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NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test No. –05

Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics : Oscillations,Waves
Chemistry: Hydrocarbons,Environmental chemistry, The Solid State,Solutions
Botany : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance : Introduction, The
DNA - Structure of Polynucleotide Chain, Packaging of DNA Helix, The Search of Genetic
Material - The Genetic Material is DNA, Properties of Genetic Material (DNA versus RNA), RNA
world, Replication - The Experimental Proof, The Machinery and The Enzymes, Transcription -
Transcription Unit
Zoology : Reproduction In Organisms,Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health

Choose the correct answer:

1. Which of the following examples represent (4) All of these
non-periodic motion? 3. Statement (A): Generally oscillatory motion is
(1) Uniform circular motion periodic motion.
(2) Orbital motion of planets Statement (B): Every periodic motion need not
be on oscillatory motion.
(3) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its
1. Only statement (A) is correct
centre of mass
2. Only statement (B) is correct
(4) Projectile motion 3. Both statement (A) and (B) are correct
2. Which of the following graph represent periodic 4. Neither statement (A) nor statement (B) are
motion correct
4. Which of the following represent (nearly)
simple harmonic motion.
(1) 1. A hydrogen molecule rotating about its
centre of mass
2. Motion of an oscillating water column in a U-
tube.
3. Vibrations of a polyatomic molecule about
its equilibrium position.
(2) 4. The rotation of earth about its axis
5. Statement (A): Simple harmonic motion arises
when the force on the oscillating body is
directly proportional to its displacement form
the mean position at any instant of oscillation,
this force is directed towards mean position.
Statement (B): Mean position is an unstable
(3) equilibrium position.
(1) Only statement (A) is correct
(2) Only statement (B) is correct

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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
(3) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct figure. A mass of 1 kg is attached to the free
(4) Neither statement (A) nor statement (B) are end of the spring. If the mass is pulled
correct sideways to a distance of 1.0 cm and released
then the maximum acceleration of the mass is
6. Which of the following functions of time
represent simple harmonic motion
(1) Sint + cos 2t
(2) Sint + cos t
–t
(3) e  
 (4) (1) and (2) are correct
7. The simple harmonic motion of the particle 2 2
(1) 10 10 m/s (2) 10 m/s
described by the displacement equation x 2 2
= sint – cost. the initial phase of the particle (3) 10 m/s (4) 20 m/s
is 13. Statement (A): Time period of a particle in
SHM depends on the force constant k and
 
(1) (2) mass m of the particle.
3 4
Statement (B): Time period of a pendulum is
3 7 dependent on the mass of pendulum
(3) (4)
2 4 (1) Only statement (A) is correct
8. A particle is in linear harmonic motion (2) Only statement (B) is correct
between two points, A and B, 4 cm apart. take (3) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct
the direction from A to B as the negative
direction, the signs of velocity and acceleration (4) Neither statement(A) nor (b) are correct
at 1 cm away from B going towards A, are 14. Two identical springs of spring constant K and
1. – , + 2. + , – 2K are attached to a block of mass M and to
fixed supports as given in figure. If the mass is
3. +, + 4. –, – displaced from its equilibrium position on either
9. Which of the following relationships between side, it executes a simple harmonic motion.
the force F and the displacement x of a particle The period of oscillations is
involve simple harmonic motion?
2
(1) F = 0.3 x (2) F = 20x
2
(3) F= – 4x (4) F = – 100 x
10. A body oscillates with SHM according to the
 3 
equation (in SI units), x = 2sin 2 t 
 4  (1) T  2
M
(2) T  2
3M
K 2K
3
The displacement at t  s is M M
2 (3) T  2 (4) T  2
2K 3K
1
(1) 2m (2)  m 15. A block whose mass is 1 kg is fastened to a
2
spring. The spring has a spring constant of 100
–1
(3) – 2 m (4) 2 m Nm . The block is pulled to a distance x = 8
cm from its equilibrium position at x = 0 on a
11. A spring with spring constant 100 N/m with
frictionless surface from rest at t = 0. The
both ends free and attached to a mass of 1 kg
kinetic energy of the block when it is 4 cm
at either end. If each end of the spring is
away from the mean position, is
stretched by the same force of 20 N then The
maximum extension of spring is (1) 0.24 mJ (2) 0.12 J
(3) 0.12 mJ (4) 0.24 J
(1) 0.2 cm (2) 0.1 cm 16. A 2 kg collar is attached to a spring of spring
–1
constant 200 Nm . It slides without friction
(3) 2m (4) 20 cm
–1
over a horizontal rod. The collar is displaced
12. A spring with a spring constant 1000 Nm is from its equilibrium position by 5.0 cm and
mounted on a horizontal table as shown in released. The maximum speed of the collar is

