The first state in U.S that put up the first automatic
C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians (three colored) lights
D. Presence of traffic officers a. Boston

b. Massachusetts A. Passenger Automobiles
c. Philadelphia B. Articulated Vehicle
d. New York C. Motor Vehicle
49. A state or condition of severe road congestion arising D. All of the above
when continuous queues of vehicles block an entire
network of intersecting streets bringing traffic in all 55. In case of violation of R.A. 10930 by a driver’s license
directions to a complete standstill. applicant by reason of misinterpretation, connivance,
falsification or cheating for the first time, what is the
a. Traffic Build-up additional penalty imposed aside from the fine?
b. Traffic Congestions I. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license
c. Traffic Jams (snarl-up) II. Prohibition from applying for driver’s license for a period
of two (2) years
d. Gridlocks
III. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license for a
50. These are conditions on road networks that occurs as period of four (4) years
use increases, and is characterized by slower speeds,
longer trip times and increased vehicular queueing. IV. Perpetual disqualification from being granted a driver’s
license
a. Traffic Build-up
A. I and II only
b. Traffic Congestions
B. II and III only
c. Traffic Jams (snarl-up)
C. II and IV only
d. Gridlocks
D. I and III only
51. It is a building in which two or more motor vehicles,
either with or without drivers, are kept ready for hire to 56. In case of repetition of offense by a driver’s license
the public, but shall not include street stands, public applicant, what is the penalty imposed under R.A. 10930?
service stations, or other public places designated by the
proper authority as parking spaces for motor vehicles for A. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license and a fine
hire while waiting or soliciting business. of twenty thousand pesos
A. Car outlet (P20,000.00)
B. Garage B. Prohibition from applying for driver’s license for a period

of two (2) years and a fine of
C. Parking
twenty thousand pesos (P20,000.00)
D. All of the above
C. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license for a period
52. Every public thoroughfare, public boulevard, driveway, of four (4) years and a fine of
avenue, park, alley and callejon, but shall not include
roadway upon grounds owned by private persons, twenty thousand pesos (P20,000.00)
colleges, universities, or other similar institutions. D. Perpetual disqualification from being granted a
A. Street driver’s license and a fine oftwenty thousand pesos
(P20,000.00)
B. Sidewalk
57. What is the reckoning period in counting the validity of
C. Highway a driver's license?
D. All of the above A. Date of issuance
53. It is a motor vehicle with a trailer having no front axle B. Date of Birth
and so attached that part of the trailer rests upon the
motor vehicle and a substantial part of the weight of the C. Date of Application
trailer and of its load is borne by the motor vehicle. Such D. Date first used
a trailer shall be called a “semi-trailer”.
58. In cases of motor vehicles with 3-digits plate number,
A. Passenger Automobiles the middle number being number 4,
B. Articulated Vehicle within which working days shall the motor vehicle be
C. Motor Vehicle registered?
D. All of the above A. First week
54. All pneumatic-tire vehicles of types similar to those B. Second week

usually known under the following terms: touring car, C. Third week
command car, speedster, sports car, roadster, jeep, cycle,
car (except motor wheel and similar small outfits which are D. Fourth week
classified with motorcycles), coupe, landaulet, closed car,
limousine, cabriolet, and sedan.

59. A motor vehicle with plate number AAK 595 must be B. Joseph-Michel and Jacques-Etienne Montgolfier
registered in what month?
C. Monsieur Charles
A. June
D. Wright brothers
B. May
65. The first person to fly a heavier-than-air machine, a
C. July full sized vehicle that could be controlled
D. April by its pilot.
60. It is a device used to limit the top speed of a vehicle A. Wilbur Wright
through the employment of a mechanical, electronic or
communications system or the combination of these B. Orville Wright
systems or similar devices capable of performing the same C. Bishop Wright
function.
D. All of the above
A. Speed Limiter
66. A Scottish engineer and later prominent in road design
B. Speedometer and building in England who
C. Speed Limit invented the process known as macadamisation in the
D. All of the above construction of roads, and he made them
61. The following are tests conducted in case a driver is more durable.
suspected of driving under the influence of liquor, except: A. KirkPatrick MacMillan
A. Eye Test B. Karl von Drais
B. Walk-and-Turn C. John Loudon McAdam
C. One-Leg Stand D. John Palmer
D. Question and Answer Test 67. The following are the classification of national roads,
62. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection which does not belong to the group?
at approximately the same time, what is the proper course A. Primary
of action?
B. Tertiary
A. The driver of the vehicle on the right shall yield the right
of way to the vehicle on the left C. Provincial
B. The driver of the vehicle on the front shall yield the right D. None of the above
of way to the vehicle on the back
68. These are highways with limited access, normally with
C. The driver of the vehicle on the left shall yield the back interchanges, and may include
of way to the vehicle on the front
facilities for levying tolls for passage in an open or closed
D. The driver of the vehicle on the left shall yield system.
the right of way to the vehicle on the right
A. National Roads
63. These were invented in the early Warring States Period
by Mozi and Lu Ban, two philosophers who came after the B. Expressways
teachings of Confucius. The first of these were used for
C. Provincial Roads
measuring distances, which was useful information for
moving large armies across difficult terrain. They were also D. All of the above
used to calculate and record wind readings and provided
a unique form of communication similar to ship flags at 69. These are roads directly connecting major cities of at
sea. least around 100,000 people but do
A. Ancient Chinese Kites not include cities within the metropolitan areas.
B. Baden-Powell Kites A. National Tertiary Roads
C. Da Vinci’s Ornithopter B. National Secondary Roads
D. Montgolfier Balloon C. Expressways
64. Who are the siblings, born into a family of paper D. National Primary Roads
manufacturers in France, who were able to demonstrate
70. Which of the following does not fall within the road
their hot-air balloon before the French King and sent a
classification, National Secondary
sheep, a duck, and a rooster into the air? They were able
to make two men make the first successful human Ascent Roads?
into the air.
A. Directly Connects Cities to National Primary Rodas,
A. Leonardo Da Vinci except in Metropolitan Areas

B. Directly Connects Major Airports to National Primary 76. This license cannot be used by the driver as authority
Roads to drive a motor vehicle even in emergencies and to be an
alternative to the driver who is not feeling well.
C. Connect to Major Provincial Government
Infrastructure A. Professional Driver’s License
D. Directly Connects Provincial Capitals within the same B. Conductor’s License

Region
C. Non-Professional Driver’s License
71. It refers to all roads that connect to Provincial and
National Roads. D. All of the above
A. Municipal and City Roads 78. Having a driver’s license is a:
B. Provincial Roads A. Constitutional Right
C. Barangay Roads B. Statutory Right
D. Nota C. Privilege
D. None of the above
72. It is defined as a manner of driving motor vehicles by 79. Green light at an intersection means:
preventing crashes before they occur. A. Pedestrians are not allowed to cross the
It is the demonstration of an attitude, awareness and pedestrian lanes
driving skills. B. Stop at the designated line
A. Race Driving C. Proceed through the intersection with caution
B. Road Rage D. Stop and yield to pedestrians
C. Road Courtesy 80. A “crossbuck” sign means that you are approaching a:
D. Defensive Driving A. Railway Crossing
73. These are road hazards that are permanent conditions B. Intersection
and situations along the roadway which includes restrictive
vision areas such as curves, hills, and hidden driveways, C. Dangerous Highways
intersections, and merging highways.
A. Dynamic Hazards
81. It refers to the standardized tests to initially assess and
B. Nuisance determine intoxication of drivers.
C. Fixed Hazards A. Field Sobriety Test
D. All of the above B. Breath Analyzer
74. The following are the rights of a driver during an C. Chemical Test
apprehension for any traffic violation, except:
D. All of the above
A. Right to know the complete name and rank of the
apprehending traffic officer 82. It is equipment that can determine the blood alcohol
concentration level of a person through
B. Right to know the exact alleged traffic violation
testing of his breath.
C. Right to contest within the prescribed period
A. Field Sobriety Test
D. All of the above
B. Breath Analyzer
E. None of the above
C. Chemical Test
75. Which of the following is not a right of a driver during
an apprehension for any traffic violation? D. All of the above
A. Right to contest the alleged traffic violation within the 83. It refers to breath, saliva, urine, or blood tests to
prescribed period determine the blood alcohol concentration level and/or
positive indication of dangerous drugs and similar
B. Right to request and see traffic mission/deployment substances in a person’s body.
order
A. Field Sobriety Test
C. Right to explain the circumstances behind the
apprehension B. Breath Analyzer
D. None of the above C. Chemical Test
E. All of the above D. All of the above

84. If the driver drives a private motor vehicle with a gross C. Pentagon
vehicle weight not exceeding 4,500 kg, what is the
minimum BAC level required by law to be conclusive proof D. Hexagon
that said driver is driving under the influence of alcohol? 91. What hand signal must a driver give when he wants to
A. 0.05% stop?
B. 0.50% A. Left arm held down and hand pointing at the

ground
C. 5%
B. Left arm bent at elbow, hand point up
D. 50%
C. Left arm held straight horizontally
85. If a driver drives a truck, what is the BAC level required
in order to constitute as a conclusive proof that said driver D. All of the above
is driving under the influence of alcohol? 92. What hand signal must a driver give when he wants to
A. More than 0.05% turn left?
B. More than 0.50% A. Left arm held down and hand pointing at the ground
C. More than 0.0% B. Left arm bent at elbow, hand point up
D. None of the above C. Left arm held straight horizontally
86. It is the organization, arrangement, guidance, and D. All of the above

control of both stationary and moving traffic, including 93. In traffic direction and control, when both traffic lights
pedestrians, bicyclists, and all types of vehicles. and law enforcer are directing traffic,
A. Traffic Education which will the driver follow to avoid confusion?
B. Traffic Engineering A. Traffic Light
C. Traffic Enforcement B. Traffic Law
D. Traffic Management C. Traffic Enforcer
87. It is a driver’s license that may allow a driver to operate D. None of the above
any vehicle except a public utility
94. What should a police officer do first and foremost upon
vehicle and without compensation. arrival at the traffic accident scene?
A. Professional Driver’s License A. Cordon the area
B. Non-Professional Driver’s License B. Identify the drivers
C. Student Permit C. Photograph the traffic accident scene
D. Conductor’s License D. Notify the police station upon arrival at the
88. It is an expired driver’s license not renewed for more scene
than two (2) years after the expiry date. 95. This is also known as the Land Transportation and
A. Delinquent Driver’s License Traffic Code.
B. Expired Driver’s License A. Republic Act No. 4136
C. Revoked Driver’s License B. Republic Act No. 6374
D. Suspended Driver’s License C. Republic Act No. 10586
89. It is an assault provoked by an incident that occurred D. Republic Act No. 10913
on a roadway where there is an aggressive driver and a 96. It is the movement of goods and persons from place
victim. to place and the various means by which such movement
A. Road Rage is accomplished.
B. Direct Assault A. Traffic
C. Reckless Driving B. Transportation
D. Hit and Run C. Movement
90. The traffic sign that warns drivers of the presence of D. None of the above
school children within the vicinity. 97. It is a vehicle propelled by any power other than
A. Octagon muscular power using the public highways,
B. Nonagon but accepting road rollers, trolley cars, street-sweepers,

