Physical World

1
Chapter

1 SCIENCE 5 PRINCIPAL THRUSTS 7 FUNDAMENTAL FORCES IN NATURE

Systematic attempt to understand natural phenomena Unification Strong nuclear force
in as much detail and depth as possible, and use the To explain diverse physical phenomenon in terms of few concepts and laws.
m Acts between nucleons
knowledge so gained to predict, modify and control Reduction
m Short range (Nuclear size » 10–15 m)
phenomena To derive the properties of a larger and a more complex problem or system
into simpler constituents m Relative strength = 1
m Mediating particles are mesons
2 SCIENTIFIC METHOD 6 PRINCIPAL DOMAINS Electromagnetic force
The scientific method involves several interconnected Macroscopic domain m Force due to virtue of charges
steps: Phenomenon at laboratory, terrestrial and celestial scale Mainly dealt by
m Both attractive and repulsive
m Systematic observations classical physics including mechanics, electrodynamics, optics and
thermodynamics m Range is infinite
m Controlled experiments, m Relative strength = 10–2
Microscopic domain
m Qualitative and quantitative reasoning Constitution and structure of matter at the minute scales of atoms and nuclei. m Mediating particles are photons
m Mathematical modelling, prediction and verification Mainly dealt by quantum physics Weak Nuclear Force
or falsification of theories m Between some elementary particles particularly
8 NATURE OF PHYSICAL LAWS electron and neutrino
m Conservation of energy : In an isolated system, total energy remains m Very short range (» 10–16 m)
3 HYPOTHESIS AND AXIOMS
conserved.
A hypothesis is a supposition without assuming that m Relative strength = 10–13
m m Conservation of linear momentum : In an isolated system, total linear
it is true. momentum remains conserved. m Mediating particles are bosons

m An axiom is a self-evident truth while a model is a m Conservation of angular momentum : In an isolated system, total Gravitational Force
angular momentum remains conserved. m Force of attraction by virtue of mass
theory proposed to explain observed phenomena.
m Symmetry of nature with respect to translation in time is equivalent to the m Always attractive in nature
law of conservation of energy
m Symmetry of the laws of nature with respect to translation in space gives m It is weakest fundamental force
4 PHYSICS
rise to conservation of linear momentum m Range is infinite
Study of the basic laws of nature and manifestation in m Isotropy of space (no intrinsically preferred direction in space) underlies m Relative strength = 10–36
different natural phenomenon the law of conservation of angular momentum m Mediating particle are graviton
 2 Physical World NCERT Maps

1. Natural sciences does not include 5. Among the following, choose the incorrect (1) A
statement [NCERT Pg. 3]
[NCERT Pg. 2] (2) B
(1) The microscopic domain of physics (3) C
(1) Physics
deals with the constitution and structure
(2) Chemistry (4) D
of matter at the minute scales of atoms
(3) Biology and nuclei 8. Among the following scientists, the one who
is credited for the contribution to theory of
(4) Social Science (2) Classical Physics deals mainly
condensed matter is [NCERT Pg. 6]
with macroscopic phenomena and
2. Principal thrusts in Physics are (1) Ernest Orlando Lawrence
includes subjects like Mechanics,
[NCERT Pg. 2] Electrodynamics, Optics and (2) C.V. Raman

(1) Unification Thermodynamics (3) Ernest Rutherford

(3) Both of the above (4) Lev Davidovich Landau
(2) Reduction
(4) None of the above 9. Full form of LASER is [NCERT Pg. 7]
(3) Both (1) and (2)
6. Phenomenon of neutron induced fission of (1) Light amplification by shorted extraction
(4) None of the above of rays
uranimum, which serves as a basis of
3. Attempt to explain diverse physical nuclear power reactors and nuclear (2) Light amplification by stimulated
phenomenon in terms of a few concepts and weapons, was discovered by [NCERT Pg. 5] emission of radiation
laws is called [NCERT Pg. 2] (3) Long absorption of silent extraction of
(1) Hahn and Meitner (2) Einstein
(1) Unification radiation
(3) Neils Bohr (4) Nicholas Tesla
(4) None of the above
(2) Reduction
7. Among the following, the scientists are
10. Choose the incorrect statement among the
(3) Fusion matched with their major contribution or
following in relation to the electromagnetic
(4) All of the above discovery. Which among the following is waves. [NCERT Pg. 8]
incorrectly matched? [NCERT Pg. 5]
4. Classical Physics mainly deals with (1) Electromagnetic force do not require
A Archimedes Principle of intervening medium
[NCERT Pg. 3] Buoyancy
(2) They act over large distances
(1) Microscopic phenomenon B Christiaan Wave Theory of
Huygens Light (3) Electromagnetic force is weaker than the
(2) Macroscopic phenomenon gravitational forces
C J.C.Bose X-rays
(3) Atomic phenomenon D Albert Theory of Relativity (4) Electromagnetc forces may be
(4) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle Einstein attractive or repulsive
NCERT Maps Physical World 3

1. Newton, under a common law of gravitation, 4. J.J. Thomson is credited for his discovery of 8. The laws of nature are _______ everywhere
unified _______ and celestial domains. ________ [NCERT Pg. 5]
in the universe. [NCERT Pg. 12]
[NCERT Pg. 10] 5. Hideki Yukawa is known for his contribution
towards ________ forces [NCERT Pg. 6]
2. Symmetry of nature with respect to 9. There are ________ fundamental forces in
translation in time is equivalent to law of 6. _______ was discovered by E.O. Lawrence
nature. [NCERT Pg. 10]
conservation of ________. [NCERT Pg. 12] [NCERT Pg. 6]
3. Symmetry of nature with respect to 7. Isotropy of space (no intrinsically preferred 10. Fundamental forces which has shortest
translation in space is equivalent to law of direction in space) underlies the law of
conservation of ________ [NCERT Pg. 12] conservation of ________ [NCERT Pg. 12] range is ________ force. [NCERT Pg. 9]

  
 2
Units and Measurements Chapter

1 UNITS 3 MEASUREMENT 4 MEASUREMENT OF MASS 5 MEASUREMENT OF TIME

OF LENGTH SI unit is kilogram (kg)
Measurement of any physical quantity involves m m Atomic standard of time: This is based on
m Large distance is measured Unified atomic mass unit (u). It is used to
comparison with certain basic arbitrarily chosen m caesium clock, uncertainty gained overtime by
by parallax method. measure mass of atoms and molecules 13
internationally accepted reference called units. Basis caesium atomic clock is less than 1 part in 10
m Parallax angle = m 1 u = 1/12 × mass of one C-12 atom.
Classification Distance –27 (loss of 3 ms in one year)
–2 m 1 u = 1.66 × 10 kg –24
m 1° = 1.745 × 10 rad –30 m Time span of most unstable particle 10 s
–6 m Electron mass 10 kg 8
Fundamental units Derived units m 1¢¢ = 4.85 × 10 rad 25 m Travel time for light from nearest star 10 s
m Measurement of very small m Earth mass 10 kg
17
Independent of Expressed as combination of Observable universe
55
10 kg m Age of universe 10 s
distance like size of molecule m
each other fundamental units uses, Optical microscope,
m A complete set of these units, both the base units Electronic microscope and 6 ACCURACY and PRECISION
Tunneling microscope m Every measurement by any measuring instrument contains some uncertainty called error.
and derived units is known as system of units. 11
m 1 AU = 1.496 × 10 m m Accuracy of a measurement is a measure of how close is the measured value to true value.
m Old system of units: CGS, FPS and MKS system. 15
m In CGS fundamental units are centimeter, gram and m 1 ly = 9.46 × 10 m m Precision tells us to what resolution the quantity is measured.
16
second. m 1 parsec = 3.08 × 10 m m It is not necessary that more precise value is more accurate too.
–15
m In FPS fundamental units are foot, pound and m Size of proton 10 m
7
second. m Radius of Earth 10 m 7 ERRORS IN MEASUREMENT
26
m In MKS fundamental units are meter, kilogram and m Distance to boundary 10 m Errors
second. of observable universe
Systematic Random
2 SI SYSTEM OF UNITS (INTERNATIONAL SYSTEM OF UNITS)
m Presently accepted internationally for measurement is SI system of units, revised
Instrumental Experimental Personal
in 2018. Certain rules to follow with standard symbols
m It is decimal system thus, conversion within system is easy and convenient m Every measurement is approximate due to errors.
m It has 7 base unit and 2 supplementary units m Random errors occurs irregularly.
m Least count error is smallest value that can be measured by instrument (occurs within both
Base Units Supplementary Units systematic and random errors).
S.N. Quantity Unit Symbol S.N. Quantity Unit Symbol S(|ai – amean|)
m Absolute error =
1. Plane angle radian rad n
1. Length meter m Damean
2. Solid angle steradian sr m Relative error =
2. Mass kilogram kg amean
3. Time second s Damean
m Percentage error = a × 100
4. Electric current ampere A r mean
ds Combination of errors
5. Thermodynamic kelvin K
temperature dq
O
dq = ds/r radian
6. Amount of mole mol r Sum and difference Product or Quotient
substance dW dA DZ = DA + DB DZ DA DB
O = +
7. Luminous candela cd Z A B
a b
intensity AB Dx DA DB DC
2 m If X = c then % =a% +b% +c%
dW = dA/r steradian C x A B C
NCERT Maps Units and Measurements 5

8 SIGNIFICANT FIGURES 10 DIMENSIONAL FORMULAE AND SI UNITS OF VARIOUS PHYSICAL QUANTITIES

m Reliable digits plus first uncertain digit are known as
S. Physical Quantity Relation with other quantities Dimensional Formula SI Unit
significant digit.
No.
m A choice of change of different units does not change
2 –2 2
number of significant digits. Force × (distance) [MLT ] [L ] 2 –2
1. Gravitational constant ‘G’ = [M–1L3T–2] N m kg
m All non-zero digits are significant. Mass × mass M×M
m All zero between two non-zero digits are significant. –2
Force MLT –2
m The terminal zeros in a number without a decimal point are 2. Stress 2 = [ML T ]
–1 –2
Nm
Area L
not significant.
–1 –2
m The trailing zeros in a number with decimal point are Stress ML T –2
significant. 3. Coefficient of elasticity = [ML–1T–2] Nm
Strain 1
Rules of Arithmatic Operations with Significant Figures –2
m Addition/Substraction: Final result contains as many Force MLT –2 0 –2 –1
4. Surface tension = MT = [ML T ] Nm
decimal places as in number with least decimal places. Length L
–2
e.g. 3.307 + 0.52 = 3.83 Force × distance MLT × L
–2
N m or
–1 1
m Multiplication/Division: Result contains as many 5. Coefficient of viscosity 2 –1
= [ML T– ] Pa s or
Area × velocity L × LT
significant figures as in number with least number of decapoise
significant figures. 2 –2
E Energy ML T 2 –1
e.g. 4.11/1.2 = 3.4 6. Planck's constant 'h' = –1
= [ML T ] Js
n Frequency T
Rounding off
–1
m Preceding digit is raised by 1 if insignificant digit to be Velocity LT –1 0 0 1 –1
dropped is more than 5 and left unchanged of latter is less 7. Velocity gradient = T = [M L T– ] s
Distance L
than 5. –1 –2
Pressure ML T
m If insignificant digit is 5 then preceding digit is left 8. Pressure gradient = [ML T– ]
–2 2
Pa m
–1

unchanged if its even and uncreased by 1 if it is odd. Distance L

9 DIMENSIONAL ANALYSIS

Dimensions Dimensional Homogeneity Applications Limitations of Dimensional

m Nature of physical equation principle Analysis
m The expression which Physical quantities m Dimensional analysis is useful in
quantity is determined
shows how and which of represented by Checking dimensional Deducing relations among deducing relations among inter
by its dimension.
the base quantities symbols on both consistency of equations physical quantities. dependent physical quantities but
m The dimensions of
represent the dimension sides of a m It is based on homogeneity m We should know the dimensional constant can not be
physical quantity are of physical quantity is mathematical law. An equation is dependence of physical determined.
powers to which base called dimensional m It can test dimensional validity but not
equation must dimensionally correct if quantity on other upto
quantities are raised to formula. exact relationship between physical
have same dimension of fundamental three physical quantities
represent it. m An equation is obtained quantities having same dimensions.
by equating physical dimensions. quantities of each term on and product type of
m The dimension of time m It does not distinguish between the

in speed is –1. quantity with its left side of equation is equal dependence physical quantities having same
dimensional formula. to that on right hand side. dimensions.
0 2 0
m For example [A] = [M L T ]
 6 Units and Measurements NCERT Maps

1. Choose the correct option. [NCERT Pg. 22] 1 7. Two resistors of resistances R1 = 300 ± 3
(3) of the thermodynamic
273.16 ohm and R2 = 200 ± 2 ohm are connected in
(1) A most precise measurement may be
temperature of triple point of water parallel. The equivalent resistance of parallel
most accurate combination with error is [NCERT Pg. 37]
1
(2) A most precise measurement will (4) of the thermodynamic temperature (1) [120 ± 1.8] ohm (2) [120 ± 1] ohm
273
necessarily be most accurate (3) [120 ± 1.6] ohm (4) [120 ± 2.0] ohm
of triple point of mercury
(3) A most precise measurement will be less 8. If percentage error in measurement of
accurate 4. 1′′ (second of arc) in radian is
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and
(approximately) [NCERT Pg. 19]
4% respectively, then percentage error in
(4) A most accurate measurement will
(1) 5.85 × 10–6 rad (2) 8.55 × 10–6 rad A2B1/2
necessarily be most precise
measurement of z = is
2. 1 metre is the length of path travelled by light
(3) 5.85 × 10–5 rad (4) 4.85 × 10–6 rad C1/3 D1/4
in vacuum during a time interval of 5. The diameter of sun is 1.39 × 109 m. The [NCERT Pg. 27]
[NCERT Pg. 17] distance of sun from earth is 1.496 × 1011 m. (1) 5%
The angular diameter of sun is
1 (2) 4%
(1) of a second [NCERT Pg. 19]
299, 972, 458 (3) 6%
1 (1) 1290′′
(2) of a second (4) 8%
299, 792, 548 (2) 9210′′ 9. The number of insignificant zeros in
1 0.0048050 [NCERT Pg. 28]
(3) of a second (3) 2190′
299, 792, 458
(1) 1
1 (4) 1920′′
(4) of a second (2) 2
299, 792, 854 6. The measured length of two rods are l1 = 30
cm ± 0.5 cm and l2 = 20 cm + 0.1 cm. The (3) 3
3. The kelvin is the fraction [NCERT Pg. 17]
percentage error in difference of length of (4) 4
1 rods is [NCERT Pg. 26]
(1) of the thermodynamic temperature 10. The value of (3.8 × 103 + 3.5 × 102) with
273
(1) 6% regards to significant figure is
of triple point of water
(2) 4% [NCERT Pg. 30]
1
(2) of the thermodynamic temperature (3) 5% (1) 7.3 × 105 (2) 4.2 × 103
312
of triple point of water (4) 3% (3) 4.15 × 103 (4) 7.3 × 103
NCERT Maps Units and Measurements 7

