Baba Geography 1

Exam Title : 2019 - Test 2-Geography & C...
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Note: If the exam is multi-lingual i.e. English and Hindi. Hindi solutions will be
after the completion of English solutions.
QUESTION 1. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRV
UVTVElPTiAw
Consider the following statements regarding the Big bang theory.
1. It explains the origin of earth from the solar nebula containing hydrogen and helium.
2. It considered that the matter forming the universe existed in the form of tiny ball with an
unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density.
3. The expansion of the universe can be explained using this theory.
Choose the correct code
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. I
t is also called expanding universe hypothesis . Edwin Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence th
at the universe is expanding . As time passes, galaxies move further and further apart.
The Big Bang Theory considers the following stages in the development of the universe.
(i) In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a “tiny
ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and
infinite density.
(ii) At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. It is now
generally accepted that the event of big bang took place 13.7 billion years before the present.
The expansion continues even to the present day. As it grew, some energy was converted into
matter. There was particularly rapid expansion within fractions of a second after the
bang . Thereafter, the expansion has slowed down. Within first three minutes from the Big
Bang event, the first atom began to form.
(iii) Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500 K (Kelvin) and gave
rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent.
The expansion of universe means increase in space between the galaxies . An alternative
to this was Hoyle’s concept of steady state. It considered the universe to be roughly the same at
any point of time. However, with greater evidence becoming available about the expanding
universe, scientific community at present favours argument of expanding universe.
Do you know?
You can check that universe is expanding through this following experiment.
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Take a balloon and mark some points on it to represent the galaxies. Now, if you start inflating
the balloon, the points marked on the balloon will appear to be moving away from each other as
the balloon expands. Similarly, the distance between the galaxies is also found to be increasing
and thereby, the universe is considered to be expanding. However, you will find that besides the
increase in the distances between the points on the balloon, the points themselves are
expanding. This is not in accordance with the fact. Scientists believe that though the space
between the galaxies is increasing, observations do not support the expansion of galaxies. So,
the balloon example is only partially correct.
UVTVElPTiAx
Which of the following correctly explains why the inner planets are rocky while others are
mostly in gaseous form?
1. The terrestrial planets are larger and their lower gravity could not hold the escaping gases.
2. The solar wind was most intense nearer the sun. So, it blew off lots of gas and dust from the
terrestrial planets.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Our solar system consists of the sun (the star), 8 planets, 63 moons, millions of smaller bodies
like asteroids and comets and huge quantity of dust-grains and gases. Out of the eight planets,
mercury, Venus, earth and mars are called as the inner planets as they lie between the sun and
the belt of asteroids the other four planets are called the outer planets.
Alternatively, the first four are called Terrestrial, meaning earth-like as they are made up of
rock and metals, and have relatively high densities. The rest four are called Jovian or Gas
Giant planets. Jovian means Jupiter-like. Most of them are much larger than the terrestrial
planets and have thick atmosphere, mostly of helium and hydrogen
The difference between terrestrial and Jovian planets can be attributed to the following
conditions:
(i) The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too
warm for gases to condense to solid particles . Jovian planets were formed at quite a
distant location
(ii) The solar wind was most intense nearer the sun; so, it blew off lots of gas and dust from
the terrestrial planets. The solar winds were not all that intense to cause similar removal of
gases from the Jovian planets.
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(iii) The terrestrial planets are smaller and their lower gravity could not hold the escaping
gases.
Do you know?
The temperature of the early solar system explains why the inner planets are rocky and the
outer ones are gaseous. As the gases coalesced to form a protosun, the temperature in the solar
system rose.
In the inner solar system temperatures were as high as 2000 K, while in the outer solar system
it was as cool as 50 K. In the inner solar system, only substances with very high melting points
would have remained solid. All the rest would have vaporized. So the inner solar system objects
are made of iron, silicon, magnesium, sulphur, aluminium, calcium and nickel. Many of these
were present in compounds with oxygen. There were relatively few elements of any other kind
in a solid state to form the inner planets.
The inner planets are much smaller than the outer planets and because of this have relatively
low gravity and were not able to attract large amounts of gas to their atmospheres. In the outer
regions of the solar system where it was cooler, other elements like water and methane did not
vaporize and were able to form the giant planets. These planets were more massive than the
inner planets and were able to attract large amounts of hydrogen and helium, which is why they
are composed mainly of hydrogen and helium, the most abundant elements in the solar system,
and in the universe.
UVTVElPTiAy
Which of the following is related to the formation or modification of present atmosphere?
a) Degassing
b) Solar winds
c) Differentiation
d) Both a and b
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The present composition of earth’s atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen.
There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere.
The first stage is marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere .
In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the
atmosphere.
Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the
process of photosynthesis . The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to
have been stripped off as a result of the solar winds. This happened not only in case of the
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earth, but also in all the terrestrial planets, which were supposed to have lost their primordial
atmosphere through the impact of solar winds.
Do you know?
During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid
earth. This started the evolution of the present atmosphere. The early atmosphere largely
contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of
free oxygen.
The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called
degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the
atmosphere. As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed.
The carbon dioxide in the atmosphere got dissolved in rainwater and the temperature
further decreased causing more condensation and more rains. The rainwater falling onto the
surface got collected in the depressions to give rise to oceans.
The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from the formation of the earth. This
tells us that the oceans are as old as 4,000 million years. Sometime around 3,800 million years
ago, life began to evolve. However, around 2,500-3,000 million years before the present, the
process of photosynthesis got evolved. Life was confined to the oceans for a long time .
Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process of photosynthesis.
Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago, oxygen began to
flood the atmosphere.
UVTVElPTiAz
Which of the following statements about the nature of the earth are correct?
1. The interior of the earth can be understood properly by indirect sources only.
2. It is the exogenic forces which are responsible for constantly shaping the landscape but not
endogenic forces which are less intensive.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
The interior of the earth can be understood properly only by indirect evidences as neither
any one has nor anyone can reach the interior of the earth .
The configuration of the surface of the earth is largely a product of the processes operating in
the interior of the earth.
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Exogenic as well as endogenic processes are constantly shaping the landscape . A

proper understanding of the physiographic character of a region remains incomplete if the
effects of endogenic processes are ignored. Human life is largely influenced by the
physiography of the region.
UVTVElPTiA0
Which of the following provides indirect source of information about the interior of the earth?
a) Earthquake waves
b) Gravitation
c) Magnetic field
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior . We

know through the mining activity that temperature and pressure increase with the
increasing distance from the surface towards the interior in deeper depths. Moreover, it is also
known that the density of the material also increases with depth. It is possible to find the rate of
change of these characteristics.
Another source of information is the meteors that at times reach the earth . However, it
may be noted that the material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from
the interior of the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to
that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our
planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the interior of the earth.
The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity. The gr
avitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the
poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator
being greater than that at the poles . The gravity values also differ according to the mass of
material. The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The
reading of the gravity at different places is influenced by many other factors. These readings
differ from the expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies
give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the
earth . Magnetic surveys also provide information about the distribution of magnetic materials
in the crustal portion, and thus, provide information about the distribution of materials in this
part. Seismic activity is one of the most important sources of information about the interior of
the earth.
Do you know?
Direct Sources
The most easily available solid earth material is surface rock or the rocks we get from
mining areas. Gold mines in South Africa are as deep as 3 - 4 km. Going beyond this depth is
not possible as it is very hot at this depth.
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Besides mining, scientists have taken up a number of projects to penetrate deeper depths to
explore the conditions in the crustal portions. Scientists world over are working on two major
projects such as “ Deep Ocean Drilling Project” and “Integrated Ocean Drilling Project”.
The deepest drill at Kola, in Arctic Ocean, has so far reached a depth of 12 km. This
and many deep drilling projects have provided large volume of information through the analysis
of materials collected at different depths.
Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the
molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it
becomes available for laboratory analysis. However, it is difficult to ascertain the depth of
the source of such magma.
UVTVElPTiA1
Consider the given statements regarding the structure of the earth.
1. Oceanic crust is thicker as compared to the continental crust.
2. The upper portion of the crust is called asthenosphere and it is the main source of magma.
Choose the INCORRECT statement/s
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Note: Incorrect statements have been asked.
The Crust
It is the outermost solid part of the earth . It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust
varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to
the continental crust. The mean thickness of oceanic crust is 5 km whereas that of the
continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain
systems. It is as much as 70 km thick in the Himalayan region. It is made up of heavier rocks
having density of 3 g/cm3. This type of rock found in the oceanic crust is basalt. The mean
density of material in oceanic crust is 2.7 g/cm3.
The Mantle
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle . The mantle extends from
Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called
asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km.
It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It
has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3).
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The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere . Its thickness
ranges from 10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid
state .
The Core
The earthquake wave velocities helped in understanding the existence of the core of
the earth. The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. The outer core is in
liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. The density of material at the mantle core
boundary is around 5 g/cm3 and at the centre of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is
around 13g/cm3. The core is made up of very heavy materia l mostly constituted by nickel
and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer .
UVTVElPTiA2
Which of the following were given as evidences for continental drift theory proposed by Alfred
wagner ?
a) Rocks of same age across the oceans