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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
(1) 5 cm/s (2) 10 cm/s 22. A spring balance has a scale that reads from 0
to 20 kg. the length of the scale is 10 cm. a
(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 10 m/s
body suspended from this balance, when
17. Statement (A): Every periodic motion is simple displaced and released, oscillates with a period
harmonic motion. of 0.2 s. the weight of the body is
Statement (B): The periodic motion governed (1) 19.6 N (2) 29.4 N
by the force law F = kx is simple harmonic
(3) 39.2 n (4) 43.1 N
motion (where k is positive constant)
23. Statement (A): Waves produced in a cylinder
(1) Only statement(A) is correct
containing a liquid by moving its piston back
(2) Only statement (B) is correct and fourth are longitudinal waves.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct Statement(B): Waves produced by a
(4) Neither A nor B are correct motorboat sailing in water are transverse
18. For the damped oscillator shown in figure The waves only.
mass of the block in spring mass system is 100 (1) Only statement (A) is correct
–1
g and spring constant is 100 Nm . If damping (2) Only statement (B) is correct
–1
constant is 20 gs then time taken for its
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct
amplitude of vibrations to drop to half of its
initial value will be (4) Neither (A) nor (B) are correct
24. Transverse waves may propagate
(1) Inside solids only
(2) Inside liquids only
(3) Inside gases only
(4) Inside solids and liquids
25. Longitudinal waves may propagate
(1) In gases only
(1) 2.3 s (2) 6.9 s (2) In liquids only
(3) 2.4 s (4) 5.6 s (3) In liquids and gases only
19. For a particle in linear SHM, if the maximum (4) In liquids, gases and solids
kinetic energy is K and the average potential
energy over a period of oscillation is U, then 26. Select correct option about harmonic
the relation between U and K is progressive wave
(1) U = K (2) U = 2K (1) All particles have same phase at a given
instant of time.
K
(3) U  (4) U = 3K (2) All particles have different amplitudes
2
(3) All particles have different phases at given
20. Statement (A): The motion of a simple
instant of time
pendulum is exactly simple harmonic for small
angle oscillations. (4) All particles have same momentum at a
Statement (B): For larger angles of oscillation given instant of time.
an analysis shows that time period of simple 27. Select correct option about standing wave
l (1) All particles between two nodes have same
pendulum is less than 2
g phase at a given instant of time
(1) Only statement (A) is correct (2) All particles between two nodes have same
amplitudes.
(2) Only statement (B) is correct
(3) All particles have same momentum
(3) Both (A) and B are correct
(4) Neither (A) nor (B) are correct (4) All particles have same phase
21. The time period of oscillations of seconds 28. A wave travelling along a string is described
pendulum mounted in a cabin that is freely by, Y = 0.5 sin (40.0x – 2.0t)
falling under gravity, is in which the numerical constants are in SI units
–1 –1
(1) 2s (2) 1s (0.5 m, 40 rad m , and 2rads )
(3) Infinite (4) Zero The wavelength of the wave is
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
(1) 0.157 cm (2) 15.7 m sound as detected by the target is (Speed of
(3) 15 m (4) 15.7 cm sound is 330 m/s)
29. A steel wire 0.50 m long has a mass of 4.0 × 10
–3 (1) 1800 Hz (2) 3000 Hz
kg. If the wire is under a tension of 80 N, the (3) 900 Hz (4) 2400 Hz
speed of transverse waves on the wire is 36. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 1100
–1 –1
(1) 93 ms (2) 100 ms kHz in air. If the sound meets a water surface
–1 –1 then the wavelength of transmitted and
(3) 50 ms (4) 98 ms
reflected sound will respectively be (Speed of
30. The speed of sound in air –1
sound in air is 330 ms and in water is 1480
(1) is dependent on pressure –1
ms )
(2) decreases on increasing the temperature –4 –3
(1) 3 × 10 m, 1.34 × 10 m
(3) decreases on increasing the humidity (2) 3 × 10
–4
m, 3 × 10
–4
m
(4) is independent of frequency of sound wave –3 –3
(3) 1.34 × 10 m, 1.34 × 10 m
31. A string of mass 1 kg is under a tension of 40 –3 –4
N. The length of the stretched string is 10.0 m. (4) 1.34 × 10 m, 3 × 10 m
If the transverse jerk is struck at one end of the 37. A steel rod 200 cm long is clamped at its
string, then the time taken by the disturbance middle. The fundamental frequency of
to reach the other and, is (consider tension in longitudinal vibrations of the rod is given to be
the string remains same) 2 kHz, the speed of sound in steel is
(1) 0.5s (2) 2s (1) 800 km/s (2) 400 km/s
(3) 4s (4) 0.25 s (3) 4 km/s (4) 8 km/s
32. For the travelling harmonic wave Y = 4 38. A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate
cos 2(5t – 0.0040x + 0.25) where x and y are tumours in a tissue. If operating frequency of the
in cm and t in s. The phase difference between scanner is 4.2 MHz and the wavelength of sound
–4
oscillatory motion of two points separated by a in the tissue is 4 × 10 m then the speed of the
distance of 2m is sound in the tissue is
–3
(1) 16 × 10 rad (1) 1.68 m/s
(2) 1.6 rad (2) 1.68 cm/s
–3
(3) 1.6 × 10 rad
–3
(3) 1.68 km/s
(4) 1.6  × 10 rad
(4) 168 m/s
33. A pipe, 20.0 cm long, is open at both ends which th
harmonic mode of the pipe resonates a 1650 Hz. 39. A pipe 30 cm long is closed at one end. If n
[Speed of sound in air is 330 m/s] harmonic of the pipe is resonantly excited by a
(1) Third harmonic 850 Hz source then the value of n is (speed of
sound in air is 340 m/s)
(2) First harmonic
(3) Fourth Harmonic (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) Second Harmonic (3) 3 (4) 4
34. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note ‘Dha’ 40. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is
are slightly out of tune and produce beats of  
frequency 4Hz. The tension of the string B is described by Y = 4 Sin  48 t – 0.016 x  
 6 
slightly increased and the beat frequency is where x and Y are in cm and t in s. The
found to decrease to the 2Hz. If the frequency positive direction of x is from left to right. The
of A is 430 Hz then the original frequency of B
speed and direction of the propagation are
is
(1) 428 Hz (2) 426 Hz (1) 30 cm/s, from left to right
(3) 432 Hz (4) 434 Hz (2) 30 cm/s, from right to left
–1
35. A rocket is moving at a speed of 220 ms (3) 30 m/s, from left to right
towards a stationary target. While moving, it (4) 30 m/s, from right to left
emits a wave of frequency 600 Hz. Some of the
sound reaching the target gets reflected back 41. Two sitar strings A and B playing the note ‘Ga’
to the rocket as an echo. The frequency of the are slightly out of tune and produce beats of
frequency 5 Hz. The tension in the string A is
slightly reduced and the beat frequency is
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
found to reduce to 2 Hz. If the original (3) 45.9 kHz (4) 66.9 kHz
frequency of A is 330 Hz. The frequency of B is 44. A bat is flitting about in a cave, navigating via
(1) 335 Hz (2) 328 Hz ultrasonic beeps. Assume that the sound
emission frequency of the bat is 49 kHz. During
(3) 325 Hz (4) 332 Hz
one fast swoop directly toward a flat wall
42. Statement (A): In a sound wave, a surface, the bat is moving at 0.02 times the
displacement antinode is a pressure node. speed of sound in air. The frequency of
Statement (B): Bats can ascertain the size, reflected sound heard by bat is
direction and distance of the obstacles by (1) 50 kHz (2) 51 kHz
ultrasonic waves produced by them.
(3) 50.25 kHz (4) 51.45 kHz
(1) Only statement (A) is correct
45. The transverse displacement of a string
(2) Only statement (B) is correct (clamped at its both ends) is given by Y = 0.04
(3) Both (A) and (B) are correct  
sin  x  cos  60 t  where x and Y are in m
(4) Neither (A) nor (B) are correct 3 
43. A SONAR system fixed in a submarine and t in s. If the length of the string is 2.0 m
–2
operates at a frequency 50 kHz. An enemy and its mass is 2 × 10 Kg then tension in the
submarine moves towards the SONAR with a string is
–1
speed of 720 kmh . If the speed of sound in (1) 648 N (2) 324 N
–1
water is 1450 ms then the frequency of sound
(3) 216 N (4) 162 N
reflected by the submarine is
(1) 66 kHz (2) 74 kHz

