Grade: XII

Subject: Political Science

MCQ (All Chapters)

CHAPTER 1
Cold War and Non Aligned Movement
Q1. Who among the following nations was a part of Allied forces?
(a) Germany (b) France
(c) Italy (d) Japan

Q2. Identify the correct statement

(a) Cuba was an ally of USA.
(b) First World War ended in 1920.
(c) United States dropped two atomic bombs on Japan in August 1945.
(d) Soviet Union was committed to the ideology of capitalism.

Q3. Which of the following nations is not a part of NATO?

(a) France (b) Italy
(c) Spain (d) None
Q4. Which among the following statements does not reflect the objectives of NAM?
(a) Enabling newly decolonized countries to pursue independent policies.
(b) Not to join any military alliances.
(c) Following a policy of ‘neutrality’ on global issues.
(d) Focus on elimination of global economic inequalities.

Q5. Which of the following was not a member of SEATO?

(a) U.S.S.R (b) New Zealand
(c) Pakistan (d) Australia

Q6. Which of the following nations was not a part of Warsaw pact?
(a) Bulgaria (b) Romania
(c) Portugal (d) Poland

Q7. Which of the following is not a United States Alliance system?

(a) CENTO (b) NATO
(c) SEATO (d) NAM

Q8. The smallest states were important for super powers due to
(a) Resources such as oil (b) Territory for spying
(c) Economic support (d) All of the above

Q9. ‘Marshall Plan’ was for the reconstruction of

(a) Eastern Europe
(b) Western Europe
(c) Eastern Asia
(d) Western Asia
Q10. The first summit of NAM was attended by _____ members.
(a) 40 (b) 10
(c) 25 (d) 50

Q11. The term LDCs stands for-

(a) Lowest Developed Countries (b) Lowest Developing Countries
(c) Least Developing Countries (d) Least Developed Countries

Q12. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) was established in:

(a) 1950 (b) 1959
(c) 1960 (d) 1949

Q13. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) India was a founder member of NAM.
(b) India’s non alignment was termed as ‘unprincipled’.
(c) During Cold War period, India was close to USSR.
(d) None of the above

Q14. India signed Treaty of Friendship in 1971 with

(a) Britain (b) USA
(c) USSR (d) France

Q15. NPT stands for

(a) Non Practical Treaty (b) Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty
(c) Nuclear Promotion Treaty (d) Never Practise Treaty

Q16. Which of the following was not an ideology of Western Alliances?

(a) Capitalism (b) Liberal democracy
(c) Socialism (d) None

Q17. Which of the following leaders decided to convert Cuba into a Russian base?
(a) Khrushchev (b) Brezhnev
(c) Gorbachev (d) Vladimir Putin

Q18. Disintegration of the Soviet Union took place in:

(a) 1985 (b) 1989
(c) 1990 (d) 1991

Q19. Which one of the following is not the core objective of NAM?
(a) Free and independent foreign policy.
(b) Distance from allied politics.
(c) Practise aloofness from international issues.
(d) Ensure appropriate participation of developing nations.

Q20. Belgrade is the capital of

(a) Egypt (b) Yugoslavia
(c) Indonesia (d) Ghana

Answers: -
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13.(d) 14. (c)
15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20(b)
CHAPTER 2 THE END OF BIPOLARITY

Q1.Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in the year

(a) 1989 (b) 1969
(c) 1979 (d) 1949

Q2. CIS stands for

(a) Commonwealth of Independent States (b) Combination of Independent States
(c) Collection of Independent States (d) None

Q3. Which of the following is the reason for disintegration of USSR?

(a) Economic Stagnation (b) Political Stagnation
(c) Administrative Stagnation (d) All of the given

Q4. Which of the following is not a Baltic Republic?

(a) Estonia (b) Latvia
(c) Georgia (d) Lithuania

Q5. Russia took over the U.S.S.R seat in the U.N in:
(a) December 1991 (b) November 1989
(c) December 1990 (d) October 1992

Q6. The Warsaw Pact was

(a) An economic alliance (b) A political alliance
(c) A military alliance (d) None of the above

Q7. Who was elected as the first President of Russia?

(a) M. Gorbachev (b) Boris Yeltsin
(c) Vladimir Putin (d) Stalin

Q8. Which of the following is /are the consequences of disintegration of USSR?

(a) End of Cold War (b) Dominance of US
(c) Emergence of many new countries (d) All of the above

Q9. The model of transition of Russia, Central Asia and East Europe influenced by the World Bank and the IMF is called
(a) Marshall Plan (b) US Plan
(c) Shock Therapy (d) US Therapy

Q10. Who among the following suggested ‘peaceful coexistence’ with the West?
(a) Mikhail Gorbachev (b) Leonid Brezhnev
(c) Nikita Khrushchev (d) Boris Yeltsin

Q11. Russian parliament declares its independence from the Soviet Union in
(a) March,1990 (b) April,1990
(c) May, 1990 (d) June, 1990

Q12. Which of the following country was accepted as the successor state of the Soviet Union in the UN Security Council?
(a) Belarus (b) Russia
(c)Georgia (d) Kazakhstan

Q13. Which of the following countries becomes the first of the 15 Soviet republics to declare its independence?
(a) Lithuania (b) Russia
(c) Ukraine (d) Georgia

Q14. Which of the following is the consequence of `Shock Therapy’?

(a) Ruin to the economies (b) Destruction of welfare system
(c) Privatisation (d) All of the given

Q15. Which of the following Nation was not oil based economy?
(a) Azerbaijan (b) Ukraine
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Uzbekistan

Q16. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) India has maintained Cordial relations with almost all the post - communist nations.
(b) Russia and India share a vision of multipolar World.
(c) India continues to favour Russia and ignore USA.
(d) All of the above

Q17. Who among the following initiated the policies of economic and political reform and democratization within the USSR?
(a) Joseph Stalin (b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) Vladimir Putin (d) Boris Yeltsin

Q18. The Revolution of Russia in 1917 was inspired by the ideals of

(a) Socialism (b) Capitalism
(c) Socialism as well as Capitalism (d) None

Q19. Identify the correct order in the year of occurrence.

(i) Lithuania declares its independence (ii) Latvia joins NATO
(iii) Berlin wall falls
(iv) Mikhail Gorbachev elected as General Secretary of communist party
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) iv, iii, ii, ii
(c) i, iii, iv, ii (d) iv, iii, ii, i

Q20. Identify the correct statement

(a) Indo-Russian strategic Agreement was signed in 1991.
(b) As a result of shock therapy 15 Russian banks went bankrupt
(c) Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan are oil rich republics
(d) There are no conflicts in post soviet republics.

