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Jet Propulsion

Module 14

B2

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EASA Questions

14.1 Turbine Engines.

Question Number. 1. On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, the fan turns the same speed as the.
Option A. low pressure turbine.
Option B. high pressure compressor.
Option C. forward turbine wheel.
Correct Answer is. low pressure turbine.

Question Number. 2. A turbo jet engine gives.

Option A. large acceleration to a small mass of air.
Option B. large acceleration to a large weight of air.
Option C. small acceleration to a large mass of air.
Correct Answer is. large acceleration to a small mass of air.

Question Number. 3. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section.
Option A. The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections.
Option B. The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust.
Option C. The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.
Correct Answer is. The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.

Question Number. 4. A jet engine derives its thrust by.

Option A. drawing air into the compressor.
Option B. impingement of the propelling gases on the outside air.
Option C. reaction of the propelling gases.
Correct Answer is. reaction of the propelling gases.
Explanation. Newtons third law applies

Question Number. 5. Which of the following might be used to identify turbine discharge pressure?
Option A. Pt7.
Option B. Pt2.
Option C. Tt7.
Correct Answer is. Pt7.

Question Number. 6. In a free turbine.

Option A. there is a clutch between compressor and power output shaft.
Option B. there is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit.
Option C. there is no mechanical connection with the compressor.
Correct Answer is. there is no mechanical connection with the compressor.

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Question Number. 7. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.
Option A. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
Option B. the static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
Option C. the total energy remains constant.
Correct Answer is. the total energy remains constant.

Question Number. 8. The working fluid of a gas turbine engine is.

Option A. gasoline.
Option B. kerosene.
Option C. air.
Correct Answer is. air.
Explanation. Kerosene provides the energy to drive the air.

Question Number. 9. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion?
Option A. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
Option B. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the
propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust.
Option C. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of air.
Correct Answer is. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of air.

Question Number. 10. As subsonic air flows through a convergent nozzle the velocity.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. remains constant.
Correct Answer is. increases.
Explanation. Bernoulli's Theorem again.

Question Number. 11. In a twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives the
Option A. N2 compressor.
Option B. N1 and N2 compressors.
Option C. N1 compressor.
Correct Answer is. N2 compressor.

Question Number. 12. At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures occur?
Option A. At the compressor outlet.
Option B. At the turbine entrance.
Option C. Within the burner section.
Correct Answer is. At the compressor outlet.

Question Number. 13. Which of the following units are generally used to measure aircraft noise?
Option A. Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N d B).
Option B. Decibels (dB).
Option C. Sound pressure.
Correct Answer is. Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N dB).

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Question Number. 14. The diffuser section is located between.

Option A. the burner section and the turbine section.
Option B. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
Option C. the compressor section and the burner section.
Correct Answer is. the compressor section and the burner section.

Question Number. 15. If the LP shaft shears.

Option A. turbine runaway occurs.
Option B. compressor overspeed occurs.
Option C. compressor underspeed occurs.
Correct Answer is. turbine runaway occurs.
Explanation. The turbine drives the LP compressor or fan.

Question Number. 16. The term Pt7 means.

Option A. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
Option B. the total pressure at station No. 7.
Option C. the total inlet pressure.
Correct Answer is. the total pressure at station No. 7.

Question Number. 17. What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and efficient burning of the gases?
Option A. Diffuser section and combustion section.
Option B. Combustion section and compressor section.
Option C. Combustion section only.
Correct Answer is. Combustion section only.

Question Number. 18. Of the following, which engine type would most likely have a noise suppression unit installed?
Option A. Turboprop.
Option B. Turbojet.
Option C. Turboshaft.
Correct Answer is. Turbojet.

Question Number. 19. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.
Option A. decreases.
Option B. increases.
Option C. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
Correct Answer is. decreases.

Question Number. 20. The symbol for designating the speed of a LP compressor in a twin spool engine is.
Option A. N.
Option B. NG.
Option C. N1.
Correct Answer is. N1.

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Question Number. 21. A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston engine because.
Option A. the lubrication is better.
Option B. it runs at a lower temperature.
Option C. it has no reciprocating parts.
Correct Answer is. it has no reciprocating parts.

Question Number. 22. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?
Option A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
Option B. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
Option C. Turbine, combustion, and stator.
Correct Answer is. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.

Question Number. 23. When a volume of air is compressed.

Option A. heat is gained.
Option B. no heat is lost or gained.
Option C. heat is lost.
Correct Answer is. no heat is lost or gained.

Question Number. 24. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.
Option A. increases.
Option B. remains constant.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. decreases.

Question Number. 25. If a volume of a mass of air is 546 cubic feet at 273K, at 274K it will be.
Option A. 2 cubic feet greater.
Option B. 1/273 less by weight.
Option C. 2 cubic feet smaller.
Correct Answer is. 2 cubic feet greater.

Question Number. 26. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located?
Option A. Exhaust.
Option B. Turbine.
Option C. Combustion.
Correct Answer is. Exhaust.

Question Number. 27. Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:
Option A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Option B. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
Option C. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside
force.
Correct Answer is. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some
outside force.

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Question Number. 28. A high bypass engine results in.

Option A. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.
Option B. overall faster airflow.
Option C. greater propulsive efficiency.
Correct Answer is. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.

Question Number. 29. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.
Option A. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.
Option B. the static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
Option C. the total energy remains constant.
Correct Answer is. the total energy remains constant.

Question Number. 30. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant.

Option A. temperature cycle.
Option B. mass cycle.
Option C. pressure cycle.
Correct Answer is. pressure cycle.

Question Number. 31. In a choked nozzle, velocity increases, and.

Option A. density decreases.
Option B. pressure decreases.
Option C. pressure increases.
Correct Answer is. pressure increases.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 2-23. As the nozzle goes sonic the pressure starts to increase as
a result of the shock wave.

Question Number. 32. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is.
Option A. 29°C.
Option B. 59°F.
Option C. 59°C.
Correct Answer is. 59°F.

Question Number. 33. Standard sea level pressure is.

Option A. 29.92 inches Hg.
Option B. 29.29 inches Hg.
Option C. 29.00 inches Hg.
Correct Answer is. 29.92 inches Hg.

Question Number. 34. The highest pressure in a gas turbine is.

Option A. at the nozzle exit.
Option B. at the burner exit.
Option C. just after the last compressor stage but before the burner.
Correct Answer is. just after the last compressor stage but before the burner.

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Question Number. 35. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.
Option A. remains constant.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer is. increases.

Question Number. 36. A turboprop engine derives its thrust by.

Option A. impingement of the prop-wash on the outside air.
Option B. reaction of the prop-wash.
Option C. reaction of the propulsion gases.
Correct Answer is. reaction of the prop-wash.
Explanation. Newtons Third Law.

Question Number. 37. Adiabatic compression is.

Option A. an isothermal process.
Option B. one where there is an increase in kinetic energy.
Option C. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.
Correct Answer is. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.

Question Number. 38. In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the.
Option A. turbine.
Option B. air passing over the compressor.
Option C. accessory gearbox.
Correct Answer is. turbine.

Question Number. 39. A modular constructed gas turbine engine means that.
Option A. all engines have a specific component layout.
Option B. the engine is constructed by the vertical assembly technique.
Option C. its major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the rest of the engine.
Correct Answer is. its major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the rest of the engine.

Question Number. 40. The accessory gearbox of a high bypass engine is.
Option A. on the HP Compressor housing.
Option B. in the forward bearing housing.
Option C. attached to the turbine casing.
Correct Answer is. on the HP Compressor housing.

Question Number. 41. On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by?
Option A. I P turbine.
Option B. LP turbine.
Option C. H P turbine.
Correct Answer is. LP turbine.

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Question Number. 42. Which law relates to the kinetic, pressure, and potential energy in a fluid flow?
Option A. Bernoulli's theorem.
Option B. Newton's laws.
Option C. Charles's law.
Correct Answer is. Bernoulli's theorem.
Explanation. The sum of the energies in a system is constant. so if one decreases another will increase.

Question Number. 43. The density of gas may be expressed as.

Option A. volume/weight.
Option B. weight/volume.
Option C. pressure/volume.
Correct Answer is. weight/volume.

Question Number. 44. E S HP is.

Option A. Horsepower/efficiency.
Option B. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.
Option C. Power available at the turbine less the power required to drive the.
Correct Answer is. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.
Explanation. Effective Shaft Horse Power is the measure of total power of a turbo prop engine.

Question Number. 45. A divergent duct will cause subsonic flow to decrease in.
Option A. velocity, increase pressure.
Option B. velocity, pressure remains constant.
Option C. pressure, increase velocity.
Correct Answer is. velocity, increase pressure.

Question Number. 46. The Brayton cycle is.

Option A. the name given to the intermittent cycling of an electrical de-icing system.
Option B. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
Option C. the constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
Correct Answer is. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
Explanation. The Brayton Cycle is also known as the constant pressure cycle.

Question Number. 47. The purpose of a diffuser is to.

Option A. increase the kinetic energy of the air.
Option B. induce a swirl to the air prior to combustion.
Option C. increase the static pressure of the air.
Correct Answer is. increase the static pressure of the air.
Explanation. Diffusers are always static divergent ducts.

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Question Number. 48. On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines driv e.
Option A. the LP compressor.
Option B. the HP compressor.
Option C. the I P compressor.
Correct Answer is. the HP compressor.

Question Number. 49. Ram effect is.

Option A. the increase of dynamic pressure at the face of the compressor.
Option B. conversion of static pressure to kinetic pressure at the face of the compressor.
Option C. conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the compressor.
Correct Answer is. conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the compressor.
Explanation. The greater the ram effect the greater the efficiency of the propulsion system.

Question Number. 50. Which of the following statements is true on a high bypass ratio turbofan?
Option A. Both the compressor and combustion system are larger than their turbojet equivalent.
Option B. The compressor assembly is larger and combustion chamber smaller than their turbojet equivalent.
Option C. Both the compressor and combustion chamber are smaller than the turbojet equivalent.
Correct Answer is. Both the compressor and combustion chamber are smaller than their turbojet equivalent.
Explanation. Smaller compressors and combustion chambers can be used on high bypass fans as they are more efficient
than turbo jets.

Question Number. 51. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system with a free power turbine, Nf would be an
indication of.
Option A. turbine thrust indication.
Option B. first stage compressor speed.
Option C. free power turbine speed.
Correct Answer is. free power turbine speed.
Explanation. The free turbine drives the prop-shaft only.

Question Number. 52. A waisted drive shaft is primarily to.

Option A. achieve dynamic balance.
Option B. reduce weight.
Option C. provide a fuse if the driven component is overloaded.
Correct Answer is. provide a fuse if the driven component is overloaded.
Explanation. An example of this type of drive shaft is fitted between a gearbox and an I D G.

Question Number. 53. The 'core engine' or 'gas generator' is made up of the following components:
Option A. Inlet, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine, exhaust.
Option B. Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.
Option C. Compressor, turbine, exhaust, propelling nozzle.
Correct Answer is. Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.
Explanation. The core engine is that which the primary airflow passes(the air that passes through the combustion chamber.
the inlet is not included as the air is normally split down the bypass duct at the entrance to the compressor system.

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Question Number. 54. The principle of jet propulsion is.

Option A. the calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
Option B. the interaction of fluids and gases.
Option C. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.
Correct Answer is. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.
Explanation. This is Newtons Third Law.

Question Number. 55. Boyle's law states that, at constant temperature, if a gas is compressed.
Option A. its absolute pressure is proportional to its volume.
Option B. its absolute temperature is proportional to it's volume.
Option C. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.
Correct Answer is. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.
Explanation. If the volume is reduced the pressure goes up.

Question Number. 56. What part of a jet engine has the most potential energy?
Option A. Immediately after the combustion chamber.
Option B. Just before the combustion chamber.
Option C. Immediately after the HP compressor.
Correct Answer is. Just before the combustion chamber.
Explanation. Where the fuel (unburned) is pumped in.

Question Number. 57. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the
pump, the flow will be.
Option A. reversed.
Option B. zero.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. zero.

Question Number. 58. What moves the swash plate away from the minimum stroke position?
Option A. Reduced inlet pressure.
Option B. A spring.
Option C. Increased servo pressure.
Correct Answer is. A spring.

Question Number. 59. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at.

Option A. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
Option B. I.S.A. sea level.
Option C. altitude.
Correct Answer is. I.S.A. sea level.

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Question Number. 60. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump 'Swash Plate' angle obtained?
Option A. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Option B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
Option C. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.
Correct Answer is. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.

Question Number. 61. What would be the effect on the engine if the B.P.C half ball valve in the servo line sticks open?
Option A. A reduction of fuel flow, therefore a decrease in RPM.
Option B. The B.P.C would be ineffective at sea level only.
Option C. An increase of fuel flow, therefore an increase in RPM.
Correct Answer is. An increase of fuel flow, therefore an increase in RPM.