CHEMISTRY
46. How many structural isomers does C7H16 (1) Pentane > 2-Methylbutane > 2,2-Dimethyl
have? propone
(1) 6 (2) 7 (2) 2-Methylbutane > Pentane > 2,2-Dimethyl
propane
(3) 8 (4) 9
47. The IUPAC name of the following compound is (3) 2,2-Dimethylpropane > Pentane > 2-Methyl
butane
(4) Pentane > 2,2-Dimethylpropane > 2-Methyl
butane
50. Correct order of reactivity of halogens towards
an alkane in presence of UV light is
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2 (2) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
(1) 6, 6-Diethyl-4-isopropyl-5-methyloctane (3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(2) 3, 3-Diethyl-5-isopropyl-4-methyloctane 51. Major product obtained when ethene reacts
(3) 5-isopropyl-3, 3-diethyl-4-methyloctane with Baeyer’s reagent is

(4) 4-Methyl-3, 3-diethyl-5-isopropyloctane (1) Glyoxal (2) Ethylene glycol

48. CH3–CH2–Cl+H2 

Zn, H
A
+
(3) Acetaldehyde (4) Oxalic acid

Product A is 52. Among the following three compounds

(1) CH3–CH2CH2CH3 (2) CH2=CH2
(3) CH4 (4) CH3CH3 (i) CH3CH2CH2CH2–Cl (ii)
49. Which one is the correct order of boiling point?

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NBTS-05 CoE-XII

55. Number of sp hybridised carbon in -complex

3
(iii)
or arenium ion is

The correct order of the rate of -elimination (1) 2 (2) 3

reaction with alc. KOH is
(3) 1 (4) 4
(1) (I) > (II) > (III) (2) (III) > (II) > (I)
56. The correct structure of product A formed in the
(3) (II) > (III) > (I) (4) (II) > (I) > (III) given reaction is
53. Identify the major products P and Q in the
following sequence of reactions

(1) (2)

(1) (3) (4)

57. Which one of the following is an activating

(2) group?

(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) 58. Match the following columns and select the
correct option
Column-I Column-II
(a) Ionic solid (i) HCl
(4) (b) Metallic solid (ii) Zns
(c) Network solid (iii) Mg
54. In the reaction (d) Molecular solid (iv) SiC
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(2) (II) (III) (IV) (I)
(3) (IV) (III) (I) (II)
(4) (II) (III) (I) (IV)
The electrophile involved is 59. A trigonal crystal has
(1) a = b  c;  =  =  = 90°
(2) a  b = c;  =  =  = 90°
(1) (2) (3) a = b = c;  =  =   90°
(4) a  b  c;  =  = = 90°

(3) (4) CO2

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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
60. Atoms of element B form hcp lattice and those (3) 4 (4) 12
1 68. If 30% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI has
of the element A occupy rd of tetrahedral
3 density 1.02 g/mL then molarity of the solution
voids. Then the formula of the compound will be (Atomic mass of K = 39 u and I = 127 u)
formed by A and B is (1) 2.8 M (2) 1.4 M
(1) A3B (2) AB3 (3) 2.5 M (4) 1.8 M
(3) A3B2 (4) A2B3
69. Correct order of solubility of gases in water at
61. Volume occupied by all atoms present in a 298 K is
FCC unit cell of metal is (r = atomic radius)
(1) Argon > Formaldehyde > Methane > Vinyl
16 3 20 3 chloride
(1) r (2) r
9 3
(2) Formaldehyde > Methane > Vinyl chloride
16 3 8 3 > Argon
(3) r (4) r
3 3
(3) Vinyl chloride > Formaldehyde > Methane
62. Which of the following metal oxides behaves > Argon
like metals
(4) Formaldehyde > Vinyl Chloride > Methane
(1) CaO (2) CrO2 > Argon
(3) HgO (4) MgO
70. If 62 g of ethylene glycol is mixed with 500 g
63. Which is the incorrect statement? water then freezing point of the solution will be
–1
(1) Conductivities of semiconductors varies (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol )
–6 4 –1 –1
between 10 to 10 ohm m (1) 269.28 K (2) 270.95 K
(2) Diode is a combination of n-type and p-type
(3) 273 K (4) 373 K
semiconductors and is used as a rectifier
(3) Excess of potassium makes KCl crystals 71. The boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When
yellow 2 g of non-volatile solute was dissolved in 100
g of benzene, the boiling point is raised to 355
(4) Conductivity of insulator ranges between
–20 –10 –1 –1 K. Then molar mass of the solute is (K b for
10 to 10 ohm m –1
benzene = 2.53 K kg mol )
64. Ethylene dibromide on reaction with Zinc metal –1 –1
gives (1) 28.58 g mol (2) 58 g mol
–1 –1
(1) CH  CH (3) 30 g mol (4) 52.45 g mol
(2) CH2 = CH2 72. Which among the following is not a component
(3) CH3–CH2–Br of photochemical smog?
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 (1) Ozone (2) Formaldehyde
65. The edge length of body centred cubic unit cell (3) SO2 (4) Acrolein
3
is 300 pm. If the density of the metal is 5 g/cm
then number of atoms present in 200 g of the 73. Three aqueous solution of MgSO4 labelled as
metal is x, y and z with concentration 0.1M, 0.01M and
23 24 0.001M respectively then the value of Van’t
(1) 1.8 × 10 atoms (2) 2.96 × 10 atoms Hoff factor for these solutions will be in the
23 24
(3) 6.022 × 10 atoms (4) 12.04 × 10 order of
atoms
(1) ix > iy > iz (2) iz > iy > ix
66. A compound forms hexagonal closed packed
structure. If 1.5 mole of the compound is given (3) iz > ix > iy (4) iy > ix > iz
then number of total voids will be 74. What amount of K2SO4 (i = 2.5) is dissolved in
23 23
(1) 9.033 × 10 (2) 6.022 × 10 3 L of water so that its osmotic pressure
(3) 27.09 × 10
23
(4) 18.066 × 10
23 becomes 0.75 atm at 300 K?
67. If A forms FCC structure then the coordination (1) 6.4 g (2) 3.4 g
number of A will be
(3) 4 g (4) 8 g
(1) 6 (2) 8
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
75. When 23.9 g of CHCl3 mixed with 42.5 g of CH2Cl2 at (3) II and III (4) I, II and III
298 K then vapour pressure of the solution becomes
° °
82. The prescribed upper limit concentration of
(PCHCl3
= 200 mm Hg, PCH 2 Cl2
= 400 mm Hg) cadmium in drinking water is