b) jig – saw fit of the continental edges
c) Mid oceanic ridges
d) Both a and b
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
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Alfred Wegener—a German meteorologist put forth a comprehensive argument in the form of
“the continental drift DISTRIBUTION OF OCEANS AND CONTINENTS CHAPTER theory” in
1912. This was regarding the distribution of the oceans and the continents.
According to Wegener, all the continents formed a single continental mass and Mega Ocean
surrounded the same. The super continent was named PANGAEA, which meant all earth.
The mega-ocean was called PANTHALASSA, meaning all water.
He argued that, around 200 million years ago, the super continent, Pangaea, began to split.
Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses as Laurasia and Gondwanaland forming
the northern and southern components respectively. Subsequently, Laurasia and Gondwanaland
continued to break into various smaller continents that exist today.
A variety of evidence was offered in support of the continental drift. Some of these are given
below.
Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift
The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit)
The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and
unmistakable match.
Rocks of Same Age across the Oceans
The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have Rocks of Same Age across
the Oceans. The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have facilitated
correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean. The belt of
ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa.
The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic
age. This suggests that the ocean did not exist prior to that time.
Tillite
It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers . The Gondawana system of
sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the
Southern Hemisphere. At the base, the system has thick Tillite indicating extensive and
prolonged glaciation. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island,
Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana-type sediments
clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite
provides unambiguous evidence of paleoclimates and also of drifting of continents.
Placer Deposits
The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of
source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is
obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two
continents lay side by side.
Distribution of Fossils
When identical species of plants and animals adapted to living on land or in fresh water are
found on either side of the marine barriers, a problem arises regarding accounting for such
distribution. The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to
consider a contiguous landmass ‘Lemuria’ linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a
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small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two
localities: the Southern Cape Province of South Africa and Iraver formations of Brazil. The two
localities are presently 4,800 km apart.
UVTVElPTiA3
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the concept of sea floor spreading are correct?
1. All along the deep trenches in the ocean, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge
amounts of lava to the surface from trenches.
2. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest.
3. The ocean crust rocks are much older than the continental rocks.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Concept of sea floor spreading
The post-drift studies provided considerable information that was not available at the time
Wegener put forth his concept of continental drift. Particularly, the mapping of the ocean floor
and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions revealed the following facts
1. It was realised that all along the midoceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common
and they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area.
2. The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable
similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Ro
cks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest . The
age of the rocks increases as one move away from the crest.
3. The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks . The age of rocks
in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock
formations are as old as 3,200 million years.
4. The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin . Scientists were
expecting, if the ocean floors were as old as the continent, to have a complete sequence of
sediments for a period of much longer duration. However, nowhere was the sediment column
found to be older than 200 million years.
5. The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the midoceanic
ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow depth.
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UVTVElPTiA4
Given below are the statements regarding plate tectonics.
1. A tectonic plate which is irregularly shaped solid block of earth is composed of continental
lithosphere only.
2. Mid oceanic ridge is an example of convergent plate boundary.
3. The convergent boundary results in the generation of new crust.
Choose the correct code.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Plate tectonics theory
Proposed by Mackenzie, Parker and Morgan in 1967.
A tectonic plate (also called lithospheric plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid
rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere . Plates move
horizontally over the asthenosphere as rigid units. The lithosphere includes the crust and top
mantle with its thickness range varying between 5 and 100 km in oceanic parts and about 200
km in the continental areas.
A plate may be referred to as the continental plate or oceanic plate depending on which of the
two occupy a larger portion of the plate. Pacific plate is largely an oceanic plate whereas
the Eurasian plate may be called a continental plate. The theory of plate tectonics
proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates
. Young Fold Mountain ridges, trenches, and/or faults surround these major plates.
The major plates are as follows:
1. Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
2. North American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the South American plate along
the Caribbean islands) plate
3. South American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the North American plate along
the Caribbean islands) plate
4. Pacific plate
5. India-Australia-New Zealand plate
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6. Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
7. Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate.
Some important minor plates are listed below:
1. Cocos plate : Between Central America and Pacific plate
2. Nazca plate : Between South America and Pacific plate
3. Arabian plate : Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
4. Philippine plate : Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
5. Caroline plate : Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)
6. Fuji plate: North-east of Australia.
There are three types of plate boundaries:
Divergent Boundaries
Where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other. The sites where the
plates move away from each other are called spreading sites. The best-known example of diver
gent boundaries is the Mid-Atlantic Ridge . At this, the American Plate(s) is/are separated
from the Eurasian and African Plates.
Convergent Boundaries
Where the crust is destroyed as one plate dived under another. The location where sinking of a
plate occurs is called a subduction zone. There are three ways in which convergence can occur.
These are: (i) between an oceanic and continental plate; (ii) between two oceanic plates; and
(iii) between two continental plates.
Transform Boundaries
Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each
other. Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the midoceanic
ridges. As the eruptions do not take all along the entire crest at the same time, there is a
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differential movement of a portion of the plate away from the axis of the earth. Also, the
rotation of the earth has its effect on the separated blocks of the plate portions.

UVTVElPTiA5
Which of the following is a minor plate?
a) Nazca plate
b) Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
c) Philippines plate
d) Both a and c
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Some important minor plates are listed below:
1. Cocos plate : Between Central America and Pacific plate
2. Nazca plate : Between South America and Pacific plate
3. Arabian plate : Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
4. Philippine plate : Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
5. Caroline plate : Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)
6. Fuji plate: North-east of Australia.
QUESTION 11. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

ElPTiAxMA==
Which of the following factors led to the failure of continental drift theory?
1. Pole fleeing force and tidal force which were thought to be responsible for the continental
drift proved to be totally inadequate.
2. The information collected from the ocean floor mapping provided new dimensions for the
study of distribution of oceans and continents.
Select the code from following:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
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Explanation
Solution (c)
Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was cause
d by pole-fleeing force and tidal force . The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the
earth.
You are aware of the fact that the earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. Th
is bulge is due to the rotation of the earth.
The second force that was suggested by Wegener — the tidal force is due to the attraction
of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that
these forces would become effective when applied over many million years. However, most of
scholars considered these forces to be totally inadequate.
It is interesting to note that for continental drift, most of the evidence was collected from the
continental areas in the form of distribution of flora and fauna or deposits, like tillite. A number
of discoveries during the post–World War II period added new information to geological
literature. Particularly, the information collected from the ocean floor mapping provided
new dimensions for the study of distribution of oceans and continents .

lPTiAxMQ==
Arrange the following elements present in the earth’s crust in the decreasing order of their
composition
1. Oxygen
2. Aluminium
3. Silicon
4. Iron
5. Calcium
a) 3>2>1>5>4
b) 1>3>2>4>5
c) 1>2>4>3>5
d) 4>1>2>5>3
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
The earth is composed of various kinds of elements. These elements are in solid form in the
outer layer of the earth and in hot and molten form in the interior .
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About 98 per cent of the total crust of the earth is composed of eight elements like oxygen,
silicon, aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium and magnesium and the rest is
constituted by titanium, hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, nickel and other
elements.
The elements in the earth’s crust are rarely found exclusively but are usually combined with
other elements to make various substances . These substances are recognised as minerals

ElPTiAxMg==
A certain mineral has the following characteristics.
1. Half of the earth’s crust is composed of this mineral.
2. It has light cream to salmon pink colour.
3. It is mainly used in ceramics and glass making.
Choose the correct mineral
a) Feldspar
b) Quartz
c) Mica
d) Amphibole
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Some major minerals and their characteristics
Feldspar
Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium,
calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety . Half of the earth’s crust is
composed of feldspar. It has light cream to salmon pink colour . It is used in ceramics and
glass making.
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Quartz
It is one of the most important components of sand and granite. It consists of silica. It is a
hard mineral virtually insoluble in water. It is white or colourless and used in radio and radar.
It is one of the most important components of granite.
Pyroxene
Pyroxene consists of calcium, aluminum, magnesium, iron and silica. Pyroxene forms 10 per ce
nt of the earth’s crust. It is commonly found in meteorites . It is in green or black colour.
Amphibole
Aluminium, calcium, silica, iron, magnesium are the major elements of amphiboles. They form
7 per cent of the earth’s crust . It is in green or black colour and is used in asbestos
industry . Hornblende is another form of amphiboles.
Mica
It comprises of potassium, aluminium, magnesium, iron, silica etc. It forms 4 per cent of
the earth’s crust. It is commonly found in igneous and metamorphic rocks . It is used in elec
trical instruments .

lPTiAxMw==
Which of the following is an example of Igneous rocks?
a) Granite
b) Pegmatite
c) Tuff
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth , they are known
as primary rocks . The igneous rocks (Ignis – in Latin means ‘Fire’) are formed when magma
cools and solidifies. When magma in its upward movement cools and turns into solid form it is
called igneous rock.
The process of cooling and solidification can happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface
of the earth.
Igneous rocks are classified based on texture . Texture depends upon size and arrangement
of grains or other physical conditions of the materials. If molten material is cooled slowly at
great depths, mineral grains may be very large. Sudden cooling (at the surface) results in small
and smooth grains. Intermediate conditions of cooling would result in intermediate sizes of
grains making up igneous rocks.
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Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples
of igneous rocks .

ElPTiAxNA==
Which of the following is the softest mineral?
a) Talc
b) Gypsum
c) Corundum
d) Calcite
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Hardness refers to relative resistance when being scratched.
Ten minerals are selected to measure the degree of hardness from 1-10.
They are: 1. talc; 2. gypsum; 3. calcite; 4. fluorite; 5. apatite; 6. feldspar; 7. quartz; 8. topaz; 9.
corundum; 10. diamond.
Compared to this for example, a fingernail is 2.5 and glass or knife blade is 5.5 .

