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Food Engineering MCQ

The document discusses various topics related to food engineering processes like size reduction, screening, filtration, and extrusion. It contains multiple choice questions about these topics, asking about concepts like types of forces in crushers, operating principles of different machines, factors affecting filtration rate, and definitions of terms like Reynolds number and filter aids.

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50% found this document useful (2 votes)
1K views56 pages

Food Engineering MCQ

The document discusses various topics related to food engineering processes like size reduction, screening, filtration, and extrusion. It contains multiple choice questions about these topics, asking about concepts like types of forces in crushers, operating principles of different machines, factors affecting filtration rate, and definitions of terms like Reynolds number and filter aids.

Uploaded by

Namra
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 56

2.

FOOD
ENGINEERING

________________________________________________________________________________
. ,J
(A) GENERAL ENGINEERING
AND CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

1. The force involved in crushers is


a. Impact force b. Compression
c. Attrition d. Pseudo force

2. Why the faces of jaws are corrugated?


a. To prevent from the vibrational shock
b. To concentrate the pressure to a small area
c. To increase the aesthetic value
d. To decrease the production cost

3. In gyratory crusher
a. Movable jaw is pivoted at top b. Maximum movement is at bottom
c. Both a and b d. None of the above

4. If the particle is to be drawn between the rolls and crushed, the co efficient of friction,
ji should be
a. Less than tan a b. Greater than tan a
c. Equal to tan a d. Not related to tan a

5. Grinding means
a. Subdividing the solids to a finer product than crushing
b. Subdividing the solids to a product coarser than crushing
c. Subdividing the solids to a product into two equal halves
d. None •

6. In ball mill, the speed at which there will be centrifugation


a. Operating speed b. Critical speed
c. Normal speed d. Centrifugation speed

7. When the ball mill is centrifuging


a. Maximum grinding takes place b. Little or no grinding takes place
c. Normal grinding takes place d. None
36 _______ _ < Objective Food Science >
8. Operating speed of the ball mill must be less than
a. Critical speed b. Centrifugal speed
c. Operating speed d. Normal speed

9. In case of ball mill, the solid particles are reduced in size by


a. Compression b. Attrition c. Impact d. Vibration

10. The work required for crushing material is proportional to the logarithm of the ratio
between initial and final diameters. This is the statement of
a. Rittinger's law b. Kick's law c. Bond's law d. Boyle's
law

11. In which of the following machines, the particles are broken by sets of swing hammers
a. Ball mill b. Rod mill
c. Gyratory crushers d. Hammer mills

12. In grinding machines


a. Residence time is larger and throughput is smaller
b. Residence time is smaller and throughput is larger
c. Both residence time and throughput is smaller
d. Both residence time and throughput is larger

13. In open circuit grinding


a. Material is passed only once through the machine and no attempt is made to
return
oversize to it for further reduction
b. Material is passed twice through the machine and attempt is made to return oversize
to it for further reduction
c. Material is nether passed through the machine and nor attempt is made to
return
oversize to it for further reduction
d. All" the above

14. Screening method depends primarily on


a. Surface area of the particles b. Specific gravity of the particles
c. Magnetic properties of the particles d. Size of particles

15. Electrostatic separator makes use of the difference in


a. Magnetic properties b. Electrical properties
c. Densities d. Moisture content

16. For the flow of the fluid we need difference in


a. Pressure b. Concentration
c. Moisture content d. Force
< Food Engineering > ___________________
37
17. Unit of specific gravity is [ICAR'05]
a. g/cm3 b. kg/cm3
c. kg/m3 d. None of the above

18. The tyler standard screen series is based on


a. 240 mesh screen b. 200 mesh screen
c. 150 mesh screen d. 100 mesh screen

19. Method of reporting the screen analysis


a. Differential screen analysis b. Cummulative screen analysis
c. Both a and b d. None

20. In case of screen analysis, the notation A/ B means


a. Through A mesh and on B mesh b. Through B mesh and on A mesh
c. Both A and B on mesh d. Both A and B through mesh

21. Screening is
a. Separation of the particles according to size alone
b. Separation of the particles according to shape alone
c. Separation of the particles according to Moisture content alone
d. Separation of the particles according to magnetic properties alone

22. Which of the following is revolving screen


a. Grizzly b. Shaking c. Trommel d. None

23. Rapid vibration with small amplitude keep the material moving and prevent binding
a. Above statement is true in all cases b. Above statement is false
c. Above statement is true in some cases d. All of the above

23. Reynold's number is


a. Ratio b/w inertial force and viscous force
b. Ratio b/w viscous force and inertial force
c. Ratio b/w inertial force and pressure
d. Ratio b/w viscous force and pressure difference

24. Dimension of Reynolds number is


a. MLT"2 b. ML2 T c. MLT2 d. None

25. Which of the following are two fractions obtained from a screen
a. Cross flow & over flow . b. Cross flow & parallel flow
c. Over flow and under flow d. Over flow and parallel flow
38 < Objective Food Science >
26. Which of the following is opposing factor in screening operations
a. Capacity b. Density
c. Sharpness d. Effectiveness

27. Moisture content of feed material adversely affect the screening operation
a. Above statement is true
b. Above statement is false
c. Above statement is true for moisture content upto 3%
d. Above statement is true for moisture content upto 4%

28. in hydraulic jig, the original feed material is divided in to t .


a. Two separate fractions b. Three separate fractions
c. Four separate fractions d. Five separate fractions

29. _ -------------------- solids are unfloatable


a. Hydrophilic b. Hydrophobic
c. Both d. None

30. Energy inputs in extruders is/are


a. Visocus dissipation of net mechanical energy used to turn the screw
b. Heat transfer through jacket
c. Latent heat from steam
d. All of the above

31. Rate of filtration is


a. Maximum at early stage
b. Maximum at middle stage
c. Maximum at final stage ,
d. Uniform throughout the filtration process

32. In constant rate filtration


a. A P is minimum at start and maximum at the end of filtration run
b. A P is constant throughout the run
c. A P is maximum at start and minimum at the end
d. Independent of A P

33. The slurry no 1 of solid A and liquid B. The slurry no 2 composed of solid A and liquid
C. The viscosity of B is greater than that of C. All other conditions being same in both
cases. State in which case, time of filtration will be more.
a. Slurry no 1 b. Slurry no 2
c. Both slurries d. Can not predict
< Food Engineering > ________________________ 39
34. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Pressure flow is usually opposite in direction, to the drag flow in case of an extruder
b. Pressure flow is parallel to the direction to the drag flow in case of an extruder
c. Pressure flow is axial to the direction to the drag flow in case of an extruder
d. Pressure flow is radial to the direction to the drag flow in case of an extruder

35. Pressure filter operate with


a. Atmospheric pressure on the upstream side of the filter medium
b. Super atmospheric pressure on the upstream side of filter medium
c. Sub atmospheric pressure on the upstream side of filter medium
d. Super atmospheric pressure on both sides of the filter medium

36. The vacuum filters are limited to maximum filtering pressure of


a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Five

37. Use of filter aid is to


a. Increase the filtering efficiency b. Decrease the filtering efficiency
c. To give body to the filtrate d. To increase the mass of cake

38. Washing of filter presses is generally


a. Simple washing b. Thorough washing
c. Partial washing d. Chemical washing

39. Casting buttons are provided on the sides of plates and frames in washing press
a. For ease in identification
b. For quick proper assembling the press
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

40. Automated filter is


a. Leaf filter b. Stationary drum filter
c. Rotary drum filter d. Plate and frame filter press

41. The setting of solids of slurry is prevented in case of rotary drum filter
a. By giving vigorous agitation to the slurry in trough
b. By gently agitating the slurry in trough
c. Neither a nor b
d. No special treatment is given
40 < Objective Food Science >
42. Rotary drum filters are used for filtration of
a. Large quantities of free filtering material
b. Small quantities of free filtering material,
c. Large quantities of viscous material
d. Small quantities of highly viscous material

43. The separation of solids from suspension in liquid by gravity alone is called as
a. Centrifugation b.* Flocculation
c. Sedimentation d. None of the above

44. Axial flow, high speed impeller is nothing but a


a. Propeller b. Turbines
c. Paddles d. Baffles

45. Turbines are very effective impellers over a wide range of


a. Temperatures b. Viscosities
c. Pressures d. None of the above

46. Baffles are used to


a. To improve the rate of mixing b. To minimize vortex formation
c. Both a and b d. Neither a and b

47. Addition of baffles in vertical vessels considerably


a. Increase the power requirement b. Decrease the power requirement
c. No effect <on the power d. None of the above

48. Which of the following is power number?


a. ND a2P/^ b. N 2Da/p
3 5
c. P gc/N Da p d. NDPVp

49. In mechanically agitated vessel for gas liquid system, the relation between turbine
diameter and tank diameter is
a. Diameter of turbine is one third of tank diameter
b. Diameter of turbine is two- third of tank diameter
c. Diameter turbine is three fourth of tank diameter
d. Diameter of turbine is equal to tank diameter

50. Which of the following blades are used for double arm kneader
a. Sigma b. Dispersion
c. Double d. All of the above
< Food Engineering > ____________________ 41
51. The equipment where sedimentation process is being carried out is called
a. Thickeners b. Centrifuge c Sedimentar d. Propeller

52. The ribbon blender mix solids by


a. Centrifugation b. Mechanical shuffling
c. Electrical shuffling d. Sedimentation

53. --------------------- are effective for thin pastes and for powders that do not flow readily
a. Sigma blades b. Trommels c. Ribbon benders d.
Propellers
54. The most widely used blade is
a. Dispersion b. Sigma
c. Double- naben blade d. All of the above

55. Fluid consists of


a. Liquids b. Gases
c. Vapours d. All of the above

56. The viscosity of ---------------: ------ increases with temperature


a. Hydrogen b. Water c. Milk d. Syrup

57. The viscosity of ------------------------ — decreases with temperature


a. Water b. Milk
c. Syrup d. All of the above

58. Which of the following parameter of a compressible fluids are sensitive to temperature
and pressure ?
a. Volume b. Density
c. Mass d. All of the above

59. For a Newtonian fluid, the slope of the graph between shear stress and shear rate is
a. Tan 45° b. Tan 60° c. Tan 30° d. Tan 90°

