2

ELECTRICAL MACHINES
1. The left-hand rule is applicable to a
(a) generator (b) motor
(c) transformer (d) (a) and (b) both
(e) (a) or (b)
2. The eddy current losses in the transformer will be reduced if
(a) the laminations are thick
(b) number of turns in the primary winding is reduced
(c) the number of turns in the secondary winding is reduced
(d) the laminations are thin
3. The speed of a D.C. series motor at no load is
(a) zero (b) 1500 R.P.M.
(c) infinity (d) 3000 R.P.M.
(e) none of the above
4. A sinusoidal voltage of frequency 1 Hz is applied to the field of a D.C.
generator. The armature voltage will be
(a) 1 Hz square wave (b) 1 Hz sinusoidal voltage
(c) D.C. voltage (d) none of the above
5. The function of the commutator in a D.C. machine is
(a) to change alternating current to a direct current
(b) to improve commutation
(c) for easy control
(d) to change alternating voltage to direct voltage
30 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

6. The phase sequence of voltage generated in the alternator can be reversed by

reversing its field current.
(a) true (b) false
7. The rotation of a three-phase induction motor can be reversed by
interchanging any two of the supply phases.
(a) true (b) false
8. The starting torque of the three-phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing the rotor reactance (b) increasing the rotor resistance
(c) increasing the stator resistance (d) none of the above
9. In the induction motor the torque is
(a) proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
(d) none of the above
10. The single-phase induction motor (capacitor start capacitor run) basically is a
(a) single-phase motor (b) two-phase motor
(c) A.C. series motor (d) none of the above
11. For the equal output the total current is more in
(a) wave winding (b) lap winding
(c) simplex lap winding (d) none of the above
12. The maximum starting torque in the induction motor is developed when
(a) the reactance of the rotor is half of the resistance
(b) the reactance of the rotor is twice the rotor resistance
(c) the reactance of the rotor is equal to the rotor resistance
(d) none of the above
13. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed
(a) by interchanging supply terminals
(b) by interchanging field terminals
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 31

14. A D.C. shunt generator driven at a normal speed in the normal direction fails
to build up armature voltage because
(a) the resistance of armature is high
(b) field current is not sufficiently high
(c) there is no residual magnetism
(d) field winding has small number of turns
15. The skin effect can be reduced
(a) by increasing the radius of the conductor
(b) by decreasing the radius of the conductor
(c) by increasing the frequency of the supply
(d) if the hollow conductor is used
(e) (b) and (d) both
16. If a D.C. motor is connected across A.C. supply, the D.C. motor will
(a) burn as the eddy currents in the field produce heat
(b) run at its normal speed
(c) run at a lower speed
(d) run continuously but the sparking takes place at the brushes
17. What would happen if the field of a D.C. shunt motor is opened?
(a) The speed of the motor will be reduced
(b) It will continue to run at its normal speed
(c) The speed of the motor will be enormously high and might destroy itself
(d) The current in the armature will increase
18. A single-phase induction motor can be run on two or three-phase lines.
(a) true (b) false
19. What is standard direction of rotation of a motor?
(a) Clockwise when looking at the front end of the motor
(b) Counter-clockwise when looking at the front end of the motor
20. If the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited the power factor will be
(a) lagging (b) leading
(c) unity (d) more than unity
32 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

21. The rotation of wound-rotor induction motor can be reversed by

(a) transposing any two leads from the slip rings
(b) transposing any two-line leads
(c) none of the above
22. A split-phase motor has high starting torque.
(a) true (b) false
23. The direction of rotation of a split-phase motor can be reversed
(a) by reversing the leads of main winding
(b) by reversing the leads of auxiliary winding
(c) (a) and (c) both
(d) none of the above
24. The capacitor-start motor has a high starting torque.
(a) true (b) false
25. A universal motor can be run either on A.C. or D.C.
(a) true (b) false
26. The phase relationship between the primary and secondary voltages of a
transformer is
(a) 90 degrees out of phase (b) in the same phase
(c) 180 degrees out of phase (d) none of the above
27. A four-point starter in the D.C. motor is used
(a) to increase the field current
(b) to decrease the field current
(c) not to affect the current passing through HOLD ON coil even if any
change in the field current takes place
(d) none of the above
28. Which of the following motors is used in locomotive motor drives?
(a) A.C. series motor (b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. series motor (d) Synchronous motor
29. Which of the following motors has high starting torque?
(a) D.C. shunt motor (b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) D.C. series motor (d) A.C. series motor
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 33

30. The efficiency of D.C. shunt generator is maximum when

(a) magnetic losses are equal to mechanical losses
(b) armature copper losses are equal to constant losses
(c) field copper losses are equal to constant losses
(d) stray losses are equal to copper losses
31. In the case of D.C. shunt generation, the shunt copper loss is practically
constant.
(a) true (b) false
32. Armature reaction is attributed to
(a) the effect of magnetic field set up field current
(b) the effect of the magnetic field set up by armature current
(c) the effect of the magnetic field set up by back E.M.F.
(d) none of the above
33. The dummy coil in D.C. machines is used to
(a) eliminate armature reaction
(b) bring out mechanical balance of armature
(c) eliminate reactance voltage
(d) none of the above
34. Equalizer rings in the D.C. generator (lap winding) are used
(a) to avoid unequal distribution of current at the brushes, thereby helping
to get sparkless commutation
(b) to avoid harmonics developed in the machine
(c) to avoid noise developed in the machine
(d) to avoid overhang
35. The speed of the D.C. motor decreases as the flux in the field winding
decreases.
(a) true (b) false
36. The sparking at the brushes in the D.C. generator is attributed to
(a) quick reversal of current in the coil under commutation
(b) armature reaction
(c) reactance voltage
(d) high resistance of the brushes
34 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

37. Interpoles in the armature of a D.C. generator are used

(a) to neutralize the reactance voltage only
(b) to neutralize the reactance voltage and cross-magnetizing effect of
armature reaction
(c) to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature reaction only
(d) none of the above
38. The transformer is not used in the D.C. line because
(a) there is no need to step up the D.C. voltage
(b) losses in the D.C. circuit are high
(c) Faraday’s low is not valid as the rate of change of flux is zero
(d) harmonics developed in the transformer will cause distortion in the
voltage
39. The transformer is analogous to gear trains.
(a) true (b) false
40. D.C. shunt generators are not suited for parallel operation because of their
slightly drooping voltage characteristics.
(a) true (b) false
41. The relationship between no-load generated E.M.F. in the armature and field
excitation of a D.C. generator is known as
(a) internal characteristic of generator
(b) external characteristic of generator
(c) magnetic characteristic or open circuit characteristic of generator
(d) total characteristic of generator
42. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) armature (b) load
(c) field (d) brushes
43. When a bank of two single-phase transformers in an open delta arrangement
is used, each of them supplies
(a) 33.3% of its output rating (b) 86.6% of its output rating
(c) 48.6% of its output rating (d) 100% of its output rating
44. Two single-phase transformers with proper connections can be used to
achieve a three-phase output from three-phase input.
(a) true (b) false
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 35

45. A thicker wire is used in the D.C. series field winding than D.C. shunt field
winding in D.C. machines
(a) to prevent mechanical vibrations
(b) to produce large flux
(c) because it carries the load current which is much higher than shunt field
current for the same rating of D.C. machines
(d) to provide strength
46. Transformer core is laminated
(a) because it is difficult to fabricate solid core
(b) because laminated core provides high flux density
(c) to avoid eddy current and hysteresis losses
(d) to increase the main flux
47. The mechanical power developed by the D.C. motor is maximum when
(a) back E.M.F. is equal to applied voltage
(b) back E.M.F. is equal to zero
(c) back E.M.F. is equal to half the applied voltage
(d) none of the above
48. Which motor is used to drive constant speed line shafting, lathes, blowers,
and fans?
(a) D.C. shunt motor (b) D.C. series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor (d) None of the above
49. In series-parallel control method when two D.C. series motors are connected
in series, the speed of the set is
(a) half of the speed of the motors when connected in parallel
(b) one-fourth of the speed of motors when connected in parallel
(c) same as in parallel
(d) rated speed of any one of the motors
50. The torque produced by series combination of two D.C. series motors is
(a) equal to the torque when they are connected in parallel
(b) half of the torque when they are connected in parallel
(c) four times the torque when they are connected in parallel
(d) twice the torque when they are connected in parallel
36 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