Q21. ‘Arab Spring’ started in

(a) Libya (b) Syria
(c) Tunisia (d) Egypt

Q22. Pick the odd one out.

(a) Syria (b) Egypt
(c) Libya (d) Pakistan

Q23.Which statement about ‘Arab Spring’ is not true?

(a) ‘Arab Spring’ is linked to the movement for democratization of West Asian Countries.
(b) ‘Arab Spring’ started in Egypt.
(c) ‘Arab Spring’ started as a movement against corruption, unemployment and poverty.
(d) Impact of ‘Arab Spring’ could be seen in Yemen, Bahrain, Libya and Syria.

Q24. The attack on the twin Towers of World Trade Centre in New York took place in
(a) 11th Sept 2011 (b) 11th Sep 2001
(c) 11th Sept 2002 (d) 11th Sept 1991

Q25. Which war was called as ‘Computer’ or ‘Video Game war’?

(a) First Gulf War (b) Second Gulf War
(c) Third Gulf War (d) Fourth Gulf War

Q26. In which of the following nations US Embassies were bombed in 1998?

(a) Nairobi, Kenya (b) Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

Q27. The US operation against Al – Qaeda and Taliban regime in Afghanistan was called
(a) Operation desert storm (b) Operation Enduring Freedom
(c) Operation Al-Qaeda (d) Operation Iraqi freedom

Q27. Where the US defence department is headquartered?

(a) New York (b) Washington
(c) Pennsylvania (d) Virginia

Q28.Where had US made its secret prison?

(a) Tokyo (b) Guantanamo Bay
(c) Kabul (d) Islamabad

Q29. WMD Stands for

(a) War of Mass Destruction (b) Weapon of More Destruction
(c) Weapons of Mass Destruction (d) None

Q30. US spends more on its military capability than the next 12 powers combined denotes
(a) US a Soft Power (b) US a Hard Power
(c) US as Structural Power (d) All of the above

Q31. What was the duration of Cold War?

(a) 1914-1919 (b) 1939-1945
(c) 1945-1991 (d) 1965-1991

Q32. Where is the Pentagon building situated in USA?

(a) Virginia (b) New York
(c) Arlington (d) Pennsylvania

Q33. When was the first MBA course initiated outside US?
(a) 1900 (b) 1850
(c) 1950 (d) 1800
Q34. Introduction of Academic degree of MBA is an example of US as ________ Power.
(a) Soft (b) Hard
(c) Military (d) Structural

Q35. Which of the following is not a constraint of American Power?

(a) Institutional architecture of American State
(b) Open nature of American Society
(c) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(d) None

Q36. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) US absorbs about 65% of India’s total exports in the software sector
(b) 3, 00, 000 Indians work in Silicon Valley
(c) 15% of all high-tech start-ups are by Indian Americans
(d) 35% of the technical staff of Airbus is estimated of Indian origin

Q37. US hegemony can be overcome by

(a) Bandwagon Strategy (b) Hiding Strategy
(c) Media Strategy (d) Any of the given

Q38. When did the Soviet Power disappear from the international scene?
(a) 1990 (b) 1991
(c) 1989 (d) 1992
Q39. Which of the following is not regarded as the product of American hegemony?
(a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organisation (d) United Nations

Q40. In Cuba, Guantanamo Bay is a famous

(a) US naval base (b) US military base
(c) US oil field (d) US aircraft base

Q41. During First Gulf War who was the President of America?
(a) George H.W.Bush (b) George W Bush
(c) William Jefferson (Bill) Clinton (d) Norman Schwarzkopf

Q42. The Wharton School at the University of Pennsylvania is the first business school in the world. When it was established?
(a) 1871 (b) 1881
(c) 1876 (d) 1891

Q43. Operation Iraqi Freedom was launched on:

(a) 21st April 2003 (b) 19th March 2004
(c) 23rd March 2003 (d) 19th March 2003

Q44. Which of the following is considered as the product of American hegemony?

(a) World Trade Organisation (b) United Nations
(c) I.L.O (d) SAARC

Q45. Which among the following statements about hegemony is untrue?

(a) The word implies the leadership or predominance of one state.
(b) It was used to denote the predominance of Athens in the Ancient Greece.
(c) The country having hegemonic position will posses unchallenged military power.
(d) Hegemonic position is fixed. Once a hegemony, always hegemony

Q46. Iraq invaded Kuwait in

(a) 1989 (b) 1990
(c) 1991 (d) 1992
Q47. Which statement about the Berlin wall is false?
(a) It symbolizes the division between the capitalist and the communist world
(b) It was broken by people on 9th NOV 1989
(c) It was built after the second world war
(d) None

Q48. _____________ directed the ‘shock therapy model’

(a) World bank (b) IMF
(c) Both (d) None

Q49. CIS stands for

(a) Countries with Independent Status (b) Countries with Independent States
(c) Commonwealth of Indian States (d) Commonwealth of Independent States

Q50. Which of the following is an example of the US as a ‘soft power’?

(a) High military spending
(b) High % share in the world economy
(c) High % share in the world trade
(d) Powerful culture

Answers: -
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15.(b) 16. (c) 17.
24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28.(b)
29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (d)

CHAPTER 3 NEW CENTRES OF POWER

Q1. Who among the following adopted an ‘Open Door’ policy?

(a) China
(b) E.U
(c) Japan
(d) U.S.A

Q2. The currency of European Union is:

(a) Euro (b) Yuan
(c) Dollar (d) Rupees

Q3. ______ was established in 1948 to channelize aid to the West European states
(a) NATO (b) EU
(c) OEEC (d) UN
Q4. Which of the following is not a member of E.U.?
(a)Spain (b) Germany
(c) India (d) France

Q5. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) European Union has its own flag. (b) European Union has its own constitution.
(c) European Union has its own currency. (d) European Union has its own anthem.

Q6. Which of the following statements about European Union is true?

(a) European Union is one of the largest economies in terms of GDP.
(b) European Union share in the world trade is three times larger than the United States.
(c) One member of European Union holds a permanent seat in Security Council
(d) All of the above.

Q7. Which year ASEAN was established?

