Predictive Scope Planning Processes

Plan Scope • Scope Management Plan

Management • Requirements Management Plan

Collect • Requirements Documentation

Requirements • Requirements Traceability Matrix

Define Scope • Project Scope Statement

Create WBS • Scope Baseline

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Multicriteria Decision Analysis

Criteria IPhone Samsung

Price 5 2 10 5 25

Operating
System 3 5 15 3 9

Guarantee 2 5 10 3 6

Total 12 35 11 40
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1. Review the following project characteristics:
• A sponsor approves a project.
• The project manager invites selected team members, key stakeholders, and the
sponsor to a meeting.
• The primary purpose of the meeting is to create a document that will guide the
team in defining the main project deliverables.
What will be the final output of this meeting?

A. Milestone list.
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary.
C. Scope management plan.
D. Requirements management plan.

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2. While performing activities associated with controlling project and product scope,
a project manager uncovers scope creep. What is scope creep?

A. The uncontrolled expansion of project or product scope

B. The controlled expansion of project or product scope
C. A team member who causes constant issues within the project
D. The delivery of scope that is behind schedule and over costs

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3. Company G has a goal of increasing customer satisfaction within four (4) months
and initiates a project to meet this goal. The project manager needs to identify best
practices. Which method should the project manager use to accomplish this?

A. Benchmarking.
B. Emotional intelligence.
C. Facilitation.
D. Affinity diagram.

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 Predictive Schedule Planning Processes

Plan Schedule
• Schedule Management Plan
Management

• Activity List
Define Activities • Activity Attributes
• Milestone List
Sequence
• Project Schedule Network Diagram
Activities

Estimate Activity • Durations Estimate

Durations • Basis of Estimates
• Project Schedule
Develop Schedule • Project Calendar
• Schedule Baseline
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• Schedule Data
Activity Preceding Activity Duration in Days

Start None 0
D Start 4
A Start 6
E D 8
F D, A 7
B F 5
G F, E 5
H G 7
C H 8
End C, B 0

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 Dur EF
ES 5 8 12 14 5 18 19 7 25 26 8 33
E G H C
1 4 4
6 1 13 14 0 18 19 0 25 26 0 33
START D END

2 1 5 LF

TF 7 7 13 14 5 18
LS
1 6 6 F B
A 7 0 13 29 15 33 The minimum project
duration is 33 days
1 0 6
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1. Your project sponsor has reviewed the initial project schedule you created for the
project. She is not happy with the project end date because it doesn’t match the
promise date she gave the customer. You decide to use some compression
techniques first. Which of the following statements should you keep in mind (and
know to be true) regarding duration compression?

A. Crashing is a compression technique that typically produces a viable alternative.

B. Fast-tracking is a compression technique that typically results in increased costs.
C. Schedule compression shortens the project schedule but doesn’t change the
project scope.
D. Crashing is a compression technique that typically results in increased risk.

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2. You are the project manager responsible for building a 100,000 sq. ft. data center.
One of the schedule activities in your plan is to install the Computer Room Air
Conditioning (CRAC) units. However, before beginning the installation of the units, a
raised floor must be installed to which the units can then be bolted. This is an
example of what type of dependency?

A. External
B. Optional
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory

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3. A project manager is developing a high-level summary timeline of the schedule,
based on the product road map, in collaboration with the team. This exercise will
determine the number of sprints that are included within the release. Which tool or
technique is the project manager and team using to develop the schedule?

A. Agile release planning

B. Sprint planning
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Release-driven development

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4. Based on the following, if you need to shorten the duration of the project, what
activity would you try to shorten? Activity Preceding Duration
Activity

A. Activity B. Start None 0

A Start 1
B. Activity D.
B Start 2
C. Activity G.
C Start 6
D. Activity C.
D A 10
E B,C 1
F C 2
G D 3
H E 9
I F 1
End G,H,I 0

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 Quality
Project Engineering Purchasing Manufacturing
Assurance
Manager Manager Manager Manager
Manager
Create blueprints
A R C C
Manufacture
circuit board I A C R
Test circuit board
I R A C
Order components
C C I R A
Assemble
I C C R

R = Responsible A = Accountable C = Consulted I = Informed

S = Support

It shows all activities associated with one person and all people associated with one
activity to ensure that there is only one person accountable for any one task

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1. When writing the roles and responsibilities for team members, you should
document the role, authority, responsibility and competency for each team member.
Where must this information be documented?

A. Resource management plan

B. RACI chart
C. Resource calendar
D. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

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2. A textile development project needs a specialized resource to work for 900 hours.
The company has decided to outsource these hours. Because of internal policies, all
potential service providers must be given the same information about the
requirements. Which action should the project manager take to ensure this?

A. Hold direct negotiations with each service provider.

B. Conduct a bidder conference with the service providers.
C. Ensure the procurement management plan is sent to each service provider.
D. Add each of the service providers to the stakeholder register.