Question Number. 62. Why is an A.C.U fitted to a gas turbine engine?

Option A. It increases the rate of acceleration of the engine.
Option B. It controls the operation of the metering block during sudden acceleration.
Option C. It limits the rate of increase in fuel flow during sudden acceleration.
Correct Answer is. It limits the rate of increase in fuel flow during sudden acceleration.

Question Number. 63. If fuel pump servo pressure is reduced, pump output will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. remain constant.
Correct Answer is. decrease.

Question Number. 64. Why is the B.P.C fitted in a gas turbine engine fuel system?
Option A. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Option B. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
Option C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure.
Correct Answer is. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.

Question Number. 65. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine?
Option A. You must recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
Option B. You must retrim the engine.
Option C. You must perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. You must retrim the engine.

Question Number. 66. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement of a.
Option A. needle valve.
Option B. diaphragm and half ball valve.
Option C. knife blade.
Correct Answer is. knife blade.

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Question Number. 67. Specific fuel consumption at altitude will.

Option A. decrease.
Option B. remain constant.
Option C. increase.
Correct Answer is. increase.

Question Number. 68. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is
Option A. lightly seated.
Option B. closed fully.
Option C. open fully.
Correct Answer is. lightly seated.

Question Number. 69. What is the purpose of the attenuator fitted between the H.P fuel pump and the B.P.C in a fuel
system?
Option A. It restricts the pressure feed top the B.P.C.
Option B. It ensures a supply of fuel free from foreign matter to the BC half ball valve.
Option C. It damps out pulsations in the fuel delivery to the B.P.C.
Correct Answer is. It damps out pulsations in the fuel delivery to the B.P.C.

Question Number. 70. Why is the hydromechanical governor fitted to a gas turbine engine fuel pump?
Option A. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel SGs.
Option B. To enable efficient control of fuel flow to be maintained at altitude.
Option C. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel SGs.

Question Number. 71. A barometric Pressure Controller controls.

Option A. barometric pressure.
Option B. fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes.
Option C. fuel tank pressure at altitude.
Correct Answer is. fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes.

Question Number. 72. Kinetic valves are used because.

Option A. they are less likely to leak.
Option B. they are more sensitive.
Option C. they are not subjected to wear.
Correct Answer is. they are more sensitive.

Question Number. 73. When considering a centrifugal type engine speed governor, an increase in fuel S.G. will cause.
Option A. no change in maximum RPM.
Option B. an increase in maximum RPM.
Option C. a reduction in maximum RPM.
Correct Answer is. a reduction in maximum RPM.

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Question Number. 74. On a FADEC engine.

Option A. A channel uses control alternator and B channel uses aircraft bus power.
Option B. A channel uses a separate winding of the control alternator to B channel.
Option C. A and B channel use the same phases of the motor.
Correct Answer is. A channel uses a separate winding of the control alternator to B channel.

Question Number. 75. Normal fuel/air ratio for successful combustion is.
Option A. 15:1.
Option B. 25:1.
Option C. 10:1.
Correct Answer is. 15:1.

Question Number. 76. Which of the following influences the operation of an automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet
engine?
Option A. Exhaust gas temperature.
Option B. Mixture control position.
Option C. Burner pressure.
Correct Answer is. Burner pressure.

Question Number. 77. What is the purpose of the L.P. pump?

Option A. To ensure rapid acceleration when the throttle is opened.
Option B. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.
Option C. To ensure the engine will continue to run if the H.P. fuel pump fails.
Correct Answer is. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.

Question Number. 78. The fuel pump plungers are lubricated by.
Option A. synthetic anti-freeze oil.
Option B. grease packed bearings.
Option C. the Fuel.
Correct Answer is. the Fuel.

Question Number. 79. Which forces control the maximum RPM governor in a non-hydromechanical swashplate type of
pump?
Option A. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension spring loading.
Option B. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump delivery pressure.
Option C. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump inlet pressure.
Correct Answer is. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension spring loading.

Question Number. 80. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner provide air to the shroud around the burner
head?
Option A. To reduce burner temperature.
Option B. To assist atomisation of the fuel at slow running.
Option C. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.
Correct Answer is. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.

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Question Number. 81. A fuel heater prevents.

Option A. Neither.
Option B. LP filter icing.
Option C. H.P filter icing.
Correct Answer is. LP filter icing.

Question Number. 82. On a FADEC engine the E.E.C.

Option A. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control in some modes.
Option B. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control system.
Option C. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes.
Correct Answer is. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes.

Question Number. 83. During normal running conditions, combustion is

Option A. continuously supported by ignition.
Option B. self supporting.
Option C. intermittently supported by ignition.
Correct Answer is. self supporting.

Question Number. 84. On a FADEC engine, the channel reset.

Option A. always selects A channel.
Option B. selects B channel.
Option C. selects standby which becomes active on the next start.
Correct Answer is. selects standby which becomes active on the next start.

Question Number. 85. With a decrease in fuel SG, what is the result when the engine is fitted with an uncompensated
fuel governor?
Option A. No effect.
Option B. Maximum RPM decrease.
Option C. Maximum RPM increase.
Correct Answer is. Maximum RPM increase.

Question Number. 86. The maximum RPM of a turbine engine is limited by.
Option A. a temperature sensitive device which reduces the fuel pump speed.
Option B. diversion of some of the fuel pump outlet flow by a spill valve sensitiv e to burner fuel pressure.
Option C. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve sensitive to centrifugally generated fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve sensitive to centrifugally generated fuel pressure.

Question Number. 87. To what condition does the fuel flow respond during aircraft acceleration?
Option A. Mass airflow rate through the engine.
Option B. The effect of 'ram-air' at altitude.
Option C. The change in pressure at the compressor intake.
Correct Answer is. Mass airflow rate through the engine.
Explanation. This refers to the parameters that make mass airflow- T2 and N2 in particular.

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Question Number. 88. During acceleration, the fuel flow is increased at a controlled rate in order to.
Option A. prevent fuel pump damage.
Option B. increase s.f.c.
Option C. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out.
Correct Answer is. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out.
Explanation. Over fuelling during acceleration is a prime cause of surge.

Question Number. 89. The B.P.C controls the F.C.U by.

Option A. pressure sensing.
Option B. temperature sensing.
Option C. density sensing.
Correct Answer is. pressure sensing.
Explanation. BPC is the Barometric Pressure Control.

Question Number. 90. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the
pump, the flow will be.
Option A. zero.
Option B. reversed.
Option C. maximum.
Correct Answer is. zero.

Question Number. 91. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at.

Option A. altitude.
Option B. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
Option C. I.S.A. sea level.
Correct Answer is. I.S.A. sea level.
Explanation. Cold dense air requires more fuel than hot warm air to maintain the air-fuel ratio.

Question Number. 92. The type of fuel control unit most commonly used in modern jet engines is.
Option A. mechanical.
Option B. hydro-mechanical.
Option C. electrical.
Correct Answer is. hydro-mechanical.

Question Number. 93. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump swash plate angle, obtained?
Option A. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.
Option B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
Option C. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Correct Answer is. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Explanation. Servo pressure is initially supplied through a fixed restrictor, then modified by half ball valve and kinetic
knives.

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Question Number. 94. Why is the Barometric Pressure Control fitted in a turboshaft engine fuel system?
Option A. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
Option B. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Option C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure.
Correct Answer is. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
Explanation. Barometric Pressure Control is an old name for Altitude (and hence air density) Sensing Unit.

Question Number. 95. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
Option A. always varying between fully closed and fully seated.
Option B. lightly seated.
Option C. open fully.
Correct Answer is. lightly seated.

Question Number. 96. The swash plate in a fuel pump, when static is.
Option A. at some intermediate position.
Option B. in the minimum position.
Option C. in the maximum position.
Correct Answer is. in the maximum position.

Question Number. 97. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement of a
Option A. diaphragm and half ball valve.
Option B. knife blade.
Option C. needle valve.
Correct Answer is. knife blade.

Question Number. 98. Why is it necessary to control fuel supply to the engine during rapid acceleration?
Option A. To prevent compressor stall above cruise RPM.
Option B. To control maximum RPM.
Option C. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible compressor surge.
Correct Answer is. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible compressor surge.

Question Number. 99. Which component corrects for air density effects on fuel/air mixture in a gas turbine engine?
Option A. The barometric pressure control unit.
Option B. The adjustable throttle valve.
Option C. The pressurising valve.
Correct Answer is. The barometric pressure control unit.
Explanation. Barometric pressure senses density changes.

Question Number. 100. Why is the high pressure fuel pump fitted in a gas turbine engine aircraft?
Option A. To maintain a vapour free pressure from the aircraft fuel tanks to the LP fuel pump.
Option B. As an emergency in case of failure of the LP pump.
Option C. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the engine.
Correct Answer is. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the engine.

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Question Number. 101. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the dump valve in a jet engine fuel
system when the engine is shut down?
Option A. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
Option B. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.
Option C. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed.
Correct Answer is. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.

Question Number. 102. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and air to obtain a correct fuel to air ratio.
Which of the following weighs the most?
Option A. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor.
Option B. 100 parts of dry air.
Option C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
Correct Answer is. 100 parts of dry air.

Question Number. 103. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to.

Option A. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
Option B. a stoichiometric mixture.
Option C. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
Correct Answer is. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.

Question Number. 104. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed?
Option A. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
Option B. To properly position the power levers.
Option C. To adjust the idle RPM.
Correct Answer is. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.

Question Number. 105. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?
Option A. Hydromechanical or electronic.
Option B. Mechanical.
Option C. Electronic.
Correct Answer is. Hydromechanical or electronic.

Question Number. 106. Under which of the following conditions will the trimming of a turbine engine be most accurate?
Option A. No wind and low moisture.
Option B. High moisture and low wind.
Option C. High wind and high moisture.
Correct Answer is. No wind and low moisture.

Question Number. 107. An H.M.U receives its signals from.

Option A. E.E.C.
Option B. ADC.
Option C. thrust lever resolvers.
Correct Answer is. E.E.C.

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Question Number. 108. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the fuel control, manufacturers generally
recommend that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the.
Option A. decrease direction.
Option B. increase direction.
Option C. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
Correct Answer is. increase direction.

Question Number. 109. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to.
Option A. set idle RPM and maximum speed or E.P.R.
Option B. produce as much power as the engine is capable of producing.
Option C. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to power output.
Correct Answer is. set idle RPM and maximum speed or E.P.R.

Question Number. 110. A supervisory electronic engine control (E.E.C) is a system that receives engine operating
information and.
Option A. controls engine operation according to ambient temperature, pressure, and humidity.
Option B. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.
Option C. develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.
Correct Answer is. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.

Question Number. 111. In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs.

Option A. when channels A and B are healthy.
Option B. on shutdown.
Option C. on engine start up only.
Correct Answer is. on engine start up only.

Question Number. 112. What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?
Option A. An electrically operated solenoid.
Option B. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM.
Option C. Fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. Fuel pressure.

Question Number. 113. The valve on a vane type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety backup is
available for the engine fuel flow?
Option A. A differential pressure bypass valve.
Option B. A bypass valve.
Option C. A fuel bleed valve.
Correct Answer is. A differential pressure bypass valve.
Explanation. Note the valve opens against spring pressure.

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Question Number. 114. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel nozzle used in many turbine engines?
Option A. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used.
Option B. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where more efficient and complete burning of the fuel is achieved.
Option C. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.
Correct Answer is. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.

Question Number. 115. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?
Option A. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is restricted.
Option B. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the atomization of fuel.
Option C. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.
Correct Answer is. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.

Question Number. 116. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest filtering action?
Option A. Stacked charcoal.
Option B. Small wire mesh.
Option C. Micron.
Correct Answer is. Micron.

Question Number. 117. Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually located?
Option A. Aft of the firewall.
Option B. Adjacent to the fuel pump.
Option C. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.
Correct Answer is. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.

Question Number. 118. Supervisory E.E.C sends its output to the.

Option A. fuel valve.
Option B. H.M.U/F.F.G.
Option C. EGT thermocouple circuit.
Correct Answer is. H.M.U/F.F.G.
Explanation. RB211-535 has this system - the trim signal is passed to the F.F.G. a FADEC engine would receive trim
signals at the H.M.U.

Question Number. 119. If a FADEC loses its ADC input. In the short term it will.
Option A. go to limit protection mode.
Option B. go into hard reversion.
Option C. go into soft reversion.
Correct Answer is. go into soft reversion.
Explanation. Sometimes known as the Alternate mode. CF-6 FADEC engine has this facility.

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Question Number. 120. The primary purpose of an E.E.C is.

Option A. to change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information and reduce flight crew
workload.
Option B. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs.
Option C. to change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and provide maintenance information.
Correct Answer is. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs.
Explanation. Inputs and outputs to the FADEC are both digital and analogue, hence a and b are both wrong.
Optimised performance is the reason FADEC was introduced

Question Number. 121. When both FADEC channels are healthy they will alternate.
Option A. as selected on the flight deck.
Option B. when one channel fails.
Option C. on each engine start.
Correct Answer is. on each engine start.