(a) 1962 (b) 1977
(c) 1980 (d) 1967

Q8. The Privatisation of agriculture in China took place in:

(a) 1988 (b) 1982
(c) 1976 (d) 1978

Q9. Which of the following is projected to overtake the U.S. as the world’s largest economy by 2040?
(a) Japan (b) India
(c) Germany (d) China

Q10. Which of the following nations has exit from European Union recently?
(a) Italy (b) Britain
(c) France (d) Germany

Q11. Which of the following European Union member has resisted to the use of common currency ‘Euro’?
(a) Germany (b) Sweden
(c) France (d) None

Q12. Which of the following EU countries hold permanent seats in the UN Security Council?
(a) Britain and Germany (b) France and Germany
(c) France (d) Britain and U.S.A

Q13. European Union was established in

(a) 1992 (b) 1982
(c) 2002 (d) 1971

Q14. ASEAN had ______ founder members states

(a) 10 (b) 5
(c) 20 (d) 3

Q15. Which of the following is an objective of ASEAN Economic Community?

(a) To create a common market (b) To create a production base
(c) To aid social and economic development in the region
(d) All of the above

Q16. Which of the following is not an ASEAN member?

(a) China (b) Thailand
(c) Malaysia (d) Indonesia
Q17. Current strength of ASEAN is
(a) 20 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 12

Q18. FTA stands for

(a) Foreign Trade Agreement (b) Free Trade Association
(c) Foreign Trade Area (d) Free Trade Area

Q19. Identify the correct statement

(a) China is the fastest growing economy
(b) China privatised industries in 1998
(c) China privatised agriculture in 1982
(d) All of the above

Q20. Who announced ‘open door policy’?

(a) Mao Zedong (b) Deng Xiaoping
(c) Premier Zhou (d) Premier Xi Jintao

Q21. Which of the following statement is true about India and China relationship?
(a) They have territorial disputes in parts of Arunachal Pradesh and Aksai Chin
(b) India Suffered massively against China in 1962.
(c) At present India and China have significant trade relations.
(d) All of the above

Q21. Which of the following is not a Japanese brand?

(a) Sony (b) Canon
(c) Xiaomi (d) Honda
Q22. Japan has security alliances with
(a) China (b) South Korea
(c) Russia (d) USA

Q23. Which is the second largest contributor to the regular budget of the UN?
(a) USA (b) Russia
(c) Japan (d) India

Q24. ‘R’ in BRICS stands for

(a) Romania (b) Russia
(c) Republic (d) Rajasthan

Q25. BRIC was founded in the year ____.

(a) 2006 (b) 2016
(c) 2020 (d) 2012

Q26. ‘C’ in BRICS stands for _____.

(a) Canada (b) Czech Republic
(c) China (d) None

Q27. The 11th Conference of BRICS was held in _______________

(a) India (b) Russia
(c) China (d) Brazil

Q28. In ____ BRIC turned into BRICS

(a) 2006 (b) 2010
(c) 2009 (d) 2011

Q29. ____________ Emerged as a strong successor of Soviet Union.

(a) Ukraine (b) Russia
(c) Bulgaria (d) Uzbekistan

Q30. Which of the following statements is untrue about Russia?

(a) Russia has vast reserves of minerals and natural resources.
(b) Russia is the second largest economy in the World.
(c) Russia is a Nuclear State.
(d) Russia is a Permanent member of UNSC.

Q31. By 2025, India has targeted a goal to become a _____ tn$ economy.
(a) 10 (b) 5
(c) 3 (d) 4

Q32. Which of the following statements is true about Israel?

(a) It is one of the most powerful nation in terms of science and technology.
(b) It has reached new heights of global political standing by virtue of its indomitable defence process.
(c) It is situated in the middle of disturbed area of western area.
(d) All of the above

Q33. Pick the odd one out

(a) Singapore (b) Thailand
(c) Malaysia (d) Vietnam

Q34. Coronavirus has been alleged to be originated from

(a) Wuhan (b) Shanghai
(c) Beijing (d) New York

Q35. Which of the following is not the cause of bitterness between India and China?
(a) Tibet crisis (b) Unfavourable balance of trade
(c) Border disputes (d) China’s support to Pakistan

Answers: -
1.(a) 2.(a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21
28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b)

CHAPTER 4 SOUTH ASIA AND THE CONTEMPORARY WORLD

Q1. Which of the following nations is not a part of ‘South Asia’?

(a) Nepal (b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka (d) None

Q2. Which country is an important player in South Asia but not a part of it?
(a) Bhutan (b) China
(c) India (d) Nepal

Q3. Till 2006, Nepal was a

(a) Democracy (b) Autocracy
(c) Constitutional monarchy (d) Dictatorship
Q4. Which of the following nations is still a Monarchy?
(a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan (d) Sri Lanka

Q5. Shimla Agreement was signed in the year_____

(a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) 1976 (d) 1999

Q6. ______ Treaty was signed between India and Bangladesh for sharing of Ganga Waters
(a) Ganga (b) Meghna
(c) Farakka (d) Dhaka

Q7. Which Indian Prime Minister undertook bus journey to Lahore to sign a Peace Declaration?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narender Modi
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Q8. Identify the correct statement.

(a) East Pakistan broke away to become Bangladesh
(b) The Bhutto government was removed by General Yahya Khan
(c) General Parvez Musharraf removed Benazir Bhutto to form power
(d) None

Q9. Which party won all the seats in East Pakistan in 1970?
(a) Muslim league (b) PDP
(c) Awami League (d) Tehreek – e-Islam
Q10. Who formed Bangladesh National Party?
(a) Sheikh Mujib (b) Zia-ur-Rehman
(c) H.M Ershad (d) Sheikh Abdullah

Q11. Which statement about Sri Lanka is true?

(a) Sri Lanka has majority of Sinhala community
(b) Tamils have been given equal rights in Sri Lanka
(c) Sri Lanka is a perfect example of Power sharing
(d) India has never interfered in Sri Lankan problem.

Q12. The government of Pakistan blames the Indian government for fomenting trouble in the provinces of
(a) Islamabad (b) Rawalpindi
(c) Baluchistan (d) Karachi

Q13. For which of the following nations Indians do not require visa and passport.
(a) Pakistan (b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

Q14. Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?

(a) Bhutan (b) India
(c) Pakistan (d) China

Q15. SAFTA is an agreement signed by members of

(a) SAARC (b) ASEAN
(c) The EU (d) SSA

Q16. SAARC was established in

(a)1985 (b) 1995
(c) 2005 (d) 2015

Q17. Bangladesh was formed in

(a) 1965 (b) 1971
(c) 1974 (d) 1979

Q18. Which of the following country is South Asian country?

(a) Japan (b) USA
(c) North Korea (d) Pakistan

Q19. Which of the following has been a Hindu Kingdom?

