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CHAPTER 1 Introduction to Micro d. Excess demand is zero

7. Author of “An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of
Economics
Wealth of Nations”

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Multiple Choice Questions a. Alfred Marshall b. Adam Smith

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1. ‘Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary c. Lionel Robbins d. Paul A Samuelson

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business of life’ -It is the statement of 8. “Economics studies human behaviour as a
a. Adam Smith b. Lionel Robbins relationship between ends and scarce means which have

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c. Alfred Marshall d. Samuelson alternative uses” is the definition of economics of
2. The basic problem studied in Economics is a. Lionel Robbins b. Adam Smith
a. Unlimited wants b. Unlimited means
vi c. Alfred Marshall d. Paul A Samuelson
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c. Scarcity d. Strategy to meet all our wants 9. Who is the Father of Economics?
3. Microeconomics is concerned with a. Max Muller b. Adam Smith
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a. The economy as a whole c. Karl Marx d. Paul A Samuelson

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b. Different sectors of an economy 10. “Economics is a science” The basis of this

c. The study of individual economic units behaviour
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statement is—
d. The interactions within the entire economy a. Relation between cause and effect
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4. Which of the following is a microeconomics b. Use of deductive method and inductive method for
statement? the formations of laws c. Experiments
a. The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent d. All of the above
last year. 11. Utility means
b. Unemployment was 9.8 percent of the labour force a. Equilibrium point at which demand and supply are
last year. equal
c. The price of wheat determines its demand b. Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services
d. The general price level increased by 4 percent last c. Total value of commodity d. Desire for goods and
year. services
5. Find the odd one out: 12. A market is
a. “An inquiry into the nature and the causes of the a. Only a place to buy things
Wealth of Nations” b. Only a place to sell things
b. “Principles of Economics” c. Only a place where prices adjust
c. “Nature and Significance of Economic Science” d. A system where persons buy and sell goods directly
d. “Ceteris paribus” or indirectly
6. The equilibrium price is the price at which 13. Which one of the following is not a point in the
a. Everything is sold Welfare Definition of Economics?
b. Buyers spend their money a. Study of an ordinary man
c. Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied b. Economics does not focus on wealth alone

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c. Economics is the study of material welfare 1. Pick the odd one out
d. Economics deals with unlimited wants and limited a. Luxuries b. Comforts
means c. Necessaries d. Agricultural goods

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14. Growth definition takes into account

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2. Choice is always constrained or limited by the _____
a. The problem of choice in the dynamic framework of of our resources.

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Economics a. Scarcity b. Supply
b. The problem of unlimited means in relation to wants c. Demand d. Abundance

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c. The production and distribution of wealth
3. The chief exponent of the Cardinal utility approach
d. The material welfare of human beings

vi
was
15. Which theory is generally included under micro
a. J.R.Hicks b. R.G.D.Allen c. Marshall d. Stigler
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economics?
4. Marginal Utility is measured by using the formula of
a. Price Theory b. Income Theory
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a. TUn-TUn-1 b. TUn-TUn+1
c. Employment Theory d. Trade Theory
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c. TUn+TUn+1 d. TUn-TUn+1
16. ....................... have exchange value and their
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ownership rights can be established and exchanged 5. When marginal utility reaches zero, the total utility
a. Goods b. Services c. Markets d. Revenue will be
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17. Identify the correct characteristics of utility a. Minimum b. Maximum c. Zero d. Negative
a. It is equivalent to ‘usefulness’ b. It has moral 6. Gossen’s first law is known as.
significance a. Law of equi-marginal utility.
c. It is same as pleasure b. Law of diminishing marginal utility
d. It depends upon consumer’s mental attitude c. Law of demand. d. Law of Diminishing returns.
18. Who has given scarcity definition of economics? 7. The basis for the law of demand is related to
a. Adam Smith b. Marshall c. Robbins d. a. Law of diminishing marginal utility
Robertson b. Law of supply c. Law of equi-marginal utility.
19. The process of reasoning from particular to general d. Gossen’s Law.
is 8. The concept of consumer’s surplus is associated with
a. Deductive method b. Inductive method a. Adam Smith b. Marshall c. Robbins d. Ricardo
c. Positive economics d. Normative
9. Given potential price is Rs.250 and the actual price is
economics
Rs.200. Find the consumer surplus.
20. Total revenue is equal to total output sold multiplied
a. 375 b. 175 c. 200 d. 50
by
10. Indifference curve approach is based on
a. Price b. Total cost c. Marginal revenue d.
a. Ordinal approach b. Cardinal approach
Marginal cost
c. Subjective approach d. Psychological approach
CHAPTER 2 Consumption Analysis
11. The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced
Multiple Choice Questions by