ElPTiAxNQ==
Consider the following statements about the different forces acting on the Earth.
1. The endogenic forces are mainly land building forces and the exogenic processes are mainly
land wearing forces.
2. Diastrophism and weathering are examples of exogenic geomorphic processes.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
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The earth’s crust is dynamic. The differences in the internal forces operating from within the
earth which built up the crust have been responsible for the variations in the outer surface of
the crust. The earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to external forces induced
basically by energy (sunlight)
The earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to by external forces originating within the
earth’s atmosphere and by internal forces from within the earth. The external forces are
known as exogenic forces and the internal forces are known as endogenic forces . The
actions of exogenic forces result in wearing down (degradation) of relief/elevations and filling
up (aggradation) of basins/ depressions, on the earth’s surface.
The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through
erosion is known as gradation.
Do you know?
The endogenic forces continuously elevate or build up parts of the earth’s surface and
hence the exogenic processes fail to even out the relief variations of the surface of the earth.
So, variations remain as long as the opposing actions of exogenic and endogenic forces
continue. In general terms, the endogenic forces are mainly land building forces and the
exogenic processes are mainly land wearing forces.
Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes.
Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and deposition are exogenic geomorphic processes.

ElPTiAxNg==
Which of the following is an example of physical weathering?
a) Hydration
b) Exfoliation
c) Carbonation
d) Oxidation and reduction
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Physical or mechanical weathering processes depend on some applied forces. The applied
forces could be:
· Gravitational forces such as overburden pressure, load and shearing stress, exfoliation.
· Expansion forces due to temperature changes, crystal growth or animal activity.
· Water pressures controlled by wetting and drying cycles.
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Many of these forces are applied both at the surface and within different earth materials
leading to rock fracture. Most of the physical weathering processes are caused by thermal
expansion and pressure release.
These processes are small and slow but can cause great damage to the rocks because of
continued fatigue the rocks suffer due to repetition of contraction and expansion.
Solution, carbonation, hydration and oxidation and reduction are examples of chemical
weathering processes.

ElPTiAxNw==
Waterfalls and rapids are associated with which stage of the river?
a) Youth stage
b) Mature stage
c) Old stage
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
In humid regions, which receive heavy rainfall running water is considered the most important
of the geomorphic agents in bringing about the degradation of the land surface. There are two
components of running water. One is overland flow on general land surface as a sheet. Another
is linear flow as streams and rivers in valleys.
The characteristics of each of the stages of landscapes developing in running water regimes are
as follows
Youth
Streams are few during this stage with poor integration and flow over original slopes showing
shallow V-shaped valleys with no floodplains or with very narrow floodplains along trunk
streams. Streams divides are broad and flat with marshes, swamp and lakes. Meanders if
present develop over these broad upland surfaces. These meanders may eventually entrench
themselves into the uplands. Waterfalls and rapids may exist where local hard rock bodies
are exposed.
Mature
During this stage streams are plenty with good integration. The valleys are still V-shaped but
deep; trunk streams are broad enough to have wider floodplains within which streams may flow
in meanders confined within the valley. The flat and broad inter stream areas and swamps and
marshes of youth disappear and the stream divides turn sharp. Waterfalls and rapids
disappear.
Old
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Smaller tributaries during old age are few with gentle gradients. Streams meander freely over
vast floodplains showing natural levees, oxbow lakes, etc. Divides are broad and flat with lakes,
swamps and marshes. Most of the landscape is at or slightly above sea level.

ElPTiAxOA==
Which of the following is a depositional landform formed by glacier?
a) Deltas
b) Moraines
c) Cirque
d) Arete
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Masses of ice moving as sheets over the land (continental glacier or piedmont glacier if a vast
sheet of ice is spread over the plains at the foot of mountains) or as linear flows down the slopes
of mountains in broad trough-like valleys (mountain and valley glaciers) are called glaciers.
A glacier in its valley is slow unlike water flow. The movement could be a few centimetres to
a few metres a day or even less or more. Glaciers move basically because of the force of
gravity.
Erosion by glaciers is tremendous because of friction caused by sheer weight of the ice .
The material plucked from the land by glaciers (usually large-sized angular blocks and
fragments) get dragged along the floors or sides of the valleys and cause great damage through
abrasion and plucking.
Glaciers can cause significant damage to even un-weathered rocks and can reduce high
mountains into low hills and plains. As glaciers continue to move, debris gets removed, divides
get lowered and eventually the slope is reduced to such an extent that glaciers will stop moving
leaving only a mass of low hills and vast outwash plains along with other depositional features.
Delta is a depositional landform formed by running river not glacier.
Erosional landforms formed by glaciers
1) Cirque
2) Horns and serrated ridges
3) Glacial valleys/troughs
Depositional landforms formed by glaciers
1) Moraines
2) Eskers
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3) Outwash plains
4) Drumlins

ElPTiAxOQ==
Which of the following act as the ideal conditions to speed up chemical weathering process?
a) Hot and humid

b) Hot and dry
c) Cold and humid
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Weathering processes are conditioned by many complex geological, climatic, topographic

and vegetative factors . Climate is of particular importance.
Not only weathering processes differ from climate to climate, but also the depth of the
weathering mantle.
Chemical Weathering
Processes A group of weathering processes namely solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation

and reduction act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a fine clastic state
through chemical reactions by oxygen, surface and/or soil water and other acids.
Water and air (oxygen and carbon dioxide) along with heat must be present to speed up
all chemical reactions. Over and above the carbon dioxide present in the air, decomposition of
plants and animals increases the quantity of carbon dioxide underground.
These chemical reactions on various minerals are very much similar to the chemical reactions
in a laboratory.

ElPTiAyMA==
Which of the following best describes the process of foliation?
a) It is a layered arrangement of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks due to deformation

caused by tectonic shearing together with high temperature or pressure or both.
b) It is an arrangement of minerals or grains in igneous rocks due to deformation caused by
tectonic shearing together with high temperature or pressure or both.
c) It is an arrangement of minerals or grains in sedimentary rocks due to deformation caused
by tectonic shearing together with high temperature or pressure or both.
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d) It is a process in which minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into circular
crystals in igneous rocks.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Mechanical disruption and reorganisation of the original minerals within rocks due to breaking
and crushing without any appreciable chemical changes is called dynamic metamorphism.
The materials of rocks chemically alter and recrystallize due to thermal metamorphism. There
are two types of thermal metamorphism — contact metamorphism and regional
metamorphism. In contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding
magma and lava and the rock materials recrystallize under high temperatures.
Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava are added to the rocks. In regional
metamorphism, rocks undergo recrystallization due to deformation caused by tectonic
shearing together with high temperature or pressure or both . In the process of
metamorphism in some rocks, grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an
arrangement of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks is called foliation or
lineation . Sometimes minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into alternating
thin to thick layers appearing in light and dark shades. Such a structure in metamorphic
rocks is called banding and rocks displaying banding are called banded rocks.

ElPTiAyMQ==
The boundary between Indian and the Antarctic plate is marked by oceanic ridge. What type of
plate boundary makes it possible?
a) Continent-Continent convergence
b) Continent-Oceanic convergence
c) Continent-Oceanic divergence
d) Oceanic-Oceanic divergence
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Indian plate includes Peninsular India and the Australian continental portions. The
subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the northern plate boundary in the form of contine
nt— continent convergence . In the east, it extends through Rakinyoma Mountains of
Myanmar towards the island arc along the Java Trench. The eastern margin is a spreading site
lying to the east of Australia in the form of an oceanic ridge in SW Pacific. The Western margin
follows Kirthar Mountain of Pakistan. It further extends along the Makrana coast and joins the
spreading site from the Red Sea rift south-eastward along the Chagos Archipelago.
The boundary between Indian and the Antarctic plate is also marked by oceanic ridge
(divergent boundary) running in roughly W-E direction and merging into the spreading site, a
little south of New Zealand.
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ElPTiAyMg==
Consider the following statements about earthquake waves.
1. Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and are considered to be
the most damaging waves.
2. P waves are similar to sound waves, as they travel through gaseous, Solid and liquid
mediums.
3. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves
are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling
through the body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves.
The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface
waves. These waves move along the surface. The velocity of waves changes as they travel
through materials with different densities. The denser the material, the higher is the
velocity . Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across materials
with different densities.
There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and
are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’ . The P-waves
are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves
arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. An important fact
about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials. This characteristic of the S-
waves is quite important. It has helped scientists to understand the structure of the interior of
the earth.
Do you know?
All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere. An instrument called ‘seismograph’
records the waves reaching the surface.
Emergence of Shadow Zone
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there
exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow
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zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether
different shadow zone.
It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre,
recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145°
from epicentre; record the arrival of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between
105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves.
The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much
larger than that of the P-waves.
The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away
from the epicentre.
The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of
the earth surface.

ElPTiAyMw==
When subjected to the process of metamorphosis, limestone gets converted into which of the
following rocks?
a) Marble
b) Gneiss
c) Schist
d) Quartzite
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Rocks do not remain in their original form for long but may undergo transformation. Rock cycle
is a continuous process through which old rocks are transformed into new ones. Igneous rocks
are primary rocks and other rocks (sedimentary and metamorphic) form from these primary
rocks.
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ElPTiAyNA==
Consider the following statements about Volcanoes
1. These volcanoes outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances.
2. The Deccan Traps from India, presently covering most of the Maharashtra plateau are
examples of this volcano.
Which is the volcano that is referred to here?
a) Shield volcano
b) Composite volcano
c) Cone Volcano
d) Caldera
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Flood Basalt Provinces or Shield Volcano - These volcanoes outpour highly fluid lava
that flows for long distances. Some parts of the world are covered by thousands of sq. km of
thick basalt lava flows. There can be a series of flows with some flows attaining thickness of
more than 50 m.
Individual flows may extend for hundreds of km. The Deccan Traps from India, presently
covering most of the Maharashtra plateau, are a much larger flood basalt province.
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It is believed that initially the trap formations covered a much larger area than the present.
Do you know?
Composite Volcanoes
These volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than
basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities
of pyroclastic material and ashes find their way to the ground. This material accumulates in the
vicinity of the vent openings leading to formation of layers, and this makes the mounts appear
as composite volcanoes.