(a) India (b) Bhutan
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal

Q20. Which of the following is a land-locked country?

(a) Maldives (b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal (d)Pakistan

Q21. Who led the popular struggle against west Pakistani domination?
(a) Yahya Khan (b) Ayub Khan
(c) Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rahman (d) Zia-ul-Haq

Q22. Border conflict between Sino-India took place in:

(a) 1962 (b) 1965
(c) 1966 (d) 1971

Q23. Bhutan’s biggest source of development aid is given by:

(a) India (b)Pakistan
(c) Nepal (d) China

Q24. Which of the following is the objective of SAARC?

(a) Improve the standard of living of the people of member nations
(b) To accelerate economic and social development
(c) To develop mutual trust
(d) All of the above

Q25. LTTE was a militant organization in

(a) Bangladesh (b) Pakistan
(c) Srilanka (d) Nepal

Answers: -
1.(d) 2.(d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21

CHAPTER 5
UNITED NATIONS AND ITS ORGANIZATIONS

Q1. UNESCO was established in the year

(a) 1945 (b) 1946
(c) 1948 (d) 1947

Q2. UNESCO’S headquarter is in _____.

(a) France (b) USA
(c) UK (d) Germany
Q3. ______ is a specialised agency that promoted education and natural sources.
(a) UNHCR (b) UNHRC
(c) IMF (d) UNESCO

Q4. ________ is a specialised agency of the UN that collects emergency funds for children across the world.
(a) UNESCO (b) UNICEF
(c) UNHCR (d) World Bank

Q5. The Headquarters of UNICEF is situated in ____________.

(a) UK (b) France
(c) USA (d) Switzerland

Q6. UNICEF was established in the year ______.

(a) 1956 (b) 1966
(c) 1946 (d) 1976

Q7. International Labour Organisation was established in the year.

(a) 1945 (b) 1919
(c) 1949 (d) 1947

Q8. The Headquarter of ILO is situated in______________.

(a) USA (b) France
(c)Switzerland (d) India

Q9. Pick the odd one out

(a) UNGA (b) UNESCO
(c) UNSC (d) ICJ
Q10. Pick the odd one out
(a) UNICEF (b) UNSC
(c) UNESCO (d) UNHCR

Q11. Olive branches in the UN emblem signify

(a) Security (b) Friendship
(c) Peace (d) Partnership

Q12. India became the member of U.N in:

(a) 1945 (b) 1947
(c) 1950 (d) 1962

Q13. Who was the first woman president of the U.N General Assembly?
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijay Laxmi Pandit (d) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur

Q14.Who is the single largest contributor to the UN?

(a) Japan (b) China
(c) Germany (d) USA
Q15. Which of the following is not a permanent member of UN Security Council?
(a) France (b) Japan
(c) China (d) UK

Q16.Which of the following organisation seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy?
(a) IMF (b) IAEA
(c) UNESCO (d) ILO
Q17.Which of the following organisations sets the rules for global trade?
(a) WTO (b) IMF
(c) IAEA (d) UNHRC

Q18. Which organ of UN has been suspended on 1st November 1994 after the independence of Palau?
(a) ECOSOC (b) Secretarial
(c) Trusteeship Council (d) International Court of Justice

Q19.Which of the following is an NGO that campaigns for the protection of human rights all over the world?
(a) Amnesty International (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organisation (d) UNESCO

Q20. Which of the following is/are the proposed criteria for new permanent member of Security Council?
(a) A major economic power (b) a major military power
(c) A big nation in terms of population (d) All of the above

Q21. Which of the following statement about UNSC is not true?

(a) It no longer represents contemporary political realities.
(b) It is dominated by few western powers
(c) It takes equitable representation.
(d) 5 Permanent members have veto power.

Q22.Which of the following organisations is meant for children?

(a) UNESCO (b) UNICEF
(c) UNHCR (d) UNHRC

Q23. Which of the following oversees those financial institutions and regulations that act at the international level?
(a) WTO (b) IAEA
(c) IMF (d) WHO

Q24.Which one of the following has veto power in the Security Council?
(a) USA (b) India
(c) Pakistan (d) Brazil

Q25. Who among the following has used Veto power the maximum time?
(a) USA (b) China
(c) Russia (d) France

Q26. Which of the following statement support India’s claim for permanent seat in UNSC?
(a) India is the second most populated country,
(b) India is the World’s largest democracy.
(c) India is among the top 10 economic powers in the world.
(d) All of the above.

Q27. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) US power can easily be checked by UN.
(b) US has no influence within UN.
(c) UN was successful in restricting US attacking Afghanistan and Iraq.
(d) None

Q28. The present Secretary General of UN is

(a) Ban-Ki-moon (b) Antonio Guterres
(c) Kufi-Annan (d) ShashiTharoor

Q29. Pick the odd one out

(a) UNESCO (b) Amnesty International
(c) UNICEF (d) International court of justice

Q30. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) There are 5 permanent members of UNSC
(b) US is a substantial contributor to the UN budget
(c) Kofi Annan is the present Secretary General of UN.
(d) UN was a successor to league of Nation

Answers: -
1.(b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b)
23. (c) 24.(a) 25. (c) 26(d) 27(d) 28(b)
29(d) 30(c)
CHAPTER 6 GLOBALISATION
Q1. Globalisation can be
(a) Flow of ideas (b) Flow of goods
(c) Flow of people (d) Any of the above

Q2. Globalisation has ______ dimensions.

(a) Political (b) Economic
(c) Cultural (d) All of the given

Q3. WSF stands for

(a) World Social Force (b) World Social Fund
(c) World Social Forum (d) None

Q4. The first WSF meeting was organized in:

(a) Mumbai in2004 (b) Delhi in2004
(c) Porto Algere in2001 (d) Paris in2001
Q5. Globalisation in India began in
(a)1990 (b)1991
(c) 1992 (d) 1993

Q6. Cultures seeking to buy into dominant American dream is termed as _____of the world
(a) Globalisation (b) McDonaldisation
(c) Burgerisation (d) Politization
.
Q7. Globalisation leads to each culture becoming:
(a) more different (b) more distinctive
(c) more different and distinctive (d) more transparent

Q8. India started opening its economy in

(a) 1951 (b) 1981
(c) 1991 (d) 2001

Q9. Identify the correct statement

(a) Globalization is purely a political phenomenon
(b) Globalization in the world started in 1991
(c) Westernisation is also called Globalization
(d) Globalization is a multidimensional phenomenon

Q10. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Impact of globalization has been uneven.
(b) Developing nations have gained more than Developed nations due to globalisation.
(c) Globalization helps in cultural homogeneity.
(d) Technology helps in the spread of globalization.
Q11. Which of the following is not an Indian MNC?
(a) Haldiram’s (b) Tata Motors
(c) Allahabad Bank (d) Infosys

Q12. Which of the following is not an American MNC?