Question Number. 122. The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to.

Option A. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.
Option B. pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine.
Option C. ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel.
Correct Answer is. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.
Explanation. Maintains about 40 psi to the inlet of the H.P Pump.

Question Number. 123. In a FADEC system, what is the result of Channel A failing to receive information from a
sensor?
Option A. Channel A will take the information from the backup sensor.
Option B. Channel A will take the information from channel B.
Option C. Channel B will assume control.
Correct Answer is. Channel A will take the information from channel B.
Explanation. This assumes that channel A is still capable of full control and that channel B is receiving a good sensor
signal.

Question Number. 124. In a FADEC engine with a hydromechanical fuel system, how is fuel flow controlled?
Option A. By oil hydraulics.
Option B. By fuel pressure.
Option C. By electro-hydraulic servo valves (E.H.S.Vs).
Correct Answer is. By electro-hydraulic servo valves (E.H.S.Vs).

Question Number. 125. On the approach.

Option A. RPM should be above the minimum idle for maximum acceleration.
Option B. RPM should be high.
Option C. RPM should be lower than minimum for maximum acceleration.
Correct Answer is. RPM should be above the minimum idle for maximum acceleration.
Explanation. A high (or flight) idle setting is used for maximum acceleration in the event of overshoot.

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Question Number. 126. The air data inputs to the FADEC E.C.U fails. The result will be:
Option A. a lack of flight data.
Option B. the E.C.U reverts to the fail-safe mode.
Option C. uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensors is utilised.
Correct Answer is. the E.C.U reverts to the fail-safe mode.
Explanation. If all air data input fails then the E.C.U reverts to an alternate (Fail-safe) mode.

Question Number. 127. A FADEC system consists of.

Option A. H.M.U, A.D.C and sensors.
Option B. E.E.C, A.D.C and sensors.
Option C. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C.
Correct Answer is. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C.

Question Number. 128. A fuel heater prevents.

Option A. entrained water in fuel freezing.
Option B. LP fuel filter icing.
Option C. pipelines freezing.
Correct Answer is. entrained water in fuel freezing.
Explanation. Whilst the LP fuel filter may block as a result of freezing it is the entrained water that froze first.

Question Number. 129. When re-light is required in flight on a FADEC engine, the pilot selects.
Option A. one igniter.
Option B. igniter selected automatically.
Option C. both igniters.
Correct Answer is. igniter selected automatically.
Explanation. The FADEC chooses whichever igniter it wants.

Question Number. 130. The position of fuel heater in fuel system is.
Option A. between the fuel control unit and the burner manifold.
Option B. after the LP fuel filter and before the H.P pump.
Option C. before the LP fuel filter.
Correct Answer is. before the LP fuel filter.
Explanation. This position ensures the fuel will not freeze in the fuel filter.

Question Number. 131. The E.E.C receives its primary power from.
Option A. 115V AC emergency BUS.
Option B. separate permanent magnet alternator.
Option C. 115V AC main BUS.
Correct Answer is. separate permanent magnet alternator.
Explanation. note that answers a and b are back up power supplies.

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Question Number. 132. The fuel trimmer on a turbo-prop engine isoperated.

Option A. manually, to prevent high EGT due to altitude increase.
Option B. automatically controlled in conjunction with FCU.
Option C. manually to prevent excessive RPM at high altitude.
Correct Answer is. automatically controlled in conjunction with FCU.
Explanation. No Turbo-prop aircraft has a manual fuel trimmer as far as we are aware.

Question Number. 133. The main advantage of FADEC is.

Option A. it has electrical control of hydro mechanical unit in all modes.
Option B. efficiency is always maximum.
Option C. it changes T.L.A to most efficient E.P.R rating.
Correct Answer is. efficiency is always maximum.
Explanation. Reduced pilot workload and maximum efficiency of performance is the greatest advantage of F.A.D.E.C.

Question Number. 134. Inlet side of a fuel pump has a.

Option A. threaded micron filter.
Option B. wire mesh filter.
Option C. wire wound filter.
Correct Answer is. wire mesh filter.

Question Number. 135. When a throttle is selected to increase power, the pressure drop across the Fuel Control Unit
throttle orifice.
Option A. increases then decreases due to decreasing pump output.
Option B. drops then increases due to increasing pump output.
Option C. remains the same.
Correct Answer is. drops then increases due to increasing pump output.
Explanation. On selection the pressure drop across the throttle decreases then recovers as the pump increases the flow of
fuel.

Question Number. 136. When the E.E.C supervisory circuit senses a fault on the engine, the fault annunciator light will be
on and the E.E.C will.
Option A. remove fuel, down trimming signal only when E.E.C switch selected off.
Option B. remove fuel, down trimming signal immediately.
Option C. remove fuel, down trimming signal only after landing.
Correct Answer is. remove fuel, down trimming signal immediately.
Explanation. The E.E.C referred to here is that discussed in Rolls Royce the Jet Engine page 112. It is fitted to an
RB211-535E4.

Question Number. 137. In-Flight the engine E.E.C controls.

Option A. EGT.
Option B. throttle position.
Option C. fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. fuel flow.
Explanation. Throttle position is controlled by the crew or auto throttle. EGT is a function of fuel flow.

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Question Number. 138. A FADEC does not have which of the following?
Option A. Control of thrust reverser operation.
Option B. An automatic starting capability.
Option C. Automatic control of engine fire bottles.
Correct Answer is. Automatic control of engine fire bottles.
Explanation. Fire extinguishers are always operated from the flight deck.

Question Number. 139. A FADEC consists of.

Option A. Electronic controls, sensors and an H.M.U.
Option B. Electronic control and throttle position transmitter.
Option C. Electronic control only.
Correct Answer is. Electronic controls, sensors and an H.M.U.
Explanation. A FADEC is the full system of sensors and control unit. Sometimes the Hydro mechanical Unit (H.M.U) is
also included as part of the system.

Question Number. 140. During aerobatic maneuvers, what prevents fuel from spilling out of fuel tank vents?
Option A. Booster pump differential pressure.
Option B. Baffle plates in tanks.
Option C. Float operated valves.
Correct Answer is. Float operated valves.
Explanation. Float operated valves allow the vent lines to vent both ways if there is no fuel on the float, but will `shut
when the float is lifted by fuel.

Question Number. 141. After a bag tank replacement, where would you disconnect the system to carry out the flow
checks?
Option A. At the engine.
Option B. At tank outlet.
Option C. Tank isolation cock.
Correct Answer is. At the engine.
Explanation. CAIPs AL/3-17 states that for any aircraft fuel flow test after major system interruption connect the flow rig
at the engine bulkhead.

Question Number. 142. What is the purpose of a silver strip on a fuel filter?
Option A. To detect excess metal.
Option B. To detect sulphur in fuel.
Option C. To strain oil for contamination.
Correct Answer is. To detect sulphur in fuel.

Question Number. 143. The basic concept of an H.P fuel control is.
Option A. automatic adjustment of the fuel control unit by preventing excess fuel reaching the burners.
Option B. the bleeding of excess fuel back to the input of the H.P pump swash plate piston.
Option C. constant adjustment of the swash plate angle of the H.P fuel pump.
Correct Answer is. constant adjustment of the swash plate angle of the H.P fuel pump.

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Question Number. 144. To prevent compressor surge and overheating of the combustion chamber due to over fueling
Option A. a barometric unit is fitted.
Option B. a throttle unit is fitted.
Option C. an acceleration control unit is fitted.
Correct Answer is. an acceleration control unit is fitted.
Explanation. The acceleration unit automatically limits the rate of increase of fuel flow until sufficient air is passing through
the engine.

Question Number. 145. When FADEC is in normal mode.

Option A. channel A or B will be in command.
Option B. channel A will be in command.
Option C. channel B will be in command.
Correct Answer is. channel A or B will be in command.
Explanation. Both channels are operating but either one can be in control if they are both healthy.

Question Number. 146. Out of the following thrust lever resolver angles, which one is the forward idle setting?
Option A. 5 degrees.
Option B. 85 degrees.
Option C. 40 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 40 degrees.
Explanation. All FADEC engines will have reverse thrust settings therefore the T.L.A of 0 degrees will be max
reverse, and 85 will be max forward therefore 40 is the idle figure.

Question Number. 147. Trimming is a term applied to adjusting the.

Option A. idle speed and maximum thrust.
Option B. fuel specific gravity.
Option C. part trim stop.
Correct Answer is. idle speed and maximum thrust.

Question Number. 148. Fuel boost pumps are cooled using.

Option A. ram air.
Option B. Fuel pumps do not require cooling.
Option C. fuel.
Correct Answer is. fuel.
Explanation. Fuel pumps, of any type usually use the fuel they are pumping to cool the bearings.

Question Number. 149. A fuel trimmer unit is adjusted at altitude.

Option A. automatically, via a fuel trim unit.
Option B. manually to compensate for propeller torque.
Option C. manually to compensate for EGT change.
Correct Answer is. automatically, via a fuel trim unit.
Explanation. We assume here that the fuel trim at altitude is due to decreasing air density& pressure. The Fuel flow
governor (fuel trimmer) does this automatically.

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Question Number. 150. Baffles in a rigid fuel tank.

Option A. help prevent micro-biological corrosion.
Option B. strengthen the tank structure.
Option C. prevent surge.
Correct Answer is. prevent surge.

Question Number. 151. In a FADEC system, what does the E.E.C measure along with RPM?
Option A. Pressure and Temperature.
Option B. Pressure.
Option C. Temperature.
Correct Answer is. Pressure and Temperature.
Explanation. Normally the E.E.C reads as a minimum To Po Ps3 and T25.

Question Number. 152. In a FADEC system, how are the power supply windings for channel A and Channel B wound?
Option A. Two independent generators.
Option B. On one generator with 2 separate windings.
Option C. One generator and one winding.
Correct Answer is. On one generator with 2 separate windings.
Explanation. The engine alternator is a permanent magnet alternator with 2 windings within the stator housing. There may
also be a third winding that is used to indicate H.P RPM (H.P tachometer) within the same housing.

Question Number. 153. If an Engine FADEC system loses air-data permanently, the pilot will.
Option A. turn that E.E.C Off.
Option B. select alternate pitot static.
Option C. switch to Alt on the relevant E.E.C.
Correct Answer is. switch to Alt on the relevant E.E.C.
Explanation. By switching to Alternate mode manually the E.E.C uses cornerstone Pamb and Tamb.

Question Number. 154. A FADEC system takes measurements from Engine Speed.
Option A. Temperature and Pressure.
Option B. and Temperature.
Option C. and Pressure.
Correct Answer is. Temperature and Pressure.
Explanation. T-ambient, P-ambient and P s3 as a minimum.

Question Number. 155. Main purpose of the fuel boost pumps is to provide.
Option A. emergency dump jettison.
Option B. cross-feed fuel from one tank to another.
Option C. fuel pressure to both engine pumps.
Correct Answer is. fuel pressure to both engine pumps.
Explanation. Supply of fuel to the engines is the primary purpose although the other two answers may also be
options.

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Question Number. 156. The swash plate in the fuel pump of an axial flow gas turbine engine is controlled by.
Option A. servo hydraulic pressure.
Option B. electrical servo control.
Option C. servo fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. servo fuel pressure.

Question Number. 157. The end fittings on a fuel non-return valve are normally of different sizes to.
Option A. prevent incorrect installation.
Option B. facilitate bleeding the system.
Option C. allow a full fuel flow through the valve.
Correct Answer is. prevent incorrect installation.
Explanation. Also known as check valves, NRV's have different end fittings and sometimes an arrow showing direction
of flow embossed on the casing.

Question Number. 158. E.E.C receives signals from RPM sensor and.
Option A. pressure sensors.
Option B. pressure and temperature sensors.
Option C. temperature sensors.
Correct Answer is. pressure and temperature sensors.
Explanation. Modern FADEC systems receive all three types of sensor but quite often do not use the EGT signals for
control.

Question Number. 159. When does E.E.C channel change over occur?
Option A. On engine start up.
Option B. On engine shut down.
Option C. On fault.
Correct Answer is. On engine start up.
Explanation. The E.E.C prepares for the changeover by resetting the E.E.C on shut down, but does not actually do it
until the next start. A simple single fault (compared to a complete channel failure) will not cause a change over.

Question Number. 160. The possible combined output from all the scavenge pumps in a lubrication system will be.
Option A. greater than the pressure pump output.
Option B. less than the pressure pump output.
Option C. the same as the pressure pump output.
Correct Answer is. greater than the pressure pump output.

Question Number. 161. If the knife-edge blade in a kinetic valve is fully in.
Option A. pump pressure is constant.
Option B. servo pressure is being bled off.
Option C. servo pressure is increasing.
Correct Answer is. servo pressure is being bled off.