51. The use of the starter in D.C. motors is necessary because

(a) they are not self-starting
(b) initially there is no back E.M.F. and armature current is very high, which
is to be avoided by using high resistance starter
(c) to overcome back E.M.F.
(d) none of the above
52. The speed of the D.C. motor can be varied
(a) by varying field current only
(b) by varying field current or armature resistance
(c) by varying supply voltage only
(d) (b) or (c)
53. Electrical energy can be converted into chemical energy.
(a) true (b) false
54. The mercury-arc rectifier can be used as an inverter.
(a) true (b) false
55. The hum in the transformer is mainly attributed to
(a) laminations of the transformer (b) magnetostriction
(c) oil of the transformer (d) walls of the tanks
56. To obtain a sinusoidal voltage the poles should have a shape such that the
length of the air gap at any point is
(a) proportional to 1/sin q, where q is the angle measured in electrical
degrees between the point in the question and the center of the pole
(b) proportional to 1/cos q, where q is same as defined in (a)
(c) proportional to sin q
(d) proportional to cos q
57. The power transformer is a
(a) constant current device (b) constant main flux device
(c) constant voltage device (d) constant power device
58. An induction motor is
(a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) self-starting with high torque
(c) self-starting with small torque rather than rated torque
(d) none of the above
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 37

59. As the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) increase proportionately (b) remain almost constant
(c) increase slightly (d) reduce slightly
60. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon
their
(a) ratings (b) leakage reactance
(c) efficiency (d) per unit impedance
61. The equalizer rings are used in
(a) lap winding (b) wave winding
(c) multilayer wave winding (d) none of the above
62. The generator is called flat compounded if
(a) the series field ampere turns are such as to produce the same voltage at
rated load as at no load
(b) the series field turns are such that the rated load voltage is greater than
no-load voltage
(c) the rated voltage is less than the no-load voltage
(d) none of the above
63. The slip test is used
(a) to measure the slip of the induction motor
(b) to measure the torque of the induction motor
(c) to measure the Xd and Xq of the alternator
(d) for none of the above
64. What will happen if the back E.M.F. in the D.C. motor absent?
(a) Motor will run faster than rated value
(b) Motor will burn
(c) Armature drop will be reduced substantially
(d) None of the above
65. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
(a) armature current only (b) field flux only
(c) armature current and flux both (d) none of the above
66. The back E.M.F. has no relation with armature torque in D.C. motors.
(a) true (b) false
38 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

67. The speed of the D.C. shunt motor increases as the armature torque
increases.
(a) true (b) false
68. The horsepower obtained from the shaft torque is called
(a) indicated horsepower or I.H.P. (b) brake horsepower or B.H.P.
(c) F.H.P. (d) none of the above
69. For D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back E.M.F. only because
(a) flux is practically constant in D.C. shunt motors
(b) flux is proportional to armature current
(c) armature drop is negligible
(d) back E.M.F. is equal to armature drop
70. It is preferable to start a D.C. series motor with some mechanical load
because
(a) it may develop excessive speed otherwise and damage itself
(b) it will not run at no load
(c) a little load will act as a starter to the motor
(d) none of the above
71. When the torque of the D.C. series motor is doubled the power is increased
by
(a) 70% (b) 50% to 60%
(c) 20% (d) 100%
72. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel an equalizer bar
is used
(a) because two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to
the load
(b) to reduce the combined effect of armature reaction of both machines
(c) to increase the speed and hence generated E.M.F.
(d) to increase the series flux
73. The speed of D.C. motors can be controlled by
(a) controlling flux only
(b) controlling flux, armature resistance, and voltage
(c) controlling voltage and flux only
(d) controlling armature resistance and voltage only
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 39

74. The diverter in D.C. machine is basically a potential divider.

(a) true (b) false
75. The speed/current curve for a D.C. series motor with resistance in series
field will lie above the curve without resistance in series field.
(a) true (b) false
76. A diverter across the armature of a D.C. motor cannot be used for giving
speeds lower than the rated speed.
(a) true (b) false
77. The field flux of the D.C. motor can be controlled to achieve
(a) speeds above the rated speed
(b) speeds lower than rated speed
(c) speeds above and below the rated speed
(d) steady speed
78. The reversal of rotation of motors and as electric braking is known as
(a) regenerative braking
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(d) none of the above
79. Which of the following methods of braking is used in rolling mills?
(a) Plugging (b) Regenerative braking
(c) Dynamic braking (d) Mechanical brakes
80. The regenerative method of braking is based on the fact that
(a) the back E.M.F. of the motor is more than the applied voltage
(b) the back E.M.F. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) the back E.M.F. is less than the applied voltage
(d) none of the above
81. Swinburne’s test is applied to
(a) those machines in which the flux is practically constant
(b) those machines in which flux is varying
(c) those machines in which flux is proportional to armature current
(d) none of the above
40 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

82. The retardation test is applicable to shunt motors and generators and is used
to find
(a) stray losses (b) copper losses
(c) eddy current losses (d) friction losses
83. In the load Field’s test, two similar D.C. series machines are mechanically
coupled. The output of the generator is fed to the resistance and hence is
called the regenerative test.
(a) true (b) false
84. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
(a) reduces the weight per KVA
(b) increases the weight per KVA
(c) has no relation with the weight of the transformer
(d) increases the weight per KW
85. The oil used in the small transformer provides
(a) cooling only (b) insulation only
(c) insulation and cooling both (d) lubrication only
86. The oil used in the transformer should be free from moisture because
(a) moisture will reduce the density of the oil, which is slightly undesirable
(b) moisture will reduce the dielectric strength of the oil and hence
insulation is weakened
(c) moisture will reduce the lubricating property of the oil
(d) moisture will develop rust
87. ASKARELS is the trade name given to
(a) natural mineral oil used in the transformer
(b) synthetic insulating fluids used in the transformer
(c) insulating materials for transformers
(d) insulating materials for motors and generators
88. The conservator is used in the transformer
(a) to supply oil to the transformer whenever needed
(b) to protect the transformer from damage when oil expands due to rise in
temperature. It stores the increasing volume of the oil
(c) to provide fresh air to cool down the oil
(d) to store water for transformer cooling
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 41

89. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Induction coil works on A.C.
(b) Transformer is used to step up the potential of D.C.
(c) The output current of induction coil is nearly unindirectional
(d) In step-down transformers, the transformation ratio is always greater
than one
90. The induced E.M.F. in the transformer secondary will depend on
(a) frequently of the supply only
(b) number of turns in secondary only
(c) maximum flux in core and frequency only
(d) frequency, flux, and number of turns in the secondary
91. No-load primary input is practically equal to the iron loss in the transformer
because primary current is very small.
(a) true (b) false
92. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the transformer and K is the
transformation ratio, then the equivalent secondary resistance referred to
primary will be
(a) R2 / K2 (b) R22 / K2
(c) R2 / K (d) R2 / √K
93. A transformer with magnetic leakage is equivalent to an ideal transformer
with inductive coils connected in both primary and secondary.
(a) true (b) false
94. The leakage flux links both windings of the transformer and hence
contributes to the transfer of energy from primary of the transformer to
secondary.
(a) true (b) false
95. The vector diagram of the three-phase transformer is equivalent to the vector
diagram of three-phase induction motor with short circuited secondary. If
the secondary of the transformer is wound on a shaft and treated as rotor
and primary is fed three-phase supply, the rotor will run and behave like an
induction motor.
(a) true (b) false
42 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

96. The short-circuit test in the transformer is used to determine

(a) the iron loss at any load
(b) the copper loss at any load or at full load
(c) the hysteresis loss
(d) the eddy current loss
97. If the power factor is leading, the regulation of a good transformer will be
higher than when it is lagging.
(a) true (b) false
98. A good transformer must have regulation as high as possible.
(a) true (b) false
99. The percentage resistance, reactance, and impedance are the same whether
referring to primary or secondary of the transformer.
(a) true (b) false
100. Which of the following electrical machines has the highest efficiency?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Transformer
(c) Induction motor
(d) Synchronous motor
101. The efficiency of the transformer is independent of power factor.
(a) true (b) false
102. The condition for maximum efficiency of the transformer is that
(a) copper losses are half of iron losses
(b) copper losses are equal to iron losses
(c) copper losses are negligible in comparison to iron losses
(d) iron losses are zero
103. If the iron loss and full load copper losses are given, then the load at which
two losses would be equal (i.e. corresponding to maximum efficiency) is given
by
iron loss (iron loss)2
(a) full load × (b) full load ×
f.l.cu−loss f.l.cu−loss
iron loss f.l.cu−loss
(c) full load × (d) full load ×
f.l.cu−loss iron loss
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 43