11. The value of gravitational constant is 1.93 s, 1.99 s, 2.06 s, 2.08 s and 1.95 s. A (1) [M], [LT–1]
N × m2 more accurate way to write the
G = 6.67 × 10–11 . Suppose we (2) [M], [L2T–2]
2 measurement with error is [NCERT Pg. 25]
kg
(3) [M½], [L2T–2]
employ a new system of units in which unit (1) (2.00 ± 0.05) s (2) (2.03 ± 0.06) s
(4) [M½], [LT–1]
of mass is α kg, the unit of length β m and (3) (2.0 ± 0.06) s (4) (2.03 ± 0.1) s
the unit of time is γ s. The value of 18. Parsec is a unit of
15. Each side of a cube is measured to be
gravitational constant in terms of new units [NCERT Pg. 21]
6.372 m. The total surface area of cube with
is [NCERT Pg. 35]
appropriate significant figures is (1) Distance
(1) 6.67 × 10–11 α β–3 γ2
[NCERT Pg. 32] (2) Velocity
(2) 6.67 × 10–11 α–1 β3 γ–2
(1) 2.5 × 102 m2 (2) 2 × 102 m2 (3) Time
(3) 6.67 × 10–11 α β3 γ–2
(3) 243.6 m2 (4) 251.3207 m2 (4) Angle
(4) 6.67 × 10–11 α–1 β–3 γ2
16. Choose the correct statement 19. If the size of atom is in the range of 10–10 m
12. In Cesium clock 1 second is the time in
[NCERT Pg. 33] to 10–9 m is scaled up to the tip of sharp pin
which cesium – 133 atom, vibrate between
(assume tip of pin to be in the range of
two hyperfine levels [NCERT Pg. 22] (1) A dimensionally correct equation need
10–6 to 10–5 m). Roughly, size of nucleus is
(1) 9, 292, 631, 770 times not be an actually correct equation
[NCERT Pg. 20]
(2) 9, 192, 361, 770 times (2) A dimensionally correct equation may be
an actually correct equation (1) 0.1 Å
(3) 9, 192, 136, 770 times
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may (2) 0.01 Å
(4) 9, 192, 631, 770 times
be correct (3) 0.001 Å
13. Least count error belongs to the category of
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) 10 Å
[NCERT Pg. 24]
17. A famous relation in physics with many 20. In a screw gauge, each main scale division
(1) Random error only
printing errors, relates the moving mass 'm' is 1 mm and there are 200 divisions on the
(2) Systematic error only with rest mass for a moving object with circular scale. The least count of screw
(3) Neither systematic error nor-random n02 gauge is [NCERT Pg. 35]
speed v is printed as m = . The
error b
1− (1) 0.05 mm
(4) Systematic and random error both c2
(2) 0.005 mm
dimensional formula of n0 and b are
14. A student measures the period of oscillation
respectively (c is speed of light) (3) 0.05 cm
of a simple pendulum in successive
measurements, the reading turn out to be [NCERT Pg. 36] (4) 0.005 cm
 8 Units and Measurements NCERT Maps

1. The value of 1° is ________ rad. 9. Least count is the ________ value that can 15. The dimensions of a physical quantity are
[NCERT Pg. 19] be measured by the measuring instrument. the ________ to which the base quantities
2. The value of 2′ is ________ rad. [NCERT Pg. 24] are raised to represent that quantity.
10. When two quantities are subtracted, the [NCERT Pg. 31]
[NCERT Pg. 19]
absolute error in the final result is the sum of 16. The trailing zero(s) in a number with a
3. Speed is a ________ quantity.
________ in the individual quantities. decimal point are ________.
[NCERT Pg. 17]
[NCERT Pg. 26] [NCERT Pg. 28]
4. 1 second is the duration of 9192631770
11. When the two quantities are multiplied or 17. In ________, the final result should be
periods of radiation corresponding to the
divided, the relative error in the result is the reported in least number of significant figure
transition between two hyperfine level of
sum of the ________ in the multipliers. as there in the original number.
ground state of the ________ atom.
[NCERT Pg. 26]
[NCERT Pg. 17] [NCERT Pg. 29]
5. The indirect method used to measure large 12. The result of a measurement should be
reported in a way that indicates the 18. The number of significant figures in
distances is ________ method.
________ of measurement. 1.67 × 10–27 kg are ________.
[NCERT Pg. 18]
[NCERT Pg. 27] [NCERT Pg. 35]
6. 1 parsec is the distance at which the
average radius of ________ subtends an 13. A choice of change of different units does
m2 cm2
angle of ________. [NCERT Pg. 21] not change the ________ of significant 19. h ≈ 6.6 × 10−34 kg =________ g .
s s
7. 1 Fermi equals to ____ m. [NCERT Pg. 21] digits in a measurement. [NCERT Pg. 28]
[NCERT Pg. 35]
8. The efficient caesium atomic clock are so 14. In ________, the final result should be
reported in least number of decimal places 20. The value of (4.2 × 10–3 – 5.4 × 10–4) =
accurate that uncertainty in time realisation
in used quantities. [NCERT Pg. 29] ________. [NCERT Pg. 29]
as ________. [NCERT Pg. 22]

  
 Motion in a Straight Line
3
Chapter

1 FRAME OF REFERENCE 4 VELOCITY

m A rectangular coordinate system consisting of three m The rate of change of position, It tells how fast position is changing with time and in what direction.
mutually perpendicular axes, along with a clock. The
point of intersection of these three axes is called origin Average velocity
r
(O) r Dx
v av =
m If a body changes its position as time passes w.r.t. frame Dt x x
of reference, it is said to be in motion. m SI units are m s
–1

m Motion of objects along a straight line is called rectilinear

motion. Y Instantaneous velocity
11
12
1 r r 0 0
10
9
2
3 r Dx dx t t
8
7 5
4
v = lim =
6
Dt ®0 Dt dt Fig: Moving with positive velocity Fig: Moving with negative velocity

X m Slope of position time graph

O
Z
5 ACCELERATION
2 DISTANCE AND DISPLACEMENT The time rate of change of velocity
m Distance: Actual path length in motion. During motion it Average Acceleration x x x
is non-zero r
r (v - v ) Dv Positive a Negative a a=0
m Displacement: The shortest path between initial and aav = 2 1 =
final position. Equal to change in position. May or may (t2 - t1) Dt
not be equal to path length travelled. It can be positive, Instantaneous Acceleration
r r
negative or zero. r Dv dv
x(m)
a = lim =
x(m) Dt ®0 Dt dt
Uniform Acceleration
40 Equal change in velocity in equal
intervals of time t t t
20
Non-Uniform Acceleration Fig: Positive acceleration Fig: Negative acceleration Fig: Zero acceleration
t(s) t(s)
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 0 Acceleration changes with time
Fig: Stationary object Fig: Object in uniform motion

3 SPEED
m The rate of distance covered with time is called speed,
v v0 t
distance l 0
v= = –v0
total time t
Average Speed
v0 v
total distance total path length
v av = = –v
total time total time interval
Instantaneous speed 0 t 0 t
Dl d l Fig: Motion in positive direction Fig: Motion in positive direction Fig: Motion in negative direction
v = lim = with positive acceleration with negative acceleration with negative acceleration
Dt ® 0 Dt dt
10 Motion in a Straight Line NCERT Maps

6 Kinematic Equations 8 FOR MOTION UNDER GRAVITY

m A mathematical treatment to describe the motion of a m A mathematical treatment to describe the motion of a body in one-dimension under free fall
body in one-dimension. Vertically downward motion
For uniformly accelerated motion When object is released from y = 0
0 2 2 t(s)
m v = – gt
v B
1
m y = - gt 2
(v – u) 2 –5
A C 2
u m v = – 2gy
–10 2
Vertically upward motion –9.8 m/s
u ¹ 0, acceleration a = – g
D
O m v = u – gt 2
m v = u + at t a (m/s )
1
1 2 æu +v ö m S = ut - gt 2 Fig: Variation of acceleration with time
s = ut + at = ç 2
m
2 ÷t
è 2 ø m v2 = u2 – 2gh
2 2
m v = u + 2as m Distance travelled during equal intervals of time by a body falling freely from rest is in ratio 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : 11 .. (Galileo's law)
a t (s)
m sn = u + (2n - 1)
2 0 t(s)
u +v 1 2 3 4 5 0
m v =
2 –10 –10 1 2 3 4
–20
7 FOR MOTION WITH VARIABLE ACCELERATION –20 –30
dv –40
m = a Þ v - u = ò adt –30 –50
dt
–60
dx
m = v Þ Dx = ò vdt (Area under v – t curve) –40 –70
dt
v (m/s) y (m) –80
vdv
m =a –50 –90
dx
Fig: Variation of velocity with time Fig: Variation of distance with time
d 2x
m =a
dt 2 140 140
A A
x (m) 120 120
9 Relative Velocity A x(m) 100 B x(m) 100
40 B 80 80
m The velocity with which an object moves with respect 60 60
to another object is called relative velocity. 40 40 40
20 20
vAB = (vA – vB) 0 0
2 –1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 0 1 2 3
4 5 6 –20 1 2 3 4 5 6
t (m) t(s) t(s) B
vAB = (vA + (–vB)) –40
Fig: Position-time graphs of two Fig: Position-time graphs of two
objects with equal velocities objects with unequal velocities, Fig: Position-time graphs of two objects with velocities in
vBA = (vB – vA) showing the time of meeting opposite directions, showing the time of meeting
NCERT Maps Motion in a Straight Line 11

1. Choose the correct statement 4. The reaction time is the time interval in which 7. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a
[NCERT Pg. 42] a person [NCERT Pg. 51] velocity of 20 m/s from the top of 160 m high
(1) Observe the things building. The time taken by ball to hit the
(1) Area under velocity-time graph gives the ground is [NCERT Pg. 48]
distance traveled (2) Think about the observations
(1) 8 s (2) 10 s
(2) Area under velocity-time graph gives the (3) Observe the things and act
change in position (3) 4 s (4) 6 s
(4) Observe the things, think and act
(3) Area under velocity-time graph gives 8. In which of the following cases an object can
5. A person driving a car with a speed of be considered as point object?
average acceleration 72 km/h observes a boy crossing the road at
(4) Area under velocity time graph gives a distance of 100 m from the car. Driver [NCERT Pg. 55]
change in acceleration applies the brakes and retards the car with a (1) Length of train in comparison to platform
2. Choose the correct statement for one retardation of 5 m/s2 and is just able to avoid (2) Length of engine in comparison to length
dimensional motion [NCERT Pg. 57] this accident. The reaction time of driver is of a small bridge
[NCERT Pg. 51]
(1) A constant speed in an interval must have (3) A spinning cricket ball that turns sharply
non-zero acceleration in that interval (1) 2.0 s on hitting the pitch
(2) With negative value of acceleration (2) 2.4 s (4) A railway carriage moving without jerks
speed must decrease (3) 3.0 s between two stations
(3) With negative value of acceleration (4) 2. 8 s 9. The velocity time graph of a particle moving
speed may increase 6. In any realistic condition (v – t) and (a – t) along a fixed direction is as shown in figure.
(4) With positive value of acceleration speed graph cannot have sharp kinks at some The average velocity of particle between 5 s
must increase points. This implies that [NCERT Pg. 47] to 10 s is [NCERT Pg. 60]

3. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 (1) Both velocity and acceleration can
steps forward, 3 steps backward and then change abruptly at an instant
stay for 1 s and repeat the same process (2) Both velocity and acceleration cannot
again and again. Each step is 1 m long and change abruptly at an instant
takes 1 s. The time taken by drunkard to fall
in a pit 10 m away from start is (3) Only velocity cannot change abruptly at (1) 15.6 m/s
an instant but acceleration can change
[NCERT Pg. 56] (2) 6.0 m/s
(4) Only acceleration cannot change
(1) 45 s (2) 27 s (3) 8.9 m/s
abruptly at an instant but velocity can
(3) 30 s (4) 31 s change (4) 15.0 m/s
 12 Motion in a Straight Line NCERT Maps
10. The velocity-time graph of a particle in one 12. Which of the following graphs can represent 15. Two towns A and B are connected by a
dimensional motion is as shown in figure. one dimensional motion of a particle? regular bus service with a bus leaving in
Which of the following relation is correct for [NCERT Pg. 57] either direction every T minutes. A man
describing the motion of particle over time cycling with a speed of 20 km/h in the
direction from A to B notices that a bus goes
interval t1 to t2? [NCERT Pg. 60]
past him every 18 min in the direction of his
(1) (2) motion and every 6 min in the opposite
direction. The speed with which (assumed
constant) buses ply on road is
[NCERT Pg. 56]

2
(1) 40 km/h
v t21 + 2aaverage (t2 − t1)
(1) v t2 =
(3) (4) (2) 60 km/h
(2) xt2 =
xt1 + v average (t1 − t2 ) (3) 75 km/h

1 13. A man walks on a straight road from his (4) 80 km/h

+ aaverage (t2 − t1 )2 home to market 2.0 km away with a speed of
2 16. Two stones are thrown up from the edge of
4.0 km/h. The stays in the market for 30
(3) v t2 =v t1 + a(t2 − t1) minute for purchasing and returns to home a cliff 300 m high with initial speed of 10 m/s
with a speed of 6 km/h. The magnitude of and 20 m/s. Which of the following graph
v t2 − v t1 average speed of whole journey is best represents the variation of relative
(4) aaverage = position of second stone with respect to
t2 − t1 [NCERT Pg. 57]
first stone till both the stones are in air?
(1) 4.0 km/h (2) 3.0 km/h
11. A boy is standing on an open lift moving (neglect air resistance) g = 10 m/s2
upwards with speed 10 m/s. The boy throws (3) 4.5 km/h (4) 3.5 km/h
[NCERT Pg. 59]
the ball with speed w.r.t. lift is 24.5 m/s. In 14. Two trains P and Q of length 300 m and
500 m are moving on two parallel tracks each
how much time the ball returns to the hand
with a uniform speed of 72 km/h in the same
of boy? (g = 10 m/s2) direction, with Q ahead of P. The driver of (1) (2)
[NCERT Pg. 59] train P decide to overtake train Q and
accelerates by 2.0 m/s2, if after 40 s the
(1) 10 s guard of P just brushes past the driver of Q,
then the original distance between the trains
(2) 4.9 s
is [NCERT Pg. 56]
(3) 7.5 s (3) (4)
(1) 450 m (2) 650 m
(4) 6 s (3) 800 m (4) 1300 m
NCERT Maps Motion in a Straight Line 13

17. Graphically derivative or differential away in same direction with speed is (1) 10 m/s (2) 12 m/s
coefficient means [NCERT Pg. 61] 192 km/h. Thief in the car fires bullet on
(3) 15 m/s (4) 18 m/s
(1) Angle made by the line joining two points police van. If muzzle speed of bullet is 150
m/s, then the speed with which bullet hits the 20. The position of an object moving along x-
on the curve with x-axis
w.r.t. police van is [NCERT Pg. 58] axis is given by, x = 10 + 15t + 5t2, where x
(2) Slope of the tangent line at any point on
(1) 145 m/s (2) 130 m/s is in meter and t is in second. The velocity of
the curve
(3) 115 m/s (4) 105 m/s body at t = 3 s is [NCERT Pg. 45]
(3) Area enclosed under the curve
19. The acceleration of a body starting from rest (1) 15 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(4) Both (1) and (3) varies with time as a = 2t + 3, where t is in
18. A police van moving on a highway with a second. The speed of body at t = 2 s, is (3) 40 m/s (4) 45 m/s
speed of 30 km/h and a thief’s car speeding [NCERT Pg. 63]