(a) Mc Donald (b) Amazon
(c) Nokia (d) Apple

Q13. Which of the following is not a Japanese MNC?

(a) Sony (b) Samsung
(c) Honda (d) Suzuki

Q14. Globalisation leads to the rise in Uniform Culture called ______

(a) Cultural teaming (b) Cultural Homogenisation
(c) Cultural bonding (d) None

Q15. Pick the odd one out

(a) Starbucks (b) Donalds
(c) Haldirams (d) Coca Cola

Q16. Which of the following is not an economic consequence of Globalisation?

(a) Flow of goods and services across borders
(b) Economic ruin of weaker nations
(c) Creation of employment
(d) None
Q17. Identify the correct statement
(a) Gains from Globalisation have been Uneven
(b) Globalisation has led to cultural homogeneity
(c) Globalisation also includes movement of ideas
(d) All

Q18. MNCs stands for

(a) Many Nations Company (b) Multi National Country
(c) Multi National Companies (d) None

Q19. Pick the odd statement out

(a) Globalization generates economic growth
(b) Globalization makes rich richer and poor poorer
(c) Globalization helps nations in times of shortages
(d) Globalization helps in technology transfer

Q20. To promote Globalization, WTO was established in the year_____

(a) 1991
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1995

Answers: -
1.(d) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (d)
 POLITICAL SCIENCE – BOOK II
CHAPTER 7 CHALLENGES OF NATION – BUILDING

Q1. When did India get independence?

(a) 1947 (b) 1949
(c) 1952 (d) 1962

Q2. The speech is known as “Tryst with Destiny” is related to:

(a) Sardar Patel (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Pt. Nehru (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q3. What were the consequences of the Partition of India in1947?

(a) Transfer of Population
(b) Refugees Problem
(c) Problem of Minorities
(d) All of these

Q4. Which of the following was not a challenge to nation building after Independence?
(a) Foundation of a United Nation (b) Establishing democracy
(c) Well-being of all (d) Foreign Relation
Q5. Which of the following was `East Pakistan’ before 1971?
(a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh
(c) Burma (d) Sri Lanka

Q6. How many states were created under the state’s reorganisation Act in 1956?
(a) 10 (b) 14
(c) 17 (d) 20

Q7. Under which article special status was given to Jammu &Kashmir?
(a) Art.352 (b) Art.356
(c) Art.360 (d) Art.370

Q8. Which of the following is the recent declared state of India?

(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Telangana (d) Uttaranchal

Q9. How much Muslim population remained in India after partition?

(a) 12% of total (b) 20% of total
(c) 10% of total (d) 50% of total

Q10. When was the State of Nagaland formed?

(a) 1973 (b) 1953
(c) 1963 (d) 1983

Q11. Who played a very crucial role in integration of princely states into India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Sardar Patel
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Q12. Which of the two states were the worst affected by partition of India?
(a) Assam and West Bengal (b) Punjab and Haryana
(c) Punjab and West Bengal (d) Gujarat and Assam

Q13. Who was known as `Frontier Gandhi’?

(a) J.L. Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (d) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

Q14. Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir agreed to sign the instrument of Accession with India on:
(a)October26,1947 (b) January 26, 1947
(c) August15,1947 (d) January 1,1948

Q15.Who wrote the poem `The Dawn of Freedom’ describing pain of partition?
(a) Faiz Ahmed Faiz (b) Amrita Pritam
(c) Mirza Ghalib (d) Nida Fazli

Q16.Which of the following cities became communal zones?

(a) Lahore (b) Kolkata
(c) Amritsar (d) All of given

Q17. Which of the following was not a challenge of nation building?

(a) To shape a nation (b) Establish democracy
(c) Ensure development (d) Develop Weapons

Q18. ‘Today I call Waris Shah’ was written by

(a) Amrita Pritam (b) Waris Shah
(c) Javed Akhtar (d) Faiz
Q19. NWFP stands for
(a) New West Force Province (b) North West Frontier Province
(c) North West Free Province (d) None

Q20. Which of the following are not religious minorities in India?

(a) Jews (b) Hindus
(c) Sikhs (d) Buddhists

Q21. When did assassination of Mahatma Gandhi take place?

(a) 30th Jan 1948 (b) 2nd Oct 1948
(c) 31st Jan 1948 (d) 26th Jan 1948

Q22. Pick the odd one out

(a) Hyderabad (b) Manipur
(c) United Province (d) Junagarh

Q23. The First Home Minister of Independent India was

(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri (b) Sardar Patel
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) M.A Jinnah

Q24. There were _____ princely states in India before independence.

(a) 365 (b) 465
(c) 565 (d) 656

Q25. Sardar Patel faced Key Challenges of Integration in

(a) Hyderabad (b) Junagarh
(c) Kashmir (d) All
Q26. Decision on integration of _____________________ later turned to be a historical political blunder.
(a) Junagadh (b) Bhopal
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kashmir

Q27. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) Establishing democracy was one of the challenges of independent India.
(b) C.Rajgopalachari was the first Governor General of Independent India.
(c) Hyderabad and Junagarh wanted to join Pakistan.
(d) Punjab and Bengal were divided on the basis of religion.

Q28. Who was the ruler of Kashmir in 1947?

(a) Maharaja Sujan Singh
(b) Maharaja Hari Singh
(c) Sheikh Abdullah
(d) Mohammad Bogra

Answers: -
1.(a) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a)
16. (d) 17(d) 18(a) 19(b) 20(b) 21(a) 22(c) 23(b) 24(c) 25(d) 26(d) 27(c) 28(b)
CHAPTER 8 PLANNED DEVELOPMENT

Q1. India follows a ________ economic system.

