INSTA SUBJECT TEST - 28 2023 (WWW - Upscmaterial.online)

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Test-28 (Subject)
( Insta Prelims Test Series 2023 ) Total Marks : 200.00
1. The term ‘Megha-Tropiques-1’ recently seen in news is associated with-
A. A satellite mission to study the water cycle in the tropical atmosphere.

B. A tropical biome formed on the mountainous slopes towards the sea.
C. An international satellite observing the total rainfall received by the Earth.
D. A European satellite mission that measures the ocean-surface height.
2. Consider the following statements:

1. NISAR is a Low Earth Orbit observatory jointly developed by NASA and ISRO.
2. NISAR will provide spatially consistent data for understanding changes in Earth’s ecosystems.
3. The successful execution of NISAR will pave way for India's ambitions to have its own space
station.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3. The Meissner’s Effect often talked about in news is studied and observed in the
context of-
A. Xenotransplantation
B. Reverse Osmosis process
C. Superconductivity
D. Flex-fuel vehicles

1. Sodium is an essential nutrient but can increase the risk of heart disease, and premature death.
2. The global average salt intake is more than what World Health Organisation has recommended
for per day consumption.
3. A significant proportion of sodium in the diet comes from manufactured foods such as bread
and cereals.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
5. Consider the following statements regarding Fiberisation:

1. It refers to the process of connecting radio towers with each other via optical fibre cables.
2. It helps provide complete utilisation of network capacity, and carry large amounts of data for 5G
instacourses.insightsonindia.com 1
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services.
3. It does not need any separate component of larger transport to carry the data across the
network.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
6. Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV):
1. PSLV is configured as a three-stage vehicle having one liquid core stage and a high-thrust
cryogenic upper stage.
2. PSLV uses an Earth-storable liquid rocket engine and launches satellites both into
Geosynchronous as well as Geostationary orbits.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
7. Which one of the following statements is/are correct about the Neutrinos?
1. These are members of the same group like the electrons where electrons have a negative
charge, neutrinos have no charge at all.
2. Neutrinos are the products of heavy particles turning into lighter ones and can interact through
gravity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
8. With reference to Near-Field Communication (NFC) technology, consider the following

statements:
1. NFC refers to a wireless connectivity technology that allows devices to communicate and
transfer information quickly.
2. NFC-enabled devices do not require to be present in the close proximity or physically touching
for the data transfer.
3. NFC technology is rooted in radio-frequency identification used by retailers to track products.

A. 1 only
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B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
9. Consider the following statements regarding Additive manufacturing:

1. It creates physical and three-dimensional objects directly from a computer design file.
2. It includes the polymer composites, composites and the living tissues in manufacturing.
3. It has the ability to improve energy productivity and allows for greater design flexibility.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
10. With reference to Nucleic acid vaccines, consider the following statements:
1. The genetic material used in these vaccines is essentially the eukaryotic DNA which provides
the instructions for making a specific protein from the pathogen.
2. One of the major advantages of nucleic acid-based vaccines includes the simplicity of the vector
and the ease of delivery.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
11. It is a revolutionary new area of research which aims to create biocomputers where
brain cultures grown in the lab are coupled to real-world sensors and input/output
devices. It is called-
A. Organoid Intelligence
B. Artificial intelligence
C. Artificial Neural Networks
D. Kinesthetic Intelligence
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bisphenol A (BPA)?
1. The degree to which BPA leaches from polycarbonate bottles into liquid depends more on the
age of the container than the temperature of the liquid.
2. BPA cannot leach into food from the protective internal epoxy resin coatings of canned foods.
3. Bureau of Indian Standards has banned the use of any material where BPA is used for
manufacturing feeding bottles of infants.
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A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
13. The ‘Fab-4 Alliance’ has been recently talked about in news in the context of-
A. Installation of off-grid solar pumps in rural areas of India.

B. Strengthening the semiconductor supply chain led by United States.
C. Providing broadband connectivity to all households in developing nations.
D. The Science, Technology and Innovation Policy formulated by India.
14. Consider the following statements about the Vinyl Chloride:

1. It is a chlorinated hydrocarbon that emits toxic fumes of carbon monoxide and phosgene when
heated to decomposition.
2. Prolonged exposure to vinyl chloride can cause a set of symptoms that is characterized by
Raynaud's phenomenon.
3. Vinyl chloride volatilizes into the air from water but it does not accumulate in enclosed spaces.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. Lewis acid refers to any substance that can accept a pair of non-bonding electrons.
2. Lewis super-acids can be used to break strong chemical bonds and speed up reactions.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
16. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Aubrites?
A. These are coarse-grained igneous rocks formed in oxygen poor conditions.

B. These contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on Earth.
C. The conditions in which aubrites form, are prevalent on planet Mercury.
D. India is the most frequent site in the world for aubrite meteorite crashes.
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1. Organic Light Emitting Diode (OLED) display technology provides self-illuminating diodes that
have better colour reproduction than microLEDs.
2. The basis of microLED technology are sapphires that can shine on its own forever.
3. MicroLEDs individually produce red, green, and blue colours without needing colour filters as
conventional displays.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
18. The ‘Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array (ALMA)’ recently seen in news is
used to-
A. Study planetary systems that orbit distant stars.

B. Visualise the deep-sea plains known as abyssal plains.
C. Explore the zones where oceanic lithosphere slides into the mantle.
D. Study the sun at both its turbulent maximum and demure minimum.

1. In Air-cooled condensers, the condenser heat is rejected directly to the ambient air.
2. Air-cooled condensers are common choice for heat rejection in geothermal power plants where
water is scarce.
3. India has recently commissioned its first Air cooled condenser to demonstrate its commitment
towards water conservation.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
20. Consider the following statements regarding Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
Technology:
1. RFID is a wireless tracking method that uses tags and readers to track objects.
2. Semi-passive tags, and active tags are the only types of RFID tags that are commercially
available.
3. An RFID tag cannot communicate with a powered reader when the tag is not powered making it
a major drawback.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
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D. 1, 2 and 3
21. Consider the following statements regarding Montreux Record

1. It is maintained as a part of Convention on Wetlands.
2. It includes wetland sites that are maintained by ethnic tribal communities as part of religious
practices.
3. Loktak Lake is the only wetland from India to be included in the list.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
22. Consider the following pairs

Convention Related to
1. Vienna Convention Protection of ozone layer
2. Minamata Control of groundwater
Convention pollution from Lead and Arsenic
3. Bonn Convention Protection of migratory Animal species
4. Stockholm Prevention of Trans-boundary
Convention movement of hazardous wastes
How many of the pairs given above are correct?

A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. Only three pairs
D. All four pairs
23. Consider the following statements regarding High Seas Treaty recently in news
1. It is an agreement under United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea that provides for
protection of high sea biodiversity.
2. Under it more than 50% of international waters have been declared as Marine Protected Areas.
3. It provides for formation of a new authority for establishment of marine protected areas in high
seas.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
24. The impacts of Marine heatwaves include

1. Coral bleaching
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2. Change in habitat range of marine species

3. Ocean alkalinization
4. Mortality of marine invertebrates
5. Increase of Seagrass and kelp forest density
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
25. Greenwashing, sometimes seen in news, refers to
A. Increasing green cover of a specific territory within a fixed period of time.

B. False claims made by a company that marks all its activities as environment friendly.
C. Initiatives undertaken to save vulnerable coral reefs.
D. The corporate bonds issued by private corporations for the purpose of funding sustainable
infrastructure projects.
26. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming
1. It makes use of fermented microbial culture to act as a catalytic agent for promoting activity of
earthworms in the soil.
2. It uses natural ingredients for pest management and treatment of seeds for cultivation.
3. It helps in methane emissions from farmlands where it is practiced.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
27. Consider the following statements regarding Red Sanders

1. It is endemic to the Eastern India, particularly in the states of West Bengal and Odisha.
2. It is an Endangered flora-species whose export is prohibited in India.
3. It is protected under both CITES and Wildlife Protection) Act 1972.
4. Phytoplasmas are causative agents of Sandalwood Spike Disease, which is transmitted between
plants by bats.

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
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Test-28 (Subject)
28. Consider the following statements regarding Guidelines on Extended Producer

Responsibility (EPR) on plastic packaging
1. It has been notified under Plastic Waste Management Rules 2016.
2. It seeks to increase EPR target to 100% as well as recycling obligation for producers to 50% for
rigid plastics by 2030.
3. The guidelines specifies plastic packaging into two categories viz., rigid and flexible, based on
presence of layers in the plastic.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
29. Consider the following statements regarding Central Ground Water Board
1. It was formed as a subordinate office under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change by replacing Exploratory Tube wells Organisation.
2. The board carries out periodic assessment of groundwater resources jointly with state
government agencies and provides for technical information regarding scientific groundwater
exploration.
3. The Central Ground Water Authority has been set up under the board under the Water (
Prevention and Control of Pollution) act 1974.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
30. Consider the following statements regarding Climate Hazards and Vulnerability Atlas
of India
1. It has been developed by Climate Research and Services Office under guidelines of World
Meteorological Organisation.
2. It is based on extreme weather events that impact economy of each district in the India, and
uses available historical climate data.
3. According to it, coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh have the highest cyclone vulnerability for
cyclones of all intensities in India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Report Published by
1. BiodiverCities by 2030 World Economic Forum
2. Global Risk Report World Bank
3. World Water UNESCO
Development Report

A. None of the above
B. Only one pair
C. Only two pairs
D. All three pairs
32. Consider the following statements regarding International Monsoons Project Office
1. It has been set up at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology under the Ministry of Earth
Sciences.
2. It includes International monsoon research activities identified under the Leadership of World
Weather Research Programme.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
33. In India, Dugongs are found in

1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Chilika Lake
3. Gulf of Kutch
4. Sundarban delta

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 only
34. Consider the following statements regarding Nanoplastics

1. These are synthetic polymers that are derived secondarily from plastic disintegration in the
environment.
2. They are associated with causing risks to ecosystem by virtue of their property of moving to
higher tropic levels in a food web.
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Test-28 (Subject)
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
35. Consider the following statements regarding Green Status of Species

1. It has been developed by IUCN to complement the Red List.
2. It assess species based solely on its performance of ecological functions in all parts of its range.
3. It provides for a ‘Green Score' depicting the recovery status of a species.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
36. Consider the following statements regarding Green Ammonia

1. Ammonia produced by Haber process using hydrogen and nitrogen without carbon, is termed
green ammonia.
2. It can be used in the production of carbon neutral shipping fuel and fertilizer products.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
37. ‘Fire Ready Formula’, sometimes seen in news, has been conceptualized by
A. Rainforest Alliance
B. United Nations Environment Programme
C. Conservation International
D. The International Tropical Timber Organisation
38. Consider the following statements regarding Indian National Centre for Ocean
Information Services
1. It is an autonomous organisation that works as a unit of Earth System Science Organisation.
2. It identifies Potential Fishing Zones by using real time data provided by OCEANSAT.
3. It operates Tsunami Early Warning System in collaboration with Indian Ocean Commission.
4. The Coastal Vulnerability Index to determine the coastal risks due to sea level rise is prepared
by INCOIS.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
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B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
39. Consider the following statements

1. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957 classifies sand as a minor
mineral in India.
2. Rules for prevention of illegal mining and storage of minor minerals can be framed by the
central government only.
3. Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016 has been issued by Ministry of Mines to
regulate sand mining.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
40. Consider the following climate finance mechanisms

1. Green Climate Fund
2. Special Climate Change Fund
3. Adaptation Fund
4. Global Environment Fund
Which of the above mechanisms is/are under the ambit of United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) ?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
41. Consider the following statements regarding Asian Waterbird Census

1. It is conducted as part the International Waterbird Census coordinated by Wetlands
International.
2. At present it covers only the entire Central Asian Flyway.
3. In India, the census is conducted by the Ministry of of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
in association with Birdlife International.

A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
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Test-28 (Subject)
42. Periphyton refers to
A. A complex accumulation of bacteria, algae and fungi bound together with a

polysaccharide matrix attached to submerged substrates.
B. Group of organisms that live at the air-water interface, unattached to the bottom of water
bodies.
C. Marine heterotrophic organisms of varying sizes that swim and move independently of
water currents
D. Organisms living on the bottom of water bodies
43. Consider the following statements regarding Sacred Groves

1. They are biodiversity rich natural vegetative patches that are dedicated to local folk deities.
2. They are legally protected under Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act 2002.
3. Invasion by exotic weeds possesses a threat to Sacred groves in the country.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. Bad Ozone is formed by interactions of solar ultraviolet radiation with molecular oxygen .
2. Ground level ozone the main component of urban smog in cities.
3. The Kigali amendment to the Montreal Protocol deals with elimination of Chloroflurocarbons that
deplete the ozone layer.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 only

1. Species diversity decreases from equator towards the temperate region.
2. Regions characterized by constant environments promote niche specialization and lead to
greater species diversity.
3. Ecosystems having greater biodiversity are more resistant to diseases and natural disasters
than those having less species diversity.

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
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D. 1, 2 and 3
46. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of economic cost:
1. It is the cost of having a little more of one good in terms of the amount of the other good that
has to be forgone
2. It is applicable to the individual as well as the society.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
47. The term “Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS)”, sometimes seen in news,
can be best defined as:
A. As a consumer substitute one good for another, while keeping the total utility constant,
the marginal rate of substitution will eventually decrease.
B. The rate at which a firm is willing to substitute one input for another, while keeping the
level of output constant.
C. It shows the relationship between the quantity of a good consumed and a consumer's
income, while holding the prices of other goods constant.
D. The limit on the total amount of goods and services that a consumer can afford to
purchase, given their income and the prices of goods.

1. Imposition of price ceiling below the equilibrium price leads to an excess supply.
2. Imposition of price floor above the equilibrium price leads to an excess demand.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
49. Consider the following statements regarding the different types of non-competitive
markets:
1. The market structure called monopsony exists where there is exactly one seller in any market.
2. A market structure where there is only one buyer of a particular good or service is called
monopoly
3. A market structure where a small number of firms dominate the market and can coordinate
their pricing and output decisions is called oligopoly.
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A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
50. Which of the following is/are not included in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
1. Scholarship received by a Phd student
2. Stipend received by a college graduate for an internship in a company
3. Old age pension received by a senior citizen.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
51. Which of the following form the part of Current Account?

1. Remittances
2. Balance of Trade
3. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
4. Government debt

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
52. India is a member of which of the following institution?

1. International Development Association (IDA)
2. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
3. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
4. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
53. Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Services Institutions
Bureau (FSIB):
1. It replaced the erstwhile Banks Board Bureau (BBB).
2. It was constituted for the purpose of recommending persons for appointment as whole-time
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directors and non-executive chairpersons on the Boards of financial services institutions.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
54. Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):
1. It is a production volume index
2. It is compiled and released by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
3. Electricity has the highest weightage in the Index.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
55. Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Stability Board (FSB):
1. It is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations about the global financial
system.
2. The Plenary serves as the sole decision-making body.
3. India is not a member of the board.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
56. Global Education Monitoring (GEM) Report is published by
A. World Bank
B. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
C. Room to Read
D. UNESCO
57. Consider the following statements regarding the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):
1. It is a facility offered by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to banks, where RBI can park excess
liquidity with the public bank at a rate higher than the reverse repo rate.
2. When the Standing Deposit Ratio (SDR) is high, banks have more liquidity available for lending,
which can help to stimulate economic growth.
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Test-28 (Subject)

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
58. Keeping other factors constant, which of the following scenarios lead to depreciation
of domestic currency ‘Y’ with respect to a particular foreign currency of country ‘X’ in
a floating exchange rate regime?
1. Increase in the imports of goods from Country ‘X’ and simultaneously decrease in the export of
goods to the Country ‘X’.
2. Decrease in the foreign tourists from Country X.
3. Demand for currency of Country ‘X’ in the world compared to the demand of currency ‘Y.’

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 only
59. Terms ChatGPT and BARD sometimes seen in news are tools associated with:
A. Artificial intelligence
B. Space Research
C. Biotechnology
D. Nano Technology
60. Arrange the following physical features of India from North to South
1. Dandakaranya
2. Bhagelkhand
3. Nallamala Hills
4. Satpura Ranges

A. 1 2 4 3
B. 2 1 4 3
C. 2 4 1 3
D. 1 3 2 4
61. Consider the following statements regarding the Surety bonds:

1. These bonds are a three-party agreement that legally binds together a principal, an obligee and
a surety company that sells the bond.
2. Surety bonds provide financial guarantee that contracts will be completed according to pre-
defined and mutual terms.
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A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
62. Consider the following statements regarding the T+1 Settlement Plan:
1. It means that market trade-related settlements will need to be cleared within one day of the
actual transactions taking place.
2. The Real estate investment trusts (REITs) cannot move to this settlement plan due to their
volatile nature.
3. This settlement cycle reduces the number of outstanding unsettled trades at any point of time.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
63. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Green Bonds?
A. They can be issued by any sovereign entity as well as by corporates.