1. The study of motion of objects along a 8. For uniform motion, velocity is same as the initial and final position corresponding to
_______ called rectilinear motion. _______ at all instants. [NCERT Pg. 45] that interval [NCERT Pg. 53]
[NCERT Pg. 39] 9. Acceleration may result due to change in 15. For uniform motion, acceleration-time graph
2. In _______, we study ways to describe _______, a change in _______ or change in is a straight line _______ to the time axis.
motion without going into the causes of _______. [NCERT Pg. 46] [NCERT Pg. 53]
motion. [NCERT Pg. 39] 10. The area under velocity-time graph for any 16. For uniform motion, position-time graph is
3. A co-ordinate system along with a clock moving object represents the _______ over having a _____ non-zero slope.
constitutes a _______ [NCERT Pg. 40] a given time interval. [NCERT Pg. 46] [NCERT Pg. 53]
4. Displacement has both _______ and 11. The acceleration and velocity cannot 17. For uniform motion, velocity-time graph is a
_______ [NCERT Pg. 40] change values abruptly at an instant. straight line _______ to the time axis.
5. The magnitude of displacement _______ Changes are always _______. [NCERT Pg. 53]
equal to the distance traversed by an object. [NCERT Pg. 47] 18. For motion with _______ position-time is a
[NCERT Pg. 41] 12. Free fall is the case of motion with _______. parabola. [NCERT Pg. 54]
6. The magnitude of average velocity in [NCERT Pg. 49] 19. The sign of acceleration does not tell us
general is _______ than the average speed. 13. The _____ speed is always equal to whether the particle speed is _______ or
[NCERT Pg. 43] magnitude of instantaneous velocity _______. [NCERT Pg. 55]
7. The velocity at an instant is defined as the [NCERT Pg. 57] 20. The zero velocity of a particle at any instant
limit of _______ as the time interval 14. On an x – t graph, the average velocity over does not necessarily imply zero _______ at
becomes _______ small [NCERT Pg. 43] a time interval is the _______ connecting that instant. [NCERT Pg. 55]

  
 4
Motion in a Plane Chapter

1 SCALARS AND VECTORS 2 RESOLUTION OF VECTORS 5 MOTION IN A PLANE WITH CONSTANT ACCELERATION
P r r r
m Scalar quantity: It has only magnitude with proper m v = v o + at r r r 1r 2 1
r uuur uuuur uuur r m r = r +v t +
o o at , x = xo + v ox t + ax t 2
unit. All base quantities are scalar. The rules A = OP = OQ + QP A 2 2
r v x = v ox + ax t
mb 1
combining scalars are rules of ordinary algebra.
r r r v y = v oy + ay t y = y o + v oy t + ay t 2
A = l a + mb O 2
m Vector quantity: It has both magnitude and direction
r
and obeys the triangle law or parallelogram law of la 6 RELATIVE VELOCITY IN TWO DIMENSIONS
Q
vector addition.
r r The velocity of object A relative to B
m Equality of vector: Two vectors A and B are said to ur ur ur
3 RECTANGULAR COMPONENTS V AB = V A - V B
be equal, if and only if, they have same magnitude r r r ur ur
m A = A1 + A2 y where V A and V B are velocities in the same frame.
and direction. ur ur ur
r
m Multiplication of vector by real numbers: If a vector A = A x iˆ + Ay jˆ Similarly, V BA = V B - V A
r r r A2 ur ur ur ur
A is multiplied by real number l, then A ¢ = l A A = A cos q iˆ + A sin q ˆj A V AB = -V BA and V AB = V BA
r q
if l > 0, magnitude will change and direction remains x
A = Ax2 + Ay2 A1
same y 7 PROJECTILE MOTION
Ay æ Ay ö
if l < 0, magnitude changes l times and direction gets tan q = , q = tan - 1 ç ÷ 1 gx 2
Ax Equation of trajectory y = x tan q 0 -
è Ax ø 2 v o cos 2 q 0
2
reverse. This is equation of parabola.
m Parallelogram law of vector addition: For two co- m Resolution in three. Ay 2v o sin q 0
rectangular components
Ay
b A
m Time of flight Tf =
initial vectors represented by two adjacent sides of a g
parallelogram, the diagonal of a parallelogram A x = A co s a , A y = A sin a g a Ax
(v o sin q0 )2
vy j
x
m Maximum height hm = v
passing through same point will be resultant. A z = A co s g Az 2g vo
r Az
vox i
R = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q B r v o2 sin 2q0 voy j
A = Ax2 + Ay2 + Az2 m Horizontal range R = vox i
z Ax g
B sin q R q0 vox i
tan f = q v2 O
A + B cos q f for Rmax, q = 45°,Rmax = o voxi –voy j q = – q0
4 MOTION IN A PLANE g
A
r y
m Subtraction of vector: It can be defined as addition r = xiˆ + yjˆ n of v
Directio 8 UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION (t + Dt)
of a vector and negative of other vector.
r r r r P¢
r ¢ = x ¢iˆ + y ¢ jˆ Dr P In uniform circular motion particle moves P¢
S = A-B uur r r Dr
r r r r with constant speed. r¢ Dr
S = A + ( -B ) Þ S = A2 + B 2 – 2 AB cos q Dr = r ¢ - r r¢
uur r Arc ( PP ¢) Dq
m Angular displacement Dq = t=t
Unit Vectors: It is a vector of unit Dr = ( x ¢ - x )iˆ + ( y ¢ - y ) ˆj r C P
Y r
magnitude and points in a particular r Dq 2 p
r Dr r ˆ r ˆ O Dx x
m Angular velocity w =
Dt
=
T
= 2 pn
direction. It has no unit and dimension. j v av = = v xi + vy j
Dt r Linear speed v = rw
Unit vectors along the x, y and z axis r dr m

X Instantaneous velocity, v = m Centripetal acceleration-Due to change in direction of velocity and

of a rectangular coordinate system dt
i is always directed towards centre.
represented by iˆ, ˆj and kˆ respectively, k m The direction of velocity at any point on path is tangent to
v2
called basic unit vectors. path and in direction of motion. a= = r w2 = 4 p 2 n 2 r = v w
Z r
NCERT Maps Motion in a Plane 15

1. Two vectors are said to be equal, if 5. The magnitude of component of a vector 8. In circular motion, the direction of angular
[NCERT Pg. 66] [NCERT Pg. 70] velocity is [NCERT Pg. 80]
(1) They have equal magnitude only (1) In the plane of circle
(1) Is always less than magnitude of vector
(2) Same direction only (2) Perpendicular to plane of circle
(2) Is always equal to magnitude of vector
(3) They have equal magnitude and same (3) In the direction of velocity
direction (3) May be greater than magnitude of vector
(4) In the direction of acceleration
(4) They have unequal magnitude and (4) Is always greater than magnitude of
same direction vector 9. The shape of the trajectory of an object is
determined by [NCERT Pg. 85]
2. A null vector has [NCERT Pg. 68] 6. A motor boat is racing towards north at
25 km/h and the water current in that region (1) Acceleration only
(1) Zero magnitude, specified direction
is 10 km/h in the direction of 60° east of (2) Velocity of projection only
(2) Zero magnitude, arbitrary direction
south. The resultant velocity of the boat is (3) Initial position and initial velocity only
(3) Non-zero magnitude, no direction nearly [NCERT Pg. 72]
(4) Non-zero magnitude, arbitrary direction (4) Initial position, initial velocity and
(1) 22 km/h acceleration
3. To a person moving with a speed of 5 m/s
towards east, rain appears to be falling (2) 12 km/h 10. Which of the following vector operation is
(3) 35 km/h meaningful? [NCERT Pg. 85]
vertically downward with speed 5 3 m/s .
The actual velocity of rain is (1) Multiplication of any two vectors
(4) 26 km/h
[NCERT Pg. 69] (2) Adding any two vectors
7. In uniform circular motion, the centripetal
(1) 10 m/s at 30° with vertical acceleration is [NCERT Pg. 79] (3) Adding a component of vector to the
(2) 20 m/s at 30° with vertical same vector
(1) Due to change in magnitude of velocity
(3) 10 m/s at 60° with vertical only (4) Both (2) and (3)

(4) 20 m/s at 60° with vertical 11. Which of the following quantities is/are
(2) Due to change in direction of velocity
vector? [NCERT Pg. 85]
4. A vector can be resolved [NCERT Pg. 70] only
(1) Angular frequency
(1) Only in two components (3) Due to change in both magnitude and
(2) Only in three components direction of velocity (2) Angular velocity

(3) In any number of components (4) Neither due to change in magnitude of (3) Number of moles

(4) Either two or three components velocity nor due to change in direction (4) Both (1) and (2)
 16 Motion in a Plane NCERT Maps
12. Which of the following option is correct? 15. Equation of trajectory of projectile is 18. The correct statement for a scalar quantity
[NCERT Pg. 86] =
y 2
3 x − 5 x . Then angle of projection is [NCERT Pg. 87]

(1) Each component of a vector is always with vertical is (Assume x-axis as horizontal (1) It is conserved in a process
scalar and y-axis as vertical) [NCERT Pg. 78]
(2) It can never take negative values
(2) Three vectors not lying in a plane can (1) 45°
(3) It does not vary from one point to
never add up to give null vector (2) 30°
another in space
(3) Two vectors of different magnitude can (3) 60°
(4) It has the same value for the observers
be add up to give null vector (4) 53° with different orientations of axis
(4) Minimum number of vectors to give null 16. A projectile is projected with initial velocity
19. A man can swim with a speed of 5 km/h in
vector is five (10iˆ + 20 ˆj ) m/s from the ground. The still water. How long does he take to cross a
13. A particle A is moving with velocity velocity of the body just before hitting the river 1.0 km wide, if the river is flowing
( )
3iˆ + 4 jˆ m/s and particle B is moving with ground is [NCERT Pg. 79] steadily at 3 km/h and he makes his strokes
normal to the river current? [NCERT Pg. 86]
velocity ( −3iˆ − 4 jˆ ) m/s . The magnitude of (1) 10iˆ + 20 ˆj
(1) 20 min
velocity of B w.r.t A is (2) −10iˆ + 20 ˆj
(2) 30 min
[NCERT Pg. 76]
(3) 10iˆ − 20 jˆ (3) 12 min
(1) 6 m/s
(4) −10iˆ − 20 jˆ (4) 15 min
(2) 8 m/s

(3) 10 m/s
( )
17. The component of 3iˆ + 4 jˆ in the direction 20. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 s with a
velocity 4.0 ˆj m/s and moves in x-y plane
(4) 5 m/s (
of iˆ − ˆj is ) [NCERT Pg. 87]
with a constant acceleration of
 
= aiˆ + 6 jˆ and B
14. If two vectors A = biˆ + cjˆ are (1)
ˆj − iˆ ( )
6iˆ + 4 jˆ m/s2 . The time after which
2 y-coordinate of particle will be 48 m, will be
equal then correct options for value of a, b
and c is [NCERT Pg. 66] iˆ − ˆj [NCERT Pg. 87]
(2)
(1) a = b 2 (1) 6 s
1 ˆ ˆ
(2) a = c (3) (i − j ) (2) 4 s
2
(3) c = 6 (3) 8 s
1
(4) ( jˆ − iˆ)
(4) Both (1) and (3) 2 (4) 5 s
NCERT Maps Motion in a Plane 17

1. The _______ of a vector is called its 8. The sum of the squares of direction cosines 15. In uniform circular motion, magnitude of
absolute value. [NCERT Pg. 66] of a vector is _______. [NCERT Pg. 71] velocity and acceleration remains _______
9. The instantaneous acceleration is the [NCERT Pg. 81]
2. Addition and subtraction of scalars make
limiting value of _______ as the time interval 16. In projectile motion x-component of velocity
sense only for quantities with _______ units.
approaches zero. [NCERT Pg. 74] _______ while y-component of velocity
However, you can multiply and divide
scalars of _______ units. [NCERT Pg. 66] 10. In two or three dimensions, velocity and undergoes a _______.
acceleration vectors may have any angle
3. Displacing a vector parallel to itself leaves [NCERT Pg. 79]
between _______. [NCERT Pg. 75]
the vector unchanged. Such vectors are
11. In one dimension, the velocity and 17. In projectile motion if air resistance is
called _______. [NCERT Pg. 66]
 acceleration may have angle _______ considered then both x and y component of
4. Multiplying a vector A by a negative number between them. [NCERT Pg. 75] velocities undergoes a _______.

λ gives a vector λA whose direction is
 12. Motion in a plane can be treated as [NCERT Pg. 79]
_______ to the direction of A . superposition of two separate simultaneous 18. When an object follows a circular path at a
[NCERT Pg. 67] _______ motions along two perpendicular _______ the motion is said to be uniform
directions. [NCERT Pg. 76] circular motion. [NCERT Pg. 79]
5. Vector addition follows _______ law and
_______ law [NCERT Pg. 68] 13. The resultant velocity is the _______ sum of
19. The shape of the trajectory of motion is not
two velocities. [NCERT Pg. 77]
6. On adding two equal and opposite vectors, determined by the _______ alone, but also

resultant will be a _______. 14. Particle A is moving with velocity v A and depends on initial conditions of motion.

[NCERT Pg. 68] particle B is moving with velocity v B in same [NCERT Pg. 85]

7. A unit vector is a vector of _______ direction then their relative velocity is given 20. In uniform circular motion, acceleration is
magnitude. It has no _______. by the _______ of two velocities. directed along the _______ of circular path
[NCERT Pg. 77] [NCERT Pg. 81]
[NCERT Pg. 70]

  

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456
 5
Laws of Motion Chapter
ST RD
1 NEWTON’S 1 LAW 3 NEWTON’S 3 LAW 5 COMMON FORCES IN MECHANICS 6 CIRCULAR MOTION
A body continues its state of rest or of motion To every action there is always an equal and Tension Force A body moving in a circular path is called
until unless an external force is acted on it opposite reaction ® ® m Restoring force in string is called tension. circular motion.
Inertia of rest FAB = –FBA m It is due to electromagnetic force
FC = mv2/R is called centripetal force.
The property of body due to which it cannot m Always acts away from the body
m Forces always occur in pairs. Force on
change its state of rest by itself. m It is a contact force. Uniform circular motion
body A by B is equal and opposite to force 2
Inertia of motion m v
on body B by A. Weight a = ac = R = Rw2
The property of body due to which it cannot m It is equal to the gravitational pull i.e.
Some examples of Newton’s 3rd Law m
a = ac = v.w
change its state of motion by itself. W = Mg
m Recoiling of Gun
Inertia of direction m It is non-contact force. Non-uniform circular motion
The property due to which a body cannot m Rowing of boat
m ® ® ®
Normal Reaction a = aT + ac
change its direction of motion by itself. m When a man jumps from a boat, the boat It is always perpendicular to the surface in m ¾
2
moves backward contact. a = Ö a T + ac
2

2 NEWTON’S 2ND LAW m It is difficult to walk on sand or ice. m It is a contact force.

Motion of car on level Road
Spring Force v
The rate of change of Linear momentum of a Rocket Propulsion m ¾
® ® vmax = Ö ms Rg
body is directly proportional to the external u dm a­ m ­ v m F = –Kx R
a = rel
2
force applied on the body and takes place in m –g It is due to electromagnetic force
m
mmin = v
m dt m ¾
the direction in which force acts Rg
m It is a contact force.
dp Thrust m 2 fs
F= = ma dm ¯ Friction Rmin = v
dt m F = – u rel ¾
m The same force for the same time causes dt urel It is the resistance offered to the relative mg
same change in momentum for different motion between two bodies in contact Motion of car on Banked Road
bodies. 7 PROBLEM SOLVING TECHNIQUES m It is parallel to surface of body in contact. ¾
m Rg(ms + tanq)
Impulse
A large force acts for very short duration of
IN MECHANICS Type of Friction
N
vmax =
Ö ¾
(1 – ms tanq)
N N cosq

m Identify the unknown forces and m Static friction: Fs = Fapplied

time produces a finite change in momentum. ®
® m ¾ N sinq
Fs voptimum = ·
Product of force and time duration for which it accelerations m Limiting friction Flim = msN M Fapp ÖRgtanq
acts is impulse. m Draw FBD of bodies in system m Kinetic friction Fk = mkN ¾
Mg m Rg(tanq – ms ) f
Impulse = F × Dt = Dp
Equilibrium of a particle
m

m
Resolve forces into components
®
Apply SF = 0 in the direction of equilibrium
msN
Frictional force
vmin =
Ö ¾
(1 + mstanq) mg
® ® ® ® ® ®
FK = mKN Bending of cyclist on a circular turn
pp
SF = 0 Þ SFx = 0, SFy = 0 and SFz = 0 m Apply SF = Ma in the direction of Fa R cosq R
s =