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a. Ferguson b. Keynes c. Adam Smith d. Marshall 1. The primary factors of production are:

12. Increase in demand is caused by a. Labour and Organisation

b. Labour and Capital c. Land and Capital d. Land

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a. Increase in tax b. Higher subsidy
and Labour.

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c. Increase in interest rate d. decline in population
2. The man-made physical goods used to produce other
13. The movement on or along the given demand curve

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goods and services are referred to as.
is known as____
a. Land b. Labour
a. Extension and contraction of demand.

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c. Capital d. Organization.
b. shifts in the demand.
3. Formula for calculating AP is

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c. increase and decrease in demand. d. all the above
a. ΔTP/N b. ΔTP/ΔN
14. In case of relatively more elastic demand the shape
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c. TP/MP d. TP/N
of the curve is
4. Which factor is called the changing agent of the
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a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. Steeper d. Flatter

Society
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15. A consumer is in equilibrium when marginal a. Labourer b. Land

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utilities from two goods are c. Organizer d. Capital

a. Minimum b. Inverse c. Equal d. Increasing 5. Who said, that one of the key of an entrepreneur is
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16. Indifference curve was first introduced by “uncertainty-bearing”.

a. Hicks b. Allen c. Keynes d. Edgeworth a. J.B.Clark b. Schumpeter
17. Elasticity of demand is equal to one indicates c. Knight d. Adam Smith
a. Unitary Elastic Demand 6. The functional relationship between “inputs” and
b. Perfectly Elastic Demand “outputs” is called as
c. Perfectly Inelastic Demand a. Consumption Function
d. Relatively Elastic Demand b. Production Function
18. The locus of the points which gives same level of c. Savings Function d. Investment Function
satisfaction is associated with 7. In a firm 5 units of factors produce 24units of the
a. Indifference Curves b. Cardinal Analysis product. When the number of factor increases by one,
c. Law of Demand d. Law of Supply the production increases to 30 units. Calculate the
19. Ordinal Utility can be measured by Avarage Product.
a. Ranking b. Numbering a. 30 b. 6 c. 5 d. 24
c. Wording d. None of these 8. The short-run production is studied through
20. The indifference curve are a. The Laws of Returns to Scale
a. vertical b. horizontal b. The Law of Variable Proportions c. Iso-quants
c. positive sloped d. Negatively sloped d. Law of Demand

CHAPTER 3 Production Analysis 9. The long-run production function is explained by

a. Law of Demand b. Law of Supply
Multiple Choice Questions

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c. Returns to Scale d. Law of Variable Proportions 18. The relationship between the price of a commodity
10. An Iso-quant curve is also known as and the supply of commodity is
a. Inelastic Supply Curve b. Inelastic Demand Curve a. Negative b. Positive c. Zero d. Increase

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c. Equi-marginal Utility d. Equal Product Curve

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19. If average product is decreasing, then marginal
11. Mention the economies reaped from inside the firm product

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a. financial b. technical a. must be greater than average product
c. managerial d. all of the above b. must be less than average product

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12. Cobb-Douglas production function assumes c. must be increasing d. both a and c
a. Increasing returns to scale