B. They command a relatively lower cost of capital.
C. These bonds do not disincentivise high carbon-emitting projects.
D. These bonds cater India’s commitments under “Panchamrit” at COP26.
64. Consider the following statements regarding the Fugitive Economic Offenders (FEO)
Act, 2018:
1. The FEO Act aims to deter fugitive economic offenders from evading the process of law in India
by staying outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts.
2. The Special court if declares the individual as an FEO, it can only order the confiscation of the
properties of the accused within Indian territory.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
65. If the Marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR) is raised. As a result,
borrowers who have taken home or personal loans will find their equated monthly
instalments-
A. Rising in coming months
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B. Decreasing in coming months

C. Deferring temporarily
D. Experiencing no change
66. The ‘NIPAM’ Programme has been recently launched in context of-
A. Ensuring universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy.

B. The mission to provide awareness on Intellectual Property Rights.
C. Leveraging technology to enhance the Indian financial system.
D. The mission to create opportunities through innovation and inclusion.
67. Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Standing Deposit
Facility:
1. By removing binding collateral constraint on the RBI, it strengthens the operating framework of
monetary policy.
2. It is operated on an overnight basis with the flexibility to absorb liquidity for longer tenor with
appropriate pricing.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
68. With reference to the Digital Banking Unit (DBU), consider the following statements:
1. It is a specialised fixed point business unit housing minimum digital infrastructure for delivering
digital banking products as well as services.
2. Only the commercial banks and regional rural banks are permitted to open DBUs.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
69. With reference to Money Market, consider the following statements:

1. The money in this market is traded only between cash-surplus groups.
2. Borrowings in this market is always supported by collaterals.
3. The transactions in this market can take place through intermediaries.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
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Test-28 (Subject)
D. 1, 2 and 3
70. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Non-Banking Financial
Companies (NBFCs)?
1. They can advance loans to retail traders, small-scale industries as well as to the self-employed
persons.
2. It is not mandatory for an NBFC to get registered with the RBI as a deposit taking company
because it is regulated by multiple bodies.
3. They cannot have sale-purchase or construction of immovable properties as their principal
business.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
71. Consider the following statements regarding Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. It is the percentage of depositors’ money that banks have to mandatorily park with the Reserve
Bank.
2. If the RBI wants to infuse more liquidity into a system, it simply increases the CRR.
3. The RBI has allowed banks to lend to micro, small and medium enterprises without maintaining
the CRR.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
72. Consider the following statements regarding the Open Market Operations (OMOs):
1. RBI uses open market operations as a tool to regulate the availability of cash flow in the system.
2. If the RBI wants to inject money in the economy, it buys the government securities from the
banks.
3. OMOs are an effective quantitative policy tool of RBI and are independent of the constraints of
government securities stocks.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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73. Consider the following statements regarding International Development Association

(IDA):
1. It is a part of the World Trade Organisation that helps the least developed countries.
2. IDA helps countries manage their debt and has coordinated debt relief for poor countries.
3. It sets up Augmented Fabrication Laboratories for product development in its member nations.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
74. With reference to Asian Development Bank (ADB), consider the following statements:
1. The ADB provides both private financing and public financing.
2. All the powers of the institution are vested in the Board of Directors.
3. The two largest shareholders of institution are Japan and Russia.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
75. With reference to the Bretton Woods Agreement/System, consider the following
statements:
1. It created both the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
2. It collapsed immediately as a result of the disintegration of Soviet Union.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
76. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Drawing Rights (SDR):
1. SDR refers to an international monetary reserve currency created by the International Monetary
Fund.
2. It is a currency specially used to supplement other reserve assets of the member countries.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
.
Test-28 (Subject)
D. Neither 1 nor 2
77. Consider the following statements regarding the World Bank Group:
1. It supplies qualifying governments with low-interest loans as well as zero-interest credits.
2. It has International Finance Corporation that focuses on the private sector and financial advisory
services.
3. It does not provide arbitration on international investment disputes like the International
Monetary Fund.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
78. With reference to the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), consider the following
statements:
1. It is the oldest global financial institution operating under the aegis of international law.
2. It does not compete other private financial institutions for global banking activities.
3. It ensures liquidity for central banks by buying tradable instruments from them.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
79. The Human Capital Project seeks to help countries invest in and develop their people
to be productive citizens and active contributors to their economy. This Project is
created by-
A. World Economic Forum

B. United Nations Development Programme
C. International Monetary Fund
D. The World Bank
80. A new global tax transparency framework called Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework
(CARF) has been recently released by-
A. The World Trade Organisation

B. The Swiss Financial Market Supervisory Authority
C. The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
D. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
.
Test-28 (Subject)
81. Standards and Labelling (S&L) Scheme, sometime seen in the news, is related to
A. Ministry of Power
B. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
C. Ministry of Science and Technology
D. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Sector Enterprises.
82. Consider the following statements regarding the Unified Payments Interface (UPI):
1. It was developed by National Informatics Centre (NIC).
2. It is based on the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) platform.
3. It provides for Single Click 2 Factor Authentication

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
83. Consider the following pairs of drugs and the respective diseases treated:
Drug Name: Used for the treatment of:
1. Remdesivir Ebola
2. Lopinavir HIV/AIDS
3. Interferon beta-1a Rheumatology conditions
4. Hydroxychloroquine Multiple sclerosis
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
84. Consider the following statements regarding Aspirational Blocks Programme

1. It has been conceptualised by NITI Aayog.
2. It has been launched in the seven North-eastern states for a period of five years with an
intention of infrastructure development
3. It is based on Aspirational District Programme

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
.
Test-28 (Subject)
85. Soliga ecarinata was recently in news; it is a
A. Honeybee species
B. Toxin producing fungal species
C. Invasive creeper plant
D. Wasp species
86. Consider the following statements regarding Fishing Cat

1. It is nocturnal in nature.
2. It is a season specific breeder.
3. They are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
87. Consider the following statements regarding Emperor Penguin

1. Emperor Penguins are the largest of all the different kinds of penguin
2. They live in groups.
3. Penguins are a group of aquatic flightless birds.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
88. Consider the following statements regarding NISAR

1. It is the joint Earth observing mission between NASA and ISRO
2. The goal of NISAR is to make global measurements of the causes and consequences of land
surface changes using advanced radar imaging.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
89. Consider the following statements regarding DNA and RNA

1. DNA is the genetic material whereas RNA is not the genetic material except in certain viruses.
2. DNA cannot replicate itself whereas RNA can replicate it.
.
Test-28 (Subject)

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
90. With reference to the revenue deficit, consider the following statements:
1. Government may resort to borrowings.
2. Government may decrease the rate of taxes.
3. Government may introduce new taxes.
what are the possible steps government can take to fill the gap of deficit?
A. 1 Only
B. 1 and 2 Only
C. 2 Only
D. 1 and 3 Only
91. Consider the following statements regarding Bio-Computer

1. It is a combination of brain organoids with modern computer methods.
2. These structures will be able to record the firing patterns of the neurons and also deliver
electrical stimuli.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
92. Paralitherizinosaurus Japonicus, sometime seen in the news, is a
A. Tree fossil
B. Dinosaur fossil
C. Bird fossil
D. None of the above
93. DART mission, sometime seen in the news, is related to
A. Landing a space craft on asteroid.

B. It is a testing method of planetary defence against near-Earth objects.
C. Landing a space craft on Comets.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
94. Consider the following statements regarding Commission for Air Quality Management
(CAQM)
1. It is the permanent statutory authority with 20 members.
2. It is chaired by a government official of the rank of Secretary or Chief Secretary.
3. It will be working along with CPCB and ISRO, apart from the respective state government.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
95. Eco Sensitive Zones (ESZ)/ Eco-Sensitive Area (ESA), sometime seen in the news, is
established under
A. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

B. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
C. Environment Protection Act, 1986
96. Non-forest purposes defined in Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 includes which of the
following activities?
1. Establishment of check-posts
2. Rubber Plantation
3. Cultivation of Medicinal Plants

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
97. Consider the following statements regarding Wetlands (Conservation and

Management) Rules, 2017
1. It stipulates setting up of SWA in each State/UTs headed by State’s environment minister.
2. It is mandatory for state authorities to prepare list of all wetlands and list of wetlands to be
notified within six months.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
.
Test-28 (Subject)
98. Which of the following is/are the Fresh water Turtle species?
1. Crowned River Turtle
2. Keeled box Turtle
3. Leather back Turtle

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
99. United Nations Environment Programme has been established through
A. UN Conference on Sustainable Environment.

B. UN Conference on Human Environment
C. RIO Summit
ai
100. Consider the following statements regarding UNECE Water Convention
1. It is one of five UNECE's negotiated environmental treaties.
2. It is legally binding agreement.
3. India is a party to it.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
.
Total Marks : 200.00
Test-28 (Subject)
( Insta Prelims Test Series 2023 )
1. The term ‘Megha-Tropiques-1’ recently seen in news is associated with-
A. A satellite mission to study the water cycle in the tropical atmosphere.

B. A tropical biome formed on the mountainous slopes towards the sea.
C. An international satellite observing the total rainfall received by the Earth.
D. A European satellite mission that measures the ocean-surface height.
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Megha-Tropiques is a satellite mission to study the water cycle in the
tropical atmosphere in the context of climate change, realized as a collaborative effort between
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and French Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales
(CNES).
Megha-Tropiques-1 was developed as a joint mission by India and France to study the tropics’
water cycle and energy exchanges.
Megha-Tropiques carries the following payloads.
(1). Microwave Analysis and Detection of Rain and Atmospheric Structures (MADRAS)
(2). Sounder for Probing Vertical Profiles of Humidity (SAPHIR)
(3). Scanner for Radiation Budget (ScaRaB)
(4). Radio Occultation Sensor for Vertical Profiling of Temperature and Humidity (ROSA).
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/isro-satellite-megha-tropiques-8485506/
https://www.issdc.gov.in/megha.html

1. NISAR is a Low Earth Orbit observatory jointly developed by NASA and ISRO.
2. NISAR will provide spatially consistent data for understanding changes in Earth’s ecosystems.
3. The successful execution of NISAR will pave way for India's ambitions to have its own space
station.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has received the NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR)
satellite from the U.S. space agency.
Statement 1 is correct: NISAR is a Low Earth Orbit observatory jointly developed by

NASA and ISRO.
Statement 2 is correct: According to ISRO, NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 days
and provide spatially and temporally consistent data for understanding changes in Earth’s
ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, sea level rise, groundwater and natural
hazards, including earthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes and landslides.
NISAR carries L and S dual-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), which operates with the
Sweep SAR technique to achieve large swaths with high-resolution data.
The SAR payloads mounted on Integrated Radar Instrument Structure (IRIS) and the
spacecraft bus are together called an observatory. The experiment would involve two
separate satellites connecting with each other in the space physically.
Statement 3 is not correct: India’s space agency, ISRO has planned space docking
experiment (SPADEX) next Docking refers to connecting of two flying objects in space, either to
transfer men or material from one to the other, or two join two structures to make a bigger one.
Two satellites would be sent to space on board a regular PSLV mission and the two would be
made to dock with each other.
The successful execution of the SPADEX will pave way for India's ambitions to have its own
space station akin to the International Space Station (ISS) revolving the planet Earth.
Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/science/isro-to-demonstrate-docking-of-
satellites-next-year-says-sivan/article62240583.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nasa-hands-over-nisar-satellite-to-isro/art
icle66595669.ece
3. The Meissner’s Effect often talked about in news is studied and observed in the
context of-
A. Xenotransplantation
B. Reverse Osmosis process
C. Superconductivity
D. Flex-fuel vehicles
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Meissner effect, the expulsion of a magnetic field from the interior of a
material that is in the process of becoming a superconductor, that is, losing its resistance to the
flow of electrical currents when cooled below a certain temperature, called the transition
temperature, usually close to absolute zero.
Superconductivity was discovered by Heike Kamerlingh Onnes, a Dutch physicist, and his
team in 1911.
Not only do superconductors carry electricity with essentially zero electrical resistance,
but they also possess the strange ability known as the Meissner effect that ensures zero
magnetic field inside the material.
In the 1980s, physicists discovered so-called high-temperature superconductors, but even
those became superconducting in conditions far more frigid than those encountered in
everyday use.
Source: https://www.britannica.com/science/Meissner-effect
https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/new-room-temperature-superco
nductor-offers-tantalising-possibilities-8486314/

1. Sodium is an essential nutrient but can increase the risk of heart disease, and premature death.
2. The global average salt intake is more than what World Health Organisation has recommended
for per day consumption.
3. A significant proportion of sodium in the diet comes from manufactured foods such as bread
and cereals.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Explanation:
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Sodium chloride is the chemical name for salt and sodium is a mineral that regulates the
amount of water in the body.
Statement 1 is correct: Sodium is an essential nutrient, but increases the risk of heart
disease, stroke and premature death when eaten in excess.
The main source of sodium is table salt (sodium chloride), but it is also contained in other
condiments such as sodium glutamate.
An estimated 11 million deaths globally are associated with poor diet each year, including 3
million attributable to high sodium intake, it said in a report.
Statement 2 is correct: The global average salt intake is estimated to be 10.8 grams per day,
more than double the WHO recommendation of less than five grams of salt per day (one
teaspoon).
Statement 3 is correct: In many wealthy countries, and increasingly in lower income nations,
a significant proportion of sodium in the diet comes from manufactured foods such as bread,
cereal, processed meats and dairy products including cheese.
Cardiovascular diseases are the leading cause of deaths from non-communicable diseases
worldwide, responsible for 32% of all deaths.
High sodium intake is associated with obesity, chronic kidney disease and gastric cancer.
“Excess dietary sodium intake increases blood pressure and consequently increases the risk of
cardiovascular diseases.
Source: Don’t pass that salt …. WHO urges food companies to limit sodium use - The
Hindu BusinessLine
https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/health/dont-pass-the-salt-who-issues-benc
hmarks-for-sodium-content-in-food-730306/
5. Consider the following statements regarding Fiberisation:

1. It refers to the process of connecting radio towers with each other via optical fibre cables.
2. It helps provide complete utilisation of network capacity, and carry large amounts of data for 5G
services.
3. It does not need any separate component of larger transport to carry the data across the
network.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The process of connecting radio towers with each other via
optical fibre cables is called fiberisation.
Statement 2 is correct: It helps provide full utilisation of network capacity, and carry
large amounts of data once 5G services are rolled out.
Statement 3 is not correct: It will also aid in providing additional bandwidth and
stronger backhaul support. The backhaul is a component of the larger transport that is
responsible for carrying data across the network. It represents the part of the network
that connects the core of the network to the edge.
Fibre-based media, commonly called optical media, provides almost infinite bandwidth
and coverage, low latency and high insulation from interference.
With 5G, it will also be necessary to increase the density of mobile towers to provide
better coverage to consumers and businesses. This calls for increased requirements for
fibre deployment.
Government programmes like BharatNet and Smart Cities will further add to the demand
of fibre deployment, necessitating a complete tower fiberisation.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/fiberisation-for-5g-deployment/article
65677914.ece
6. Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV):
1. PSLV is configured as a three-stage vehicle having one liquid core stage and a high-thrust
cryogenic upper stage.
2. PSLV uses an Earth-storable liquid rocket engine and launches satellites both into
Geosynchronous as well as Geostationary orbits.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Statement 1 is not correct: GSLV Mk III is configured as a three-stage vehicle with two solid
strap-on motors (S200), one liquid core stage (L110) and a high thrust cryogenic upper stage
(C25).
The S200 solid motor is among the largest solid boosters in the world with 204 tonnes of solid
propellant.
GSLV Mk-III (LVM3) is the new heavy lift launch vehicle of ISRO for achieving a 4000 kg
spacecraft launching capability to GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) in a cost effective
manner.
Statement 2 is correct: PSLV uses an Earth storable liquid rocket engine for its second stage,
known as the Vikas engine, developed by Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre. The PSLV is
capable of placing multiple payloads into orbit, thus multi-payload adaptors are used in the
payload fairing.
Due to its unmatched reliability, PSLV has also been used to launch various satellites into
Geosynchronous and Geostationary orbits, like satellites from the IRNSS Constellation.
Source: https://www.isro.gov.in/PSLV_CON.html
7. Which one of the following statements is/are correct about the Neutrinos?
1. These are members of the same group like the electrons where electrons have a negative
charge, neutrinos have no charge at all.
2. Neutrinos are the products of heavy particles turning into lighter ones and can interact through
gravity.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
Neutrino is one of the so-called fundamental particles, which means it isn’t made of any smaller
pieces.
Statement 1 is correct: Most neutrinos will pass through Earth without interacting at all. To
increase the odds of seeing them, scientists build huge detectors and create intense sources of
neutrinos.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Neutrinos are members of the same group as the most famous fundamental particle, the
electron (which is powering the device you’re reading this on right now).
But while electrons have a negative charge, neutrinos have no charge at all.
Neutrinos are also incredibly small and light. They have some mass, but not much.
They are the lightest of all the subatomic particles that have mass. They’re also extremely
common in fact, they’re the most abundant massive particle in the universe.
Statement 2 is correct: Neutrinos come from all kinds of different sources and are often the
product of heavy particles turning into lighter ones, a process called “decay.”
The only ways neutrinos interact is through gravity and the weak force, which is, well, weak.
This weak force is important only at very short distances, which means tiny neutrinos can skirt
through the atoms of massive objects without interacting.
Source: https://neutrinos.fnal.gov/whats-a-neutrino/
8. With reference to Near-Field Communication (NFC) technology, consider the following

statements:
1. NFC refers to a wireless connectivity technology that allows devices to communicate and
transfer information quickly.
2. NFC-enabled devices do not require to be present in the close proximity or physically touching
for the data transfer.
3. NFC technology is rooted in radio-frequency identification used by retailers to track products.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Near-field communication is a short-range wireless connectivity

technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate with each other and transfer
information quickly and easily with a single touch.
NFC replaces RFID chips with microchips that have the ability to store and encrypt information.
While RFID devices are passive and so lack the ability to access information, NFC-enabled
.
Test-28 (Subject)
devices do.
NFC transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields, to enable communication between two
devices.
Both devices must contain NFC chips, as transactions take place within a very short distance.
Statement 2 is not correct: NFC-enabled devices must be either physically touching or within
a few centimetres from each other for data transfer to occur.
Statement 3 is correct: NFC is an extension of RFID technology, which relies on radio waves
to track goods, supplies, and merchandise.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/nfc-technology-for-instant-payments/
article65286681.ece
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/n/near-field-communication-nfc.asp
9. Consider the following statements regarding Additive manufacturing:

1. It creates physical and three-dimensional objects directly from a computer design file.
2. It includes the polymer composites, composites and the living tissues in manufacturing.
3. It has the ability to improve energy productivity and allows for greater design flexibility.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The emerging Additive manufacturing practice allows
researchers to create physical, three-dimensional objects directly from a computer design file.
It’s similar to how common desktop printers form images but instead of ink, 3D printers use a
wide variety of materials ranging from polymer composites, metals and ceramics to food,
foams, gels, and even living tissue.
Statement 3 is correct: Additionally, this method also has the ability to improve energy
productivity, allow for greater design flexibility and reduce production time all while creating
high-impact job opportunities.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Additive manufacturing reduces energy use by 25% and can cut waste and materials costs by
up to 90%, compared to traditional manufacturing methods.
Source: https://www.energy.gov/eere/articles/what-additive-manufacturing
10. With reference to Nucleic acid vaccines, consider the following statements:
1. The genetic material used in these vaccines is essentially the eukaryotic DNA which provides
the instructions for making a specific protein from the pathogen.
2. One of the major advantages of nucleic acid-based vaccines includes the simplicity of the vector
and the ease of delivery.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Nucleic acid vaccines use genetic material from a disease-causing virus or bacterium (a
pathogen) to stimulate an immune response against it.
Statement 1 is not correct: Depending on the vaccine, the genetic material could be DNA or
RNA; in both cases it provides the instructions for making a specific protein from the pathogen,
which the immune system will recognise as foreign (an antigen).
Once inserted into host cells, this genetic material is read by the cell’s own protein-making
machinery and used to manufacture antigens, which then trigger an immune response.
Statement 2 is correct: Advantages of nucleic acid-based vaccines include the simplicity of

the vector, the ease of delivery, the duration of expression, and, to date, the lack of evidence of
integration.
This is a relatively new technology, so although DNA and RNA vaccines are being developed
against various diseases, including HIV, Zika virus and COVID-19, so far none of them have yet
been approved for human use
Source: What are nucleic acid vaccines and how could they be used against
COVID-19? | Gavi, the Vaccine Alliance
Nucleic acid vaccines. - PMC (nih.gov)
.
Test-28 (Subject)
11. It is a revolutionary new area of research which aims to create biocomputers where
brain cultures grown in the lab are coupled to real-world sensors and input/output
devices. It is called-
A. Organoid Intelligence
B. Artificial intelligence
C. Artificial Neural Networks
D. Kinesthetic Intelligence
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Scientists have recently outlined a plan for a potentially revolutionary
new area of research called “organoid intelligence”, which aims to create “biocomputers”:
where brain cultures grown in the lab are coupled to real-world sensors and input/output
devices.
The scientists expect the technology to harness the processing power of the brain and
understand the biological basis of human cognition, learning, and various neurological
disorders.
In a quest to develop systems that are more relevant to humans, scientists are
building 3D cultures of brain tissue in the lab, also called brain organoids. These “mini-
brains” are built using human stem cells and capture many structural and functional
features of a developing human brain.
Researchers are now using them to study human brain development and test drugs to
see how they respond.
Source: The rise of three-dimensional human brain cultures - PubMed (nih.gov)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/explained-what-are-bio-computers-and-what-can-the
y-tell-us-about-the-human-
brain/article66583002.ece#:~:text=The%20story%20so%20far%3A%20Scientists%20at%20Joh
ns%20Hopkins,are%20coupled%20to%20real-
world%20sensors%20and%20input%2Foutput%20devices
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Bisphenol A (BPA)?
1. The degree to which BPA leaches from polycarbonate bottles into liquid depends more on the
age of the container than the temperature of the liquid.
2. BPA cannot leach into food from the protective internal epoxy resin coatings of canned foods.
3. Bureau of Indian Standards has banned the use of any material where BPA is used for
manufacturing feeding bottles of infants.
.
Test-28 (Subject)

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in the production
of polycarbonate plastics.
The primary source of exposure to BPA for most people is through the diet. While air, dust, and
water are other possible sources of exposure, BPA in food and beverages accounts for the
majority of daily human exposure.
Statement 1 is not correct: The degree to which BPA leaches from polycarbonate bottles into
liquid may depend more on the temperature of the liquid or bottle, than the age of the
container.
One reason people may be concerned about BPA is because human exposure to BPA is
widespread.
Statement 2 is not correct: Bisphenol A can leach into food from the protective internal
epoxy resin coatings of canned foods and from consumer products such as polycarbonate
tableware, food storage containers, water bottles, and baby bottles.
Statement 3 is correct: In 2015, Bureau of Indian Standards/BIS India had banned the use of
polycarbonates or any material where BPA is used for manufacturing feeding bottles while
observing that an infant’s health is at risk due to the chemical’s leaching.
Source: Study shows use of banned synthetic in feeding bottles | India News,The
Indian Express
https://www.niehs.nih.gov/health/topics/agents/sya-bpa/index.cfm
13. The ‘Fab-4 Alliance’ has been recently talked about in news in the context of-
A. Installation of off-grid solar pumps in rural areas of India.

B. Strengthening the semiconductor supply chain led by United States.
C. Providing broadband connectivity to all households in developing nations.
D. The Science, Technology and Innovation Policy formulated by India.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct: The U.S.-led "Fab 4" semiconductor alliance of Taiwan, the United
States, Japan and South Korea held its first meeting focused on supply chain resilience.
The United States convened the first meeting of the working group, colloquially called
"Fab 4" or "Chip 4", to discuss how to strengthen the semiconductor supply chain, after a
global chip crunch caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.
The semiconductor shortage, which forced some carmakers to halt production, thrust chip
powerhouse Taiwan into the spotlight and has made supply chain management a bigger
priority for governments around the world.
The "Fab" in the name refers to a shorthand industry expression for the fabrication plants
where chips, used in everything from fridges and smartphones to fighter jets, are made.
Source:
https://cio.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/strategy-and-management/taiwan-sa
ys-fab-4-chip-group-held-first-senior-officials-meeting/98262134
14. Consider the following statements about the Vinyl Chloride:

1. It is a chlorinated hydrocarbon that emits toxic fumes of carbon monoxide and phosgene when
heated to decomposition.
2. Prolonged exposure to vinyl chloride can cause a set of symptoms that is characterized by
Raynaud's phenomenon.
3. Vinyl chloride volatilizes into the air from water but it does not accumulate in enclosed spaces.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Vinyl Chloride is a chlorinated hydrocarbon occurring as a colourless,

highly flammable gas with a mild, sweet odour that may emit toxic fumes of carbon dioxide,
carbon monoxide, hydrogen chloride and phosgene when heated to decomposition.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Vinyl chloride is primarily used to make polyvinyl chloride to manufacture plastics. Exposure to
this substance affects the central and peripheral nervous system and causes liver damage.
Statement 2 is correct: Vinyl chloride readily volatilizes into the air from water, and it can
accumulate in enclosed spaces located above contaminated groundwater. This is especially a
concern if the water is heated, such as for showers or during cooking. Vinyl chloride gas in
enclosed spaces can therefore accumulate.
Vinyl chloride is a known human carcinogen and is associated with an increased risk of
developing liver cancer, predominantly angiosarcoma of the liver, but is also linked to brain and
lung cancer as well as cancer of the lymphatic and hematopoietic system
Statement 3 is not correct: Prolonged exposure to vinyl chloride can cause a set of
symptoms that is characterized by Raynaud's phenomenon, joint and muscle pain and
scleroderma-like skin changes.
Source: https://pubchem.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/compound/Vinyl-chloride
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-vinyl-chloride-chemical-released-in-t
he-ohio-train-derailment-can-damage-the-liver/article66525165.ece

1. Lewis acid refers to any substance that can accept a pair of non-bonding electrons.
2. Lewis super-acids can be used to break strong chemical bonds and speed up reactions.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
Named for the chemist, G N Lewis, Lewis super-acids derive from Lewis acids.
Statement 1 is correct: A Lewis acid is any substance, such as a Hydrogen ion (H+) that can
accept a pair of non-bonding electrons.
In other words, a Lewis acid is an electron-pair acceptor. A Lewis base is any substance, such as
the OH- ion, that can donate a pair of non-bonding electrons. A Lewis base is therefore an
electron-pair donor.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Because Lewis acids add electron pairs, they are often used to speed up chemical reactions.
Statement 2 is correct: Lewis super-acids can be used to break strong chemical bonds and
speed up reactions.
Lewis super-acids are stronger than antimony pentafluoride - the strongest Lewis acid -- and
can break even the toughest bonds. Breaking strong, chemical bonds requires highly reactive
substances.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-are-lewis-super-acids/article665667
19.ece#:~:text=A%20Lewis%20acid%20is%20any%20substance%2C%20such%20as,t
hat%20can%20donate%20a%20pair%20of%20nonbonding%20electrons.
16. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the Aubrites?
A. These are coarse-grained igneous rocks formed in oxygen poor conditions.

B. These contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on Earth.
C. The conditions in which aubrites form, are prevalent on planet Mercury.
D. India is the most frequent site in the world for aubrite meteorite crashes.
Correct Answer : D
Explanation:
Options (a) and (b) are correct: Aubrites “are coarse-grained igneous rocks that formed” in
oxygen-poor conditions, and thus “contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on
Earth”.
On August 17, 2022, a meteorite streaked over India, The meteorite is a “rare, unique
specimen” of aubrite, analysis by a group of scientists at the Physical Research Laboratory
(PRL), Ahmedabad, has revealed.
Option (c) is correct: The conditions in which aubrites form are prevalent on the surface of
Mercury;
Option (d) is not correct: India has been the site of hundreds of meteorite crashes, but this is
only the second recorded crash of an aubrite. The last was on December 2, 1852, in Basti, Uttar
Pradesh.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/rare-unique-diyodar-meteorite-in-2022-w
as-indias-first-aubrite-in-170-years/article66496695.ece
.
Test-28 (Subject)

1. Organic Light Emitting Diode (OLED) display technology provides self-illuminating diodes that
have better colour reproduction than microLEDs.
2. The basis of microLED technology are sapphires that can shine on its own forever.
3. MicroLEDs individually produce red, green, and blue colours without needing colour filters as
conventional displays.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: MicroLEDs are self-illuminating diodes that have brighter and
better colour reproduction than Organic Light Emitting Diode (OLED) display technology.
Statement 2 is correct: The basis of microLED technology are sapphires. A sapphire can
shine on its own forever. A microLED screen is filled with such small but strong light. The picture
in a microLED screen is generated by several individual light-emitting diodes.
MicroLED displays are brighter, have better colour reproduction and provide better viewing
angles. They make images appear as if they painted on top of the device’s glass and are quite
the technological feat.
MicroLEDs have limitless scalability, as they are resolution-free, bezel-free, ratio-free, and even
size-free.
Statement 3 is correct: The screen can be freely resized in any form for practical usage. In
addition to being self-emissive, MicroLEDs also individually produce red, green, and blue colours
without needing the same backlighting or colour filters as conventional displays.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/what-are-microled-displays-and-why-i
s-apple-shifting-to-it/article66500256.ece
18. The ‘Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array (ALMA)’ recently seen in news is
used to-
A. Study planetary systems that orbit distant stars.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
B. Visualise the deep-sea plains known as abyssal plains.

C. Explore the zones where oceanic lithosphere slides into the mantle.
D. Study the sun at both its turbulent maximum and demure minimum.
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: ALMA is an international astronomy facility, and is a partnership

between the European Southern Observatory (ESO), the National Science Foundation (NSF) of
the United States and the National Institutes of Natural Sciences (NINS) of Japan in collaboration
with the Republic of Chile.
ALMA is used to observe light from space in millimetric and submillimetric wavelengths.
ALMA is being used to study planetary systems that orbit distant stars.
Millimeter/submillimeter-wave observations can aid the search for extrasolar planets in
many ways.
Such observations can provide much higher resolving power (ability to see fine detail)
than current optical or infrared telescopes.
At millimeter and submillimeter wavelengths, the difference in brightness between a
planet and the star it orbits can also be less, making the planet easier to observe.
ALMA observations can also be used to gather data about worlds inside our solar system,
such as Saturn’s moon Titan.
Source: https://astrobiology.nasa.gov/missions/alma/
https://www.eso.org/sci/facilities/alma.html

1. In Air-cooled condensers, the condenser heat is rejected directly to the ambient air.
2. Air-cooled condensers are common choice for heat rejection in geothermal power plants where
water is scarce.
3. India has recently commissioned its first Air cooled condenser to demonstrate its commitment
towards water conservation.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In air-cooled condensers, condenser heat is rejected directly to the
ambient air. Thus, the condensing temperature is a function of the ambient air dry-bulb
temperature.
The obvious advantage of air-cooled condensers relative to water-cooled condensers is that

cooling water is not needed.
Statement 2 is correct: Consequently, air-cooled condensers are the common choice for heat
rejection in geothermal power plants where water is scarce, such as in the desert areas.
The main disadvantage of air-cooled condensers relative to water-cooled condensers is typically

higher capital cost; water is a better heat transfer medium than air, and so larger heat rejection
equipment is typically needed for air-cooled power plants.
Statement 3 is correct: NTPC has commissioned India’s first Air cooled condenser installed
Super Critical plant to demonstrate its Commitment towards water conservation through
reduce, reuse and recycle.
NTPC has already taken a series of measures across its plant locations on sound water
management. NTPC will further imbibe the 3 R’s (reduce, reuse, recycle) for water conservation
and management while carrying out its core business activity of power generation. NTPC Ltd, is
a signatory to the prestigious UN Global Compact’s CEO Water Mandate.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1903474
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/engineering/air-cooled-condenser
20. Consider the following statements regarding Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
Technology:
1. RFID is a wireless tracking method that uses tags and readers to track objects.
2. Semi-passive tags, and active tags are the only types of RFID tags that are commercially
available.
3. An RFID tag cannot communicate with a powered reader when the tag is not powered making it
a major drawback.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Radio-frequency identification (RFID) is a technology that uses radio

waves to automatically identify various tagged objects. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is
a wireless tracking method that uses tags and readers to track objects.
Statement 2 is not correct: Passive tags, semi-passive tags, and active tags are the three
types of RFID tags that are commercially available.
There is no power supply for passive tags. They acquire their power from the readers’ incoming
radio waves.
Semi-passive tags comprise an internal circuit with a power source, but rely on the radio waves
received from the reader to transmit the response.
Statement 3 is not correct: RFID uses radio waves to communicate data from RFID chips to
readers that do not require line of sight in order to obtain the data, whereas barcodes use light
to read the black-and-white pattern printed on the sticky tag. An RFID tag can communicate
with a powered reader even when the tag is not powered.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/barcode-radio-frequ
ency-identification-explained-7950305/
21. Consider the following statements regarding Montreux Record

1. It is maintained as a part of Convention on Wetlands.
2. It includes wetland sites that are maintained by ethnic tribal communities as part of religious
practices.
3. Loktak Lake is the only wetland from India to be included in the list.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
The Montreux Record is maintained as part of the Ramsar list.
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands or simply Convention on Wetlands is an international
treaty that aims to conserve and promote sustainable use of wetlands worldwide.
The convention was signed on February 2, 1971 and now, 2nd February is celebrated as
.
Test-28 (Subject)
World Wetlands Day.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the list of wetlands of international
importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or likely
to occur as a result of Technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
At present Loktak lake in Manipur and Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan are the only
two wetlands to appear in the Montreux record.
Earliest Chilika Lake in Odisha was a part of the list but later it was removed.