(1) 350 mm Hg (2) 250.5 mm Hg (1) 0.005 ppm (2) 0.05 ppm
(3) 5 ppm (4) 2 ppm
(3) 342.8 mm Hg (4) 300 mm Hg
83. Which tropic levels has highest concentration
76. Order of depression in freezing point of solution
of DDT deposition?
when same concentration of acetic acid,
trifluoro acetic acid and trichloro acetic acid is (1) Larger fish (2) Small fish
taken (3) Human being (4) Aquatic plant
(1) CCl3COOH < CF3COOH < CH3COOH 84. Ferromagnetic substance among the following
(2) CH3COOH < CF3COOH < CCl3COOH is
(3) CCl3COOH < CH3COOH < CF3COOH (1) MnO (2) Fe3O4
(4) CH3COOH < CCl3COOH < CF3COOH (3) Ni (4) ZnFe2O4
77. Solution of azeotropic nitric acid mixture 85. Consider the following reaction
contains
(1) 32 % HNO3 and 68 % H2O by mass
(2) 68 % HNO3 and 32 % H2O by mass
(3) 95 % HNO3 and 5 % H2O by mass The suitable reagent is/are
(4) 5% HNO3 and 95 % H2O by mass (1) H2/Pd/C (2) Na/liq. NH3
78. Which option is valid for an ideal solution? (3) H2/Ni (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Gmix > 0, Hmix = 0, Vmix = 0 86. The major product (P) of the following reaction
(2) Gmix = 0, Hmix = 0, Vmix = 0 is

(3) Gmix < 0, Hmix = 0, Vmix = 0

(4) Gmix < 0, Hmix  0, Vmix  0
79. Classical smog is a mixture of (1)
(1) Fog and smoke only
(2) Smoke + Fog + SO2 (2) Br–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br
(3) Fog + SO2 only (3) CH3–CH2–CH–Br
(4) H2O(g) + SO2 only
80. Human excreta contains bacteria such as (4)
Escherichia coli and streptococcus faecalis,
which cause
87. Which one is the correct order of acidicity?
(1) Urinary diseases
(1) CH3 – C  C– H > HC  C– H > CH2 = CH2
(2) Respiratory diseases
(2) HC  C– H > CH3 – C  CH > CH2 = CH2
(3) Gastro intestinal diseases
(4) Asthma (3) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  C– H > H– C  CH
81. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are (4) HC  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH
I Carcinogenic in nature
88. When 2-methyl propene undergoes reductive
II Non-carcinogenic in nature ozonolysis then products will be
III Used as cleansing solvent
Select the correct option (1) CH3COOH
(1) I and II (2) I and III
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII

(2) (2)

(3)
(3)

(4) (4)
89. In the following reaction

90. Which solution shows negative deviation from

ideal behaviour?

Here, A and B respectively are (1) Phenol + aniline (2) Ethanol +

acetone
(3) CS2 + Acetone (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1)

Botany
91. The degree by which progeny differ from their 95. How many true-breeding pea plant varieties
parents is called were selected by Mendel during his
experiments of hybridisation?
(1) Inheritance (2) Variation
(1) 7 (2) 14
(3) Hybridisation (4) Pollination
(3) 12 (4) 6
92. Gregor Mendel, Conducted hybridisation
experiments on garden pea during the year 96. Which of the given represents a ‘test cross’?
(1) 1856-1863 (2) 1768-1775 (1) TT TT (2) Tt Tt
(3) 1907-1914 (4) 1707-1714 (3) tt tt (4) Tt tt
93. Which of the given traits w.r.t. pea plant 97. The genotypic and phenotypic ratios
express itself in both homozygous as well as respectively, obtained in F2 generation during
heterozygous state? monohybrid cross, conducted by Mendel are
(A) Green pod (B) Axial flower (1) 1:2:1 and 3:1 (2) 3:1 and 1:2:1
(C) Constricted pod (D) White flower (3) 1:2:1 and 1:1 (4) 3:1 and 1:1
The correct ones are: 98. Law of dominance is used to best explain that
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (A) and (B) (1) There is blending of alleles
(3) (B) and (D) (4) (C) and (D) (2) There is recovery of both the characters as
94. Read the statements (A-B) and select the such in F2-generation.
correct option. (3) The expression of only one of the parental
Statement (A): A true breeding line is one that, characters in a monohybrid cross in F1 and
having undergone continuous self-pollination expression of both in F2.
Statement (B): Mendel proposed the laws of (4) Occurrence of alleles on same
inheritance in living organisms. chromosome.
(1) Only statement (A) is correct 99. The F1 phenotype did not resemble either of
the two parents and was in between the two.
(2) Only statement (B) is correct
This statement correctly explains which of the
(3) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct given inheritance pattern?
(4) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect (1) Incomplete dominance
(2) Co-dominance