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14.02. Engine Indication Systems

Question Number. 1. The compensation device on an E.G.T system must be re-calibrated after.
Option A. each time a part of the system is replaced.
Option B. does not need calibration.
Option C. manufacture and overhaul.
Correct Answer is. does not need calibration.
Explanation. The compensation device is an automatic device.

Question Number. 2. When testing an E.G.T system.

Option A. the O.A.T is always taken into consideration.
Option B. the O.A.T is neglected.
Option C. O.A.T is only taken into consideration when over20°C.
Correct Answer is. the O.A.T is always taken into consideration.
Explanation. To test the system the test set has to trimmed for ambient temperature, as the system when in
operation is adjusted for ambient temperature by the compensating resistor. This is clearly stated in the B 737 AMM.

Question Number. 3. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R.) used for?
Option A. To limit the maximum exhaust gas temperature.
Option B. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.
Option C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.
Correct Answer is. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.

Question Number. 4. What happens when bulb type thermometer resistive element goes open circuit?
Option A. Reads less than ambient.
Option B. No reading given.
Option C. Reads more than ambient.
Correct Answer is. Reads more than ambient.

Question Number. 5. On an E.G.T thermocouple system, the hot junction.

Option A. is placed up stream of the combustion chamber.
Option B. is placed in cockpit.
Option C. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber.

Question Number. 6. On an RPM system using a synchronous generator, the pointer is deflected by.
Option A. a potentiometer.
Option B. a Wheatstone bridge.
Option C. an AC servomotor.
Correct Answer is. an AC servomotor.

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Question Number. 7. Torque pressure is usually read from a.

Option A. torque meter.
Option B. direct reading pressure gauge.
Option C. tension gauge.
Correct Answer is. direct reading pressure gauge.

Question Number. 8. The drag cup in a tacho-generator is balanced by.

Option A. calibrated hairspring.
Option B. adjustable counterbalance weights.
Option C. adjustment screw.
Correct Answer is. calibrated hairspring.

Question Number. 9. Fuel flow indication is taken from.

Option A. after the H.P pump.
Option B. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.
Option C. after the LP pump.
Correct Answer is. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.
Explanation. Vane type flowmeters are usually in the LP Supply. Integrated flowmeters in the H.P supply.

Question Number. 10. What power is required for E.G.T gauge indication?
Option A. No power - it is self generating.
Option B. 115V AC.
Option C. 28V DC.
Correct Answer is. No power - it is self generating.

Question Number. 11. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate.

Option A. position and quantity.
Option B. pressure and temperature.
Option C. pressure, temperature, position and quantity.
Correct Answer is. pressure and temperature.

Question Number. 12. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility of a 'hot'
start?
Option A. RPM indicator.
Option B. Turbine inlet temperature.
Option C. Torquemeter.
Correct Answer is. Turbine inlet temperature.

Question Number. 13. oil temperature thermocouples are usually constructed of.
Option A. iron constantan.
Option B. alumel constantan.
Option C. chromel alumel.
Correct Answer is. iron constantan.

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Question Number. 14. The RPM indication of a synchronous AC motor tachometer is governed by the generator.
Option A. current.
Option B. frequency.
Option C. voltage.
Correct Answer is. frequency.

Question Number. 15. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually
what type?.
Option A. Bourdon tube.
Option B. Vane with calibrated spring.
Option C. Diaphragm or bellows.
Correct Answer is. Bourdon tube.

Question Number. 16. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure
gauges, are usually what type?
Option A. Diaphragm or bellows.
Option B. Vane with calibrated spring.
Option C. Bourdon tube.
Correct Answer is. Diaphragm or bellows.

Question Number. 17. In what units are gas turbine engine tachometers calibrated?
Option A. Percent of engine pressure ratio.
Option B. Percent of engine RPM.
Option C. Actual engine RPM.
Correct Answer is. Percent of engine RPM.

Question Number. 18. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located?
Option A. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures.
Option B. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.
Option C. At the aft end of the compressor section.
Correct Answer is. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.

Question Number. 19. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T) indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a relative
indication of the.
Option A. turbine inlet temperature.
Option B. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone.
Option C. exhaust temperature.
Correct Answer is. turbine inlet temperature.

Question Number. 20. Engine pressure ratio is determined by.

Option A. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
Option B. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
Option C. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.
Correct Answer is. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

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Question Number. 21. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates.
Option A. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
Option B. a restricted operating range.
Option C. the maximum operating limit for all normal operations.
Correct Answer is. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.

Question Number. 22. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine?
Option A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.
Option B. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.
Option C. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions.
Correct Answer is. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.

Question Number. 23. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the
Option A. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor.
Option B. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.
Option C. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine.
Correct Answer is. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.

Question Number. 24. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the application of engine anti-icing will
result in.
Option A. an increase in E.P.R.
Option B. noticeable shift in E.P.R.
Option C. a false E.P.R reading.
Correct Answer is. noticeable shift in E.P.R.

Question Number. 25. The indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in.
Option A. voltage.
Option B. frequency.
Option C. current flow.
Correct Answer is. frequency.

Question Number. 26. The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel
flow transmitters is a measure of.
Option A. fuel mass flow.
Option B. fuel volume flow.
Option C. engine burner pressure drop.
Correct Answer is. fuel mass flow.

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Question Number. 27. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (C.F.S) with a totalizer indicator provides
indication of how many of the following?
Option A. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power setting.
Option B. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power setting, Fuel
temperature.
Option C. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel temperature.
Correct Answer is. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power setting.

Question Number. 28. The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and turbine indicating system is driven
by.
Option A. direct coupling to the motor shaft.
Option B. an electrical signal.
Option C. a mechanical gear train.
Correct Answer is. an electrical signal.

Question Number. 29. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data.
Option A. using aircraft electrical system power.
Option B. mechanically.
Option C. by fuel pressure.
Correct Answer is. using aircraft electrical system power.

Question Number. 30. What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?
Option A. The two phase AC generator.
Option B. The three phase AC generator.
Option C. The synchronous motor.
Correct Answer is. The three phase AC generator.

Question Number. 31. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil.
Option A. entering the oil cooler.
Option B. entering the engine.
Option C. in the oil storage tank.
Correct Answer is. entering the oil cooler.

Question Number. 32. Thermocouple leads.

Option A. may be repaired using solderless connectors.
Option B. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
Option C. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator.
Correct Answer is. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.

Question Number. 33. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems?
Option A. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
Option B. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
Option C. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.
Correct Answer is. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.

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Question Number. 34. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the E.G.T gauge
pointer indicate?
Option A. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter.
Option B. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.
Option C. Normal temperature for prevailing condition.
Correct Answer is. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.

Question Number. 35. A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes.
Option A. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.
Option B. a thermocouple type circuit.
Option C. vapour pressure and pressure switches.
Correct Answer is. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.

Question Number. 36. The indication on a thermocouple-type E.G.T indicator is produced by.
Option A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.
Option B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.
Option C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions.
Correct Answer is. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions.

Question Number. 37. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R) used to indicate?
Option A. The power produced by the engine.
Option B. The thrust produced by the engine.
Option C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.
Correct Answer is. The thrust produced by the engine.
Explanation. Normally used on High Bypass Engines.

Question Number. 38. Where is Turbine Outlet Temperature (T.O.T) measured?

Option A. Upstream of the turbine.
Option B. Downstream of the turbine.
Option C. In the combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is. Downstream of the turbine.
Explanation. It can be in the jet pipe or more normally today in between turbine stages or even within NGV's.

Question Number. 39. A thermocouple indicator is basically a.

Option A. milliammeter.
Option B. millivoltmeter.
Option C. milliohmeter.
Correct Answer is. millivoltmeter.
Explanation. A thermocouple generates an E.M.F between hot and cold junction, hence the gauge is a millivoltmeter.

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Question Number. 40. A thermocouple indicator is connected to the.

Option A. cold junction.
Option B. hot junction.
Option C. difference between the hot junction and the cold junction.
Correct Answer is. cold junction.

Question Number. 41. Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by.
Option A. N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio.
Option B. N1 RPM or N3 RPM.
Option C. N1 RPM or E.P.R.
Correct Answer is. N1 RPM or E.P.R.
Explanation. RR and P&W tend to use E.P.R. GE use N1.

Question Number. 42. How is the N1 and N2 measured on a triple spool engine?
Option A. Tachometer connected to the internal gearbox.
Option B. Tachometer connected to the external gearbox.
Option C. Pulse type speed probes.
Correct Answer is. Pulse type speed probes.

Question Number. 43. Modern oil pressure servo transmitters sense.

Option A. absolute pressure.
Option B. H.P oil pressure.
Option C. differential pressure.
Correct Answer is. differential pressure.

Question Number. 44. E.G.T thermocouples are usually made of.

Option A. nickel and platinum
Option B. chromel and platinum.
Option C. chromel and alumel.
Correct Answer is. chromel and alumel.

Question Number. 45. Thrust in a high bypass engine is indicated by measuring.

Option A. N3 RPM.
Option B. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in flight.
Option C. fuel flow.
Correct Answer is. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in flight.
Explanation. The only indication of power in flight is E.P.R or, for a high bypass engine, N1 RPM.

Question Number. 46. What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work?
Option A. Alternating current.
Option B. Direct current.
Option C. Neither of the above.
Correct Answer is. Neither of the above.

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Question Number. 47. In a thermocouple temperature sensing system, what is the purpose of the compensating resistor?
Option A. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the hot junction.
Option B. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.
Option C. To standardise the reading for different engine types.
Correct Answer is. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.

Question Number. 48. In a tachometer generator.

Option A. the frequency output is inversely proportional to engine speed.
Option B. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.
Option C. the frequency output is constant.
Correct Answer is. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.

Question Number. 49. Vibration pick-ups are located.

Option A. on both fan and turbine cases.
Option B. on the fan/compressor case.
Option C. on the turbine case.
Correct Answer is. on both fan and turbine cases.
Explanation. Can be on one or both, depending upon the engine.

Question Number. 50. In a capacitive type fuel quantity indicating system the tank units are connected in.
Option A. series.
Option B. parallel.
Option C. series/parallel.
Correct Answer is. parallel.

Question Number. 51. Torque measurement in a gas turbine engine is.

Option A. not always reliable.
Option B. highly reliable.
Option C. required only when the turbine drives a propeller.
Correct Answer is. required only when the turbine drives a propeller.

Question Number. 52. Vibration signals, when picked up,

Option A. go straight to indicator.
Option B. go through half wave rectifier to indicator.
Option C. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted frequencies.
Correct Answer is. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted frequencies.
Explanation. The filters in the Vibro-meter use rotor speed to identify vibration frequencies.

Question Number. 53. E.G.T is displayed in.

Option A. Kelvin.
Option B. degrees centigrade.
Option C. degrees Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer is. degrees centigrade.
Explanation. E.G.T is always measured in centigrade.

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Question Number. 54. N2 is taken from.

Option A. a speed transducer on the fan rear frame.
Option B. a tachometer attached on the N1 gearbox.
Option C. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox.
Correct Answer is. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox.
Explanation. The N2 gearbox is driven by the N2 compressor. A single winding of an alternator can be used for the
speed signal as an alternative to a.

Question Number. 55. Engine vibration is monitored using.

Option A. electromechanical devices.
Option B. Fenwall type sensors.
Option C. piezoelectric accelerometer.
Correct Answer is. piezoelectric accelerometer.
Explanation. Piezoelectric devices convert force (from the vibration) to a milli-volt output.

Question Number. 56. Integrating fuel flow gives.

Option A. average fuel flow.
Option B. total fuel consumed.
Option C. fuel flow and acceleration.
Correct Answer is. total fuel consumed.
Explanation. An Integrator is incorporated in a fuel flow-meter to give a total fuel used figure.

Question Number. 57. The gauge on a bulb type temperature indicator shows zero. This could be caused by.
Option A. open circuit in the wiring.
Option B. temperature bulb going open circuit.
Option C. two cables shorting together by the sensor.
Correct Answer is. two cables shorting together by the sensor.
Explanation. Pallett Instruments and Integrated systems Page 318 refers. A short will remove all power from both
windings and the pointer will go tominimum scale.

Question Number. 58. In a thermocouple system, the size of the E.M.F that is produced is a result of.
Option A. the difference between the hot and cold junction.
Option B. the cold junction only.
Option C. the hot junction only.
Correct Answer is. the difference between the hot and cold junction.
Explanation. The E.M.F is a result of the difference between the 2 junctions.

Question Number. 59. A ballast resistor is fitted.

Option A. in parallel, to give identical readings for all engines.
Option B. in series, to give identical resistance values for all engines.
Option C. in series, to give identical resistance values to all airframes.
Correct Answer is. in series, to give identical resistance values to all airframes.

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14.03. Starting and Ignition Systems

Question Number. 1. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.

Option A. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Option B. allows sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
Option C. protects the unit from excessive voltages.
Correct Answer is. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.