Conservation of Liner Momentum accelerated motion m Angle of Bending

F

Total momentum of an isolated system of m Write constraint relations if exists.

intracting particles is conserved if there is no
external force acting on it.
® ®
m

m
®
Solve the equations SF = 0 and SF = Ma
®

For equilibrium of concurrent forces use

®

(Fs = Fapp) applied force

q = tan
–1
( )
v2
Rg
q
R sinq

pinitial = pfinal m Acceleration of body sliding down a rough

sine rule F1
g inclined plane mg
4 NON-INTERTIAL FRAME OF REFERENCE F1 F2 F3
® = = F2 b a = g(sinq – mcosq)
Pseudo Force Fpseudo = –Maframe
®
sin a sin b sin g m Numerically: a = q
a m Angle of friction: q = tan–1(ms) m Kinetic friction is usually less than
® ® ®
Fext + Fpseudo = Ma F3 m Angle of repose: a = tan–1 (ms) maximum value of static friction.
NCERT Maps Laws of Motion 19

1. A constant retarding force 100 N is applied The correct statement is

to a body of mass 20 kg, moving initially with [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110]
speed 20 m/s. How long does the body take
(1) (a) only
to stop? [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110]
(2) (b) only
(1) 2 s (2) 3 s
(3) (a) and (b) both
(3) 1 s (4) 4 s
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
2. A man of mass 60 kg stands on a weighing
scale in a lift which is moving upward with a 5. Two identical billiard balls strike a rigid wall
with same speed as shown in the figure. The (1) 400 N s (2) 300 N s
uniform speed of 10 m/s. The reading on the
scale is. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] ratio of magnitude of impulse imparted to the (3) 500 N s (4) 200 N s
balls by the wall [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98]
(1) Zero (2) 120 kg wt 7. For a given surface, the normal reaction and
frictional force are inclined at
(3) 60 kg wt (4) 90 kg wt
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101]
3. A rocket with a lift-off mass 10000 kg is
blasted upwards with an initial acceleration (1) 0º to each other
of 2 m/s2. The initial thrust of the blast is (2) 90º to each other
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] (3) 45º to each other
(1) 120 kN 2 (4) tan ( µ ) to each other
–1
(1)
(2) 80 kN 3
8. A machine gun fires 10 bullets per second
(3) 100 kN 1
(2) each with speed 200 m/s. If the mass of
(4) 140 kN 3 each bullet is 20 g, then the force required
1 to keep the gun stationary is
4. Consider the following statements (3)
2 [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98]
(a) Frictional force between block and
contact surface depends on area of 1 (1) 40 N
(4)
contact 3
(2) 0.4 N
(b) Frictional force may also act when there 6. A force-time plot for a body is shown in the
(3) 4 N
is no relative motion between the figure. The total change in momentum of the
contact surfaces. body is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 98] (4) 8 N
 20 Laws of Motion NCERT Maps
9. A mass of 2 kg rests on a horizontal plane. 12. The tension in string PQ as shown in the 14. The ratio of tension T1 and T2, as shown in
The plane is gradually inclined until at an figure is (g = 10 m/s2) the figure is NCERT-I, XI Pg. 100]
angle θ = 30° with the horizontal, the mass
just begins to slide. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the surface is
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102]
1
(1) 3 (2)
3
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99]
1
(3) 2 (4)
2 (1) 100 N 3 1
(1) (2)
2 2
10. A cyclist speeding at 5 m/s on a level road (2) 150 N
takes a sharp circular turn of radius 2.5 m 1 4
(3) 130 N (3) (4)
without reducing the speed. The minimum 3 3
value of coefficient of static friction between (4) 50 N
tyre and road such that cyclist does not slip 15. A car is moving on a curved road of radius
13. In the given figure, the reading of spring
is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 105] R. The road is banked at an angle θ . The
balance is (g = 10 m/s2)
coefficient of friction between tyres of the car
(1) 0.5 [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 100] and road is µ . The minimum safe velocity
(2) 1.5
on this road is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 104]
(3) 1.0
(4) 0.8 gR ( µ + tan θ )
(1)
11. A truck starts from rest and accelerates (1 − µ tan θ )
uniformly with 5 m/s2. The minimum value of
coefficient of static friction between surface gR ( tan θ − µ )
(2)
of truck and a box placed on it such that box (1 + µ tan θ )
does not slip back, will be
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 110] gR 2 ( tan θ − µ )
(1) 10 N (3)
(1) 0.4 (1 + µ tan θ )
(2) 20 N
(2) 0.6
(3) 80 N gR ( tan θ − µ )
(3) 0.5 (4)
(4) 0.2 (4) 40 N (1– µ tan θ )
NCERT Maps Laws of Motion 21

16. Two masses as shown in the figure are 18. Two blocks A and B are released from rest 19. A 60 kg monkey, climbs on a rope which
suspended from a smooth massless pulley. on two inclined plane as shown in the can withstand a maximum tension of 900 N.
The acceleration of 3 kg mass, when system The case in which the rope will break if the
figure.
is released, will be [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 106]
monkey [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 113]

(1) Climbs up with acceleration of 6 m/s2

(2) Climbs down with acceleration of 4 m/s2

(3) Climbs up with uniform speed of 5 m/s

(4) Falls down the rope nearly freely under

gravity
(1) 2.5 m/s2 (2) 2.0 m/s2 The ratio of the accelerations ( a A / aB ) is
(3) 4.0 m/s2 (4) 5.0 m/s2 20. Which of the following is self adjusting
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102] force? [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101]
17. A body is acted upon by unbalanced forces,
then body [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 95] (1) 1 (1) Static friction
(1) Will be at rest
(2) 2 (2) Limiting friction
(2) Will keep moving with uniform speed
(3) Will accelerate (3) 1.5 (3) Kinetic friction
(4) Will be at rest if even number of forces
(4) 0.8 (4) All of these.
will act

3. Suppose we are standing in a stationary bus 5. The same force for same time causes the
1. When horse starts suddenly, the rider falls
and the driver starts the bus suddenly. Then same ______ for different bodies
backward due to inertia of ______.
we get thrown in ______ direction with a jerk [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 94]
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93]
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93]
6. The rate of change of momentum of a body
2. An athlete runs some distance, before 4. ______ of a body is defined to be the is ______ proportional to the applied force
taking a long jump due to inertia of ______. product of its mass and velocity. and takes place in the ______ in which the
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93] [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 93] force acts. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 94]
 22 Laws of Motion NCERT Maps
7. The product of force and ______, which is 12. A body is in translational equilibrium under 17. The maximum velocity of car moving on a
change in Linear momentum of body, is also   
three concurrent forces F 1, F 2 and F 3 , then level circular road of radius R is ______ of
called ______ [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 96]    mass of the car. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 104]
  F1 + F 2 + F 2 =
______.
8. In equation F = Ma , any ______ forces in 18. A car is moving on circular banked road
system are not included. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99]
having inclination angle θ. If coefficient of
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 95] 13. Static friction opposes ______ motion static friction between road and tyre of car is
9. The motion of a particle of mass m is [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101] µs , the maximum velocity of the car is
1
described by y= ut + gt 2 . The force 14. The kinetic friction, like static friction in ______. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 105]
2
acting on the particle is ______. solids is found to be ______ of area of 19. Impulse has the dimensional formula as
contact. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 101] ______. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 108]
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 96]
10. Action and Reaction forces acts on ______ 15. Frictional force is the _______ of contact
20. µ s is the coefficient of static friction and µk
bodies [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 97] force which opposes the relative motion not
is the coefficient of kinetic friction. It is found
the motion. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 102]
11. The total momentum of an isolated system experimentally that µk is ______ than µ s
of interacting particles is ______. 16. We are able to walk because of the
[NCERT-I, XI Pg. 99] ________. [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 103] [NCERT-I, XI Pg. 108]

  
 Work, Energy and Power
6
Chapter

1 SCALAR PRODUCT 3 ENERGY Some common units of energy

6
m Also called dot product Kilowatt hour 3.6 × 10 J
ur ur m Capability of an object to perform work is its energy.
m A × B = A B cos ( q ) –7
ur ur ur ur erg 10 J
m A ×B = B × A
ur ur ur ur ur ur ur Electron volt 1.6 × 10
–19
J
m A × (B + C ) = A × B + A × C
Calorie 4.186 J
m iˆ × iˆ = ˆj × ˆj = kˆ × kˆ = 1 Mechanical energy is of two forms
m iˆ × ˆj = ˆj × kˆ = kˆ × iˆ = 0
m ( A x iˆ + A y ˆj + A z kˆ ) × ( B x iˆ + B y ˆj + B z kˆ ) = A x B x + A y B y = A z B z Kinetic Energy Potential Energy
m Energy a body possesses by virtue of its motion. m It is form of stored energy, by virtue of position or
2 WORK configuration of body.
1 2
Scalar product of force and displacement is work.
m KE = mv
m 2 m Notion of potential energy is applicable to class of
m Work done by a force can be positive, negative or zero. m Its unit is joule conservative forces. Work done against such forces gets
m Work done by gravity in horizontal displacement of object is stored up as potential energy. When constraints are
zero. m Work is related to KE of body by theorem called work-
energy theorem. removed, this energy may appear as kinetic energy.
m Work done by tension in pendulum bob is zero.
x2
m Work done by spring elastic force during stretching or m Change in potential energy for a conservative force; DU
DK = K f - K i = W = ò F ( x ) dx
compressing is negative. is equal to negative of work done by the force
x1
m Work can be done by a constant or variable force. r ur uur
ur r m This theorem is in scalar form. m DU = - ò F × dr
A. Constant force W = F × D r ¥
ur r2 m Shape of graph between KE of a body and its speed is
r m A force is conservative if it is derived from a scalar
B. Variable force W = ò F ( r ) × dr parabola.
r1
(Fc + Fnc) Dx = DK , when both forces are present dU
C. When force-displacement graph is given, Area under
m quantity U(x) by relation Fx = –
dx
force-displacement curve gives work done by the force. Fc = Conservative forces
D. Work done in stretching a spring by distance Dl is m Work done by a conservative force depends only on
1 Fnc = Non-conservative forces initial and final points. Zero of potential energy is
W = K ( D l )2
2 m Kinetic energy of a body of fixed mass is directly arbitrary.
F proportional to square of its momentum.
= F 2 m Work done by gravity depends on initial and final position
– Kxm P2
Kx Area = - K= only Uh = mgh (Gravitational potential energy at height h)
2 2m
xm m Potential energy of a stretched spring
x m Kinetic energy of fast moving air is used to generate
0 B electricity in wind mill. 2
Kx m
U=
m If two objects have same momentum, then the lighter has 2
more kinetic energy and vice versa.
A m Kinetic energy of fast flowing stream has been used to K is spring constant. Spring is said to be stiff if K is high,
1 grind corn and now to generate hydro-electricity. xm = extension of spring.
(Potential energy) U = - W S = kx m2
2
 24 Work, Energy and Power NCERT Maps

4 LAW OF CONSERVATION MECHANICAL ENERGY 7 COLLISION

m If conservative and non-conservative forces acts on a m Exchange of momentum between objects is consequence of collision, due to material impulsive forces. The laws of
body then momentum and energy conservation are used in collision.
m Collision are classified as elastic and inelastic collision depending on nature of colliding bodies.
(Fc + Fnc) Dx = DK
m In all collisions, total linear momentum of the systemis conserved. Initial momentum of system is equal to final momentum of the
Now, Fc Dx = –DU system.

D(K + U) = Fnc Dx COLLISION

DE = FncDx
E = Total Mechanical Energy (Consequence of work PERFECT INELASTIC COLLISION INELASTIC ELASTIC COLLISION
energy theorem). If Fnc = 0 then DE = 0 A collision in which two colliding An intermediate collision case Both linear momentum and kinetic energy of
m Mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces particles move together (in one where the deformation is partly system of colliding particles will remain conserved.
doing work on it are conservative. dimensions) after the collision is restored and some of initial kinetic m In one dimensional collision with target initially
complete inelastic collision. Kinetic energy is lost. Momentum of two at rest
energy is always lost in such collisions. colliding bodies before and after æ m - m2 ö
Conservative Forces Non-conservative Forces will remain conserved. v 1f = ç 1 ÷ u1
For m1 moving at u1 and m2 at rest.
m In two dimension, inelastic è m1 + m2 ø
The work done by or against The work done by or against m1u1
the force in moving a body the force in moving a body vf = collision if target at rest, two 2 m1u1
m1 + m 2 v 2f =
depends only on initial and from one position to another object don’t move at right m1 + m 2
final position of the body depends on the path Loss in KE on collision angles to each other (glancing
collision) even when identical. m If two masses are equal and target is at rest
and not on path followed in followed between the initial
v1f v1f = 0
between. and final positions. 1 æ m1 m2 ö 2 y
DK = ç ÷ (u1) m1 v 2f = u1
2 è m1 + m2 ø
m1 u1 First one comes to rest and pushes off the
5 VERTICAL CIRCULAR MOTION q1
x second with its initial speed. Thus, velocities
m2 q2 are exchanged
VC C MV02 1 m If m2 >> m1
VB TA = + Mg and E A = MV02
L 2 v2f
TC 6 POWER v1f = –u1 and v2f ; 0
1
EC = MVC2 + 2 MgL = constant m Rate at which work is done is power. Heavier mass is undisturbed while lighter
O B 2
dW dr ur r mass reverses its velocity.
MVC2 when string slackens
m P = =F × = F ×v
TA Mg = dt dt m Fraction of kinetic energy lost by targetting
L (just completes loop)
V0 m Rate at which energy is transferred is power. body when target at rest
A
5 MV02 2
Mg E A = EC = MgL = Average power is ratio of total work to total time æ m - m2 ö
2 2
m
f1 = ç 1 ÷
taken. è m1 + m2 ø
\ V0 = 5 gL W and fraction of KE gained by target b e i n g a t
m Pav =
t rest initially
Minimum speed at different VC = gL m SI unit of power is watt. 4 m1 m2
f2 =
locations to complete loop m Another unit of power is horse power. (m1 + m2 )2
m When two equal masses undergo two
VB = 3 gL [1 hp = 746 W]
dimensional elastic collision with one of them at
m A machine which performs same amount of work rest, after collision they will move at right
KA : KB : KC = 5 : 3 : 1 over a shorter period of time has more power. angles to each other.
NCERT Maps Work, Energy and Power 25

1. What is the angle between force (1) –720 J (2) –420 J 8. A bob of mass m is suspended by light string

F = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj − 5kˆ unit and displacement of length l. At lowest position it is imparted a
(3) 20 J (4) Zero
 horizontal velocity 5gl such that it just
S 4 jˆ + 3kˆ unit?
= [NCERT Pg. 115] 5. A shooter fires a bullet of mass 50 g with
completes circular trajectory in vertical
speed of 200 m s–1 on soft wood of thickness
 1   1  circle. What is ratio of its KE at B and C?
(1) cos−1   (2) cos−1   2 cm. If bullet looses 80% of its kinetic
5 2   25 2  energy and emerges out. What is emergent [NCERT Pg. 122]

 1  1 
bullet speed? [NCERT Pg. 118]
(3) cos−1   (4) cos−1  
5  25  (1) 89.4 m s–1 (2) 69.5 m s–1