(a) Capitalist (b) Socialist
(c) Mixed (d) None

Q2. NITI in NITI AAYOG stands for

(a) New Indian Technology Improvement
(b) National Industrial Technology Integration
(c) National Institution for Transforming India
(d) New Institution for Transforming India

Q3. The First Vice Chairperson of NITI AAYOG was

(a) Amit Shah (b) Narendra Modi
(c) Dr. Rajiv Kumar (d) Arvind Panagariya

Q4. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) NITI AAYOG has replaced planning commission.
(b) The objective of NITI AAYOG is to provide the necessary and technical advice to the Union Government.
(c) NITI Aayog acts as a think tank of state governments.
(d) All of the above

Q5. The ________________ is the ex-office chairman of NITI Aayog

(a) Home Minister (b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister (d) Defence Minister
Q6. Which of the following ideologies believe in free competition?
(a) Leftist (b) Rightist
(c) Centrist (d) None

Q7. In India, planning was conceived as a main instrument of:

(a) Political development (b) Cultural development
(c) Social development (d) Socio-economic development

Q8. Jawaharlal Nehru was a supporter of

(a) Capitalism (b) Socialism (c) Both (d) None

Q9. A section of big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal named
(a) Delhi Plan (b) Madras Plan
(c) India Plan (d) Bombay Plan

Q10. The planning commission was set up in

(a) March 1951 (b) Dec 1950
(c) March 1950 (d) Dec 1951

Q11. Who said while drafting the first five years plan ‘India should hasten slowly’?
(a) C. Rajgopalachari (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.N. Raj (d) Dr.Rajendra Prasad

Q12. The first five year plan focussed more on

(a) Industrial Sector (b) Agricultural Sector
(c) Service Sector (d) All of the given

Q13. Which of the following was the main goal of India’s economic planning?
(a) Equity (b) Modernisation
(c) Growth (d) All

Q14. Who was the `leader of second five year plan’?

(a) J.L. Nehru (b) K.N.Raj
(c) P.C. Mahalanois (d) None

Q15. 20 Points Programme was initiated by:

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajeev Gandhi (d) Narsimha Rao

Q16. The Slogan of `Garibi Hatao’ was given in:

(a) 1969 (b) 1970
(c) 1971 (d) 1975

Q17. India adopted a ____________ economy system

(a) Centrally planned (b) Capitalist
(c) Mixed (d) None

Q18. Identity the incorrect statement

(a) Planning commission of India opted for 5 years plans
(b) First Five year actual plan document was released in December 1951.
(c) Tertiary Sector was given utmost attention in the 1stFive year plan.
(d) Second five year plan was alleged to be ‘Urban bias’

Q19. Which of the following is not an achievement of early phase of planning?

(a) Mega dams (b) Infrastructure development
(c) Establishment of heavy industry (d) Removal of Poverty

Q20. Which of the following is not a land reform?

(a) Consolidation of Landholdings (b) Land ceiling
(c) Cooperative farming (d) None

Answers: -
1.(c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13(d) 14(c) 15(b)
16(c) 17(c) 18(c) 19(d) 20(d)
CHAPTER 9 INDIA’S FOREIGN POLICY

Q1. Israel gained independence in the year _____.

(a) 1948 (b) 1947
(c) 1946 (d) 1945

Q2. Israel Embassy opened in India in the year______.

(a) 1947 (b) 1950
(c) 1995 (d) 1992

Q3. India-Israel relations have reached great heights under ______.

(a) Dr. Manmohan Singh (b) Mr. Narendra Modi
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Q4.Which of the following statements is true about India’s Nuclear Program?

(a) India’s nuclear policy has been peace oriented?
(b) India is committed to ensuring its membership in the NSG.
(c) India opposed unjust nuclear treaties like CTBT and NPT.
(d) All of the above

Q5. Which of the following was not a founder member state of NAM?
(a) Ghana (b) India
(c) Egypt (d) China

Q6. Which of the following was not a major objective of Nehru’s foreign Policy?
(a) To preserve the hard – earned Sovereignty
(b) Protect territorial Integrity
(c) Promote rapid economic development
(d) None

Q7. Afro Asian Conference in 1956 was held in

(a) Dhaka (b) Delhi
(c) Belgrade (d) Cairo

Q8. In which year did China took over the control of Tibet?
(a) 1951 (b) 1954
(c) 1952 (d) 1950

Q9.Which is the largest refugee settlement of Tibetans in India?

(a) Delhi (b) Shimla
(c) Dehradun (d) Dharamshala

Q10. Which of the following areas are claimed by China within Indian Territory?
(a) Aksai Chin region (b) A part of Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

Q11. Who was the Defence Minister during Indo-China war 1962?
(a) J.L.Nehru (b) V.Krishnamenon
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) George Fernandes
Q12. One of the main principles of India’s foreign policy was/is:
(a) Formation of Military block (b) Non-alignment
(c) Expansion of territory (d) None

Q13. Bandung Conference was held in the year:

(a) 1954 (b) 1955
(c) 1956 (d) 1957

Q14. China made a sudden attack on India in:

(a) August,1962 (b) September,1962
(c) October,1962 (d) September,1965

Q15. India is one of the Founder of:

(a) Baghdad Pact (b) NATO
(c) Non-alignment (d) None

Q16. The Principles of Panchsheel were signed between the Heads of the Govts. of
(a) India and China (b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Japan (d) India and Nepal

Q17. CTBT stands for

(a) Continuous Test Ban Treaty (b) Close Test Ban Treaty
(c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (d) None

Q18. India’s first nuclear test had taken place in the year
(a) 1954 (b) 1964
(c) 1974 (d) 1984
Q19. Identify the incorrect statement
(a) In 1956 Britain attacked Egypt
(b) In 1956 USSR invaded Hungary
(c) First Summit of NAM was held in India
(d) In 1950 China took control of Tibet.

Q20. India and Israel have started cooperating in the fields of

(a) Security and Defence (b) Water and energy
(c) Space research (d) All of the above

Answers:-
1(a) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (d) 5(d) 6(d) 7(c) 8(d) 9(d) 10(c) 11(b) 12(b) 13(b)
14(c) 15(c) 16(a) 17(c) 18(c) 19(c) 20(d)
CHAPTER 10
PARTIES AND PARTY SYSTEMS IN INDIA

Q1. When was Indian Constitution adopted?

(a) 24th Nov 1950 (b) 26th Nov 1949
(c) 26th Jan 1949 (d) 26th Jan 1950

Q2. The Country’s first general elections were held in

(a) 1950 (b) 1951
(c) 1952 (d) 1953

Q3. In 1952 only ____% of voters were literate

(a) 25% (b) 15%
(c) 38% (d) 70%
Q4. In 1957, which party formed the government in Kerala?
(a) Jan Sangh
(b) C.P.I
(c) Congress
(d) Socialist Party

Q5. EVM stands for

(a) Electronic Vending Machine (b) Early Voting Machine
(c) Easy Voting Machine (d) Electronic Voting Machine

Q6. Which of the following States were not won by the Congress in first general elections?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) Kerala (d) All of the given

Q7. When was the Socialist Party formed in India?