Question Number. 2. In the H.E.I.U. the choke.

Option A. prolongs the life of the plug.
Option B. protects the unit from excessive high voltages.
Option C. prolongs the discharge.
Correct Answer is. prolongs the discharge.

Question Number. 3. In an electrical starting system, the slow start resistor is short circuited by the.
Option A. centrifugal Switch.
Option B. time switch.
Option C. overspeed switch.
Correct Answer is. centrifugal Switch.

Question Number. 4. The advantage of an air starter system is.

Option A. it provides a more rapid start.
Option B. it is light, simple and economical.
Option C. there is no risk of engine fire during starting.
Correct Answer is. it is light, simple and economical.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 'Air starters weigh about one-fifth the wieght of a
comparable electric starter. This gives air turbine starters a high power-to-weight ratio. because of this, pneumatic starters
are used almost exclusively on commercial jet aircraft.

Question Number. 5. An advantage of a gas turbine starter is.

Option A. it provide high power for low weight.
Option B. it does not require external connections.
Option C. it uses a low volatile fuel.
Correct Answer is. it provide high power for low weight.

Question Number. 6. If the engine fails to light-up, the starter cycle is canceled by.
Option A. a centrifugal switch.
Option B. a low pressure relay.
Option C. a time switch.
Correct Answer is. a time switch.

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Question Number. 7. For starting the engine, the H.P cock should be initially.
Option A. in a position which depends on the fuel system.
Option B. open.
Option C. closed.
Correct Answer is. closed.

Question Number. 8. On light up, the gas temperature will.

Option A. rise slowly.
Option B. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.
Option C. rise rapidly.
Correct Answer is. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.

Question Number. 9. Self sustaining RPM means that.

Option A. The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds.
Option B. There is sufficient power for ground maneuvering.
Option C. The engine will run independently of external help.
Correct Answer is. The engine will run independently of external help.

Question Number. 10. A 'hot start' with excessive temperatures may be caused by.
Option A. wrong grade of fuel.
Option B. throttle partly open.
Option C. high electrical power supply.
Correct Answer is. throttle partly open.

Question Number. 11. A dry motoring cycle would be required to.

Option A. clear the engine after a wet start.
Option B. check engine run down time.
Option C. check the operation of the igniters.
Correct Answer is. clear the engine after a wet start.

Question Number. 12. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in air starter motors?
Option A. Reaction.
Option B. Impulse.
Option C. Impulse-reaction.
Correct Answer is. Impulse.

Question Number. 13. Ignitor plugs are cleaned by.

Option A. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.
Option B. light sand blasting.
Option C. steel wool.
Correct Answer is. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.

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Question Number. 14. An H.E.I.U works by.

Option A. a discharging capacitor.
Option B. ac busbar.
Option C. a contact breaker.
Correct Answer is. a discharging capacitor.

Question Number. 15. When is ignition used?

Option A. For relight and start up.
Option B. For continuous relight.
Option C. At high altitudes.
Correct Answer is. For relight and start up.

Question Number. 16. An ignitor plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a.
Option A. glow' plug.
Option B. sparking plug.
Option C. surface discharge plug.
Correct Answer is. surface discharge plug.

Question Number. 17. The spark in the High Energy igniter is supplied by.
Option A. a capacitor.
Option B. a contact circuit breaker.
Option C. the AC busbar.
Correct Answer is. a capacitor.

Question Number. 18. Self sustaining speed is.

Option A. V1 speed.
Option B. the RPM at which the engine continues without external assistance.
Option C. take off velocity.
Correct Answer is. the RPM at which the engine continues without external assistance.
Explanation. After the starter has cut out and the RPM and TGT have stabilised.

Question Number. 19. During normal running conditions.

Option A. combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
Option B. combustion is self supporting
Option C. combustion is continuously supported by ignition.
Correct Answer is. combustion is self supporting

Question Number. 20. High energy ignition is required because of the.

Option A. high flash point of the fuel.
Option B. absorbed moisture content.
Option C. low flash point of the fuel.
Correct Answer is. high flash point of the fuel.

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Question Number. 21. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.

Option A. allow sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
Option B. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Option C. protect the unit from excessive voltages.
Correct Answer is. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.

Question Number. 22. The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is.

Option A. 4 discharges per revolution.
Option B. 60 - 100 per second.
Option C. 60 - 100 per minute.
Correct Answer is. 60 - 100 per minute.

Question Number. 23. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?
Option A. Because the applied voltage is much greater.
Option B. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high temperatures.
Option C. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures.
Correct Answer is. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures.

Question Number. 24. The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is.
Option A. low tension.
Option B. capacitor discharge.
Option C. high resistance.
Correct Answer is. capacitor discharge.

Question Number. 25. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used to prevent the starter from
reaching burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule is the.
Option A. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
Option B. drive shaft shear point.
Option C. spring coupling release.
Correct Answer is. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.

Question Number. 26. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used if the clutch does not release
from the engine drive at the proper time during start is the.
Option A. spring coupling release.
Option B. drive shaft shear point.
Option C. flyweight cutout switch.
Correct Answer is. flyweight cutout switch.

Question Number. 27. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is normally prevented from causing starter
overspeed during engine start by.
Option A. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source.
Option B. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed speed.
Option C. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.
Correct Answer is. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.

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Question Number. 28. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that reduction gear distress or damage may be
detected by.
Option A. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
Option B. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly during engine start.
Option C. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive shaft.
Correct Answer is. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.

Question Number. 29. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians usually includes checking the.
Option A. stator and rotor blades for FOD.
Option B. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.
Option C. rotor alignment.
Correct Answer is. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.

Question Number. 30. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what types of airflow impingement systems?
Option A. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.
Option B. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
Option C. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-flow turbines.
Correct Answer is. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.

Question Number. 31. A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a pneumatic starter incorporating a sprag clutch
ratchet assembly is an indication of.
Option A. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
Option B. one or more broken pawl springs.
Option C. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear.
Correct Answer is. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear.

Question Number. 32. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) starters over comparable electric starters for
turbine engines is.
Option A. high power-to-weight ratio.
Option B. reduction gearing not required.
Option C. a decreased fire hazard.
Correct Answer is. high power-to-weight ratio.

Question Number. 33. The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-generator system is to.
Option A. keep current flow to the starter-generator under the circuit capacity maximum.
Option B. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.
Option C. provide a backup for the starter relay.
Correct Answer is. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.

Question Number. 34. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine differ from that of a reciprocating engine?
Option A. Magneto to engine timing is not critical.
Option B. One igniter plug is used in each combustion chamber.
Option C. A high energy spark is required for ignition.
Correct Answer is. A high energy spark is required for ignition.

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Question Number. 35. In a gas turbine engine D.C capacitor discharge ignition system, where are the high voltage pulses
formed?
Option A. At the rectifier.
Option B. At the triggering transformer.
Option C. At the breaker.
Correct Answer is. At the triggering transformer.

Question Number. 36. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high intensity spark discharges and yet they
have a long service life because they.
Option A. operate at much lower temperatures.
Option B. are not placed directly into the combustion chamber.
Option C. do not require continuous operation.
Correct Answer is. do not require continuous operation.

Question Number. 37. Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged hermetically sealed turbine engine igniter
transformer units because.
Option A. some contain toxic chemicals.
Option B. some contain radioactive material.
Option C. compounds in the unit may become a fire or explosion hazard when exposed to the air.
Correct Answer is. some contain radioactive material.

Question Number. 38. Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to eliminate the possibility of the
technician receiving a lethal shock, the ignition switch is turned off and.
Option A. disconnected from the power supply circuit.
Option B. the transformer exciter input lead is disconnected and the center electrode grounded to the engine after
disconnecting the igniter lead from the plug and waiting the prescribed time.
Option C. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode grounded to the engine after
disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time.
Correct Answer is. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode grounded to the engine after
disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time.

Question Number. 39. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?
Option A. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
Option B. A rise in oil pressure.
Option C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
Correct Answer is. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.

Question Number. 40. H.E.I.U ignitor plugs receive their electrical supply from.
Option A. discharge inductor.
Option B. starter system electrical circuit.
Option C. discharge capacitor.
Correct Answer is. discharge capacitor.

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Question Number. 41. An H.E.I.U is rated in.

Option A. Joules.
Option B. Watts.
Option C. Amps.
Correct Answer is. Joules.

Question Number. 42. A glow plug operates.

Option A. manually.
Option B. by heat action.
Option C. electrically.
Correct Answer is. by heat action.

Question Number. 43. The resistor in a D.C. starter motor.

Option A. prevents over speed.
Option B. prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.
Option C. used when D.C. motor fails.
Correct Answer is. prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.

Question Number. 44. Where does the high voltage type turbine ignition receive its voltage pulse from?
Option A. Primary windings.
Option B. Rectifier.
Option C. Trigger transformer.
Correct Answer is. Primary windings.
Explanation. this uses a transformer to generate the high voltage at the discharge gap.

Question Number. 45. On a gas turbine engine DC starting circuit, if there is an open circuit on the contact of the over
speed relay.
Option A. starter motor will stop only when starter switch selected off.
Option B. starter motor will continue to run for 30 sec and then stop.
Option C. no power supply is connected to the starter motor.
Correct Answer is. no power supply is connected to the starter motor.
Explanation. The main relay cannot close if the overspeed relay is open.

Question Number. 46. The field of the D.C. starter motor used on gas turbine engine is
Option A. series only.
Option B. shunt or compound.
Option C. series or compound.
Correct Answer is. series or compound.

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Question Number. 47. When 'blow out' is selected on the Gas Turbine Engine starting circuit.
Option A. the starter motor is stopped when starter switch selected off or when the timer switch cuts out.
Option B. the over-speed relay will de-energise the starter circuit.
Option C. ignition is continuously on.
Correct Answer is. the starter motor is stopped when starter switch selected off or when the timer switch cuts out.
Explanation. The blow out circuit is used to blow out any jet pipe fire. In this mode there is no ignition or fuel hence the
starter cannot overspeed.

Question Number. 48. After an unsuccessful start of an engine.

Option A. the engine has to be left for some time before another start.
Option B. unburnt fuel can be drained from fuel drainage lines.
Option C. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock closed.
Correct Answer is. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock closed.
Explanation. On normal shutdowns combustors and fuel manifolds are drained through the drain manifold. After an
unsuccessful start there will be fuel throughout the hot section. Hence a dry run is needed to purge the engine.

Question Number. 49. A glow plug may be used in place of a spark plug on.
Option A. low temperature engines.
Option B. large engines.
Option C. small engines.
Correct Answer is. small engines.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 11-9 refers to the PW PT6 as an example of a smaller
engine.

Question Number. 50. When an engine being started by an air starter reaches self sustaining speed.
Option A. the motor is disconnected by the flyweight cut out switch.
Option B. the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight cut-out switch in the air starter.
Option C. the motor is disconnected by the pilot.
Correct Answer is. the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight cut-out switch in the air starter.

Question Number. 51. When reconnecting a H.E.I.U, which cable must be reconnected first?
Option A. It makes no difference.
Option B. L.T before H.T.
Option C. H.T before L.T.
Correct Answer is. H.T before L.T.
Explanation. This is the reverse of disconnecting, when L.T is isolated and then disconnected first.

Question Number. 52. An aircraft flying through heavy rain may use, as a precaution.
Option A. airframe deicing.
Option B. engine intake deicing.
Option C. continuous ignition.
Correct Answer is. continuous ignition.
Explanation. Continuous ignition is used in case of flame out caused by the inclement weather.

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Question Number. 53. The starter light is on during a start cycle (low voltage electrical starter).
Option A. Indicates electrical power is flowing to the starter.
Option B. If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is required.
Option C. This is normal for 30 seconds, take no action.
Correct Answer is. If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is required.
Explanation. See the Rolls Royce Jet engine low voltage starter system on page 123. The indicator light indicates power
to the igniter. The Full current time switch cuts out the circuit after a period of time.

Question Number. 54. A D.C starter motor disconnects due to.

Option A. current decreasing switching off an overspeed relay.
Option B. current increasing switching off an overspeed relay.
Option C. a centrifugal switch that acts like an overspeed relay.
Correct Answer is. current decreasing switching off an overspeed relay.
Explanation. Same starter circuit reference as above. As the starter accelerates drawn current reduces and causes the
overspeed relay to drop out.

Question Number. 55. What is the purpose of the current limiting resistor in a starter circuit?
Option A. To prevent the starter from over speeding in the final phase of starting.
Option B. To provide overall control of the the speed of the starter.
Option C. To prevent an initial current surge.
Correct Answer is. To prevent an initial current surge.
Explanation. The starter motor is protected from excessive current until the timer shorts out the resistor.

Question Number. 56. On a low energy dual ignition system (<3 joules), if a relight is necessary.
Option A. it occurs automatically.
Option B. the pilot selects both ignitors.
Option C. the pilot selects one of the two ignitors.
Correct Answer is. the pilot selects both ignitors.
Explanation. Normal low/high systems have a choice of low or high energy ignition with high being used for relight.