2. A force F = 20 N acts on a object and (3) 100 m s–1 (4) 20.0 m s–1
displaces it from rest to speed of 6. A woman pushes a box on railway platform
10 m/s in its direction. What is displacement, which has rough surface. She applies a force
if mass of object is 2 kg? of 20 N over a distance of 5 m thereafter gets
tired and applied force which reduces linearly (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
[NCERT Pg. 119]
to 10 N with distance. The total distance (3) 5 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
(1) 6 m (2) 5 m which box has been moved is 10 m. Work 9. The potential energy of a body as a function
(3) 12 m (4) 10 m done during second displacement is of distance is given as U(x) = (–6x2 + 2x) J
3. Raindrop is falling downwards under [NCERT Pg. 119] The conservative force acting on body at
influence of gravity and opposing resistive (1) 175 J (2) 19.5 J x = 1 m will be [NCERT Pg. 124]
force. Consider a drop of mass 5.00 g falling (3) 75 J (4) 14.65 J (1) 6 N (2) 8 N
from height of 500 m and hits ground with 7. A block of mass m = 1 kg is moving on (3) 10 N (4) 12 N
speed of 70 m s–1. What is work done by horizontal surface with speed of 4 m s–1 10. Consider the following statements.
resistive force? [NCERT Pg. 136] enters a rough patch ranging from x = 0.1 m
to x = 1.6 m. The retarding force in this range A: Spring force is deformation dependent.
(1) –7.85 J (2) –9.50 J is inversely proportional to x B: Work done by spring force depends on
(3) –12.75 J (4) –13.50 J 1 initial and final deformation.
F= − (0.1 < x < 1.6 m)
4. A cyclist comes to skidding stop in 6 m. x [NCERT Pg. 124]
During this process the force on cycle due What is final kinetic energy of the body? (1) Both statements are true
to road is 120 N and is opposing the motion. [NCERT Pg. 120] (2) Both statements are false
How much work does road do on cycle? (1) 9.2 J (2) 7.3 J
(3) Only first statement is true
[NCERT Pg. 117] (3) 6.84 J (4) 5.23 J
(4) Only second statement is true
 26 Work, Energy and Power NCERT Maps
11. A spring is executing motion about through an angle of 53° to initial direction.
equilibrium position x = 0 where we take Assuming elastic collision, the angle
potential energy of spring to be zero. The (4) through which first ball moves with initial line
spring is oscillating between –xm and +xm after collision is
position with a mass m attached. During
motion, maximum speed of spring will be 13. Consider a situation in which a car of mass
2000 kg moving with speed of 54 km/h on a
[NCERT Pg. 124]
smooth road and colliding with a horizontal
k k mounted spring of spring constant 12.5 ×
(1) 2 xm (2) xm
m m 103 Nm–1. What is maximum compression of
spring? [NCERT Pg. 124] [NCERT Pg. 131]
k k  xm  (1) 53° (2) 47°
(3) xm (4)   (1) 4 m (2) 6 m
2m m  2 
(3) 8 m (4) 1 m (3) 37° (4) 90°
12. The graph between potential energy (U) of a
14. An elevator can carry a maximum load of 17. In a nuclear reactor, a neutron of high speed
spring versus its position (x) is best shown
900 kg (elevator + passengers) is moving up 104 m s–1 collides elastically with a light
by graph (equilibrium x = 0)
with constant speed of 2 m s–1. A constant nuclei of deuterium (at rest). The collision
[NCERT Pg. 124] frictional force of 5000 N opposes the results in loss of KE of neutron. What
motion. What minimum power is delivered fraction of KE is lost by neutron?
by motor (in HP)? [NCERT Pg. 128] [NCERT Pg. 130]
(1) (1) 37.5 HP (2) 32.5 HP 1 2
(1) (2)
(3) 42.5 HP (4) 50.2 HP 4 5
15. Two objects with mass m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 3 1 2
(3) (4)
kg collides perfect inelastically. The particles 9 9
were moving with speed of 10 m s–1 and zero
(2) 18. A bullet of mass 12 g and moving with
respectively before collision. The loss of KE
horizontal speed of 100 m s–1 strikes a block
on collision is [NCERT Pg. 131]
of wood of mass 348 g and instantly comes
(1) 60 J (2) 40 J to rest with respect to block. The block is
(3) 100 J (4) 90 J suspended from ceiling by means of a thin
(3) wire. The height through which block rises is
16. Consider a collision between two identical
[NCERT Pg. 137]
billiard balls with equal masses m1 = m2 = m.
First ball was at rest and second hits it on (1) 0.55 m (2) 0.88 m
edge. Second ball after hitting moves (3) 0.77 m (4) 1.22 m
NCERT Maps Work, Energy and Power 27

19. The blades of wind mill sweep out a circle of (1) 160.8 W (2) 259.2 W keV. The ratio of speed of electron to proton
area A = 2 m2. The wind is flowing at velocity (3) 302.5 W (4) 239.2 W is (me = 9 × 10–31 kg, mp = 1.6 × 10–27 kg)
v = 6 m s–1 perpendicular to circle, the [NCERT Pg. 136]
density of air is 1.2 kg m–3. What is power 20. An electron and a proton are detected in
generated? [NCERT Pg. 137] cosmic ray experiment. The electron has (1) 15.7 (2) 17.5
kinetic energy of 20 keV and proton has 50 (3) 26.6 (4) 4.9

1. Work done by a force is defined as product 8. The dimensions of potential energy are 14. Not all forces are conservative, ________
of _______ in the direction of displacement ________ and unit is ________. for example is a non-conservative force.
and magnitude of its displacement. [NCERT Pg. 125]
[NCERT Pg. 120
[NCERT Pg. 117 15. The work done by friction on a body is not
2. 1 kilowatt hour (kW h) is equal to ________ 9. The work done by conservative force lost but is transferred as ________ energy.
joule. [NCERT Pg. 117] depends only on the ends points and work [NCERT Pg. 125]
done by this force in a closed path is
3. The ________ energy of fast flowing stream 16. In collision, the total ________ is conserved,
________. [NCERT Pg. 121]
has been used to grind corn. but ________ of system is not necessarily
10. Total mechanical energy of a system is conserved. [NCERT Pg. 129
[NCERT Pg. 118]
conserved if the forces, doing work on it, are 17. A collision in which two particles move
4. A graph shows variable force drawn on ________. [NCERT Pg. 121] together after the collision is called
Y-axis and corresponding displacement on ________ collision. [NCERT Pg. 129]
11. A bob is suspended by a light string and bob
X-axis. The area under the curve is equal to
is given velocity at lowest position such that 18. A collision in which deformation of colliding
________ by force.
it completes semicircular trajectory in bodies is partly relieved and some of initial
[NCERT Pg. 119] vertical plane. There are two external forces kinetic energy is lost is called ________
5. Work-Energy theorem is useful in variety of on bob, these are ________ and ________. collision. [NCERT Pg. 129
problems. It is an integral from of Newton’s [NCERT Pg. 122]
19. The fraction of kinetic energy lost by
________ law. [NCERT Pg. 119] 12. Work done by external pulling force on a targeting body hitting target at rest is
6. Potential energy is stored energy by virtue spring is ________. [NCERT Pg. 124] ________ when both bodies have equal
of ________ of body. [NCERT Pg. 120] masses. [NCERT Pg. 131
13. A moving car collides with a horizontal
7. The notion of potential energy is applicable mounted spring and compresses it. In this 20. When two equal masses undergo a glancing
only to ________ forces where work done case ________ energy of the car is collision elastically with one of them at rest,
against the forces gets stored as energy. converted entirely into ________ of the after the collision, they will move at
[NCERT Pg. 120 spring. [NCERT Pg. 125] ________ to each other. [NCERT Pg. 132]
  
 System of Particles and Rotational Motion
7
Chapter
1 RIGID BODY 3 MOTION OF COM 4 LINEAR MOMENTUM OF SYSTEM OF
m Ideally a rigid body is a body with a perfectly definite and unchanging PARTICLES
shape. The distances between all pairs of particles of such a body do not MR = åmiri m Velocity of COM for a system of n particles
change.
m In pure translational motion at any instant of time all particles of the body \ MV = åmivi P = p1 + P2 + .....+ pn = m1v1 + m2v2 + .....+ mnvn
have same velocity.
m Velocity of COM of system r m vr + m vr + ..... + m vr
m The motion of rigid body which is pivoted or fixed is rotation. Every particle V = 1 1 1 2 n n
M
of the body moves in a circle. åmivi
\ V= This is the velocity of centre of mass
m The motion of rigid body which is not pivoted or fixed in some way is either M
a pure translation or is combination of translation and rotation m Total linear momentum of system of particles is
m Acceleration Of Com of System equal to the product of total mass of system and
2 CENTRE OF MASS å miai velocity of its centre of mass.
A or acm =
m COM is an imaginary point where mass of an extended body is assumed M m When total external force acting on a system of
to be concentrated m Total mass of system of particles times the particles is zero, total linear momentum of system is
m This concept is used to study indepedently translatory and rotatory acceleration of its centre of mass is vector sum of constant. The velocity of centre of mass remains
motion under effect of external forces. all forces acting on system of particles. constant.
m The laws of motion which are applied to particles can be applied to large ur r r r
sized bodies by converting body into a particle at location of COM. M A = F1 + F2 + F3 + .... + Fn P = mv
Centre of mass for two particle system ur r
if Fext Þ dP=0 P = constant
m
y M A = Fext
r r dt
ur m1r1 + m2r2
R cm = x Fext Total external force å miai m If centre of mass was initially at rest, for no external
m1 + m2 A= = =
m1 m2 M Total mass of system M force, centre of mass will remain at rest.
x
m For x and y plane O x1 C m Centre of mass of the system of particles moves
x2 as if all mass of a system was concentrated at
m x + m2 x2 m y + m2 y 2
X cm = 1 1 and, Ycm = 1 1 centre of mass and all the external forces were 5 CROSS PRODUCT
m1 + m 2 m1 + m 2
applied at that point. C B j
m For a system of n particles distributed in space, m A projectile following parabolic path explodes into
åmixi åmiyi åmizi fragments in mid air. The forces leading to
Xcm = ,Ycm = , Zcm =
M M M explosion are internal, they contribute nothing to q
motion of COM. Total external force gravity acting A i
m COM For Continous Mass
m If the body has continous distribution of mass (RING, DISC, ROD) on body is same before and after explosion. The k
COM under influence of external forces continue
along same parabolic trajectory as it would have i ×i = 0
1 rdm M = total mass of body
R= followed without explosion. m C =A ×B j ×j = 0
M
y | C | = | A | | B | sinq k×k = 0
Parabolic path
The co-ordinates of COM of body, i ×j = k
of the projectile q is angle between A and B
1 1
Xcm = 1 xdm,Ycm = M ydm, Zcm = M zdm Explosion
m Properties
j ×k =i
M k× i =j
m If we choose centre of mass at origin rdm = 0, xdm = ydm = zdm = 0 Path of the CM of A ×B ¹ B ×A j ×i = –k
fragments
m For homogeneous bodies of regular shape, centre of mass lies at A × B = –(B × A ) k×j = –i
geometric centre. x1 x2 x
O A ×A =0 j × k = –i
NCERT Maps System of Particles and Rotational Motion 29

6 MOMENT OF FORCE (TORQUE) 7 ANGULAR MOMENTUM MOMENT OF INERTIA OF DIFFERENT RIGID BODIES
m Analogue of force in case of rotational motion is torque, (Regular Shaped)
m It is referred as moment of linear momentum. For a
which is turning effect of a force.
particle, Body Axis I
m t = r × F when forcer acts on a particle whose position
2
vector w.r.t. origin is r . L =r×P Thin circular ring, radius R Perpendicular to MR
plane, at centre
m This is a vector quantity having SI units N m. The magnitude of angular momentum vector is L = rpsinq
y Thin circular ring, radius R Diameter 2
m Magnitude of torque P M R /2
L = r × Psinq = r × P^
z
r q q Thin rod, length L Perpendicular to 2
M L /12
t = r Fsinq L = rsinq × P = r^ × P rod, at mid point
r F O x
rs Circular disc, radius R Perpendicular to 2
t = (rsinq) × F = r^F inq M R /2
disc at centre
P q
r t = rFsinq = rF^ 2
r^ = (rsinq) = is perpendicular distance of directional line Circular disc, radius R Diameter M R /4
O y
rs of P from origin and 2
inq Hollow cylinder, radius R Axis of cylinder MR
x P^ = component of P in the direction perpendicular to r
r^= rsinq = perpendicular distance of line of action m Angular momentum will be zero when P = 0 or particle is at Solid cylinder, radius R Axis of cylinder M R /2
2

of force from origin (axis of rotation) and F^ is origin or or line of P passes through origin.
2
Angular Momentum Conservation Law
Solid sphere, radius R Diameter 2 M R /5
component of F Perpendicular to r. m

2
m If direction of r and F are reversed, the direction of time rate of change of angular Hollow sphere, radius R Diameter 2 M R /3
moment of force remains same. dL momentum of a system of particles
t = dt THEOREMS OF MOI
is equal to torque acting on it.
m Couple : A pair of equal and opposite forces with different
lines of action is known as a couple. A couple produces m If total external torque on a system of particles is zero,
rotation without translation example : opening a bottle. total angular momentum remains constant for the system. Theorem of perpendicular Theorem of parallel
axes axes
dL Theorem is applicable to The theorem is applicable
t = 0 ® dt =0 m m
bodies whose thickness is to body irrespective of any
small compared to other shape.
Bottle L = constant dimensions. (Planar body) m MOI of a body about any
m MOI of a planar body about an axis is equal to the sum of
8 EQUILIBRIUM OF RIGID BODY axis perpendicular to its plane MOI of the body about a
A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium if both is equal to the sum of its MOI parallel axis passing
its linear momentum and angular momentum are not about two perpendicular axes through its COM and the
9 MOMENT OF INERTIA : MOI concurrent with perpendicular product of its mass and
changing with time or equivalently, the body has neither Analogue of mass, in rotational motion is rotational inertia
m axis and lying in plane of body. the square of distance
linear acceleration nor angular acceleration. also called moment of inertia. between the two parallel
z axes.
m Vector sum of forces on rigid body is zero åFi = 0 m This is a characteristics of rigid body and the axis about z¢ z
which it rotates. It depends on distribution of mass and
m Vector sum of torques on rigid body is zero. åti = 0 position of axis of rotation. O
Rotational equilibrium condition is independent of m This parameter is independent of magnitude of angular y
m COM
location of origin about which torques are taken. velocity of body, For a system of particles moment of
n x d
m A body may be in partial equilibrium i.e. rotational 2
inertia is given by I = å miri
equilibrium but not transnational. i =1 Iz = Ix + Iy Iz¢ = Iz + md2
30 System of Particles and Rotational Motion NCERT Maps

10 TRANSNATIONAL AND ROTATIONAL MOTION ANALOGY 12 KINETIC ENERGY OF TRANSLATING AND ROTATING BODIES:
Linear motion Rotation about a fixed Axis m K.E of translation + K.E of rotational motion

Displacement x Angular displacement q KE = 1 MVcm + 1 Iw

2 2
2 2
dx 2
Velocity v= Angular velocity w = dq where I = MK , K is corresponding radius of gyration
dt dt
Radius of Gyration : Distance from axis of rotation of a point mass whose mass is equal to mass of whole body
Mass m Moment of inertia I
and whose moment of inertia is equal to moment of inertia of body about the axis.
Force F = ma Torque t = I a m Kinetic Energy In Case Of Pure Rolling Motion
Work dW = Fds Work = dW = tdq Vcm = Rwcm
2 2
mv 2 Kinetic energy k = lw 2 Vcm
KE = 1 MVcm + 1 MK
2
Kinetic energy k=
2 2 2 2 R
2

Power P = F. V Power P = t. w 2
K
KE = 1 MVcm
2
Linear momentum P = mV Angular momentum L = Iw 2 1+ 2
R
dp dL
F= t=
dt dt This formula can be used to all rolling bodies like ring, disc, cylinder sphere.