ElPTiAyNQ==
Which of the following best describes Asthenosphere?
a) It is a part of the upper portion of the mantle

b) It is the region extending beyond the mantle portion
c) It is that portion of the earth which includes crust and the upper most solid mantle
d) It is the portion of the interior beyond the crust
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
STRUCTURE OF THE EARTH
The Crust
It is the outermost solid part of the earth . It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust
varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to
the continental crust . It is made up of heavier rocks having density of 3 g/cm3. This type of
rock found in the oceanic crust is basalt. The mean density of material in oceanic crust is 2.7 g/
cm3.
The Mantle
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle . The mantle extends
from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called
asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending from 200 km to
700 km.(Note different sources have given different depths of asthenosphere. However, this is
the most accepted one.) It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface d
uring volcanic eruptions. It has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3) . The crust
and the uppermost solid part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from
10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state .
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The Core
The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. The outer core is in liquid
state while the inner core is in solid state. The density of material at the mantle core
boundary is around 5 g/cm3 and at the centre of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is
around 13g/cm3.
The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is
sometimes referred to as the nife layer.

ElPTiAyNg==
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Potential Resources?
1. They are being widely used across the globe.
2. They are present in a very small quantity.
3. They are not being currently used but can be used in future if technology is developed.
Select the code from below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Potential resources are those whose entire quantity may not be known and these are not being
used at present. These resources could be used in the future.
The level of technology we have at present may not be advanced enough to easily utilise these
resources. The uranium found in Ladakh is an example of potential resource that could be used
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in the future. High speed winds were a potential resource two hundred years ago. Today they
are an actual resource and wind farms generate energy using windmills like in Netherlands.
You will find some in Nagercoil in Tamil Nadu and on the Gujarat coast.

ElPTiAyNw==
Mulching is a method of soil conservation. Which of the following statements correctly defines
the process of Mulching?
a) Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the
soil from rain wash.
b) Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow
down the slope
c) Rows of trees are planted to check the wind movement to protect soil cover
d) The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like straw.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Soil erosion and depletion are the major threats to soil as a resource. Both human and natural
factors can lead to degradation of soils. Factors which lead to soil degradation are
deforestation, overgrazing, overuse of chemical feritilisers or pesticides, rain wash, landslides
and floods.
Some methods of soil conservation are listed below:
Mulching: The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like stra
w. It helps to retain soil moisture.
Contour barriers : Stones, grass, soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are
made in front of the barriers to collect water.
Rock dam : Rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water. This prevents gullies and
further soil loss.
Terrace farming : Broad flat steps or terraces are made on the steep slopes so that flat
surfaces are available to grow crops. They reduce surface run-off and soil erosion.
Intercropping : Different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to
protect the soil from rain wash.
Contour ploughing : Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier
for water to flow down the slope.
Shelter belts : In the coastal and dry regions, rows of trees are planted to check the wind
movement to protect soil cover.
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ElPTiAyOA==
Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out. This process of extraction of mineral is
called
a) Shaft Mining
b) Drilling
c) Quarrying
d) Fracking
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the earth’s surface is called mining.
Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer; this is known as
open cast mining. Deep bores, called shafts, have to be made to reach mineral deposits that lie
at great depths. This is called shaft mining. Petroleum and natural gas occur far below the
earth’s surface. Deep wells are bored to take them out, this is called drilling. Minerals that lie
near the surface are simply dug out, by the process known as quarrying.

ElPTiAyOQ==
Which of the following minerals are referred to as ‘Buried Sunshine’?
a) Coal
b) Copper
c) Mercury
d) Petroleum
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Coal
This is the most abundantly found fossil fuel. It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries such as
iron and steel, steam engines and to generate electricity. Electricity from coal is called thermal
power. The coal which we are using today was formed millions of years ago when giant ferns an
d swamps got buried under the layers of earth. Coal is therefore referred to as Buried Sunshine.

ElPTiAzMA==
Wind is a renewable source of energy. Windmills have been used from immemorial. Which of the
following were done with the help of wind mills?
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1. Grinding of grains
2. Lifting water
3. Generation of electricity
4. Providing wind to people during summers
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Wind Energy
Wind is an inexhaustible source of energy. Wind mills have been used for grinding grain and
lifting water since times immemorial. In modern time wind mills, the high speed winds rotate
the wind mill which is connected to a generator to produce electricity. Wind farms having
clusters of such wind mills are located in coastal regions and in mountain passes where strong
and steady winds blow. Windfarms are found in Netherlands, Germany, Denmark, UK, USA and
Spain are noted for their wind energy production.
India's southern state of Tamil Nadu is a world leader when it comes to renewable energy . Its
wind turbines have a combined installed capacity of 7.9 gigawatts (GW).

ElPTiAzMQ==
Geothermal energy of the earth is due to
1. Radioactive decay of elements in the earth’s interior
2. Primordial heat of earth
3. Absorption of solar radiation
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
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Solution (a)
Geothermal Energy
Geothermal energy is the heat from the Earth. It's clean and sustainable. Resources of
geothermal energy range from the shallow ground to hot water and hot rock found a few miles
beneath the Earth's surface, and down even deeper to the extremely high temperatures of
molten rock called magma.
The geothermal energy of the Earth's crust originates from the original formation of the planet
and from radioactive decay of materials (in currently uncertain but possibly roughly equal
proportions). The geothermal gradient, which is the difference in temperature between the core
of the planet and its surface, drives a continuous conduction of thermal energy in the form of
heat from the core to the surface.

ElPTiAzMg==
Which of the following statements regarding ‘Streak’ (in relation to minerals) are correct?
1. Colour of the ground powder of any mineral is called Streak.
2. Streaks may be of same colour as the mineral or different.
Select the code from following
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Streak - It refers to the colour of the ground powder of any mineral. It may be of the same
colour as the mineral or may differ — malachite is green and gives green streak, fluorite is
purple or green but gives a white streak.

ElPTiAzMw==
Which of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘Petrology’?
a) It is science of soils
b) It is science of rocks
c) It is science of petroleum
d) It is science of coal
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Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Petrology is science of rocks.
A petrologist studies rocks in all their aspects viz., mineral composition, texture, structure,
origin, occurrence, alteration and relationship with other rocks.
Think
· Pedology

ElPTiAzNA==
Which of the following process leads to the formation of folding mountains?
a) Orography
b) Epeirogeny
c) Volcanism
d) Earthquakes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under
diastrophism. They include:
(i) orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long
and narrow belts of the earth’s crust;
(ii) epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;
(iii) isostatic movements maintaining the crustal equilibrium;
(iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates.

ElPTiAzNQ==
Which of the following processes are correctly matched with their deriving forces/energies?
Process Driving Force
1. Weathering molecular stresses/chemical action
2. Mass wasting Gravitational force
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3. Erosion Kinetic Energy
Select the code from the following:
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
All are correctly matched.
Mass wasting , also known as slope movement or mass movement, is the geomorphic process
by which soil, sand, regolith, and rock move downslope typically as a mass , largely under the
force of gravity, but frequently affected by water and water content as in submarine
environments and mudflows.
Note: Point to be considered is that that Mass wasting is only because of the
gravitational pull and not due to any other external agent.

ElPTiAzNg==
Salt Weathering is a kind of:
a) Physical Weathering
b) Chemical weathering
c) Biological weathering
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Salt weathering is a type of physical weathering.
Salt Weathering
Salts in rocks expand due to thermal action, hydration and crystallisation. Many salts like
calcium, sodium, magnesium, potassium and barium have a tendency to expand. Expansion of
these salts depends on temperature and their thermal properties. High temperature ranges
between 30 and 50oC of surface temperatures in deserts favour such salt expansion. Salt
crystals in near-surface pores cause splitting of individual grains within rocks, which eventually
fall off. This process of falling off of individual grains may result in granular disintegration or
granular foliation.
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ElPTiAzNw==
Meanders are the sinous bends of the river in its course. Which of the following statements are
correct about meanders?
1. Meanders are the result of both erosional and depositional processes .
2. They are found in the upper course of a river
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Meanders:
· A meander, in general, is a bend in a sinuous watercourse or river .
· Meanders are the result of both erosional and depositional processes . A meander forms
when moving water in a stream erodes the outer banks and widens its valley, and the inner part
of the river has less energy and deposits silt.
· They are typical of the middle and lower course of a river .

ElPTiAzOA==
An imaginary line connecting the deepest points in a river channel is called
a) Meander
b) Thalweg
c) Contour
d) Isohyte
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Thalweg
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In geography and fluvial geomorphology, a thalweg or talweg is the line of lowest elevation
within a valley or watercourse. Under international law, a thalweg is the middle of the primary
navigable channel of a waterway that defines the boundary line between states.