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TTS Questions

1-The jet engine works on the principle of:

a) Forcing the flow against the atmosphere.
b) Newton’s 2nd law of motion.
c) Accelerating a gas through a turbine.
d) Action and reaction.
Correct Answer is d) Action and reaction.

2- Where is the greatest thrust generated in A.G.T engine:

a) In the propelling nozzle.
b) In the compressor.
c) Just after the H.P. turbine.
d) Where the exhaust gas velocity strikes the atmosphere.
Correct Answer is a) In the propelling nozzle.

3- The gas flow velocity in the turbine engine is maximum at the:

a) Intake, due to ram effect.
b) Combustion chamber.
c) H.P. compressor due to their convergent shape.
d) Propelling nozzle.
Correct Answer is d) Propelling nozzle.

4- THRUST:
a) Is a propulsive force.
b) Is a force which pushes against the engine mounts.
c) Is measured in pound.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

5- The basic components of a gas turbine engine are:

a) Compressor, combustion chamber, turbine.
b) Compressor, rotors and stators and combustion chamber.
c) Centrifugal compressor, bleed valves, combustion chamber and turbine section.
d) Air intake, twin spool compressor, turbine and combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is a) Compressor, combustion chamber, turbine.

6- The turbo prop engine:

a) Requires only one turbine.
b) Converts all the gas kinetic energy to mechanical energy.
c) Has residual thrust.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is c) Has residual thrust.

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7- The front fan:

a) Is driven by the H.P compressor.
b) Accelerates a cold stream of air and produces thrust.
c) Is fitted to all turbo – prop engines.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is b) Accelerates a cold stream of air and produces thrust.

8- The specific fuel consumption:

a) Is the amount of fuel consumption.
b) Is pounds of fuel per hour per pound of net thrust.
c) Does not change with thermal and propulsive efficiencies.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is b) Is pounds of fuel per hour per pound of net thrust.

9- What are the advantages of the centrifugal compressor?

a) It is more robust.
b) It can give more pressure ratio than the axial flow type.
c) Engine has lower S.F.C, with this type of compressor.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is a) It is more robust.

10- Why is it necessary to compress the air:

a) To supply more mass of air for combustion.
b) To gain a reaction thrust in the compressor.
c) To increase the airflow velocity through the compressor.
b) To drive the compressor.
Correct Answer is a) To supply more mass of air for combustion.

11- The function of the diffuser assembly is:

a) To direct air from the compressor to the combustion chambers.
b) To change air pressure and velocity as required for best combustion.
c) Serves to carry the air from the compressor to the combustion
chambers.
d) All of the above.
Correct Answer is d) All of the above.

12- Compressor stall may be caused by:

a) A change in the “pressure – velocity – rpm relationship“.
b) A rise in fuel flow.
c) Turbulence of the airflow.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

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13- The purpose of the combustion chamber is to:

a) Expand the air passing through the engine by burning fuel in
the air stream.
b) Transfer the heat inside the engine.
c) Warm up the engine.
d) None of the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is a) Expand the air passing through the engine by burning fuel in
the air stream.

14- The simplex burner:

a) Gives good atomization at low fuel pressure.
b) Is suitable for high power engine.
c) Does not require a pressurizing valve system.
d) Has a filter to prevent carbon build – up on the nozzle.
Correct Answer is a) Gives good atomization at low fuel pressure.

15- The duplex nozzle:

a) Has two concentric nozzles in one body.
b) Does not require a filter.
c) Does not need a pressurizing valve.
d) Is not efficient at low fuel flows.
Correct Answer is a) Has two concentric nozzles in one body.

16- The purpose of the airflow across the fuel nozzle is to:
a) Cool the burner.
b) Atomize the fuel.
c) Prevent carbon built – up on the nuzzle.
d) Control the flame.
Correct Answer is c) Prevent carbon built – up on the nuzzle.

17- How much of the compressor air enters the combustion section:
a) All 25% for burning and 75%dilution.
b) 25% and the rest by- passes the combustion section.
c) 50% to form a vortex at the fuel nozzle for flame stability.
d) 60%
Correct Answer is a) All 25% for burning and 75% dilution.

18- The turbine system consists of:

a) Rotors and stators.
b) NGVs, turbine blades and the turbine disc.
c) The turbine disc, turbine shaft and a self aligning coupling.
d) Divergent NGVs and convergent turbine blades.
Correct Answer is b) NGVs, turbine blades and the turbine disc.

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19- High TGT can cause:

a) Turbine blade failure.
b) Creep.
c) Cracking and burning of the NGVs.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

20- What is creep of the turbine blades:

a) Loss of elasticity.
b) Elongation of the blade.
c) Growth of the blasé due to centrifugal and thermal stresses.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

21- In a gas turbine engine the purpose of a turbine is to:

a) Convert heat energy into mechanical work.
b) Blow out the exhaust gases.
c) Drive the compressor and accessories.
d) A and c.
Correct Answer is d) A and c.

22- Turbine blades:

a) Are always hollow.
b) May have cooling air bleed holes at the trailing edge.
c) Are twisted from root to tip and have a stagger angle.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

23- The number of turbine stages depend on:

a) The power required from the gas flow.
b) The rotational speed and turbine diameter.
c) Whether it is a single or two shaft system.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

24- What is the purpose of water injection?

a) To increase the mass flow through the engine.
b) To boost the engine power.
c) To restore the engine thrust.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

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25- Why is water/ methanol used?

a) The water increases the mass flow.
b) The methanol burns as a fuel.
c) Methanol will reduce the freezing point.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

26- The exhaust system:

a) Is designed to produce the correct gas velocity and pressure.
b) Has a cone located at the rear of the LP turbine.
c) Is isolated against the hot transfer.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

27- If the exhaust nozzle is chocked:

a) The gas exit velocity is at the speed of sound.
b) The velocity can not increase unless the gas tem. Is increased.
c) The gas static pressure at the exit will increase.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is a) The gas exit velocity is at the speed of sound.

28- The exhaust cone is located:

a) Directly behind the turbine wheel.
b) Before the compressor.
c) Directly behind the compressor disk.
d) Before the turbine.
Correct Answer is a) Directly behind the turbine wheel.

29- Type of reverse thrust are used?

a) Clamshell deflector doors.
b) Retractable ejector bucket doors.
c) Front fan blocker doors and gas spoiler doors.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

30- The action of a thrust reverser is:

a) To provide a braking action after the A/C has landed.
b) To block gas flow to the rear.
c) To direct gas flow forward.
d) All the above.
Correct Answer is d) All the above.

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31- What safety features are incorporated in the reversers?

a) Mechanical locks to keep the doors in the last selected position.
b) Reverse selection can only be made at idle.
c) Indicator lights in the C/pit.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

32- On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by?

a) HP turbine.
b) LP turbine
c) IP turbine.
Correct Answer is b) LP turbine

33- What is an engine stage?

a) One rotor plus one stator.
b) One IGV and one rotor.
c) One compressor rotor and one nozzle guide vane.
Correct Answer is a) One rotor plus one stator.

34- A twin spool engine has:

a) One turbine on one shaft.
b) Two turbines on one shaft.
c)Two turbines on two shafts.
Correct Answer is c)Two turbines on two shafts.

35- A free turbine aircraft engine is most likely to be used on a :

a) High by pass engine .
b) A direct coupled engine .
c) A helicopter engine .
Correct Answer is c) A helicopter engine .

36- Pure jet engines use:

a) Stagnation thermocouples.
b) Rapid response
c) Variable resistance thermocouples.
Correct Answer is a) Stagnation thermocouples.

37- Thrust is generated in a turboprop system by :

a) Moving a small mass of air quickly.
b) Moving a large mass of air quickly.
c) Moving a larger mass of air slowly.
Correct Answer is c) Moving a larger mass of air slowly.

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38- The majority of power in a free turbine engine is used to:

a) Drive the gas generator.
b) Drive the free turbine.
c) Expel gases through the exhaust.
Correct Answer is b) Drive the free turbine.

39- On a twin spool engine, the HP compressor is driven by:

a) Ram air over the compressor.
b) Early stages of the turbine.
c) Later stages of the turbine.
Correct Answer is b) Early stages of the turbine.

40- The purpose of a high by pass ducted fan engine is to:

a) Improve efficiency.
b) Improve thrust.
c) Reduce size.
Correct Answer is a) Improve efficiency.

41- The high by pass duct:

a) Drives a cabin air compressor.
b) Provides engine cooling.
C) Improves propulsive efficiency.
Correct Answer is C) Improves propulsive efficiency.

42- In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the:

a) Accessory gear box.
b) Turbine.
c) Air passing over the compressor.
Correct Answer is b) Turbine.

43- Gas turbines work on the:

a) Otto cycle.
b) Brayton cycle.
c) Diesel cycle.
Correct Answer is b) Brayton cycle.

44- Propelling nozzle provide:

a) Pressure thrust.
b) Velocity thrust.
c) Pressure and velocity thrust.
Correct Answer is c) Pressure and velocity thrust.

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45- How are the combustion chambers cooled?

a) By I.P compressor air.
b) By H.P compressor air.
c) By fan pressure air.
Correct Answer is b) By H.P compressor air.

46- An aircraft flying at 500 rnph would typically use:

a) Turbojet
b) Turbofan
c) Turboprop
Correct Answer is a) Turbojet

47- The inlet of a turbo fan is:

a) Divergent
b) Convergent
c) convergent – divergent
Correct Answer is a) Divergent

48- What is the pressure increase over one stage of a centrifugal

compressor?
a) 5:1
b) 1.2:1
c) 8:1
Correct Answer is a) 5:1

49- The bleed valve on an engine at start up is:

a) Open
b) Closed
c) modulating
Correct Answer is a) Open

50- One stage of a turbine is:

a) n.g.v then turbine blade.
b) turbine blade then n.g.v.
c) i.g.v then turbine blade.
Correct Answer is a) n.g.v then turbine blade.

51- How is fuel flow varied in a variable displacement pressure type pump?
a) Alter the cam plate angle.
b) Remote servo pressure.
c) Direct cable to cam plate.
Correct Answer is a) Alter the cam plate angle.

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52- A compressor shaft rotates on:

a) Sintered bearings.
b) Ball and roller bearings.
c) Plain bearings.
Correct Answer is b) Ball and roller bearings.

53- A gas turbine’s propulsion force is produced by:

a) Reaction of the rearward moving gasses.
b) Impingement of the gasses on the surrounding air.
c) Induced airflow into the engine.
Correct Answer is a) Reaction of the rearward moving gasses.

54- In a single spool gas turbine engine the compressor rev/ min is:
a) More than the turbine speed.
b) Less than the turbine speed.
c) Equal to the turbine speed.
Correct Answer is c) Equal to the turbine speed.

55- In a twin spool engine:

a) The HP turbine drives both LP and HP compressors.
b) The Lp turbine drives the LP compressor and the HP turbine drives the
HP compressor.
c) The HP turbine drives the LP compressor and the LP turbine drives the
HP compressor.
Correct Answer is b) The Lp turbine drives the LP compressor and the HP turbine drives the
HP compressor.

56- The cycle of a gas turbine engine is:

a) Completed in one revolution of engine.
b) Completed in two revolution of the engine.
c) Continuous.
Correct Answer is c) Continuous.

57- Engines having two independent moving systems are:

a) Compound engines.
b) Twin spool engines.
c) Complex engines
Correct Answer is b) Twin spool engines.

58- Compression ratio of compressor of gas turbine engine is:

a) Outlet pressure to inlet pressure.
b) Measured across all rotor stages of compressor.
c) Mass of airflow to combustion.
Correct Answer is a) Outlet pressure to inlet pressure.

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59- The basic engine fuel system consists of:

a) The booster pump, engine driven pump LP filter and FCU.
b) The EDP, FCU and burners.
c) The spill valve back pressure valve and BPC.
d) The fuel flow meter, LP filter and EDP.
Correct Answer is b) The EDP, FCU and burners.

60- Which control systems may be used in A.F.C.U?

a) Mechanical.
b) Electronic.
c) Hydro mechanical.
d) All the above.
Correct Answer is d) All the above.

61- How is the fuel heated?

a) By the oil cooler.
b) By compressor air.
c) By the fuel temperature transmitter.
d) All of the above are correct.
Correct Answer is a) By the oil cooler.

62- What is the purpose of the fuel flowmeter?

a) To control L.P fuel flow.
b) To signal the fuel flow to the flow meter in the cockpit.
c) To measure L.P fuel pressure.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is b) To signal the fuel flow to the flow meter in the cockpit.

63- How may the fuel filter be de –iced?

a) By heating the fuel electrically.
b) Using compressor outlet air as a source of heat.
c) By heating the filter itself electrically.
d) Only “a” and “b” are correct.
Correct Answer is b) Using compressor outlet air as a source of heat.