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20. A production function measures the relation
b. Diminishing returns to scale
between
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c. Constant returns to scale d. All of the above
a. input prices and output prices
13. Name the returns to scale when the output increases
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b. input prices and the quantity of output
by more than 5%, for a 5% increase in the inputs,
c. the quantity of inputs and the quantity of output.
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a. Increasing returns to scale

d. the quantity of inputs and input prices.
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b. decreasing returns to scale

c. Constant returns to scale d. All of the above CHAPTER 4 Costs and Revenue Analysis
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14. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Multiple Choice Questions

land? 1. Cost refers to ________
a. Its limited supply. b. It is mobile a. price b. value
c. Heterogeneous d. Gift of Nature c. fixed cost d. cost of production
15. Product obtained from additional factors of 2. Cost functions are also known as ________ function.
production is termed as a. production b. investment
a. Marginal product b. Total product c. demand d.consumption
c. Average product d. Annual product 3. Money cost is also known as ____________ cost.
a. explicit b. implicit c. social d. real
16. Modern economists have propounded the law of
4. Explicit cost plus implicit cost denote ________cost.
a. Increasing returns b. decreasing returns
a. social b. economic c. money d. fixed
c. Constant returns d. variable proportions.
5. Explicit costs are termed as
17. Producer’s equilibrium is achieved at the point a. out of pocket expenses b. real cost
where: c. social cost d. sunk cost
a. Marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) is 6. The costs of self–owned resources are termed as ___
greater than the price ratio cost.
b. MRTS is lesser than the price ratio a. real b. explicit c. money d. implicit
c. MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other 7. The cost that remains constant at all levels of output
d. The slopes of isoquant and isocost lines are different. is _______ cost.

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a. fixed b. variable c. real d. social c. less than d. not related to

8. Identify the formula of estimating average variable 20. A book seller sold 40 books with the price of ₹10
cost. each. The total revenue of the seller is

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a. TC/Q b. TVC/Q c. TFC/Q d. TAC/Q RS.___________.

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9. The cost incurred by producing one more unit of a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400

da
output is______cost. CHAPTER 5 MARKET STRUCTURE AND
a. variable b. fixed c. marginal d. total PRICING

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10. The cost that varies with the level of output is Multiple Choice Questions
termed as _______ cost. 1. In which of the following is not a type of market
a. money b. variable cost c. total cost d. fixed cost
vi structure Price will be very high?
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11. Wage is an example for ________ cost of the a. Perfect competition b. Monopoly
production.
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c. Duopoly d. Oligopoly
a. fixed b. variable 2. Equilibrium condition of a firm is......
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c. marginal d. opportunity a. MC = MR b. MC > MR

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12. The cost per unit of output is denoted by ____cost. c. MC < MR d. MR = Price
a. average b. marginal c. variable d. total
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3. Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic

13. Identify the formula of estimating average cost. competition?
a. AVC/Q b. TC/Q c. TVC/Q d. AFC/Q a. One seller b. Few sellers
14. Find total cost where TFC=I00 and TVC = 125. c. Product differentiation d. No entry
a. 125 b. 175 c. 225 d. 325 4. A firm under monopoly can earn …………. in the
15. Long-run average cost curve is also called as _____ short run.
curve. a. Normal profit b. Loss
a. demand b. planning c. production d. sales c. Super normal profit d. More loss
16. Revenue received from the sale of products is 5. There is no excess capacity under …………………
known as _______ revenue. a. Monopoly b. Monopolistic competition
a. profit b. total revenue c. Oligopoly d. Perfect competition
c. average d. marginal 6. Profit of a firm is obtained when ……………..
17. Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is a. TR < TC b. TR - MC c. TR > TC d. TR = TC
termed as ________ revenue.
7. Another name of price is……………..
a. profit b. average c. marginal d. total
a. Average Revenue b. Marginal Revenue \
18. Marginal revenue is the addition made to the
c. Total Revenue d. Average Cost
a. total sales b. total revenue
8. In which type of market, AR and MR are equal …..
c. total production d. total cost
a. Duopoly b. Perfect competition
19. When price remains constant, AR will be ____MR.
c. Monopolistic competition d. Oligopoly
a. equal to b. greater than

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9. In monopoly, MR curve lies below …………. 19. Which of the following involves maximum
a. TR b. MC c. AR d. AC exploitation of consumers?

