Reviewer in Assessment 1 2
Reviewer in Assessment 1 2
Calauag, Quezon
3. These refer to specific activities or tasks that a student can proficiently do. SILLKS – Skills
4. It entails putting together the components in order to summarize the concept. INSHSESTY – Synthesis
5. It is the degree to which the test measures what is intended to measure. DILAITVY – Validity
6. It consists of questions to which the students respond in one or more sentences to a specific question or
problem. SAYES – Essay
7. It is a step higher than mere acquisition of facts and involves a cognition or awareness of
interrelationships of facts and concepts. PRONCHENOMSIE – Comprehension
8. It refers to the score/s which appear most frequently in a set of scores. DOME – Mode
9. It tells how many scores are contained within a particular class limit or group. FREEQUENCY – Frequency
10. It refers to the process of gathering, describing or quantifying information about the student’s
performance. SMANSETESS – Assessment
11. It refers to the breaking down of a concept or idea into its components. SAYSIANL – Analysis
13. It has three categories namely: cognitive, psychomotor and affective. LIAITBY – Ability
14. They are formed when skills clustered together. MOSCEPECIENT – Competencies
15. This refers to the acquisition of facts, concepts and theories. KNOWLEDGE – Knowledge
16. This term refers to questions of right and wrong. SCIETH – Ethics
17. This type of test measures skills like skills in dancing, singing, reciting a poem etc… COPERAMFREN –
Performance
18. It refers to the content and format of the testing instrument. CENTNOT – Content
19. It is a process of obtaining a numerical description of the degree to which an individual possesses a
particular characteristic. REMETAMENUS – Measurement
20. It refers to the middle score in an array. MAIDEN – Median
21. It divides the distribution of scores into four equal parts. REQUAILT – Quartile
22. A scoring scale which is used to assess student performance along a task-specific set of criteria. BURCIR
– Rubric
23. This test admits only one correct response in each item from two constant options.
NATAIVELTER ENESPORS – Alternative Response
24. It refers to the outward appearance of the test. CAFE DILITAVY – Face Validity
25. Learning targets or objectives need to be stated in what kind of terms? ABIOHARVEL – Behavioral
26. This test consists of a multiple-option items where it requires a chronological, logical, rank, etc… order.
ANREARMEGENTR – Rearrangement
27. It refers to the valuing and judgment or putting the “worth” of a concept or principle. LOUEATIVAN –
Evaluation
28. This type is made of items consisting of a pair or pairs of words which are related to each other.
GALOYNA – Analogy
29. This test is usually made up of 4 or more plausible options in each item. LUPLTIME HOCICE – Multiple
Choice
30. The distance from the highest score to the lowest score. ANGER – Range
31. Variance and Standard deviations are examples of what measure? ABILRIVYAIT – Variability
32. It is the quality/property of a test/assessment method not to be biased to the examinees. ASFIRENS –
Fairness
33. It refers to the transfer of knowledge from one field of study to another or from one concept to another
concept in the same discipline. CALINAPTIOP – Application
34. It divides the distribution of scores into ten equal parts. CIEELD – Decile
35. The process of finding the reliability of a test by comparing two sets of data taken from the result of the
test-retest method. ENCORLATIOR – Correlation
1. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against a set of mastery level. This means that NSAT and NEAT
fall under ____ a. Intelligence test b. aptitude test c. criterion-referenced d. norm-referenced
2. This is the first step in planning an achievement test.
a. Select the type of test items to use b. Decide on the length of the test
c. Define the instructional objective d. Construct a table of specification
3. Which objective below is the highest level in Bloom’s Taxonomy?
a. List the parts of a tree b. Explain how a tree functions in relation to the ecosystem
c. Rate three different methods of controlling tree growth d. Explain how trees receive nutrients
4. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?
a. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment
b. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge
c. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score
d. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score
5. A test item has a difficulty index of 0.85 and discrimination index of 0.10. What should the test
constructor do? a. Retain the item b. Make it a bonus item c. Revise d. Reject
6. Which is included in item analysis?
a. Determining the percentage equivalent of the cut off score b. Identifying the highest score
c. Determining the cut off score d. Determining the effectiveness of distracters
7. A positive discrimination index means that…
a. The test item could not discriminate between the lower and upper groups
b. More from the upper group got the item correctly
c. More from the lower group got the item correctly d. The test item has low reliability
8. The index of difficulty of a particular item is 0.10. What does this mean? My students _______
a. gained mastery over the item b. performed very well against expectation
c. found the test item was either easy nor difficult d. were hard up in that item
9. Teacher Ritz Glenn gave a chapter test. In which competency did his students find the greatest
difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of ____ a. 0.12 b. 1.0 c. 0.95 d. 0.53
10. Given the table on item analysis for non-attractiveness and non-plausibility of distracters based on the
results of a try-out test in Mathematics. The letter mark with an asterisk is the correct answer.