Convention Related to
1. Vienna Convention Protection of ozone layer
2. Minamata Control of groundwater
Convention pollution from Lead and Arsenic
3. Bonn Convention Protection of migratory Animal species
4. Stockholm Prevention of Trans-boundary
Convention movement of hazardous wastes

A. Only one pair
B. Only two pairs
C. Only three pairs
D. All four pairs
Correct Answer : B
Vienna Convention
It was adopted in 1985

This International agreement was adopted by United Nations for the protection
of ozone layer
The member Nations recognised the fundamental importance of preventing damage to
the stratospheric ozone layer.
Hence pair 1 is correct.
Minamata Convention
.
Test-28 (Subject)
It was adopted by the United Nations Environment Programme

It is an international treaty that aims to protect human and environment from
the anthropogenic emissions of Mercury and mercury compounds.
Major highlights of the convention include a ban of new Mercury mines, phase out of
existing ones, phase out and phase down of Mercury use in various products and
processes, control measures on emissions to air and release in land and water and the
regulation of the informal sector of artisanal and small scale gold mining.
Hence pair 2 is incorrect.
Bonn Convention
The Bonn Convention or Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) is a United Nations

environment treaty.
It was signed in 1979 in Bonn, Germany and came to force in 1983.
It provides for conservation of migratory species of wild animals and protect
them across the entirety of their ranges.
Stockholm Convention
It came to force in 2004

It aims to eliminate or reduce the release of persistent organic pollutants.
Persistent organic pollutants are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long
period of time and become widely distributed geographically and accumulate in the fatty
tissue of living organisms
These are toxic to humans and wildlife.
23. Consider the following statements regarding High Seas Treaty recently in news
1. It is an agreement under United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea that provides for
protection of high sea biodiversity.
2. Under it more than 50% of international waters have been declared as Marine Protected Areas.
3. It provides for formation of a new authority for establishment of marine protected areas in high
seas.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
.
Test-28 (Subject)
The United Nation High Seas Treaty has been agreed by United Nations members at New
York.
For the first time the UN members have agreed on a unified legally binding Treaty to
protect biodiversity in the high seas, outside National boundaries.
It is the third implementing agreement under the UNCLOS which was signed in 1982.
UNCLOS lays down a comprehensive regime of law and order in the world’s oceans and
seas establishing rules governing all uses of the oceans and their resources.
The High Seas Treaty places 30% of the world's International waters into protected areas
by 2030.
It also puts more money into Marine conservation and establishes new rules for mining at
sea.
Richer Nations have pledged money for delivery of the Treaty.
The Treaty seeks to create a new body to manage conservation of Ocean life and
establish Marine protected areas in the high seas.
It also aims to establish ground rules for conducting environment impact assessments for
commercial activities in oceans.
24. The impacts of Marine heatwaves include

1. Coral bleaching
2. Change in habitat range of marine species
3. Ocean alkalinization
4. Mortality of marine invertebrates
5. Increase of Seagrass and kelp forest density

A. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Correct Answer : B
Marine heat waves are periods of extremely high temperatures in the ocean.
The most common reason includes ocean currents that build up areas of warm water and
air-sea heat flux or warming through the ocean surface from the atmosphere.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Winds can enhance or decrease the warming in a marine heatwave and climatic
phenomena like El nino can change the likelihood of events occurring in certain regions
Marine heat waves are associated with coral bleaching, sea grass destruction,
loss of kelp forests, mass mortality of marine invertebrates, change in
behaviour of marine species, change in habitat range of certain species.
Marine heat waves also are associated with Economic losses as fisheries and aquaculture
are adversely impacted.
These are harmful for Marine biodiversity too.
Marine heat waves occur along with ocean acidification, deoxygenation and over
fishing; in such cases, these heat waves damages habitats as well as increase
the risk of deoxygenation and ocean acidification.
Hence option B is correct.
25. Greenwashing, sometimes seen in news, refers to
A. Increasing green cover of a specific territory within a fixed period of time.

B. False claims made by a company that marks all its activities as environment friendly.
C. Initiatives undertaken to save vulnerable coral reefs.
D. The corporate bonds issued by private corporations for the purpose of funding sustainable
infrastructure projects.
Correct Answer : B
Greenwashing refers to the practice in which governments and various private
firms mark all kinds of activities as climate friendly and claims that those would
lead to reductions in emissions of pollutants in the atmosphere
It helps in boosting the image of the entity in front of the consumers who believe that the
products are environmentally friendly, but in reality, such firms do nothing to fight the
climate change
Most of the claims the companies make are often misleading or unverifiable.
It is prevalent across a whole range of environment activities
It also involves attempts that a company makes to emphasize sustainable aspects of a
product to overshadow its involvement in environmentally damaging practices.
The practice has various effects on company’s consumers, green industries and the
planet earth as a whole.
Recently the United Nations officially acknowledge green washing and the secretary
General warned private corporations to stay away from such practices.
26. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming
.
Test-28 (Subject)
1. It makes use of fermented microbial culture to act as a catalytic agent for promoting activity of
earthworms in the soil.
2. It uses natural ingredients for pest management and treatment of seeds for cultivation.
3. It helps in methane emissions from farmlands where it is practiced.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Zero budget natural farming is the method of chemical free agriculture whose techniques
are inspired from traditional Indian practices
It was originally promoted by agriculturist Subhash Palekar who developed it in the mid
1990s as an alternative to the Green revolution.
No chemical fertilizer, pesticide and expensive agricultural inputs are required in this
method
It is based on four pillars; one of which is Jivamrita - which is the mixture of fresh cow
dung and aged cow urine (from India’s indigenous cow breed) jaggery, pulse flour, soil
and water -it should be applied on farmland.
This fermented microbial culture adda nutrients to the soil and act as a catalytic agent to
promote activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil.
The second pillar of the method is Bijamrita.

It is a concoction of neem leaves and pulp, tobacco and green chillies that is prepared for
insect and pest management
it can also be used for treatment of seeds.
The third pillar is Waaphasa or Aeration. It is the condition in which both air molecules
and water molecules are present in the soil, increasing soil aeration and overall soil
health.
This method of farming requires less amount of water for all the selected crops
it also reduces methane emissions significantly from farmlands through multiple
aeration.
27. Consider the following statements regarding Red Sanders
.
Test-28 (Subject)
1. It is endemic to the Eastern India, particularly in the states of West Bengal and Odisha.
2. It is an Endangered flora-species whose export is prohibited in India.
3. It is protected under both CITES and Wildlife Protection) Act 1972.
4. Phytoplasmas are causative agents of Sandalwood Spike Disease, which is transmitted between
plants by bats.

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Red Sanders or Pterocarpus santalinus, is a tree species in endemic to India having a
restricted geographical range in the Eastern ghats.
The species is endemic to a particular tract of forest in Andhra Pradesh.
Sanders is a flora species that come under Endangered list in the International
Union for Conservation of Nature Red list.
It’s export is prohibited in India.
Red sanders is listed in Appendix II of the Convention on International Trade in

Endangered Species of Wildlife Fauna and Flora.
It is also protected under scheduled II of Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
Sandalwood spike disease is a major infectious disease of the Sandalwood trees caused
by Phytoplasma
The sandalwood phytoplasmas are parasites of plants tissue
It has a cell membrane, ribosome and DNA and is the smallest organism capable of
independent replication.
The disease is transmitted from one plant to another by sap-sucking insect vectors.
However, recent research by a team of scientists has found out that the disease is
spreading through seeds also.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
28. Consider the following statements regarding Guidelines on Extended Producer

Responsibility (EPR) on plastic packaging
1. It has been notified under Plastic Waste Management Rules 2016.
2. It seeks to increase EPR target to 100% as well as recycling obligation for producers to 50% for
rigid plastics by 2030.
3. The guidelines specifies plastic packaging into two categories viz., rigid and flexible, based on
presence of layers in the plastic.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : D
The government has recently notified the guidelines on Extended Producers
Responsibility on plastic packaging under Plastic Waste Management rules
2016.
The guidelines provide for specification for reuse, recycling, use of recycled plastic
content, and end of life disposal of non-recyclable plastic packaging.
EPR target will be increased to 70% in 2022-23 and 100% from 2023-24 onwards
The recycling obligation for producers will be 50% for rigid plastic in 2024-25, 60% in
2025-26, 70% in 2026-27 and 80% from 2027-28 onwards.
Four categories of plastic packaging have been specified under it:
Category one includes rigid plastic packaging

Category two includes flexible plastic packaging of single layer or multi-layer plastic
sheets and covers made of plastic sheet, carry bags, plastic sachet and pouches
Category three includes multi layered plastic packaging
Category four includes plastic sheet used for packaging as well as carry bag made of
compostable plastics
29. Consider the following statements regarding Central Ground Water Board
1. It was formed as a subordinate office under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change by replacing Exploratory Tube wells Organisation.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
2. The board carries out periodic assessment of groundwater resources jointly with state
government agencies and provides for technical information regarding scientific groundwater
exploration.
3. The Central Ground Water Authority has been set up under the board under the Water (
Prevention and Control of Pollution) act 1974.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
The Central Ground Water Board is a subordinate office of Ministry of Water Resources
It was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organisation under
Ministry of Agriculture and was subsequently merged with Groundwater Wing of the
Geological Survey of India during 1972.
The Board conducts periodic assessment of replenishable groundwater resources of the

country along with concerned state government agencies
Geophysical studies, remote sensing and groundwater modelling studies are also under
taken to supplement these activities.
The board also provides technical know-how for scientific groundwater exploration,
development and management to various stakeholders.
The Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under section 3 of
Environment (Protection) Act 1986 to regulate and control development and
management of ground water resources in the country.
It can also issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose of management of
groundwater resources.
30. Consider the following statements regarding Climate Hazards and Vulnerability Atlas
of India
1. It has been developed by Climate Research and Services Office under guidelines of World
Meteorological Organisation.
2. It is based on extreme weather events that impact economy of each district in the India, and
uses available historical climate data.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
3. According to it, coastal districts of Andhra Pradesh have the highest cyclone vulnerability for
cyclones of all intensities in India.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
The Climate Hazards and Vulnerability Atlas of India has been developed by the
scientists at the Climate Research and Services Office of India Meteorological
Department, Pune.
It has been prepared using geographic information system tools and provide district maps
on hazard events and vulnerability.
It is based on 14 extreme weather events including extreme rainfall, dust storm, hail
storm, cyclones, snowfall, wind, fog, lightning, cold wave, heat wave and so on.
It includes those events and their impact on livelihoods and economy of each district in
India.
The hazards and vulnerability values have been calculated using the IMD’s historical
climate data.
According to it, Purba Medinipur in West Bengal has the highest cyclone vulnerability in
the country for cyclones of all intensities.

Report Published by
1. BiodiverCities by 2030 World Economic Forum
2. Global Risk Report World Bank
3. World Water UNESCO
Development Report

A. None of the above
B. Only one pair
C. Only two pairs
D. All three pairs
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : C
BiodiverCities by 2030 was released by World Economic Forum.
It provided for a vision for cities of the future that place nature at the heart of decision
making and infrastructure investment
It uses artificial Intelligence and crowdsourcing Technology through the Forum’s strategic
Intelligence and UppLink platforms collecting up to date online content and building a
community of innovators and entrepreneurs to address the world's most pressing
challenges on nature and cities.
The Global Risk report is published by World Economic Forum.

The 18th edition of the report was published in 2023 ahead of the Forum’s flagship Davos
2023 meeting which is titled as ‘cooperation in a fragmented world’.
As per the recent report, ‘failure to mitigate climate change' and 'failure of Climate
Change adaptation' are the two most severe risks facing the world in the next decade,
followed by natural disasters and extreme weather events and biodiversity loss and
ecosystem collapse.
World Water Development report is published by UNESCO on behalf of UN-

Water.
The report provides decision makers with knowledge and tools to formulate and
implement sustainable water policies
32. Consider the following statements regarding International Monsoons Project Office
1. It has been set up at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology under the Ministry of Earth
Sciences.
2. It includes International monsoon research activities identified under the Leadership of World
Weather Research Programme.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-28 (Subject)
The International Monsoons Project Office is hosted at the Indian Institute of
Tropical Meteorology, Pune for 5 years
IITM is an institution under Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Its establishment promotes the importance of monsoon for the national economy.
It would in compass activities and connections related to International monsoon research
that would be identified and fostered under the Leadership of World Climate Research
Programme and World Weather Research Programme; both of these programs are
International programmes co-ordinated by the United Nations World Meteorological
organisation.
Setting up of the office in India means expanding an integrated scientific approach to
solve the seasonal variability of monsoons, enhancing prediction skills of monsoons and
cyclones, strengthening monsoon research for better support operations and services and
promoting knowledge sharing and capacity building in areas of monsoon research, that is
essential for agriculture, water resources, disaster management, hydro power and
climate- sensitive socio- economic sectors.
Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
33. In India, Dugongs are found in

1. Gulf of Mannar
2. Chilika Lake
3. Gulf of Kutch
4. Sundarban delta

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : A
Dugongs or Sea cows are one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia and is
the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that is found exclusively in the
sea
They are found in over 30 countries globally
In India they are found in Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay and Andaman
and Nicobar Islands.
They are an important part of marine ecosystem.
Their depletion will have effects of the food chain.
They are protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act 1972 and Appendix I of
CITES.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Recently the Tamil Nadu government has decided to established India’s first Conservation
Reserve for Dugongs in Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay
Hence option A is correct.
34. Consider the following statements regarding Nanoplastics

1. These are synthetic polymers that are derived secondarily from plastic disintegration in the
environment.
2. They are associated with causing risks to ecosystem by virtue of their property of moving to
higher tropic levels in a food web.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Nanoplastics are synthetic polymers smaller than 1000nm.
They are directly released to the environment or secondarily derived from plastic
disintegration in the environment.
Nano plastics are associated with several risks to the ecology and toxicity to humans
these are widely detected in environmental samples and the food chain and therefore
their potentially toxic effects have been widely explored.
Recently, research from the University of eastern Finland have found that these
nano plastics can travel up the human food web through plants insects and
even fish.
35. Consider the following statements regarding Green Status of Species

1. It has been developed by IUCN to complement the Red List.
2. It assess species based solely on its performance of ecological functions in all parts of its range.
3. It provides for a ‘Green Score' depicting the recovery status of a species.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
.
Test-28 (Subject)
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
The IUCN Red List of threatened species is the Global standard for assessing the risk of
extinction that individual species of animal plant faces.
But a vision of species conservation that presents a road map for recovery of threatened
species is also required
To achieve this, Red list assessment process has been expanded to include new
classifiers of species recovery and conservation impact, which is known as the
Green Status of species.
the Green status assess species against three essential facets of recovery :
A species is fully recovered if it is present in all parts of his range, even those that
are no longer occupied but were occupied prior to human disruption
It is viable and not threatened with extinction in all parts of its range
It is performing its ecological functions in all parts of its range
The above mentioned factors contribute towards a green score which ranges from 0 to
100%
it shows how far a species is from its fully recovered state.
36. Consider the following statements regarding Green Ammonia

1. Ammonia produced by Haber process using hydrogen and nitrogen without carbon, is termed
green ammonia.
2. It can be used in the production of carbon neutral shipping fuel and fertilizer products.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Green Ammonia is produced when the process of making ammonia is 100% renewable
and carbon free
It is produced by using hydrogen from water electrolysis and nitrogen separated from the
air
These are then fed into the Haber process
All of the activities undertaken are powered by sustainable electricity
Green Ammonia production uses renewable energy sources like solar power, hydroelectric
power and wind turbines.
In the Haber process, hydrogen and nitrogen react together at high temperature and
pressure to produce ammonia.
Green Ammonia can be used in the production of carbon free fertilizer products,
thus decarbonizing the food value chain
It also has the potential to be used as carbon neutral shipping fuel, beneficial for the
environment.
Hence statement 2 is correct
37. ‘Fire Ready Formula’, sometimes seen in news, has been conceptualized by
A. Rainforest Alliance
B. United Nations Environment Programme
C. Conservation International
D. The International Tropical Timber Organisation
Correct Answer : B
The ‘Fire ready Formula’ has been promoted by United Nations Environment Programme
It is in the context of increasing the incidences of wildfire in the future
The formula envisages allocating 66% of funds for planning, prevention, preparedness
and recovery and 34% for response
In its annual Frontiers report 2022, UNEP has warned that wildfire are predicted to worsen
in the coming years and decades
Wildfires are one of the three most important environmental issues to have emerged due
to climate change according to the recent edition of the Frontiers report.
the other two are noise pollution and shift in biological life cycles of plants and animals.
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38. Consider the following statements regarding Indian National Centre for Ocean
Information Services
1. It is an autonomous organisation that works as a unit of Earth System Science Organisation.
2. It identifies Potential Fishing Zones by using real time data provided by OCEANSAT.
3. It operates Tsunami Early Warning System in collaboration with Indian Ocean Commission.
4. The Coastal Vulnerability Index to determine the coastal risks due to sea level rise is prepared
by INCOIS.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) is an autonomous
organisation under the Ministry of Earth Sciences
it was established in 1999 as a unit of Earth System Science Organisation is under the
ministry.
it is located in Pragathi Nagar, Hyderabad.
One of the first advisory services provided by INCOIS was identification of

Potential Fishing Zones in India
it uses real time data for Ocean colour and imagery provided by OCEANSAT
satellite built by ISRO for the purpose
Potential fishing zones are those areas in the ocean where fishes aggregate due to
abundance of food and they are demarcated by tracing those regions in the ocean.
Identifying these locations helps fishermen identify high quality fishing zones and
maximizes their catch.
Tsunami Early Warning system was established in 2007 and is operated by INCOIS.
It is an integrated effort of various organisations including Department of
Space, Department of Science and Technology, National Institute of Ocean
Technology, Council of Scientific and Industrial Research and Survey of India.
Indian Ocean Commission was created in 1982; it is an intergovernmental organisation
consisting of Union of Comoros, France / Reunion, Madagascar, Mauritius and Seychelles.
Coastal vulnerability index is prepared by INCOIS after carrying out an assessment of
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coastal vulnerability at State levels

The assessment has been conducted to bring out and Atlas comprising 156 maps to
prepare the index.

1. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957 classifies sand as a minor
mineral in India.
2. Rules for prevention of illegal mining and storage of minor minerals can be framed by the
central government only.
3. Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016 has been issued by Ministry of Mines to
regulate sand mining.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Sand is a granular non cohesive mineral whose unabated extraction has several harmful
impacts on the environment.
Rivers and coastal areas are main sources of sand and the demand for it has increased
significantly in recent years due to development of construction and infrastructure
projects in India.
Sand mining can lead to destruction of habitats and ecosystems as well as erosion of river
banks and coastal areas.
Sand mining also impacts water table and reduces the availability of drinking water and
water for irrigation purposes.
In India sand is classified as a minor mineral under the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Act 1957.
Under the MMDR Act 1957, state governments are empowered to make rules to
prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals (both major Minerals and
minor Minerals) and for purposes connected therewith.
Sustainable Sand Mining Management Guidelines 2016 has been issued by

Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change
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It focuses on the promotion of scientific sand mining and eco-friendly management

practices.
40. Consider the following climate finance mechanisms

1. Green Climate Fund
2. Special Climate Change Fund
3. Adaptation Fund
4. Global Environment Fund
Which of the above mechanisms is/are under the ambit of United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) ?
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : B
Green ClimateFund (GCF) was set up in 2010 under UNFCCC's financial
mechanism to channel funding from developed countries to developing
countries to allow them to mitigate climate change and also adapt to
disruptions arising from a changing climate
the fund will support projects, programs, policies and other activities in developing
country parties using thematic funding windows.
Hence option 1 is correct.
the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) is one of the world's first multilateral
climate adaptation finance instrument that was established under the UNFCCC
in 2001
It finances projects relating to adaptation, technology transfer and capacity building,
energy, transport, industry, agriculture, Forestry and waste management and economic
diversification.
this fund complements other funding mechanism for implementation of the UNFCCC
The Global Environment Facility (GEF) as an Operating entity of the financial mechanism,
has been entrusted to operate the SCCF.
In 2004, the GEF Council approved a programming document which provides the
operational basis for funding activities under the SCCF.
Adaptation Fund was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UNFCCC and is managed
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by the Adaptation Fund Board.

It finances projects and programs that help vulnerable communities in developing
countries adapt to climate change.
It is financed in part by government and private donors and also from a 2% share of
proceeds of Certified Emission Reductions issued under the Kyoto Protocol’s Clean
Development Mechanism projects.
The Global Environment Fund was founded by Jeff Leonard and John Earhart in
1990 on the principle that will deploy capital and can bring about significant
improvements to the environment and quality of life throughout the world.
It has been investing in businesses in both emerging and developed countries where
changing energy, environmental and natural resources constraints or needs have resulted
in business and financial opportunities.
Hence option 4 is incorrect.
41. Consider the following statements regarding Asian Waterbird Census

1. It is conducted as part the International Waterbird Census coordinated by Wetlands
International.
2. At present it covers only the entire Central Asian Flyway.
3. In India, the census is conducted by the Ministry of of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
in association with Birdlife International.

A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
The Asian Waterbird Census is an integral part of the global Waterbird
monitoring Program- the International Waterbird Census (IWC) coordinated by
Wetlands International
IWC is a monitoring program operating in 143 countries to collect information on the
number of water birds at wetland sites .
The census gives an idea about the number of birds at the wetlands which acts as an
indicator regarding health of the wetlands
A good number of waterbirds indicate that the wetland has adequate feeding, nesting,
roosting and foraging spots
The information collected helps to promote the designation and management of
internationally important sites such as nationally protected areas, Ramsar sites, East
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Asian Australasian flyway network, Important Bird and Biodiversity areas.
the Asian Waterbird Census covers the entire East Asian-Australasian flyway
and a large part of the Central Asian flyway
the East Asian Australasian flyway extends from Arctic Russia and North America to the
southern limits of Australia and New Zealand.
It encompasses large parts of East Asia, all of Southeast Asia and includes Eastern India
and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
the Central Asian flyway includes a large Continental area of Eurasia between Arctic and
Indian Oceans and associated Island chains.
In India, the census is conducted jointly by the Bombay Natural History Society
(BNHS) and Wetlands International.
BNHS the is a pan India wildlife research Organisation which aims to promote the cause of
nature.
Birdlife International is a global partnership of non-governmental organisations that
strives to conserve birds and their habitats.
42. Periphyton refers to
A. A complex accumulation of bacteria, algae and fungi bound together with a

polysaccharide matrix attached to submerged substrates.
B. Group of organisms that live at the air-water interface, unattached to the bottom of water
bodies.
C. Marine heterotrophic organisms of varying sizes that swim and move independently of
water currents
D. Organisms living on the bottom of water bodies
Correct Answer : A
Aquatic organisms are classified on the basis of their zone of occurrence and their ability
to cross these zones. They can be classified on the basis of their life forms or location.
They can be classified into five groups viz., Neuston, Periphyton, Plankton, Nekton and
Benthos.
Periphyton is a complex mixture of algae, cyanobacteria heterotrophic microbes
and detritus that is attached to submerged surfaces in most aquatic
ecosystems.
Periphyton serves as an important food source for invertebrates, tadpoles and some
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fishes
It can also absorb contaminants, removing them from water and limiting their movement
through the environment.
Periphyton is also an important indicator of water quality in aquatic ecosystems, whose
response to pollutants can be measured at variety of scales representing physiological to
community level changes.
Hence statement A is correct.
43. Consider the following statements regarding Sacred Groves

1. They are biodiversity rich natural vegetative patches that are dedicated to local folk deities.
2. They are legally protected under Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act 2002.
3. Invasion by exotic weeds possesses a threat to Sacred groves in the country.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
The sacred groves comprise of patches of forests of natural vegetation- from a few trees
to forest of several acres that are usually dedicated to local folk deities.
These groves are important repositories of flora and fauna diversity that have been
conserved since ages by local communities in a sustainable manner.
Sacred groves are scattered all over the country and are often associated with temples,
monasteries, shrines or with burial grounds
In India, sacred groves have been legally protected under ‘community reserves’
in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002.
Also members of the associated community take turns to protect the Groves
Some common threats to Sacred groves in India include:
Invasion by invasive weeds like Lantana, Prosopis, Chromolaena.

Rapid urbanization and developmental projects such as roads, railways, Dam
Pressure due to increasing livestock and fuel wood collection
Disappearance of traditional belief system and transformation of primitive form of nature
worship into formal Temple worship
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Overgrazing

1. Bad Ozone is formed by interactions of solar ultraviolet radiation with molecular oxygen .
2. Ground level ozone the main component of urban smog in cities.
3. The Kigali amendment to the Montreal Protocol deals with elimination of Chloroflurocarbons that
deplete the ozone layer.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : C
Tropospheric ozone or Bad Ozone is the ground level Ozone
It is not directly emitted by any source but is formed by photochemical reactions between
oxides of Nitrogen and other volatile organic compounds and gases in the air under direct
influence of Sunlight and temperature.
On the other hand, Good Ozone or Stratospheric Ozone occurs naturally through
interaction of UV radiation with molecular oxygen in the upper atmosphere of the earth. It
protects the Earth from harmful effects of UV rays .
Ground level or bad ozone is an air pollutant that is harmful and damages crops, trees
and other vegetation.
It is primarily a sunny weather problem in India as the presence of Sunlight has a direct
impact on the formation of ground level ozone.
Heat acts as a catalyst facilitating photochemical reactions; hence higher concentrations
of ozone are seen during summer months
Ground level Ozone is the main ingredient of urban smog.
The Montreal protocol 1989 aimed at protecting the Earth from ozone depleting
substances like chlorofluorocarbons
The protocol leads to replacement of CFCs with hydroflurocarbons which do not
destroy the Ozone layer
However, HFCs were later found to be extremely potent in causing global warming
Hence the Kigali amendment was introduced
.
Test-28 (Subject)
The Kigali amendment enabled the Montreal protocol to mandate elimination of

HFCs by cutting down their production and consumption.

1. Species diversity decreases from equator towards the temperate region.
2. Regions characterized by constant environments promote niche specialization and lead to
greater species diversity.
3. Ecosystems having greater biodiversity are more resistant to diseases and natural disasters
than those having less species diversity.

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Species diversity decreases as one goes away from the equator towards the
pole.
With very few exceptions, tropics harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
Tropical regions are warm all the year round and have the most biodiversity.
Temperate regions which have warm summers and cold winters, have less biodiversity.
Generally, closer a region is to the equator, the greater its biodiversity .
Regions with cold or dry conditions such as mountain top and deserts have even less
biodiversity.
Regions that have constant environment promote niche specialization and has
greater species diversity
Tropical environments, unlike temperate zones, are less seasonal, relatively more
constant and predictable
Also, more solar energy is available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity
and in turn indirectly contributes to greater diversity.
Ecosystems with a lot of biodiversity are generally stronger and more resistant
to disaster than those with fewer species.
all species are interconnected and depend on one another .
Forests provide home for animals, animals consume the plants. Again decomposers
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decompose dead and decaying organisms and fertilize the soil

Pollinating insects help the plants to reproduce.
With less biodiversity, these connections weaken and sometimes break, thus harming all
the species in the ecosystem.
46. Consider the following statements regarding the concept of economic cost:
1. It is the cost of having a little more of one good in terms of the amount of the other good that
has to be forgone
2. It is applicable to the individual as well as the society.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Let’s say an economy is producing two goods: Corn and Cotton
If more of the scarce resources are used in the production of corn, less resources are available
for the production of cotton and vice versa. Therefore, if we want to have more of one of the
goods, we will have less of the other good.
Thus, there is always a cost of having a little more of one good in terms of the
amount of the other good that has to be forgone.
This is known as the opportunity cost of an additional unit of the goods. Every
economy has to choose one of the many possibilities that it has. In other words, one of the
central problems of the economy is to choose from one of the many production possibilities
The concept of opportunity cost is applicable to the individual as well as the society.
The concept is very important and is widely used in economics. Because of its importance in
economics, sometimes, opportunity cost is also called the economic cost
47. The term “Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS)”, sometimes seen in news,
can be best defined as:
A. As a consumer substitute one good for another, while keeping the total utility constant,
the marginal rate of substitution will eventually decrease.
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Test-28 (Subject)
B. The rate at which a firm is willing to substitute one input for another, while keeping the
level of output constant.
C. It shows the relationship between the quantity of a good consumed and a consumer's
income, while holding the prices of other goods constant.
D. The limit on the total amount of goods and services that a consumer can afford to
purchase, given their income and the prices of goods.
Correct Answer : B
A concept similar to Marginal rate of substitution (MRS) in economics is Marginal

Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS), which is used to measure the rate at which a
firm is willing to substitute one input for another, while keeping the level of output
constant.
MRTS is calculated as the ratio of the marginal product of one input to the marginal product of
another input. It measures the slope of the isoquant, which is a curve representing all the
possible combinations of inputs that produce the same level of output.
For example, let's say a firm is producing cars and has a choice between using more
labour or more capital. If the firm is willing to substitute 2 units of labour for 1 unit
of capital, while keeping the level of output constant, then the MRTS of labour for
capital is 2:1. This means that the firm is willing to trade 2 units of labour for 1 unit of capital,
while maintaining the same level of output.

1. Imposition of price ceiling below the equilibrium price leads to an excess supply.
2. Imposition of price floor above the equilibrium price leads to an excess demand.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Price ceiling:
It is not very uncommon to come across instances where government fixes a

maximum allowable price for certain goods. The government-imposed upper
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limit on the price of a good or service is called price ceiling.

Price ceiling is generally imposed on necessary items like wheat, rice, kerosene, sugar
and it is fixed below the market-determined price since at the market-determined price
some section of the population will not be able to afford these goods.
In general, price ceiling accompanied by rationing of the goods may have the following
adverse consequences on the consumers:
(a) Each consumer has to stand in long queues to buy the good from ration shops.
(b) Since all consumers will not be satisfied by the quantity of the goods that they
get from the fair price shop, some of them will be willing to pay higher price for it.
This may result in the creation of black market.
Imposition of price ceiling below the equilibrium price leads to an excess demand.
Price Floor:
For certain goods and services, fall in price below a particular level is not desirable and
hence the government sets floors or minimum prices for these goods and services.
The government imposed lower limit on the price that may be charged for a
particular good or service is called price floor.
Most well-known examples of imposition of price floor are agricultural price support
programmes and the minimum wage legislation.
Imposition of price floor above the equilibrium price leads to an excess supply.
49. Consider the following statements regarding the different types of non-competitive
markets:
1. The market structure called monopsony exists where there is exactly one seller in any market.
2. A market structure where there is only one buyer of a particular good or service is called
monopoly
3. A market structure where a small number of firms dominate the market and can coordinate
their pricing and output decisions is called oligopoly.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Monopoly: A market structure where there is only one firm that dominates the market
and has complete control over the supply of the product or service.
Example: Railway Operations in India,
Monopsony: A market structure where there is only one buyer of a particular good or
service.
Example: Indian Govt is sole buyer of Military equipment.
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Oligopoly: A market structure where a small number of firms dominate the market and
can coordinate their pricing and output decisions.
Examples: Airlines industry in India.
50. Which of the following is/are not included in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
1. Scholarship received by a Phd student
2. Stipend received by a college graduate for an internship in a company
3. Old age pension received by a senior citizen.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Transfer payments are payments made by the government to individuals or

businesses without any expectation of goods or services in return. These payments
include social security, welfare benefits, and subsidies. Transfer payments do not contribute to
the production of goods and services in the economy, but they do affect the distribution of
income and wealth.
When calculating the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country, transfer payments
are not included in the calculation. This is because GDP is a measure of the total
value of all goods and services produced within a country's borders over a specific
period of time. Transfer payments are not a result of the production of goods and services,
and thus do not contribute to GDP.
However, stipend received by a college graduate for an internship in a company

results in production of goods and services. Thus, it is included in the calculation of
GDP
51. Which of the following form the part of Current Account?