60. In case of fluid the ratio between shear stress and shear rate is
a. Density b. Specific gravity
c. Viscosity d. Yield Value

61. Centre - to - centre distance between the baffles is known as baffle


a. Spacing b. Pitch c. Crest d. Both a and b

62. Which of the following is the Newtonian fluid?


a. Sewage sludge b. Tomato Ketchup
c. Sand filled Emulsions d. Gases
42 < Objective Food Science >
63. Which of the following fluids are expected to show the characteristics of Laminar
flow?
a. High Viscous
b. Moderate Viscous
c. Low viscous
d. Laminar flow does not depend on viscosity

64. Tomato ketchup is good example of


a. Newtonian fluid b. Non Newtonian Fluid
c. Pseudoplastic d. Both b and c

65. Manometer is a simple device for measuring ----------------------- differences


a. Force b. Pressure c. Density d. Temperature

66. The shortest centre - to centre distance between the adjacent tubes in a tube heat
exchanger is called
a. Tube spacing b. Tube Crest
c. Tube pitch d. None of the above

67. Manometer is used in


a. Static condition of fluid b. Dynamic condition of fluid
c. Neither of the two d. In both the cases

68. The density of the manomeric fluid should be -------------------- than that of the flowing
fluid
a. Greater b. Smaller
c. Equal d. Any density

69. In case of rectification, the portion of the condensed liquid that is returned to column
is called
a. condensate b. reflux
c. efflux d. None of the above

70. Which of the following is the equation of continuity? Terms are having their usual
meaning
a. m= p u A— Constant b. P/p + gZ + u 2/ 2 = constant
c. m/p ■= u A = Constant d. Both a and c

71. For the laminar flow the Reynold's number should be less than
a. 2100 b. 3100
c. 4100 d. 5100
< Food Engineering > _____________________
43
72. External cleaning of the tubes is easy in case of -------------- pitch arrangement than
triangular pitch arrangement of tube lay out
a. Circular b. Oval
c. Square d. Zig-zag

73. One atmospheric pressure is equal to


a. 1 Kg / m2 b. 1 Kg / cm2
c. 1 g / m2 d. 1 g / cm2

74. The flow with unchanging velocity distribution is called -----------------


a. Potential flow b. Steady flow
c. Unsteady flow d. Fully developed flow

75. Kettle reboilers generally incorporates ------------head arrangement or —


arrangements
a. Floating , U shaped b. Disc , spiral
c. Floating, disc d. Spiral, U- shaped

76 Reynold's number is equal to


. a. D u p /\i b. D U|l i/p
c. D p|Lt /u d. D P XU
!
77. Ratio of inertia force to viscous force is called
a. Nusselt Number b. Reynold's Number
c. Prandtl Ntimber d. Newton's Number

78. The velocity of the flowing liquid at the contact of pipeline is


a. Twice the average velocity b. Twice the minimum velocity
c. Half of the maximum velocity d. Zero

79. The heat transfer equipment which consists of two concentric pipes is called as
—— heat exchanger
a. Single pipe b. Double pipe
c. Shell and tube d. Plate

80. In crystallization
a. Mass transfer occurs from solid to liquid phase
b. Mass transfer occurs from solid to solid phase
c. Mass transfer occurs from liquid to liquid phase
d. Mass transfer occurs from liquid to solid phase
44 ____________ < Objective Food Science >
81. The ---------------- baffles are the drilled plate with heights equal to 75% of the inside
diameter of the shell
a. Segmental b. Spiral c. Peened d. Disc

82. Fractionation column is divided into two sections, one is called as rectifying section
and other is called
a. Derectifying section b. Stripping section
c. Fractioning section d. Condensation section

83. Absorption of NO 2 in water to produce nitric acid is example of absorption with


a. Mechanical reaction b. Chemical reaction
c. Physical reaction d. Biochemical reaction

84. Tendency of the liquid to segregate towards the walls and to flow along the walls is
termed as
a. Capillary movement b. Channeling
c. Stream line flow d. Diffusion

85. In crystallization from solution simultaneous --------------------- and mass transfer takes
place
a. Heat b. Vibration
c. Pressure d. Temperature

86. Relationship between the maximum local velocity and average velocity is
a. U = 0.75 U max b. U = 0.50 U max
c. U = 0.25 U max d. U = U max

87. Hagen - Poiseuille equation is useful for measuring the


a. Viscosity b. Density
c. Heat capacity of the fluid d. Reynold's number of the fluid

88. Distillation utilizes the differences in ------ of different components to effect


separation
a. Volatility b. Density
c. Vapour pressure d. Molecular weight

89. Metal pieces employed to extend or increase the heat transfer surface are called as
a. Craters b. Fins c. Baffles d. Separators

90. In boiling point diagram, the saturated vapour curve is called


a. Triple point b. Boiling point
c. Dew point d. Saturation point
< Food Engineering >_____________ • ___ 45
91. Driving force for crystallization is
a. Temperature b. Supersaturation
c. Saturation d. Concentration difference

92. The relationship between 'f' (friction factor) and N Re (Reynold's number) for laminar
low is
a. f= 16/NRe b. f= 17/NRe
c. f= 18/NRe d. f= 19/NRe

93. The log - log plot of/= 16/ N Re results in a straight line with slope equal to
a. Minus 16 b. 16 c. Minus 1 d. 1

94. Vacuum crystallizer is used for


a. High viscous material b. Heat sensitive material
c. Fast crystallization d. All of the above

95. In case of ------------- fins, long metal strips are attached to the outside of the pipe
a. Longitudinal b. Transverse c. Oblique d. Flat

96. The moisture content in excess of equilibrium moisture content is called


a. Saturated moisture b. Free moisture content
c. Specific moisture content d. None of the above

97. The equivalent length of pipe fitting is usually expressed as a certain number of pipe

a. Threads b. Diameter c. Joints d. Lengths

98. ________ are continuous gas- liquid contractors


a. Packed column b. Vertical column
c. Plate column \ d. Open column

99. Packing size should not be more than l/8 th of column- ------ — ----------
a. Radius b. Diameter
c. Circumference d. Cross sectional area

100. Two basic steps in the overall process of crystallization are


a. Nucleation and Supersaturation b. Supersaturation and crystal growth
c. Nucleation and agglomeration d. Nucleation and crystal growth

101. -------- —diagrams are used to see how equilibrium vapour phase and liquid phase
compositions change with temperature
a. Hysteresis b. Boiling point c. Temperature d. Volatility
46 _____________ ' _______ < Objective Food Science >
102. Which dryer is commony used for wet filter cakes and wet lumpy solids
a. Spray b. Roller c. Drum d. Tray

103. In a heat exchange process if one of fluids is corrosive,


a. It should be directed on shell side
b. It should be directed on tube side
c. It can be directed on either shell or on tube side, it does not make any difference
d. It should not be used in any side

104. Rotating discs make use of- ----------------- -energy for atomization
a. Gravitational b. Centrifugal c. Potential d. Heat

105. In heat exchange process if one of fluid is viscous


a. It should be directed on shell side
b. It should be directed on tube side
c. It can be directed on either shell or on tube side, it does not make ay difference
d. It should not be used in any side

106. In orifice meter, the ------------------------ of fluid increases and the ----------—therefore
decreases
a. potential energy, pressure energy b. pressure energy, kinetic energy
c. potential energy, kinetic energy d. kinetic energy, pressure energy

107. At — -------- moisture content constant rate period ends and falling rate period starts
a. Critical b. Specific c. 90% d. Initial

108. Which of the following is variable area meter [UICT' 05]


a. Venturi meter b. Rotameter
c. Orifice meter d. All of the above

109. Which of the following is used to measure local or point velocity


a. Rotameter b. Orifice meter c. Pitot meter d. Venturi meter

110. Convert 2.5 kcal/ kg °C to BTU/ lb°F [1 kcal = 3.968 BTU, lkg = 2.2 lb]
a. 36.8 1 b. 25.02 c. 44.67 d. 56.08

111. In which of the following, pressure drop over it is constant


a. Venturi meter b. Rotameter
c. Pitot meter d. All of the above

112. In venturi meter, the converging cone angle is of the order of ------------------------ degrees
a. 15 -20 b. 5 - 7 c. 7-10 d. 10-15
< Food Engineering > _______________________ 47
113. Heat lost through the walls of an electric oven is 6500 BTU/hr. If the oven is separated
for 2 hrs. How many kilowatt hr of electricity will be used to maintain the oven
temperature
a. 3.809 , b. 4.836
c. 5.925 d. 6.023

114. The ratio of vapour pressure of A to vapour pressure of B is called as -------------- of A


with respect to B
a. Volatility b. Diffusivity
c. Relative volatility d. Relative diffusivity

115. An azeotrope is a
a. Type of isotope of uranium used for irradiation of meat
b. Liquid mixture with vapour of same composition as that of liquid
c. Type of heat exchanger where coolant used is liquefied gas
d. Chemical compound used for the cleaning in place [CIP]

116. In case of solutes of which solubility increases with increase in temperature, the
method of achieving Supersaturation is
a. By increasing the concentration of solute
b. By increasing the amount of solvent
c. Supersaturation by cooling
d. It is not possible to supersaturate such solution

117. In the diverging section of venture meter, large proportion of kinetic energy is
converted back to ---------------------- energy
a. Kinetic b. Potential
c. Pressure d. Heat

118. —-------------are stage wise gas - liquid contactor


a. Packed column b. Vertical column
c. Plate column d. Open column

119. Which of the following devices (flow measuring) can be used for exploring the velocity
distribution across the pipe section
a. Rota meter b. Pitot tube
c. Current meter d. Venturi tube

120. The pressure drop through globe valve is much — than through gate valve
a. Greater b. Lesser
c. Equal d. Either greater or lower
48 < Objective Food Science >

121. In distillation — ---------- takes place in both the direction


a. Heat transfer b. Mass transfer
c. Evaporation d. None of the above

122. Which of the following are the means of fluid transport


a. Centrifugal force b. Displacement
c. Mechanical impulse d. All of the above

123. Which of the following are the means of fluid transport


a. Transfer of momentum from another fluid
b. Gravity
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

124. Relative volatility is the measure of separation by


a. Gel filtration b. Distillation c. Osmosis d. Filtration

125. In which pump the kinetic energy imparted to liquid is converted to pressure energy
a. Centrifugal b. Gear c. Plunger d. Metering