Item no. 6 A B C D* E
Upper 27% 16 3 1 12 0
Lower 27% 10 9 2 8 0
Based from the given table, which is the most effective distracter?
a. Option E b. Option A c. Option B d. Option C
11. Based from the same table in no. 10, the test item no. 6 which was analyzed __________
a. is moderately difficult b. has a positive discrimination index
c. has a negative discrimination index d. is very easy
12. Which is (are) (a) norm-referenced statement?
a. Daniel performed better in spelling than 88% of his classmates
b. Daniel was able to spell 94% of the words correctly
c. Daniel was able to spell 94% of the words correctly and spelled 38 words out of 50 correctly
d. Daniel spelled 38 words out of 50 correctly
13. If teacher Jerick Ivan wants to test his student’s synthesizing skills. Which of the following has the
highest diagnostic value? a. Completion b. Essay test c. Performance d. Multiple-choice
14. Which of the following can measure awareness of values?
a. Rating scales b. Projective technique c. Role playing d. Moral dilemma
15. Which is the most reliable tool for seeing the development in your pupils’ ability to write?
a. Interview of pupils b. Self-assessment c. Scoring rubric d. Portfolio assessment
III.
2. The task of setting up routine activities for effective classroom management is a task that a teacher should
undertake ____________.
a. as soon as the students have adjusted to their studies.
b. on the very first day of school.
c. every day at the start of the session.
d. every homeroom day.
3. Teacher S uses the low-profile classroom technique most of the time. What does this imply?
a. She is reactive in her disciplinary orientation.
b. She manages pupil’s personalities.
c. She reacts severely to a misbehaving student.
d. She stops misbehavior without disrupting lesson flow.
4. When a teacher tries to elicit clarification on a student response or solicits additional information, which of
these should be use?
a. Directing b. Probing c. Structuring d. Cross examining
5. Which priority criterion should guide a teacher in the choice of instructional devices?
a. Novelty b. Cost c. Attractiveness d. Appropriateness
6. Teacher H strives to draw participation of every student into her classroom discussion. Which of these
students needs is she trying to address? She needs to ___________.
7. Instead of a teacher giving this comment to a student response: “You’re on the wrong track!” What should a
teacher do?
a. Change the question to an easier one.
b. Redirect the question by calling another student to recite.
c. Probe to redirect the response into a more productive area.
d. Pause, ask the question, lecture, then ask the question again.
8. I want my students to develop the ability to look at a problem from various perspectives. Which approach
will be MOST fit?
a. Behavioral approach b. Computer-based education c. Modular approach d. Cognitive approach
10. One’s approach to teaching is influenced by Howard Gardner’s MI theory. What does he/she challenge to
do?
I – To come up with 9 different ways of approaching a lesson plan to cater the 9 multiple intelligences.
II – To develop all students’ skills in all 9 intelligences.
III – To provide worthwhile activities that acknowledge individual differences in children.
13. School curriculum reflects the world’s economic and political integration and industrialization. What does
this point to in curriculum development?
a. The trend towards the classical approach to curriculum development.
b. The trend toward participatory globalization and localization.
c. The trend toward participatory curriculum development.
d. The shift in paradigm of curriculum development from a process-oriented to a product –
oriented one.
14. You choose cooperative learning as a teaching approach. What thought is impressed on your students?
a. Interaction is a must, but not necessarily face-to-face interaction.
b. Student’s success depends on the success of the group.
c. Students evaluate individually how effectively their group worked.
d. The accountability for learning is on the group not on the individual.
15. What principle is violated by overusing the chalkboard, as though it is the only education technology
available?
a. Isolated use b. Flexibility c. Variety d. Uniformity
17. “When more senses are stimulated, teaching and learning become more effective.” What is an application
of this principle?
a. Appeal to students’ sense of imagination.
b. Use multisensory aids.
c. Make your students touch the instructional material.
d. Use audio-visual aids become the eyes and the ears are the most important sense in learning.
18. Which is a classroom application of the theory of “Operant Conditioning”?
a. Help the students see the connectedness of facts, concepts, and principles.
b. Create a classroom atmosphere that elicits relaxation.
c. Reinforce a good behavior to increase the likelihood that the learner will repeat the
response.
d. Make students learn by operating manipulative.