(a) 1948 (b) 1952
(c) 1955 (d) 1960

Q8. Who became the Prime Minister of India after the first general election?
(a) Pt. Nehru (b) Sardar Patel
(c) Smt. Indira Gandhi (d) Mahatma Gandhi

Q9. Which one of the following is not a merit of single party system?
(a) Stable government (b) Strong government
(c) Slow decisions (d) Unity

Q10. One party system is generally found in-

(a) Democratic countries
(b)Countries with constitutional monarchy
(c) Liberal States
(d) Aristocratic

Q11. Which of the following is not a demerit of single party system?

(a)Too democratic (b) No individual liberty
(c) Hero worship (d) State is taken as an end in itself.

Q12. Which of the following parties were not a part of the Congress?
(a) Socialist Party (b) Communist Party
(c) Jana Sangh (d) Swatantra Party

Q13. _______ was the founder of Bhartiya Jana Sangh.

(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b)Mr. Gadgil
(c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

Q14. The group opposing the Congress from within the party were called _____
(a) Extremists (b) Factions
(c) Revolutionaries (d) Moderates

Q15. Identify the incorrect statement

(a) At the time of 1st General elections there were around 17crore eligible voters
(b) Only 15% of Indian voters were literate at the time of 1st General Elections
(c) 572 members of Lok Sabha had to be elected in the 1st General Elections
(d) Names of 40 lakh women were not added in the voting list during 1st General Elections.

Q16. CPI stands for

(a) Cool party of India (b) Communist party of India
(c) Congress Party of India (d) Courageous Party of India

Q17. Pick the odd one out

(a) China (b) India
(c) Cuba (d) Syria

Q18. Identify the correct statement

(a) In 1952 Jana Sanga managed to win only 3 seats
(b) Oppositions within congress were called ‘Factions’.
(c) Communists within congress parted ways from congress in 1941
(d) All

Q19. During Janta Government there was stiff competition among three leaders for the post of Prime Minister. They were:
(a) Morarji Desai, Charan Singh and JagjivanRam.
(b) H.D. Devegoda, Atal Bihari Vajpayee and JaiprakashNarayan.
(c) Morarji Desai, Charan Singh and IndiraGandhi.
(d)Charan Singh, Morarji Desai and Atal BihariVajpayee.

Q20. Lok Nayak Jaiprakash Narayan was a hero of the 1942:

(a) People’smovement (b) Women’smovement
(c) Quit India movement (d) Bihar movement.

Q21. Who was the leader of Gujarat movement in 1974?

(a) J.P. Narayan (b)CharuMajumdar
(c) George Fernandes (d) Morarji Desai

Q22. Who among the following played a leading role in Bihar movement in 1974?
(a) Morarji Desai (b)Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) J.P. Narayan (d) All

Q23. Who headed the Railway Strike of 1974?

(a) J.P. Narayan (b) AtalBihari Vajpayee
(c) Morarji Desai (d) George Fernandes

Q24. Which party won the general elections in 1977?

(a) Congress
(b) Janata Party
(c) B.J.P.
(d) C.P.I.

Q25. Pick the odd one out

(a) Aam Aadmi party
(b) NCP
(c) AITMC
(d) BJP

Answers:-
1(b) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5(d) 6(c) 7(b) 8(a) 9(c) 10(b) 11(a) 12(c) 13(d)
14(b) 15(c) 16(b) 17(b) 18(d) 19(a) 20(c) 21(d) 22(c) 23(d) 24(b) 25(a)

CHAPTER 11
Democratic Resurgence

Q1. Which leader called for ‘Total Revolution’ after Independence?

(a) Morarji Desai (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia (d) Jaya Prakash Narayan

Q2. Jaya Prakash Narayan believed in

(a) Communitarian Socialism (b) Capitalism
(c) Dictatorship (d) Political Reservation

Q3. Who associated socialism with Democracy?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Jaya Prakash Narayan (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Q4. Which of the following is not one of the four pillars of politics as well as socialism?
(a) Centre (b) People
(c) Region (d) Village

Q5. According to Lohia, the ‘party of socialism’ should have 3 symbols- Spade, Vote and
(a) Knife (b) Flag
(c) Gun (d) Prison

Q6. The Philosophy of Integral Humanism is based on

(a) Primacy of whole, not part
(b) Supremacy of Dharma
(c) Autonomy of Society
(d) All

Q7. According to social scientists, there have been _____ democratic upsurges in past independence History of India.
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
Q8. Which of the following is not a part of life western myth about the success of democracy?
(a) Modernisation (b) Access to Media
(c) Money (d) Urbanisation

Q9. According to social scientists the ‘Second Democratic Upsurge’ happened during _____.
(a) 1970s (b) 1990s
(c) 1980s (d) 1960s

Q10. Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation paved the way for the _______.
(a) First Democratic Upsurge
(b) Second Democratic Upsurge
(c) Third Democratic Upsurge
(d) None

Q11. Who passed a judgement declaring Indira Gandhi’s election to the LokSabha Invalid?
(a) Justice Jagmohan Lal Sinha (b) Justice A.N. Ray
(c) Justice S.N.Sharma (d) None

Q12. Under which Article had emergency been declared?

(a) Article 355 (b) Article 370
(c) Article 352 (d) Article 350

Q13. When was Emergency declared?

(a)20th June 1975 (b) 25th June 1975
(c) 20th Aug 1975 (d) 25th July 1975
Q14. Name the Deputy Prime Minister during 1967-69:
(a)Morarji Desai (b) Indira Gandhi
(c)Charan Singh (d) Jaiprakash Narayan.

Q15. When was Shah Commission appointed?

(a) May 1976 (b) May 1977
(c) May 1978 (d) May 1979

Q16. In which year internal emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi?

(a) 1965 (b) 1971
(c) 1975 (d) 1980.

Q17. The first opposition government was formed in centre in 1977 under a coalition headed by:
(a)Lok Dal (b) Congress(O)
(c)Janta Party (d) Bhartiya Janta Party.

Q18. The first Prime Minister belonging to the non-Congress party was:
(a) A.B.Vajpayee (b) Morarji Desai
(c)Charan Singh (d)H.D.Devegoda.