126. The conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy is more efficient with — -----------
a. Volute type casing b. Diffuser type casing
c. Bpth and b d. None

127. Plate column is a stage wise gas - liquid contactor where as -------------- is differential or
continuous gas liquid contactor
a. Open column b. Packed column
c. Tube column d. None of the above

128. When the pressure in the suction line is less than the vapor pressure of liquid
a. Velocity of flow increases b. Cavitation occurs
c. Decavitation occurs d. All the above

129. --------------- is the amount by which the pressure at a suction point of pump is in excess
of the vapor pressure of the liquid
a. Net Positive suction head b. Net negative suction head
c. Net positive flow rate d. Net negative flow rate

130. The centrifugal pump depends upon the -------------- — --- of a fluid to develop pressure
a. Viscosity b. Energy
c. Inertia d. Density
< Food Engineering > ________________________ 49
131. Separation by distillation is not possible when relative volatility is equal to
a. Zero b. One c. Two d. Four

132. NPSH must be greater than ---------- to avoid cavitations


a. Zero b. One c. Two d. Three

133. The head of centrifugal pump — ------------- continuously as the capacity is decreased
a. Decreases b. Increases
c. Becomes less d. Become constant

134. In rotary pumps, the chamber moves from --------------- —- to -------------------- and back to
inlet
a. Inlet, outlet b. Outlet, inlet
c. Up, down d. Down , up
135. The dirt factor / fouling factor has — --------- unit in SI system
a. W/(m 2 K) b. (m2 K) / W
c. Wm2K d.

136. The gear pumps are commonly employed in the industry for handling
a. high viscosity liquids b. Low viscosity liquids
c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b

137. Which of the following pumps is used for boiler feed water applications
a. Gear pump b. Plunger pump
c. Metering pump d. All of the above

138. In forced convection, liquid viscosity effect (for viscous liquids) is taken into account
in case of — ---------- equation
a. Sieder- Tate b. Stefan - Boltzman
c. Gauss d. Faraday

139. Thermal resistance in case of convection heat transfer has SI units of


a. W/ (m2 K) b. (m2 K) / W
c. Wm2K d. WK/m2

140. For perfect black body absorptivity is equal to


a. 1 b. 2 • c. 3 d. 4
141. Heat can be transmitted by — ------ mode across absolute vacuum
a. Conduction b. Convection
c. Radiation d. All of the above
50 < Objective Food Science >
142. Radiation refers to the transport of energy through space by --------- waves
a. Magnetic b. Electric c. Electromagnetic d. Sound

143.Gear pump is not suitable for the fluids that carry


a. Gases b. Soluble particle
c. Solids in suspension d. Oils

144. In Nash Hystor pump, the sealing -------------------- is supplied at a pressure equal to the
discharge pressure of the gas.
a. Gas b. Vapor
c. Liquid d. All of the above

145. As per Kirchhoff's law, at thermal equilibrium for all bodies the ratio of -------------- to
the absoptivity will be same
a. Reflective power b. Emissive power
c. Temperature d. Surface area

146. For specular body the reflectivity is equal to


a. -1 b. 0 c. 1 d. V2

147. Which of the following pumps may be used for feeding reactants, catalysts, inhibitors
to the reactors at controlled rates?
a. Gear-pump b. Plunger pump
c. Metering pump d. None Of the above

148. In case of Calendria type of evaporator the solution to be evaporated is ---------- — the
tube and steam flows — ------ the tubes in steam chest
a. Outside, outside b. Inside , inside
c. Outside, inside d. Inside, outside

149. Reciprocating compressors are -------------------- speed machines


a. Slow b. High c. Medium d. Critical

150. The ratio of C .\x to k is known as -------------- number


a. Reynold b. Nusselt c. Boltzman d. Prandle

151. A vacuum is
a. Any system pressure at zero atmospheric pressure
b. Any system pressure at one atmospheric pressure
c. Any system pressure at below that of atmospheric pressure
d. Any system pressure at above the atmospheric pressure
< Food Engineering > ___________________________ 51
152. The vacuum pump is any compressorwhich takes suction at pressure -------- —
atmospheric; and discharges at atmospheric pressure
a. equal to b. abovec. below d. any
value

153. In case of blower, the ------------ is below 3and in case of compressors, it may be as high
as 10 or more. |
a. Cavitation ratio % b. Compression ratio
15

c. Decavitation ratio ;:' d. Expansion ratio

154. Pressure is always a


a. Horizontal Stress b. Normal stress
c. Vertical strain d. Horizontal strain

155. Force per unit area is


a. Pressure b. Stress
c. Both a and b d. None

156. When hot and cold fluid flow in opposite directions in heat exchanger then flow is
called as '
a. Parallel b. Co-current
c. Counter current d. Both a and b

157. Which of the following is necessary for fluid to flow


a. Normal stress b. Shear stress
c. Both a and b d. None

158. Food gels are the examples of


a. Plastic solids b. Elastic solids
c. Gels are not solids d. None of the above

159. Unit of viscosity is


a. Pascal b. Pascal second
c. Pascal meter d. Pascal Kilogram

160. *--------------- equation is a fundamental relation for all radiant energy transfer
calculation
a. Kirchhoff b. Stephan - Boltzmann
c. Newton d. Gauss

161. SI unit of viscosity is


a. Poise b. Pascal second
c. Centipoise d. Pascal meter
52 _________ _ ^ _______ < Objective Food Science >
162. As per Stephan - Boltzmann law the total energy emitted by a black body is directly
proportional to the fourth power of its
a. Surface area b. Emissive power
c. Absolute temperature d. Energy

163. CGS unit of viscosity is


a. Poise b. Pascal second
c. Pascal meter d. None of the above

164. Which of the following obeys Newtonian Law


a. Gases b. Pure liquids
c. Simple solutions . d. All of the above

165. In Venturi tube and orifice meter, pressure under consideration is


a. Static pressure b. Dynamic pressure
c. Velocity pressure d. Impact pressure

166. Film heat transfer coefficients are higher for — ----------------- condensation than for
filmwise condensation
a. Dropwise b. Side wise c. Direct d. Indirect

167. Sum of static and velocity pressure is


a. Static pressure b. Dynamic pressure
c. Velocity pressure d. Impact pressure

168. A fluid exhibiting a reversible time dependency is said to be


a. Newtonian fluid b. Pseudoplastic fluid
c. Thixotrophic fluid d. Dilatant fluid

169. SI unit of overall heat transfer coefficient is


a. W/ (m2 K) . b. (m2 K) / W
c. Wm2 K d. WK/m2

170. When hot and cold fluid flow in same direction in heat exchanger then flow is called
a. Parallel b. Co-current c. Counter current d. Both
a and b

171. In case of --------------- —- boiling vaporization takes place directly from the surface
a. Cavitation b. Nucleate c. Central d. Core

172. Most common application of extended surface heat exchanger in food industry is in
a. Concentrating juices b. Refrigeration
c. Spray drying d. All of the above
< Food Engineering > _______________________ 53
173. Sorting separates the raw materials into the categories of different
a. Physical characteristics t b. Quality characteristics
c. Both a and b d.' None of the above.

174. Heat transfer from hot fluid to cold fluid in heat exchange equipment takes place by
conduction and ------------------- mode
a. Radiation b. Convection
c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b

175. Which of the following is dry cleaning methods used for the cleaning of the raw
material
a. Brushing b. Flurning c. Floatation d. Spraying

176. SI unit of film heat transfer co-efficient is


a. W/ (m2 K) b. (m2 K) / W c. Wm2 K d. W K/m2

177. Which evaporator is commonly used for handling solutions that tend to foam
a. Short tube vertical evaporator b. Long tube vertical evaporator
c. Fin evaporator d. Tray evaporator

178. The most commonly used form of mixer for handling low or moderate viscosity liquids
is
a. Propeller b. Impellor c. Paddle d. Turbine

179. ------------------- — separates contaminants / foreign materials from the raw materials
a. Cleaning . b. Sorting c. Dicing d. Slicing

180. Which of the following is the dry cleaning method?


a. Aspiration b. Ultrasonic cleaning
c. Fluming d. • Spraying

181. In ultrasonic cleaning, waves are


a. Electric waves b. Sound waves
c. Magnetic waves d. Combination of the above three

182. Wave used in ultrasonic cleaning is of the frequency


a. MHz b. 15
Hz
c. 16 Hz d. 17
Hz

183. Multideck flat screens find extensive use in the sorting of raw material on the basis of
a. Shape b. Weight
c. Size d. Colour
54 _________________________ < Objective Food Science >
184. The process of breaking down of solid material through the application of mechanical
forces is called
a. Centrifugation b. Filtering
c. Size reduction d. agitation

185. Economy of single effect evaporator is


a. Always more than one b. Always less than one
c. Always one d. Generally 100

186. Compressive force is used for ---------------------- crushing of hard material


a. Fine b. Coarse
c. medium d. from coarser to finest

187. In forced evaporator the velocity of liquid entering the tube is of the order of
[ICAR'05]
a. 2 to 6 m/s b. 6-10 m/s c. 10 - 14 m/s d. 14- 18 m/s

188. Impact forces are used for — --------- size material


a. Fine b. Coarse
c. medium d. from coarser to finest

189. Attrition / shear forces are used for comminuting c


a. Fine b. Coarse
c. medium d. from coarser to finest

190. Crushing is the term applied to the reduction of coarse materials down to the size of
about
a. 12 mm b. 9 mm c. 6 mm d. 3 mm

191. In crushing roll the speed is


a. 1000-1500 rpm b. 500 - 750 rpm
c. 250-1000 rpm d. 50-300 rpm

192. Which of the following is necessary in specifying the size of pair of crushing rolls?
a. Speed of the rolls b. Weight of the rolls
c. Angle of nip d. Critical angle

193. Reduction ratio is


a. Average size of feed / Average size of product
b. Average size of product / Average size of feed
c. Radius of first roll / Radius of second roll
d. Radius of second roll / Radius of first roll
< Food Engineering > 55
194. Economy of multiple effect evaporator is
a. Always more than one b. always less than one
c. always one d. generally 100