ElPTiAzOQ==
Which of the following statements correctly defines Isostacy ?
a) Isostasy is the process by which the oceanic lithosphere is consumed at subduction zones.
b) Isostasy is the creation of oceanic crust at mid ocean ridges.
c) Isostasy is the balance of the Earth’s upper mantle on top of the rigid crust.
d) Isostasy is the phenomenon that explains the balance of the Earth’s rigid crust on top of the
upper mantle.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Isostacy
Isostasy, ideal theoretical balance of all large portions of Earth’s lithosphere as though they
were floating on the denser underlying layer, the asthenosphere, a section of the upper mantle
composed of weak, plastic rock that is about 110 km (70 miles) below the surface. Isostasy
controls the regional elevations of continents and ocean floors in accordance with the densities
of their underlying rocks.
Following Video will make the concept of Isostacy clearer.
https://www.britannica.com/science/isostasy-geology

lPTiA0MA==
Which of the following correctly explains ‘ Cratonic Landscape’?
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a) Region of young Alpine mountain ranges

b) Regions around Mid Oceanic ridge
c) Regions of Hot Spot Activity
d) Old and tectonically stable part of Continent
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Craton
Craton, the stable interior portion of a continent characteristically composed of ancient

crystalline basement rock. The term craton is used to distinguish such regions from mobile
geosynclinal troughs, which are linear belts of sediment accumulations subject to subsidence
(i.e., downwarping). The extensive central cratons of continents may consist of both shields and
platforms. A shield is that part of a craton in which (usually) Precambrian basement rocks crop
out extensively at the surface. By contrast, in a platform the basement is overlain by horizontal
or subhorizontal sediments.
The Orange/red areas in the above map show the craton regions of the World.

lPTiA0MQ==
Faults are fractures in the Earth’s crust. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding Faults?
1. They are formed only due to tension.
2. Rifts valleys are formed due to Faulting
3. Faults in igneous rocks lead to formation of synclines and anticlines
4. Reverse Faults are formed in case of compression
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a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 1,3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Faults:
A fault is a fracture in the earth’s crust due to tension force. It can also occur due to
compression in hard and brittle rocks.
· When there is tension the crust ruptures. One block is thrown upwards and the other
downwards. The upthrown block is called Horst while the downthrown block is called Graben .
The line along which the fault occurs is called strike. This fault is called normal fault and is
most common. In case of a normal fault, new surface is generated in the form of scarp.
· When there is compression, in case of hard rocks, instead of folding, the faulting occurs. The
block with hanging wall is thrown upwards while the one with footwall is thrown downwards.
This is called a reverse fault. In case of a reverse fault there is net destruction of the surface.
· When the forces are acting parallel to each other, along the line of fault the blocks move past
each other without being upthrown or downthrown. This is called lateral fault.
The landforms formed due to faulting of land are block mountains, rift valleys, step mountains,
hinge faults, scissors fault etc.

ElPTiA0Mg==
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Kilauea Volcano has been in news for quite some time for its continuous activity and oozing of
Lava. Where is it located?
a) Hawaii
b) Japan
c) Italy
d) Indonesia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Kilauea Volcano lies in Hawaii state of USA.
https://www.theguardian.com/us-news/2018/jul/24/hawaiis-kilauea-volcano-eruption-could-last-
for-years-geologists-warn
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=xgiZCrkRMhE

lPTiA0Mw==
Which of the following are intrusive volcanic landforms?
1. Crater
2. Sill
3. Dyke
4. Batholith
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Intrusive volcanic landforms:
IASbaba
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Rocks formed by cooling of magma within the crust are called ‘Plutonic rocks’ or ‘Intrusive’
landforms.
Batholith: Batholiths are formed deep below the surface when large masses of magma cool
and solidify. As the magma cools slowly, large crystals are formed in the rock (e.g. granite).
Batholiths are often dome-shaped and exposed by later erosion.
Laccolith: Sometimes smaller injections of magma fom a lens shape that is intruded between
layers of rock. This then forces the overlying strata (layers of rock) to arch upawards, forming a
dome. This feature is knwon as a laccolith, and it may be exposed by later weathering and
erosion to form a small range of hills, for example the Eildon Hills on the Scottish Borders.
Dykes: These are vertical intrusions with horizontal colloing crakcs. They cut across the
bedding planes of the rocks into which they have been intruded. Dykes often occur in groups
where they are knwon as dyke swarms.
Fig: Dyke
Sill: These are horizontal intrusions along the lines of bedding planes. Sills have vertical
cooling cracks.
IASbaba
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Fig: Sill
Lapolith : This is an intrusion of a saucer-shaped feature in between rock strata of sedimentary

rocks.

ElPTiA0NA==
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Tsunamis?
1. They are triggered by earthquakes and vertical displacement of water in ocean.
2. As a Tsunami wave approaches the coast its velocity increases.
3. As a Tsunami wave approaches the coast its height increase.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Tsunamis:
The seismic waves travelling through the ocean and sea water results into high sea waves
which are known as tsunamis. ‘Tsunami’ is a Japanese term which has been universally adopted
to describe a large seismically generated sea wave. These waves are responsible for causing
considerable destruction in certain coastal areas where submarine earthquakes occur.
Pre – conditions for Tsunami:
IASbaba
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For a Tsunami to occur, two conditions are required:
· There should be an earthquake from which energy can be transferred.
· There should be a vertical displacement of the water. i.e. during earthquake the crust should
move vertically. That’s why Tsunamis are originated near oceanic trenches where plates are
being subducted. In Atlantic Ocean, a number of earthquakes occur on Mid – Oceanic ridge but
since there is no sudden vertical movement, Tsunamis are not formed. Tsunamis can also be
triggered if seamounts break. This can cause vertical displacement of water.
Process of Generation of Tsunami:
When a tsunami is generated, its steepness i.e. height to length ratio, is very less. This enables
it to pass unnoticed beneath the ships in the sea. As the wave approaches shore, the height of
the wave rapidly increases because of rebound from the shallow surface. The period of the
wave remains constant, velocity drops and the height increases as it approaches near
the coast from the Open Ocean. In confined coastal waters relatively close to their point of
origin, tsunamis can reach a height of more than 30m. Tsunamis travels at the speed of 100
-150 km/h which may pick up 650-900 km/h.
It may travel considerable distance. The frequency of tsunami is highest in Pacific Ocean.

ElPTiA0NQ==
Which of the following forces is responsible for Landslides?
a) Kinetic energy of Running water

b) Glaciers
c) Gravity
d) Strong winds
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Landslides
A landslide is the movement of rock, debris or earth down a slope. They result from the failure
of the materials which make up the hill slope and are driven by the force of gravity. Landslides a
re known also as landslips, slumps or slope failure.
Types of landslide Movements:
· Falls are masses dislodged from very steep slopes or escarpments which then free-fall,
bounce, or roll downslope. Falls usually move extremely rapidly.
· Topples are a forward rotation around a pivot point low or below one or more masses.
IASbaba
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· Lateral spreads are the result of movement involving lateral extension accommodated by
shear or tensile fractures. This type of movement is earthquake-induced.
· Slides displace masses along one or more discrete planes. Slides may either be rotational or
translational in their movement.
· Rotational movement is where the plane is curved. The mass rotates backwards around a
common point with an axis parallel to the slope.
· Translational movement is where the plane is more or less planar or gently undulating. The
mass moves roughly parallel to the ground surface.
· Flows are masses moving as a deforming, viscous unit without a discrete failure plane.
· More than one form of movement may be represented in some landslides. Movement in this
case is often described as complex.
IASbaba
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ElPTiA0Ng==
What type of rocks show Karst Landform formation?
a) Sand Stone
b) Limestone and Dolomite
c) Granite
d) Pumice
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Karst Landforms
Karst is a topography formed from the dissolution of soluble rocks such as limestone, dolomite,
and gypsum. It is characterized by underground drainage systems with sinkholes and caves. It
has also been documented for more weathering-resistant rocks, such as quartzite, given the
right conditions. Subterranean drainage may limit surface water, with few to no rivers or lakes.
However, in regions where the dissolved bedrock is covered (perhaps by debris) or confined by
one or more superimposed non-soluble rock strata, distinctive karst features may occur only at
subsurface levels and be totally missing above ground.
Surface Landforms
Different depressions are formed on the surface by seeping of water –
Sink hole – It is a small deep depression formed on the surface. A sinkhole is a depression in
the ground that has no natural external surface drainage. Basically this means that when it
rains, all of the water stays inside the sinkhole and typically drains into the subsurface.
Sinkholes are most common on Karst Terrain.
IASbaba
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Doline – Few sinkholes combine to form a larger depression called Doline. Sometimes clay gets
settled on the bottom of Doline stopping water to seep through it. When water gets
accumulated in the doline, it is known as a Doline Lake.
Uvala – several Dolines combine to form a Uvala.
Polje – When an underground cave collapse, over the surface a large depression is formed. It is
called Polje.
Subsurface Landforms
Stalactites and Stalagmites –
Stalactite and stalagmite, elongated forms of various minerals deposited from solution by slowly
dripping water. A stalactite hangs like an icicle from the ceiling or sides of a cavern. A
stalagmite appears like an inverted stalactite, rising from the floor of a cavern.
Coloumn – When stalactite and stalagmite meet, they form a complete pillar in the
underground cave. This is called a coloumn.

ElPTiA0Nw==
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Soils?
1. Finely divided, partially decomposed organic matter in soil is called humus.
2. Air in soils may have high levels of CO 2 and methane and low O 2 .
3. Water present in soil does not contain any dissolved nutrient.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 only
IASbaba
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Soil consists of matter in all the three states – solid, liquid and gaseous.
Mineral Matter: Inorganic materials, or those materials that are not living, include weathered
rocks and minerals.
Organic matter: Organic matter has biological origin and can be living or dead.
Humus
Finely divided, partially decomposed organic matter in soil is called humus. (Note: This is the
complete definition of humus. learn it this way.) When abundant, humus particles can give the
soil brown or black colouration.
Both air and water are found in soil. Water may tend to contain high levels of dissolved
nutrients.
Air in soils may have high levels of CO 2 and methane and low O 2 .
Solid, liquid and gaseous matter in soil are constantly changing and interacting through
physical and chemical processes. This makes the soil a very dynamic layer. The soil science is
called ‘ Pedology’.