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3. A project manager is performing activities associated with the Plan Procurement
Management process. He is attempting to determine, along with the relevant subject
matter experts, whether it makes more sense to develop internally or purchase a
deliverable. What tools or methods can he use to produce a successful outcome?

A. Market research
B. Advertising
C. Source selection analysis
D. Make-or-buy analysis

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 Predictive Budget Planning Processes

Plan Cost
• Cost Management Plan
Management

Estimate Costs • Cost Estimate

• Basis of Estimate
• Cost Baseline
Determine Budget
• Project Funding Requirement

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Components of the Cost Management Plan

Accuracy of activity cost Level of precision to Organizational procedure

estimates round up or down links used with the WBS

Strategic funding choices

- Procedure to account for
Units of measure to be Rules of performance fluctuations in currency
used measurements to be used exchange rates -
Procedure for project cost
recording

Control thresholds to be
Reporting formats to be
used for monitoring cost
used
performance

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1. Which of the following represents a definitive range of estimates?

A. −25 percent to +75 percent

B. −5 percent to +10 percent
C. −10 percent to +10 percent
D. −50 percent to +50 percent

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2. Grant hesitantly knocks on his project sponsor’s door to notify her of a budget
overage that has occurred. Because of a vendor error, he shared that a critical piece
of equipment would cost $30,000 more than originally estimated. Fortunately for
Grant, the sponsor understood the situation and approved the use of funds set aside
for unexpected events. From where will Grant pull the funds to cover the equipment?

A. Management reserves
B. Contingency reserves
C. Funding limit reconciliation
D. Cost baseline

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3. Project costs are estimated for all project activities and are aggregated to establish a
cost baseline. Which of the following statements about the cost baseline is not true?

A. The cost baseline can be changed only through formal change control procedures
B. The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget
C. The cost baseline includes all authorized budgets including management reserves
D. The cost baseline is in the form of an 'S' curve

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 Risk

P X I
0:1 0:1
Risk Score

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 Predictive Risk Planning Processes

Plan Risk Management • Risk Management Plan

• Risk Register
Identify Risks
• Risk Report

Perform Qualitative • Risk Register Update

Risk Analysis • Risk Report Update

Perform Quantitative
• Risk Report Update
Risk Analysis

• Risk Register Update

Plan Risk Response
• Risk Report Update
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Simulation
4±1 6±1
Start A B End

3/9
100%

2/9 2/9

1/9 1/9

1 2 3 2 1
8/1 9/1 10/1 11/1 12/1
Uncertainty Period

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Simulation

25
Simulation

26
Decision Tree Analysis

27
Influence Diagrams

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1. Although the sponsor and project team say that the new project has an adequate
budget and realistic schedule, the project manager worries that unplanned events
could threaten the project’s success. What should the project manager do first?

A. Engage in identification of project risks, then assess those risks.

B. Ask the project sponsor for additional funding to cover project planning.
C. Schedule a meeting with the functional manager to address the potential impact
of unplanned risks.
D. Execute the project as planned and handle any risks as they arise.

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2. After brainstorming potential project risks, what is the recommended method for
prioritizing these risks?

A. RACI chart
B. Control chart
C. Fishbone Diagram
D. Probability and impact matrix

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3. An organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity arising from a risk with
positive impact is realized. This organization should:

A. Exploit the risk

B. Mitigate the risk
C. Accept the risk
D. Avoid the risk

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1. At the end of a sprint, the Scrum team met to talk through what went well and
what could be improved. One engineer noted that the recent changes to daily
stand-ups were working. Which of the following describes the actions that the
Scrum team carried out? (Select two.)

A. Facilitated a collaboration session

B. Facilitated sprint planning
C. Facilitated a sprint retrospective
D. Facilitated process improvement

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2. The ________ is a document which describes how the project management team
will implement the performing organization’s quality policy.

A. Quality assurance plan

B. Quality management plan
C. Quality commitment
D. Quality audit

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3. A first-time project manager is advised by an experienced project manager to plan
for cost of quality. The first-time project manager is not sure which costs are
included in the cost of quality. What would your advice be?

A. Cost of quality only includes cost of nonconformance.

B. Cost of quality includes cost of conformance and cost of nonconformance.
C. Cost of quality only includes prevention costs and internal failure costs.
D. Cost of quality only includes cost of conformance.

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1. The Project Integration Management is concerned with which of the following?

A. Ensuring timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution,

storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and ultimate disposition of
project information

B. Identifying, combining, unifying, and coordinating the various processes and

project management activities

C. Identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted

by the project to analyze stakeholder expectations and their impact on the project

D. Ensuring the project includes all the work required, and only the work required,
to complete the project successfully

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2. A project manager following an Agile life cycle receives a request from
the customer to alter a requirement. How will the project manager likely
respond?

A. Blocks change

B. Welcomes change

C. Prevents change

D. Indifferent about change

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3. A client's employee asks the project manager for an additional, new
product feature during a status meeting. To which document should the
project manager first refer to determine who has the authority to approve
this request?

A. Change log.

B. Change management plan.

C. Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) matrix.

D. Change request document.

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