195. In hammer mill, the force involved is


a. Impact b. Attrition
c. Crushing d. All of the above

196. In ball mill the forces involved are


a. Impact b. Attrition
c. Crushing d. both a and b

197. Wet milling tends to produce - product


a. Coarser c. Finer b. Medium size
d. there is no size reduction

198. Heat transfer in fluids occurs by mechanism known as


a. Radiation b. Convection
c. Conduction . d. All of the above

199. In — ------ feed system, vapour and liquor flow in counter current fashion
a. Forward b. Backward
c. Both a and b d. Neither of the two

----------used for gas absorption should be less volatile to avoid its loss in lean gas
200.
* a. Solution c. Solute b. Solvent
d. None of the above
201. Cutting of food materials into cubes is a.
Slicing c. Dicing
b. Milling
202. The space between the individual wires d. Crystallization
of a wire mesh screen is a.
Mesh number b. Screen aperture
c. wire per lineal inch d. Screen capacity

203. Thermal conductance is reciprocal of


a. Temperature difference
b. Cross sectional area of the conductor
c. Thermal conductivity
d. Thermal resistance
56 ______________ _____ < Objective Food Science >
204. Mesh number is number of wire per
a. Lineal inch b. Lineal centimeter
c. Lineal millimeter d. Lineal meter

205. Vertical screw mixers are used for mixing of


a. High viscous liquids b. Low viscous liquids
c. Moderate viscous liquids d. Dry solids

206. The operation in which two naturally immiscible liquids are intimately mixed, one
liquid becoming dispersed in the form of small droplets is
a. Centrifugation b. Emulsification
c. Filtration d. Dispersion

207. In case of oil in water emulsion oil acts as


a. Emulsifier b. Stabilizer
c. Dispersed phase . d. Dispersing medium

208. Because of higher interfacial tension, which of the following phenomenon becomes
difficult
a. Centrifugation b. Emulsification
c. Filtration d. Dispersion

209. Which of the following centrifuge is widely used in dairy industries?


a. Solid bowl centrifuge b. Disc bowl centrifuge
c. Tubular bowl centrifuge d. Cylinder bowl centrifuge

210. Which of the following is used as clarifier


a. Contact angle bowl b. Disc bowl centrifuge
c. Tubular bowl centrifuged. d. Cylinder bowl centrifuge

211. In case of evaporation generally ---------- is valuable product


a. Concentrated solution b. Thick liquor
c. Both a and b d. Neither of the two

212. Which of the following is used as the filtering centrifuge


a. Contact angle bowl b. Disc bowl centrifuge
c. Tubular bowl centrifuge d. Cylinder bowl centrifuge

213. SI unit of rate of heat flow is


a. Joule b. Ampere
c. Watt d. Coulomb.;
< Food Engineering > ________________________ 57
214. In gas absorption mass transfer takes place from -------------- to liquid phase
a. Gas b. Liquid
c. Solid d. All of the above

215. The cylindrical interface, separating two phases in a centrifuge is known as


a. Critical zone b. Neutral zone
c. Centrifugal zone d. Zero zone

216. Heat flow by conduction is governed by ----------------- law


a. Stefan's b. Boltzman's
c. Fourier's d. Newton's

217. Stephan - Boltzman law states


a. Eb = pT4 b. Eb = p T^
c. Eb = p T2 • d Eb = p T

218. Conduction under condition of constant temperature distribution is called


a. Thermal equilibrium b. Steady state
c. Isothermal conduction d. Adiabatic conduction

219. A black body* have


a. Maximum absorptivity b. maximum emmisive power
c. Minimum emmisive power d. both a and b

220. A surface of having a property of constant monochromatic absorptivity is called


a. Black body b. White body c. Gray body d. Red body

221. In most of the evaporation operation -------— are condensed and discarded
a. Water b. Gas
c. Water vapour d. All of the above

222. Sunlight corresponds to the temperature of about


a. 1500 °C b. 3500 °C c. 5500 °C d. 7500 °C

223. Polished surface have


a. High emmissivity b. Low emmissivity
c. Moderate "emissivity d. Zero emmissivity

224. Driving force for heat is


a. Energy difference b. Pressure difference
c. Temperature's difference d. Heat difference
58 _____ < Objective Food Science >
225. Desludging involves
a. Gravitational force b. Centrifugal force
c. Magnetic force d. Electrical force

226. Which law in mass transfer is similar to Fourier's law for the heat transport
a. Coulomb's law b. Fick's law c. Stephan's law d. Curie's
law

227. Heating of food in an electrically insulating material by the losses in it when subjected
to an alternating electric field is called
a. Plate heating ■ . b. Dielectric heating
c. Microwave heating d. Oven heating

228. Frequency generally applied in industrial equipments in microwave heating


a. 1540 Hz b. 2450 Hz c. 3360 Hz d. 4450 Hz

229. • ----------------------- is the concentration of a solution by boiling off a solvent


a. Evaporation b. Drying
c. Freeze drying d. Concentrating

230. The object of multiple effect evaporator operation is


a. Improvement of overall steam economy
b. Increase plant capacity
c. Both a and b
d. None

231. The weak liquor to be fed the evaporative is composed of non- volatile -------------- and
--------- — solvent
!
a. Solute , volatile b. Solution , volatile
c. Solute, nonvolatile d. Solution , non volatile

232. Drying by direct contact with a heated surface is called


a. Conduction b. Convection
c. Radiation d. All of the above

233. Drying by lieated air is called as


a. Conduction b. Convection
c. Radiation d. All of the above

234. Heat flow mechanism through solid is called


a. Conduction b. Convection
c. Radiation, d. All of the above
< Food Engineering > 59
235. SI unit of thermal conductivity is
a. Wm/K b. W/Km
c. Km/W d. WMK

236. Thermal resistance to heat transfer by conduction has units of


a. KW b. K/W c. KW/m d. W/K

237. Materials having very low thermal conductivity values are called
a. Good conductor * b. Heat insulator
c. Electrical insulator d. Semi conductor

238. Free moisture is that moisture present of the equilibrium m.c.


in at any given temperature and
humidity a. Excess c. Equal b. Below
d. Quantity does not matter

239. Hard impermeable skin formed at surface is


a. Core b. Surface
hardening c. hardening d. Skin
Case hardening hardening

240. Ability of the powder particles to absorb water on its surface is called
a. Sinkability b. Dispersability
c. Wettability d. Solubility

241. Ability of the powder particles to sink quickly into water is


a. Sinkability b. Dispersability
c. d.
Wettability Solubility

242. The rate and extent to which the components of powder particles dissolve in water
a. Sinkability b. Dispersability
c. . Wettability d. Solubility

243. Radappertisation is
a. Pasteurization b. Sterilization
c. Heating d. Sprout
inhibition
244. Radappertisation is use of
a. Electric current to sterilize the product
b. Magnetic energy to sterilize the product
c. Heat energy to sterilize product
d. Irradiation to sterilize the product
60 _______________________ < Objective Food Science >
245. For Radappertisation radiation dose required is
a. 2.5 M rad b. 3.0 M rad c. 3.5 M rad d. 4.0 M rad

246. For radicidation radiation dose is


a. 1.2 M rad b. 0. 81 M rad c. 0. 62 M rad d. 0.53 M rad

247. A Gy is defind as 100 rads. When 1 kg of material absorbs joule of energy, it is to have
received a radiation dose of 1 Gy Doses usually measured in kilo radius.
1 kGy= lOOGy .. ■ "
For Radurization the radiation dose is
a. 10 - 20 kGy b. 20 - 60 kGy c. 30 - 40 kGy d. 1-2 kGy

248. Radiation disinfection is at


a. 10 - 50 K rad b. 20 - 100 K rad
c. 30 - 150 K rad d. 40 - 200 K rad

249. Sprout inhibition is at


a. 5- 15 Krad b. 15-25 K rad
c. 25-35 Krad d. 35 - 50 Krad

250. Which of the following is the sources of irradiation of food ?


a. Carbon 14 b. Cobalt 60 c. Radium d. Uranium

251. Cold sterilization is


a. Sterilization by liquid nitrogen b. Sterilization by irradiation
c. Sterilization by ice d. Sterilization followed by freezing

252. Blood is
a. Newtonian fluid b. Bingham plastic
c. Pseudo plastic fluid d. Dilatent fluid

253. In Variable area meter


a. Pressure drop is constant and the area of flow varies with flow rate
b. Pressure drop varies with flow rate and the area of flow is constant
c. Both the pressure drop and area of flow varies with flow rate
d. Both the pressure drop and area of flow rate are constant for the given flow rate

254. Variable head meter


a. Needs straight pipe runs before meter
b. Needs straight pipe runs after meter
c. Does not need straight pipe runs after and before meter
d. Needs straight pipe runs before and after meter
< Food Engineering > 61
255. Which of the following statements is correct
a. Variable area meter can give direct visual index of flow rate
b. Variable area meter is simple in construction
c. Variable area meter do not need straight pipe runs before meter but needs after meter
d. Relatively variable area meters are cheaper

256. During boiling


a. vapour pressure = total pressure = atmospheric pressure
b. V P < T P < A P
c. VP>TP>AP
d. VP<TP>AP

257. Vapour pressure is the function of


a. Pressure b. Temperature
c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b
258. Partial pressure is the function of
a. Pressure b. Number of molecu!
c. Both a and b d. Neither a nor b
259. Dew point is the temperature at the
which
a. Boiling occurs b. Evaporation occurs
c. Condensation occurs d. Freezing occurs
260. Membranes are defined as
a. The molecular weight cutoff b. The molecular weight
c. Number of pores per square passed d. Material of the
meter membrane

261. From the psychrometeric chart one can get the value of
a. Dry bulb temperature b. Wet bulb temperature
c. Relative humidity d. all of the above

262. Temperature at the surface of the water body is the measure of


a. Dry bulb temperature b. Wet bulb temperature
c. Mercury bulb temperature d. Bulb temperature

263. Evaporation occurs


a. From through out the mass
b. From the surface
c. From bottom
d. Either of the above three depending on the direction of heat
62 _____ . __________ < Objective Food Science >
264. Boiling occurs
a. From through out the mass
b. From the surface
c. From bottom
d. Either of the above three depending on the direction of heat

265. Wet bulb temperature is the measure of


a. Sensible heat of air b. Total heat of air
c. Latent heat of water d. Specific heat of water