104. The distribution transformers are designed to keep core losses minimum, and
copper losses are relatively less important because
(a) the primary of such transformers is energized for all twenty-four hours
and core losses occur throughout the day, whereas copper losses will
occur only when secondary is supplying load
(b) core losses are always more than copper losses
(c) core losses may destroy the insulation
(d) core losses will heat up the oil of the transformer rapidly
105. The tapping in the transformer is always provided in the low voltage side.
(a) true (b) false
106. Enumerate the conditions for successful parallel operation of single-phase
transformers.
(i) The percentage impedance should be equal
(ii) The transformers should be properly connected with regards to polarity
(iii) The primary windings of the transformers should be suitable for the
supply system voltage and frequency
(iv) The voltage ratings of transformers of primary and secondary windings
should be identical
107. What will happen if transformers working in parallel are not connected with
regards to polarity?
(a) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short-circuit
(b) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their KVA ratings
(c) The power factors of two transformers will be different from the power
factor of common load
(d) None of the above
108. What will happen if the percentage impedances of the two transformers
working in parallel are different?
(a) Parallel operation will not be possible
(b) Parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the
two transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the
common load
(c) Transformers will be over-heated
(d) Power factors of both transformers will be same
44 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

109. Which of the following connections is most suitable and economical for
small, high-voltage transformers?
(a) Delta-delta connection (b) Star-star connection
(c) Star-delta connection (d) Delta-star connection
110. Delta-delta connection is economical for large, low-voltage transformers in
which insulation problems are not urgent.
(a) true (b) false
111. The average power factor at which an open-delta bank of single-phase
transformers operates is less than that of load.
(a) true (b) false
112. The Scott connection is used
(a) to accomplish three-phase to three-phase transformation only
(b) to accomplish three-phase to two-phase transformation only
(c) to accomplish three-phase to three-phase and three-phase to two-phase
transformation
(d) none of the above
113. Under balanced load conditions, the main transformer rating in the Scott
connection is
(a) 10% greater than the teaser transformer
(b) 15% greater than the teaser transformer
(c) 57.7% greater than the teaser transformer
(d) 66.6% greater than the teaser transformer
114. If the load is balanced on one side of the transformer in the Scott connection,
the load is balanced on the other side as well.
(a) true (b) false
115. If K is the transformation ratio of the main transformer in the Scott
connection then the transformation ratio of the teaser will be
(a) K / √3 (b) √3 / 2K (c) 2K / √3 (d) √K / 2
116. The rotor slots are usually given slight skew in the squirrel case indication
motor
(a) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars and hence strength
(b) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(c) to see the copper used
(d) because of ease in fabrication
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 45

117. The starting torque of the slip-ring induction motor can be increased by
(a) adding external resistance to the rotor
(b) adding external inductance to the rotor
(c) adding both resistance and inductance to the rotor
(d) adding external capacitance to the rotor
118. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and
rotor of the induction motor is zero?
(a) The rotor will not run
(b) The rotor will run at very high speed
(c) The slip of the motor will be zero
(d) The torque produced will be very large
119. When the rotor starts rotating the frequency of the rotor of the induction
motor will depend on relative speed of the stator and the rotor.
(a) true (b) false
120. A 400 KW, 3 Phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz A.C. induction motor has a speed of
950 R.P.M. on full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of machine will be
(a) 0.06 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.05
121. If the rotor of the induction motor is assumed non-inductive, the torque
acting on each conductor will be positive or undirectional.
(a) true (b) false
122. Which of the following statements is most appropriate if T is the starting
torque developed in the rotor and V is the supply voltage to the stator?
(a) T is proportional to V2
(b) T is proportional to V
(c) T is proportional to √V
(d) T is proportional to V1/4
123. A change of 5% in supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a
change of approximately
(a) 5% in the rotor torque
(b) 7% in the rotor torque
(c) 25% in the rotor torque
(d) 10% in the rotor torque
46 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

124. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is

maximum
(a) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to
the resistance per phase
(b) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor
resistance
(c) at the unit value of the slip
(d) at the zero value of the slip
125. By varying the rotor resistance in the slip-ring induction motor the maximum
torque can be achieved at any desired slip or speed of the motor.
(a) true (b) false
126. The maximum torque of an induction motor varies directly as applied
voltage.
(a) true (b) false
127. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is
(a) hyperbola (b) parabola
(c) straight line (d) rectangular parabola
128. Which of the following statements is correct when referred to an induction
motor?
(a) The maximum torque will depend on rotor resistance
(b) Although the maximum torque does not depend on rotor resistance, the
exact location of maximum torque is dependent on it
(c) The maximum torque will depend on the standstill reactance of the rotor
(d) The slip of the induction motor decreases as the torque increases
129. If an induction motor has a slip of 2% at normal voltage, what will be the
approximate slip when developing the same torque at 10% above normal
voltage?
(a) 1.6% (b) 2% (c) 1.65% (d) 1.1%
130. The slip of the induction motor can be measured by comparing the rotor and
stator supply frequencies.
(a) true (b) false
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 47

131. When the frequency of the rotor of an induction motor is small, it can be
measured by a
(a) galvanometer
(b) D.C. moving coil millivoltmeter
(c) D.C. moving coil ammeter
(d) A.C. voltmeter
132. The rotor efficiency of induction motor is called
(a) I.H.P. (b) F.H.P.
(c) B.H.P. (d) none of the above
133. The rotor efficiency of an induction motor is defined as the ratio of the actual
speed of the rotor to the synchronous speed of the rotor.
(a) true (b) false
134. The synchronous watt can be defined as
(a) the unit of rating of a synchronous machine
(b) the unit of torque defined at radius unit
(c) the torque which, at the synchronous speed of the machine under
consideration, would develop a power of 1 watt
(d) the unit of the power when the power factor in the power equation is
omitted
135. The synchronous wattage of an induction motor equals the power transferred
across the air gap to the rotor in the induction motor.
(a) true (b) false
136. When it is said that an induction motor is developing a torque of 900
synchronous watts, it means that the rotor input is 900 watts, and that torque
is such that the power developed would be 900 watts, provided the rotor was
running synchronously and developing the same torque.
(a) true (b) false
137. The power output of an induction motor will be maximum when
(a) the equivalent load resistance is equal to the standstill reactance of the
motor
(b) the equivalent load resistance is equal to the resistance of the rotor
(c) the equivalent resistance is equal to the standstill leakage impedance of
the motor
(d) the slip is zero
48 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

138. The complete circle diagram of an induction motor can be drawn with the
help of data found from
(a) no load test
(b) blocked rotor test
(c) (a) and (d) both
(d) (a), (b), and stator resistance test
139. The transformation ratio of the induction motor cannot be defined in terms
of stator and rotor currents.
(a) true (b) false
140. The maximum torque of an induction motor varies directly as standstill
reactance of the rotor.
(a) true (b) false
141. The value of the transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by
(a) short circuit test only (b) open circuit test only
(c) slip test (d) stator resistance test
142. The power scale of the circle diagram of an induction motor can be found
from
(a) no load test only (b) short circuit test only
(c) stator resistance test (d) none of the above
143. The starting torque of an induction motor cannot be determined from the
circle diagram.
(a) true (b) false
144. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of an induction motor and use the starter
because
(a) starting torque is very high
(b) the motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(c) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(d) it will run in reverse direction
145. The induced E.M.F. in the rotor of an induction motor is proportional to
(a) supply voltage only
(b) relative velocity between flux and rotor conductors
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) slip
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 49