10. Perfect competition assumes ………… a. Perfect competition b. Monopoly

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c. Monopolistic competition d. Oligopoly

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a. Luxury goods b. Producer goods
c. Differentiated goods d. Homogeneous goods 20. An example of selling cost is …

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11. Group equilibrium is analysed in ……. a. Raw material cost b. Transport cost
a. Monopolistic competition b. Monopoly c. Advertisement cost d. Purchasing cost

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c. Duopoly d. Pure competition CHAPTER 6
Distribution Analysis

vi
12. In monopolistic competition, the essential feature is
..… Multiple Choice Questions
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a. Same product b. selling cost 1. In Economics, distribution of income is among the
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c. Single seller d. Single buyer a. factors of production b. individual
c. firms d. traders
13. Monopolistic competition is a form of .…….
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2. Theory of distribution is popularly known as,

a. Oligopoly b. Duopoly
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a. Theory of product-pricing
c. Imperfect competition d. Monopoly
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b. Theory of factor-pricing
14. Price leadership is the attribute of …………
c. Theory of wages d. Theory of Interest
a. Perfect competition b. Monopoly
3. Rent is the reward for the use of
c. Oligopoly d. Monopolistic competition
a. capital b. labour c. land d. organization
15. Price discrimination will always lead to…………. 4. The concept of ‘Quasi-Rent’ is associated with
a. Increase in output b. Increase in profit a. Ricardo b. Keynes c. Walker d. Marshall
c. Different prices d. b and c 5. The Classical Theory of Rent was propounded by
16. The average revenue curve under monopolistic a. Ricardo b. Keynes c. Marshall d. Walker
competition will be…… 6. ‘Original and indestructible powers of the soil’ is the
a. Perfectly inelastic b. Perfectly elastic term used by
c. Relatively elastic d. Unitary elastic a. J.S.Mill b. Walker c. Clark d. Ricardo

17. Under perfect competition, the shape of demand 7. The reward for labour is

curve of a firm is............... a. rent b. wage c. profit d. interest

a. Vertical b. Horizontal 8. Money wages are also known as

c. Negatively sloped d. Positively sloped a. real wages b. nominal wages

c. original wages d. transfer wages
18. In which market form, does absence of competition
9. Residual Claimant Theory is propounded by
prevail?
a. Keynes b. Walker c. Hawley d. Knight
a. Perfect competition b. Monopoly
10. The reward given for the use of capital
c. Duopoly d. Oligopoly
a. rent b. wage c. interest d. profit

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11. Keynesian Theory of interest is popularly known as 1. The main gold mine region in Karnataka is ………..
a. Abstinence Theory b. Liquidity Preference Theory a. Kolar b. Ramgiri c. Anantpur d. Cochin
c. Loanable Funds Theory d. Agio Theory 2. Economic growth of a country is measured by

n
12. According to the Loanable Funds Theory, supply of national income indicated by …..

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loanable funds is equal to a. GNP b. GDP c. NNP d. Per capita

da
a. S + BC + DH + DI b. I + DS + DH + BM income
c. S + DS + BM + DI d. S + BM + DH + DS 3. Which one of the following is a developed nations ?

ka
13. The concept of meeting unexpected expenditure a. Mexico b. Ghana c. France d. Sri Lanka
according to Keynes is 4. The position of Indian Economy among the other
a. Transaction motive b. Precautionary motive
vi strongest economies in the world is ..
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c. Speculative motive d. Personal motive a. Fourth b. Seventh c. Fifth d. Tenth
5. Mixed economy means ……
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14. The distribution of income or wealth of a country
among the individuals are a. Private sectors and banks
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a. functional distribution b. personal distribution b. Co-existence of Public and Private sectors

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c. goods distribution d. services distribution c. Public sectors and banks d. Public sectors only
6. The weakness of Indian Economy is …….
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15. Profit is the reward for

a. land b. organization c. capital d. labour a. Economic disparities b. Mixed economy
c. Urbanisation d. Adequate employment
16. Innovation Theory of profit was given by
opportunities
a. Hawley b. Schumpeter c. Keynes d. Knight
7. A scientific study of the characteristics of population
17. Quasi-rent arises in
is …
a. Man-made appliances b. Homemade items
a. Topography b. Demography c. Geography d.
c. Imported items d. None of these
Philosophy
18. “Wages as a sum of money are paid under contract 8. The year 1961is known as …..
by an employer to a worker for services rendered” – a. Year of small divide b. Year of Population
Who said this? Explosion
a. Benham b. Marshall c. Walker d. J.S.Mill c. Year of Urbanisation d. Year of Great Divide
19. Abstinence Theory of Interest was propounded by 9. In which year the population of India crossed one
a. Alfred Marshall b. N.W Senior billion mark ?
c. Bohm-Bawerk d. Knut Wicksell a. 2000 b. 2001 c. 2005 d. 1991