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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
(3) Multiple allelism (2) Drosophila completes its life cycle in about
two weeks.
(4) Pleiotropy
(3) Drosophila grows on fruits.
100. AB blood group is an example of
(4) Drosophila has many types of hereditary
(1) Incomplete dominance variations that can be seen with power
microscope.
(2) Co-dominance
107. Select the incorrect match
(3) Pleiotropy
(1) - Sex unspecified
(4) Polygenic inheritance
(2) - Affected female
101. A gamete carries only one factor of a character.
(3) - Mating
The statement is true for which of the given law
of inheritance? (4) - Mating between relatives
(1) Law of independent assortment (consanguineous mating)
(2) Law of dominance 108. Which of the given is autosomal dominant
disorder?
(3) Law of segregation
(1) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Co-dominance
(2) Sickle-cell anaemia
102. When a cross was made between red flowered
and pink flowered Antirrhinum sp., what will be (3) Cystic fibrosis
the percentage of white flowered plants in (4) Colour blindness
progeny?
109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(1) 50% (2) 25% ‘Haemophilia’
(3) 100% (4) 0% (1) Is an autosomal recessive disorder.
103. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, the probability of (2) Shows its transmission from unaffected
getting plants which are homozygous for both carries female to some of the male
seed shape and seed colour is progeny.
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) In this disease, a single protein that is a
(3) 3/4 (4) 1/16 part of the Cascade of proteins involved in
clotting of blood is affected.
104. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
proposed by (4) The possibility of female becoming a
haemophilic is extremely rare.
(1) Sutton and Boveri (2) T.H. Morgan
110. In phenylketonuria, the affected individual
(3) G.J. Mendel (4) Hugo de Vries
lacks an enzyme that converts the amino
105. Males and females are heterogametic in (X) acid A into B .
and
A B
(Y) respectively.
Select the correct option of X and Y. (1) Phenylalanine Tyrosine
(X) (Y)
(2) Glutamic acid Valine
(1) Drosophila Birds
(2) Birds Drosophila (3) Tyrosine Phenylalanine

(3) Human being Grasshopper (4) Valine Glutamic acid

(4) Grasshopper Human being
111. Down’s syndrome results in the gain of extra
106. Morgan selected Drosophila as experimental copy of
material because of all of the given reasons,
(1) Chromosome 11 (2) Chromosome 12
except
(3) Chromosome 21 (4) Chromosome 6
(1) Drosophila could be grown on simple
synthetic medium in the laboratory

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112. Failure of cytokinesis after teleophase stage of (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2
cell division results in
(3) 0 (4) 1
(1) Polyploidy (2) Aneuploidy 119. Amongst the following, which one has
(3) Down’s syndrome (4) Haploidy maximum numbers of nucleotides in its
genome?
113. Which of the given genetic disorders is caused
due to presence of an additional copy of X- (1)  174 bacteriophage (2) E. coli
chromosome?
(3) Human (4) Lambda phage
(1) Down’s syndrome
120. A nucleotide consists of all of the given
(2) Turner’s syndrome components, except
(3) PKU (1) A nitrogenous base (2) Pentose sugar
(4) Klinefelter’s syndrome (3) Phosphate (4) Hexose sugar
114. Karyotype of an individual who is inflicted with 121. Which of the given nitrogenous base is found in
Turner’s syndrome is RNA but not in DNA?
(1) 45 + XO (2) 45 + XX (1) Adenine (2) Uracil
(3) 44 + XO (4) 45 + XXY (3) Cytosine (4) Guanine
115. Match the Column-I and Column-II w.r.t. 122. The another chemical name of thymine is
chromosomal disorder and select the correct
(1) 5-methyl uracil (2) 7-methyl guanine
option
(3) 3-methyl uracil (4) 5-methyl guanosine
Column-I Column-II
123. Euchromatin
A Down’s syndrome (i) Gynaecomastia
(1) Is transcriptionally active
B Turner’s syndrome (ii) Short statured with
small round head, (2) Is transcriptionally inactive
furrowed tongue (3) Stains dark
and partially open
mouth (4) Is more densely packed
C Klinefelter’s syndrome (iii) Sterile female with 124. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. salient
underdeveloped features of the Double-helix structure of DNA.
feminine characters (1) Is made up of two polynucleotide chains
A B C (2) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity
(3) The bases in two strands are paired
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) through hydrogen bond
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond with
thymine
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) 125. The pitch of the DNA helix is
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (1) 2.2 nm (2) 2.4 nm
(3) 3.4 nm (4) 1.4 nm
116. Frame-shift mutation occurs due to
126. According to central Dogma in molecular
(1) Insertion (2) Deletion biology, the genetic information flows from
(3) Transversion (4) Both (1) and (2) (1) DNA  RNA  Protein
117. The physical association of genes on (2) DNA Protein RNA
chromosome is called
(3) RNA DNA Protein
(1) Linkage (2) Recombination (4) Protein RNA DNA
(3) Pleiotropy (4) Multiple allelism 127. Central Dogma in molecular biology was
118. Calculate the probability of a pea plant of being proposed by
dwarf in F1 when homozygous tall and dwarf (1) Francis Crick (2) J. Watson
plants are crossed together?
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
(3) T.H. Morgan (4) A.H. Sturtevant (1) S-phase (2) G1 phase
128. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid (3) G2 phase (4) G0 phase
residues A and B . 133. Read the statement (A-C) stating them true (T)
(1) A – Histidine, B – Arginine or false (F) and select the correct option.
(2) A – Lysine, B – Arginine A The DNA polymerase on their own can
(3) A – Lysine, B – Histidine initiate the process of replication.
B The process of copying genetic information
(4) A – Valine, B – Glycine
from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed
129. A typical nucleosome contains how much as ‘transcription’.
nucleotides of DNA helix?
C Replication is discontinuous on the template
(1) 100 bases (2) 100 bp with polarity 5’3’.
(3) 200 bases (4) 200 bp
A B C
130. Select the incorrect interpretation w.r.t.
transforming principle (1) T T F
(1) S strain  Inject into mice Mice die
(2) F T F
(2) R strain  Inject into mice Mice live
(3) T T T
(3) S strain (heat killed)  Inject into mice
Mice live (4) F T T
(4) S strain (heat killed) + R strain (live) 
Inject into mice Mice survived 134. In a double stranded DNA, the proportion of
thymine was found to be 26%, then calculate
131. The principle enzyme involved in DNA the amount of guanine?
replication is
(1) 26% (2) 24%
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) 37% (4) 52%
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
135. In Hershey-chase experiment, the DNA of T2-
(3) RNA primase phage was made radioactive by using
(4) DNA Ligase (1)
32
P (2)
35
S
132. In eukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes (3)
32
S (4)
35
P
place at which of the given phase of cell cycle
events?