sprinklers, lawnmowers, bulldozers,

graders, forklifts, amphibian trucks, and cranes if not used b. Fire Gases d. Flame
on public highways, vehicles which
3. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.
run only on rails or tracks, and tractors, trailers and
traction engines of all kinds used exclusively a. Fire Suppression c. Fire Inspection
for agricultural purposes. b. Fire Control d. Fire prevention
A. Passenger Automobiles 4. Fires involving flammable liquids.
B. Articulated Vehicle a. Class C c. Class D
C. Motor Vehicle
b. Class B d. Class A
D. All of the above
5. Caused by volcanic eruption or humidity.
98. It is a motor vehicle with a trailer having no front axle
and so attached that part of the trailer a. Providential fire c. Unnatural fire
rests upon the motor vehicle and a substantial part of the b. Intentional fire d. Accidental fire
weight of the trailer and of its load is
borne by the motor vehicle. Such a trailer shall be called a 6. Fire stage that has the highest rate of intensity.
“semi-trailer”.
a. Incipient c. Smoldering
A. Passenger Automobiles
b. Free burning d. Initial
B. Articulated Vehicle
C. Motor Vehicle
7. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat.
D. All of the above
a. Thermal balance c. Burning
99. All pneumatic-tire vehicles of types similar to those
usually known under the following terms: b. Oxidation d. Pyrolysis
touring car, command car, speedster, sports car, roadster,

jeep, cycle, car (except motor wheel
8. Composed of tiny solid particles.
and similar small outfits which are classified with
motorcycles), coupe, landaulet, closed car, a. Fire gases c. Smoke
limousine, cabriolet, and sedan. b. Flames d. Heat
A. Passenger Automobiles
B. Articulated Vehicle 9. Means employed to pacify the fire.
C. Motor Vehicle a. Fire prevention c. Fire control
D. All of the above b. Fire safety d. Fire suppression
100. Every and any driver hired or paid for driving or

operating a motor vehicle, whether for privateuse or for
10. Rate of temperature of fire.
hire to the public.
a. Heat c. Magnitude
A. Owner
b. Intensity d. Ignition point
B. Professional Driver
C. Dealer
11. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation
D. All of the above
from destructive fires.
a. Fire control c. Fire prevention

FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION
b. Fire safety d. Fire inspection
1. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress
destructive fires, implements the fire code and investigates
all fires cases in the Philippines 12. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the
size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning.
a. BFP c. BJMP
a. Temperature c. Intensity
b. PNP d. Bureau of Fire in the Phillippines
b. Heat d. Magnitude
2. Product of combustion which combustible materials and
oxidizing agents react to heat. 13. Which of the following will not cause the investigator
to hypothesize that the series of fires are not performed
a. Fire c. Smoke
by a serial arsonist?

a. There is a significant difference in modus c. Premixed Flame
operandi in all series of fire
d. Diffusion Flame
b. There is significant variations as to the time of the
commission of arson 20. Describes the period when the four elements of the
fire tetrahedron come together and combustion begins.
c. There is a significant similarity in manner of commission
of offense a. IGNITION
d. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire b. GROWTH
14. They are liquids having a flash point of 37.8 °C (100°F) c. FLASHOVER
and a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psia. d. FULLY-DEVELOPED
a. Flammable liquids 21. As the fire consumes the available fuel in the
b. Combustible Liquids compartment, the rate of heat released begins to decline.
c. Corrosive liquid a. DECAY
d. All of the above b. FULLY-DEVELOPED
15. A gas in which at all normal temperature inside its c. FLASHOVER

container; exist solely in the gaseous state under pressure. d. Nota
a. Liquefied Gas 22. The force exerted by the molecules on the surface of
b. Compressed Gas the liquid at the equilibrium
c. Cryogenic Gas a. Specific gravity
d. Nota b. Vapor density
16. a liquefied gas which exists in its container at c. Vapor pressure

temperature far below normal atmospheric temperature, d. nota
usually slightly above its boiling point and correspondingly
low to moderate pressure. 23. The weight of volume of pure gas compared to weight
of a volume of dry air at the same temperature and
a. Liquefied Gas pressure
b. Compressed Gas a. Specific gravity
c. Cryogenic Gas b. Vapor density
d. Nota c. Vapor pressure
17. It is a phenomena in which a combustible materials d. nota
generates or produces heat because of internal chemical
action (oxidation) and eventually ignites without any 24. The minimum temperature to which the substance in
exposure to external sources of fire, spark or abnormal the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause self-
heat. contained combustion without addition of heat from
outside sources
a. Pyrolysis
a. Temperature
b. Combustion
b. Ignition temperature
c. Spontaneous Combustion
c. Boiling Point
d. Fire
d. Nota
18. A flame when there is complete combustion of fuel and
has relatively high temperature. It does not deposit soot 25. The temperature at which the material will give off
because it is a product of complete combustion ample vapors to keep burning
a. Luminous Flame a. Temperature
b. Non-Luminous Flame b. Ignition temperature
c. Premixed Flame c. Boiling Point
d. Diffusion Flame d. Nota
19. This flame is exemplified by a Bunsen-type laboratory 26. These are changes whereby energy is absorbed or is
burner where hydrocarbon is thoroughly mixed with air added before the reaction takes place
before reaching the flame zone.
a. Exothermic reaction
a. Luminous Flame
b. Endothermic reaction
b. Non-Luminous Flame
c. Oxidation

d. Combustion or flame b. Flashmob
27. A lightning that is shorter in duration, capable of c. Flashlight

splintering a property or literally blowing apart an entire
structure, produces electrical current with tremendous d. Flash amber
amperage and very high temperature e. Nota
a. Hot Bolt 34. This activity involves developing and defining
b. Cold Bolt systematic course of actions that maybe performed in
order to realize the objectives of fire protection: involves
c. Lightning the process of establishing the SOP in case fire breaks out.
d. Bolt east five a. PRE-FIRE PLANNING
28. A form of static electricity; a natural current with a b. EVALUATION – SIZE – UP

great magnitude, producing tremendous amperage and
voltage. c. EVACUATION
a. Hot Bolt d. ENTRY
b. Cold Bolt 35. Any action taken by the firefighters to remove

occupants/ persons from building/ hazards to a safety
c. Lightning place
d. Bolt east five a. SALVAGE
29. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate b. RESCUE

flame propagation.
c. EVACUATION
a. Accelerant
d. Nota
b. Plant
36. The activity of protecting the properties from
c. Trailer preventable damage other than the fire.
d. Nota a. SALVAGE
30. The preparation of flammable substances in order to b. RESCUE

spread the fire.
c. EVACUATION
a. Accelerant
d. Nota
b. Plant
37. This the activity of transferring people, livestock, and
c. Trailer property away from the burning area to minimize damage
or destruction that the fire might incur in case it
d. Nota propagates to other adjacent buildings.
a. SALVAGE
31. Is the abnormal movement of fire and confuses the b. RESCUE
fire investigator in determining the exact point where the
fire originated. c. EVACUATION
a. Thermal Balance d. Nota
b. Thermal imbalance 38. This is the activity of restricting the fire at the place
(room) where it started : the process of preventing fire
c. Backdraft from extending from another section or form one section
d. Biteback to another section of the involved building.
32. A fatal condition that takes place when the fire resists a. EXPOSURE
extinguishment operations and become stronger and b. CONFINEMENT
bigger instead.
c. ABATEMENT
a. Thermal Balance
d. FIRE PROTECTION
b. Thermal imbalance
39. A method whereby a device such as smoke ejector is
c. Backdraft utilized to remove faster excessive heat and dense smoke
d. Biteback a. Vertical ventilation
33. Better known as dust explosion. This may happen b. Cross or horizontal ventilation
when the metal post that is completely covered with dust
is going to be hit by lightning. c. Mechanical force ventilation
a. Flash fire d. NOTA

41. Shall have the full responsibility and power to d. 180 days
investigate fire incidents with a total amount of damage
not exceeding to thirty million pesos. 47. The process of first raising the temperature in separate
the more volatile from the less volatile parts and then
a. Municipal Fire Marshal cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to
produce a nearly purified substance.
b. City Fire Marshal
a. Distillation
c. District Fire Marshal Level
b. Refining
d. Provincial Fire Marshal
c. Smelting
d. Nota
42. The Chief, BFP or his/her duly authorized
representative shall issue notice/order to owner to comply 48. The heat capacity or the measure of the amount of
upon the report that a violation of RA 9514 regulations is heat required raising the temperature of a unit mass of a
being committed, the period within which compliance shall substance one-degree
be effected, which shall be_____
a. Latent heat
a. Within 15 days to 30 days after the receipt of the
notice b. Specific Heat
b. Within 10 to 15 days after the receipt of the c. Absorbed heat

notice d. Heat
c. Within 30 days to 1 month after the receipt of the 49. The change of fuel from solid to gas
notice
a. VAPORIZATION
d. Within 1 month after the receipt of the notice
b. SUBLIMATION
43. Any building or structure causing clear and present
imminent fire danger to adjoining establishments and c. VAPORIZATION
habitations shall be declared ____
d. CONDENSATION
a. Firetrap
e. PRECIPITATION
b. public nuisance
50. The amount of heat to produce a change of phase is
c. Danger called____
d. Closed a. Latent heat
44. Failure to abate such nuisance by the owner, the Chief b. Specific Heat
BFP or his/her duly authorized representative shall
forthwith cause its____ c. Absorbed heat
a. Demolition d. Heat
b. Bidding 51. If the investigator did not found any trace of

incendiarism, which of the following will be the
c. Summary abatement assumption?
d. Abatement a. The fire was intentional c. The fire

was providential
45. If the assessed value of the nuisance or the amount to
be spent in abating the same is more than One hundred b. The fire was accidental d.
thousand pesos (P100,000.00), the owner, administrator The fire was not accidental
or occupant thereof shall abate the hazard within ______
52. System of interconnected pipe that supplies water for
a. 10 days fire suppression system in a particular installation.
b. 15 days a. Wet pipe c. Stand pipe
c. 30 days b. Dry pipe d. Sprinkler
d. 60 days 53. Product of fire that is detected by gas chromatogram

and ion spectrometer.
46. If the owner, administrator or occupant fails to
reimburse the government of the expenses incurred in the a. Flames c. Soot
summary abatement within ________from the completion
of such abatement, the building or structure shall be sold b. Heat d. Fire gases
at public auction.
54. To point out the difference between the incendiary
a. 60 days cause of fire and natural cause the fire investigator must
photograph the natural fire pattern and:
b. 90 days
a. Arson fire pattern c.
c. 120 days Providential fire pattern

b. Accidental fire pattern d. Suspicious fire 63. These are liquids having a flashpoint below thirty-
pattern seven and eight-tenths degrees Celsius
55. Most arson cases are proved by__________________ (37.8 ०C).