ElPTiA0OA==
World’s longest Sandstone cave named ‘ Krem Puri ’ has been discovered in India. It is located
in
a) Maharashtra
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Krem Puri
The world's longest sandstone cave named Krem Puri was recently discovered in Meghalaya. It
has a staggering length of 24.5 km, almost three times the height of Mount Everest, and
contains some dinosaur fossils from 66-76 million years ago as well.
'Krem' means 'cave' in Khasi language. The cave system which is 24,583 metres long was
discovered in near Laitsohum village, located in the Mawsynram area in Meghalaya's East
Khasi Hills district.
IASbaba
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Though Krem Puri had been discovered in 2016 itself, its actual length was mapped only
recently when the Meghalaya Adventurers' Association (MAA) took a 25-day expedition to this
end.

ElPTiA0OQ==
A new Epoch has been added in the geological History named as Meghalayan Age. It refers to
history from
a) 4200 years BP (Before Present)

b) 4200 Thousand Years BP
c) 4200 Million years BP
d) 42 million years BP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Meghalayan Age
In the geologic time scale, the Meghalayan is the latest age or uppermost stage of the
Quaternary. It is also the upper or latest of three subdivisions of the Holocene epoch or series.
Its Global Boundary Stratotype Section and Point (GSSP) is a Mawmluh cave formation from
Meghalaya, northeast India.
The Meghalayan begins 4,200 years BP ie. before 1950 , leaving open room for the
possible creation of the Anthropocene from 1950 forward. The age began with a 200-year
drought which impacted human civilizations in Egypt, Greece, Syria, Palestine, Mesopotamia,
the Indus Valley and the Yangtze River Valley.
"The fact that the beginning of this age coincides with a cultural shift caused by a global
climate event makes it unique", according to Stanley Finney, Secretary General of the
International Union of Geological Sciences.
The age was officially ratified by the ICS in July 2018 along with the Greenlandian and the
Northgrippian.

lPTiA1MA==
Consider the following statements about the term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)’
1. It is concerned with exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational

companies
2. BEPS Project is formulated by World Economic Forum and United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP)
Select the correct statements
IASbaba
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a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS)
· It refers to tax avoidance strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially
shift profits to low or no-tax locations.
· The Inclusive Framework on BEPS brings together over 115 countries and jurisdictions to
collaborate on the implementation of the OECD/ G20 Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)
Package.
· OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework on Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) and its members
tackles tax avoidance by ensuring the implementation of the measures agreed through the
BEPS Project, which targets multinational enterprises’ aggressive tax planning practices.
· In particular, four “minimum standards” are at the core of the BEPS measures: harmful tax
practices, treaty abuse, country-by-country reporting and dispute resolution mechanisms.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/us-reacting-to-beps-with-barriers-to-free-
fair-trade/article24505566.ece

lPTiA1MQ==
Which of the following is/are included in the ‘UNESCO’s List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage
of Humanity’?
1. Kutiyattam
2. Ramlila
3. Kumb Mela
Select the correct code:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 Only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
IASbaba
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Kumbh Mela was inscribed in 2017 in UNESCO’s Lists of Intangible Cultural Heritage. Ramlila
and Kutiyattam were inscribed in 2008.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1539899 (Implied Question)
In News: ‘Safeguarding the Intangible Cultural Heritage and Diverse Cultural Traditions of
India’
· Implemented by - Ministry of Culture
· Objective – To reinvigorate and revitalize various institutions, groups, individuals, etc. so that
they may engage in activities/ projects for strengthening, protecting, preserving and promoting
the rich intangible cultural heritage of India.
· The scheme is being implemented through Sangeet Natak Akademi, an autonomous

organisation under the Ministry of Culture.
Kutiyattam - https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/kutiyattam-sanskrit-theatre-00010
Ramlila - https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/ramlila-the-traditional-performance-of-the-
ramayana-00110
Kumbh Mela - https://ich.unesco.org/en/RL/kumbh-mela-01258

ElPTiA1Mg==
Which of the following Indian States borders ‘Bhutan’?
1. West Bengal
2. Sikkim
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Meghalaya
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
d) 2, 3 and 4 Only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The border is 699 km long, and adjoins the Indian states of Assam (267 km), Arunachal Pradesh
(217 km), West Bengal (183 km), and Sikkim (32 km).
THINK!
IASbaba
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· Indian States bordering Myanmar
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/befriending-the-neighbour/
article24497565.ece

lPTiA1Mw==
The term ‘AT2018Cow’ was recently in news in the context of
a) Quantum Mechanics
b) A newly developed ransomware attacking MacOS devices
c) A celestial object
d) A new diseases discovered in Switzerland affecting cows and buffaloes
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
AT2018cow
· It is a very bright celestial object seen close to the very small galaxy CGCG 137-068
· It is a powerful astronomical explosion, 10 – 100 times brighter than a normal supernova
· It is a Type Ic supernova . It is caused by the explosion of an extremely massive star which

has lost its outer layers of hydrogen and helium.
Supernova
· It is a transient astronomical event that occurs during the last stellar evolutionary stages of a
star's life, either a massive star or a white dwarf, whose destruction is marked by one final,
titanic explosion.
· This causes the sudden appearance of a "new" bright star, before slowly fading from sight over
several weeks or months or years.
THINK!
· ATLAS Telescope
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-opinion/the-deep-and-far-of-
science/article24499199.ece

ElPTiA1NA==
‘Foreign Direct Investment Confidence (FDI) Index’ is published by
a) World Economic Forum
IASbaba
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b) World Trade Organisation

c) World Bank
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
The Foreign Direct Investment Confidence (FDI) Index prepared by A.T. Kearney is an annual
survey which tracks the impact of likely political, economic, and regulatory changes on the
foreign direct investment intentions and preferences of CEOs, CFOs, and other top executives
of Global 1000 companies.
India was ranked 11 th in the2018 index.

India remains the second highest ranked emerging market on the Index. A variety of recent
reforms have made its regulatory environment more business friendly and economic growth is
forecast to rebound this year.
DO YOU KNOW?
· After the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) was abolished, Individual
departments of the government have been empowered to clear FDI proposals in consultation
with DIPP which will also issue the standard operating procedures for processing applications.
· All FDI from Pakistan and Bangladesh and FDI proposals requiring approval of private security
agencies and manufacture of small arms will require to be approved by Ministry of Home
Affairs. While foreign investments by non-resident Indians and FDI in retail and export oriented
units will be approved by DIPP, FDI in banks will be approved by the Department of Financial
Services. DIPP or Department of Economic Affairs will undertake a quarterly review of FDI
proposals.
· Financial Services not regulated by a regulator or where there is more than one regulator or
in respect of which there is a doubt about the regulator will be approved by Department of
Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/india-drops-three-ranks-in-at-
kearney-fdi-confidence-index/article24497785.ece

ElPTiA1NQ==
‘ Shekatkar Committee’ is NOT associated with which of the following?
1. Enhancing combat capability of the armed forces
2. Rebalancing defence expenditure of the armed forces
3. Border fencing along the India-Pakistan border
IASbaba
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a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 3
c) 3 Only
d) 2 Only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
The Ministry of Defence had constituted a Committee of Experts under the Chairmanship of Lt
Gen (Retd) (Dr.) DB Shekatkar with a mandate to recommend measures for enhancing of
Combat Capability & Rebalancing Defence Expenditure of the Armed Forces with an aim to
increase "teeth to tail ratio".
Recommendations & Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=180848

ElPTiA1Ng==
Consider the following statements about ‘Uganda’
1. It is part of the African Great Lakes region
2. It is bordered by Kenya, Rwanda and Burundi
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Uganda is a landlocked country in East Africa. It is bordered to the east by Kenya, to the north
by South Sudan, to the west by the Democratic Republic of the Congo, to the south-west by
Rwanda, and to the south by Tanzania. The southern part of the country includes a substantial
portion of Lake Victoria, shared with Kenya and Tanzania. Uganda is in the African Great Lakes
region. Uganda also lies within the Nile basin, and has a varied but generally a modified
equatorial climate.
The African Great Lakes are a series of lakes constituting the part of the Rift Valley lakes in and
around the East African Rift. They include Lake Victoria, the third-largest fresh water lake in
the world by area, and Lake Tanganyika, the world's second-largest freshwater lake by volume
and depth. Countries in the African Great Lakes region (sometimes also called Greater Lakes
region) include Burundi, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Rwanda, Tanzania and
Uganda.
IASbaba
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Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/india-
donates-200-cows-for-rwandan-economic-development-project/
articleshow/65116913.cms

ElPTiA1Nw==
Consider the following statements about ‘Salicornia’
1. Andhra Pradesh High Court has ordered the State government to enact a law on prohibition
of Salicornia as it releasing toxic chemicals into water bodies causing health problems in the
state.
2. It grows in abundance on salty marshes in the mangrove wetlands
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Salicornia
In News: Andhra Pradesh is exploring the possibilities to extract the salt substitute through
various methods.
About
· It is a genus of succulent, halophyte (salt tolerant) flowering plants
IASbaba
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· It is a plant that grows in abundance on salty marshes in the mangrove wetlands.
· The plant yields a salt substitute with low sodium content.
· They are widely distributed over the Northern Hemisphere and in southern Africa, ranging
from the subtropics to subarctic regions. They are absent from South America and Australia
THINK
· Halophytes
· Pneumatophores
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/state-to-tap-benefits-of-salicornia/
article24490729.ece