146. The relation between maximum torque and full load torque (Tmax, Tf
respectively) when referred to an induction motor is given by
Tƒ 2a Tƒ 2
(a) = (b)
Tmax (a2 + s2) Tmax = (a2 + s2)
Tƒ 2as Tƒ a
(c) = (d)
Tmax (a2 + s2) Tmax = (a2 + s2)

where s is the slip and

R2 Resistance of the rotor

a= =
X2 Reactance of the rotor
147. In the above question the relation between standstill torque (Ts) and
maximum torque (Tmax) is given by
Ts 2a Ts 2a
(a) (b)
Tmax = 1 + a2 Tmax = s2 + a2
Ts 2 Ts 2a
(c) (d)
Tmax = 1 + s2 Tmax = s2 + 1

148. The slip of the induction motor can be calculated if the rotor copper losses
and rotor input are known.
(a) true (b) false
149. The auto-starters (using three auto-transformers) can be used to start cage-
induction motors of the following type:
(a) star connected only (b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) none of the above
150. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with auto-starter is
(a) K × torque with direct switching
(b) K/torque with direct switching
(c) K2 × torque with direct switching
(d) K2/torque with direct switching
where tapping of transformation ratio K is used in case of auto-transformer.
151. Percentage tapping required of an auto-transformer for a cage motor to start
the motor against 1 of full load will be
4
(a) 70% (b) 71%
(c) 71.5% (d) 72.2%
50 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

when the short-circuit current on normal voltage is 4 times the full load and
full load slip is 30%.
152. The start-delta switch is equivalent to the auto-transformer of ratio (when
applied to delta-connected cage-induction motor)
(a) 57% (b) 56.5%
(c) 86.6% (d) 58% approximately
153. The rotor current can be reduced by introducing a star-connected resistance
starter in the rotor circuit of the cage motor and slip ring motor as well.
(a) true (b) false
154. The slip-ring motor can be started under load conditions.
(a) true (b) false
155. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
(a) improper design of the machine
(b) low voltage supply
(c) high loads
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
156. Cogging in the induction motor usually occurs at high voltage.
(a) true (b) false
157. The outer cage in the double squirrel cage motor has low-resistance copper
bars.
(a) true (b) false
158. The torque/speed characteristics of a double squirrel cage-induction motor
may be taken to be sum of two motors, one having a high resistance rotor and
other a low resistance one.
(a) true (b) false
159. When the equivalent circuit diagram of double squirrel cage-induction motor
is constructed the two rotor cages can be considered
(a) in parallel (b) in series parallel
(c) in series (d) in parallel with stator
160. The speed of the cage-induction motor cannot be controlled from the rotor
side.
(a) true (b) false
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 51

161. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of
the squirrel cage-induction motor?
(a) Rotor rheostat control
(b) Operating two motors in cascade
(c) Injecting an E.M.F. in the rotor circuit
(d) Changing the number of stator poles
162. Rotor rheostat control to control the speed of the induction motor is only
applicable to slip-ring induction motors.
(a) true (b) false
163. The injected E.M.F. in the rotor of an induction motor must have
(a) the same frequency as the slip frequency
(b) the same phase as the rotor E.M.F.
(c) high value for satisfactory speed control
(d) zero frequency
164. The additional stator winding is used in the compensated repulsion motor
(a) to improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(b) to eliminate armature reaction
(c) to prevent hunting in the motor
(d) to provide mechanical balance
165. Repulsion start induction-run motors can be applicable to commercial
refrigerators.
(a) true (b) false
166. The rotation of the repulsion induction motor can be reversed by the usual
brush shifting arrangement.
(a) true (b) false
167. The power factor improvement of an A.C. series motor is possible by
(a) increasing the magnitude of inductance and armature winding
(b) decreasing the magnitude of reactance and armature winding
(c) equalizing the armature resistance to armature reactance
(d) none of the above
52 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

168. If the number of the turns on the field winding in an A.C. series motor is
decreased, the speed of the motor increases but torque decreases.
The same torque can be achieved by
(a) increasing the number of turns on armature winding proportionately
(b) decreasing the number of turns on armature winding
(c) increasing armature resistance
(d) equalizing the armature resistance to the armature reactance
169. In conductively-compensated A.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
(a) connected in parallel with the armature
(b) short circuited and has no interconnection with the motor circuit
(c) connected in series with the armature
(d) none of the above
170. The current in inductively compensated winding of the A.C. series motor is
proportional to the armature current and 180 degrees out of phase.
(a) true (b) false
171. The huge voltage, induced in the short-circuited coil (by transformer action)
of an A.C. series motor when commutation takes place is neutralized by
(a) increasing inductance of the compensating winding
(b) increasing resistance of the compensating winding
(c) decreasing the number of turns in the compensating winding
(d) shunting the winding of each commutating pole with non-inductive
resistance
172. A universal motor is defined as a motor which may be operated either on
D.C. or single-phase A.C. supply at
(a) same output but different speeds
(b) same speed and different output
(c) approximately same output and same speed
(d) synchronous speed
173. It is preferred to use single turn coil in the armature of the single-phase A.C.
series motors
(a) to facilitate commutation and avoid sparking at the brushes
(b) to reduce the resistance of the armature
(c) to reduce the reactance of the armature
(d) to reduce the weight of the armature
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 53

174. Which of the following motors is an unexcited single-phase synchronous

motor?
(a) A.C. series motor (b) Universal motor
(c) Repulsion motor (d) Reluctance motor
175. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and
many kinds of timers?
(a) D.C. series motor (b) A.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor (d) Reluctance motor
176. Wide-open type slots in the design of the stator of an alternator will present
which of the following disadvantages?
(a) The size of the machine will increase
(b) The size of the stator will increase
(c) Air gap flux is distributed in the tufts and produce ripples in the wave of
generated E.M.F.
(d) None of the above
177. What kind of rotor is most suitable for turbo-alternators which are designed
to run at high speed?
(a) Salient pole type (b) Non-salient pole type
(c) (a) or (b) (d) None of the above
178. The power developed in the alternator having a salient type rotor is less than
that of having a non-salient pole.
(a) true (b) false
179. The damping winding in synchronous motors is often used
(a) to prevent hunting only
(b) to prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(c) to maintain proper synchronism
(d) to provide the starting torque only
180. Turbo-alternators are seldom characterized by small diameters and very long
axial or rotor length.
(a) true (b) false
181. The maximum speed of an alternator at power frequency of 50 Hz will be
(a) 3600 R.P.M. (b) 3300 R.P.M.
(c) 3000 R.P.M. (d) 1500 R.P.M.
54 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

182. Which of following statements is correct?

(a) Short pitched coils in the alternators are used to reduce the size of the
machines
(b) Short pitched coils are used to reduce the harmonics or to eliminate the
harmonics from the generated E.M.F.
(c) Short pitched coils are used to provide accurate phase difference of 120
degree to one phase to other
(d) Short pitched coils are used to reduce copper losses
183. The disadvantage of using short pitched coils in the alternator is that
(a) total induced E.M.F. is increased
(b) total induced voltage is reduced
(c) total induced voltage is distorted
(d) total induced voltage is more and hence more insulation is required
184. The coil span factor is defined as
(a) vector sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
terminal voltage of the generator
(b) arithmetic sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
vector sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
(c) vector sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
arithmetic sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
(d) arithmetic sum of induced E.M.Fs. per coil
terminal voltage of the generator
185. The induced E.M.F. in an alternator with distributed winding is always more
than that of one with concentrating winding.
(a) true (b) false
186. A three-phase, 4-pole, 24-slots alternator has its armature coil short pitched
by one slot. The distribution factor of the alternator will be
(a) 0.96 (b) 0.9
(c) 0.933 (d) 0.966
187. In case of an alternator, the power factor of the load has a considerable effect
on the armature reaction, unlike D.C. generators.
(a) true (b) false
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 55

188. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an alternator
will be
(a) demagnetizing
(b) cross-magnetizing
(c) square waveform
(d) in phase with current
189. When the load has power factor zero lagging, the main flux of the alternator
will decrease.
(a) true (b) false
190. The armature reaction of an alternator will be completely magnetizing when
(a) load power factor is unity
(b) load power factor is zero lagging
(c) load power factor is zero leading
(d) load power factor is 7.0 lagging
191. Synchronous reactance is defined as the
(a) reactance due to armature reaction of the machine
(b) reactance of synchronous machine
(c) reactance due to leakage flux
(d) combined reactance due to leakage of flux and armature reaction
192. In case of leading load power factor, the terminal voltage of alternator will
fall on removing the full load.
(a) true (b) false
193. The rise of the voltage of alternator when the load is thrown off is same as
the fall in the voltage when full load is applied.
(a) true (b) false
194. Give the three methods of determining the voltage regulation of the
alternator.
(i) Synchronous Impedance Method
(ii) M.M.F. Method
(iii) Potier Triangle Method
56 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