11 ROLLING MOTION 13 KINEMATICS OF ROLLING BODIES DOWN ROUGH INCLINE PLANE

We apply conservation of mechanical energy to rolling bodies as Rolling friction performs no work.
m All wheels used in transportation have rolling motion.
R
m It is combination of rotation and translation with axis moving. DP.E. = DK.E.
m When disc rolls without slipping, At any instant of time bottom of
2
disc which is in contact with surface is at rest with respect to K
mgh = 1 mVcm
2
surface. 2 1+ 2
R
VP S
VPO Q
r r r h
VP = VPO + Vcm 2gh Vcm
q Velocity at bottom Vcm =
Vcm K2
P 1+ 2
Vcm R q
O
w g sinq
Acceleration of COM ; a = 2
1 + (K/R)
2 2 1/2
|VP| = [(VPO) + Vcm + 2VPOVcm cosq] 2
K
Minimum coefficient of friction required for pure rolling m = 22 tanq
m In pure rolling with out slipping Þ v = Rw R +K
m Top of a rolling body has magnitude of velocity 2
1 2h K
Time to reach the bottom = sinq × g × 2 +1
VQ = Vcm + wcmR = Vcm + Vcm = 2 Vcm,Bottom is at rest w.r.t. surface R
NCERT Maps System of Particles and Rotational Motion 31

1. Three particles of equal masses are placed 5 5 2 5 7. The angular momentum of a particle of mass
(1)  m, m  (2)  m, m 
at co-ordinates (1, 1), (2, 2) and (4, 4) 3 3  3 3  0.5 kg about point O at the instant as shown
respectively. The position co-ordinate of in the figure, is
1 2 5 5
COM of system of three particles is (3)  m, m  (4)  m, m 
6 6  6 6  [NCERT Pg. 158]
[NCERT Pg. 146]
4. Which relation regarding product of two
2 7
(1) (0, 0) (2)  ,  vectors is incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 151]
7 2  
(1) a × a = 0
7 7
(3)  ,  (4) (2, 2)    
3 3 (2) a.(b + c )= (a.b ) + (a.c ) (1) 6 kgm2s–1
2. Consider a system of two identical particles.    
(3) a × b= (– a ) × (– b ) (2) 9 kgm2s–1
One of the particles is at rest and the other
has an acceleration a. The centre of mass     (3) 18 kgm2s–1
(4) a × b = b × a
has an acceleration
2 –1
5. The vector product of given two vectors (4) 9 3 kg m s
[NCERT Pg. 146]  
=A 3iˆ – 4 jˆ + 5kˆ and B = 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ is 8. Which of the following statement is
1
(1) Zero (2) a
2 [NCERT Pg. 152] incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 158]

(3) a (4) 2 a (1) Moment of couple is independent of

(1) –9iˆ + 13 jˆ + 11kˆ (2) –9iˆ − 13 jˆ + 11kˆ
3. A thin uniform flat plate is in shape of L as point about which moment is taken.
shown. The mass of lamina is 6 kg. The (3) –9iˆ + 7 jˆ + 11kˆ (4) –9iˆ + 7 jˆ − 11kˆ (2) For translational equilibrium of a body
position of centre of mass from point O vector sum of all the forces on it must be
6. The force acting on a particle is
[NCERT Pg. 147] zero
(iˆ + 2 jˆ + 3kˆ ) N . Find the torque of this force
about origin if position vector of force is (3) A body may be in translational
equilibrium but may not be in rotational
(7iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ ) m. [NCERT Pg. 157]
equilibrium simultaneously
(1) iˆ + 16 ˆj − 11kˆ (2) −iˆ − 16 jˆ + 11kˆ (4) Rotational equilibrium depends on
location of origin about which torques
(3) iˆ + 16 ˆj + 11kˆ (4) −iˆ + 9 ˆj + 11kˆ
are taken
 32 System of Particles and Rotational Motion NCERT Maps
9. A 3 m long ladder weighing 10 kg leans on a (1) 24 kg m2 14. Four bodies; a ring, a solid cylinder, a hollow
frictionless wall. Its feet rest on floor 1.5 m sphere and a solid sphere of same mass are
(2) 12 kg m2
from wall as shown. What is reaction force of allowed to roll down a rough inclined plane
(3) 30 kg m2 without slipping from same level. The body
the wall? [NCERT Pg. 162]
with greatest rotational kinetic energy at
(4) 36 kg m2
bottom is [NCERT Pg. 178]
12. A cord of negligible mass is wound round the (1) Ring
rim of flywheel disc with mass of 15 kg and
(2) Solid cylinder
radius of 40 cm. A steady pull of 50 N is
applied to cord as shown. The wheel is (3) Hollow sphere
mounted on horizontal axis. What is angular (4) Solid sphere
acceleration of wheel? [NCERT Pg. 171]
50 15. A car weighs 1800 kg. The distance between
(1) N (2) 50 3 N
3 its front axle and back axle is 1.8 m. Its
centre of gravity is 1.05 m behind front axle.
(3) 100 3 N (4) 120 N The force exerted by level ground on front
wheels is (g = 10 ms–2) [NCERT Pg. 178]
10. Which of the following statement is
(1) 7500 N (2) 6500 N
incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 163]
(3) 9500 N (4) 1800 N
(1) 10.33 rad s–2 (2) 16.66 rad s–2
(1) Moment of inertia depends on 16. A ring (circular) of radius 2 m has mass of
distribution of mass about rotational axis (3) 20.66 rad s–2 (4) 4.99 rad s–2 100 kg. It rolls purely along horizontal floor
(2) Moment of inertia depends on 13. A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around so that its COM has speed 20 cm s–1. The
a solid cylinder of a mass 20 kg and radius work required to stop it is [NCERT Pg. 179]
orientation and position of axis of
rotation 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on (1) 2 J
cord tangentially. The cylinder is mounted on (2) 3 J
(3) Moment of inertia changes when angular
horizontal axis with frictionless bearings.
velocity of body changes (3) 4 J
What is kinetic energy of wheel when 2 m
(4) 8 J
(4) Flywheel resists sudden increase or cord is unwound? [NCERT Pg. 171]
17. To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular
decrease of speed of vehicle (1) 50 J speed of 200 rad s–1 an engine needs to
11. A ring has mass of 6 kg and radius of 2 m. (2) 100 J transmit a torque of 125 Nm. What is power
What is moment of inertia of this ring about required by the engine? [NCERT Pg. 179]
(3) 150 J
a tangent to the circle of ring in its plane? (1) 15 kW (2) 20 kW
[NCERT Pg. 166] (4) 90 J (3) 25 kW (4) 50 kW
NCERT Maps System of Particles and Rotational Motion 33

18. A bullet of mass 10 gram is fixed with speed 19. A solid disc of radius 10 cm are placed on a 20. A child stands at centre of turntable with his
of 500 m s–1 into a door and gets embedded horizontal table (rough) with initial angular two arms outstretched. The turntable is set
exactly at centre of door. The door is 1 m speed equal to 10 π rad s–1. If coefficient of rotating with angular speed of 40 rad s–1.
wide and weighs 12 kg. Door is hinged along What will be angular speed of child if he folds
kinetic friction between disc and table is 0.2
one side and rotates about vertical axis his hands back reducing moment of inertia
then time taken by the disc to start pure
without friction. The angular speed of door 2
rolling will be [NCERT Pg. 181] to times the initial value (ignore friction?)
just after bullet embeds into it is 5
[NCERT Pg. 180] [NCERT Pg. 180]
π π
(1) 0.35 rad s–1 (1) s (2) s (1) 50 rad s–1
2 3
(2) 0.625 rad s–1 (2) 75 rad s–1

(3) 0.255 rad s–1 π π (3) 100 rad s–1

(3) s (4) s
6 4 (4) 150 rad s–1
(4) 0.935 rad s–1

1. For three particles of equal masses placed 6. If total _____ on a system of particles is zero, 11. The work done by external torques is not
at corners of an equilateral triangle, the then total angular momentum of the system dissipated then it goes on to increase
centre of mass coincides with_____ of the is conserved. [NCERT Pg. 157] ______ energy of the body.
triangle. [NCERT Pg. 145] 7. A pair of forces of equal magnitudes but [NCERT Pg. 171]
2. Centre of mass of homogeneous bodies of acting in opposite directions with different 12. For bodies which are not symmetric about
regular shapes, from symmetric lines of action is known as ______ . the axis of rotation, the direction of angular
consideration, lie at _____. [NCERT Pg. 159] momentum may not coincide with direction
[NCERT Pg. 146] 8. The centre of gravity (CG) of a body is that of _____. [NCERT Pg. 172]
point where total gravitation ______ on the 13. A circus acrobat and a diver uses the
3. When total external force on the system is
body is zero. [NCERT Pg. 161] advantage of principle of _____.
zero, the velocity of its centre of mass
9. The centre of gravity of a body coincides with [NCERT Pg. 172]
_____. [NCERT Pg. 148]
centre of mass in _____
4. For rotation about a fixed axis, angular 14. All wheels used in transportation have
[NCERT Pg. 162]
velocity vector lies along _____. _____ motion. [NCERT Pg. 173]
10. The distance from axis of a mass point
[NCERT Pg. 153] 15. Kinetic energy of a rolling body can be
whose mass is equal to mass of whole body
separated into kinetic energy of translation
5. The rotational analogue of force in linear and whose moment of inertia is equal to
and kinetic energy of rotation. The fraction of
motion is _____. It is also called _____. moment of inertia of body about the axis is
rotational kinetic energy depends on _____.
[NCERT Pg. 154] called _____. [NCERT Pg. 164]
[NCERT Pg. 174]
 34 System of Particles and Rotational Motion NCERT Maps
 
16. Three bodies, a ring, a solid cylinder and (1) In translational equilibrium _____. 19. The cross product of two vectors A and B is
solid sphere roll down the same incline  
(2) In rotational equilibrium_____. a vector written as A × B . The magnitude of
without slipping. The least velocity of centre
of mass at the bottom of incline plane is 18. For rolling motion without slipping this vector is ABsinθ and its direction is given
for_____. [NCERT Pg. 175] Vcm = _____where Vcm is velocity of by_____. [NCERT Pg. 151]
translation of centre of mass. 20. For pure rolling motion, work done against
17. A rigid body is in mechanical equilibrium
then [NCERT Pg. 158] [NCERT Pg. 174] friction is_____ [NCERT Pg. 175]

  
 8
Gravitation Chapter

1 KEPLER’S LAWS OF PLANETARY MOTION 2 NEWTON’S LAW OF GRAVITATION 3 ACCELERATION DUE TO GRAVITY 7 EARTH’S SATELLITE
Law of Orbits m The Gravitational force (F) between two m For a body falling freely under gravity, the
Orbital Speed of Satellite
Every planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical acceleration of body is called acceleration
bodies is directly proportional to product
orbit and the sun in situated at one of its foci. due to gravity m The speed required to put satellite into
of masses and inversely proportional to
GMe 4 a given circular orbit
B m g= = pGrRe
square of distance between them. Re2 3
v0 = GMe g
® –Gm1m2 = Re
F= r Where G = Gravitational constant Re + h Re + h
2b 2
P S
r r ® Average density of earth
S' A m For satellite very close to earth orbital speed
Characteristics of Gravitational Force Me ® Mass of earth
m It is alway attractive Re ® Radius of earth v0 = GMe = gRe = v e
C
Re 2
2a m It is independent of the medium
5 GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL
Law of Areas m It is a conservative and central force
ENERGY Time Period of Satellite
m It has infinite range m The work done in bringing a body from
The areal velocity of the planet around the sun 2p 2p
infinity to a point in the gravitational field m T= (Re + h )3/ 2 = ( Re + h )3
is constant i.e. dA = L = constant Superposition Principle GMe Re g
dt 2m is gravitational potential energy
v The Gravitational force on a point mass m1 For two point mass system m For satellite very close to earth’s surface
P¢
is the vector sum of the gravitational forces Gm1m2
A P (Planet) U=–
S r T = 2p Re
r F exerted by m2, m3 .... Gravitational Potential due to a point mass
= 84.6 min
g
® ® ® It is the work done in bringing a unit mass
Sun i.e. F1 = F12 + F13 + ....
from infinity to a point in the gravitational
Energy of Satellite
Gm
field. V = – GMe m
Law of Periods Due to Depth (d) r m Kinetic energy K =
2(Re + h )
The square of the time period of revolution of a
planet is directly proportional to the cube of semi The value of g decreases with depth 6 ESCAPE SPEED
GMe m
d The minium speed of projection of a body m Potential energy U = –
major axis length of the elliptical orbit i.e. T2 µ a3 gd = g 1– m
(Re + h )
Re from surface of earth so that it just m Total energy (E) = K + U
4 VARIATION OF ACCELERATION DUE TO g crosses the gravitational field of earth GM e m
=–
GRAVITY (g) 2GM e 2(Re + h )
gO ve = = 2gRe = 8pGr Re
Re 3
Due to Altitude (h) m Binding energy (BE) = – E
The value of g goes on decreasing with height (h) It is independent of angle of projection. GM e m
=+
m Escape velocity from moon is about 5 2(Re + h )
GM e O r = Re r
gh =
( R e + h )2 times smaller than earth.
36 Gravitation NCERT Maps

8 TYPES OF SATELLITES

Polar Satellite Geostationary Satellite

m Revolves in polar orbit around the earth m Time period is 24 h.
m Height is approximately 500 to 800 km m Height is approximately 35800 km.
m Time period is nearly 100 min m Have same angular speed and sense of rotation as of earth
m Used in military spying, weather forecasting, meteorology etc. m Used for satellite communication, GPS
N m INSAT is group of Geostationary satellites sent up by India.

9 WEIGHTLESSNESS

An Astronaut experiences weight- lessness in a space satellite. This is not because the gravitational force is small at that location in space. It is because both the astronaut
and every part of satellite has an acceleration towards the center of the earth which is exactly the value of earth’s acceleration due to gravity at that position.
NCERT Maps Gravitation 37