evidence rather than that direct evidence.
A. Class I Solvents
a. Circumstantial c.
Testimonial B. Class II Solvents
b. Documentary d. Physical C. Class IIIA Solvents
56. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the D. Class IIIB Solvents
total insurance carried on the building and/or goals is more
E. Class IV Solvents
than ________ of the value of such building and/or goods
at the time of the fire. 64. He/she conducts site verification and inspection on
buildings under construction to determine
a. 60% c. 80%
compliance with the approved plans and specifications.
b. 50% d. 90%
A. Building permit inspector
57. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the
dead body found in a burned structure, this will be a strong B. Fire safety inspector
circumstantial evidence that the person:
C. Plan evaluator
a. Was dead when the fire began
b. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
65. Those of such low combustibility that no self-
c. Was still alive before the fire propagating fire therein can occur and that,
d. Died due to suffocation consequently, the only probable danger requiring the use
of emergency exits will be from panic,
58. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to
hide the odor of flammable liquids. fumes or smoke or fire from some external source.
a. Sulfides c. Sulfur A. High Standard
b. Nitrates d. Ammonia B. Moderate Hazard
59. It is used to include not only architects responsible for C. Low Hazard
the design and erection of a complete building but also the
various specialist engineers who may be concerned with D. None of the above
the structure, the electrical installation, the heating
66. It is the point at which a flame propagates across the
ventilation system and so on.
undersurface of a thermal layer.
a. Building contractors c. Office of building
A. Fire Point
permits
B. Flash Over
b. Designers d. Building planners
C. Backdraft
60. Which of the following shall cause the investigator to
assume that the victim died of direct contact with flame? D. Flameover
a. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory tract 67. It is a process in which a material increases in
temperature without drawing heat from the
b. Prominence of trauma that is probably caused by a stab
surrounding area.
c. Intense charring of the whole body
A. Spontaneous Combustion
d. None of the above
B. Spontaneous Heating
61. When fire occurred, the first action upon discovery is:
C. Spontaneous Vaporization
a. Run for life c. Pack up
personal belongings D. None of the above
b. Raise the alarm d. Call an 68. It is a natural phenomenon where the fire attains such
ambulance intensity that it creates and sustains
62. It is any substance that ignites spontaneously when its own wind system.
exposed to air.
A. Fire Ball
A. Pyrophoric
B. Fire Storm
B. Flammable Liquid
C. Roll Over
C. Combustible Gas
D. Mushrooming

69. It is an assembly of two or more ladder sections that D. Smelting
fit together and can be extended or
retracted to adjust the length of the ladder.

76. It is a normally open device installed inside an air duct
A. Combination ladder system which automatically closes to
B. Extension ladder restrict the passage of smoke or fire.
C. Fresno ladder A. Jumper
D. Folding ladder B. Damper
70. It is a narrow, two-section extension ladder designed C. Hose Box

to provide attic access.
D. Smelting
A. Combination ladder
77. It is any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and
B. Extension ladder oxidizer used to set off explosives.
C. Fresno ladder A. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
D. Folding ladder B. Blasting Agent
71. It is a device used to compress a fire hose so as to C. Combustible Fiber

stop water flow.
D. Corrosive Liquid
A. Hose Jacket
78. It is any plastic substance, materials or compound
B. Hose Liner having cellulose nitrate (nitro cellulose)
C. Hose Clamp as base.
D. Hose Roller A. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
72. It is a device used to stop leaks in a fire hose or to B. Blasting Agent

joint hoses that have damaged couplings.
C. Combustible Fiber
A. Hose Jacket
D. Corrosive Liquid
B. Hose Liner
79. It is descriptive of materials that are easily set on fire.
C. Hose Clamp
A. Combustible
D. Hose Roller
B. Flammable
73. The act of burning any archive, museum, whether
public or private or any edifice devoted to C. Inflammable
culture, education, or social services shall be prosecuted D. all of the above

as: 80. It is a building unsafe in case of fire because it will
A. Destructive Arson burn easily or because it lacks adequate
B. Simple Arson exits or fire escapes.
C. Other Cases of Arson A. Duct System
D. None of the above B. Electrical Arc
74. It is a motive in arson characterized by social, political, C. Curtain Board

or religious causes. D. Fire Trap
A. Excitement
B. Vandalism 81. It is a finely powdered substance which, when mixed

C. Crime Concealment with air in the proper proportion and
D. Extremism ignited will cause an explosion.
75. It is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to A. Dust

bypass a safety device in an electrical B. soot
system. C. ash
A. Jumper D. smoke
B. Damper 82. These are materials used as the final coating of a
C. Hose Box surface for ornamental or protective

purposes. 87. It is a kind of a stable explosive compound which
explodes by percussion.
A. Finishes
A. Fire Lane
B. Fire Alarm
B. Forcing
C. Fire Door
C. Fulminate
D. Fire wall
D. Hypergolic Fuel
83. It is a fire resistive door prescribed for openings in fire
separation walls or partitions. 88. It is a rocket or liquid propellant which consists of
combinations of fuels and oxidizers which
A. Finishes
ignite spontaneously on contact with each other.
B. Fire Alarm
A. Fire Lane
C. Fire Door
B. Forcing
D. Fire Hazard
C. Fulminate
84. It is any device intended for the protection of buildings
or persons to include but not limited D. Hypergolic Fuel
to built-in protection system such as sprinklers and other 89. It is a place where flight operations (takeoff, landing
automatic extinguishing system, and maintenance of civil aircrafts) can
detectors for heat, smoke, and combustion products and take place.
other warning system components,
A. Aerodrome
personal protective equipment such as fire blankets,
helmets, fire suits, gloves and other B. Aircraft
garments that may be put or worn by persons to protect C. Airport

themselves during fire. D. Airfoil
A. Fire Lane 90. It is an integrated system of underground or overhead
B. Fire Safety Constructions piping connected to a source of extinguishing agent or
medium, designed in accordance with fire protection
C. Fire Protective And Fire Safety Device engineering standards to include, but not limited to
Automatic Fire Sprinkler System which when actuated by
D. Hypergolic Fuel its automatic detecting device suppresses fire within the
area protected even without human intervention.
85. It refers to the design and installation of walls, barriers, A. Automotive Service Station
doors, windows, vents, means of egress, etc. integral to B. Automatic Fire Suppression System (AFSS)
and incorporated into a building or structure in order to
minimize danger to life from fire, smoke, fumes or panic C. City/Municipal Fire Marshal (C/MFM)
before the building is evacuated. These features are also
designed to achieve, among others, safe and rapid D. None of the above
evacuation of people through means of egress sealed from 91. It is an assembly of equipment, such as oxygen
smoke or fire, the confinement of fire or smoke in the room storage containers, pressure regulators,
or floor of origin and delay their spread to other parts of
the building by means of smoke sealed and fire-resistant safety devices, vaporizers, manifolds and interconnecting
doors, walls and floors. piping, for supplying a regulated flow
A. Fire Lane of oxygen to a pipeline.
B. Fire Safety Constructions A. Brush
C. Fire Protective And Fire Safety Device B. Cellulose Nitrate/ Nitrocellulose
D. Hypergolic Fuel C. Blasting Agent
86. It is the proportion of a roadway or public way that D. Bulk Oxygen System
should be kept open and unobstructed at
92. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action
all times for the expedient operation of firefighting units. of heat.
A. Fire Lane a. Flash over c. Ignition
B. Forcing b. Pyrolysis d. Combustion
C. Fulminate 93. As the product of combustion rises in a building or

flows out of an opening an equal volume of air replaces
D. Hypergolic Fuel them. If during extinguishments, water is distributed in

such a manner as to upset the thermal balance, a condition 2. Any chemical substance, other than food, which is
will appear known as: intended for used in the diagnosis, treatment, cure,
mitigation or prevention of disease or symptoms.
a. Explosion of steam c. Thermal
imbalance a. Drugs
b. Thermostat c. Sudden burst of b. Dangerous drugs

fire
c. Prescription drugs
94. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends
from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of d. Over the counter drugs
the building? 3. Example of this are Raw Opium, Marijuana, Coca Bush.
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe a. Synthetic Drugs
B. sprinkler system D. flash point b. Natural Drugs
95. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping c. HERBAL DRUGS
centers through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer
is: d. Nota
A. conduction C. combustion 4. Are commercially produced drugs that may be

purchased legally without prescription. These drugs are
B. radiation D. convection also known as "propriety drugs".
96. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam a. Synthetic Drugs
where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam
forming ascent or descent? b. HERBAL DRUGS
A. rope C. hydrant c. OVER-THE-COUNTER DRUGS
B. ladder D. nozzle d. PRESCRIPTION DRUGS
97. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known 5. largest amount of a drug that will produce a desired
as: therapeutic effect, without any accompanying symptoms
of toxicity.
A. heel C. butt
a. TOXIC DOSE
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
b. LETHAL DOSE
98. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting
operation involving high-rise building? c. ABUSIVE DOSE
A. attic C. extension d. MAXIMAL DOSE
B. aerial D. hook 6. Amount needed to produce the side effects and action
desired by an individual who improperly uses.\
99. It refers to the law on arson.
a. TOXIC DOSE
a. PD 1612 c. Revised Penal Code
b. LETHAL DOSE
b. PD 1613 d. RA 7659
c. ABUSIVE DOSE
100. Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day, Jessie and
Jean quarreled. Because of anger, Jessie put the clothes d. MAXIMAL DOSE
of Jean in a luggage and burned them.
7. Drug is administered by injecting the drug just below
a. Jessie committed malicious mischief and is liable the surface of the skin; this is sometimes called “skin
popping.”
b. Jessie committed malicious mischief but is exempt from
criminal liability a. INJECTION
c. Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable b. Subcutaneous
d. Jessie committed arson but is exempt from criminal c. Intramuscular

liability under Article 332 of the Revised Penal Code
d. Intravenous
VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL
8. The most efficient means of administration which
1. The noun "drug" is thought to originate from DROGE involves depositing drug directly into the bloodstream, this
VATE which means ____ is also the most rapid method of drug administration.
a. dry substance a. INJECTION
b. dry barrels b. Subcutaneous
c. Poison c. Intramuscular
d. Nota d. Intravenous

9. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly 16. A person believes that the drug is needed to function
absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the at work or home because drugs often produce an elated/
second most commonly used route of drug administration excited emotional state.
a. ORAL INGESTION a. Addiction
b. INHALATION b. Tolerance
c. SNORTING c. Habituation
d. BUCCAL d. All of the above
10. Drugs that control or combat allergic reactions. 17. In Southeast Asia the “Golden Triangle” approximately
produced how many percent of opium in the world?
a. Analgesics
a. 50
b. Antipyretics
b. 60
c. Antihistamines
c. 70
d. Antibiotics
d. 80
e. 90
11. Drugs that stimulate defecation and encourage bowel
movement. 18. Considered as the green triangle of the Philippines
a. Decongestants a. BENGUET, KALINGA APAYAO and BAGUIO
b. Expectorants b. BENGUET, KALINGA APAYAO and MT.