195. The synchronous impedance method will not give accurate voltage regulation
because
(a) the value of synchronous impedance found is always less than actual
value
(b) the value of synchronous impedance found is always less than the actual
value
(c) the value of the synchronous impedance is independent of saturation
(d) the reactance due to armature reaction is considered separately
196. The value of the voltage regulation found by the M.M.F. method is always
less than the actual value.
(a) true (b) false
197. Which of the following methods is better to find the voltage regulation?
(a) M.M.F. Method
(b) Potier Triangle Method
(c) Synchronous Impedance Method
(d) None of the above
198. The operation of connecting an alternator in parallel with another alternator
or with common bus bar is known as
(a) proper machine (b) mechanizing
(c) synchronizing (d) asynchronizing
199. Give the three conditions for the proper synchronization of an alternator.
(i) The terminal voltage for the incoming alternator must be same as bus bar
voltage
(ii) The speed of the incoming machine must be such that its frequency
(= PN/120) equals bus bar frequency
(iii) The phase of the alternator voltage must be identical with the phase of
the bus bar voltage. It means that switch must be closed at (or very near)
the instant of the two voltages have correct relationship
200. In three-phase alternators, it is necessary to synchronize one phase only; the
other phases will be synchronized automatically.
(a) true (b) false
201. When the alternators are running in proper synchronism the synchronizing
power will be zero.
(a) true (b) false
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 57

202. If the two alternators are running in proper synchronism and the voltage of
one machine is suddenly increased
(a) the machines will burn
(b) both machines will stop
(c) the synchronization torque will be produced to restore further
synchronism
(d) synchronization cannot be attained automatically
203. If the input to the prime-mover of an alternator is kept constant but the
excitation is changed, then
(a) the reactive component of the output is changed
(b) the active component of the output is changed
(c) the power factor of the load remains constant
(d) (a) and (b) takes place simultaneously
204. The load taken up by the alternator directly depends upon the driving
torque, or in other words, upon the angular advance of its rotor.
(a) true (b) false
205. A synchronous motor is inherently a self-starting motor.
(a) true (b) false
206. The working of a synchronous motor is, in many ways, similar to
(a) the power transformer (b) the hydraulic motor
(c) the gear train arrangement
(d) the transmission of mechanical power by a shaft
207. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as
(a) the angle between the rotor and the stator poles of same polarity
(b) the angle between the rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
(c) the angle between the rotor and the stator teeth
(d) none of the above
208. The coupling angle of a synchronous motor is independent of load.
(a) true (b) false
209. The torque developed by the synchronous motor is independent of the
coupling angle.
(a) true (b) false
58 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

210. The back E.M.F. set up in the stator of a synchronous motor will depend on
(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the rotor excitation and speed both
(c) the rotor speed only
(d) the coupling angle only
211. If the synchronous motor (properly synchronized to the supply) is running on
no load and is having negligible loss, then
(a) the stator current will be very high
(b) the stator current will be zero
(c) the stator current will be very small
(d) the back E.M.F. will be more than the supply voltage
212. The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on
(a) the supply voltage only
(b) the rotor excitation only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply voltage both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle
(90 degrees)
213. The armature current of the synchronous motor
(a) has large values for low excitation only
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
(d) has large current for lagging excitation
214. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor
(a) corresponds to 0.8 power factor
(b) corresponds to zero power factor
(c) corresponds to 0.866 power factor
(d) corresponds to unity power factor
215. The synchronous motor can be used as phase advancer.
(a) true (b) false
216. A synchronous capacitor is nothing but a synchronous motor running on no
load with over-excitation.
(a) true (b) false
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 59

217. If the field of the synchronous motor is left short circuited and connected to
supply through an auto-transformer
(a) the motor will run at its normal speed
(b) the motor will just crawl
(c) the motor will run as an induction motor
(d) the armature will burn because there is no back E.M.F. in the armature
218. The synchronous motor can be operated at desired power factor by varying
the excitation to the motor.
(a) true (b) false
219. The rotary convertor can be used to
(a) convert A.C. to D.C.
(b) convert D.C. to A.C.
(c) convert linear motion to rotary motion
(d) (a) and (b) both
220. A rotary convertor is used to convert A.C. to D.C. but cannot be used to
convert D.C. to A.C.
(a) true (b) false
221. A 2-kW single-phase rotary convertor operates at full load from 230 volts
A.C. source. Assuming unity power factor and 100% efficiency the D.C.
current will be
(a) 6 A (b) 6.15 A
(c) 8.7 A (d) 5 A
222. A rotary convertor can be run as a
(a) induction motor
(b) synchronous motor
(c) D.C. series motor
(d) D.C. compound motor
223. In the operation of poly-phase rotary convertors, which of the following
should be introduced between the A.C. sources and slip rings?
(a) Amplifier (b) Rectifier
(c) Transformer (d) Diode
60 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

224. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous invertor
(b) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous convertor
(c) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous diverter
(d) A rotary convertor can be called a synchronous capacitor
225. Which of the following rotary convertors is used in the standard practice?
(a) Single-phase rotary convertor
(b) Three-phase rotary convertor
(c) Six phase rotary convertor
(d) Twelve phase rotary convertor
226. For a given temperature rise and hence output, a six-phase convertor is
smaller than three- or two-phase convertor.
(a) true (b) false
227. Give the four methods to control D.C. voltage of rotary convertor:
(i) By using tap changing transformer
(ii) Series reactance control method
(iii) Induction regular
(iv) Synchronous booster control method
228. The mercury-arc rectifier is used as
(a) convertor only (b) inventor only
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) transducer
229. The arc between the anode and cathode of a mercury-arc rectifier will persist
(a) when anode is at positive potential with respect to cathode
(b) when anode is at negative potential with respect to cathode
(c) when anode will repel the electrons
(d) when anode is at very low temperature
230. The purpose of introducing a reactor in the ignition circuit of a mercury-arc
rectifier is
(a) to limit the rate of change of flux in the circuit
(b) to limit the voltage of the circuit
(c) to limit the rate of change of the current in the circuit
(d) to limit the current in the circuit
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 61

231. The advantage of using a larger phase mercury-arc rectifier is that

(a) they are easily available (b) they work noiselessly
(c) they are very cheap (d) their output is much smoother
232. The utility factor of a mercury-arc rectifier is defined as
actual power wattless power component
(a) (b)
full load rating full load rating
actual power total A.C. input
(c) (d)
half load rating total D.C. output
total D.C. output
(e)
total A.C. input
233. Angle of overlap is related to
(a) diode rectifier (b) silicon-controlled rectifier
(c) mercury-arc rectifier (d) metal rectifier
234. Give the three types of voltage drop when a mercury-arc rectifier is on load:
(i) Reactance drop (ii) Mean resistance drop
(iii) Arc voltage drop
235. The utilization factor of the six-phase mercury-arc rectifier is more than that
of three-phase mercury-arc rectifier.
(a) true (b) false
236. The utilization factor is maximum for
(a) three-phase mercury-arc rectifier
(b) six-phase mercury-arc rectifier
(c) twelve-phase mercury-arc rectifier
(d) single-phase mercury-arc rectifier
237. If the air gap of the induction motor is increased
(a) the power factor will increase
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) the magnetizing current of the rotor will increase
(d) the magnetizing current of the rotor will decrease
(e) the speed of the motor will decrease
62 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

238. The squirrel cage-induction motor has

(a) one slip ring (b) two slip rings
(c) three slip rings (d) zero slip rings
239. What will happen if the supply terminals of a D.C. shunt motor are
interchanged?
(a) Motor will stop
(b) Motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction as it was running
(c) The direction of rotation will reverse
(d) Motor speed will increase
240. An amplidyne can be used as
(a) a D.C. series motor (b) a D.C. shunt motor
(c) a D.C. compound motor (d) magnetic amplifier
241. The torque/slip characteristic of induction
motor is shown; which is the unstable A
region?
T
(a) A
(b) B B