1. Remittances
2. Balance of Trade
3. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
4. Government debt

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
.
Test-28 (Subject)
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Current Account
Current Account is the record of trade in goods and services and transfer
payments.
Trade in goods includes exports and imports of goods. Trade in services
includes factor income and non-factor income transactions. Transfer
payments are the receipts which the residents of a country get for
‘free’, without having to provide any goods or services in return. They
consist of gifts, remittances and grants. They could be given by the
government or by private citizens living abroad.
Capital Account records all international transactions of assets. An
asset is any one of the forms in which wealth can be held, for example:
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Test-28 (Subject)
money, stocks, bonds, Government debt, etc.
52. India is a member of which of the following institution?

1. International Development Association (IDA)
2. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
3. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
4. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
India is a member of four of the five constituents of the World Bank Group viz.,
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), International
Development Association (IDA), International Finance Corporation (IFC) and
Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA).
India is not a member of ICSID (International Centre for Settlement of Investment

Disputes).
53. Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Services Institutions
Bureau (FSIB):
1. It replaced the erstwhile Banks Board Bureau (BBB).
2. It was constituted for the purpose of recommending persons for appointment as whole-time
directors and non-executive chairpersons on the Boards of financial services institutions.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
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Test-28 (Subject)
Financial Services Institutions Bureau has been constituted effective from July 01, 2022, by
Central Government for the purpose of recommending persons for appointment as whole-time
directors and non-executive chairpersons on the Boards of financial services institutions and for
advising on certain other matters relating to personnel management in these institutions.
It replaced the erstwhile Banks Board Bureau (BBB).
The functions of the Bureau as outlined in the Clause 2 of the Government Resolution are :-
a) To recommend persons for appointment as whole-time directors (WTDs) and non-executive

chairpersons (NECs) on the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks, financial institutions and
Public Sector Insurers (hereinafter referred to as “PSBs”, “FIs” and “PSIs” respectively);
b) To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, transfer or extension of term

of office and termination of services of the said directors;
c) To advise the Government on the desired management structure at the Board level for PSBs,
FIs and PSIs;
d) To advise the Government on a suitable performance appraisal system for WTDs and NECs in
PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
e) To build a databank containing data related to the performance of PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
f) To advise the Government on formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics
for whole-time directors in PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
g) To advise the Government on evolving suitable training and development programmes for
management personnel in PSBs, FIs and PSIs;
h) To help PSBs, FIs and PSIs in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plan
etc.;
i) To carry out such process and draw up a panel for consideration of competent authority for
any other bank, financial institution or insurer for which the Government makes a reference,
after consultation with the regulator concerned with that bank, financial institution or insurer.
54. Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):
1. It is a production volume index
2. It is compiled and released by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
3. Electricity has the highest weightage in the Index.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
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Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : A
The monthly Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) is a production volume index.
ICI measures collective and individual performance of production in selected eight core
industries viz. Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Refinery Products, Fertilizers, Steel, Cement and
Electricity.
It is compiled and released by Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of

Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), and Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
The inter-se weights of these eight industries are largely in alignment with the respective
weight of these industries in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
The base year of the ICI has been revised to 2011-12 from 2004-05 in alignment with
the new series of IIP.
55. Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Stability Board (FSB):
1. It is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations about the global financial
system.
2. The Plenary serves as the sole decision-making body.
3. India is not a member of the board.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
.
Test-28 (Subject)
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : A
The Financial Stability Board (FSB) is an international body that monitors and makes
recommendations about the global financial system.
The FSB promotes international financial stability; it does so by coordinating national

financial authorities and international standard-setting bodies as they work toward
developing strong regulatory, supervisory and other financial sector policies. It fosters
a level playing field by encouraging coherent implementation of these policies across sectors
and jurisdictions.
The FSB, working through its members, seeks to strengthen financial systems and increase the
stability of international financial markets. The policies developed in the pursuit of this agenda
are implemented by jurisdictions and national authorities.
Embedded in the FSB’s structure is a framework for the identification of systemic risk in the
financial sector, for framing the policy sector policy actions that can address these risks, and for
overseeing implementation of those responses. The FSB’s structure comprises the Plenary as
the sole decision-making body, a Steering Committee to take forward operational work in
between Plenary meetings, and three Standing Committees, each with specific but
complementary responsibilities towards the above process:
The Standing Committee on Assessment of Vulnerabilities (SCAV), which is the

FSB’s main mechanism for identifying and assessing risks in the financial system.
The Standing Committee on Supervisory and Regulatory Cooperation (SRC),
which is charged with undertaking further supervisory analysis or framing a regulatory or
supervisory policy response to a material vulnerability identified by SCAV.
The Standing Committee on Standards Implementation (SCSI), which is
responsible for monitoring the implementation of agreed FSB policy initiatives and
international standards.
India is an active Member of the FSB
56. Global Education Monitoring (GEM) Report is published by
A. World Bank
B. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
C. Room to Read
D. UNESCO
Correct Answer : D
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Test-28 (Subject)
Established in 2002, the GEM Report is an editorially independent report, hosted and published
by UNESCO. At the 2015 World Education Forum, it received a mandate from 160 governments
to monitor and report on:
● Progress on education in the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), with particular

reference to the SDG 4 monitoring framework
● The implementation of national and international strategies to help hold all relevant partners
to account for their commitments, as part of the overall SDG follow-up and review process.
57. Consider the following statements regarding the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):
1. It is a facility offered by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to banks, where RBI can park excess
liquidity with the public bank at a rate higher than the reverse repo rate.
2. When the Standing Deposit Ratio (SDR) is high, banks have more liquidity available for lending,
which can help to stimulate economic growth.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is a facility offered by the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) to banks, where they can park excess liquidity with the central bank at a rate
lower than the repo rate. The SDF is aimed at providing an alternative avenue to
banks for deploying their surplus funds, while also helping the RBI in managing
liquidity in the system.
The Standing Deposit Ratio (SDR) is the proportion of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities
(NDTL) that it is required to maintain as deposits with the RBI under the SDF. The SDR is
typically set by the RBI based on prevailing market conditions and liquidity requirements.
For example, if the SDR is set at 2%, a bank with NDTL of INR 1,000 crore will be required to
maintain INR 20 crore as deposits with the RBI under the SDF.
The SDR is a tool used by the RBI to manage liquidity in the banking system. By
requiring banks to maintain a certain proportion of their deposits with the RBI, the
central bank can control the amount of liquidity in the system.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
When the SDR is high, banks have less liquidity available for lending, which can help
to prevent excessive credit growth and inflation.
When the SDR is low, banks have more liquidity available for lending, which can help
to stimulate economic growth.
58. Keeping other factors constant, which of the following scenarios lead to depreciation
of domestic currency ‘Y’ with respect to a particular foreign currency of country ‘X’ in
a floating exchange rate regime?
1. Increase in the imports of goods from Country ‘X’ and simultaneously decrease in the export of
goods to the Country ‘X’.
2. Decrease in the foreign tourists from Country X.
3. Demand for currency of Country ‘X’ in the world compared to the demand of currency ‘Y.’

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : B
This exchange rate is determined by the market forces of demand and supply. It is also known
as Floating Exchange Rate.
.
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As depicted in Fig. 6.1, the exchange rate is determined where the demand curve intersects
with the supply curve, i.e., at point e on the Y – axis. Point q on the x – axis determines the
quantity of US Dollars that have been demanded and supplied on e exchange rate. In a
completely flexible system, the Central banks do not intervene in the foreign exchange market.
Suppose the demand for foreign goods and services increases (for example, due to increased
international travelling by Indians), then as depicted in Fig. 6.2, the demand curve shifts upward
and right to the original demand curve. The increase in demand for foreign goods and services
result in a change in the exchange rate. The initial exchange rate e0 = 50, which means that we
need to exchange Rs 50 for one dollar. At the new equilibrium, the exchange rate becomes e1
= 70, which means that we need to pay more rupees for a dollar now (i.e., Rs 70).
It indicates that the value of rupees in terms of dollars has fallen and value of dollar
in terms of rupees has risen. Increase in exchange rate implies that the price of foreign
currency (dollar) in terms of domestic currency (rupees) has increased. This is called
Depreciation of domestic currency (rupees) in terms of foreign currency (dollars).
59. Terms ChatGPT and BARD sometimes seen in news are tools associated with:
A. Artificial intelligence
.
Test-28 (Subject)
B. Space Research
C. Biotechnology
D. Nano Technology
Correct Answer : A
ChatGPT is a large language model developed by OpenAI. It is an artificial intelligence

program designed to answer questions and engage in conversation with users.
Alphabet has decided to launch the Google Bard AI which is the direct competition to
the ChatGPT available on Open AI. Both the platforms work on Artificial Intelligence
and work on the same model to answer in a conversational way.
60. Arrange the following physical features of India from North to South
1. Dandakaranya
2. Bhagelkhand
3. Nallamala Hills
4. Satpura Ranges

A. 1 2 4 3
B. 2 1 4 3
C. 2 4 1 3
D. 1 3 2 4
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-28 (Subject)
61. Consider the following statements regarding the Surety bonds:

1. These bonds are a three-party agreement that legally binds together a principal, an obligee and
a surety company that sells the bond.
2. Surety bonds provide financial guarantee that contracts will be completed according to pre-
defined and mutual terms.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Statement 1 is correct: Surety Bond is a three-party agreement that legally binds together a
principal who needs the bond, an obligee who requires the bond and a surety company that
sells the bond.
Statement 2 is correct: Surety bonds provide financial guarantee that contracts will be
completed according to pre-defined and mutual terms. When a principal breaks a bond’s terms,
the harmed party can make a claim on the bond to recover losses.
Due to the pandemic and consequent economic impact on liquidity and cash flow issues in the
banking sector, the Road Transport Ministry had requested IRDAI to examine the possibility of
offering Surety Bond by the general insurance companies.
The current insurance legal/ regulatory framework does not permit underwriting of bonds that
guarantee performance and bid securities as they are financial instruments and not
conventional insurance products.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/irdai-committee-to-examine-surety-bonds-
for-road-contracts-6487537/
62. Consider the following statements regarding the T+1 Settlement Plan:
1. It means that market trade-related settlements will need to be cleared within one day of the
actual transactions taking place.
2. The Real estate investment trusts (REITs) cannot move to this settlement plan due to their
volatile nature.
3. This settlement cycle reduces the number of outstanding unsettled trades at any point of time.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Indian stock markets are embarking on a shorter settlement cycle or T+1 regime for the final
list of large stocks from January 2023, a move that will help reduce margin requirements for
clients and boost retail investment.
Statement 1 is correct: T+1 (trade plus one) means that market trade-related settlements
will need to be cleared within one day of the actual transactions taking place. Earlier, trades on
.
Test-28 (Subject)
the Indian stock exchanges are settled in two working days after the transaction is done (T+2).
Statement 2 is not correct: The final batch of securities including stocks, ETFs, debt
instruments, real estate investment trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment trusts ( InvITs)
will be moving to the T+1 settlement cycle.
According to a paper published by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), a T+1
settlement cycle not only reduces the timeframe but also reduces and frees up capital required
to collateralise that risk.
Statement 3 is correct: A shortened settlement cycle also reduces the number of outstanding
unsettled trades at any point of time, and thus decreases the unsettled exposure to Clearing
Corporation by 50 per cent.
The narrower the settlement cycle, the narrower the time window for a counterparty insolvency/
bankruptcy to impact the settlement of a trade.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/t1-settlement-cycle
-comes-into-effect-on-january-27-8406168/
https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/indian-stock-markets-migrating-to-t1-se
ttlement-cycle-from-
january-27/article66435657.ece#:~:text=T%2B1%20%28trade%20plus%20one%29%2
0means%20that%20market%20trade-
related,working%20days%20after%20the%20transaction%20is%20done%20%28T%2
B2%29
63. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Green Bonds?
A. They can be issued by any sovereign entity as well as by corporates.

B. They command a relatively lower cost of capital.
C. These bonds do not disincentivise high carbon-emitting projects.
D. These bonds cater India’s commitments under “Panchamrit” at COP26.
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Green bonds are bonds issued by any sovereign entity, inter-
governmental groups or alliances and corporates with the aim that the proceeds of the bonds
are utilised for projects classified as environmentally sustainable.
Option (b) is correct: By virtue of their indication towards environmental sustainability, green
.
Test-28 (Subject)
bonds command a relatively lower cost of capital vis-à-vis regular bonds and necessitates
credibility and commitments associated with the process of raising bonds.
Green Bonds offer investors a platform to engage in good practices, influencing the business
strategy of bond issuers. They provide a means to hedge against climate change risks while
achieving at least similar, if not better, returns on their investment.
Option (c) is not correct: In this way, the growth in Green Bonds and green finance also
indirectly works to disincentivise high carbon-emitting projects.
Option (d) is correct: The framework for the sovereign green bond was issued by the
government in November 2022.
The Framework comes close on the footsteps of India’s commitments under “Panchamrit” as
elucidated by the Prime Minister, at COP26 at Glasgow in November, 2021.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1874788
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/sovereign-green-bo
nds-reserve-bank-of-india-auction-explained-8403181/
64. Consider the following statements regarding the Fugitive Economic Offenders (FEO)
Act, 2018:
1. The FEO Act aims to deter fugitive economic offenders from evading the process of law in India
by staying outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts.
2. The Special court if declares the individual as an FEO, it can only order the confiscation of the
properties of the accused within Indian territory.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
An FEO is defined by The Fugitive Economic Offenders (FEO) Act, 2018 as “any individual
against whom a warrant for arrest in relation to a scheduled offence has been issued by any
court in India, who (i) has left India so as to avoid criminal prosecution; or (ii) being abroad,
refuses to return to India to face criminal prosecution”.
Statement 1 is correct: The FEO Act aims “to provide for measures to deter fugitive
.
Test-28 (Subject)
economic offenders from evading the process of law in India by staying outside the jurisdiction
of Indian courts, to preserve the sanctity of the rule of law in India and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto”.
Under the Act, an application must be filed in the special court asking that a particular
individual may be declared an FEO.
The special court may then issue notice to the individual to appear at a specified place, and
drop the proceedings if the individual complies.
Statement 2 is not correct: If, however, the special court is satisfied that an individual is an
FEO, it may, record so in an order, along with reasons. The court may then order the
confiscation of the properties of the accused individual in India or abroad.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/after-mallya-nirav-modi-who-is-a-fugitive
-economic-offender-6152543/
65. If the Marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR) is raised. As a result,
borrowers who have taken home or personal loans will find their equated monthly
instalments-
A. Rising in coming months

B. Decreasing in coming months
C. Deferring temporarily
D. Experiencing no change
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Introduced by the RBI in 2016, MCLR or marginal cost of funds-based
lending rate was aimed at ensuring faster transmission of repo rate changes.
It was designed to be a transparent rate transmission mechanism as against its

predecessor, the benchmark prime lending rate or BPLR.
Apart from the base repo rate, operating costs, current cost of carry-in cash reserve ratio
and tenor premium are components of MCLR and it proved to be effective compared to
BPLR as the former factored the current cost of money, whereas BPLR was based on
average cost.
State Bank of India has raised the marginal cost of funds-based lending rates (MCLR).
As a result of the increase in MCLR, borrowers who have taken home, vehicle, and
personal loans will find their equated monthly instalments (EMIs) rising in the coming
months.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
With the RBI set to withdraw the accommodative policy (the willingness to expand money
supply to boost economic growth), lending rates are expected to rise further in the
coming months.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-the-increase-in-mclr-means-for-you
-your-loan-7877241/
66. The ‘NIPAM’ Programme has been recently launched in context of-
A. Ensuring universal acquisition of foundational literacy and numeracy.