266. Dry bulb temperature is the measure of


a. Sensible heat of air b. Total heat of air
c. Latent heat of water d. Specific heat of water

267. Absolute pressure is the measure of pressure relative to


a. Vacuum b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Sea level d. Hydraulic pressure

268. Gauge pressure is the pressure relative to


a. Vacuum b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Sea level d. Hydraulic pressure

269. Which of the following equations is correct?


a. Pressure + vacuum > 1 atm b. Pressure + vacuum < 1 atm
c. Pressure + vacuum = 1 atm d. Pressure + vacuum = 8

270. Which of the following is employed as a reference electrode in pH measurement


a. Glass electrode b. Hydrogen electrode
c. Antimony;electrod d. Hg- calomel electrode

271. In single effect evaporator the economy is


a. Zero b. Less than one
c. One d. More than one

272. If the capacity of an evaporator is 100 kg, it means


a. It can vaporize 100 kg of water in one hour
b. It can vaporize 100 kg of water in 1 day
c. It can form 100 kg of steam in one hour
d. It can form 100 kg of steam in one day
< Food Engineering > ________________________ 63
273. Elevation in boiling point of a solution and its relation with the boiling point of water
is being shown by
a. Duhring's rule b. Herring's rule
c. Charles law d. None of the above

274. Steam economy is more in


a. Backward feeding of evaporator b. Forward feeding of evaporator
c. Both d. None of the above

275. In leaching there is separation of solid from -------------- by a solvent


a. Solid b. Liquid c. Gas d. All of the
above

276. In liquid - liquid extraction the dissolved component which is separated is called
a. Dissolved component b. Consolute component
c. Extract d. Raffinate

277. If component C is being removed from the phase A [with quantity A unit] by using
phase B [with quantity B unit] ,the extraction coefficient for component C is [where m
is the distribution coefficient
a. mAB b. mA/B c. mB/A d. AB/m

278. In a liquid - liquid extraction process, where only one solute is to be separated, which
of the following parameter should be considered?
a. Distribution coefficient b. Extraction factor
c. Resistivity d. Selectivity

279. In a liquid - liquid extraction process, when there are two solutes, which of the
following parameters should be considered?
a. Selectivity b. Distribution coefficient
c. Both a and b d. Only selectivity

280. Rate of flow of liquid in natural circulation evaporator is


a. 0.3-1.2 m/ s b. 1.3-8.6
m/s
c. 2.0 - 6.6 m /s d. none of the above

281. Sometimes the solubility of solute-extractant in diluent in liquid - liquid extraction is


increased by the addition of
a. Mordent b. Modifier
c. Mixer d. Emulsifier

282. At what temperature, CO 2 acts as super critical fluid if the pressure is 73.8 bar?
a. -40.6° b. -28.6°C c. 30.6°C d. 65.9°C
64 < Objective Food Science >
283. At supercritical temperature, CO 2 acts as
a. High density liquid b. Low density liquid
c. Tightly packed solid d. Fast moving gas

284. Diffusion is a
a. Molecular phenomena
b. Biochemical phenomena
c. Phenomena where there is no relative movement of molecule
d. Electromagnetic process

285. Why is superheated steam not preferred as a heating medium in evaporators?


a. Metal tubes can not withstand high temperature
b. Metal tubes cannot withstand high pressure
c. Superheated steam has very low film coefficient
d. Because of all the above three factors

286. Consider the following statements:


Duhring rule is used to solve problems on
1. EVaporator 2. Crystallization
3. Distillation 4. Drying
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2
only
. c. 3 only d. 3 and 4

287. Which one of the following tube configurations in a heat exchanger results in the
maximum heat transfer rate?
a. Triangular pitch b. Square pitch
c. Rectangular pitch d. Rhombus pitch

288. The resistance of a thermistor


a. Decreases with the rise in temperature
b. Increases with rise in temperature
c. Is independent of the temperature
d. Increases parabolically with rise in temperature

289. Consider the following statements


Use of multiple effect evaporator leads to
1. Economy in steam consumption
2. increase in evaporative capacity
3. economy in steam consumption and increase in evaporative capacity
< Food Engineering > ______________ 65
Which of the statements given above is correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only
c. 3 only d. None

290. For a constant Strouhal number, taking into account vibrational frequency, which of the
following statements is correct?
a. Increase with decrease in shell side velocity
b. Remain unaffected by change in shell side velocity
c. Decreases with decrease in shell side velocity
d. Increases linearly with decrease in shell side velocity

291. What is the nature of the variation of the filtrate volume with time for a constant
pressure filtration?
a. Parabola b. Hyperbola
c. Exponential curve d. Straight line

292. Consider the statements:


The rate of filtration through the filter cake is
1. Directly proportional to the driving force
2. inversely proportional to the specific cake resistance
3. inversely proportional to the viscosity of the filtrate
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1,2, and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 3

293. What does 1-4 shell and tube heat exchanger imply?
a. 4 shell side passes and 4 tube side passes
b. 4 shell side passes and 1 tube side passes
c. 1 shell side pass and 4 tube side passes
d. 4 tube per pass

294. What is the typical range of liquid velocity in a forced - circulation evaporator
[ICAR'05]
a. 2-6 m/s b. 4-12 m/s
c. 6- 16.5 m/s d. 12-20 m/s

295. When is the Lewis number of a mixture equal to one?


a. The mass diffusivity is equal to the momentum diffusivity
b. The mass diffusivity is equal to the thermal conductivity
c. The mass diffusivity is equal to the thermal diffusivity
d. The mass diffusivity is equal to 1/2 thermal diffusivity
66 < Objective Food Science >
296. What is the ratio of the actual equilibrium partial pressure of a component to its ideal
value called?
a. Fugacity b. Turndown ratio
c. Activity coefficient d. Relative volatility

297. What is the mean molecular mass of a mixture of 20 moles of nitrogen, 30 moles of
oxygen and 50 moles of carbon dioxide?
a. 46.2 b. 43.8
c. 37 .2 d. None of the above

298. When is the slope of the operating line in the rectifying section of the distillation
column equal to unity?
a. Reflux ratio - 0
b. Reflux ratio - infinity
c. Reflux ratio =1
d. Reflux ratio = Rmin where Rmin is the minimum refrlux ratio

299. How is the overall tray efficiency defined?


a. The ratio of the number of real trays required to the number of the ideal trays required.
b. The ratio of the number of ideal trays required to the number of overall gas transfer
units
c. The ratio of the number of overall gas transfer units to the number of ideal trays
required
d. The ratio of the number of ideal trays requird to the number of real trays required

300. What is the value of reflux ratio for which most of the di stillation columns are
designed?
a. 0.2 Rmin - 0.7 Rmin>

d- ■* Rmin - 5 Rmin, where Rmin is the minimum reflux ratio

301. What is the value of Nusselt number in conduction from a spherical droplet to the
surrounding fluid film?
a. 5 b. 3
c. 2 d. 1

302. Natural convection is characterized by


a. Grashof number b. Peclet number
c. Reynolds number d. Prandtl number
< Food Engineering >_________________________67
303. Colburn analogy is valid when
a. 0.1 <Pr<100 b. 0.6 < Pr <120
c. l<Pr<100 d. l<Pr<50

304. What is the effect of the boiling point elevation in multiple effect evaporator?
a. To reduce the capacity
b. To reduce the economy
c. To increase the economy
d. To increase the capacity

305. Which of the following is the most suitable for transportation of sticky material?
a. Screw conveyor b. Pneumatic conveyor
c. Belt conveyor d. Apron conveyor

306. Which of the following is a fat splitting catalyst?


a. CaCO3 b. ZnO
c. Alumina d. Iron

307. Aniline point of diesel is a measure of its


a. Aromatic content b. Paraffin content
c. Olefin content d. Naphthalene content

308. Which of the following is employed to measure pressure in ammonia reactor?


a. Bourdon gage * b. Pirani gage
c. U - tube manometer d. Inclined tube manometer

309. Severity factor is used to compare the performances bf


a. Heat exchangers b. Reactors
c. Evaporators d. Absorbers

310. In the context of mass transfer, what happens when tie line coincides with the operating
line?
a. Minimum number of plates are required
b. Maximum number of plates are required
c. Optimum number of plates are required
d. No plates are required

311. Which of the following materials is the most suitable for fabrication of pressure
vessels?
a. Aluminum alloy b. Plastic
c. Plain carbbn steel d. Copper
68 < Objective Food Science >

312. Which of the following works as strongest head for pressure vessels?
a. Torispherical head b. Ellipsoidal head
c. Flat plate and formed flat head d. Hemispherical head

313. A pipe is replaced by two parallel pipes, each with half the cross section of the original
pipe. Then the discharge will
a. Remain the same b. Increase by more than 10%
c. Decrease by more than 10% d. Change by less than 5%

314. The Euler,s equation of motion


a. Can be derived from the Navier - Stokes equation
b. Is a statement of energy balance
c. Is a preliminary step to derive the Bernoulli's equation
d. Can not be applied to fluid at rest

315. A large effect of temperature is observed on overall mass transfer coefficient. This
indicates
a. Less resistance in liquid phase
b. No resistance in liquid phase
c. Appreciable resistance in both phase
d. More resistance in liquid phase

316. What is the available degree of freedom of a solution of benzene and toluene
undergoing a simple distillation operation?
a. 1 b. 2
c. Invariant d. 3

317. Which of the following expresses the Joule Thompson coefficient (fi)?
a. (3v/dT) p b. (5s/5T) v
c. (dv I 5P)T d. (5T/5P) H

318. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given components of the
electromagnetic spectrum in the increasing order of their wavelength band?
a. Gamma rays - Infrared rays - Ultraviolet rays - Microwaves
b. Microwaves- Ultraviolet rays - Infrared rays - gamma rays
c. Gamma rays- Ultraviolet rays - Infrared rays - Gamma rays
d. Microwaves - Infrared rays - Ultraviolet - Gamma rays

319. Which of the following laws is associated with the amount of crushing energy required
to create new surface?
a. Kopp's law b. Fourier's law
c. Fick's law d. Rittinger's law
< Food Engineering > _________ . _____ 69
320. Which one of the following statements is correct? The crushing efficiency of a machine is
the ratio of the
a. Surface energy created by crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid
b. Energy absorbed by the solid to the energy supplied to the machine
c. Surface energy created by crushing to the energy supplied to the machine
d. The energy supplied to the machine to the surface energy created by crushing