1. The escape speed of a body from the earth d d 7. The change in gravitational potential energy
(1) (2) when a body of mass m is raised to height
depends on [NCERT Pg. 201] 4 2
4RE from the earth surface is (RE is radius of
d d earth) [NCERT Pg. 192]
(1) Mass of the body (3) (4)
3 6 4
(1) mgRE (2) mgRE
(2) The direction of projection 4. The force of gravitation between two masses 3
(3) The height of location from where the is 10 mN in vacuum. If both the masses are mgRE 4
(3) (4) mgRE
body is launched placed in a liquid at the same distance, then 5 5
new force of gravitation will be 8. The potential energy of a system of four
(4) All of these
NCERT Pg. 187] particles each of mass m, placed at vertices
2. A planet of mass m revolved around the sun 40 of a square of side a is [NCERT Pg. 192]
(1) 10 mN (2) mN
of mass M in an elliptical orbit. The maximum 3 Gm 2 Gm 2
and minimum distance of the planet form the (1) −(4 + 2) (2) −4
30 a a
sun are r and 3r respectively. The time (3) mN (4) Can’t say
4 Gm 2 4Gm
period of the planet is proportional to (3) −4 2 (4) −
[NCERT Pg. 184] 5. Three equal masses of 3 kg each are fixed a a
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC. 9. A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of
3
The gravitational force acting on mass 2 kg radius 2RE around the earth. The energy
(1) r3 (2) (2r ) 2 placed at the centroid of triangle is required to transfer it to a circular orbit of
2 [NCERT Pg. 187] radius 4RE is [NCERT Pg.196]
(3) 4r (4) (4r ) 3 (1) Zero mgRE 7
(1) (2) mgRE
(2) 6.67 × 10–3 N 2 8
3. Two point masses m and 9m are separated
by a distance d on a line. A third point mass (3) 9 × 10–9 N mgRE mgRE
(3) (4)
of 1 kg is to be placed at a point on the line (4) Data is insufficient 8 4
such that the net gravitational force on it is 6. An object is projected from earth’s surface, 10. If the gravitational potential at the surface of
zero. with speed half of the escape speed of earth, earth is V0, then potential at a point at height
then maximum height attained by it is equal to radius of earth is [NCERT Pg. 192]
[NCERT Pg. 192] V0
(1) V0 (2)
RE RE 2
The distance of 1 kg mass from mass m is (1) (2)
2 3 V0 V0
(3) (4)
[NCERT Pg. 187] (3) RE (4) 2RE 3 4
 38 Gravitation NCERT Maps
11. A satellite revolving around earth has (1) 31.7 km/s 18. A Geostationary satellite is orbiting at a
potential energy – 2 MJ, then the binding height of 6RE above the surface of earth. The
(2) 24 km/s
energy of the satellite is [NCERT Pg.196] time period of another satellite at a height
(3) 22.4 km/s 2.5RE above the surface of earth is (RE is
(1) 1 MJ (2) 2 MJ
(4) Zero radius of earth) [NCERT Pg. 196]
(3) – 1 MJ (4) 8 MJ
15. The density of a newly invented planet is (1) 6 hours
12. Starting from the centre of earth having twice that of earth. The acceleration due to
radius RE, the variation is acceleration due (2) 6 2 hours
gravity at the surface of the planet is double
to gravity is best represented by the curve that at the surface of earth. If radius of earth 6
(3) hours
[NCERT Pg. 191] is RE, then the radius of the planet would be 2
[NCERT Pg. 190]
(4) 12 hours
R
(1) RE (2) E 19. A particle is projected vertically up with
(1) (2) 2
5
(3) 2RE (4) 4RE velocity v = gRE from earth surface.
4
16. For a satellite moving in a circular orbit The velocity of particle at height equal to the
around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy maximum height reached by it is
(3) (4)
to the magnitude of potential energy is [NCERT Pg.196]
[NCERT Pg. 196]
13. A body weighs 90 N on the surface of earth. gRE gRE
(1) (2)
1 4 3
The gravitational force on it due to earth at a (1) 1 (2)
height equal to half the radius of earth is
2
gRE
[NCERT Pg. 190] 1 (3) (4) Zero
(3) 2 (4) 5
(1) 81 N (2) 40 N 4
20. When energy of a satellite-Earth system is
(3) 45 N (4) 30 N 17. A point mass m is placed inside a spherical
non-zero positive, then satellite will
shell of mass M and radius R. The
14. The escape speed of a projectile on the gravitational force experienced by the point [NCERT Pg.196]
earth surface is 11.2 km/s. A body is mass is [NCERT Pg. 189] (1) Move around the earth in circular orbit
projected out with three times of escape
speed. The speed of body far away from the GMm GMm (2) Just escape out
(1) (2)
earth is (Ignore the presence of sun and R2 2R 2
(3) Move around the earth in elliptical orbit
other planets) 2GMm
(3) (4) Zero (4) Escape out with speed some interstellar
[NCERT Pg. 202] R2 speed
NCERT Maps Gravitation 39

1. All planets move in ______ orbits with the 9. If we go down a distance d, below the 15. When orbit of a satellite is elliptical, both KE
Sun situated at one of the foci. earth’s surface, the acceleration due to and PE vary from point to point but total
[NCERT Pg. 184] gravity becomes ______ of g at the surface. energy remains ______ and negative as in
2. Law of area is the consequence of [NCERT Pg. 191] the circular orbit case. [NCERT Pg. 196]
conservation of ______ [NCERT Pg. 185] 10. The acceleration due to gravity at the centre 16. Polar satellite are low altitude satellites
3. The force on a point mass (m1) due to of earth is ______.
having h ≈ ______. [NCERT Pg. 197]
another point mass (m2) separated by [NCERT Pg. 191]
 17. The satellite in a circular orbits around the
distance d is | F |= ______. 11. The gravitational potential energy
earth in the equatorial plane with T = 24
[NCERT Pg. 187] associated with two particles of masses m1
hours in same sense of rotation as of earth
4. Gravitational force is ______ in nature. and m2 separated by a distance r is ______.
is called ______ satellite.
[NCERT Pg. 192]
[NCERT Pg. 188]
[NCERT Pg. 196]
12. For a circular orbit near the earth’s surface,
5. The force of attraction due to a hollow
the relation between escape velocity ve and 18. Inside an orbiting satellite, everything is in
spherical shell of uniform density, on a point
orbital velocity v0 will be ______. state of ______. [NCERT Pg. 198]
mass situated ______ is zero
[NCERT Pg. 189] NCERT Pg. 194] 19. The INSAT group of satellite sent up by

6. The value of G is ______. [NCERT Pg. 189] 13. For a satellite near the earth’s surface, time India are one of the group of Geostationary
Re satellites widely used for ______ in India.
7. If earth is assumed to be of uniform mass period of satellite is T0 = 2π , which is
g
density ρ, then gravitational acceleration g [NCERT Pg. 197]
nearly equal to ______. [NCERT Pg. 194]
is given as ______. [NCERT Pg. 190] 20. Time period of geostationary satellite is
8. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a 14. From Kepler’s third law, for earth satellite T2
24 h, while that of polar satellite is about
height h(h<<Re) above the surface of earth = K(Re +h)3. Here K is given as ______.
______. [NCERT Pg. 197]
is ______. [NCERT Pg. 191] [NCERT Pg. 194]

  
 Mechanical Properties of Solids
9
Chapter
1 ELASTICITY AND PLASTICITY 3 HOOKE’S LAW 5 VARIOUS OF MODULUS OF 7 ELASTIC POTENTIAL ENERGY
m Elasticity : Property of a body to regain its original shape and ELASTICITY (IN A STRETCHED WIRE)
size, on removing the deforming force Stress µ strain
(a) Young’s Modulus 1 YA × DL
2
1 FDL
m Plasticity: The inability of a body to regain its original size and Stress = k strain U= =
longitudinal stress FL 2 L 2
shape on the removal of the deforming forces Y = longitudinal strain =
k = modulus of elasticity ADL 1
2 STRESS AND STRAIN = × stress × strain × volume
6 POISSON’S RATIO (b) Bulk Modulus 2
Restoring force
= F unit : N m
–2
m Stress = Elastic potential energy per unit volume
Area A Lateral strain (Dd/d) hydraulic stress
s = Longitudinal strain
= (DL/L) B= 1 1 s
(a) Longitudinal stress : volume strain
u= stress × strain = e
Tensile stress : When a cylinder is stretched by two equal forces 2 2
Dd : Contraction in diameter p
normal to its cross-sectional area the restoring force per unit area of stretched wire. =–
(Dv/v) 8 APPLICATIONS OF ELASTIC
is called Tensile stress.
Compressive stress : If the cylinder is compressed under the 1 BEHAVIOUR OF MATERIALS
4 STRESS - STRAIN CURVE Compressibility k = B
action of applied forces, the restoring force per unit area is called m For a metal m Minimum area of cross - section of
compressive stress. su
Proportional limit D (c) Shear modulus or wire of crane
(b) Tagential stress (or shear stress) : The restoring force per unit yield point E modulus of rigidity
Fracture
area developed due to applied tangential force is called sy point
Mg
B C shearing stress FL A=
tangential or shearing stress. A G = shearing strain = A D x sy
(c) Hydraulic stress : It is the restoring force per unit area. When a
Stress

body under high pressure is compressed uniformly on all sides, Y m Designing beams for bridges
the magnitude is equal to hydraulic pressure. For most materials, G =
3
Change in dimension (No unit) Permanent set
m Strain =
Original dimension 0 30%
F Strain
<1%
O to A : linear curve(Hooke’s Law)
DL
(a) Longitudinal strain = L + DL A : Proportional limit
L L
B : Yield point(elastic limit) ® Corresponding stress is yield strength(sy)
D : Ultimate tensile strength (su)
(a) F E : Fracture point
m Material is brittle if D and E are close and ductile if D and E are far apart
Dx Wl3
(b) Shear strain = = tan q d =
L (4bd3Y)
m For an elastomer
Stress (106 N m–2)
1.0
(b) (c) Very large elastic region, even
d µ d–3
if material does not obey
0.5 So I shaped beam is preferred
Hooke’s law and there is no well
DV defined plastic region. m Maximum height of a mountain
(c) Volume strain =
V 0
0 0.5 1.0 E , E is elastic limit
h=
(d) Strain rg
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Solids 41

1. Which of the following materials is/are close 6. For most materials [NCERT, XI Pg. 242] (1) 3Y
to ideal plastics? [NCERT, XI Pg. 235] Y Y
(1) G ≈ (2) G ≈ (2) Y/3
(1) Putty (2) Mud 3 2
(3) 3Y
(3) Steel (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) G ≈ 3Y (4) G ≈ 2Y
(4) 2Y
2. The restoring mechanism in solids can be 7. The strain perpendicular to the applied force
11. The volume contraction of a solid copper
visualized by taking a model of is called [NCERT, XI Pg. 244]
cube, 10 cm on an edge, when subjected to
[NCERT, XI Pg. 236] (1) Longitudinal strain (2) Volume strain a hydraulic pressure of 107 Pa is
(3) Lateral strain (4) Shear strain (B = 140 × 109 N m–2) [NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
(1) Spring-ball system (2) Atwood machine
8. For aluminium alloys Poisson’s ratio is (1) 0.07 cm3
(3) Plum - Pudding (4) Liquid - Drop
about [NCERT, XI Pg. 244] (2) 0.03 cm3
3. Bulk modulus is relevant for (1) 0.20 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.02 cm3
[NCERT, XI Pg. 246] (3) 0.33 (4) 0.40 (4) 0.01 cm3
(1) Solids only (2) Solid 9. The average depth of Indian ocean is about 12. The stress-strain graphs for materials A and
(3) Fluids (4) Both (2) & (3) ∆V B are as shown in figure
3000 m. The fractional compression, , of
V
4. The strain produced by a hydraulic pressure
water at the bottom of the ocean is
is called [NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
(B = 2 × 109 N m–2, g = 10 m s–2)
(1) Longitudinal strain
[NCERT, XI Pg. 243]
(2) Shearing strain
(1) 1.5% (2) 2.5%
(3) Volume strain (3) 4% (4) 3% The correct statement is
(4) Both (1) & (2) 10. In the graph shown, if the Young’s Modulus [NCERT, XI Pg. 247]
5. The ratio of stress and strain, within of material A is Y, then the Young’s Modulus (1) A is having greater Young’s modulus
proportional limit is called for material B is [NCERT, XI Pg. 238] and B is stronger
[NCERT, XI Pg. 239] (2) B is having greater Young’s modulus
(1) Modulus of elasticity and A is stronger

(2) Compressibility (3) B is having greater Young’s modulus

and it is stronger as well
(3) Poisson’s ratio
(4) A is having greater Young’s modulus
(4) Both (2) & (3) and it is stronger as well
 42 Mechanical Properties of Solids NCERT Maps
13. The edge of an aluminum cube is 10 cm.
One face of the cube is firmly fixed to a
vertical wall. A mass of 100 kg is attached
to the opposite face of the cube. The vertical
deflection of this face is (G = 25 × 109 Pa)
[NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
(1) 4 × 10–7 m (2) 3 × 10–6 m [NCERT, XI Pg. 249]
(3) 2 × 10–6 m (4) 1 × 10–6 m [NCERT, XI Pg. 249] x2 x2
(1) (2)
14. A rigid bar of mass 15 kg is supported (1) 70 cm (2) 35 cm L2 2L2
symmetrically by three wires each 2.0 m
(3) 65 cm (4) 40 cm x 2x 2
long. Those at each end are of copper and (3) (4)
the middle one is of iron. If tension in each L L2
17. In Q16, the distance x from left end to
rod is same, the ratio of diameters is nearly 20. Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made
produce equal strains is
[NCERT, XI Pg. 248] of steel and the other made of brass are
[NCERT, XI Pg. 249] loaded as shown in the figure. The unloaded
(1) 6 (2) 0.8
(1) 70 cm (2) 43.2 cm length of steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass
(3) 4.2 (4) 2.0
wire is 1.0 m. The ratio of tensile stress in
15. The density of water at a depth where (3) 65 cm (4) 35 cm steel to brass wire is (g = 10 m/s2)
pressure is 80.0 atm (Given density at the
18. A 15 kg mass, fastened to the end of a steel
surface is 1.03 × 103 kg m–3, B = 2.2 ×
wire of unstretched length 1.0 m, is whirled
109 N m–2) [NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
in a vertical circle with an angular velocity of
(1) 1.034 × 103 kg m–3 4π radian/s at the bottom of the circle. The
(2) 1.34 × 103 kg m–3 cross-sectional area of the wire is 0.065
cm2. The elongation of the wire when the
(3) 1.64 × 103 kg m–3
mass is at the lowest point is (g = 10 m/s2) [NCERT, XI Pg. 248]
(4) 2.084 × 103 kg m–3
[NCERT, XI Pg. 248] 5
16. A rod of length 1.05 m having negligible (1)
9
mass is supported at its ends by two wires (1) 1.93 mm (2) 2.05 mm
of steel (wire A) and aluminum (wire B) of 5
(3) 1.65 mm (4) 3.05 mm (2)
equal lengths as shown in figure. The cross- 2
sectional areas of wire A and B are 2.0 mm2 19. A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross-
sectional area A is stretched, within elastic 3
and 4.0 mm2, respectively. The distance x (3)
limit, horizontally between two pillars as 2
from left end, where a mass m is suspended
shown in the figure. A mass m is suspended
in order to produce equal stresses, is 4
from the mid-point of the wire. Strain in the (4)
(Ysteel = 2×1011 N m–2, YAl = 7×1010 N m–2) wire is 3
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Solids 43

1. Stress is defined as _______ per unit area 9. Compressibility K and Bulk modulus B are 15. Metals have _______ values of Young’s
[NCERT, XI Pg. 236] related as K = _______ modulus than elastomers. [NCERT Pg. 247]
2. A class of solids called _______ does not [NCERT, XI Pg. 242] 16. When a massless wire is suspended from
obey Hooke’s Law. [NCERT, XI Pg. 239] ceiling and stretched under the action of a
10. The elastic potential energy per unit volume
3. Our feeling that a material which stretches weight F suspended from its other end,
in terms of longitudinal strain σ and Young’s
more is more _______ is a misnomer. tension at any cross-section is _______.
modulus Y is _______.
[NCERT, XI Pg. 247] [NCERT Pg. 246]
[NCERT, XI Pg. 244]
4. _______ modulus is relevant for solid, liquid 17. Stress is vector quantity. (True/False)
and gases. [NCERT, XI Pg. 242] 11. Rubber is _______ elastic than steel.
[NCERT Pg. 247]
5. The elastic potential energy per unit volume [NCERT, XI Pg. 239]
18. The Young’s modulus and shear modulus
1 12. _______ are most compressible.
is equals to × stress × _______. are relevant only for _______.
2
[NCERT Pg. 243] [NCERT Pg. 246]
[NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
13. A pillar with rounded ends supports 19. A force F is required to break a wire of length
6. If ultimate tensile strength and fracture point
_______ load than that with distributed l and radius r. The force required to break a
are close, the material is called _______.
shape at the ends. [NCERT Pg. 245] wire of same material and same length,
[NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
14. A bar of length l, breadth b, and depth d, having twice the radius is _______.
7. On stress-strain curve, yield point is also
when loaded at the centre by a load W sags [NCERT Pg. 238]
called _______ limit [NCERT, XI Pg. 238]
by an amount δ . This δ is proportional to
8. For steel, the value of Poisson’s ratio is in 20. If ultimate tensile strength and fracture point
dn. The value of n is _______.
between _______ and _______. are far apart, then material is said to be
[NCERT Pg. 245] _______. [NCERT Pg. 238]
[NCERT, XI Pg. 244]
  
 Mechanical Properties of Fluids
10
Chapter

1 PRESSURE 4 ARCHIMEDES PRINCIPLE 6 BERNOULLI'S EQUATION

m Average pressure is defined as the normal force acting m Loss of weight of a body submerged (partially or m It states that for a steady flow of an ideal fluid, the sum of
per unit area completely) in a fluid is equal to the weight of the fluid pressure energy per unit volume (P), kinetic energy per
F displaced.
Pav = rb unit volume and potential energy per unit volume remains
A Weight of fluid displaced = rl Vs g = FB
constant.
DF If rb < rl; then body will float rl
P = Lim , It is a scalar quantity. 2
P + 1/2 rv + rgh = constant
DA ® 0 DA
m Phenomenons associated: Heart attack, magnus effect
If rb = rl; body will just float with fully submerged
2 VARIATION OF PRESSURE WITH DEPTH and aerofoil (lift of aircraft)
If rb > rl; then body will sink m Venturi-meter: It is a device used to measure the flow
Pressure difference
speed of incompressible fluid.
P2 – P1 = rgh 1
m Law of Floatation
Vs rb
If point 1 is at free surface of liquid For Floating object = 2 rm gh A –1
2 –1/2
h Vb rl v1 =
then P2 = Pa + rgh mg r a
Fraction of vol. submerged = ratio of density of body and
2
P – Pa = rgh (called gauge pressure) fluid
m Instruments used to measure pressure
m Buoyant Force a
A v1 v2 v1
Pa Buoyant force is equal to weight of the fluid displaced.