19. I want to teach concepts, patterns, and abstractions. Which method will be MOST appropriate?
a. Discovery b. Indirect instruction c. Direct Instruction d. Problem Solving
20. Teacher A teaches English as a second language. She uses vocabulary cards, fill-in-the-blank sentences,
dialogues, dictation, and writing exercises in teaching a lesson about grocery shopping. Based on this
information, which of the following is a valid conclusion?
a. The teacher wants to make her teaching easier by having less talk.
b. The teacher is emphasizing reading and writing skills.
c. The teacher is teaching in a variety of ways because not all students learn in the same
manner.
d. The teacher is applying Bloom’s hierarchy of cognitive learning.
21. Teacher A, an experienced teacher, does daily review of past lessons in order to ___________.
a. introduce a new lesson.
b. reflect on how he presented the previous lesson.
c. provide his pupils with a sense of continuity.
d. determine who among his pupils are studying.
22. I combined several subject areas in order to focus on a single concept for interdisciplinary teaching. Which
strategy did I use?
a. Reading- writing activity
b. Thematic instruction
c. Unit method
d. Problem-oriented learning
23. To teach the democratic process to the pupils, Biaf ELem. School divided that the election of class officers
shall be patterned after local elections. There are qualifications set for candidates, limited period for
campaign, and rules for posting campaign materials, etc. which of the following did the school use?
a. Symposium
b. Simulation
c. Role playing
d. Philips 66
a. Breakdown barriers b. Increase creativity c. Generate many ideas d. Selectively involve pupils
27. After the reading of a selection in the class, which of these activities can enhance students’ creativity?
a. Readers’ theater b. Reading aloud c. Silent reading d. choral reading
28. Teacher C, a Reading teacher, advised her class to “read between the lines”. What does she want her
pupils to do?
a. Make an educated guess b. Determine what is meant by what is stated
c. Apply the information read d. Describe the characters in the story
30. Teacher R wants to develop his students’ creativity. Which type of questions will be MOST appropriate?
a. Synthesis question b. Fact question c. “What if ……..questions? d. Analysis questions
31. In my attempt to develop creative thinking skills. I want to teach fluency ideas. Which activity for my
students will be MOST appropriate?
a. Solve this math problem b. List animals covered with hair in 1 minute
c. Solve this puzzle d. Compare pictures 1 and 2. Where are the differences?
32. You want your students to answer the questions at the end of a reading lesson: “What did I learn today?
“What still puzzles me?” “What did I enjoy, hate accomplish in class today?” “How did I learn from the
lesson?” Which of the following are you asking them to do?
a. Work on an assignment b. Make journal entry c. Work on a drill d. Apply what they learned
33. After reading an essay, Teacher B wants to help sharpen her students’ ability to interpret. Which of these
activities will be MOST appropriate?
35. Research says that mastery experiences increase confidence and willingness to try similar or more
challenging tasks like reading. What does this imply for children’s reading performance?
a. Children who have not mastered the basic skill are more likely to be motivated to read in order to gain
mastery over basic skills.
b. Children who have mastered basic skills are more likely to be less motivated to read because they get fed up
with too much reading.
c. Children who have a high sense of self-confidence are not necessarily those who can read.
d. Children who have gained mastery over basic skills are more motivated to read.
36. The value that the students put on reading is critical to their success. In what way/s can teachers inculcate
this value for reading?
I – Sharing the excitement of each of read-aloud
II – Sharing their passion for reading
III – Reading rewarded to demonstrate the value of reading.
a. I and III b. I and II c. I, II and III d. II only
37. Brunner’s theory on intellectual development moves from enactive to iconic and symbolic stages. Applying
Brunner’s theory, how would you teach?
a. Be interactive approach b. Begin with the abstract c. Begin with the concrete d. Do direct instruction
39. If a student is encouraged to develop himself to be fullest and must satisfy his hierarchy of needs, the
highest need to satisfy according to Maslow is ________.
a. Psychological needs b. Self-actualization c. Belonging needs d. Safety needs
40. In a social-studies class, Teacher B presents morally ambiguous situation and asks students what they
would do. On whose theory is Teacher B’s technique-based?
a. Bandura b. Piaget c. Kohlberg d. Bruner
41. Teacher F is convinced that whenever a student performs a desired behavior, provide reinforcement and
soon the student learns to perform the behavior on his own. On which principle is teacher F’s conviction
based?