Zoology
136. Read following statements A and B and (1) Reproduction enables the continuity of the
choose the correct option. species, generation after generation
(A) The period from birth to natural death of an (2) Sexually reproducing organism gives rise to
organism represents its life span offspring similar to itself
(B) No individual is immortal, except single- (3) In asexual reproduction, offspring is
celled organisms produced by a single parent with or without
(1) Both the statements A and B are correct formation of gamete
(2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (4) Fusion of male and female gametes
(3) Only statement A is incorrect involves in both sexual and asexual
(4) Only statement B is incorrect reproduction
137. All of the following organisms have life span in 139. Clones are not
years except (1) Product of asexual reproduction
(1) Crow (2) Butterfly (2) Morphologically similar individual
(3) Tortoise (4) Parrot (3) Genetically similar individuals
138. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. reproduction. (4) Product of sexual reproduction
140. Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction in
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
(1) Amoeba (2) Hydra (2) Implantation – Attachment of
(3) Planaria (4) Ascaris blastocyst to the
141. Pseudopodiospores of Amoeba are uterine wall
liberated in the surrounding medium (3) Gestation – Embryonic
(1) During unfavourable condition development
(2) For encystation (4) Parturition – Delivery of the baby
(3) During favourable condition 148. Each testis has about A compartments called
(4) To grow into a single Amoeba testicular lobules and each lobule contains B
142. In comparison to asexual reproduction, sexual seminiferous tubules.
reproduction is Choose the option which correctly represent A and
(1) An elaborate and complex process B
(2) Fast process S. No A B
(3) Not significant for evolution 1 150 4–6
(4) Generally uniparental
143. How many organisms in following given box 2 250 6–8
represent cyclical changes during their 3 150 1–3
reproduction phase? 4 250 1–3
Sheep, Rat, Dear, Tiger, Human, 149. Which of the following structure is not present
Monkey, Ape in interstitial space of testis?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) Leydig cells
(3) 5 (4) 7 (2) Immunologically competent cells
144. All of the following are events in sexual (3) Sertoli cells
reproduction in humans except (4) Small blood vessels
(1) Senescence after menopause 150. Choose the intra-abdominal male sex
(2) Gametogenesis in females accessory duct among following given
(3) Formation of zygote structures.
(4) Embryogenesis (1) Rete testis
145. Read following statements carefully and (2) Vasa efferentia
choose the option with all correct statements. (3) Epididymis
(a) Fusion of gametes is perhaps the most vital (4) Vas deferens
events of sexual reproduction 151. Epididymis is located along which surface of
(b) Zygote is the vital link that ensures each testis?
continuity of species between organisms of (1) Anterior (2) Posterior
one generation and the next (3) Medial (4) Lateral
(c) Organisms exhibiting external fertilization 152. The structure(s) which is/are responsible for
release a large number of sperms in female storage and transport of sperms from the testis
genital tract to the outside through urethra is/are
(d) Cell differentiation helps the cells to (1) Seminal vesicle
increase in their number (2) Prostate gland
(1) a and b (2) b and c (3) Male sex accessory ducts
(3) c and d (4) a and d (4) Penis
146. The reproductive events in humans which 153. Select the option with all incorrect statements
leads to transfer of sperms into the female w.r.t. male reproductive system.
genital tract is called (a) Muscle contraction causes erection of
(1) Fertilization (2) Capacitation penis which facilitates insemination
(3) Insemination (4) Spermiation (b) All accessory sex glands in male are paired
147. Select the incorrect match. (c) Seminal plasma is rich in glucose, calcium
(1) Gametogenesis – Formation of germ and certain enzymes
cells
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
(d) The secretions of bulbourethral glands also (3) Primary oocyte
help in the lubrication of penis (4) First polar body
(1) Only a and b 162. Which of the following is correct sequence of
(2) a, b and c plasma concentration of various hormones to start
(3) a, b, c and d spermatogenesis in humans at the age of
(4) b, c and d puberty?
154. External genitalia in human females excludes (1) Increase in FSHincrease in
(1) Hymen G nRHdec rease in androgens 
(2) Clitoris s perm atogenes is
(3) Vagina (2) Increase in gonadotropinsdecrease in
(4) Labia minora GnRH increase in testosterone
155. Each ovary is connected by ligaments to the stimulatesspermatogenesis
(1) Wall of uterus only
(3) Increase in GnRHincrease in
(2) Pelvic wall only
gonadotropinsincrease in androgens
(3) Pelvic wall and uterus
stimulates spermatogenesis
(4) Wall of vagina
(4) Increase in androgens decrease in
156. Which of the following structures is not
included in female accessory ducts? GnRH decrease
(1) Oviducts gonadotropinsstimulatesspermatogenesis
(2) Uterus 163. FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of
(3) Vagina some factors to help in process of
(4) Lactiferous ducts (1) Spermiogenesis
157. Birth canal is formed (2) Formation of spermatids
(1) Only by cervix (3) Insemination
(2) Only by vagina (4) Release of semen
(3) Uterus along with cervical canal 164. In a normal adult human, 180 million sperms
(4) Cervical canal along with vagina are found to have normal shape and size per
158. Which of the following layer of uterus undergoes ejaculate. Calculate least number of sperms in
cyclical changes during menstrual cycle? ejaculate which must show vigorous motility for
(1) Perimetrium normal fertility.
(2) Myometrium (1) 72 lakhs (2) 72 million
(3) Endometrium (3) 40 million (4) 60 lakh
(4) Perimetrium and endometrium 165. Primary oocyte within the A grows in size and
159. Cluster of cells present in mammary lobes completes its B division. Choose the option
responsible for milk secretion are called which represents A and B correctly
(1) Alveoli A B
st
(2) Mammary tubules 1. Tertiary follicle 1 mitotic
nd
(3) Mammary ducts 2. Graafian 2 meiotic
(4) Mammary ampulla follicle
st
160. Choose the option which fills the blank 3. Tertiary follicle 1 meiotic
correctly to complete the analogy nd
4. Graafian 2 meiotic
Male germ cell: Spermatogonia: : gamete follicle
mother cells: ______
166. Which of the following is mismatch w.r.t.
(1) Oogonia
menstrual cycle?
(2) Polar bodies
(3) Primary oocyte (1) Menarch First menstruation
(4) Secondary oocyte (2) Menstrual cycle  Cycle of events in
161. Choose the odd one w.r.t. ploidy. between end of two
(1) Primary spermatocyte
(2) Spermatogonia
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NBTS-05 CoE-XII
successive month
menstruations 172. Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of
(3) Menstrual phase Occurrence of (1) Oxytocin from foetal adenohypophysis
(2) Oxytocin from foetal neurohypophysis
menstrual flow
(3) Prolactin from maternal pituitary
(4) Lack of – Can be indicative of (4) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
menstruation pregnancy 173. RCH stands for
167. Which of the following set of hormones represents (1) Routine check-up of health
their correct plasma concentrations in a fertile female (2) Reproduction cum hygiene
at the time of ovulation? (3) Reproduction and community health
(4) Reproductive and child health care
(1) Peak level of FSH and LH
174. The procedure in which fluid around foetus is
(2) Peak level oestrogens and progesterone taken for detection of foetal cells and dissolved
(3) Peak level of FSH and estrogens and substances is
minimum level of LH and progesterone (1) PCR
(4) Peak level of LH and oestrogens, moderate (2) ELISA
level of FSH and minimum level of (3) Amniocentesis
progesterone (4) Ultrasonography
nd
168. 2 meiotic division during oogenesis is 175. Which of the following disease is completely curable if
completed detected early and treated properly?
(1) Before fertilization starts (1) Syphilis (2) AIDS
(2) After fertilization (3) Hepatitis-B (4) Genital herpes
(3) During fertilization and before fusion of 176. Inability to conceive or produce children even
nuclei after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation
(4) During fertilization and before formation of is called
ootid (1) Infertility (2) Fertility
169. Sex of baby is decided at the time of (3) MTP (4) PID
fertilization depending upon 177. A test tube baby differs from normally produced
(1) Sex chromosome of females baby in
(2) Only X chromosome of sperm (1) Parturition
(3) Only Y chromosome of sperm (2) Gestation period
(4) Either X or Y chromosome of sperm (3) In vitro fertilization
170. In humans, structural and functional unit (4) Number of chromosome
between embryo and maternal body is formed 178. All of the following are natural method of
by contraception except
(1) Fallopian tube (1) Periodic abstinence
(2) Birth canal (2) Lactational amenorrhoea
(3) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue (3) Barrier methods
(4) Inner cell mass (4) Coitus interruptus
171. Select incorrect match. 179. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
1. Formation of – After first trimester (1) Injectable estrogen
embryo heart of pregnancy (2) Hormone releasing IUDs
nd
2. Limbs and digits – After 2 month of (3) Copper releasing IUDs
develops pregnancy (4) Non-medicated IUDs
th
3. First movement – During the 5 180. In Vitro fertilization occurs in
of foetus month of (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
pregnancy (3) IUI (4) AI
th
4. Eye-lids separate – By the end of 6