PROVINCE
c. Laxatives
c. TUGUEGARAO, KALINGA APAYAO and MT.
d. Nota PROVINCE
12. Those who are addicted to drugs believing that drug is d. NOTA
an integral part of life.
19. This is known as the major transshipment point from
a. Situational Users international drug traffickers in Europe and became “the
b. Spree Users paradise of drug users” in Europe.
c. Hard Core Addicts a. MIDDLE EAST
d. Hippies b. Spain
13. Those whose activities revolve almost entirely around c. South America
the drug experience and securing supplies. They show d. Philippines
strong psychological dependence on the drug.
20. Known as the drug paradise of drug abusers in Asia
a. Situational Users
a. CHINA
b. Spree Users
b. INDIA
c. Hard Core Addicts
c. PHILIPPINES
d. Hippies
d. MIDDLE EAST
14. This is the most prevalent factor that prompt pushers
and abusers alike to indulge in dangerous drugs. 21. It is known in the world to be the number one producer
of marijuana.
a. POVERTY
a. MEXICO
b. IGNORANCE
b. PHILIPPINES
c. PARENTAL INFLUENCES
c. SOUTH AMERICA
d. PEER INFLUENCES
d. CHINA
15. Occurs when the body becomes accustomed to a drug
as the drug is repeatedly taken in the same dose. 22. The center of the world's drug map, leading to rapid
addiction among its people.
a. Addiction
a. CHINA
b. Tolerance
b. INDIA
c. Habituation
c. PHILIPPINES
d. All of the above
d. MIDDLE EAST

23. Also known as “downers”, are drugs which act on and d. NBI director and Police General
depresses the central nervous system causing initial
relaxation leading to drowsiness and sleep. 31. The two regular members of DDB
a. DEPRESSANTS a. IBP president and PNP chief
b. STIMULANTS b. IBP president and chairman of NGO
c. HALLUCINOGENS c. Director of NBI and Pres of IBP
d. NARCOTICS d. NBI director and Police General
24. Also known as Diacetylmorphine 32. The three permanent members of DDB must have at
least how many years of training and experience in the
a. HEROIN field of law, medicine, criminology, psychology or social
work?
b. CODEINE
a. 5 years
c. METHADONE
b. 7 years
d. MORPHINE
c. 8 years
25. It is one of the strongest short acting stimulants that
only lasts 15-20 minutes. d. 10 years
a. COCAINE 33. Upon confiscation or seizure of drugs, it shall undergo

quantitative and qualitative examination within how many
b. AMPHETAMINES day/s?
c. Methamphetamine a. 24 hours
d. METHYLENEDIOXYMETHAMPHETAMINE b. 1 day
26. Who introduced the first medicinal use of cocaine as c. 48 hours
authentic agent?
d. 2 days
a. Albert Newman
34. After filling of criminal case, court shall conduct ocular
b. Alexander Bennet inspection within how many hours?
c. ALBERT HOFFMAN a. 72 hours
d. FRIEDRICH SERTURNER b. 3 days
27. Morphine is the most important alkaloids and c. 24 hours
constitutes about______
d. 2 days
a. 15% of the use raw opium.
35. Authorized drug testing shall employ, among others,
b. 10 % of the use raw opium. how many method/s of testing?
c. 5 % of the use raw opium. a. 1
d. 12 % of the use raw opium. b. 2
28. Considered as the divine plant. c. 3
a. Marijuana d. 4
b. Coca bush 36. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for
c. Cannabis Sativa the first time shall be punished with:
d. Peyote Cactus A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
29. Believed to be the oldest cultivated plant. B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
a. Psilocybe Mexicana C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
b. Coca bush D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
c. Cannabis Sativa L. 37. Possession of 10g marijuana resin oil shall be

punished with_____
d. Peyote Cactus
a. Life imprisonment and a fine of 500k – 10
30. They are the permanent consultant of DDB. million
a. IBP president and PNP chief b. 20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment and a
fine of 400k – 500k
b. IBP president and chairman of NGO
c. Director of NBI and Pres of IBP

c. 20 years and 1 day to 40 years and a fine of 400k a. More than 5 C. more
– 500k than 10
d. Reclusion temporal and a fine of 300k – 400k b. Less than 5 D. less than
10
38. Prescribing by any practitioner authorized by law any
dangerous drug to any person whose physical or 45. He was the first who made reports about plant peyote.
physiological condition does not require the use or in the He was the first to describe the eating of parts of Peyote
dosage prescribed therein. Cactus and resulting visions and mental changes.
a. Unlawful Prescription of Dangerous Drugs a. King Legaspi of Spain
b. Unnecessary Prescription of Dangerous b. Dr. Francisco Hernandez

Drugs
c. Akira Ogata
c. Improper Prescription of Dangerous Drugs
d. Nagai Nagayoshi
d. Illegal Prescription of Dangerous Drugs
46. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their
39. Any person, who, unless authorized by law, shall make own legitimate work or profession but works as a
or issue a prescription or any other writing purporting to prostitutes to supplement their income
be a prescription for any dangerous drug shall be liable
with ___ a. CALL GIRLS
a. Unlawful Prescription of Dangerous Drugs b. HUSTLER
b. Unnecessary Prescription of Dangerous Drugs c. DOOR KNOCKER
c. Improper Prescription of Dangerous Drugs d. FACTORY GIRLS
d. Illegal Prescription of Dangerous Drugs 47. Usually operated by an experienced “madam” who rent
rooms to legitimate roomers in order to maintain an
40. Who shall designate special courts from among the appearance of responsibility Purposely, the madam leaves
existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try and several rooms not rented to legitimate roomers for ready
hear cases involving violation of RA 9165. use of the prostitution.
a. DOJ a. DISORDERLY HOUSES
b. Supreme court b. FURNISHED ROOM HOUSE
c. Judicial Branch of the government c. FACTORY
d. Executive branch of the government d. MASSAGE CLINICS
41. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus 48. This is the occasional or selective type of prostitute.
of which is through law enforcement, prosecution and She is usually a newcomer in the business.
judicial actions.
a. CALL GIRLS
a. Demand reduction c. Inter-
agency coordination b. HUSTLER
b. Supply reduction d. c. DOOR KNOCKER

International cooperation d. FACTORY GIRLS
42. In drug cases, the information shall be filed within how 49. Degree of intoxication where The mind is confused,
many days by the MTC judge who conduct preliminary behavior is irregular and the movement is uncontrolled.
investigation to the proper prosecutor? The speech is thick and the behavior is uncontrollable
a. 24 hours a. Moderate Inebriation
b. 24 days b. Drunk
c. 2 days c. Very Drunk
d. 48 hours d. Coma
43. It is an analytical test using a devise, tool or equipment 50. This method of control and prevention of prostitution
with a different chemical or physical principle that is more maintains the idea that we cannot do away with
specific which will validate the initial result: prostitution unless we consider the problems and remove
a. validity test C. the causes of prostitution.
confirmatory test a. THE SCHOOL OF REGULATORY CONTROL
b. screening test D. b. THE SCHOOL OF TOTAL REPRESSION
preliminary test
c. All of the above
44. Any person found in possession of _____ grams of
cocaine shall be punished with an imprisonment of twelve d. Nota
years and one day to twenty years:

51. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" to have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of
drugs closely related in chemical form to the amphetamine dangerous drugs
family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
a. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride c.
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine 57. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is
convicted for the possession of dangerous drugs?
b. Papaver somniferum d.
Cannabis sativa A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence
will be suspended
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of

52. A laboratory examination is only required to the above
apprehended offender within 24 hours if the person
arrested has: 58. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for
the first time shall be punished with:
A. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the
influence of drugs A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
B. Physical sign of drug abuse B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. Symptoms of Drug abuse C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. All of the above D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
53. Known as the “Father of Medicine” . He prescribed

opium poppy juice in surgery which was cultivated by the 59. What drug classification are solvents, paints and
Summerrians during 7000 BC. gasoline which are examples of substances that are sniffed
a. Hippocrates c. to obtain intoxication fall?
Confucious A. Depressants C.
b. Morpreus d. Energizers
Socrates B. Tranquilizers D.
54. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium Inhalants
in China by the British Indies that lead to the Opium War 60. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly
of 1840. that makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques
A. Lao Tzu C. Yung Chen were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
B. Sun Tzu D. Mao Zedong A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine

Operation
55. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.
B. Disguised operation D. Confidential
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C.
Methamphetamine Hydrochloride 61. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered
as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance.
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D.
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine A. Codeine C. Morphine
56. The possession of equipment, instrument, apparatus B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy

and other paraphernalia fit or intended for any of the 62. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing
purposes enumerated under R.A. 9165 shall be: according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
A. Probable cause that the possessor has smoked, A. Officers and Employee of public and private
consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected, offices.
ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed
to have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry
dangerous drugs firearms outside residence.
B. Prima facie evidence that the possessor has C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other
smoked, consumed, administered to law enforcement agencies.
himself/herself, injected, ingested or used a
dangerous drug and shall be presumed to have D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with
violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not less
dangerous drugs than six (6) years and one (1) days.
C. Conclusive evidence that the possessor has smoked,

consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected,
63. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering
taste and said to be one of the strongest derivatives of
to have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of
Opium poppy.
dangerous drugs
A. Morphine C. Codeine
D. Circumstantial evidence that the possessor has smoked,
consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected, B. Heroin D. Cocaine

64. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of d. Special Prosecutor designated by the
which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the DOJ
minds and body.
73. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug
A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction cases?
B. Gambling D. Vice a. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC

among the existing RTC
65. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is
from; b. Special Court designated by the SC
a. The Golden Crescent c. Hongkong c. Sandiganbayan
b. The Golden Triangle d. Silver Triangle d. Special Court designated by the SC

among the existing RTC
66. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world.
74. Samples of the seized dangerous drugs shall be
a. Japan c. Philippines destroyed_________ after the promulgation of judgment.
b. Hongkong d. Burma a. 2 days c. 24 hours
67. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu b. 1 day d. 48 hours
originated from:
75. Decision of the court whether the person is guilty or
a. Japan c. Mexico not guilty for drug trafficking shall be rendred within the
b. China d. India period of ___________ after the trial.
68. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the a. 15 days c. 10 days
Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled b. 30 days d. 6 days
by:
76. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world.
a. The Mafia c. Medellin Cartel
a. Japan c. Philippines
b. La Cosa Nostra d. Chinese Mafia
b. Hongkong d. Burma
69. Principal source of all forms of cocaine
a. South East Asia c. Middle East

77. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu
b. South America d. South West Asia originated from:
70. The major transshipment point for international drug a. Japan c. Mexico
traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of
Drug Users” in this continent b. China d. India
a. Portugal c. Germany 78. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the
Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled
b. Spain d. Turkey by:
a. The Mafia c. Medellin Cartel
b. La Cosa Nostra d. Chinese Mafia

71. Which of the following is not untrue? 79. Principal source of all forms of cocaine
a. The DDB shall have the custody of all a. South East Asia c. Middle East
dangerous drugs confiscated
b. South America d. South West Asia
b. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate
civil action for violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes 80. The major transshipment point for international drug
care to criminal aspects traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of
Drug Users” in this continent
c. The DDB promulgates rules and
regulations related to drugs which are usually a. Portugal c. Germany
implemented by PDEA
b. Spain d. Turkey
d. . The DDB is the implementing arm of the
PDEA in the enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of 81. it is a club drug popularly known as Special K, Vitamin
RA 9165 K and Kitkat developed in the 1970’s as an anesthetics
mainly used by veterinarians.
72. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related
cases? a. Flunitrazepam
b. Gamma hydroxybutyrate
a. Public Attorney’s Office c. Ketamine hydrochloride
d. All of the above
b. Ombudsman
82. A French researcher named Dr. Henry Laborit was the
c. National Prosecution Service first to synthesize this substance which was found to occur

naturally in many mammalian cells. It has the street names b. Semi-tolerance
Blue Nitro, EZ Lay and Zonked. c. Cross-tolerance
d. Pseudo-tolerance
a. Flunitrazepam
b. Gamma hydroxybutyrate 91. it is commonly used ultra-short acting barbiturates.
c. Ketamine hydrochloride
d. All of the above a. Amobarbital
b. Secobarbital
83. A powerful benzodiazepine developed in the 1960’s by c. Goodnight
Hoffman Laroche inc., and first marketed under the trade d. Thiopental sodium
name Rohypnol in Switzerland in 1975.
92. It is a psychosis that is caused by amphetamine abuse.
a. Flunitrazepam
b. Gamma hydroxybutyrate a. Paranoia
c. Ketamine hydrochloride b. Delusional parasitosis
d. All of the above c. Amphetamine psychosis
d. ADHD
93. Psychoactive substances that legally mimic the effects

84. it is the compulsive, excessive and self-damaging use of traditional drugs of abuse.
of habit forming drugs or substances leading to addiction
or dependence causing serious physiological injury and a. Novel psycho active drugs
harm or death. b. Opioids
c. Novel stimulants
a. Drug addiction d. Novel cannabinoids
b. Drug dependence
c. Substance abuse 94. A type of delusion that is common in meth users in
d. All of the above which they believe that they are covered in bugs.
85. A type of alcoholic beverage with an alcohol content a. Paranoia

ranging from 4 to 8 percent. b. Delusional parasitosis
c. Amphetamine psychosis
a. Beer d. ADHD
b. Cider
c. Wine 95. A behavior that occurs when people are high on
d. Liqueurs stimulants where the user feels the need to repeat certain
actions over and over again
86. This is a class of depressants, a drug that reduces a
persons ability to think rationally and distorts his or her a. Speed bumps
judgment. Ethyl or ethanol is used in this kind of b. Peripheral effects
depressant, c. Tweaking
d. Track marks
a. Barbiturates
b. Benzodiazepines 96. It refers to bruises and needle marks left on the body
c. Alcohol by repeated injections of drugs.
d. tobacco a. Speed bumps
87. Valium, Librium and Xanax are ordinary types of: b. Peripheral effects
c. Tweaking
a. Benzodiazepines d. Track marks
b. Barbiturates
c. Opiates 97. a term that refers to rashes that develop on the skin
d. Nota of stimulant users that appear where drugs have been
injected but can also be found anywhere in the user’s
88. it is a stage of alcoholic intoxication characterized by body.
being sociable, talkative and increased self-confidence.
a. Speed bumps
a. Confusion phase b. Peripheral effects
b. Coma phase c. Tweaking
c. Stupor phase d. Track marks
d. Excitement phase
98. a volatile substance, usually a liquid, in which things
89. it is a synthetic narcotic analgesic approximately 50 to dissolve.
100 times as potent as morphine with its origin in Belgium.
a. Solvent
a. GHB b. Inhalants
b. Fentanyl c. Gases
c. Ritalin d. Nitrites
d. Rohypnol
99. this generally refers to more than a thousand
90. This pertains to a condition of drug users where household and commercial products that can be abused
tolerance to one drug can produce tolerance to other by inhaling them thru one’s mouth or nose for an
similar drugs. intoxicating effect.
a. Multi-tolerance a. Solvent

b. Inhalants a. Technical Writing
c. Gases
d. Nitrites b. Writing
100. which of the following is not a type of inhalant? c. Legal Writing
a. Volatile solvents d. Legal Form

b. Aerosols 8. Is a meeting of minds between two persons whereby
c. Anesthetics/gases one binds himself, with respect to the other, to give
d. Volatile nitrates something or to render some service
e. Cigarettes
a. Agreement
TECHNICAL ENGLISH
b. Resolution
(Legal Forms and Investigative Report Writing)
c. Contract
d. Award
1. Is a type of writing where the author is writing about a
particular subject that requires direction, instruction or 9. Is a public official whose duty is to attest the
explanation. genuineness of any deed or writing in order to render them
available as evidence of the facts that contains.
a. Technical Writing
a. Notarization
b. Writing
b. Notarial acts
c. Legal Writing
c. Notary
d. Legal Form
d. Nota
2. A document written for experts will be very different
from one written for the general public. 10. These are written forms used in conveyancing or of
the forms of deeds, instruments or documents creating,
a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS transferring, modifying or limiting rights to real as well as
b. ACCURACY personal properties, and other forms related to business
contracts or transactions.
c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED
a. Commercial forms
d. Nota
b. Trade forms
3. There is no room for ambiguity or errors in a technical
document. c. Business forms
a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS d. Nota
b. ACCURACY 11. Refers to a contract, meaning that the buyer, as well

as the seller is legally bound to fulfill their obligations.
c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED
a. CONTRACT
d. Nota
b. CONVEYANCE
4. It tells the story if the crime; what happened and why
it happened. c. DEED
a. NARRATIVES AND REPORTS D. Nota
b. LEGAL PLEADINGS AND CITATIONS 12. It is a legal document that grants its holder ownership
of a piece of real estate or other assets, such as an
c. JUDICIAL ORDERS automobile.
d. STUDIES AND RESEACH a. CONTRACT
b. CONVEYANCE
5. are formal pieces of writing submitted to the court, such c. DEED

as motions for summary judgement and complaints for
damages. d. Nota
a. NARRATIVES AND REPORTS 13. “Verbosity should be avoided” meaning____
b. LEGAL PLEADINGS AND CITATIONS a. Must be precise
c. JUDICIAL ORDERS b. Must be accurate
d. STUDIES AND RESEACH c. Direct to the point
6. Are binding written documents that serve as means for d. Be courteous

putting into effect legal proceedings, court orders and
notices.

14. It is a legal document which is prepared with certain d. Report writing
formalities, and under which a person directs what will
happen to his/her property after his/her death. 21. Reports that Are usually short messages with natural
casual use of language.
a. CONTRACT
a. Formal
b. CONVEYANCE
b. Informal reports
c. DEED
c. Short or long reports.
d. Nota
D. Nota
15. Is that part of an affidavit in which the officer certifies
that the instrument was sworn to before him. 22. Reports that provide facts, data, feedback, and other
types of information, but they also provide analysis,
a. Will interpretation, and recommendations.
b. Deed a. Informational
c. Contract b. Proposal report.
d. Jurat c. Analytical report
16. This one is to authenticate an agreement between two d. Nota

or more persons, or where the document contains a
disposition of property. 23. A report that assists in the coordination in the
organization.
a. Will
a. Vertical report
b. Acknowledgement
b. Lateral report
c. Affidavit
c. Informational
d. Sworn statements
d. Analytical report
17. Is a sworn statement prepared by someone who
wishes to file a legal complaint. It becomes the basis for 24. Also known as status reports Are similar to progress
the case, providing basic information about the facts of the reports. They are generally upward directed and serve
matter and outlining the nature of the case. management control and issued on regularly scheduled
dates.
a. AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING
a. Vertical report
b. AFFIDAVIT OF DISINTERESTED PERSONS
b. Periodic reports
c. COMPLAINT AFFIDAVIT
c. Annual report
d. Nota
d. Functional reports
18. An order in the court that requires someone to testify
as a witness. 25. This classification includes accounting reports,
marketing reports, financial reports, and a variety of other
a. SUBPOENA reports that take their designation from the ultimate use
of the report.
b. SUMMON
a. Vertical report
c. Subpoena ad testificandum
b. Periodic reports
d. Subpoena ducestecum
c. Annual report
19. Is detailed account of an event, situation, etc., usually
based on observation or inquiry. d. Functional reports
a. Story 26. Here elements (components) such as location,

geography, division, product or parts are used to present
b. Narrative the data
c. Report a. TIME
d. Report writing b. COMPONENT
20. Is a communication that lends itself to a useful tool for c. IMPORTANCE
people in a free society to express their thoughts and ideas
and to obtain what they need or want d. CRITERIA
a. Story 27. These are reports created using a prescribed template.