B. The mission to provide awareness on Intellectual Property Rights.
C. Leveraging technology to enhance the Indian financial system.
D. The mission to create opportunities through innovation and inclusion.
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct: A National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission (NIPAM) under the
initiative of the Government's "Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav", has been launched the pan-India
ambitious mission aims to provide awareness on intellectual property and its rights.
It aims to inculcate the spirit of creativity and innovation to students of higher education
and ignite and inspire the students of college/Universities to innovate and protect their
creations.
The program is being implemented by Intellectual Property Office, the Office of Controller
General of Patents, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The way forward is to strengthen the NIPAM program further to nurture and encourage
innovation and creativity, thereby contributing towards cultural and economic
development of the society through a revamped manner utilizing the existing resources of
the IP Office in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission, AICTE, UGC etc.
Source: https://ipindia.gov.in/newsdetail.htm?774
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1850898
67. Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Standing Deposit
Facility:
1. By removing binding collateral constraint on the RBI, it strengthens the operating framework of
monetary policy.
2. It is operated on an overnight basis with the flexibility to absorb liquidity for longer tenor with
.
Test-28 (Subject)
appropriate pricing.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
In 2018, the amended Section 17 of the RBI Act empowered the Reserve Bank to introduce the
SDF, an additional tool for absorbing liquidity without any collateral.
Statement 1 is correct: By removing the binding collateral constraint on the RBI, the SDF
strengthens the operating framework of monetary policy.
The SDF is also a financial stability tool in addition to its role in liquidity management.
The SDF will replace the fixed rate reverse repo (FRRR) as the floor of the liquidity adjustment
facility corridor.
Both the standing facilities the MSF (marginal standing facility) and the SDF will be available on
all days of the week, throughout the year.
Statement 2 is correct: SDF as it stands currently has the following features viz;
it is the floor of the LAF corridor, replacing the hitherto fixed rate reverse repo;
it is a monetary policy instrument to absorb liquidity without any collateral (collaterals in
this case are normally government securities).
it is operated on an overnight basis, with the flexibility to absorb liquidity for longer tenor
with appropriate pricing;
Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/standing-deposit-facility-a-policy-mile
stone/article65329381.ece
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/what-is-standing-de
posit-facility-7859803/
68. With reference to the Digital Banking Unit (DBU), consider the following statements:
1. It is a specialised fixed point business unit housing minimum digital infrastructure for delivering
digital banking products as well as services.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
2. Only the commercial banks and regional rural banks are permitted to open DBUs.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A digital banking unit is a specialised fixed point business unit or hub
housing certain minimum digital infrastructure for delivering digital banking products and
services as well as servicing existing financial products and services digitally in self-service
mode at any time.
Statement 2 is not correct: Commercial banks (other than regional rural banks, payment
banks and local area banks) with past digital banking experience are permitted to open DBUs in
tier 1 to tier 6 centres, unless otherwise specifically restricted, without having the need to take
permission from the RBI in each case.
As per the RBI, each DBU must offer certain minimum digital banking products and services.
Such products should be on both liabilities and assets side of the balance sheet of the digital
banking segment.
Digitally value-added services to conventional products would also qualify as such.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/what-are-digital-ban
king-units-7878178/
69. With reference to Money Market, consider the following statements:

1. The money in this market is traded only between cash-surplus groups.
2. Borrowings in this market is always supported by collaterals.
3. The transactions in this market can take place through intermediaries.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Money market is the short-term financial market of an economy.
In this market, money is traded between individuals or groups (i.e., financial institutions, banks,
government, companies, etc.), who are either cash-surplus or cash-scarce.
Money market may be defined as a market where short-term lending and borrowing take place
between the cash-surplus and cash-scarce sides.
Statement 2 is not correct: Borrowings in this market may or may not be supported by
collaterals. In the money market the financial assets, which have quick conversion quality into
money and carry minimal transaction cost, are also traded.
Statement 3 is correct: The transactions might take place through the intermediaries (known
as brokers) or directly between the trading sides.
The market operates in both ‘organised’ and ‘unorganised’ channels in India. Starting from the
‘person-to-person’ mode and converting into ‘telephonic transaction’, it has now gone online in
the age of internet and information technology.
Source: Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh, chapter- INDIAN FINANCIAL MARKET
70. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Non-Banking Financial
Companies (NBFCs)?
1. They can advance loans to retail traders, small-scale industries as well as to the self-employed
persons.
2. It is not mandatory for an NBFC to get registered with the RBI as a deposit taking company
because it is regulated by multiple bodies.
3. They cannot have sale-purchase or construction of immovable properties as their principal
business.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Explanation:
NBFCs (Non-Banking Financial Companies) are fast emerging as an important segment of Indian
financial system.
It is an heterogeneous group of institutions (other than commercial and co-operative banks)

performing financial intermediation in a variety of ways, like accepting deposits, making loans
and advances, leasing, hire purchase, etc.
Statement 1 is correct: They raise funds from the public, directly or indirectly, and lend them
to ultimate spenders. They advance loans to the various wholesale and retail traders, small-
scale industries and self-employed persons.
Statement 2 is not correct: It is mandatory for a NBFC to get itself registered with the RBI as
a deposit taking company. For registration they need to be a company (incorporated under the
Companies Act, 1956).
Statement 3 is correct: They cannot have certain activities as their principal business like
agricultural, industrial and sale-purchase or construction of immovable property.
Source: Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh, chapter- INDIAN FINANCIAL MARKET
71. Consider the following statements regarding Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. It is the percentage of depositors’ money that banks have to mandatorily park with the Reserve
Bank.
2. If the RBI wants to infuse more liquidity into a system, it simply increases the CRR.
3. The RBI has allowed banks to lend to micro, small and medium enterprises without maintaining
the CRR.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: CRR is the percentage of depositors’ money that commercial banks
have to mandatorily park with the Reserve Bank.
In India, cash, for CRR purposes, means only the deposits with the RBI and not cash held in
banks’ vaults. Deposit liabilities would generally mean deposits held by the public with banks.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Statement 2 is not correct: If the RBI wants to infuse more liquidity into a system, it lowers
the CRR and leaves banks with more liquidity to lend. If the RBI wants to suck out liquidity from
the system, it increases the CRR rate.
Statement 3 is correct: In 2020, in a first of its kind move, the RBI allowed banks to lend to
automobiles; residential housing; and micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs), without
maintaining the mandatory CRR.
The move was aimed at enhancing lending activity to these sectors which have been hit hard
with slowdown in recent times.
Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/cash-reserve-ratio-has-lost-its-releva
nce/article64594370.ece
Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh, Chapter-BANKING IN INDIA
72. Consider the following statements regarding the Open Market Operations (OMOs):
1. RBI uses open market operations as a tool to regulate the availability of cash flow in the system.
2. If the RBI wants to inject money in the economy, it buys the government securities from the
banks.
3. OMOs are an effective quantitative policy tool of RBI and are independent of the constraints of
government securities stocks.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central authority to ensure that stability in the economy
is maintained. It’s part of the RBI’s job to ensure that money supply in the system is
adequate–not too much, that there is an excess of cash, not too little that there is a cash
crunch.
Statement 1 is correct: RBI uses open market operations as a tool to regulate the availability
of cash flow in the system.
The OMOs are conducted by the RBI by selling and purchasing government securities (g-secs).
.
Test-28 (Subject)
When RBI wants to cut down the flow of money with banks, it sells g-secs to the banks, sucking
the excess money with them.
Statement 2 is correct: On the other hand, if it wants to inject money in the system, it buys
back the g-secs from the banks, increasing the credit supply with the banks.
Statement 3 is not correct: OMOs are an effective quantitative policy tool in the armoury of
the RBI, but are constrained by the stock of government securities available with it at a point in
time.
Source:
https://www.financialexpress.com/industry/rbi-to-launch-open-market-operations-wh
at-it-is-how-it-works-all-you-need-to-know/1445686/
Indian Economy by Ramesh Singh, Chapter-BANKING IN INDIA
73. Consider the following statements regarding International Development Association

(IDA):
1. It is a part of the World Trade Organisation that helps the least developed countries.
2. IDA helps countries manage their debt and has coordinated debt relief for poor countries.
3. It sets up Augmented Fabrication Laboratories for product development in its member nations.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The International Development Association (IDA) is a part of the
World Bank that helps the world’s poorest countries.
Statement 2 is correct: IDA also helps countries manage their debt and has over the years
coordinated debt relief for poor countries.
Through a new debt policy called Sustainable Development Finance Policy, IDA is helping
countries strengthen debt transparency, debt management, and fiscal sustainability.
Established in 1960, IDA aims to reduce poverty by providing zero to low-interest loans (called
“credits”) and grants for programs that boost economic growth, reduce inequalities, and
.
Test-28 (Subject)
improve people’s living conditions.
Statement 3 is not correct: It does not include setting up any augmented Fabrication
Laboratory (Fab Lab) for product development.
Source: https://ida.worldbank.org/en/about/what-we-do
74. With reference to Asian Development Bank (ADB), consider the following statements:
1. The ADB provides both private financing and public financing.
2. All the powers of the institution are vested in the Board of Directors.
3. The two largest shareholders of institution are Japan and Russia.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Asian Development Bank's (ADB) primary mission is to promote
economic growth and cooperation in the Asia-Pacific Region.
The ADB provides both private financing and sovereign (public) financing.
Private sector efforts focus on projects that help promote private investments in the region that
will have significant development impact and will lead to accelerated, sustainable, and inclusive
growth.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Agreement Establishing the Asian Development Bank, known
as the ADB Charter, vests all the powers of the institution in the Board of Governors, which in
turn delegates some of these powers to the Board of Directors.
The ADB's highest policy-making body is its Board of Governors, which comprises one
representative from each member.
Statement 3 is not correct: The two largest shareholders of the Asian Development Bank are
the United States and Japan.
Although the majority of the Bank's members are from the Asia-Pacific region, the industrialized
nations are also well-represented.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/a/asian-development-bank.asp
75. With reference to the Bretton Woods Agreement/System, consider the following
statements:
1. It created both the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
2. It collapsed immediately as a result of the disintegration of Soviet Union.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
The representatives of 44 countries met in Bretton Woods in July 1944 with the principal goals
of creating an efficient foreign exchange system, preventing competitive devaluations of
currencies, and promoting international economic growth.
Statement 1 is correct: The Bretton Woods Agreement also created two important
organizations the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
The Bretton Woods Agreement and System created a collective international currency exchange
regime that lasted from the mid-1940s to the early 1970s.
Statement 2 is not correct: While the Bretton Woods System was dissolved in the 1970s,
both the IMF and World Bank have remained strong pillars for the exchange of international
currencies.
The Bretton Woods System collapsed in the 1970s but created a lasting influence on
international currency exchange and trade through the development of the IMF and World Bank.
Source:https://www.investopedia.com/terms/b/brettonwoodsagreement.asp#toc-the-
bretton-woods-systems-collapse
76. Consider the following statements regarding the Special Drawing Rights (SDR):
1. SDR refers to an international monetary reserve currency created by the International Monetary
Fund.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
2. It is a currency specially used to supplement other reserve assets of the member countries.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Special drawing rights (SDR) refer to an international type of

monetary reserve currency created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that operates as a
supplement to the existing money reserves of member countries.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing

international reserve asset created by the IMF to supplement other reserve assets of member
countries.
It is not a currency, nor a claim on the IMF, but is potentially a claim on freely usable currencies
of IMF members.
SDRs are only allocated to IMF members that elect to participate in the SDR Department.
Currently all members of the IMF are participants in the SDR Department.
The value of the SDR is set daily by the IMF on the basis of fixed currency amounts of the
currencies included in the SDR basket and the daily market exchange rates between the
currencies included in the SDR basket.
Source: https://www.imf.org/en/About/FAQ/special-drawing-right
https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=5215
77. Consider the following statements regarding the World Bank Group:
1. It supplies qualifying governments with low-interest loans as well as zero-interest credits.
2. It has International Finance Corporation that focuses on the private sector and financial advisory
services.
3. It does not provide arbitration on international investment disputes like the International
Monetary Fund.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
.
Test-28 (Subject)
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The World Bank is a provider of financial and technical assistance to
individual countries around the globe. The bank considers itself a unique financial institution
that sets up partnerships to reduce poverty and support economic development.
The World Bank supplies qualifying governments with low-interest loans, zero-interest credits,
and grants, all to support the development of individual economies.
Through the years, the World Bank has expanded from a single institution to a group of five
unique and cooperative institutional organizations, known as the World Banks or collectively as
the World Bank Group.
Statement 2 is correct: The International Finance Corporation (IFC), one of its organizations,
focuses on the private sector and provides developing countries with investment financing and
financial advisory services.
Statement 3 is not correct: Another organization of the World Bank Group is the
International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID), an entity that
provides arbitration on international investment disputes.
Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/w/worldbank.asp
78. With reference to the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), consider the following
statements:
1. It is the oldest global financial institution operating under the aegis of international law.
2. It does not compete other private financial institutions for global banking activities.
3. It ensures liquidity for central banks by buying tradable instruments from them.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Statement 1 is correct: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is a bank for central
banks. Founded in 1930, the Bank for International Settlements is the oldest global financial
institution and operates under the auspices of international law.
The BIS was created out of the Hague Agreements of 1930 and took over the job of the Agent
General for Repatriation in Berlin.
The BIS has also emerged as an emergency "funder" for nations in trouble.
Statement 2 is not correct: The BIS competes directly with other private financial institutions
for global banking activities. However, it does not hold current accounts for individuals or
governments.
Like any other bank, the BIS strives to offer premium services to attract central banks as clients.
To provide security, it maintains abundant equity capital and reserves that are diversely
invested following risk analysis.
Statement 3 is correct: The BIS ensures liquidity for central banks by offering to buy back
tradable instruments from them; many of these instruments have been specifically designed for
the central bank's needs.
Source: https://www.investopedia.com/articles/03/120903.asp
79. The Human Capital Project seeks to help countries invest in and develop their people
to be productive citizens and active contributors to their economy. This Project is
created by-
A. World Economic Forum

B. United Nations Development Programme
C. International Monetary Fund
D. The World Bank
Correct Answer : D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: In 2017, the World Bank created the Human Capital Project, which
seeks to help countries invest in and develop their people to be productive citizens and active
contributors to their economy.
World leaders are urged to prioritize investments in education, healthcare, and social
.
Test-28 (Subject)
protections, and, in return, they will realize a stronger economy full of healthy, thriving adults.
The Human Capital project outlines how governments should invest in providing quality,
affordable childcare to support and improve child development, increase women's access to
better employment opportunities, and increase economic growth, to name a few.
Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/w/worldbank.asp
80. A new global tax transparency framework called Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework
(CARF) has been recently released by-
A. The World Trade Organisation

B. The Swiss Financial Market Supervisory Authority
C. The Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
D. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
Correct Answer : D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development/OECD
has released a new global tax transparency framework, Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework
(CARF), for reporting and exchange of information with respect to crypto-assets.
This is in response to an earlier proposal of G20 that the OECD develop a framework for
the automatic exchange of information between countries on crypto-assets.
The CARF will target any digital representation of value that relies on a cryptographically
secure distributed ledger or a similar technology to validate and secure transactions.
Carve-outs are foreseen for assets that cannot be used for payment or investment
purposes and for assets already fully covered by the common reporting standard.
Entities or individuals that provide services effectuating exchange transactions in crypto-
assets for, or on behalf of customers would be obliged to report under the CARF, which is
expected to increase transparency of such transactions.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/crypto/oecd-global-framework-in-place-i
ndia-to-focus-on-crypto-asset-regulations-8203394/
81. Standards and Labelling (S&L) Scheme, sometime seen in the news, is related to
A. Ministry of Power
B. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
.
Test-28 (Subject)
C. Ministry of Science and Technology

D. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Sector Enterprises.
Correct Answer : A
Standards and Labelling (S&L) scheme is a flagship initiative of Ministry of Power that was
launched with the key objective of providing consumers an informed choice regarding the
energy savings and thereby the cost-saving potential of various energy consuming appliances.
https://saathee.beeindia.gov.in/Common/BEEContent?MID=2&SMID=46
82. Consider the following statements regarding the Unified Payments Interface (UPI):
1. It was developed by National Informatics Centre (NIC).
2. It is based on the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) platform.
3. It provides for Single Click 2 Factor Authentication

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into
a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking
features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood. It also caters to
the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and
convenience.
With the above context in mind, NPCI conducted a pilot launch with 21 member banks.
How is it unique?
Immediate money transfer through mobile device round the clock 24*7 and 365
days.
Single mobile application for accessing different bank accounts.
Single Click 2 Factor Authentication – Aligned with the Regulatory guidelines, yet provides
.
Test-28 (Subject)
for a very strong feature of seamless single click payment.