Q19. Who introduced the concept of ‘committed bureaucracy and judiciary’ in India?
(a) Smt. Indira Gandhi (b) Sh. Morarji Desai
(c) Sh. ChandraShekhar (d) None of these.

Q20. During 1977-79 the Prime Minister of India was:

(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Charan Singh
(c)Chandra Shekhar (d) Morarji Desai
Q21. `Internal’ Emergency in India can now be declared only on the grounds of
(a) Financial disturbance (b) Political disturbance
(c) Armed rebellion (d) All of above

Q22. Elections after emergency were held in

(a) Jan 1977 (b) June 1977
(c) March 1977 (d) Dec 1977

Q23. Who was the leader of a separate party named `Congress for democracy’?
(a) Morarji Desai (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Jagjivan Ram (d) None

Q24. Congress Party managed only ________ seats in Lok Sabha election in 1977.
(a) 200 (b) 100
(c) 120 (d)154

Q25. In which of the following state, Congress did not lose in 1977?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
(c) Orissa (d) All of the given

Q26. In 1980 Lok Sabha election, Congress party managed to win by winning _______ seats.
(a) 200 (b) 370
(c) 353 (d) 400

Q27. Which of the following constitutional amendments equipped President to impose National Emergency on any particular part of I
(a) 38th (b) 40th
(c) 42nd (d) 62nd

Q28. How soon imposition of National Emergency should be approved by the Parliament?
(a) 1 month (b) 2 months
(c) 6 months (d) 3 months

Q29. Which kind of emergency will be imposed in the case of war, external aggression and armed rebellion?
(a) 356 (b) 352
(c) 360 (d) None of the above

Q30. How many times have the financial emergency imposed in India?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) Never

Q31.Which of the following fundamental rights do not get abolished automatically during National Emergency?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article20
(c) Article21 (d) Both (b) and (c)

Q32. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are suspended automatically during National Emergency declared on the basis of war or ext
(b) The Fundamental Rights of Article 19 can not be suspended in the case of National Emergency declared on the basis of armed reb
(c) Article 19 automatically revives when the National Emergency is over.
(d) When a National Emergency is enforced, the Fundamental Rights of Article 19 are repealed after the President's order

Q33. How many times have the National Emergency been implemented in India?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Q34. Who among the following termed Art. 356 as a “safety valve”?
(a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) SardarVallabhbhai Patel

Q35. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state—
(a) Parliament (b) Lok Sabha
(c) State Legislature (d) Council

Answers:-
1(d) 2(a) 3(b) 4(b) 5(d) 6(d) 7(b) 8(c) 9(c) 10(c) 11(b) 12(c) 13(b)
14(a) 15(c) 16(c) 17(c) 18(b) 19(a) 20(d) 21(c) 22(c) 23(c) 24(d) 25(d) 26(c)
27(c) 28(a) 29(b) 30(d) 31(d) 32(d) 33(b) 34(b) 35(a)

CHAPTER 12
Indian Politics, Trends and Developments

Q1. Which party got absolute majority in the Lok Sabha elections 2014?
(a) Congress (b) NCP
(c) BJP (d) BSP

Q2. __________ is the coalition with BJP as the dominating party.

(a) UPA (b) United Front
(c) Janta Dal (d) NDA

Q3. The BJP won _________ Lok Sabha seats on its own and the coalition won _____ setas.
(a) 280,330 (b) 280,350
(c) 303,330 (d) 303,350

Q4. Pick the odd one out

(a) Jan Dhan Yojana (b) MGNREGA
(c) Ayushman Bharat Yojana (d) Ujjawala Yojana

Q5. In which year was Janta Dal formed?

(a)1975 (b)1982
(c)1985 (d) 1988

Q6. Political parties are:

(a) Essential to democracy.
(b) Not essential for democracy.
(c) Essential for totalitarian government.
(d) Not essential either for democracy or totalitarian government.

Q7. Who among the following was not the Prime Minister of India ever?
(a) A.B.Vajpayee (b) I. K. Gujaral
(c) Narasimha Rao (d) None

Q8. UPA Stands for

(a) United Political Alliance (b) Union of Provincial Alliance
(c) United Progressive Alliance (d) United political Association
Q9. How many seats were secured by the congress in the LokSabha election held in 1989?
(a) 300 (b)250
(c) 210 (d)197

Q10. Who headed the coalition government of 1989?

(a) Chandra Shekhar (b) V.P.Singh
(c) I.K. Gujaral (d) Rajiv Gandhi

Q11. NDA stands for –

(a) National Development Alliance (b) National Democratic Alliance
(c) New Development Association (d) None

Q12. Which political party emerged as the single largest party after 2004 elections?
(a)The Congress (b) The BJP
(c) The Janta Dal (d) The United Front

Q13. After the 2004 parliamentary elections, a coalition government known as UPA was formed at the consisting of:
(a) 17PoliticalParties (b) 15 Political Parties
(c) 12 Political Parties (d) 24 Political Parties

Q14. Which political group emerged as the biggest group after 2004 parliamentary elections?
(a)TheNDA (b) TheUnitedFront
(c) The Left Front (d) The UPA

Q15. Who headed the central government after 1998 parliamentary elections?
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (b) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(c) H.D.DeveGowda (d) Manmohan Singh
Q16. In which year did Left and B.J.P. supported the National Front government?
(a) 1977 (b)1985
(c)1989 (d)1990

Q17. Who was the PM for thirteen days?

(a) I. K.Gujral (b) A.B. Vajpayee
(c) Narendra Modi (d) Rajiv Gandhi

Q18. Which one of the following is the most significant aspect of the failure to develop a healthy federal system in India?
(a) Regionalism (b) Communalism
(c) Socialism (d) None of these

Q19. Which party got majority in 2014 and2019 LokSabha elections?

(a) Congress (b) Samajwadi Party
(c) Janta Dal (d) BJP

Q20. H.D Deve Gowda was the PM candidate of United Front Government with the support of ____________ party in the centre.
(a) Congress
(b) BJP
(c) AAP
(d) None

Q21. Pick the odd one out

(a) Indira Gandhi
( b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(d) Narendra Modi
Q22. Who was the PM of India from April 1997 to March 1998?
(a) A.B. Vajpayee
(b) I.K.Gujral
(c) H.D. Deve Gowda
(d) V.P. Singh

Answers:-
1(c) 2(d) 3(d) 4(b) 5(d) 6(a) 7(d) 8(c) 9(d) 10(b) 11(b) 12(a) 13(c) 14(d)
15(a) 16(c) 17(b) 18(a) 19(d) 20(a) 21(d) 22(b)

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