Many short information reports use convention as their
b. Narrative organizing principle.
c. Report a. CONVENTION

b. CRITERIA a. Singular verb
c. IMPORTANCE b. Plural verb
d. COMPONENT c. Either singular or plural
28. It is an official record of information relevant to the d. Neither singular nor plural
investigation which the investigator submits to his or her
superior. it is a document that details the findings or
evidence related to the formal complaint or allegation. 36. When a compound subject contains both a singular
a. Investigative reporting and a plural noun or pronoun joined by "or" or "nor," the
verb should agree with the part of the subject that is
b. Investigative report closest to the verb. This is also called the_____
c. Investigative report writing a. Rule of closeness
d. Investigative writing b. Rule of proximity
29. After the reader has absorbed all of the information, c. Nota
the memo needs to close with a courteous ending that
states what action the writer wants his/her reader to take d. All of the above
a. OPENING SEGMENT 37. If the clause depends on another part of the sentence
to complete the thought it expresses, it’s called_____
b. TASK SEGMENT
a. subordinate clause
c. SUMMARY SEGMENT
b. independent clause
d. CLOSING SEGMENT
c. Phrase
30. The report should be a true representation of the facts
to the best of the investigators ability d. Nota
a. SPECIFIC 38. A sentence that contains two independent clauses

linked by a conjunction.
b. BREVITY
a. Simple Sentence
c. CLARITY
b. Compound Sentence
d. ACCURACY
c. Compound-Complex Sentence
31. Irrelevant or unnecessary materials should be omitted.
d. Complex Sentence
a. SPECIFIC
39. Are building block of all documents. It is a series of
b. BREVITY sentences that are organized and coherent, and are
related to a single topic.
c. CLARITY
a. Sentence
d. ACCURACY
b. Paragraph
33. Is the act of expounding or explaining a person, place,
thing, or event. The purpose of the author is not to just c. Verb
describe something, but to give it a reality, an
interpretation and ideas on what that thing means. D. Noun
a. Narration 40. A police report which contains information as to the

status of an activity/ies or operation.
b. Description
a. PROBLEM SOLUTION REPORT
c. Exposition
b. TECHNICAL REPORT
d. Nota
c. FACT-FINDING REPORT
34. Refers to the grammatical concept that the subject of
a sentence must align with the main verb of that same d. PERFORMANCE REPORT
sentence. 41. A police report which represents data on a specialized
a. Passive and active voice subject
b. Grammar a. PROBLEM SOLUTION REPORT
c. Subject- verb agreement b. TECHNICAL REPORT
d. Nota c. FACT-FINDING REPORT
35. When the subject of the sentence is composed of two d. PERFORMANCE REPORT
or more nouns or pronouns connected by and, use a____

42. This report can simply be an accomplishment report 47. One essential portion of a memo is the task statement
which may be analytical and may be comparatively longer where the writer describes what should be done to help
than spot report. solve the problems.
a. SPOT REPORT a. HEADING SEGMENT
b. PROGRESS REPORT b. OPENING SEGMENT
c. FINAL REPORT c. TASK SEGMENT
d. AFTER OPERATION REPORT d. SUMMARY SEGMENT
42. This report can simply be an accomplishment report 48. It is an optional part of the memo. This segment
which may be analytical and may be comparatively longer provides a brief statement of the key points of the memo,
than spot report. and the recommendations of the writer has reached
a. SPOT REPORT a. HEADING SEGMENT
b. PROGRESS REPORT b. OPENING SEGMENT
c. FINAL REPORT c. TASK SEGMENT
d. AFTER OPERATION REPORT d. SUMMARY SEGMENT
43. Is a form of status reporting that provides decision- 49. The word "Technical” comes from the Greek word
makers and readers a quick understanding of the current 'techne' that means____
situation. It provides a clear, concise understanding of the
situation – focusing on meaning or context, in addition to a. FORMAT
the facts. b. TECHNIQUE
a. SPOT REPORT c. SKILL
b. PROGRESS REPORT d. NOTA
c. FINAL REPORT 50. THESE are words that help writers avoid awkward
d. AFTER OPERATION REPORT repetition of nouns. They are used in replacement of
nouns.
e. Nota
a. NOUN
44. It contains the daily registry of all crime incident
reports, official summaries of arrest, and other significant b. PRONOUN
events reported in a Police station/Unit c. VERB
a. BLUE BLOTTER D. ADVERB
b. WHITE BLOTTER 51. PRONOUNS Are used to refer to particular people,
c. PINK BLOTTER places, and Things; specifically
d. BLACK BLOTTER refer to the person speaking, the person spoken to, or the
places or thing spoken about.
e. RAINBOW BLOTTER
a. Personal Pronouns
45. Is a formal document that details the facts related to b. Reflexive Pronouns
an incident. It is similar to Police Reports, an Incident c. Demonstrative Pronouns
Report is a victim’s statement regarding a crime. d. Relative Pronouns
a. FORMAL REPORT 52. Pronouns Used to begin a subordinate clause and

relate it to another idea in the sentence
b. INCIDENT REPORT
a. Personal Pronouns
c. ACCIDENT REPORT b. Reflexive Pronouns
d. MEMORANDUM c. Demonstrative Pronouns
d. Relative Pronouns
46. Is an informal letter about a thing or thins to be
remembered or a brief written outline of the terms of a 53. Pronouns that are used to begin a direct or indirect
transaction especially in legal matters. question
a. FORMAL REPORT a. Interrogative Pronoun

b. Indefinite Pronouns
b. INCIDENT REPORT c. Personal Pronouns
d. Reflexive Pronouns
c. ACCIDENT REPORT
d. MEMORANDUM

54. These are part of speech that express the relationship a. ARREST AND BOOKING RECORDS
between words and phrases of the sentence.
b. IDENTICATION RECORDS
a. Conjunction
c. ADMINISTRATIVE RECORDS
b. Preposition
c. Interjections d. MISCELLANEOUS RECORDS
d. Nota
63.is a thorough and systematic analysis of the future that
55. Interjections are words that have no grammatical will affect the posibility of success of proposed
connection to other words in a sentence; they are just project/undertaking.
statements that express feelings or emotions.
a. PROJECT SUMMARY
a. Conjunction
b. FEASIBILITY STUDY
b. Preposition
c. Interjections c. IDENTICATION RECORDS
d. Nota d. ADMINISTRATIVE RECORDS
56. these are words used to join or connect other words 64. Discuss the nature of the product line, the technology
in a sentence. Below are the descriptions and examples of necessary for production, its availability, the product mix
the three kinds of conjunctions. of production resources, and the optimum production
volume.
a. Conjunction
b. Preposition a. MARKET FEASIBILITY
c. Interjections b. TECHNICAL FEASIBILITY
d. Nota c. Financial Feasibility
d. SOCIO-ECONOMIC FEASIBILITY
57. used to connect similar parts of speech or group of
words.
a. Coordinating conjunction
b. Subordinating conjunction 65. What are the effects of the project on society and the
c. Correlative conjunction economy as a whole? Is it generally beneficial to the
d. Nota people? Is it in line with the economy's development
programs?
58. used to join elements of equal grammatical weight in
sentences; they always work in pairs. a. MARKET FEASIBILITY
b. TECHNICAL FEASIBILITY
a. Coordinating conjunction c. Financial Feasibility
b. Subordinating conjunction d. SOCIO-ECONOMIC FEASIBILITY
c. Correlative conjunction
d. Nota 66. Discuss the nature of the unsatisfied demand which
the project seeks to meet, its growth and manner in which
59. used to join two complete ideas by making one of the it is to be met. Here, the supply-demand situation is
ideas subordinate to or dependent upon the other. examined, the target markets analyzed, and the marketing
program formulated.
a. Coordinating conjunction
b. Subordinating conjunction a. MARKET FEASIBILITY
c. Correlative conjunction b. TECHNICAL FEASIBILITY
d. Nota c. Financial Feasibility
d. SOCIO-ECONOMIC FEASIBILITY
60. The police report must be considered classified, hence 67. The heart of any police records system. It is the basis
transmission. handling and access to these reports should for an analysis of offenses and the methods by which they
be limited only to police personnel who are granted by are committed.
higher authority security clearance.
a. Case Records
a. Completeness b. Complaint/Assignment Sheet
b. Timelines c. Booking report
c. Security d. Incident report
d. Impartiality
68. The foundation record of the police department.
61. Include those relating to the reporting of police
incidents. investigation, arrests, identification of persons,
and a mass of miscellaneous reports necessary to the a. Case Records
conduct of routine police operations. b. Complaint/Assignment Sheet
c. Booking report
a. Internal Business Reports d. Incident report
b. Summary Reports
c. Operational Reports 69. It is usually a written communication unless otherwise
d. Nota specifies to be verbal; verbal should be confirmed by
written communication.
62.These are records, which do not relate recorded
complaints and investigation reports but are informational a. Data
in character.

b. Record a. Birth or Creation
b. Records Maintenance and Use
c. Report c. Classification
d. Storage
d. Files
77. the act of taking out of record from the storage for
reference purposes.
70. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of
officers assigned to specified post or position.
a. Transfer
b. Purging or Retention
a. Duty book rules
c. Retrieval
d. Classification
b. Department rules
78. the act of determining if the record is for retention or
c. Police handbook ready for disposal.
d. Duty manual a. Transfer

71. records to be kept for not less than ten (10) years c. Retrieval
d. Classification
a. Permanent Record
b. Semi-Permanent 79. refers to the filing of records according to classification.
c. Temporary
d. Nota a. Transfer
72. Temporary record shall be kept ___ c. Retrieval
d. Classification
e. Nota
a. for not lessthan ten (10) years
b. for five (5) years
c. no specified period but usually less than (5) 80. a report on the laboratory examination of the
years. physical evidence gathered in order to supplement the
d. For 3 years findings of the investigator.
72. places all record series in one central location in an a. Wanted Persons Report
office. Most useful when the majority of individuals within b. Accident Report
an office require access to majority of files. c. Daily Record of Events
d. Technical Report
a. Centralized Filing
b. Decentralized Filing 81. an investigation report regarding an accident which
c. Numerical includes vehicular accident and damage to property.
d. Chronological Order
a. Wanted Persons Report
73. is the systematic transfer on non-current records from b. Accident Report
an office to any records storage area, the identification and c. Daily Record of Events
preservation of permanent records and the outright d. Technical Report
destruction of valueless records.
82. a report on persons who are wanted by the police.
a. Records Disposition
b. Records production a. Wanted Persons Report
c. Records destruction b. Accident Report
d. Records filing c. Daily Record of Events
d. Technical Report
74. Records that are “top protection priority”, consists of
all essential records considered as mission critical and 83. a record needed to keep all members of the police
irreplaceable. force informed concerning police operations, assignments,
and administrative functions.
a. Vital
b. Important a. Wanted Persons Report
c. Useful b. Accident Report
d. All of the above c. Daily Record of Events
d. Technical Report
75. the period during which the record is created or comes
into existence. 84. these records maintain the arrest and jail booking
report which is required for all persons arrested.
a. Birth or Creation
b. Records Maintenance and Use a. Arrest Report
c. Classification b. Arrest and Booking Records
d. Storage c. Booking Report
d. Identification Records
76. refers to the period when the records serve its purpose