321. Which one of the following is implied by a 20 - mesh screen?


a. 20 openings per cm2 b. 20 openings per square inch
c. 20 openings per inch d. 20 openings per linear cm

322. Which of the following is the most readily corroded in the air?
a. Silver b. Copper c. Tin d. Iron

323. On - off control is a particular case of


a. Proportional - integral - derivative control
b. Proportional - derivative control
c. Proportional - integral control
d. Proportional control

324. How is stripping factor defined?


a. The product of slopes of the operating line and equilibrium curve
b. The reciprocal of the product of slopes of the operating line and equilibrium curve
c. The ratio of the slope of the equilibrium curve to the slope of the operating line
d. The ratio of the slope of the operating line to the slope of the equilibrium curve

325. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids has boiling pointlower than either of them when
it
a. Shows negative deviation from the Raoult's law
b. Show positive deviation from the Raoult's law
c. Shows no deviation from Raoult's law
d. Is saturated

326. Relative volatility for a binary system


a. Has no bearing on the distillation operation
b. Increases with increase in pressure
c. Decreases with increase in pressure
d. Increases with increase in temperature at constant pressure

327. What is amount of air required for the complete combustion of 1 kg of coal?
. a. 23.5 kg b. 17.6 kg c. 14.5 kg d. 11.6 kg
70 _____________________ < Objective Food Science >
328. Constant rate period is that drying period during which
a. The moisture content of the substance remains constant
b. The rate of vaporization per unit of drying surface area is constant
c. The rate of vaporization increases with time
d. The rate of vaporization decreases with the time

329. In solvent extraction process, the selectivity of solvent:


a. Decreases with decrease in temperature
b. Increases with decrease in temperature
c. Is independent of temperature
d. Increases only linearly with decrease in temperature

33Q. Which of the following techniques are employed for level measurement? i.
Bubbler or purge technique ii. Dielectric gage ill-. Ultrasonic gage iv.
Nucleonic gage
Select the correct answer using the cod given below
a. 1,2 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1,3 and 4 d. 1,2, 3 and 4

331. Consider the following statements :


i. Priming is necessary in a centrifugal pump but not in a reciprocating pump ii.
For a centrifugal pump, the discharge varies inversely as the speed
iii. The operating point of a pump installed in a pipe - line is decided by the speed of the
pump
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1 , 2 and 3
<- ' ■

332. Match the following dimensionless Number with field of use.


I II
A Grashof number 1 Compressible flow
.B Froude number .2 Free convection
. EuleT number
C . Free surface flow
3
.D Mach number .4 Pressure variation in flow
.Select the correct .
matchA B C D
a 2 14 3
.b 4 3 2 1
.c 2 3 4\ 1
d. 4 12 3
.
< Food Engineering > ________________________71
333. For a steady state system
a. The rate of input is zero b. The rate of generation is zero
c. The rate of consumption is zero d. The rate of accumulation is zero

334. A solution of specific gravity 1.0 consists of 35 % A by weight and the remaining B.
If the specific gravity of A is 0.7,the specific gravity of B is
a. 1.25 b. 1.3 c. 1.35 d. 1.2

335. Pure A in gas phase enters a reactor. 50 % of this A is converted to B through the
reaction A3B. Mole fraction of A in the exit stream is
a. 1/2 b. 1/3 c. 1/4 d. 1/5
'

336. An evaporator while concentrating a fruit juice from 10 to 40% solids evaporates 30000
kg of water. The amount of solids handled by the system in kg is
a. 4000 b. 9000 c. 4600 d. 3000

337. A multiple effect evaporator has a capacity to process 400 kg of concentrated juice per
day when it is concentrating from 10 % to 25 % solids. The water evaporated in kg per
day is
a. 600 b. 2400 c. 6000 d. 1600

338. 100 kg of orange juice is to be dried from 60 % to 20 % moisture (by weight). The mass
of moisture removed in kg is
a. 52 b. 20 c. 40 d. 50

339. The condition that is not necessary for the applicability of Bernoulli's equation is
a. Steady state b. Incompressible
c. Inviscid d. Irrotational

340. Bernoulli's equation for steady frictionless flow that, along a streamline
a. Total pressure is constant
b. Total mechanical energy is constant
c. Velocity head is constant
d. None of the above

341. For an ideal fluid flow the Reynolds number is


a. Infinity b. Zero
c. One d. 2100

342. Toothpaste is
a. Bingham plastic b. Pseudo plastic
c. Newtonian fluid d. Dilatant
72 < Objective Food Science >
343. For pseudoplastic fluids, increase in shear rate
a. Increases the apparent viscosity
b. Decreases* the apparent viscosity
c. Has no effect on apparent viscosity
d. Has unspecified effect

344. A spherical particle is falling slowly in a viscous liquid such that Reynolds number is
less than 1. Which statement is correct for this situation?
a. Inertial and drag forces are important
b. Drag, gravitational and buoyancy forces are important
c. Drag force and gravitational forces are important
d. None of the above

345. The angle formed by pouring a powder as a heap on a flat surface is known as
a. Contact angle b. Angle of nip
c. Angle of repose d. Critical angle

346. The kinetic energy of gas molecules is zero at


a. 0°C b. 273°C c. 100°C d. -273°C

347. Mixing of two fluids is a


a. Reversible process b. Irreversible process-
c. Isothermal process d. None of these

348. Entropy is
a. Intensive property b. Derived property
c. Extensive property d. None of the above

349. A reversible heat transfer demands


a. The temperature difference causing heat transfer tends to zero
b. The system receiving heat must be at a constant temperature
c. The system transferring out heat must be at a constant temperature
d. Both interacting systems must be at constant temperatures

350. The first law of thermodynamics takes the form W= AH when applied to
a. A closed system undergoing a reversible adiabatic process
b. An open system undergoing an adiabatic process with negligible changes in kinetic
and potential energies
c. A closed system undergoing a reversible constant volume process
d. A closed system undergoing a reversible constant pressure process
< Food Engineering >_________________________ 73
351. The second law of thermodynamics states that
a. The energy change of a system undergoing any reversible process is zero
b. It is not possible to transfer heat from a lower temperature to a higher temperature
c. The total energy of the system and surroundings remains constant
d. None of the above

352. The thermal conductivity is minimum for


a. Silver b. Chrome-nickel steel
c. Aluminum d. Carbon steel

353. In pipe flow, heat is transferred from a hot wall to the liquid by
a. Conduction only
b. Forced convection only
c. Forced convection only and conduction
d. Free and forced convection

354. Heat transfer occurs by natural convection because change in temperature causes
differences in
a. Viscosity b. Density
c. Thermal conductivity d. Heat capacity

355. The Grashof number is defined as the ratio of


a. Buoyancy to inertial forces b. Buoyancy to viscous forces
c. Inertial to viscous forces d. Buoyancy to surface tension forces

356. Prandtl number is the ratio of


a. Mass diffusivity to thermal conductivity
b. Momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity
c. Thermal diffusivity to mass diffusivity
d. Thermal diffusivity to momentum diffusivity

357. Grashof number is associated with


a. Buoyancy effects b. Free convection
c. Forced convection d. High temperature difference

358. Heat transfer coefficient in a helical coil compared to that in straight pipe is
a. Lower b. Higher c. Same d. None of these
359. A multiple effect evaporator as compared to a single effect evaporator of same capacity has
a. Lower heat transfer area b. Lower steam economy
c. Higher steam economy d. Higher solute concentrations in the
product
74 _________________________< Objective Food Science >
360. The advantage of backward feed multiple effect evaporator over forward feed units is
that
a. Heat sensitive materials can be handled
b. There is no additional cost of pumping
c. Most concentrated liquor is at highest temperature
d. Equal heat transfer coefficient exist in various effects

361. Evaporators are normally operated at reduced pressures in order to


a. Reduce the wall thickness of the evaporator body
b. Enable the use of low pressure steam as heating medium
c. Prevent thermal degradation of the solute
d. All of the above

362. The units of diffusivity are


a. m/s b. m2/s c. kmol/ m2.s . d. None of
these

363. Molecular diffusivity of a liquid


a. Increases with temperature
b. Decrease with temperature
c. May increase or decrease with temperature
d. Is independent of temperature

364. Sherwood number in mass transfer is analogous to the following dimensionless group
in heat transfer
a. Greatz number b. Grashoff number
c. Nusselt number d. Prandtl number

365. Solvent used in extractive distillation


a. Is of low volatility
b. Forms a low boiling azeotrope
c. Forms a high boiling azeotrope
d. Does not alter the relative volatility of the original components

366. If the temperature of atmosphere increases at constant absolute humidity, the


percentage saturation would
a. Decrease b. Increase
c. Remain constant d. None of these

367. If the temperature of atmosphere increases at constant absolute humidity, the wet-bulb
temperature would
a. Decrease b. Increase c. Remain constant d. None of
these
< Food Engineering > ________________________ 75
368. A batch of material is dried under constant drying conditions. When drying is taking
place from all the surfaces, the rate of drying during the constant rate period is
a. Directly proportional to the solid thickness
b. Independent of the solid thickness
c. Inversely proportional to the solid thickness
d. Directly proportional to the square of solids thickness

369. While drying a material from a moisture content above the critical moisture content to
a moisture content very close to the equilibrium moisture content, the surface
temperature of the solid (ignoring initial adjustment period)
a. Remains a constant
b. At first remains a constant and then increases
c. Increases continuously
d. At first remains a constant and then decreases

370. When an exothermic reversible reaction is conducted adiabatically the rate of reaction
a. Continuously increases b. Continuously decreases
c. Passes through the maximum d. Passes through the minimum

371. In a food industry, break-even point occurs when


a. The annual rate of production equals the assigned value
b. The total annual product cost equals the total annual sales
c. The annual profit equals the expected value
d. The annual sales equals the fixed costs

372. The most widely used coagulant for removing suspended impurities from water is
a. Bleaching powder b. Chlorine c. Calcium sulfate d. Alum