20. Loanable Funds Theory of Interest is called as 10. The number of deaths per thousand population is

a. Classical Theory b. Modern Theory called as …

c. Traditional Theory d. Neo-Classical Theory a. Crude Death Rate b. Crude Birth Rate

CHAPTER 7 Indian Economy c. Crude Infant Rate d. Maternal Mortality Rate

Multiple Choice Questions

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11. The number of births per thousand population is 20. Thiruvalluvar economic ideas mainly dealt with
called as a. Wealth b. Poverty is the curse in the society
a. Crude death rate b. Mortality rate c. Agriculture d. All of them

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c. Morbidity rate d. Crude Birth Rate CHAPTER 8 Indian Economy Before and

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12. Density of population = After Independence

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a. Land area / Total Population b. Land area / Multiple Choice Questions
Employment 1. The arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India

ka
c. Total Population / Land area of the region a. 1498 b. 1948 c. 1689 d. 1849
d. Total Population / Employment 2. In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting
13. Who introduced the National Development Council
vi permission from
al
in India? a. Akbar b. Shajakan c. Jahangir d. Noorjakhan
a. Ambedkar b. Jawaharlal
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3. The power for governance of India was transferred
Nehru from the East India Company (EIC) to the British
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c. Radhakrishanan d. V.K.R.V. Rao crown in

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14. Who among the following propagated Gandhian a. 1758 b. 1858 c. 1958 d. 1658
Ecomomic thinkings.
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4. Ryotwari system was initially introduced in

a. Jawaharlar Nehru b. VKRV Rao a. Kerala b. Bengal c. Tamil Nadu d. Maharastra
c. JC Kumarappa d. A.K.Sen 5. First World War started in the year
15. The advocate of democratic socialism was a. 1914 b. 1814 c. 1941 d. 1841
a. Jawaharlal Nehru b. P.C. Mahalanobis 6. When did the Government of India declared its first
c. Dr. Rajendra Prasad d. Indira Gandhi Industrial Policy?
16. Ambedkar the problem studied by in the context of a. 1956 b. 1991 c. 1948 d. 2000
Indian Economy is ……. 7. The objective of the Industrial Policy 1956 was …
a. Small land holdings and their remedies a. Develop heavy industries
b. Problem of Indian Currency b. Develop agricultural sector only
c. Economics of socialism d. All of them c. Develop private sector only
17. Gandhian Economics is based on the Principle d. Develop cottage industries only
a. Socialistic idea b. Ethical foundation 8. The industry which was de-reserved in 1993 ?
c. Gopala Krishna Gokhale d. Dadabhai Naoroji a. Railways b. Mining of copper and zinc
18. V.K.R.V Rao was a student of c. Atomic energy d. Atomic minerals
a. J.M. Keynes b. Colin Clark 9. The father of Green Revolution in India was ……
c. Adam smith d. Alfred Marshal a. M.S. Swaminathan b. Gandhi
19. Amartya Kumara Sen received the Nobel prize in c. Visweswaraiah d. N.R. Viswanathan
Economics in the year
a. 1998 b. 2000 c. 2008 d. 2010

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10. How many commercial banks were nationalised in Multiple Choice Questions
1969 1. Which of the following is the way of Privatisation?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16

n
a. Disinvestment b. Denationalization
11. The main objective of nationalisation of banks was

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c. Franchising d. All the above
a. Private social welfare b. Social welfare
2. Countries today are to be _____ for their growth.

da
c. To earn d. Industries monopoly
a. Dependent b. Interdependent
12. The Planning Commission was setup in the year … c. Free trade d. Capitalist

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a. 1950 b. 1955 c. 1960 d. 1952
3. The Arguments against LPG is _________