(c) C C
D
(d) D S

242. Find the odd man out: Fig. Q. 241.

(a) tachometer (b) voltmeter
(c) ammeter (d) galvanometer
243. The mechanical load across the induction motor is equivalent to electrical
load of
(a) R2 1 + 1 (b) R2 1 − 1
s s
(c) R2 (s − 1) (d) 1/R2 (s − 1)
where R2 is the resistance of the rotor in terms of secondary and s is the slip
of motor.
244. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased, the iron loss
(a) will decrease (b) will increase
(c) will not change (d) will reach nearly zero
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 63

245. In D.C. motors, iron losses occur in

(a) the yoke (b) the pole shoe
(c) the armature (d) the field
246. With the use of high flux density in the transformer
(a) the size of core will decrease (b) less copper will be used
(c) core losses will decrease (d) voltage output will decrease
247. The induced E.M.F. in the armature of a D.C. machine rotating in the
stationary field will be
(a) sinusoidal voltage (b) direct voltage
(c) sinusoidal with even harmonics (d) sinusoidal with old harmonics
248. The air gap between poles has
(a) no magnetic field
(b) no magnetic field unless the poles are far apart
(c) a strong magnetic field
(d) a magnetic field if the poles touch
249. Magnetic induction results in
(a) induced poles opposite from the original field poles
(b) induced poles the same as the original field
(c) two north poles
(d) an induced magnetic field but no induced pole
250. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Iron, steel, and nickel are magnetic materials
(b) Copper, iron, steel, and air are magnetic materials
(c) Paper, wood, and steel are magnetic materials
(d) Iron is a magnetic material, but steel is non-magnetic
251. In an electromagnet
(a) current must flow through the coil to produce a magnetic field
(b) the magnetic field has the same strength with or without current
(c) current must flow but no voltage need be applied across the coil
(d) the coil must have high resistance for minimum coil current
64 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

252. The motor action in a wire conducting current can be produced

(a) without any additional magnetic field
(b) by moving the conductor from a weaker field towards stronger field
(c) by moving the conductor from stronger field towards weaker field
(d) by producing the motion by other than rotation
253. The requirement for producing induced voltage is
(a) magnetic flux moving across a conductor
(b) magnetic field moving across a dielectric
(c) an insulated wire free from any external magnetic field
(d) a bare wire moving parallel to an external magnetic field
254. A 5 : 1 voltage step up transformer has 120 volts across the primary and
600 ohms resistance across the secondary. Assuming 100% efficiency the
primary current equals
(a) 1/5 amp (b) 500 ma
(c) 10 amps (d) 20 amps
(e) 5 amps
255. In a transformer, the voltage induced in the secondary winding must always
be 90 degrees out of phase with the
(a) primary voltage (b) primary current
(c) secondary voltage (d) secondary current
256. A ferrite core has less eddy-current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have low resistance (b) ferrites have high resistance
(c) ferrites have low permeability (d) ferrites have high hysteresis
257. Which of the following motors is usually used in household refrigerators?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Single-phase induction motor (split-phase start or induction run motor)
(d) Synchronous motor
258. If the refrigerator unit runs continuously maintaining cabinet cold, the failure
of the unit is attributed to
(a) extreme hot weather conditions (b) poor door seal at gasket
(c) defective motor (d) defective thermostat
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 65

259. The maximum temperature permitted for Class A insulation is

(a) 180°C (b) 105°C
(c) 120°C (d) 155°C
260. The cotton, silk, paper, and wood are
(a) class A insulation (b) class Y insulation
(c) class H insulation (d) class B insulation
261. Rheostatic braking gives greater braking torque than plugging.
(a) true (b) false
262. Which of the following rules states that the direction of an induced current is
always such that the magnetic field which it produces reacts in opposition to
the change of flux?
(a) Thumb rule (b) Lenz’s law
(c) Kirchhoff’s law (d) Faraday’s law
263. What conditions are necessary for an induced voltage to be created by means
of rotation?
(a) A magnetic field
(b) Movably placed loops conductors (turns)
(c) Lump conductors
(d) (a) and (b) both
264. In the following diagram of a line conductor, in
which direction do the magnetic lines of force
run if the observer is looking in the direction of
current?
(a) Counter-clockwise around the conductor
(b) Clockwise around the conductor
(c) Around the conductor
I
(d) Outside the conductor Fig. Q. 264.
265. Which of the following rules is applied to above
question to find direction of magnetic lines?
(a) Left hand rule (b) Right hand rule
(c) Corkscrew rule (d) Lenz’s law
66 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

266. In the adjacent figure, what kind of voltage is

generated by linear movement of a horizontal
or vertical loop in or counter to the direction of Up
magnetic field?
(a) D.C. voltage Down

(b) A.C. voltage

(c) No voltage
(d) Pulse voltage Fig. Q. 266.
267. What kind of voltage is induced in a loop conductor
rotating in a homogeneous magnetic field?
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) No voltage
(d) Pulse voltage
268. If a loop conductor is rotated in the magnetic field, a voltage is induced in it.
This voltage increases only with the
(a) density of the magnetic lines of force
(b) active length of conductor in exciting field
(c) velocity of the loop
(d) length of conductor, velocity, and flux density
269. A loop conductor is rotated in a homogeneous magnetic field; the magnetic
flux
(a) changes its intensity constantly
(b) changes its direction with constant density
(c) changes in intensity with its direction periodically
(d) changes its intensity with its direction randomly
270. The operation of the electric generator and motor is based on the interaction
between
(a) magnetic field and electric field
(b) magnetic field and electric current
(c) electric field and law of induction
(d) law of induction and dynamo-electric principle
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 67

271. What type of current is normally used to excite synchronous and D.C.
generators?
(a) D.C.
(b) A.C. single-phase
(c) A.C. three-phase
(d) A.C. two-phase
272. Under what conditions will an electromotive force be exerted on an electric
conductor in a magnetic field?
(a) The conductor must have diameter
(b) The conductor must have current passing through it
(c) Magnetic field must be intensified
(d) The conductor must be in coil form
273. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A magnetic field exerts a force on-line conductor
(b) The cause of force effect lies in the fact that the original magnetic field
and that of the line conductor affected each other
(c) The repulsion takes place in the direction of mutually reducing field
forces
(d) All the above statements are correct
274. Which of the following transformers will have the smallest size with the same
electrical specifications?
(a) Oil Natural Air Natural (ONAN) cooled transformer
(b) Dry type transformer
(c) Oil Natural Air Force (ONAF) cooled transformer
(d) Oil Forced Water Force (OFWF) cooled transformer
275. Which of the following includes motor and generator Standards?
(a) NIST (b) NEMA
(c) T Standards (d) R Standards
276. 1 H.P. is equivalent to
(a) 0.746 W (b) 0.746 kW
(c) 7.46 W (d) 7.46 kW
68 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

277. What kind of bushings will be used in the transformers above 33kV ratings?
(a) Porcelain type (b) Condenser type
(c) Oil-filled type (d) (b) or (c)
278. If the percentage reactance of a power is 5.0, what will be the per unit
reactance?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.4
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.5
279. The eddy current loss in the transformer occurs in the
(a) primary winding (b) secondary winding
(c) laminations (d) none of the above
280. A transformer with output of 250 kVA at 3300 volts, has 1000 turns on its
primary winding and 100 turns on secondary winding. What will be the
transformation ratio of the transformer?
(a) 10 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 3
281. In Question 280, what will be the primary rated voltage of the transformer?
(a) 33,000 V (b) 1650 V
(c) 16,500 V (d) 1500 V
282. The speed-torque characteristics for single-phase
induction motor shown to the right
(a) shaded pole motor
SPEED

(b) split-phase motor

(c) capacitor-start motor
(d) repulsion-start run motor
TORQUE
283. The induced E.M.F. in one phase of the rotor
winding is 120 V when the rotor is blocked and, Fig. Q. 282.
the resistance and reactance per phase of stator
winding are 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω respectively. What will be the rotor current?
(a) 330 A (b) 332 A
(c) 250 A (d) 200 A
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 69