85. it contains the list of the prisoners in custody which a. Encyclopedic Order
indicates the status and disposition thereof. b. Alphabetical
c. Chronological Order
a. Arrest Report d. Numerical
b. Arrest and Booking Records
c. Booking Report 94. – assigning of numerical value or number into a
d. Identification Records specific file
86. – it contains the information regarding the full name a. Encyclopedic Order
of the offender, charges and circumstances of arrest. b. Alphabetical
c. Booking Report 95. it physically locates record series in different places
d. Identification Records within an office. Most useful when only one individual
requires access to a specific record series.
87. third major division of police records. It provides
identification criminals which includes names, physical a. Centralized Filing
characteristics and in some cases photograph. b. Decentralized Filing
c. Booking Report 96. places all record series in one central location in an
d. Identification Records office. Most useful when the majority of individuals within
an office require access to majority of files.
88. essential in administering personnel matters and
designed to aid in assignment, promotion, and disciplinary a. Centralized Filing
action of personnel. b. Decentralized Filing
a. Management records d. Numerical
b. Hr records
c. Administrative Records 97. original and older records considered to be vital shall
d. Executive records be transferred to a secured location.
89. – these are records which are not related to the a. Duplication
recorded complaints and investigation reports but are b. Dispersal
essential to the daily police activities. c. Vaulting
d. Evacuation
a. Administrative Records
b. Miscellaneous Records 98. records shall be distributed without additional copies
c. Identification Records or duplicates.
d. Nota
a. Duplication
90. all materials are filed in dictionary order. It is the most b. Dispersal
widely used form of filing. c. Vaulting
d. Evacuation
a. Encyclopedic Order
b. Alphabetical 99. records shall be created with additional copies or
c. Chronological Order duplicates depending on the needs and circumstances.
d. Numerical
a. Duplication
91. files are arranged alphabetically by geographical name b. Dispersal
of the place. c. Vaulting
d. Evacuation
a. Chronological Order
b. Geographical 100. the systematic transfer of non-current records from
c. Numerical the office to any storage area or archives for long term
d. Nota storage, the identification of preservation of permanent
records and the destruction of valueless records.
92. the subjects are grouped into major headings;
individual folders are filed in alphabetical order behind a. Purging or Retention
each heading. b. Archival Storage or Records Disposition
c. Classification
a. Encyclopedic Order d. Records management
b. Alphabetical
c. Chronological Order INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND
d. Numerical ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS
93. – folders are arranged by sequential date order. It is 1. Typically defined as the protection of confidentiality,
useful for records that are created and monitored on a integrity and availability of computer data and systems in
daily basis.

order to enhance security, resilience, reliability and trust 9. The use of a script or bot to guess user credentials.
in ICT.
a. Back-tracing
a. Cyber crime b. Botcode
b. Cyber security c. Botherder
c. Computer crime d. Brute force attack
d. Computer security
10. The process of tracing illicit acts back to the source of
2. Offences committed against computer data, computer the cybercrime. Also known as trace back.
data storage media, computer systems, service providers.
a. Back-tracing
a. Cyber crime b. Botcode
b. Cyber security c. Botherder
c. Computer crime d. Brute force attack
d. Computer security
11. Controller of bot-infected digital devices.
3. Is an organized way of using all of the laws in our legal
system to minimize, prevent, punish, or remedy the a. Back-tracing
consequences of actions which damage or threaten the b. Botcode
environment, public health and safety. c. Botherder
d. Brute force attack
a. Environmental crimes.
b. Environmental Law System 12. Refers to an electronic, magnetic, optical,
c. Environmental law electrochemical, or other data processing or
d. All of the above communications device, or grouping of such devices,
capable of performing logical, arithmetic, routing or
4. Is the process of methodically examining computer storage functions.
media for evidence.
a. Technology
a. Computer science b. Computer
b. Computer information c. Electronics
c. Computer forensics d. Nota
d. All of the above
13. A tactic whereby the processing power of infected
5. Measures that establish privileges, determine computers is used to mine cryptocurrency for the financial
authorized access, and prevent unauthorized access. benefit of the person controlling the bot- infected digital
devices.
a. Access
b. Access controls a. Cryptojacking
c. Illegal access b. Cybersmearing.
d. Nota c. Cryptoransomware.
d. Nota
6. Refers to the instruction, communication with, storing
data in, retrieving data from, or otherwise making use of 14. Malware that infects a user’s digital device, encrypts
any resources of a computer system or communication the user’s documents, and threatens to delete files and
network. data if the victim does not pay the ransom.
a. Access a. Cryptojacking
b. Access controls b. Cybersmearing.
c. Illegal access c. Cryptoransomware.
d. Nota d. Nota
7. The shielding of one’s identity to enable individuals to 15. Birth of Philippine Internet
engage in activities without revealing themselves and/or
their actions to others. a. 1960
b. 1993
a. Anonymity c. 2011
b. Anonymizers d. Nota
c. Anonymous proxy servers
d. Nota 16. The first computer system in the Philippines — an IBM
650 — is installed at the______ to handle the country’s
8. These proxy servers enable users to hide identity data land survey computations in 1960.
by masking their IP address and substituting it with a
different IP address. Also known as anonymous proxy a. Bureau of agrarian Reform
servers. b. DTI
c. Bureau of Lands
a. Anonymity d. Nota
b. Anonymizers
c. Anonymous proxy servers 17. In 2011, Philippines named __________with a
d. Nota percentage of 93.9 for Facebook alone.

a. Cyber-networking Capital of the World 36. Are relatively large areas not materially altered by
b. Social Networking Capital of the World human activity where extractive resource uses are not
c. Networking Capital of the World allowed and maintained to protect outstanding natural and
d. Nota scenic areas of national or international significance for
scientific, educational and recreational use.
18. It became the Landmark and placed the country on
the global cyber-map and pushed congress to pass the first a. Natural Parks
“cybercrime law. b. National Parks
c. People’s park
a. I don’t love you virus d. Park
b. Love is virus
c. She loves you virus 37. refer to forest reservations essentially of natural
d. Nota wilderness character which have been withdrawn from
settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation except
29. The first Filipino to be convicted of cybercrime, in conformity with approved management plan and set
particularly hacking. aside as such exclusively to conserve the area or preserve
the scenery, the natural and historic objects, wild animals
and plants therein and to provide enjoyment of these
a. JJ Helterbrand features in such areas.
b. JJ Maria Osawa
c. JJ Maria Clara
d. JJ Maria Giner a. Natural Parks
b. National Parks
c. People’s park
30. Who was the Judge that convicted JJ Marie Giner?
d. Park
a. Thomas Dewey
38. Manila’s most air polluted district due to open dump
b. Rosalyn Mislos-Loja
sites and industrial waste.
c. Alexander Gesmundo – 27th Chief justice
d. Nota
a. Paco
b. Binondo
31. The first use of computer.
c. Tondo
d. Ermita
a. Entertainment
b. Computation
39. The largest country in Latin America and South
c. Communication
America and the fifth largest country in the world. Due to
d. Nota
this vastness, there are different types of ecosystems,
which prevail all over the country.
32. Refers to the human-made surroundings that provide
the setting for human activity.
a. Mexico
b. Brazil
a. Built Environment c. Canada
b. Natural Environment d. UK
c. Social Environment
d. All of the above
40. Is considered to be the world’s largest rainforest with
biggest biological diversity.
33. Refers to the immediate physical and social setting in
which people live or in which something happens or
a. Africa
develop
b. Amazon
c. Europe
a. Built Environment d. Brazil
b. Natural Environment
c. Social Environment
41. According to the Conservation International, it is is the
d. All of the above
biggest nation in terms of the most biodiversity per square
kilometer than any other nation.
34. The first important legislation that formed the basis of
the current system of national parks and protected areas
a. Ecuador
in the Philippines
b. Venezuela
c. Peru
a. Philippine Commission Act No.468 d. Madagascar
b. Philippine Commission Act No.648
c. Philippine Commission Act No. 864
42. Famous as the birthplace of Darwin’s theory of
d. Nota
evolution and has a vast number of endemic species.
35. It became the first national park in the Philippines

a. Green Island
established on June 27,1933 following the National Parks
b. Greed Island
Act no. 3195.
c. Galapagos Island
d. Nota
a. Mt. Makiling
b. Mt. Arayat
43. Is a practice of protecting the natural environment on
c. Mt. Apo
individual, organization controlled or governmental levels,
d. Mt. Everest
for the benefit of both the environment and humans.

a. Environmental preservation 51. generally refers to the variety and variability of Life on
b. Environmental protection Earth, and is represented by the number of different
c. Environmental conservation species there are on the planet.
d. Nota
a. Biodiversity
44. Fishing method that requires diving and other physical b. Biodiversification
or mechanical acts to pound the coral reefs and other c. Bioeconomy
habitat to entrap, gather or catch fish and other fishery d. Nota
species.
52. Tools and techniques used to obfuscate cybercrime
a. Scuba diving investigation and digital forensics efforts.
b. Muro-Ami
c. Muro-Sita a. Anti- forensics
d. Muro-kana b. Anti-digital forensics
c. Antimalware or Antivirus
45. refers to the shifting and/or permanent slash-and-burn d. Both a and b
cultivation of forest land having little or no provision to e. Nota
prevent soil erosion.
53. This is a memory area allocated to an application.
a. Kaingin
b. Kainin a. Botnet
c. Kaigin b. Botcode
d. Deforestation c. Botherder
d. Buffer
46. Those gases that can potentially or can reasonably be
expected to induce global warming, which includes carbon 54. The prohibition of information, visual depictions, and
dioxide, methane, oxides of nitrogen, chorofluorocarbons, written or oral communications that are prohibited by law
and the like. and/or their suppression by a government, community or
group because they are unlawful and/or viewed as
a. Green Gases harmful, unpopular, undesirable, or politically incorrect.
b. Greenhouse Gases
c. House gases a. Catphishing.
d. House green gases b. Censorship.
c. Botherder
47. Means the ecological community considered together d. Buffer
with non-living factors and its environment as a unit.
55. False or misleading promises of love and
a. Ecology companionship designed to scam individuals out of their
b. Solar system time, money and/or other items.
c. Ecosystem
d. Environment a. Catphishing.
b. Censorship.
48. The words “economy” and “ecology” both came from c. Botherder
the Greek word ______which means “home. d. Buffer
a. Okios 56. refers to a computer or a computer network, the

b. Oikos electronic medium in which online communication takes
c. Oikios place;
d. Kioske
a. Cyber
49. It broke a new ground by defining three innovative b. website
“flexibility mechanisms” to lower the overall costs of c. internet
achieving its emissions targets. d. electronics
a. Tyoko Protocol 57. A cybercrime facilitated by the Internet and digital

b. Kyoto Protocol technologies.
c. Kiyoto Protocol
d. Nota a. Cyber-dependent crime.
b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
50. is the misuse and also the pollution of water c. Cyber organized crime.
supplies. Often, individuals throughout the world have to d. Cyber organized criminals.
deal with either limited water supplies, or polluted water,
often causes by human actions. 58. A cybercrime that would not be possible without the
Internet and digital technologies.
a. Water contamination
b. Water degradation a. Cyber-dependent crime.
c. Water pollution b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
d. Nota c. Cyber organized crime.
d. Cyber organized criminals.