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13. In the first five year plan, The top priority was a. Economic growth b. More investment
given to ……. Sector. c. Disparities among people and regions
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a. Service b. Industrial c. Agriculture d. Bank d. Modernization
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14. Tenth Five year plan period was……. 4. Expansion of FDI ____________
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a. 1992-1997 b. 2002-2007 a. Foreign Private Investment b. Foreign Portfolio

c. 2007-2012 d. 1997-2002
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c. Foreign Direct Investment d. Forex Private

15. According to HDR (2016), India ranked …… out of Investment
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188 countries. 5. India is the largest producer of ___________in the

a. 130 b. 131 c. 135 d. 145 world.
16. Annual Plans formed in the year ………. a. fruits b. gold c. petrol d. diesel
a. 1989-1991 b. 1990-1992 6. Foreign investment includes__________
c. 2000-2001 d. 1981-1983 a. FDI only b. FPI and FFI
17. The Oldest large scale industry in India c. FDI and FPI d. FDI and FFI
a. cotton b. jute c. steel d. cement 7. The Special Economic Zones policy was announced
18. Human development index (HDI) was developed by in __
a. Jawaharlal Nehru b. M.K. Gandhi a. April 2000 b. July 1990
c. Amartiya Sen d. Tagore c. April 1980 d. July 1970
19. The main theme of the Twelth Five Year Plan 8. Agricultural Produce Market Committee is a
a. faster and more inclusive growth ________
b. growth with social Justice c. socialistic pattern of a. Advisory body b. Statutory body
society c. Both a and b d. non of these above
d. faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
9. Goods and Services Tax is _______________
20. The PQLI was developed by ……………. a. a multi point tax b. having cascading effects
a. Planning Commission b. Nehru c. like Value Added Tax
c. Morris D Morrisd.Biswajeet d. a single point tax with no cascading effects.
CHAPTER 9 Development Experiences in India

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10. The New Foreign Trade Policy was announced in a. 18% b. 24% c. 28% d. 32%
the year_____________ 20. The transfer of ownership from public sector to
a. 2000 b. 2002 c. 2010 d. 2015

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private sector is known as _____.
11. Financial Sector reforms mainly related to

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a. Globalization b. Liberalization
___________ c. Privatization d. Nationalization

da
a. Insurance Sector b. Banking Sector CHAPTER 10
c. Both a and b d. Transport Sector Rural Economy

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12. The Goods and Services Tax Act came in to effect Choose the Best Answer
on __

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1. Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
a. 1st July 2017 b. 1st July 2016 a. Panchayat b. Village c. Town d. Municipality
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c. 1st January 2017 d. 1st January 2016
2. Which feature is identified with rural areas?
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13. The new economic policy is concerned with the a. Low population density b. High population density
following
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c. Low natural resources d. Low human resources

a. foreign investment b. foreign technology
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3. Identify the feature of rural economy.

c. foreign trade d. all the above
a. Dependence on agriculture b. High population
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14. The recommendation of Narashimham Committee density

Report was submitted in the year________ c. Low level of population d. Low level of inequality
a. 1990 b. 1991 c. 1995 d. 2000
4. What percentage of the total population live in rural
15. The farmers have access to credit under Kisan credit area, as per 2011 censes?
card scheme through the following except a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70
a. co-operative banks b. RRBs
5. How do you term people employed in excess over
c. Public secstor banks d. all the above
and above the requirements?
16. The Raja Chelliah Committee on Trade Policy a. Unemployment
Reforms suggested the peak rate on import duties at b. Underemployment or Disguised Unemployment
a. 25% b. 50% c. 60% d. 100% c. Full employment d. Self-employment
17. The first ever SEZ in India was set up at
6. What is the term used to denote the coexistence of
a. Mumbai b. Chennai c. Kandla d. Cochin
two different features in an economy?
18. ‘The Hindu Rate of Growth’ coined by Raj Krishna a. Technology b. Dependency
refers to c. Dualism d. Inequality
a. low rate of economic growth
7. The process of improving the rural areas, rural
b. high proportion of Hindu population
people and rural living is defined as
c. Stable GDP d. none
a. Rural economy b. Rural economics
19. The highest rate of tax under GST is ___________ c. Rural employment d. Rural development
(as on July1, 2017)