a. Environmentalism b. Behaviorism c. Cognitivism d. Constructivism
42. Bandura’s social learning theory states that children often imitate those who ___________.
I – have substantial influence over lives
II – belong to their peer group
III – belong to other races
IV – are successful and seem admired
a. IV only b.I and IV c. I and II d. II and IV
43. Which of the following DOES NOT describe the development of children aged 11 to 13?
a. They exhibit increased objectivity in thinking
b. They shift from impulsivity to adaptive ability
c. Sex differences in IQ become more evident
d. They show abstract thinking and judgment
44. Teacher H begins a lesson are tumbling, demonstrating front and back somersaults in slow motion and
physically guiding his students through the correct movements. As his students become skillful, he stand back
from the mat and gives verbal feedback about how to improve. With Vigotsky’s theory in mind. What did
teacher H do?
a. Apprenticeship b. Guided participation c. Peer interaction d. Scaffolding
45. William Glasser’s control theory states that behavior is inspired by what satisfies a person’s want at any
given time. What then must a teacher do to motivate students to learn?
46. Based on Freud’s theory, which operate /s when a student strikes a classmate at the height of anger?
a. Ego b. Id c. Id and ego interact d. Superego
47. Bernadette enjoyed the roller coaster when she and her family went to Enchanted Kingdom. The mere
sight of a roller coaster gets her excited. Which theory explains Bernadette’s behavior?
48. According to Freud, with which should one be considered of he/she has to develop in the students a
correct sense of right and wrong.
I – Super-ego II- Ego III – Id
a. I and II b. II c. I d. III
49. When small children call animals “dog”, what process is illustrated on Piaget’s cognitive development
theory?
a. Reversion b. Assimilation c. Accommodation d. Conservation
50. Researchers found that when a child is engaged in a learning experience a number of areas of the brain
are simultaneously activated. Which of the following is/are implication/s of this research finding?
I – Make use of field trips, guest speakers
II – Do multicultural units of study
III – Stick to the “left brain and right brain” approach
51. Which appropriate teaching practice flows from this search finding on the brain: “The brains emotional
center is tied into its ability to learn.”
a. Establish the discipline of being judgmental in attitude.
b. Come up with highly competitive games where winners will feel happy.
c. Tell the students to participate in class activities or else won’t receive plus points in class recitation.
d. Create a learning environment that encourages students to explore their feelings and ideas freely.
52. Research on Piagetian task indicates that thinking becomes more logical and abstract as children reach the
formal operation stage. What I an educational implication of this finding?
a. Engage children in analogical reasoning as early as preschool to train them for higher order thinking
skills HOTS.
b. Learners who are not capable of logical reasoning age 8 to 11 lag in their cognitive development.
c. Let children be children
d. Expect hypothetical reasoning for learners between 12 to 15 years of age.
IV.
1. Measure of central tendency in which the sum of the deviation about the average is zero.
a. Median from below c. Median from above
b. Mode d. Arithmetic mean
2. Measure of central tendency in which the sum of absolute deviations about any other value is equal
to or greater than the average.
a. Arithmetic mean c. Geometric mean
b. Median d. Mode
3. Measure of central tendency that lends itself to algebraic manipulation.
a. Arithmetic mean c. Median from below
b. Mode d. Median from above
4. The most reliable measure of central tendency.
a. Median from above c. Arithmetic mean
b. Median from below d. Mode
5. Measure of central tendency in which the class is determined on the highest frequency.
a. Mode c. Arithmetic mean
b. Geometric mean d. Median
6. Measure of central tendency cannot be chosen if they have the same frequency.
a. Harmonic mean c. Mode
b. Arithmetic mean d. Median
7. Best measure of central tendency when the distribution is irregular or skewed.
a. Geometric mean c. Mode
b. Median d. Arithmetic mean
8. Best measure of central tendency when the distribution is regular.
a. Median from above c. Mode
b. Median from below d. Arithmetic mean
9. The mode of these scores: 55, 57, 59, 59, 59, 60, 62, 63, 65, 67, 67, 70, and 70 is:
a. 59 b. 70 c. 67 d. 60
10. The median of Item 9 scores is:
a. 63 b. 60 c. 62 d. 61
11. The mean of Item 9 is:
a. 62.41 b. 62.54 c. 62.53 d. 62.44
15. Which of the following has the same value of the product of the numbers of cases times mean or N
?
a. c.
b. d.
Good Luck!!!
Prepared by Sir Zamora I