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NBTS-05 CoE-XII


[Page 16]
NBTS-05 CoE-XII

Regd. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST SERIES

Test – 05 (Answer Key)
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (1) 110. (1) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (2) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (4) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (3) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (3) 46. (4) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (3) 119. (3) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (1) 159. (1)
16. (3) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (1)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. (3) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (1) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (3)
22. (1) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (2) 131. (1) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (4) 132. (1) 168. (3)
25. (4) 61. (3) 97. (1) 133. (4) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (1) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (1) 172. (4)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. 2) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (4) 174. (3)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (4) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (1) 176. (1)
33. (4) 69. (2) 105. (1) 141. (3) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (1) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (2)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (1) 180. (1)

[Page 17]
NBTS-05 CoE-XII

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

NCERT BOOSTER TEST Series

Test-05
Solutions

1. Answer (4) 11. Answer (4)

NCERT Reference: NCERT Reference:
Physics-XI (Part II) Page No.-336 Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -360
2. Answer(4) 12. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference: NCERT Reference:
Physics-XI (Part II) Page No.-337 Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -359
3. Answer (3) 13. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference: NCERT Reference:
Physics-XI (Part II) Page No.-337 Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -360
4. Answer (2) 14. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference: NCERT Reference:
Physics-XI (Part II) Page No.-357 Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -345
5. Answer(1) 15. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference: NCERT Reference:
Physics XI(Part II)Page No.-337 Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-346
6. Answer (2) 16. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-339 NCERT Reference:
7. Answer (4) Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-348
NCERT Reference: 17. Answer(4)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-341 NCERT Reference:
8. Answer (3) Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -356
NCERT Reference: 18. Answer(2)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-350 NCERT Reference:
9. Answer (3) Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-352
NCERT Reference: 19. Answer(3)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No. 350 NCERT Reference:
10. Answer (3) Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -351
NCERT Reference: Physics XI(Part II) 20. Answer (4)
Page No. -344

[Page 18]
NBTS-05 CoE-XII

NCERT Reference: NCERT Reference:

Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -360 Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-380
21. Answer(3) 35. Answer(1)
NCERT Reference: NCERT Reference:
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-361 Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-383
22. Answer(1) 36. Answer(4)
NCERT Reference:
NCERT Reference:
Physics XI(Part II) Page No-359
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-387
23. Answer (1)
37. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference:
NCERT Reference:
Physics XI(Part II) Page No. -366
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-388
24. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference: 38. Answer(3)

Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-386 NCERT Reference:

25. Answer (4) Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-387
NCERT Reference: 39. Answer(3)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-386 NCERT Reference:
26. Answer (3) Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-388
NCERT Reference: 40. Answer(3)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.386 NCERT Reference:
27. Answer (1) Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-387
NCERT Reference: 41. Answer(3)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-386
NCERT Reference:
28. Answer (4)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-388
NCERT Reference:
42. Answer(3)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-368
NCERT Reference:
29. Answer (2)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-389
NCERT Reference:
43. Answer(1)
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-370
30. Answer (4) NCERT Reference:
NCERT Reference: Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-389
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-387 44. Answer(2)
31. Answer (1) NCERT Reference:
NCERT Reference: Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-390
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-387 45. Answer(2)
32. Answer (2) NCERT Reference:
NCERT Reference: Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-388
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-387 46. Answer (4)
33. Answer (4) NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI,
NCERT Reference: Part-II, Page No.- 376
Physics XI(Part II) Page No.-377 47. Answer (2)
34. Answer (2)

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NBTS-05 CoE-XII

NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 62. Answer (2)