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8. Identify the agriculture related problem of rural 17. Identify the year of launch of MUDRA Bank?
economy. a. 1995 b. 2000 c. 2010 d. 2015
a. Poor communication b. Small size of landholding

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18. Identify the year in which National Rural Health
c. Rural poverty d. Poor banking network

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Mission was launched.
9. The recommended nutritional intake per person in a. 2000 b. 2005 c. 2010 d. 2015

da
rural areas. 19. Identify the advantages of rural roads.
a. 2100 calories b. 2100 calories a. Rural marketing b. Rural employment

ka
c. 2300 calories d. 2400 calories c. Rural development d. All the above
10. Indicate the cause for rural poverty.
a. Lack of non-farm employment b. High vi 20. “ An Indian farmer is born in debt, lives in debt,
dies in debt and bequeaths debt”-who said this?
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employment a. Adam Smith b. Gandhi
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c. Low inflation rate d. High investment. c. Amartya Sen d. Sir Malcolm Darling
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10. Indicate the cause for rural poverty. CHAPTER 11 Tamil Nadu Economy
a. Lack of non-farm employment Multiple Choice Questions
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b. High employment 1. In health index, Tamil Nadu is ahead of

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c. Low inflation rate d. High investment. a) Kerala b) Punjab c) Gujarat d) all the above
11. What is the other name for concealed 2. In sex ratio, Tamil Nadu ranks
unemployment?
a) first b) second c) third d) fourth
a. Open b. Disguised c. Seasonal d. Rural
3. Tamil Nadu is rich in
12. How do you term the employment occurring only
a) Forest resource b) human resource
on a particular season?
c) mineral resource d) all the above
a. Open b. Disguised c. Seasonal d. Rural
4. The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is
13. Identify an example for rural industries?
a) river b) tank c) well d) canals
a. Sugar factory b. Mat making industry
5. Knitted garment production is concentrated in
c. Cement industry d. Paper industry
a) Coimbatore b) Tiruppur c) Erode d) Karur
14. How much share of rural families in India is in
6. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
debt?
a) Gateway of Tamil Nadu – Thoothukudi
a. Half b. One fourth c. Two third d. Three fourth
b) Home textile city - Erode
15. Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
c) Steel city - Salem d) Pump city – Coimbatore
a. Poverty b. High population
7. Which of the following cities does not have
c. High productivity d. Full employment
international airport?
16. In which year, Regional Rural Banks came into
a) Madurai b) Tiruchirappalli
existence?
c) Paramakudi d) Coimbatore
a. 1965 b. 1970 c. 1975 d. 1980

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8. TN tops in the production of the following crops a) Tiruchirappalli b) Chennai c) Madurai d)

except Coimbatore.
a) Banana b) Coconut

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c) plantation crops d) cardamom

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9. Largest area of land is used in the cultivation of

da
a) Paddy b) sugarcane c) Groundnut d) Coconut ----- All the best..
10. In literacy rate, TN ranks

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a) second b) fourth c) sixth d) eighth

11. In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks

a) I b) II c) III d) IV vi
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12. Which district in TN has the highest sex ratio?
.k

a) Nagapattinam b) Nilgiris
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c) Tiruchirappalli d) Thanjavur
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13. Which district has the lowest child sex ratio?

a) Madurai b) Theni c) Ariyalur d) Cuddalore
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14. Which Union Territory has the highest sex ratio?

a) Chandigarh b) Pondicherry
c) Lakshadeep d) Andaman Nicobar

15. The largest contribution to GSDP in Tamil Nadu

comes from
a) agriculture b) industry c) mining d) services

16. In human development index, TN is ranked

a) Second b) fourth c) sixth d) seventh
17. SPIC is located in
a) Chennai b) Madurai
c) Tuticorin d) Pudukkottai

18. The TICEL park is

a) Rubber Park b) Textile park
c) Food park d) Bio park

19. In India’s total cement production, Tamil Nadu

ranks
a) third b) fourth c) first d) second

20. The Headquarters of Southern Railway is at

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