59. A term used to describe a continuing criminal 66. The part of the World Wide Web, which is known for
enterprise that rationally works to profit from illicit its obscure and hidden websites that host illicit activities,
activities that are in demand online. goods, and services, and can only be accessed using
specialized software.
a. Cyber-dependent crime.
b. Cyber-enabled crimes. a. Deep web
c. Cyber organized crime. b. Illicit web
d. Cyber organized criminals. c. Underground web
e. nota d. Dark web
60. A structured group of three or more persons, existing 67. The part of the World Wide Web that is not indexed by
for a period of time and acting in concert with the aim of search engines and is not easily accessible and/or available
committing one or more serious crimes or offences. to the public.
a. Cyber-dependent crime. a. Deep web

b. Cyber-enabled crimes. b. Illicit web
c. Cyber organized crime. c. Underground web
d. Cyber organized criminals. d. Dark web
e. nota
68. A tactic whereby users within an online space bombard
61. The use of information and communication technology victims with offensive, insulting, and threatening
to intentionally humiliate, annoy, attack, threaten, alarm, messages to silence the target, force them to take back
offend and/or verbally abuse an individual what they said and/or apologize, or to force them to leave
the platform.
a. Cyberbullying.
b. Cyberharassment. a. Dogpiling.
c. Cyberstalking. b. DoS attack.
d. Cyberterrorism. c. Doxware.
e. nota d. Disinhibition.
62. The use of information and communication technology 69. A cybercrime that interferes with systems by
by children to annoy, humiliate, insult, offend, harass, overwhelming servers with requests to prevent legitimate
alarm, stalk, abuse or otherwise attack another child or traffic from accessing a site and/or using a system. Also
children. known as denial of service attack.
a. Cyberbullying. a. Dogpiling.
b. Cyberharassment. b. DoS attack.
c. Cyberstalking. c. Doxware.
d. Cyberterrorism. d. Disinhibition.
e. nota
70. A form cryptoransomware that perpetrators use
63. The cyber-dependent crimes perpetrated against against victims that releases the user’s data if ransom is
critical infrastructure to cause some form of harm and to not paid to decrypt the files and data.
provoke fear in the target population.
a. Dogpiling.
a. Cyberbullying. b. DoS attack.
b. Cyberharassment. c. Doxware.
c. Cyberstalking. d. Disinhibition.
d. Cyberterrorism.
e. nota 71. The process whereby an individual demonstrates a lack
of social restraint with regards to online behavior.
64. The use of information and communication technology
to commit a series of acts over a period of time designed a. Dogpiling.
to harass, annoy, attack, threaten, frighten, and/or b. DoS attack.
verbally abuse an individual c. Doxware.
d. Disinhibition.
a. Cyberbullying.
b. Cyberharassment. 72. The sending of an email to targets with a website link
c. Cyberstalking. for users to click on, which might either download malware
d. Cyberterrorism. onto the users’ digital devices or sends users to a malicious
e. nota website that is designed to steal users’ credentials.
65. Cyber acts that compromise and disrupt critical a. Pharming.

infrastructure systems, which amount to an armed attack. b. Phishing.
c. Hacking
a. Cyberbullying. d. Cracking
b. Cyberharassment.
c. Cyberstalking. 73. The creation of a fake, duplicate website that is
d. Cyberterrorism. designed to trick users to input their login credentials.
e. Nota
a. Pharming.

b. Phishing. 82. A form of spyware that can run on a victim’s computer,
c. Hacking smartphone or other Internet-enabled digital device and
d. Cracking collect and relay all the user’s actions on these devices,
from emails and text messages sent and received, to
74. An intermediary server that is used to connect a client photographs taken and keystrokes.
with a server that the client is requesting resources from.
a. Spearphishing.
a. Ransomware. b. Spyware.
b. Xc6 c. Stalkerware.
c. Both a and b d. Swappers.
d. Nota
83. Semi-automated cryptocurrency exchanges.
75. Malware designed to take users’ system, files, and/or
data hostage and relinquish control back to the user only a. Spearphishing.
after ransom is paid. b. Spyware.
c. Stalkerware.
a. Ransomware. d. Swappers.
b. Xc6
c. Both a and b 84. Malware that requires user activity to spread.
d. Nota
a. Virus.
76. Self-generated sexually explicit material. b. Worm.
c. Whaling.
a. Sextortion. d. Web crawlers.
b. Smishing.
c. Sexting. 85. Pretending to be higher level executives in a company,
d. Spam. lawyers, accountants, and others in positions of authority
and trust, in order to trick employees into sending them
77. Phishing via text messaging. Also known as SMS funds.
phishing.
a. Virus.
a. Sextortion. b. Worm.
b. Smishing. c. Whaling.
c. Sexting. d. Web crawlers.
d. Spam.
86. Applications designed to traverse the World Wide Web
78. A form of cyber harassment whereby the victim is to achieve specific objectives.
threatened with the release of sexually explicit content if
the demands of the perpetrator are not met. Situational a. Virus.
crime prevention. Measures used to prevent and reduce b. Worm.
crime. c. Whaling.
d. Web crawlers.
a. Sextortion.
b. Smishing. 87. Stand-alone malicious software that spreads without
c. Sexting. the need for user activity.
d. Spam.
a. Virus.
79. Sending of unsolicited emails. b. Worm.
c. Whaling.
a. Sextortion. d. Web crawlers.
b. Smishing.
c. Sexting. 88. designed and constructed the first working mechanical
d. Spam. calculator in 1623
80. Malware designed to surreptitiously monitor infected a. Wilhelm Schickard

systems, and collect and relay information back to creator b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits
and/or user of the spyware. c. Gottfried Leibniz
d. Thomas de Colmar
a. Spearphishing.
b. Spyware. 89. In 1820 he launched the mechanical calculator industry
c. Stalkerware. when he released his simplified arithmometer, which was
d. Swappers. the first calculating machine strong enough and reliable
enough to be used daily in an office environment.
81. The sending of emails with infected attachments or
links that are designed to dupe the receiver into clicking a. Wilhelm Schickard
on the attachments or links. b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits
c. Gottfried Leibniz
a. Spearphishing. d. Thomas de Colmar
b. Spyware.
c. Stalkerware. 90. demonstrated a digital mechanical calculator, called
d. Swappers. the Stepped Reckoner 1673. He may be considered the

first computer scientist and information theorist, for, 99. it is the study of a region’s plants and their practical
among other reasons, documenting the binary number uses through the traditional knowledge pf a local culture
system. and people.
a. Wilhelm Schickard a. Botany

b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits b. Ethnography
c. Gottfried Leibniz c. Ethnobotany
d. Thomas de Colmar d. Ethology
e.
91. Environment is derived from
100. It is the deterioration of the environment through
a. Environ depletion of resources such as air, water and soil; the
b. Environner destruction of ecosystems; habitat destruction; the
c. Envirner extinction of wildlife;
d. environr
a. Pollution
92. the development that meets the needs of the present b. Environmental degradation
without compromising the ability of future generations to c. Biodegradation
meet their own needs is called? d. Genetic degradation
a. Mutual development
b. Integrated development
c. Reasonable development
d. Sustainable development
93. refers to any method which can be used to gather

information about an object without coming in contact
with it?
a. Database
b. remote sensing
c. WWW
d. GIS
94. It is the permanent destruction of indigenous forests

and wood lands
a. Afforestation
b. Deforestation
c. Forestation
d. Reforestation
95. Genetic diversity is defined as
a. Diversity within flora

b. Diversity within the fauna
c. Diversity within the species
d. Diversity within the fauna and flora
96. a biosphere reserve has following parts:
a. Input, process and output zone

b. In and ex-zone
c. Core, buffer and transition zone
d. Legal and illegal zone
97. diversity at species level is called
a. Genetics diversity
b. Species diversity
c. Diversity
d. Integration
98. it is the preservation of components of biological

diversity outside their natural habitats
a. In - conservation
b. Ex - conservation
c. Inside - conservation
d. Ex-situ – conservation

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BATCH 11

BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON CRIME DETECTION AND

committed? This are called_______________________ of

b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal inquest a. By confession or admission by the criminal

2. It is the product resulting from the collection, b. By corpus delicti

a. Combat intelligence D. Voluntary Informant

b. National intelligence 9. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of the

5. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the A. Informants

a. During the identification of criminal offender C. Special Investigator

b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of D. Voluntary Informant

Amici Review Center Page 1

d. To provide evidence to prove the guilt of the

a. Inductive c. Systematic a. NYPD

b. Deductive d. Logical b. BOSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT

14. The knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes c. TEXAS RANGERS

a. Criminal intelligence 22. Criminal investigation is more an art than a science

d. Public safety intelligence b. it is not governed by rigid rules, but more

a. Data Analysis C. Data evaluation b. Photographs of articles of evidence and

Amici Review Center Page 2

a. Statement no. 1 is correct B. Article 125

b. Statement no. 2 is incorrect C. Article 225

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct D. Article 212

C. Waiver need not be signed by the suspect a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter

D. None of the above b. Necropsy report d. Chain of

a. Cover C. Cover support a. Information is usually from a reliable source and

D. All of the above 37. What is meant by evaluation of C-1?

e. nota a. Information comes from a fairly reliable

C. His fancy woman d. Information comes from a fairly reliable source

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a. Rabbit C. decoy 47. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to avoid

C. Whereabout of criminal b. Dwelling assignment d. Personal

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a. Improper packaging a. Statement No. 1 is correct

b. Corruption of investigator b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect

c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody c. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct

d. A and C are true d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect

Amici Review Center Page 5

d. When the body is burned or cremated B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine

d. Process of determining when the victim was killed B. Mutilation D. Parricide

d. In all cases involving death A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime

a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory B. security check

A. cardiac C. central nervous D. All of them

Amici Review Center Page 6

D. All of them D. Background information

A. Network B. Line Up Photos

B. Profession C. Laboratory Photos

C. Tradecraft D. All of the above

D. Activity 93. It is the questioning of a person who is suspected to

B. Logical decision can be made if relevant D. Custodial investigation

87. Which of the four below is common in treating best, a A. Interview

Amici Review Center Page 7

A. Police line-up a. Real Evidence

B. Fingerprint Identification b. Autoptic

C. Rogues gallery c. Expert Witness

D. All of the above d. Either A or B

97. This is otherwise known as the police line-up. e. nota

A. Cross-Contamination a. Direct Evidence

B. Deterioration b. Circumstantial Evidence