Virtual address of the customer for Pull & Push provides for incremental security with the
customer not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number; IFSC etc.
Bill Sharing with friends.
Best answer to Cash on Delivery hassle, running to an ATM or rendering exact amount.
Merchant Payment with Single Application or In-App Payments.
Utility Bill Payments, Over the Counter Payments, Barcode (Scan and Pay) based
payments.
Donations, Collections, Disbursements Scalable.
Raising Complaint from Mobile App directly.
83. Consider the following pairs of drugs and the respective diseases treated:
Drug Name: Used for the treatment of:
1. Remdesivir Ebola
2. Lopinavir HIV/AIDS
3. Interferon beta-1a Rheumatology conditions
4. Hydroxychloroquine Multiple sclerosis
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
"Solidarity” is an international clinical trial to help find an effective treatment for COVID-19,
launched by the World Health Organization and partners.
The Solidarity Trial will compare four treatment options against standard of care, to assess their
relative effectiveness against COVID-19. By enrolling patients in multiple countries, the
Solidarity Trial aims to rapidly discover whether any of the drugs slow disease progression or
improve survival. Other drugs can be added based on emerging evidence.
Until there is sufficient evidence, WHO cautions against physicians and medical associations
recommending or administering these unproven treatments to patients with COVID-19 or
people self-medicating with them. WHO is concerned by reports of individuals self-
medicating with chloroquine and causing themselves serious harm. WHO guidance on
compassionate use can be found
As of 3 June 2020, more than 3500 patients have been recruited in 35 countries, with over 400
hospitals actively recruiting patients. Overall, over 100 countries have joined or expressed an
interest in joining the trial, and WHO is actively supporting 60 of them with:
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Ethical and regulatory approvals of the WHO core protocol;

Identification of hospitals participating in the trial;
Training of hospital clinicians on the web-based randomization and data system;
Shipping the trial drugs as requested by each participating country.
Treatment options under study
Based on evidence from laboratory, animal and clinical studies, the following treatment options
were selected: Remdesivir; Lopinavir/Ritonavir; Lopinavir/Ritonavir with Interferon beta-1a; and
Hydroxychloroquine.
Remdesivir was previously tested as an Ebola treatment. It has generated promising

results in animal studies for Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS-CoV) and severe acute
respiratory syndrome (SARS), which are also caused by coronaviruses, suggesting it may have
some effect in patients with COVID-19.
Lopinavir/Ritonavir is a licensed treatment for HIV. Evidence for COVID-19, MERS and
SARS is yet to show it can improve clinical outcomes or prevent infection. This trial aims to
identify and confirm any benefit for COVID-19 patients. While there are indications from
laboratory experiments that this combination may be effective against COVID-19, studies done
so far in COVID-19 patients have been inconclusive.
Interferon beta-1a is used to treat multiple sclerosis.
Hydroxychloroquine is used to treat rheumatology conditions
84. Consider the following statements regarding Aspirational Blocks Programme

1. It has been conceptualised by NITI Aayog.
2. It has been launched in the seven North-eastern states for a period of five years with an
intention of infrastructure development
3. It is based on Aspirational District Programme

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
The Aspirational Blocks Programme was first announced in the Union budget
2022-23.
It was launched by the Prime Minister during the second National Conference of
chief secretaries in January, 2023.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
The programme will cover 500 districts across 31 states and union territories
initially
Over half of these blocks are in 6 States viz., Uttar Pradesh ( 68 Blocks), Bihar (61),
Madhya Pradesh (42), Jharkhand (34), Odisha (29) and West Bengal (29)
However, States can add more blocks to the programme later.
The Aspirational Blocks pro Programme has been launched on the lines of Aspirational
District Programme
ADP was launched in 2018 and aims to transform districts that have shown relatively
lesser progress in important social areas
Aspirational districts are those districts in India that are affected by poor socio economic
indicators.
85. Soliga ecarinata was recently in news; it is a
A. Honeybee species
B. Toxin producing fungal species
C. Invasive creeper plant
D. Wasp species
Correct Answer : D
Soliga ecarinata is a new genus of Wasp.
Recently researchers have unearthed this strikingly colourful Wasp genus from the forest
of Biligiri Rangana hills in Karnataka and other locations.
It has been so named after the indigenous community that resides in these hills and Male
Mahadeshwara hells in Chamarajanagar
The wasp belongs to the sub family Metopiinae of the Darwin wasps family Ichneuonidae.
Metopiinae has 862 species across 27 genera, most of which are seen only in Palaearctic,
Neotropical and Nearctic regions
The species name ecarinata denotes absence of ridges in some of its body regions
The entomologists describe the insect as strikingly colourful and distinct from all its
relatives.
Hence option D is correct .
.
Test-28 (Subject)
86. Consider the following statements regarding Fishing Cat

1. It is nocturnal in nature.
2. It is a season specific breeder.
3. They are mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Fishing Cat
It is about twice the size of a typical house cat. The fishing cat is an adept swimmer and enters
water frequently to prey.
Habitat: Wetlands are the favourite habitats of the fishing cat. In India, fishing cats are
mainly found in the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans, on the foothills of the
Himalayas along the Ganga and Brahmaputra river valleys and in the Western Ghats.
The fishing cat is nocturnal and apart from fish also preys on frogs, crustaceans, snakes,
birds, and scavenges on carcasses of larger animals. It is capable of breeding all year
round
87. Consider the following statements regarding Emperor Penguin

1. Emperor Penguins are the largest of all the different kinds of penguin
2. They live in groups.
3. Penguins are a group of aquatic flightless birds.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Emperor Penguin
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Emperor Penguins are the largest of all the different kinds of penguin and are
endemic to Antarctica
IUCN status- near threatened status.
Penguins are a group of aquatic flightless birds. They live almost exclusively in the
Southern Hemisphere, with only one species, the Galapagos penguin, found north of the
equator.
Dozens of countries had backed giving the world’s largest penguins special protection status at
a 10-day meeting in Berlin of parties to the Antarctic Treaty.
The treaty was forged in 1959 to ensure that the continent remains the preserve of science, and
free of arms.
https://www.nationalgeographic.com/animals/birds/facts/emperor-penguin
88. Consider the following statements regarding NISAR

1. It is the joint Earth observing mission between NASA and ISRO
2. The goal of NISAR is to make global measurements of the causes and consequences of land
surface changes using advanced radar imaging.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Both the statements are correct.
NISAR is a joint Earth-observing mission between NASA and the Indian Space
Research Organization (ISRO). NASA and ISRO are providing two radars that are optimized
each in their own way to allow the mission to observe a wider range of changes than either one
alone. NISAR will detect movements of the planet’s surface as small as 0.4 inches over areas
about half the size of a tennis court.
About NISAR:
It’s an SUV-sized satellite that is being jointly developed by the space agencies of the US and
India.
The partnership agreement was signed between NASA and ISRO in September 2014, according
.
Test-28 (Subject)
to which NASA will provide one of the radars for the satellite, a high-rate communication
subsystem for science data, GPS receivers and a payload data subsystem.
ISRO, on the other hand, will provide the spacecraft bus, the second type of radar (called the S-
band radar), the launch vehicle and associated launch services.
The goal of NISAR is to make global measurements of the causes and consequences
of land surface changes using advanced radar imaging.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/explained-what-are-isro-and-nasa-aiming-to-achieve
-with-the-nisar-satellite/article66598884.ece
89. Consider the following statements regarding DNA and RNA

1. DNA is the genetic material whereas RNA is not the genetic material except in certain viruses.
2. DNA cannot replicate itself whereas RNA can replicate it.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
.
Test-28 (Subject)
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-does-rna-know-where-to-go-in-the-city-of-the-ce
ll/article66591360.ece
90. With reference to the revenue deficit, consider the following statements:
1. Government may resort to borrowings.
2. Government may decrease the rate of taxes.
3. Government may introduce new taxes.
what are the possible steps government can take to fill the gap of deficit?
A. 1 Only
B. 1 and 2 Only
C. 2 Only
D. 1 and 3 Only
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Correct Answer : D
A revenue deficit shows a shortage of funds with the government to maintain its day-to-day
affairs. When total revenue expenditure exceeds total revenue receipts it leads to a revenue
deficit.
The government often resorts to borrowings and divestments to make up for this
gap in revenue, alongside the introduction of new or increasing taxes.
Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct while statement 2 is incorrect.
91. Consider the following statements regarding Bio-Computer

1. It is a combination of brain organoids with modern computer methods.
2. These structures will be able to record the firing patterns of the neurons and also deliver
electrical stimuli.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
What is the new ‘bio-computer’?
The JHU researchers’ scheme will combine brain organoids with modern computing
methods to create “bio-computers”. They have announced plans to couple the organoids
with machine learning by growing the organoids inside flexible structures affixed with multiple
electrodes (similar to the ones used to take EEG readings from the brain).
These structures will be able to record the firing patterns of the neurons and also
deliver electrical stimuli, to mimic sensory stimuli. The response pattern of the neurons
and their effect on human behaviour or biology will then be analysed by machine-learning
techniques.
Recently, scientists were able to grow human neurons on top of a microelectrode array that
could both record and stimulate these neurons. Using positive or negative electric feedback
from the sensors, they were able to train the neurons to generate a pattern of electrical activity
that would be generated if the neurons were playing table tennis.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
What are the opportunities for ‘bio-computers’?
While human brains are slower than computers at, say, simple arithmetic, they outshine
machines at processing complex information.
Brain organoids can also be developed using stem cells from individuals with
neurodegenerative diseases or cognitive disorders. Comparing the data on brain structure,
connections, and signalling between ‘healthy’ and ‘patient-derived’ organoids can reveal the
biological basis of human cognition, learning, and memory.
They could also help decode the pathology of and drug development for devastating
neurodevelopmental and degenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s disease and microcephaly.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/explained-what-are-bio-computers-and-what-can-the
y-tell-us-about-the-human-brain/article66583002.ece
92. Paralitherizinosaurus Japonicus, sometime seen in the news, is a
A. Tree fossil
B. Dinosaur fossil
C. Bird fossil
Correct Answer : B
Paralitherizinosaurus Japonicus is a bipedal dinosaur. It was identified from the fossilised

remains unearthed on Hokkaido, the northern island of Japan. The fossil is the first to be found
in Asia in marine sediments.
https://www.nature.com/articles/s41598-022-11063-5
93. DART mission, sometime seen in the news, is related to
A. Landing a space craft on asteroid.

B. It is a testing method of planetary defence against near-Earth objects.
C. Landing a space craft on Comets.
Correct Answer : B
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) was a NASA space mission aimed at testing a method
of planetary defence against near-Earth objects (NEOs). It was designed to assess how much a
spacecraft impact deflects an asteroid through its transfer of momentum when hitting the
asteroid head-on.
https://www.nasa.gov/press-release/nasa-confirms-dart-mission-impact-changed-asteroid-s-moti
on-in-space
94. Consider the following statements regarding Commission for Air Quality Management
(CAQM)
1. It is the permanent statutory authority with 20 members.
2. It is chaired by a government official of the rank of Secretary or Chief Secretary.
3. It will be working along with CPCB and ISRO, apart from the respective state government.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) is a statutory body formed under the
Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas,
Act 2021.
It is a permanent statutory authority with 20 members. It is to be chaired by a

government official of the rank of Secretary or Chief Secretary.
It will supersede bodies such as the central and state pollution control boards of Delhi, Punjab,
Haryana, UP and Rajasthan.
It will have the powers to issue directions to these state governments on issues
pertaining to air pollution.
It has Exclusive jurisdiction over the NCR, including areas in Haryana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and
Rajasthan, in matters of air pollution, and will be working along with CPCB and ISRO, apart from
the respective state government
.
Test-28 (Subject)
95. Eco Sensitive Zones (ESZ)/ Eco-Sensitive Area (ESA), sometime seen in the news, is
established under
A. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

B. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
C. Environment Protection Act, 1986
Correct Answer : C
Eco Sensitive Zones (ESZ)/ Eco-Sensitive Area (ESA)
What are Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs)?
The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change (MoEFCC) stipulated that state governments should declare land falling within 10 km of
the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive
Zones (ESZs) under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986.
While the 10-km rule is implemented as a general principle, the extent of its application can
vary. Areas beyond 10 km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs, if they hold
larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors”.
96. Non-forest purposes defined in Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 includes which of the
following activities?
1. Establishment of check-posts
2. Rubber Plantation
3. Cultivation of Medicinal Plants

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
THE FOREST (CONSERVATION) ACT, 1980
Restriction on the de-reservation of forests or use of forest land for non-forest purpose.
.
Test-28 (Subject)
Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force in a State, no
State Government or other authority shall make, except with the prior approval of the Central
Government, any order directing.
that any forest land or any portion thereof may be cleared of trees which have grown naturally
in that land or portion, for the purpose of using it for reafforestation. For the purposes of this
section ‘‘non-forest purpose” means the breaking up or clearing of any forest land or portion
thereof for—
(a) The cultivation of tea, coffee, spices, rubber, palms, oil-bearing plants,
horticulture crops or medicinal plants;
(b) Any purpose other than reafforestation, but does not include any work relating or
ancillary to conservation, development and management of forests and wild-life,
namely, the establishment of check-posts, fire lines, wireless communications and
construction of fencing, bridges and culverts, dams, waterholes, trench marks, boundary marks,
pipelines or other like purposes.
https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1436914/
97. Consider the following statements regarding Wetlands (Conservation and

Management) Rules, 2017
1. It stipulates setting up of SWA in each State/UTs headed by State’s environment minister.
2. It is mandatory for state authorities to prepare list of all wetlands and list of wetlands to be
notified within six months.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Highlights of Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017
1. State Wetlands Authority (SWA):
It stipulates setting up of SWA in each State/UTs headed by State’s environment

minister and include range of government officials. State government will also
nominate one expert each in fields of wetland ecology, hydrology, fisheries, landscape
planning and socioeconomics.
1. Functions of SWA:
.
Test-28 (Subject)
It will develop comprehensive list of activities to be regulated and permitted within notified
wetlands and their zone of influence. It will also recommend additional prohibited activities for
specific wetlands define strategies wise use of wetlands and its conservation and undertake
measures to enhance awareness within stakeholders and local communities on values and
functions of wetlands. In this case, wise use has been defined as principle of sustainable uses
that is compatible with conservation.
1. Prohibited Activities:
The rules prohibit activities like conversion of wetland for non-wetland uses including
encroachment of any kind, setting up and expansion of industries, waste dumping and
discharge of untreated wastes and effluents from industries, cities, towns, villages and other
human settlements.
1. Digital inventory of all wetlands:
It is mandatory for state authorities to prepare list of all wetlands and list of
wetlands to be notified within six months. Based on it, a comprehensive digital inventory
of all wetlands will be created and will be updated every ten years.
1. National Wetlands Committee (NWC):
The rules stipulates for setting up of NWC, headed by MoEFCC Secretary, to monitor
implementation of these rules and oversee work carried out by States.
NCW will also advise Central Government on appropriate policies and action programmes for
conservation and wise use of wetlands, recommend designation of wetlands of international
importance under Ramsar Convention, advise on collaboration with international agencies on
issues related to wetlands etc.
98. Which of the following is/are the Fresh water Turtle species?
1. Crowned River Turtle
2. Keeled box Turtle
3. Leather back Turtle

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Leather Back Turtle

.
Test-28 (Subject)
It is the largest of the seven species of sea turtles. Except the Loggerhead, the remaining four
species nest along the Indian coast. It is found in all oceans except the Arctic and the Antarctic.
Within the Indian Ocean, they nest only in Indonesia, Sri Lanka, and the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands.
https://www.traffic.org/site/assets/files/6783/tortoises-and-freshwater-turtles-of-india.pdf
99. United Nations Environment Programme has been established through
A. UN Conference on Sustainable Environment.

B. UN Conference on Human Environment
C. RIO Summit
Correct Answer : B
UN Conference on Human Environment, Stockholm 1972
It was first declaration of international protection of the environment. It is held in Stockholm,

Sweden from June 5–16 in 1972.
United Nations Environment Programme has been established by the United Nations
General Assembly in pursuance of the Stockholm Conference.
100. Consider the following statements regarding UNECE Water Convention

1. It is one of five UNECE's negotiated environmental treaties.
2. It is legally binding agreement.
3. India is a party to it.

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
UNECE Water Convention
.
Test-28 (Subject)
It is an international environmental agreement and one of five UNECE's negotiated

environmental treaties.
Water Convention OR Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses

and International Lakes was adopted in Helsinki in 1992 and entered into force in 1996.
Convention is a unique legally binding instrument promoting the sustainable

management of shared water resources. India is NOT a party to this.
https://unece.org/environment-policy/water

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.

1. The term ‘Megha-Tropiques-1’ recently seen in news is associated with-

A. A satellite mission to study the water cycle in the tropical atmosphere.

2. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

4. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

5. Consider the following statements regarding Fiberisation:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

8. With reference to Near-Field Communication (NFC) technology, consider the following

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

9. Consider the following statements regarding Additive manufacturing:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. Installation of oﬀ-grid solar pumps in rural areas of India.

14. Consider the following statements about the Vinyl Chloride:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

15. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. These are coarse-grained igneous rocks formed in oxygen poor conditions.

17. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. Study planetary systems that orbit distant stars.

19. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

21. Consider the following statements regarding Montreux Record

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

22. Consider the following pairs

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

24. The impacts of Marine heatwaves include

2. Change in habitat range of marine species

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

25. Greenwashing, sometimes seen in news, refers to

A. Increasing green cover of a speciﬁc territory within a ﬁxed period of time.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

27. Consider the following statements regarding Red Sanders

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

28. Consider the following statements regarding Guidelines on Extended Producer

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

31. Consider the following pairs

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

33. In India, Dugongs are found in

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

34. Consider the following statements regarding Nanoplastics

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

35. Consider the following statements regarding Green Status of Species

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

36. Consider the following statements regarding Green Ammonia

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

39. Consider the following statements