ElPTiA1OA==
Consider the following statements
1. GDP Deflator is the ratio of Nominal GDP to Real GDP
2. Nominal GDP is economic output without the inflation adjustment
3. Real GDP is usually higher than the Nominal GDP
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
GDP deflator
· It also called implicit price deflator.
· It is a measure of inflation.
· It is the ratio of the value of goods and services an economy produces in a particular year at
current prices to that of prices that prevailed during the base year.
· This ratio helps show the extent to which the increase in gross domestic product has happened
on account of higher prices rather than increase in output.
IASbaba
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· Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods and services produced in the economy — as
against the limited commodity baskets for the wholesale or consumer price indices — it is seen
as a more comprehensive measure of inflation.
Real vs nominal GDP
· GDP price deflator measures the difference between real GDP and nominal GDP.
· Nominal GDP doesn’t include inflation. Real GDP includes inflation.
· As a result, nominal GDP will most often be higher than real GDP in an expanding economy
(inflation is typically a positive number).
The formula to find the GDP price deflator:
· GDP price deflator = (nominal GDP ÷ real GDP) x 100
WPI and CPI
· A consumer price index (CPI) measures changes over time in the general level of prices of
goods and services that households acquire for the purpose of consumption.
· However, since CPI is based only a basket of select goods and is calculated on prices included
in it, it does not capture inflation across the economy as a whole.
· The wholesale price index basket has no representation of the services sector and all the
constituents are only goods whose prices are captured at the wholesale/producer level.
Deflator <> CPI
· Changes in consumption patterns or introduction of goods and services are automatically

reflected in the GDP deflator.
· This allows the GDP deflator to absorb changes to an economy’s consumption or investment
patterns.
· Often, the trends of the GDP deflator will be similar to that of the CPI.
· GDP deflator reflects up-to-date expenditure patterns.
· GDP deflator is available only on a quarterly basis along with GDP estimates, whereas CPI and
WPI data are released every month.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-is-the-gdp-deflator/
article24489279.ece

ElPTiA1OQ==
Which of the following statements about Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act
(POCSO) is/are correct?
1. The Act defines a child as any person below 16 years of age
IASbaba
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2. An online complaint box for reporting child sexual abuse, the POCSO e-Box was launched by
the Minister for Women and Child Development
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO)
News: Proposed for enhanced punishment in cases of sexual assault of male children
· It was established to protect the children against offences like sexual abuse, sexual
harassment and pornography.
· It was formed to provide a child-friendly system for trial underneath which the perpetrators
could be punished.
· National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) will monitor the implementation
of the Act
· It defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age. It also makes provisions for
avoiding the re-victimisation of the child at the hands of the judicial system.
· It makes it mandatory to report such cases. It makes it the legal duty of a person aware of the
offence to report the sexual abuse.
· It also prescribes punishment to the people who traffic children for sexual purposes.
· It states that the evidence of the child should be recorded within a period of thirty days.
· The Special Court taking cognizance of the matter should be able to complete the trial within
the period of one year from the date of taking cognizance of the abuse.
· It provides that the Special Court proceedings should be recorded in camera and the trial
should take place in the presence of parents or any other person in whom the child has trust or
confidence.
· Ordinance in April 2018 - death penalty will be given to those convicted of raping a child up to
12 years of age.
· The POCSO e-box is an easy and direct medium for reporting any case of sexual assault under
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences {POCSO) Act, 2012. It is displayed prominently in
the home page of NCPCR website where the user has to simply press a button named, POCSO
e-box which will navigate to a page with the window having a short animation movie.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/wcd-to-move-proposal-to-
amend-pocso-act/article24491808.ece
IASbaba
Page 54
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lPTiA2MA==
What is the purpose of the recently proposed ‘SRIMAN Scheme’?
a) To enable the famous foreign education institutions to open their campuses in India
b) To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from
the private sector and the community
c) To address various issues for effective utilization of Government’s research infrastructure
d) To encourage voluntary monetary contribution from private individuals and organizations
so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
Scientific Research Infrastructure Management and Networks (SRIMAN)
NEWS: SRIMAN proposed to transform scientific instruments in government labs into lucrative
assets generating a steady rental income
About
· To address various issues for effective utilization of its research infrastructure.
· It plans to hire out to researchers all lab equipment that cost more than ₹10 lakh.
Objective
· Simplified but smarter ways of procurement and maintenance of scientific equipment and
infrastructure.
· Providing greater access to instruments funded by the Government of India and its agencies
through a network all over the country.
· Providing a framework for smarter ways of disposal of dated equipments and infrastructure
· Providing a framework to improve and promote efficiency of operations of research

infrastructure
· A broad template to monitor utilization of expensive research infrastructure.
Benefits
· It will promote creation of a regional ecosystem, by galvanizing relevant stakeholders of

scientific research infrastructure that provides wider access to scientists, researchers and
industry professionals across the country.
· It will also help in creating a pool of trained operators for operation and maintenance of the
equipment.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/education/rent-a-lab-policy-to-bring-revenues-to-
institutions/article24477344.ece
IASbaba
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Contact :

lPTiA2MQ==
‘Reverse Charge Mechanism’, recently in news, is associated with
a) Goods and Services Tax (GST)

b) Initial Public Offering (IPO)
c) Litigation over bounced cheques
d) Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
GST Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) basically means that the GST is to be paid and
deposited with the Govt by the recipient of Goods/ Services and not by the supplier of Goods/
Services.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=180825

ElPTiA2Mg==
Consider the following statements about ‘ Kamsale ’
1. It is a folk dance from Odisha performed solely by women
2. It is performed by the devotees of Lord Jagannath
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
Kamsale
· It is a folk dance belonging to Mysore region.
· It is a unique folk art performed by the devotees of God Mahadeshwara.
· Kamsale is a brass made musical instrument. Its origin is traced to the Mythological period.
IASbaba
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· The instrument kamsale has a gari (plate) and an adi battalu (cup). If gari signifies the sky, adi
battalu represents the earth. Together the kamsale taala is a symbol of this whole creation by
god.
· Traditionally, only men used to dance this. However, in the present times girls are not barred
from learning it.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/dance/cling-clang-fly-high-all-for-
the-god/article24470913.ece

lPTiA2Mw==
Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana –“ Saubha
gya ”
1. Poor households identified using Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 would be
provided with free electricity
2. Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY) and Integrated Power Development
Scheme (IPDS) have been subsumed under the ‘ Saubhagya ’ scheme
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
SAuBHaGYa: Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
· To achieve universal household electrification in the country
· To provide last mile connectivity and electricity connections to all households in rural and
urban areas.
· Free of cost electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households with at least one
deprivation on the basis of SECC data in rural areas and economically poor households in urban
areas would be given.
· Others would be charged a sum of Rs. 500 per household in ten equal instalments with the bill.
· The households located in remote and inaccessible areas would be provided with Solar
Photovoltaic (SPV) based standalone systems with LED lights, fan, power plug etc.
· The beneficiaries will be identified on the basis of socio economic conditions using SECC 2011
data.
IASbaba
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Contact :
· Target - universal household electrification in the country by 31st March 2019
· Saubhagya has been launched to plug gaps of DDUGJY & IPDS and comprehensively address
the issues of entry barrier, last mile connectivity and release of electricity connections to all un-
electrified households in rural and urban areas.
· ‘Saubhagya’ Web-Portal – a Platform for transparently monitoring Universal Household

Electrification
DO YOU KNOW?
Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)
· It envisages creation of basic electricity infrastructure in villages / habitations, strengthening

& augmentation of existing infrastructure, metering of existing feeders / distribution
transformers / consumers to improve quality and reliability of power supply in rural areas.
· Last mile connectivity and free electricity connections are also provided to BPL households
only identified by the States as per their list
Integrated Power Development Scheme (IPDS)
· To provide quality and reliable 24x7 power supply in the urban area
· It provides for creation of necessary infrastructure to provide electricity access but some
households are not yet connected mainly on account of their economic condition as they are not
capable of paying the initial connection charges.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1539203

ElPTiA2NA==
‘Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty’ was a treaty between
a) Countries carved out of Yugoslavia

b) Germany, Italy and France post World War II
c) United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR)
d) Japan and United States of America
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty)
START 1
· It was a bilateral treaty between the United States of America and the Union of Soviet
Socialist Republics (USSR) on the reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms.
IASbaba
Page 58
Contact :
· It barred its signatories from deploying more than 6,000 nuclear warheads atop a total of
1,600 inter-continental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) and bombers.
· The START I treaty expired 5 December 2009.
NEW START
· New START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the
United States and the Russian Federation with the formal name of Measures for the Further
Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms.
· It was signed on 8 April 2010 in Prague
· It is set to expire in 2021
THINK!
Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/rocky-summit/article24454560.ece

ElPTiA2NQ==
Consider the following statements about ‘International Comparison Programme (ICP)’
1. It supports inter-country comparisons of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and its components,
using Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
2. It is led by the World Bank under the auspices of the United Nations Statistical Commission.
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
International Comparison Program (ICP)
· The ICP is a worldwide statistical initiative led by the World Bank under the auspices of the
United Nations Statistical Commission, with the main objective of providing comparable price
and volume measures of gross domestic product (GDP) and its expenditure aggregates among
countries within and across regions.
· Through a partnership with international, regional, sub-regional and national agencies, the
ICP collects and compares price data and GDP expenditures to estimate and publish purchasing
power parities (PPPs) of the world’s economies.
IASbaba
Page 59
Contact :
PPPs
· PPPs measure the total amount of goods and services that a single unit of a country’s currency
can buy in another country.
· PPPs are widely used to convert national accounts data, like GDP, into a common currency,
while also eliminating the effect of price level differences between countries.
News: 50th Anniversary of the ICP