373. Which of the following gaseous fuels is likely to have the highest Gross Calorific Value
on per m3 basis?
a. Sewage gas b. LPG c. Producer gas d. Natural gas

* 374. Which of the following fuels has the highest calorific value per unit mass?
a. Coal b. Kerosene
c. Natural gas d. Furnace oil

375. The ethyl alcohol content in the fermented liquor from molasses, is
a. 50-55% b. 20-22% c. 8-10% d. 3 -5%

376. Which one of the following is not likely to be constituent of vegetable oil
a. Citric acid b. Oleic acid c. Stearic acid d. Glycerol
76 < Objective Food Science >
377. Hydrogenation of edible oil is done to
a. Decrease the number of unsaturated bonds
b. Lower the melting point of oil
c. Increase the thermal conductivity of oil
d. Enable the oil to be packed in tin containers

378. Epoxy resins come under the category of


a. Thermoplastic b. Thermosetting
c. Oil soluble or oil modified d. Protein substances

379. For ammonia reactors the material of construction is


a. Carbon steel b. Cast steel c. Stainless steel d. Mild steel

380. Dilute sulfuric acid is handled in vessels made of


a. Stainless steel b. Brass c. Lead d. Cast iron

381. Phosphoric acid is handled in


a. Glass-lined vessels . b. Aluminum vessels
c. Brass vessels d. Stainless steel vessels

382. Indicate what will be the manometic reading if the venture meter is replaced by an
orifice meter of the same size
a. Less than Jhat for venture meter b. Same as that for venture meter
c. Higher than that for venture meter d. None of these

383. A layer of insulation is applied on a spherical metallic tank containing a cryogenic


liquid. The rate of heat leakage into the tank
a. Always decreases with increase in insulation thickness
b. Increases with insulation thickness and remains constant beyond a critical thickness
c. May increase up to a thickness and then decreases, depending upon the thermal
conductivity of the insulating material
d. May increase up to a thickness and then decrease depending upon the th ermal
conductivity of the metal

384. NTU can be considered as a


a. Performance concept of the equipment
b. Measure of approach to ideality
c. Measure of diffusivity of separation
d. Measure of departure from ideality

385. If NPSH is equal to -------------------— --- Cavitation occurs


a. Zero b. One c. Two d. Three
(B) INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?


a. Boiler is a closed pressure vessel in which water, under pressure is transformed in to
solids
b. Boilers is a.closed vessel in which the water, under pressure is transformed into steam
c. Boiler is a closed vessel in which solid is converted to vapour form at the triple point
k
of water
d. Boiler is a closed vessel in which water is converted to steam under reduced pressure

2. In a boiler
a. Mechanical energy is converted to heat energy
b. Heat energy is converted to nuclear energy
c. Chemical energy is converted to potential energy
d. Chemical energy is converted to heat energy

3. We can call a steam generator, a boiler


a. When it is done only in open pan
b. When it is done only under high pressure
c. When it is done only under reduced pressure
d. Under any circumstances, only criteria is that it must generate steam

4. Boiler mainly consists of


a. Firebox b. Flue
c. Heat exchanger d. All of the above

5. Propulsion boiler is mainly for


a. Providing steam to an engine b. Providing steam to drum drier
c. Providing steam to sterilizer d. Providing steam to pasteurizer

6. In water - tube boiler


a. Water flows through the tube and hot air around it
b. Water surrounds tube carrying hot air
c. Water is inside the tube and steam is out side the tube
d. Steam flows through the tube and hot air around the tube
78 _______ < Objective Food Science >
7. Low pressure boiler generates steam at a pressure of
a. Less than 5 psig b. Less than 10 psig
c. Less than 15 psig d. Less than 20 psig

8. Fire tube boilers are also called


a. High mass boiler b. Low mass boiler
c. High pressure d. Low pressure boilers

9. Locomotive boilers are the examples of


a. Fire - tube boilers b. Water - tube boilers
c. Auxiliary boilers d. Vertical boilers

10. Lancashire boilers are


a. Fire - tube boilers b. Water - tube boilers
c. Auxiliary boilers d. Vertical boilers

.11. Boiler horsepower is defined as


a. Evaporation into dry saturated steam of 50.6 lb of water per second at a temperature
of 100°F
b. Evaporation into dry saturated steam of 50.6 lb of water per second at a temperature
of212°F
c. Evaporation into dry saturated steam of 34.5 lb of water per second at a temperature
of212°F
d. Evaporation into dry saturated steam of 34.5 lb of water per hour at a temperature of
212°F

12. Which of the following is/ are the boilers mountings?


a. Water level indicator b. Economizer
c. Feed Pump d. All of the above

13. Which of the following is / are the boiler accessories?


a. Economizer b. Air pre heater
c. Feedpump d. All of the above

14. Which of the following is the safety valve used in boiler?


a. Spring loaded valve b. Blow off valve
c. Feed check valve d. All of the above

15. Economizer is used to


a. Increase the fuel economy
b. Increase shelf life of boiler
c. Increase steam generation rate of the boiler
d. All of the above
< Food Engineering > ________________________ 79
16. In an economizer
a. The feed water is preheated by the steam
b. The feed water is preheated by the hot air coming out of the furnace
c. The fuel used is of high calorific value
d. The steam is circulated in the pipe

17. What is the function of a super heater in a boiler?


a. To increase the temperature of the feed water
b. To increase the temperature of the steam above the melting point
c. To increase the pressure of the steam above the saturation pressure
d. To increase the temperature of the steam above the saturation temperature

18. Blow off valve


a. Helps in release of the steam when the pressure increases the safety level
b. Remove the sediments collected at the bottom of boiler
c. To transfer steam at an angle of 90°
d. To increase the steam utilization

19. Steam transfer at an angle of 90° can be done with the help of
a. Blow off valve b. Feed check valve
c. Steam stop valve d. Spring loaded valve

20. Fusible plug is used in a boiler to prevent


a. Leakage of water
b. Leakage of steam
c. Fire in the furnace
d. Back flow of steam to boiler

21. Which of the following statements is/are correct for centrifugal pumps?
a. It is efficient for low viscous fluids
b. The discharge flow is steady
c. It can be used for liquids containing solid particles
d. All of the above

22. Most of the centrifugal pumps used in food industries use


a. One vane impeller
• b. Two van impeller
c. Three van impeller
d. Six van impeller
80 < Objective Food Science >
23. Positive displacement pumps uses --------------------to move the liquid product
a. Positive suction pressure
b. Direct force to confined liquid
c. Centrifugal force
d. Gravitational force

24. Which of the following pumps have pulsating discharge flow


a. Centrifugal pump
b. Rotary pump
c. Reciprocating pump
d. All of the above

25. A rotameter measures


a. Flow rate of fluid
b. Speed of turbines
c. Viscosity of liquid
d. None of the above
(C) REFRIGERATION ENGINEERING

1. Who has got the first British patent for artificial refrigeration?
a. Thomas Harrison and John Long b. Jacob Perking
c. Dr. John Gorrie d. Dr. Alexander Kirk

2. What is a thermodynamic system?


a. Any region where there is static equilibrium between two component in terms of heat
b. Any region where there is dynamic equilibrium between two components in terms
temperature
c. Any region where there is always movement of air with the transfer of heat
d. Any region of space to which attention is directed for the purpose of analysis

3. Which of the following is / are the property/ properties of a thermodynamic system?


a. Temperature b. Internal energy
c. Pressure d. All of the above

4. When a system undergoes a series of processes and return to its initial state is called
a. Equilibrium b. Cycle
c. Work d. None of the above

5. The energy by the virtue of atomic and molecular configuration of a system is called
a. Heat energy b. Molecular energy
c. Internal energy d. Potential energy

6. Measure of randomness of a system is called


a. Enthalpy b. Entropy
c. Energy d. Effectiveness

7. Entropy of a substance at 0 K temperature is


a. Zero b. Infinity
c. Very high but not infinity d. Very low but not zero

8. Total heat content of the substance is its


a. Latent heat b. Specific heat
c. Enthalpy .. ' d. Sensible heat
82 < Objective Food Science >
9. ----------- does not cause a temperature difference within the body
a. Heating b. Specific heat
c. Latent heat d. Sensible heat

10. 1 BTU is equal to


a. U b. 1-kJ
c. 1 calorie d. 1 kilo calorie

11. First law of thermodynamics relates with the conservation of


a. Heat b. Energy
c. Momentum d. Temperature

12. According to second law of thermodynamics


a. Energy cannot be created
b. Energy cannot be destroyed
c. Heat can not flow from cold body to hot body without any external wok
d. All of the above

13. Which law is the basis for refrigeration cycle?


a. First law of thermodynamics b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Newton's first law of motion . d. Newton's second law of motion

14. Vapour compression system is


a. Refrigeration system b. Evaporation system
c. Freeze drying system d. Fermentation system

15. Which of the following is/are the major component/s of a vapour compression system?
a. Atomizer b. Evaporator
c. Homogenizer d. All of the above

16. Compressor in a vapour compression system is a


a. Essential part
b. Optional part
c. There is compressor in a compressor
d. Safety device

17. Function of a throttling device in a vapour compression system is


a. To release the vapour when its pressure increases the safety limit
b. To reduce the pressure of refrigerant vapour and direct it to compressor
c. To reduce the pressure of liquid refrigerant
d. To evaporate the liquid refrigerant
< Food Engineering > 83
18. Which of the following is / are the types of throttling device
a. Hand expansion valve
b. Capillary tube valve
c. Constant pressure expansion valve
d. All of the above

19. A primary refrigerant is that which


a. Is essential for a refrigeration
b. Need another refrigerant to show its refrigeration effect
c. Undergoes a refrigeration cycle
d. Does not undergo any refrigeration cycle

20. Which of the following is the primary refrigerant?


a. *b. c. d.
NaCl CaCL Water Ammonia

21. Which of the following refrigerant is the safest?


a. Methyl chloride b. Methane c. d. Methyl
Isobutene formate

22. Mixture of two or more refrigerant acting as a single refrigerant is called


a. Enatiotrope b. Polytrope c. Azeotrope d. Zoetrope

23. In which category of refrigerants, the oxygen and nitrogen compounds are placed
together?
a. 100 b. 300 c. 600 * d. 700