64- Which statement is correct?

a) The fuel may be heated by electric resistors.
b) A fuel temp transmitter illuminates an ice warning.
c) If a fuel filter ices up de- icing will be automatic.
d) The fuel pressure differential switch indicates L.P press.
Correct Answer is b) A fuel temp transmitter illuminates an ice warning.

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65- The engine fuel system consist of:

a) Fuel tank, fuel pump, booster pump connecting lines and emergency system.
b) Fuel tank, fuel pump, selector valve heater and flow meters.
c) Fuel control units, engine driven fuel pumps, flow dividers, pressurizing
valves, drain valves and fuel nozzles.
d) All the above.
Correct Answer is c) Fuel control units, engine driven fuel pumps, flow dividers, pressurizing
valves, drain valves and fuel nozzles.

66- Gas turbine fuels:

a) Are synthetic.
b) Have a mineral base.
c) Are gasoline’s
d) Must have high volatility for easy starting.
Correct Answer is d) Must have high volatility for easy starting.

67- The fuel flow transmitter:

a) Is located in the wing.
b) Is part of the engine fuel system.
c) Is driven by the engine.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is b) Is part of the engine fuel system.

68- One advantage of the fuel heater is :

a) Minimum drag design.
b) L.P filter anti – icing.
c) Compressor air cooling with no drop in air pressure .
d) Automatic switch on if the aircraft climbs through 30.000 feet .
Correct Answer is b) L.P filter anti – icing.

69- What is the purpose of the pressurizing valve in a duplex burner :

a) To ensure adequate primary fuel pressure.
b) To admit fuel to the main burner when the fuel pressure is high.
c) To control the compressor air pressure across the burner nozzles.
d) To shut off fuel flow during engine shut down .
Correct Answer is b) To admit fuel to the main burner when the fuel pressure is high.

70- What type of oil is used in the jet engine :

a) Mineral base .
b) Vegetable base .
c) Castor base
d) synthetic
Correct Answer is d) synthetic

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71- The oil should have:

a) High volatility.
b) Low volatility.
c) High viscosity .
d) High pour point .
Correct Answer is b) Low volatility.

72- Why does the filter and oil cooler have a by – pass valve :
a) To control the oil pressure.
b) To prevent blockage.
c) To prevent oil starvation due to blockage or high viscosity.
d) To return the oil to the tank.
Correct Answer is c) To prevent oil starvation due to blockage or high viscosity.

73- Why are there more scavenge pumps than pressure pumps:
a) To increase the flow of oil through the bearings.
b) For standby in case one pump fails.
c) To lubricate the gears in the gear case.
d) To suck large volume of oil from bearings .
Correct Answer is d) To suck large volume of oil from bearings .

74- The fuel cooled oil cooler:

a) Is used on turbo – jets.
b) Is more efficient than air cooled – oil cooler.
c) Heats the fuel.
d) All the answers are correct.
Correct Answer is d) All the answers are correct.

75- What is the function of a sight glass in an oil tank :

a) To check for foaming.
b) To check the oil level.
c) To check the oil color and condition.
d) All the answers are correct .
Correct Answer is b) To check the oil level.

76- What components may be on the oil supply line to the bearings :
a) Oil cooler ad pressure filter.
b) Relief valve and thread type filters .
c) Oil jets .
d) All the answers together are correct .
Correct Answer is d) All the answers together are correct .

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77- From where is manifold pressure taken on a supercharged engine?

a) Between the carburetor and the supercharger.
b) Between the supercharger and the throttle.
c) Between the carburetor and the induction ports.
Correct Answer is c) Between the carburetor and the induction ports.

78- The air data input t the FADEC fails. the result will be :
a) A lack of flight data.
b) Uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensors is utilized.
c) The FADEDC reverts to the failsafe mode .
Correct Answer is c) The FADEDC reverts to the failsafe mode .

79- Torque measurement is taken from the:

a) Free turbine shaft.
b) Reduction gearbox.
c) Prop shaft .
Correct Answer is b) Reduction gearbox.

80- A FADEC system consists of:

a) HMU, sensors and an EEC.
b) HMU, ADC and sensors.
c) EEC, ADC and sensors.
Correct Answer is a) HMU, sensors and an EEC.

81- What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work ?

a) Direct current
b) Alternating current
c) Neither of the above
Correct Answer is c) Neither of the above

82- In a 24 thermocouple system, one thermocouple goes open circuit , what

error is detected at the indicator ?
a) None
b) No indication
c) Gauge freezes at lat known reading
Correct Answer is a) None

83- In a thermocouple temperature sensing system , what is the purpose of

the compensating resistor ?
a) To standardize the reading for different engine types.
b) To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.
c) To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the hot junction .
Correct Answer is b) To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.

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84- In a dive, with the throttles fixed, the EPR will:

a) Increase
b) decrease
c) not change .
Correct Answer is c) not change .

85- How is the N1 and N2 measured on a triple spool engine ?

a) Pulse type speed probes.
b) Tachometer connected to the external gearbox.
c) Tachometer connected to the internal gearbox .
Correct Answer is a) Pulse type speed probes.

86- Propeller speed is measured from :

a) A slip ring pulse probe.
b) A tachometer on the LP turbine shaft .
c) A pulse probe at the engine side of the reduction gear .
Correct Answer is a) A slip ring pulse probe.

87- Propeller torque is analogous to :

a) Engine RPM
b) Shaft horsepower
c) Propeller RPM
Correct Answer is b) Shaft horsepower

88- How is power indicated on a fixed pitch propeller ?

a) RPM gauge
b) torque gauge
c) Horsepower gauge
Correct Answer is a) RPM gauge

89- What are the units of manifold pressure on a normally aspirated engine ?
a) PSI
b) inches of water
c) inches of mercury
Correct Answer is c) inches of mercury

90- In a FADEC what is the result of channel a failing to receive information

from a sensor ?
a) Channel B will assume control .
b) Channel a will take the information from channel B .
c) Channel a will take the information from the backup sensor .
Correct Answer is b) Channel a will take the information from channel B .

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91- A synchro pressure measuring system requires :

a) Alternating current
b) Direct current
c) Either ac or dc
Correct Answer is a) Alternating current

92- A synchro pressure measuring system works on the principle of changes

in pressure related to changes in :
a) Frequency
b) voltage
c) flux
Correct Answer is c) flux

93- Modern oil pressure servo transmitters sense :

a) Differential pressure
b) Absolute pressure
c) HP oil pressure
Correct Answer is a) Differential pressure

94- EGT thermocouples are usually made of :

a) Nickel and platinum
b) Chromel and platinum
c) Chromel and alumel
Correct Answer is c) Chromel and alumel

95- Power is adjusted in a variable pitch turboprop aircraft by :

a) Increasing RPM
b) Increasing fuel flow
c) Increasing pitch
Correct Answer is b) Increasing fuel flow

96- Thrust in a high by pass engine is measured by measuring :

a) N3 RPM
b) Fuel flow
c) Neither of the above , thrust is not indicated in flight .
Correct Answer is c) Neither of the above , thrust is not indicated in flight .

97- EPR is a ratio of :

a) P1 to p4
b) P7 to P2
c) P1 to P6
Correct Answer is b) P7 to P2

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98- The total power in a turboprop engine is the :

a) SHP
b) ESHP
c) BHP
Correct Answer is b) ESHP

99- To measure oil temperature, which of the following would most likely be
used?
a) Resistance temperature measurement.
b) Thermocouple measurement.
c) Optical pyrometer .
Correct Answer is a) Resistance temperature measurement.

100- The principle of operation of a DC ratio meter is :

a) One coil moving in a uniform magnetic field .
b) Two coils moving in a uniform magnetic field .
c) Two coils moving in a non- uniform magnetic field .
Correct Answer is c) Two coils moving in a non- uniform magnetic field .

101- A thermocouple indicator is basically a :

a) Mill voltmeter
b) milliohmeter
c) milliameter
Correct Answer is a) Mill voltmeter

102- If a FADEC loses its ADC input, in the short term it will:
a) Go into soft redundancy.
b) Go into redundancy.
c) Go to limit protection mode.
Correct Answer is a) Go into soft redundancy.

103- With an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, what indication has the pilot
got of the output power ?
a) Fuel flow
b) Oil pressure
c) Engine speed indicator
Correct Answer is c) Engine speed indicator

104- The primary purpose of an EEC is :

a) To change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information and reduce flight crew workload .
b) To change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and provide maintenance information .
c) to save fuel reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs .
Correct Answer is c) to save fuel reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs .

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105- If a tacho generator indicated in reverse the probable cause is :

a) wrong input frequency
b) Two phases cross connected
c) Supply and transmitter cross connected
Correct Answer is b) Two phases cross connected

106- A sensing element goes open circuit in ratio meter . What will be
happen?
a) Temperature indicates below ambient.
b) Full scale deflection
c) Hairspring takes indicator off scale .
Correct Answer is b) Full scale deflection

107- A thermocouple is constructed of :

a) Two dissimilar metals welded together.
b) Two dissimilar metals with an air gap between them .
c) Three dissimilar metals welded together .
Correct Answer is a) Two dissimilar metals welded together.

108- A thermocouple indication is taken from the :

a) Hot junction
b) Cold junction
c) Difference between the hot junction and the cold junction .
Correct Answer is b) Cold junction

109- In a multiple probe thermocouple system, what is the effect if one probe
fails?
a) No noticeable effect
b) Reduction in temp reading
c) Increase in temp reading
Correct Answer is a) No noticeable effect

110- In a gas turbine if air is tapped from the HP bleed:

a) EPR decreases and EGT increases.
b) EPR stays constant and EGT decreases .
c) EPR increases and EGT decreases .
Correct Answer is a) EPR decreases and EGT increases.

111- The vane on a vane type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck.
What safety backup is available for the engine fuel flow?
a) A fuel bleed valve
b) A bypass valve
c) A differential pressure bypass valve .
Correct Answer is c) A differential pressure bypass valve .

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112- In a FADEC engine with a hydro mechanical fuel system, how is fuel
flow controlled ?
a) By fuel pressure
b) By electro – hydraulic servo valves ( EHSVs)
c) By oil hydraulics
Correct Answer is b) By electro – hydraulic servo valves ( EHSVs)

113- In the HEIU the discharge resistors:

a) Allows sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
b) Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
c) Allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
Correct Answer is c) Allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.

114- A modular constructed gas turbine engine means that :

a) Its major assemblies can be removed and replaced.
b) All engines have a specific component layout .
c) The engine is constructed by the vertical assembly technique .
Correct Answer is a) Its major assemblies can be removed and replaced.

115- When using a test set to test an EGT thermocouple circuit .

a) No compensation for ambient temperature is required.
b) Only consider ambient temperature compensation if the ambient
temperature is over 2U˚C.
c) Always compensate for ambient temperature.
Correct Answer is a) No compensation for ambient temperature is required.

116- Where is EGT measured?

a) In the combustion chamber.
b) Downstream of the combustion chamber.
c) Upstream of the combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is b) Downstream of the combustion chamber.

117- How does a boost gauge compensate for altitude changes?

a) Spring sealed bellows.
b) Two bellows against atmospheric pressure.
c) There is no compensation.
Correct Answer is a) Spring sealed bellows.

118- An EMF is produced by a thermocouple. This is sensed:

a) At the hot junction.
b) At the cold junction.
c) Between the hot and cold junctions.
Correct Answer is b) At the cold junction.

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119- Supervisory EEC sends its output to the:

a) Fuel valve
b) HMU/FFG
c) EGT thermocouple circuit.
Correct Answer is b) HMU/FFG

120- ratiometer pointer movement is achieved by :

a) One coil providing a torque against a permanent magnet.
b) Two opposing coils providing a torque in a varying magnetic field.
c) Two opposing coils providing a torque in a permanent magnetic field.
Correct Answer is c) Two opposing coils providing a torque in a permanent magnetic field.

121- A fuel flow transmitter requires a motor or a synchronous motor to

have a :
a) Constant voltage within small tolerances.
b) Constant frequency within small tolerances.
c) Low EMF as it is immersed in fuel.
Correct Answer is b) Constant frequency within small tolerances.

122- A boost gauge measures:

a) Absolute pressure on the inlet port.
a) Brake mean effective pressure.
b) Gauge pressure at the injector.
Correct Answer is a) Absolute pressure on the inlet port.

123- On a thermocouple circuit on a non FADEC engine, what is the purpose

of the ballast resistor ?
a) To compensate for ambient temperatures.
b) To standardize both engine’s EGT readings
c) To compensate for altitude.
Correct Answer is b) To standardize both engine’s EGT readings

124- Boost pressure is measured in :

a) Inches of Hg
b) inches of water
c) PSI
Correct Answer is a) Inches of Hg

125- Power is adjusted in a gas turbine engine by:

a) Increasing airflow to the combustion chamber.
b) Increasing air and fuel flow.
c) Increasing fuel flow.
Correct Answer is c) Increasing fuel flow.