284. A circuit for the auto transformer is I

a
shown to the right. Point b is located
half way between terminals a and c.
The resistance of the entire winding b I2
V1
is 0.1 ohm, and the resistance of the
position bc is 0.40 ohm. What will be the V2
copper loss at an output of 10 A when
the exciting current is neglected? I C I2
(a) 6 Watts
Fig. Q. 284.
(b) 2.5 Watts
(c) 10 Watts
(d) 4 Watts
285. In the figure of Question 284, if the reactance of part ab is 0.2 ohm and that
of the common part is 0.1 ohm, what will be the input current if primary
voltage is 20 V?
(a) 60 A (b) 33.3 A
(c) 63.3 A (d) 30 A
286. What will wattmeter indicate is connected across supply line in the figure of
Question 284, provided V1 = 20 V and reactance of ab is 0.2-ohm, reactance
of common part is 0.1 ohm and the core loss is neglected?
(a) 200 Watts (b) 100 Watts
(c) 500 Watts (d) 400 Watts
287. A series motor has 2 poles and 95 turns per pole. The resistance of 2 field
coils connected in series is 3.02 ohms. The voltage drop across the field is
62 V and current is 3.55 A at 60 Hz. What will be the field reactance?
(a) 27 ohms (b) 60 ohms
(c) 17.2 ohms (d) 68 ohms
288. The armature winding of a repulsion motor is excited
(a) conductively (b) inductively
(c) resistively (d) none of the above
289. The armature winding of a series motor is excited
(a) conductively (b) inductively
(c) resistively (d) none of the above
70 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

290. Which of the following parameters contributes to friction loss in the

alternators?
(a) Temperature
(b) Lubrication of bearings
(c) Load variation
(d) Velocity of the shaft
(e) All of the above parameters
291. The difference between input and I2R loss will give the
(a) friction loss
(b) windage loss
(c) core loss
(d) sum of (a), (b), and (c)
292. The friction, windage and core losses of an alternator can easily be
determined by
(a) running the alternator at synchronous speed
(b) running the alternator as a synchronous motor at rated speed at full load
(c) running the alternator as a synchronous motor at rated speed at no load
(d) none of the above
293. The eddy-current loss in the alternator will be minimum if the air gap
(a) between poles and the slots of the armature is large compared to width of
the slot
(b) between poles and the slots of the armature is minimum compared to
width of the slot
(c) does not exist
(d) none of the above
294. Eddy current losses in the alternator are
(a) dependent on the load
(b) independent of the load
(c) dependent on the excitation
(d) (b) and (c) both
(e) none of the above
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 71

295. The skewing of the rotor bars of the induction motor

(a) will reduce the induced voltage in each bar to a value less than if the bars
were unskewed
(b) will increase the induced voltage in each bar to a value more than if the
bars were unskewed
(c) increase the cogging
(d) increase the motor noise
296. Which of the following motors have almost constant speed over their full
load range?
(a) D.C. series motors
(b) A.C. series motors
(c) D.C. shunt motors
(d) Low resistance squirrel cage motors
(e) (c) and (d) both
297. If two wound-rotor induction motors are arranged so that the stator of one
is connected to an external source and its rotor output is connected to the
other, what will be the input conditions for the other induction motor?
(a) The second motor will run at its own slip but at the voltage of the first
motor
(b) The second motor will run at the slip frequency and voltage of the first
motor
(c) The second motor will not run
(d) The second motor will act as frequency converter
298. In Question 297, the first motor acts as a
(a) voltage converter (b) frequency converter
(c) current converter (d) power converter
299. In Question 297, the slip frequency of the second motor
(a) is the difference between its applied frequency and its frequency of
rotation
(b) is the difference between of slip-frequency first motor and its frequency
of rotation
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
72 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

300. Four speed-torque curves are shown below; which of the curves is drawn for
repulsion start induction run?
SPEED

SPEED

SPEED

SPEED
TORQUE TORQUE TORQUE TORQUE
A B C D
Fig. Q. 300.
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
301. The torque developed in a D.C. motor depends on
(a) armature current
(b) magnetic field
(c) magnetic field and armature current
(d) speed
302. The speed regulation of a D.C. motor can be ideally achieved with
(a) variable excitation to the field of the motor
(b) constant excitation to the field of the motor
(c) A.C. excitation to the field of the motor
(d) no excitation to the field of the motor
303. If the excitation to the field of the D.C. motor is constant, then the torque
developed in the motor is proportional to
(a) armature current (b) field current
(c) speed (d) magnetic flux
304. For which of the following machines is residual magnetism a requirement to
build up voltage output?
(a) Separately excited generator
(b) Self-excited generator
(c) All A.C. generators
(d) None of them
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 73

305. What will happen to the D.C. generator if the field winding attains critical
resistance?
(a) It will generate maximum voltage
(b) It will generate maximum power
(c) It will not develop voltage at all
(d) None of them
306. Which of the following conditions hold true for paralleling two D.C.
generators?
(a) Their polarities must match
(b) Their phase sequences must match
(c) Their polarities and voltages must match
(d) (b) and (c) both
307. The armature voltage control is suitable if the D.C. machine is driven at
(a) constant current
(b) constant torque
(c) constant speed
(d) constant magnetic field
308. Which of the following parameters is controlled to achieve the variable speed
of a D.C. drive?
(a) Magnetic field (b) Armature resistance
(c) Voltage (d) None of the above
309. The Ward Leonard method of speed control of a D.C. machine controls
the speed below or above normal speed in clockwise and counter-clockwise
direction.
(a) true (b) false
310. Which of the following motors will one choose to drive the
rotary compressor?
(a) Universal motor (b) Synchronous motor
(c) D.C. series motor (d) D.C. shunt motor
311. The electric current in the motor generates
(a) heat only (b) magnetic field only
(c) (a) and (b) (d) power only
74 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

312. Which of the following machines will be preferred to charge batteries?

(a) Series generator (b) Series motor
(c) Shunt generator (d) Compound generator
(e) Shunt motor (f) None of the above
313. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back E.M.F. of the motor
will
(a) decrease (b) increase
(c) remain same (d) increase then decrease
314. The large number of slots in an induction motor
(a) provides better overload capacity
(b) reduces overload capacity
(c) provides bigger size of motor
(d) reduces the size of motor
315. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average
flux density in air gap is
(a) large (b) small
(c) infinity (d) absent
316. Why are D.C. motors preferred for traction applications?
(a) The torque is proportional to armature current
(b) The torque is proportional to the square root of armature current
(c) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is
proportional to the square of armature current
(d) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
317. Which of the following generating machines will offer constant voltage on all
loads?
(a) Separately excited generator
(b) Self-excited generator
(c) Level compound generator
(d) All the above
318. The D.C. generator will be preferred if it has
(a) 100% regulation (b) reduced regulation
(c) 10% regulation (d) infinite regulation
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 75

319. The number of bushings in a transformer can be reduced if the tappings are
provided
(a) at the phase ends
(b) at the high voltage side
(c) in the middle of the transformer
(d) on the low voltage side
320. Which of the following transformers will use oil natural cooling with tubes?
(a) 100 kVA (b) 800 kVA
(c) All the above transformers
321. An induction motor with 1000 R.P.M. speed will have
(a) 2 poles (b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles (d) 8 poles
322. Which of the following equipment will draw the reactive power?
(a) Electrical iron (b) Tubelight
(c) Three-phase motor (d) Rectifier
323. The large number of narrow slots in the stator of an A.C. motor is preferred
because
(a) it is easier to make narrow slots than wide open slots
(b) large number of narrow slots reduces motor noise
(c) large number of narrow slots reduces noise and tooth pulsation losses
(d) it helps in uniform distribution of flux
324. The number of parallel paths in wave winding of a machine is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 8
325. The alternators are normally designed for the torque angle of the order of
(a) 3° to 15° (b) 2 rad to 3 rad
(c) 15° to 30° (d) 1° to 3°
326. Which material is used to insulate the segments of a commutator?
(a) Fiberglass (b) Plastic
(c) Mica (d) PVC
327. The brushes of electrical machines are made of
(a) carbon (b) copper
(c) cast iron (d) steel
76 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