Part-I, Page No.-377 NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I,
48. Answer (4) Page No.-29
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon XI Part- 63. Answer (3)
I, Page No.-379 NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I,
49. Answer (1) Page No.-27 & 29
NCERT Reference :Hydrocarbon, XI, Part- 64. Answer (2)
II, Page No.-380 NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbons, XI,
50. Answer (3) Part-II, Page No.-388
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 65. Answer (2)
Part-II, Page No.-381 NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I,
51. Answer (2) Page No.-22
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 66. Answer (3)
Part-II, Page No.-391 NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I,
52. Answer (3) Page No.-23
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI Part- 67. Answer (4)
II, Page No.-388 NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I,
53. Answer (2) Page No.-18
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 68. Answer (4)
Part-II, Page No.-400 NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,
54. Answer (1) Page No.-39
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, part- 69. Answer (2)
II, Page No.- 401 NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,
55. Answer (3) Page No.-41
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI Part- 70. Answer (1)
II, Page No.-401 NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,
56. Answer (2) Page No.-54
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 71. Answer (1)
Part-II, Page No.401 NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,
57. Answer (4) Page No.-52
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 72. Answer (3)
Part-II Page No.-403 NCERT Reference : Environmental
58. Answer (2) chemistry, XI, Part-II, Page No.- 412
NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I, 73. Answer (2)
Page No.-5 NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,
59. Answer (3) Page No.-59
NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I, 74. Answer (1)
Page No.-10 NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,
60. Answer (4) Page No.-59
NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII part-I, 75. Answer (3)
page No.-18 NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,
61. Answer (3) Page No.-45
NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part-I 76. Answer (4)
page No.-20

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NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I,

Page No.-63
91. Answer (2)
77. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I, Page No. 69
Page No.-49
92. Answer (1)
78. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
NCERT Reference : Solution, XII, Part-I, Page No. 70
Page No.-47
93. Answer (2)
79. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
NCERT Reference : Environmental
Page No. 70
chemistry, XI, Part-II, Page No.- 411
80. Answer (3) 94. Answer (3)

NCERT Reference : Environmental NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)

chemistry, XI, Part-II, Page No.-414 Page No. 70

81. Answer (2) 95. Answer (2)

NCERT Reference : Environmental NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
chemistry, XI, Part-II, Page No-415 Page No. 70
82. Answer (1) 96. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference : Environmental NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
chemistry, XI Part-II, Page No.- 416 Page No. 74
83. Answer (3) 97. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference : Environmental NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
chemistry, XI, Part-II, Page No.-417 Page No. 73
84. Answer (3) 98. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference : Solid state, XII, Part- NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
II, Page No.-30 Page No. 75
85. Answer (2)
99. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbons, XI,
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
Part-II, Page No.-387
Page No. 76
86. Answer (3)
100. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbons, XI,
Part-II, Page No.-390 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
Page No. 77
87. Answer (2)
101. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbons, XI,
Part-II, Page No.-394 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
Page No. 75
88. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 102. Answer (4)
Part-II, Page No.-391 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
89. Answer (3) Page No. 76

NCERT Reference : Hydrocarbon, XI, 103. Answer (2)

Part-II, Page No.-395 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
90. Answer (1) Page No. 79
NCERT Reference : Solutions, XII, Part-I, 104. Answer (1)
Page No.-48

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NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 119. Answer (3)

Page No. 81 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
105. Answer (1) Page No. 96
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 120. Answer (4)
Page No. 86 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
106. Answer (3) Page No. 96
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 121. Answer (2)
Page No. 83 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
107. Answer (2) Page No. 96
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 122. Answer (1)
Page No. 88 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
108. Answer (1) Page No. 97
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 123. Answer (1)
Page No. 88 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
109. Answer (1) Page No. 100
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 124. Answer (4)
Page No. 89 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
110. Answer (1) Page No. 97
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 125. Answer (3)
Page No. 90 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
111. Answer (3) Page No. 97
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 126. Answer (1)
Page No. 91 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
112. Answer (1) Page No. 98
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) Page 127. Answer (1)
No. 90-91 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
113. Answer (4) Page No. 98
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 128. Answer (2)
Page No. 91 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
114. Answer (3) Page No. 99
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 129. Answer (4)
Page No. 91 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
115. Answer (1) Page No. 99
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 130. Answer (4)
Page No. 91 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
116. Answer (4) Page No. 100
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 131. Answer (1)
Page No. 87 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
117. Answer (1) Page No. 106
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 132. Answer (1)
Page No. 83 NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII)
118. Answer (3) Page No. 107
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 133. Answer (4)
Page No. 72

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No. 106-107 154. Answer(3)
134. Answer (2) NCERT Reference: Page No. -44
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) 155. Answer (3)
Page No. 97 NCERT Reference: Page No. -44
135. Answer (1) 156. Answer(4)
NCERT Reference : (Biology-Class XII) NCERT Reference: Page No.-45
Page No. 102 157. Answer(4)
136. Answer (1) NCERT Reference: Page No-46
NCERT Reference: Page No.-03 158. Answer (3)
137. Answer(2) NCERT Reference: Page No. -46
NCERT Reference: Page No.-04 159. Answer (1)
138. Answer (4) NCERT Reference: Page No.-47
NCERT Reference: Page No.-05
160. Answer (1)
139. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-48
NCERT Reference: Page No.-05
161. Answer (4)
140. Answer(1)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-05 NCERT Reference: Page No.48
141. Answer (3) 162. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-06 NCERT Reference: Page No.-47
142. Answer (1) 163. Answer (1)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-08 NCERT Reference: Page No.-47
143. Answer (4) 164. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-09 NCERT Reference: Page No.-48
144. Answer (1)
165. Answer (3)
NCERT Reference: Page No. 10
NCERT Reference: Page No.-48
145. Answer (1)
166. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference: Page No. -15
146. Answer (3) NCERT Reference: Page No.-49,50
NCERT Reference: Page No. -42 167. Answer (1)
147. Answer (1) NCERT Reference: Page No.-50
NCERT Reference: Page No. -42 168. Answer (3)
148. Answer (4) NCERT Reference: Page No.-52
NCERT Reference: Page No. -43 169. Answer (4)
149. Answer (3) NCERT Reference: Page No.-52
NCERT Reference: Page No. -43
170. Answer(3)
150. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-53
NCERT Reference: Page No.-43
171. Answer(1)
151. Answer (2)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-43 NCERT Reference: Page No.-54
152. Answer(3) 172. Answer (4)
NCERT Reference: Page No. -43 NCERT Reference: Page No.-54
153. Answer(2) 173. Answer(4)

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NCERT Reference: Page No.-58 NCERT Reference: Page No.-64

174. Answer(3) 178. Answer(3)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-58 NCERT Reference: Page No.-60
175. Answer(1) 179. Answer(2)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-60
NCERT Reference: Page No.-63
180. Answer(1)
176. Answer(1)
NCERT Reference: Page No.-64
NCERT Reference: Page No.-63
177. Answer(3)

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