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126- The EPR reading is taken from a ratio of:

a) Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
b) Compressor delivery pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
c) Turbine inlet pressure to compressor delivery pressure.
Correct Answer is a) Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

127- The basic gas turbine engine cycle is:

a) Induction, compression, combustion, expansion, exhaust .
a) Induction, compression, expansion, combustion, exhaust .
b) Compression, combustion, induction, expansion, exhaust .
Correct Answer is a) Induction, compression, combustion, expansion, exhaust .

128- If an engines fadec system loses air data permanently the pilot will:
a) Select alternate pilot static.
b) Switch to alt on the relevant EEC
c) Turn that EEC off
Correct Answer is a) Select alternate pilot static.

129- AN EPR system reads slightly over 1, this would mean:

a) The transmitter datum point has moved and needs replacing.
b) No action required this is normal.
c) The indicator needs re – calibrating back to 1.
Correct Answer is b) No action required this is normal.

130- Manifold pressure is measured:

a) At inlet port above and below ambient conditions.
b) At inlet port above and below standard atmosphere at sea level .
c) At inlet indicating boost pressure.
Correct Answer is a) At inlet port above and below ambient conditions.

131- A temperature indicating system incorporating a resistance blub on a

selected range has pointer movement :
a) Proportional to bulb resistance.
b) Inversely proportional to bulb resistance.
c) Resistance does not affect pointer movement.
Correct Answer is a) Proportional to bulb resistance.

132- In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs:

a) On shutdown
b) When channels a and b are healthy.
c) On engine startup only.
Correct Answer is a) On shutdown

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133- Oil systems consists of:

a) 2 systems
b) 3 systems
c) 4 systems
Correct Answer is b) 3 systems

134- With the EEC in control throttle levers are always:

a) In the fully forward position.
b) In the fully aft position.
c) Anywhere between the fully fwd and fully aft positions.
Correct Answer is c) Anywhere between the fully fwd and fully aft positions.

135- Turboprop thermocouple probes are:

a) Rapid response
b) stagnation
c) surface mounted
Correct Answer is a) Rapid response

136- Fan blade speed is measured by:

a) Phonic wheel
b) Drag cup and tachometer
c) Eddy currents.
Correct Answer is a) Phonic wheel

137- Fadecs operate by:

a) 2 controlling 1 operating.
b) 1 controlling 1 operating.
c) 2 Units each capable of independent control.
Correct Answer is c) 2 Units each capable of independent control.

138- When a thermocouple fails, the temperature reading will :

a) Over read
b) under read
c) stay the same
Correct Answer is c) stay the same

139- EPR is measured between inlet and:

a) Jet pipe
b) Cold and hot exhaust
c) Front of turbine.
Correct Answer is a) Jet pipe

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140- In a flow type fuel system, fuel shut off is done by:
a) Mechanical ball valve.
b) FCU torque motor.
c) I.P fuel cock.
Correct Answer is a) Mechanical ball valve.

141- the fuel flow transmitter is downstream of :

a) Pr sov
b) h.p pump
c) I.p pump
Correct Answer is c) I.p pump

142- Advantage of flow type over pressure type is:

a) It has lower pressure so greater reliability.
b) It can take into account rpm, pressure (ambient) and e.g.t.
c) Has no need for fly weights and governors.
Correct Answer is b) It can take into account rpm, pressure (ambient) and e.g.t.

143- When the full authority fuel control unit is changed, the rating plug :
a) Stays with the engine.
b) Stays with the FAFC.
c) Is replaced every time.
Correct Answer is a) Stays with the engine.

144- The EEC is powered and able to operate via:

a) Only a dedicated alternators.
b) The aircraft electrical system.
c) The EEC is capable of being powered by both independently depending
on conditions.
Correct Answer is c) The EEC is capable of being powered by both independently depending
on conditions.

145- The EEC uses:

a) ARINC 429 formatted data.
b) ARINC 629 formatted data.
c) Uses neither ARINC 429 or 629 formatted data.
Correct Answer is a) ARINC 429 formatted data.

146- The fuel metering unit has direct inputs via:

a) Only the EEC.
b) The EEC and the fire control handle.
c) The EEC, fire control handle and the engine master switch.
Correct Answer is c) The EEC, fire control handle and the engine master switch.

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147- The optimum turbine speed is defined as:

a) The most efficient speed of the turbine.
b) 100% rpm of the engine.
c) 95% rpm of the engine.
Correct Answer is a) The most efficient speed of the turbine.

148- An increase in fuel flow through the impeller type fuel flow transmitter is
measured by :
a) Drum lags impeller.
b) Impeller lags turbine.
c) Decreasing angle between the two.
Correct Answer is b) Impeller lags turbine.

149- No power to EGT is indicated by:

a) Yellow flag in front counter.
b) Bug moves in the X direction.
c) Bug moves in the Y direction.
Correct Answer is a) Yellow flag in front counter.

150- Connection to a tachogenerator :

a) 3 phase star
b) 3 phase delta
c) phase star
Correct Answer is a) 3 phase star

151- A short circuit in a d.c ratio meter will give:

a) Max scale reading.
b) Zero scale reading.
c) Min scale reading.
Correct Answer is c) Min scale reading.

152- An open circuit in a d.c. ratio meter will give:

a) Max scale reading.
b) Zero scale reading.
c) Min scale reading.
Correct Answer is a) Max scale reading.

153- The EEC changes power settings by:

a) Changing the throttle lever angle.
b) Changing the fuel flow input .
c) Changing the airflow input.
Correct Answer is b) Changing the fuel flow input .

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154- A torque pressure measuring indicator is fed by :

a) Direct oil pressure.
b) Differential pneumatic pressure.
c) Servo operated.
Correct Answer is a) Direct oil pressure.

155- The tachogenerator output has:

a) A fixed frequency
b) A variable frequency
c) A DC current output.
Correct Answer is b) A variable frequency

156- On a fuel measuring device located on the engine:

a) No adjustments can be made.
b) External adjustments can be made for maximum rate fuel flow.
c) External adjustments can be made for minimum rate fuel flow.
Correct Answer is a) No adjustments can be made.

157- Where is the hot junction of a EGT thermocouple system found?

a) In the indicator.
b) Upstream of the combustion chamber.
c) Downstream of the combustion chamber.
Correct Answer is c) Downstream of the combustion chamber.

158- The fan on a turbofan engine is turned by:

a) Induction of the air across the fan into the compressor.
b) The turbine section.
c) The combustion chamber gases.
Correct Answer is b) The turbine section.

159- When terminating connections for a EGT sensing system:

a) Ensure that the pins and sockets are correctly crimped and brazed.
b) Ensure that all connections are silver soldered.
c) Ensure that the pins and sockets are of the same material as the leads.
Correct Answer is c) Ensure that the pins and sockets are of the same material as the leads.

160- An EPR gauge indicates 1 you should

a) Adjust the indicator back to zero.
b) Replace the indicator, there is no adjustment.
c) Do nothing this is what it should read with the engine shut down .
Correct Answer is c) Do nothing this is what it should read with the engine shut down .

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161- A tacho pointer is moved by:

a) Drag cup coupling.
b) Ac servo motor.
c) Synchronous motor.
Correct Answer is a) Drag cup coupling.

162- Relative permeability of fuel is also known as:

a) Density of the fuel.
b) Weight of the fuel.
c) Dielectric constant of the fuel.
Correct Answer is c) Dielectric constant of the fuel.

163- Torque pressure indication to measure power output of an engine is:

a) Used in all gas turbine engines.
b) Not used in gas turbine engines.
c) Only used when engine output pressure is used for torque not for thrust.
Correct Answer is c) Only used when engine output pressure is used for torque not for thrust.

164- Manifold pressure is measured in:

a) Direct absolute pressure in bars.
b) Differential pressure in mill bars.
c) Direct absolute pressure in inch of Hg.
Correct Answer is c) Direct absolute pressure in inch of Hg.

165- Typically a torque pressure indication system is:

a) Differential pressure type.
b) Remote synchronous type.
c) Direct oil pressure sensing type.
Correct Answer is c) Direct oil pressure sensing type.

166- A tachometer used to measure rev/Min in turbine engines:

a) Develops its own power for the system.
b) 28 V dc is required.
c) 115 V ac is required.
Correct Answer is a) Develops its own power for the system.

167- Primary power for electronic engine control:

a) 115V essential bus.
b) On side 115 V ac bus bar supply.
c) Permanent magnet alternator.
Correct Answer is c) Permanent magnet alternator.

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168- Leads to measure thermocouple temperature are:

a) Calibrated for circuit in used and cannot be shortened.
b) Affected by magnetic and electrical interference.
c) Insulated by heat legging device to reduce errors in the indication end.
Correct Answer is a) Calibrated for circuit in used and cannot be shortened.

169- A thermocouple sensing system test set requires:

a) A serviceable battery.
b) No power.
c) 24 V dc
Correct Answer is a) A serviceable battery.

170- The HP compressor is powered by:

a) The first set of turbines.
b) The last set of turbines.
c) The intermediate compressor.
Correct Answer is a) The first set of turbines.

171- Torque is measured in gas turbine engines:

a) Never
b) Where there is a free turbine providing the power.
b) On small pure jet engines.
Correct Answer is b) Where there is a free turbine providing the power.

172- What is the supply voltage to tacho generators?

a) 28dc
b) 115 Vac
c) it has no supply
Correct Answer is c) it has no supply

173- A FADEC takes measurements of engine speed;

a) Temperature and pressure .
b) Temperature.
c) Pressure.
Correct Answer is a) Temperature and pressure .

174- The fuel metering valve in the hydro mechanical unit of a FADEC system is
operated by :
a) Hydraulic servo pressure.
b) Fuel servo pressure .
c) Electrical servo.
Correct Answer is b) Fuel servo pressure .

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175- Boost pressure is :

a) Atmospheric above ambient.
b) Atmospheric below ambient.
c) The absolute of the manifold chamber.
Correct Answer is c) The absolute of the manifold chamber.

176- To check / test a temperature indicator you would :

a) Connect decade box in place of the temperature sensing element.
b) Connect a decade box in series with the temperature sensing element.
c) Connect a decade box in parallel with the temperature sensing element.
Correct Answer is a) Connect decade box in place of the temperature sensing element.

177- Calibration for a ratiometer type temperature indicator takes into account:
a) The material of the coils.
b) The material of the sensing element.
b) The type of representation on the dial.
Correct Answer is b) The material of the sensing element.

178- Reverse thrust can only be selected when the throttle is :

a) 75% power position .
b) Open.
c) At the idle stop .
Correct Answer is c) At the idle stop .

179- On a FADEC engine the EEC :

a) Has electronic control of the hydro- mechanical fuel control unit in
all modes .
b) Has electronic control of the hydro – mechanical fuel control in some
modes.
c) Has mechanical control of the hydro – mechanical fuel control system.
Correct Answer is a) Has electronic control of the hydro- mechanical fuel control unit in
all modes .

180- EPR is a measure of:

a) Exhaust pressure compared to compressor inlet pressure.
b) Exhaust pressure compared to combustor pressure.
c) Combustion pressure compared to compressor inlet pressure.
Correct Answer is a) Exhaust pressure compared to compressor inlet pressure.

181- What exactly does a thermocouple measure?

a) The difference between the hot and cold junction.
b) Hot junction temperature.
b) Cold junction temperature.
Correct Answer is b) Hot junction temperature.

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182- In a temperature sensing ratio meter what determines the actual

temperature ?
a) The material of the sensor.
b) The material of the sensing coil .
c) The material of the balancing coil .
Correct Answer is a) The material of the sensor.

183- Torque is a useful measure ;

a) On engines where a portion of thrust produces torque .
b) On engines which only produce thrust .
c) On all engines .
Correct Answer is a) On engines where a portion of thrust produces torque .

184- Boost pressure is a measure of :

a) Manifold pressure.
b) Atmospheric pressure plus turbocharger inlet pressure .
b) Atmospheric pressure less turbocharger inlet pressure.
Correct Answer is b) Atmospheric pressure plus turbocharger inlet pressure .

185- The test switch of a continuous loop fire detector gives a :

a) Continuity check.
b) Bonding check.
c) Insulation check.
Correct Answer is a) Continuity check.

186- What are the types of continuous fire detection system?

a) Capacitive and resistive .
b) Capacitive
c) Inductive and capacitive.
Correct Answer is a) Capacitive and resistive .

187- During normal running conditions:

a) Combustion is continuously supported by ignition.
b) Combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
c) Combustion is self supporting.
Correct Answer is c) Combustion is self supporting.

188- What indication does the pilot receive that thrust reversers have
Deployed?
a) A feeling of rapid deceleration.
b) An audible warning.
c) A sequence of lights .
Correct Answer is c) A sequence of lights .

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189- On a fixed pitch propeller single engine aircraft, what is indicated as a

measure of power ?
a) Oil pressure.
b) Engine speed.
c) Cylinder head temperature.
Correct Answer is b) Engine speed.

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