328. If the resistance of the field winding of a D.C. generator is increased, then
the output voltage
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) decreases proportional to the resistance of field winding
329. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be
run in parallel?
(a) Series generators (b) Shunt generators
(c) Shunt and series generators (d) Compound generators
330. Two separately excited motors have
(a) excitation which is independent of load current
(b) the advantage over a self-excited motor in that it can be utilized for zero
volt to its maximum rated capacity
(c) a and b both
(d) none of them
331. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
(a) constant current drive (b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant torque drive (d) constant torque drive
332. The field current control of D.C. shunt motors will provide
(a) constant current drive (b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant HP drive (d) constant torque drive
333. Which of the following methods of speed control of D.C. machines will offer
minimum efficiency?
(a) Armature control method (b) Field control method
(c) Voltage control method (d) All above methods
334. In which of the following methods of speed control is computation
unsatisfactory?
(a) Field control method
(b) Voltage control method
(c) Armature current control method
(d) All above methods
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 77

335. Dynamic braking can be used for

(a) series motors (b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors (d) all above motors
336. Plugging gives the
(a) smallest torque braking (b) highest torque braking
(c) zero torque braking (d) none of them
337. Which method of braking will be selected if the highest
braking torque is required?
(a) Plugging
(b) Dynamic braking
(c) Counter current braking
(d) Regenerative braking
(e) (a) or (c)
338. If the terminals of the armature of a D.C. machine are interchanged, this
action will offer following kind of braking:
(a) plugging (b) regenerative
(c) dynamic braking (d) any of the above
339. If a D.C. motor designed for 45°C ambient temperature is to be used for
55°C ambient temperature, then the motor
(a) is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and select
next higher HP motor
(b) can be used for 55°C ambient also
(c) of lower HP should be selected
(d) of high speed should be selected
340. If we have to control the speed of a 150 HP D.C. motor from zero to
1000 R.P.M. having rated speed of 1500 R.P.M., it will be preferred to
(a) select a motor of 150 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
(b) select a motor of 1.5 × 150 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
(c) select a motor of 150 HP, 750 R.P.M.
(d) select a motor of 75 HP, 1500 R.P.M.
78 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

341. For which of the following three-phase alternators will the distribution factor
be 0.96?
(a) 4 pole wound on 72 slots core
(b) 8 pole wound on 80 slots core
(c) 8 pole wound on 72 slots core
(d) 6 pole wound on 72 slots core
342. Which of the synchronous alternators will complete 1080 electrical degrees
in one revolution?
(a) 8 pole synchronous alternator
(b) 6 pole synchronous alternator
(c) 4 pole synchronous alternator
(d) 10 pole synchronous alternator
343. How many cycles of alternating current will be generated in one revolution
of an 8-pole synchronous alternator?
(a) 10 cycles (b) 4 cycles
(c) 8 cycles (d) 16 cycles
344. How many poles will be required if an alternator runs at 1500 R.P.M. and
gives a frequency of 50 Hz?
(a) 8 poles (b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles (d) 2 poles
345. Two generators are running in parallel. One generator may run as the motor
for which of the following reasons?
(a) The speed of that generator is increased
(b) The direction that generator is reversed
(c) The generator takes a large share of loads
(d) The field of that generator is weakened
346. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) A single-phase induction motor has a very high starting torque
(b) A single-phase induction motor has zero starting torque
(c) A single-phase starting torque is as good as that of a 3-phase induction
motor
(d) A single-phase motor has very small torque but greater than zero
 ELECTRICAL MACHINES • 79

347. The primary applied voltage in an ideal transformer on no load is balanced by

(a) primary induced E.M.F. (b) secondary induced E.M.F.
(c) secondary voltage (d) core and copper losses
348. The air cores in transformers are preferred for
(a) low frequency transformers
(b) high frequency transformers
(c) 5 kVA, 50 Hz transformers
(d) none of these
349. The synchronous motor can be made self-starting by providing
(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
350. The amplidyne is a
(a) fully compensated cross field machine
(b) half compensated cross field machine
(c) over-compensated cross field machine
(d) under-compensated cross field machine
418 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

88. (c) 89. (e) 90. (c)

91. (c) 92. (a) 93. (b)
94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (b)
97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (c)
100. (d) 101. (c) 102. (d)
103. (b) 104. (a) 105. (a)
106. (b) 107. (a) 108. (a)
109. (a) 110. (c) 111. (b)
112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (a)
115. (d) 116. (b) 117. (c)
118. (d)

CHAPTER 2 ELECTRICAL MACHINES

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c)
4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b)
7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a)
10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (e)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b)
22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c)
28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (b)
34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a)
40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a)
49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (b)
52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a)
55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c)
64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (b)
67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a)
70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (a)
 APPENDIX: ANSWERS • 419

73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (b)

76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (b)
79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (a)
82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (a)
85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b)
88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (d)
91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (a)
94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (b)
97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (a)
100. (b) 101. (b) 102. (b)
103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (b)
106. — 107. (a) 108. (b)
109. (b) 110. (a) 111. (a)
112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (a)
115. (c) 116. (b) 117. (a)
118. (a) 119. (a) 120. (d)
121. (a) 122. (a) 123. (c)
124. (a) 125. (a) 126. (a)
127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (c)
130. (a) 131. (b) 132. (c)
133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (a)
136. (a) 137. (c) 138. (d)
139. (b) 140. (b) 141. (a)
142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (b)
145. (c) 146. (c) 147. (a)
148. (a) 149. (c) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (d) 153. (b)
154. (a) 155. (d) 156. (b)
157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (a)
160. (b) 161. (d) 162. (a)
163. (a) 164. (a) 165. (a)
166. (a) 167. (b) 168. (a)
169. (c) 170. (a) 171. (d)
172. (c) 173. (a) 174. (d)
175. (d) 176. (c) 177. (b)
178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (c) 182. (b) 183. (b)
184. (c) 185. (b) 186. (d)
187. (a) 188. (b) 189. (a)
420 • ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING EXAM PREP: PROBLEMS AND SOLUTIONS

190. (c) 191. (d) 192. (a)

193. (b) 194. — 195. (b)
196. (a) 197. (b) 198. (c)
199. — 200. (a) 201. (a)
202. (c) 203. (a) 204. (a)
205. (b) 206. (d) 207. (b)
208. (b) 209. (b) 210. (a)
211. (b) 212. (d) 213. (c)
214. (d) 215. (a) 216. (a)
217. (c) 218. (a) 219. (d)
220. (a) 221. (b) 222. (a)
223. (a) 224. (b) 225. (c)
226. (a) 227. — 228. (c)
229. (a) 230. (d) 231. (d)
232. (a) 233. (c) 234. —
235. (b) 236. (a) 237. (d)
238. (d) 239. (c) 240. (c)
241. (b) 242. (a) 243. (b)
244. (b) 245. (b) 246. (a)
247. (a) 248. (c) 249. (a)
250. (a) 251. (a) 252. (c)
253. (a) 254. (e) 255. (b)
256. (b) 257. (c) 258. (d)
259. (b) 260. (b) 261. (b)
262. (b) 263. (d) 264. (b)
265. (c) 266. (c) 267. (b)
268. (d) 269. (c) 270. (b)
271. (a) 272. (b) 273. (d)
274. (b) 275. (b) 276. (b)
277. (d) 278. (a) 279. (c)
280. (a) 281. (c) 282. (c)
283. (b) 284. (b) 285. (c)
286. (d) 287. (c) 288. (b)
289. (a) 290. (e) 291. (d)
292. (c) 293. (a) 294. (d)
295. (a) 296. (e) 297. (b)
298. (b) 299. (c) 300. (a)
301. (c) 302. (b) 303. (a)
304. (b) 305. (c) 306. (c)
 APPENDIX: ANSWERS • 421

307. (b) 308. (c) 309. (a)

310. (b) 311. (c) 312. (c)
313. (b) 314. (a) 315. (b)
316. (c) 317. (c) 318. (b)
319. (a) 320. (e) 321. (b)
322. (c) 323. (c) 324. (c)
325. (d) 326. (c) 327. (a)
328. (a) 329. (b) 330. (c)
331. (d) 332. (a) 333. (a)
334. (a) 335. (d) 336. (b)
337. (e) 338. (a) 339. (a)
340. (b) 341. (c) 342. (b)
343. (b) 344. (c) 345. (c)
346. (b) 347. (b) 348. (b)
349. (a) 350. (a)

CHAPTER 3 MEASUREMENTS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (e)
4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b)
10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b)
22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. — 27. (b)
28. (c) 29. (a) 30. —
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a)
34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c)
40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (a)
52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d)
55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (b)