ElPTiA2Ng==
Consider the following statements about Communications Compatibility and Security
Agreement
1. It is one of United States’ foundational agreements, which is important for enhanced bilateral
defence cooperation with India
2. It will enable Indian military to obtain critical, secure and encrypted defence technologies
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
COMCASA is one of three foundational agreements that guide US high technology cooperation
in defence sector with other countries. Other two agreements are Logistics Exchange
Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) and BECA.
COMCASA creates the conditions for the Indian military to receive modern secure and net-
enabled weapons systems such as precision armament, air-to-air missiles, space systems and
navigation systems that are critical components in platforms like fighter aircraft and unmanned
aerial systems.
Being a ‘Major Defence Partner’ of the US, it is imperative for India to sign the mandatory three
foundational pacts which allows greater interoperability between critical technologies and
smooth facilitation of classified information.
So far, India has signed only one out of the three foundational agreements, called the Logistics
Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA). It enables access to each other’s military
facilities for purposes of refuelling and replenishment.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-going-ahead-with-purchase-of-
s-400-air-defence-systems-from-russia-nirmala-sitharaman/article24413391.ece
IASbaba
Page 60
Contact :

ElPTiA2Nw==
Consider the following statements about Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
1. It allows voters to verify if their vote has gone to the intended candidate
2. It will completely replace the electronic voting machines (EVMs)
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
What is VVPAT?
· A Voter-verified paper audit trail (VVPAT) unit provides feedback to voters using EVMs for
voting.
· The VVPAT functions as an independent verification system for EVMs and allows voters to
verify that their votes are cast as intended.
Working
· When the voter presses the button against the name of the candidate of her/his choice on the
EVM unit, the VVPAT unit generates a paper slip, also called ‘ballot slip’.
· This paper slip contains the name, serial number, and symbol of the chosen candidate.
· The voter can see this slip through a screened window where it stays for seven seconds and
then it automatically gets cut and falls into a sealed drop box. Thus, the ballot slip neither goes
into the hands of the voter nor others get to see it.
· The Ballot Slip can only be accessed by the polling officers in the rarest of the rare cases.
· It gives the voter an opportunity to challenge her/his vote on the basis of the paper receipt for
the first time.
DO YOU KNOW?
· Election Commission of India is mandated under Article 324 to 329 of the Constitution of India
to provide superintendence, direction and control for conduct of elections in accordance with
the law in force and not for catering to any speculation or debate.
THINK!
· NOTA
IASbaba
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Contact :
· First-past-the-post (FPTP) electoral system
· Single non-transferable vote

ElPTiA2OA==
Montague-Chelmsford proposals were related to
a) Social reforms
b) Constitutional reforms
c) Educational reforms
d) Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
Montagu-Chelmsford Report (MCR)
News: 100th year of the publication of the ‘Report on Indian constitutional reforms’,
About
· It was introduced to introduce self-governing institutions gradually to India.
· Edwin Montagu, then Secretary of State for India, had advocated for increased participation of
Indians in the British Indian administration and had begun consultations nearly a year earlier.
· It drew up a report, with the help of Bhupendra Nath Bose, Lord Donoghmore, William Duke
and Charles Roberts.
· Montagu and the then Governor-General, Lord Chelmsford, published the MCR in 1918.
· It advocated the need “to emancipate the local governments and legislatures from central
control; and to advance, by successive stages, in the direction of conferring responsible
government on the provinces.”
· It established the framework for devolution of powers and gave credence to the cry for self-
governance.
· The key principles of responsible government, self-governance and federal structure grew out
of these reforms.
THINK!
· Government of India Act, 1919
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/indias-magna-carta/
article24513886.ece
IASbaba
Page 62
Contact :

ElPTiA2OQ==
The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events
related to
a) Central Asia
b) West Asia
c) South-East Asia
d) Central Africa
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
It is a region in the Levant. The western two-thirds of this region are currently occupied by
Israel, whereas the eastern third is controlled by Syria.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/syrian-white-helmet-members-
flee-to-jordan/article24488994.ece

lPTiA3MA==
Consider the following statements about ‘LiDAR’
1. It uses radio waves and sound waves to detect objects and determine their range, angle, and/
or velocity
2. LIDAR pulses are unaffected by atmospheric weather conditions
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Solution (d)
LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging)
News: National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), an autonomous institution under the Ministry
of New and Renewable Energy has installed a remote sensing instrument- LiDAR for
assessment of offshore wind resource at Gulf of Khambat.
IASbaba
Page 63
Contact :
About
· It is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges
(variable distances) to the Earth.
· These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system— generate
precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface
characteristics.
· A LIDAR instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
· Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring LIDAR data
over broad areas.
· LIDAR works well in all light conditions, but starts failing with increases in snow, fog, rain, and
dust particles in the air due to its use of light spectrum wavelengths.
Types
· Topographic LIDAR typically uses a near-infrared laser to map the land.
· Bathymetric LIDAR uses water-penetrating green light to also measure seafloor and riverbed
elevations.
THINK!
· RADAR
· SONAR

lPTiA3MQ==
Consider the following statements about ‘Arctic Council’
1. All the Scandinavian countries are members of the council
2. Observer status in the Arctic Council is open to non-Arctic states
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
IASbaba
Page 64
Contact :
Arctic Council
It is the leading intergovernmental forum promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction

among the Arctic States, Arctic indigenous communities and other Arctic inhabitants on
common Arctic issues, in particular on issues of sustainable development and environmental
protection in the Arctic.
Member States – Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden and United
States
Observer status in the Arctic Council is open to non-Arctic states, along with inter-
governmental, inter-parliamentary, global, regional and non-governmental organizations that
the Council determines can contribute to its work. Arctic Council Observers primarily
contribute through their engagement in the Council at the level of Working Groups. India is an
observer state.
Scandinavian Countries – Denmark, Norway, Sweden, Finland, and Iceland.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-to-expand-
polar-research-to-arctic-as-well/article24463607.ece

ElPTiA3Mg==
Which of the following committees have been set up to suggest measures and legal framework
to effectively deal with incidents of mob violence and lynching?
a) Rajiv Gauba Committee

b) Bezbaruah Committee
c) Ratan Watal Committee
d) Ashok Dalwai Committee
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Solution (a)
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-constitutes-high-level-
committees-to-deal-with-mob-violence-lynching/article24496480.ece 173878

lPTiA3Mw==
Which of the following sectors registered highest FDI flow in 2017-18?
a) Computer Software & Hardware

b) Services Sector
c) Telecommunications
d) Construction (Infrastructure) Activities
IASbaba
Page 65
Contact :
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Solution (b)
* Services sector includes Financial, Banking, Insurance, Non-Financial / Business,

Outsourcing, R&D, Courier, Tech. Testing and Analysis
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/karnataka-sees-300-jump-
in-fdi-inflows-tn-rebounds/article24499216.ece

ElPTiA3NA==
Consider the following statements about Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP)
IASbaba
Page 66
Contact :
1. Under the FRP system, the farmers are not required to wait till the end of the season or for
any announcement of the profits by sugar mills or the Government.
2. FRP is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Solution (c)
FRP is the minimum price that the sugar mills have to pay to farmers. It is supposed to signal to
farmers the need to plant more or less cane for the coming year.
Under the FRP system, the farmers are not required to wait till the end of the season or for any
announcement of the profits by sugar mills or the Government. The new system also assures
margins on account of profit and risk to farmers, irrespective of the fact whether sugar mills
generate profit or not and is not dependent on the performance of any individual sugar mill.
In order to ensure that higher sugar recoveries are adequately rewarded and considering
variations amongst sugar mills, the FRP is linked to a basic recovery rate of sugar, with a
premium payable to farmers for higher recoveries of sugar from sugarcane.
It is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/govt-hikes-
sugarcane-frp-by-rs-20/article24450995.ece
IASbaba
Page 67

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Exam Title : 2019 - Test 2-Geography & C...

3. The expansion of the universe can be explained using this theory.

Choose the correct code

Choose the correct code

There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere.

The ﬁrst stage is marked by the loss of primordial atmosphere .

Choose the correct code

Exogenic as well as endogenic processes are constantly shaping the landscape . A

Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior . We

1. Oceanic crust is thicker as compared to the continental crust.

Choose the INCORRECT statement/s

Note: Incorrect statements have been asked.

a) Rocks of same age across the oceans

Evidence in Support of the Continental Drift

The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit)

Rocks of Same Age across the Oceans

Choose the correct code

Concept of sea ﬂoor spreading

2. Mid oceanic ridge is an example of convergent plate boundary.

3. The convergent boundary results in the generation of new crust.

Choose the correct code.

Plate tectonics theory

Proposed by Mackenzie, Parker and Morgan in 1967.

The major plates are as follows:

1. Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate

5. India-Australia-New Zealand plate

6. Africa with the eastern Atlantic ﬂoor plate

7. Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate.

Some important minor plates are listed below:

1. Cocos plate : Between Central America and Paciﬁc plate

2. Nazca plate : Between South America and Paciﬁc plate

3. Arabian plate : Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass

4. Philippine plate : Between the Asiatic and Paciﬁc plate

6. Fuji plate: North-east of Australia.

There are three types of plate boundaries:

QUESTION 10. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRV

Some important minor plates are listed below:

1. Cocos plate : Between Central America and Paciﬁc plate

2. Nazca plate : Between South America and Paciﬁc plate

3. Arabian plate : Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass

4. Philippine plate : Between the Asiatic and Paciﬁc plate

6. Fuji plate: North-east of Australia.

QUESTION 11. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

Select the code from following:

QUESTION 12. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

Choose the correct code

QUESTION 13. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

1. Half of the earth’s crust is composed of this mineral.

2. It has light cream to salmon pink colour.

3. It is mainly used in ceramics and glass making.

Choose the correct mineral

Some major minerals and their characteristics

QUESTION 14. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

QUESTION 15. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

Hardness refers to relative resistance when being scratched.

QUESTION 16. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV

2. Diastrophism and weathering are examples of exogenic geomorphic processes.

Choose the correct code

Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes.

QUESTION 17. MTczODc4K1JhaHVsIFNyZWVkaGFyK3JhaHVsc3JlZWRoYXI4Nzg3QGdtYWlsLmNvbStRVUVTV