24. Unsaturated compounds are placed under which group of refrigerant?


a. 200 b. 600 c. 800 d. 1000
25. Which of the following refrigerants can be employed for cryogenic work?
a. CFC b. Rll c. Liquid nitrogen d. All of the above
26 Rll is
.
a. CH4 b. C2H4 c. CC13F d. C2H4F2
27 Ammonia is being represented by
.
a. R- 717 b. R- 723 c. R- 790 d. R-700
28. Dichloro difluro methane can be represented by
a. R12 b. R21 c. R31 d.
R33
29. Monochloro difluro methane can be represented by
a. Rll b. R22 c.
R33 d.
R44
84 < Objective Food Science >

30. Whatis.ASRE?
a. American society for refrigeration equipments
b. American scientists and refrigeration engineers
c. American society for refrigeration engineering
d. American school for refrigeration engineering

31. What is net refrigeration effect?


a. It is the quantity of ice produced by 1 ton of refrigerant in one hour
b. It is the quantity of heat absorbed by 1 ton of refrigerant from 1 ton of water in one hour
c. It is the quantity of heat the refrigerant absorbs per unit mass per cycle
d. It is the quantity of heat required to convert 1 ton of ice to water at 77 °F

32. Ton erf refrigeration is


a. Unit to express the capacity of a refrigerant plant
b. Amount of ice formed by a refrigerator in 24 hr
c. Amount of coal required to complete one refrigeration cycle
d. Amount of water converted to ice in one hour by a refrigerator

33. Enthalpy of vaporization of a refrigerant should be


a. As low as possible
• b. As high as possible
c. Neither too high nor too low
d. Enthalpy does not make any difference

34. Compression ratio of a refrigerant should be


a. 1 b. very small
c. very large but not infinity d. infinity

35. Coefficient of performance of a refrigerant is the representative of


a. Running cost b. Efficiency c. Solubility in oil d.
Freezing point

36. Which of the following statements is correct? .


a. Higher the coefficient of performance of a refrigerant higher is the running cost
b. Higher is the coefficient of performance of a refrigerant lower is the running cost
c. Freezing point of refrigerator should be high
d. Conductivity of a refrigerant should be minimum

37. A good refrigerant should have


a. Low boiling point b. High specific volume
c. Low conductivity d. High coefficient of performance
< Food Engineering > 85
38. One ton of refrigeration is equal to
a. 200 BTU/min b. 200 c. d. All of the
KJ/min 288000BTU/hr above

39. Third law of thermodynamics deals with


a. Enthalpy b. Entropy c. Temperature d. Latent heat

40. Which of the following refrigerant posses the environmental problem


a. Ammonia b. Methyl chloride c. R12 d. CFC

41. In air conditioning we maintain


a. Temperature . b. c. d. All of the
Humidity Dust above

42. Which type of air conditioner would you use for your office?
a. Commercial b. Comfort c. Chamber d. Personal

43. The optimum temperature and humidity for human comfort is


a. 18°C, 30% b. 22°C> 50% c. 27°C, 75% d. 32°C, 85%

44. In a vapour pressure compression system, the throttling device


a. Increases the pressure of refrigerant vapour
b. Increases the pressure of refrigerant liquid
c. Decreases, the pressure of refrigerant vapour
d. Decreases the pressure of refrigerant liquid

45. Specific heat of dry air is


a. 0.133 kcal/ kg b. 0.255 kcal/kg c. 555 d. 789 kcal/
kcal /kg

46. One grain is equal to kg d. 0.06 g


a. 10 kg b. 6 kg c. 0.6 g
47. According to the law of psychrometry, the wet bulb temperature
a. Remains constant if total heat of the air is constant
b. Increases if sensible heat increases
c. Decreases if latent heat increases
d. Is always less than the dry bulb temperature

48. In a vapour compressor refrigeration (VCR) system, the function of compressor is


a. To liquefy the refrigerant vapour
b. To solidify the liquid refrigerant
c. To increase the pressure of the refrigerant vapour
d. To increase the pressure of liquid refrigerant
86 ____________________ < Objective Food Science >
49. In VCR system, the low side float valve is placed
a. Before condenser b. At the outlet of condenser
c. At the inlet of evaporator d. At the inlet of compressor

50. In VCR system, the high side float valve is placed


a. Before condenser b. At the outlet of condenser
c. At the inlet of evaporator d. At the inlet of compressor

51. For an efficient refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the refrigerant at the outlet of the
compressor should be
a. Higher than the atmospheric temperature
b. Lower than the atmospheric temperature
c. Equal to the atmospheric temperature
d. 0°C

52. In refrigeration system, the saturation temperature is the temperature at which


a. Refrigerant condense in the condenser
b. Refrigerant boils in the evaporator
c. Refrigerator can show its highest efficiency
d. Refrigerator stops working

53. In VCR, the higher is the outlet pressure of the throttling valve,
a. Higher will be saturation temperature
b. Lower is the saturation temperature
c. Higher is the vapour volume
d. Lower is the refrigerant volume
54. Higher is the saturation temperature,
a. Lower is the cooling effect
b. Higher is the cooling effect
c. Higher is the is the refrigerant pressure at the compressor outlet
d. Lower is the refrigerant pressure at the compressor outlet

55. Which of the following is/are as the throttling device/s?


a. Capillary tube b. Thermostatic
c. High side float valve d. All of the above

56. Function /s of a compressor in a VCR is/are


a. To decrease the pressure of liquid refrigerant
b. To liquefy the refrigerant vapour
c. To provide the refrigerant the pressure energy to complete the cycle
d. None of the above
< Food Engineering > ______ _ ^ ______ 87
57. Inefficient functioning of the evaporator in VCR system may lead to
a. Entry of liquid in compressor b. Entry of liquid in condenser
c. Entry of liquid in throttling device d. All of the above

58. Compressor capacity control


a. Controls the amount of refrigerants fed to the VCR system
b. Modulates the compressor as per the system load
c. Feeds required quantity of refrigerant to the evaporator
d. Prevents the suction pressure to drop below the required value

59. Wet bulb depression is


a. Small bulb present in the lower position of the thermometer
b. Difference in the reading of thermometer at 50% and at 95% RH
c. Difference in the reading of dry bulb and wet bulb thermometer
d. Difference in the reading of wet bulb thermometer and the actual value of temperature

60. In blast freezing


a. Liquid refrigerant is used b. Plate heat exchanger is used,
c. Cold air is used d. None of the above

ANSWERS
(A) GENERAL ENGINEERING AND CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

1. b 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. a
21. a 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. ,d 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. d
31. a 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. b 36.a a 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. c
41. b 42. a 43. c 44. a 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. d
51. a 52. b 53. c 54. b 55. d 56. a 57. d 58. b 59. a 60. c
61 .d 62. d 63. a 64. d 65. b 66. c 67. b 68. a 69. b 70. d
71. a 72. c 73. b 74. d 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. d 79. b 80. d
81. a 82. b 83. d 84. d 85. a 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. d 90. c
91. d 92. a 93. c 94. b 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. b 100. d
101. d 102. d 103. b 104. d 105. a 106. d 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. b
111. b 112. a 113. a 114. c 115. b 116. c 117. c 118. c 119. b 120. a
121. b 122. d 123. c 124. b 125. a 126. b 127. b 128. b 129. a 130. c
131. b 132. a 133. b 134. a 135. b 136. a 137. b 138. a 139. a 140. a
141. c 142. c 143. c 144. c 145. b 146. c 147. c 148. d 149. a 150. d
88 Objective Food Science
151. c 152. c 153. d 154. d 155. c 156. c 157. d 158. a 159. b. 160. d
161. d 162. cH53. a 164. d 165. a 166. a 167. d 168. c 169. a 170. d
171. b 172. b173. a 174. b 175. a 176. a 177. b 178. b 179. a 180. a
181. b 182. c183. c 184. c 185. b 186. b 187. a 188. c 189. a 1,90. d
191. d 192. c193. a 194. a 195. a 196. a 197. c 198. b 199. b 200. b
201. c 202. .b203. d 204. a 205. d 206. b 207. c 208. b 209. b 210. d
211. c 212. a213. c 214. a 215. b 216. c 217. a 218. b 219. d 220. c
221. c 222. c223. b 224. c 225. b 226. b 227. b 228. b 229. a 230. a
231. a 232. a233. b 234. a 235. b 236. b 237. b 238. a 239. a 240. c
241. a 242. d243. b 244. d 245. a 246. b 247. d 248. b 249. a 250. b
251. b 252. c253. a 254. d 255. a 256. a 257. b 258. c 259. c 260. a
261. d 262. a 263. d 264. a 265. d 266. a 267. a 268. b 269. c 270. b
271. b 272. c 273. a 274. a 275. a 276. b 277. c 278. a 279. c 280. a
281. b 282. c 283. b 284. a 285. c 286. a 287. a 288. b 289. a 290. b
291. c 292. a 293. c 294. a 295. c 296. d 297. c 298. b 299. a 300. b
301. c 302. a 203. a 304. b 305. a 306. d 307. a 308. a 309. c 310. b
311. c 312. d 213. a 314. c 31.5. d 316. d 317. d 318. a 319. d 320. c
321. b 322. d 223. b 324. c 325. b 326. c 327. d 328. b 329. c 330. a
331. a 332. a 233. d 334. b 335. c" 336. a 337. b 338. d 339. d 340. b
341. a 342. a 243. b 344. b 345. c 346. d 347. b 348. c . 349. a 350. b
351. b 352. b 253. c 354. b 355. b 356. b 357. b 358. b 359. c 360. c
361. d 362. b 263. a 364. c 365. a 366. a 367. b 368. b 369. b 370. , c
371. b 372. d 273. b 374. c 375. , c 376.. a 377, .a 378. b 379. a 380. . c
381. d 382. c 383. c 384. c 385. a

(B) INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING


1. b 2. d 3.b 4. d 5, . a 6.a 7 .c 8 . 9. a 10 . a
11. d 12. . a 13. d 14. a 15. d 16. b 17, .d 18. ba 19. c 20 . c

(C) REFRIGERATION ENGINEERING


1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. c «10. b
11. b 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. d
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. c 26. c 27, a 28. a 29. b 30. c
31. c '. 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. d
41. d 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. b
51. a 52. b 53. a 54. c 55. d 56. c 57. a 58. b 59. c 60. c

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