Pg Buoyant force depends on geff

h Pa h
h Buoyant force acts opposite to geff Liquid of
A B density rm.
rb h
rl
m Speed of efflux: Torricelli's Law
Mercury barometer The open tube
used to measure manometer, used to measure A1v1 = A2v2, if v2 << v1
atmospheric pressure pressure of gas
5 STREAMLINE FLOW
Pa = rgh Pg = Pa + rgh 2(P – Pa)
m The flow is said to be steady if at any given point, the v1 = 2gh + r
velocity of each passing fluid particle remains constant in A2
3 PASCAL'S LAW When P >> Pa and 2gh may be P2 = P
time. The path taken by fluid particle under steady flow m

m When ever an external pressure is applied on any part of a called streamline. ignored. A1
fluid contained in a vessel, it is transmitted undiminished m Equation of continuity: In stream line flow, mass of liquid m On the other hand tank is open
v1
and equally in all directions. coming out equals to the mass of liquid flowing in to atmosphere, then P = Pa Pa
Devices based on Pascal's law A1v1 = A2v2
v1 = 2gh
(i) Hydraulic lift (ii) Hydraulic brakes It is based on conservation of mass.
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Fluids 45

7 VISCOSITY 10 SURFACE TENSION 12 DROPS AND BUBBLES

m The property of fluid due to which it opposes relative m Surface: It is the thickness of few molecular size. m Pinside > Poutside (For liquid-gas interface, the convex side
motion between its different layers in steady flow called m Surface Tension: The property of liquid by which the free has lower pressure than on concave side.)
viscosity. surface of liquid at rest tends to have minimum surface
l Liquid drop, air bubble in water have one surfaces so,
m Tangential force between the layer area called surface tension.
dv Surface tension can be defined as the force per unit length DAeff = DAGeo
F = –hA
dr v + dv on imaginary line drawn at the surface of liquid
h = coefficient of viscosity P0 P0 P0
F
Shearing stress v S=
h= r r + dr l Pi Pi
m Pi
Shear strain rate r
m Surface tension of a liquid falls with temperature.
m SI unit is poiseiulle (rl).
m Surface energy: Molecules on the surface of liquid have Drop Cavity Bubble
some extra potential energy in comparison to molecules in 2S 2S 4S
8 STOKE'S LAW the interior. A liquid thus tends to have minimum surface Pi – P0 = Pi – P0 = Pi – P0 =
r r r
4 3 area.
m The viscous force acting on a spherical FB = pr sg
3
body of radius a. F = –6phav
FV
11 SURFACE ENERGY AND SURFACE TENSION 13 CAPILLARITY
m Terminal velocity: FV = 6pr hv
2
2 r (r – s)g 4 3 m Work done in increasing d m When a capillary tube is dipped in any liquid then liquid
vt = W = pr rg
9 h 3 surface area. either rise or fall inside the capillary tube.
r = density of sphere material Height of liquid column rise or fall inside a capillary tube is
v W = S(DAeff) l DA m

s = density of fluid l Thin film, liquid bubble have

vt 2Scosq
two surfaces so, h=
m Variation of Velocity with Time a rg

t DAeff = 2DAGeo. 1
hµ
m Angle of contact: a
Sla Pa
9 REYNOLDS NUMBER (Re):
q
Sla
Inertial force q q h
Re = (dimensionless) a
Viscous force
Ssa Ssl Ssa Ssl
r vd At the point of contact, the angle between tangent planes
Re = h m
drawn at the surface of liquid and at surface of solid inside
Where v = velocity of liquid liquid called angle of contact.
r = density of liquid l If q < 90° ® Surface will be concave, liquid stick to solid m In a tube of insufficient length, liquid will rise to the top of
and rise in capillary. capillary, increase radius of curvature and stay there.
m The flow is turbulent for Re > 2000.
l If q > 90° ® Surface will be convex, liquid does not stick Never comes out in the form of fountain.
m Flow is unsteady for Re between 1000 and 2000. to solid and fall in capillary.
m This is consequence of pressure difference across a
m Flow is streamline for Re less than 1000. l If q = 90° ® Surface will be plane, liquid does not stick to curved liquid air interface a well known effect that water
m Critical Reynold number is one at which turbulence sets. solid neither rise nor fall in capillary.
rises up in narrow tube inspite of gravity.
m Reynold number helps study nature of fluid flow. l Water forms droplets over a lotus leaf while spreads
m Turbulence dissipates kinetic energy in the form of heat. over a clean plastic plate.
 46 Mechanical Properties of Fluids NCERT Maps

1. The energy required for having a molecule (3) The velocity of all fluid particles at a 7. Streamline flow is more likely for liquids with
at the surface of liquid is [NCERT Pg. 261] given instant is constant [NCERT Pg. 260]
(1) Heat of evaporation (4) The speed of all fluid particle at any (1) High density and high viscosity
instant must be constant
(2) Roughly half the heat of evaporation (2) Low density and low viscosity
5. Which of the following statements is
(3) Heat capacity
incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 257] (3) High density and low viscosity
(4) Roughly half of heat capacity of liquid (1) Blood is more viscous than water (4) Low density and high viscosity
2. Which of the following conversion is correct? (2) The blood pressure in humans is greater 8. The ratio of inertial force to the viscous force
[NCERT Pg. 250] at the feet than at the brain represents [NCERT Pg. 260]
(1) 1 atm = 1.01 × 104 Pa (3) The angle of contact of mercury with (1) Magnus effect
(2) 1 mm of Hg = 133 Pa glass is obtuse while that of water with
glass is acute (2) Reynold's number
(3) 1 bar = 107 Pa
(4) A spinning cricket ball in air follows a (3) Relative density
(4) 1 torr = 102 Pa
parabolic trajectory
(4) Torricelli's law
3. Pressure is equal to [NCERT Pg. 247] 6. A manometer reads the pressure of a gas in
9. The onset of turbulence in a liquid is
(1) It is product of force and area and both an enclosure as shown in figure. The
determined by [NCERT Pg. 260]
force and area are vectors absolute and gauge pressure of the gas (in
cm of mercury) in the enclosure is (1) Pascal's law
(2) It is the ratio of force which is a vector
and parallel to area (2) Avogadro number
(3) It is ratio of the component of force (3) Stoke's law
normal to area
(4) Reynold's number
(4) It depends on size of area chosen
10. A plane is in level flight and each of its wings
(Take atmospheric pressure = 76 cm of Hg)
4. Along a streamline in flow has an area 20 m2. If the speed of air on
[NCERT Pg. 250] upper and lower surfaces are 80 m/s and 70
[NCERT Pg. 253]
(1) 76, 20 m/s respectively, then the mass of plane is
(1) The velocity of a fluid particle remains
(density of air = 1 kg/m3) [NCERT Pg. 271]
constant (2) 20, 76
(3) 96, 20 (1) 1500 kg (2) 1700 kg
(2) The velocity of all fluid particles crossing
a given position is constant (4) 20, 96 (3) 1650 kg (4) 1750 kg
NCERT Maps Mechanical Properties of Fluids 47

11. Which of the following instrument is used to 14. When a drop of water splits up into number 17. When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid,
measure blood pressure in humans? of droplets [NCERT Pg. 264] the liquid rises to a height h in the tube. The
[NCERT Pg. 273] free liquid surface in the tube is
(1) Surface area will increase hemispherical in shape. The tube is now
(1) Sphygmomanometer (2) Volume decreases pushed down so the height of the tube
outside the liquid is less than h. Then the
(2) Cardioverter defibrillator (3) Energy is absorbed [NCERT Pg. 265]
(3) Barometer (4) Both (1) and (3) (1) Liquid will come out of the tube in the
15. Which of the following statement is not true form of small fountain
(4) Syphnometer
about angle of contact? [NCERT Pg. 263] (2) Liquid will ooze out of the tube slowly
12. When temperature increases, the viscosity
(1) The angle of contact for pure water and (3) Free liquid surface inside the tube
of [NCERT Pg. 259] remain hemispherical
glass is nearly zero
(1) Gases decreases and liquids increases (4) Liquid will rise to the top of capillary tube
(2) Angle of contact may increase with
increase the radius of curved surface
(2) Gases increases and liquid decreases increase in temperature and stay there
(3) Both gases and liquids increases (3) If the angle of contact of a liquid and a 18. Dynamic lift due to spinning of a ball is
(4) Both gases and liquids decreases solid surface is less than 90°, then liquid [NCERT Pg. 257]
spread on surface of solid
13. Which of the following figure shown below is (1) Magnus effect (2) Doppler's effect
(4) Angle of contact depends upon the (3) Pascal effect (4) Torricelli effect
correct regarding the steady flow of an ideal
inclination of the solid surface to the
liquid? [NCERT Pg. 269] 19. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity v
liquid surface in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum, then
16. A soap bubble is having internal and [NCERT Pg. 260]
(1) external radii as R and 2R respectively. If (1) Terminal velocity of sphere is equal to v
surface tension of soap solution is T, then (2) Terminal velocity of sphere is greater
excess pressure inside bubble will be than v
[NCERT Pg. 264] (3) Terminal velocity of sphere is less than v
(2)
4T (4) Sphere will never attain terminal velocity
(1)
R 20. The sap in tree rises in a system of
capillaries of radius 2.5 × 10–5 m.
3T
(3) (2) The surface tension of sap is 7.28 × 10–2 N/m
R and the angle of contact is 0°. The maximum
2T height to which sap can rise in a tree through
(3) capillary action is (density of sap is = 1 ×
R
103 kg/m3) [NCERT Pg. 265]
(4) 4T
(4) (1) 0.21 m (2) 0.59 m
3R (3) 0.87 m (4) 0.91 m
 48 Mechanical Properties of Fluids NCERT Maps

1. Shearing stress of fluids is about _______ 8. Steady flow is achieved at _______ flow 14. The dynamic lift due to spinning is called
times smaller than that of solids. speeds. [NCERT Pg. 253] _______. [NCERT Pg. 257]
[NCERT Pg. 246] 15. In fluids, the stress is found experimentally
9. In laminar flow velocities at different points
2. Force due to pressure on a surface is to depends on _______.
in the fluid may have _______ but their
_______ to the surface. directions are _______. [NCERT Pg. 254] [NCERT Pg. 258]
[NCERT Pg. 247] 16. Relative viscosity (η/ηwater) of blood remains
10. Bernoulli's equation is a general expression
3. The excess pressure (P – Pa) at depth h in that relates the pressure difference between constant between temperature _______.
liquid is called _______ at that point. two points in a pipe to both _______ and [NCERT Pg. 259]
[NCERT Pg. 248] _______. [NCERT Pg. 254] 17. In a turbulent flow, the velocity of the fluids
4. In manometer for measuring small pressure 11. A fluid flowing out of a small hole in a vessel at any point in space varies _______ and
differences we use _______ density liquids. results in a _______ on the vessel. _______ with time. [NCERT Pg. 260]
[NCERT Pg. 250]
[NCERT Pg. 268] 18. Turbulence promotes mixing and increase
5. Whenever external pressure is applied on the rates of transfer of _______, momentum
any part of a fluid contained in a vessel it is 12. The venturimeter is a device to measure the and _______.
transmitted _______ and _______ in all _______ of incompressible fluid.
[NCERT Pg. 261]
directions. [NCERT Pg. 251] [NCERT Pg. 256]
19. The pressure at the concave surface of
6. In steady flow at any given point, the velocity
13. The speed of flow of the blood in an artery liquid is _______ than, that at the convex
of each passing fluid particle _______ in
in a region of constriction is raised which surface. [NCERT Pg. 266]
time. [NCERT Pg. 253]
lowers the _______ inside the artery and it 20. The coefficient of viscosity for a fluid is
7. Equation of continuity is a statement of may collapse due to _______. defined as the ratio of _______.
_______ in flow of incompressible fluids.
[NCERT Pg. 253] [NCERT Pg. 257] [NCERT Pg. 267]

  
 Thermal Properties of Matter
11
Chapter

1 TEMPERATURE 2 HEAT 3 CALORIMETRY 5 CHANGE OF STATE

m Temperature is a relative measure of A form of energy transferred between two or m Heat lost by a part at higher temperature is
hotness or coldness. more systems by virtue of temperature equal to heat gained by the part at lower m Change of state from solid to liquid is
difference. temperature. called melting or fusion.
m Heat transfer takes place between system
and surrounding medium until they are at Thermal Expansion m Calorimetry means measurement of heat. m Change of state from liquid to vapour is
same temperature. m A change in temperature of a body m A device in which heat measurement can be called vaporisation
m Measure of temperature is obtained using a causes change in its dimensions. done is called a calorimeter. CHANGE
m OF STATEat
The temperature ONwhich
HEATtheSUPPLY
liquid
thermometer. and vapour states of substance
Three types of expansion 4 HEAT CAPACITY
m Some properties of material change with coexist is called its Boiling point.
The change in temperature of a substance, when
temperature to be used as basis of Boiling point increases with increase in
1. Linear Expansion a given quantity of heat is absorbed or rejected is m
constructing thermometer. Dl 1
al = ´ characterised by a quantity called heat capacity. pressure and vice versa.
m For standard scale a fixed reference point l DT
m The change from solid state to vapour
is taken. DQ
S= state without passing through the
m A relationship for conversion between DT
Fahrenheit and Celsius temperature scale is 2. Area Expansion liquid state is called sublimation and
t F - 32 t Specific heat capacity substance is said to sublime.
= c DA 1
180 100 aa = ´ Latent heat
A DT This is unique value of heat absorbed or given
m A temperature –273.15°C is designated as off, to change unit mass of it by one unit m Amount of heat transferred during
absolute zero. This is foundation of Kelvin aa = 2al temperature change. change of state of substance is called
temperature scale. For anisotropic solid aa = al1 + al2 its latent heat.
m Size of unit of Kelvin and Celsius 3. Volume Expansion s=
S
=
1 DQ
DQ
temperature scales is the same. Relation m m DT L= J kg –1
M
between scales is DV 1
aV = ´ Molar specific heat
V DT L depends on pressure.
TK = tC + 273.15 m

If the amount of substance is specified in terms m Solid-liquid state change ® Latent

m aV is constant only at high temperature of moles heat of fusion (Lf)
6 TRIPLE POINT we define heat capacity per mole
P The temperature and pressure at which m Pyrex glass and invar has low aV. m Liquid-gas state change ® Latent heat
(atm)
A
the fusion curve, the vaporisation curve m Alcohol has high volume expansion S 1 æ DQ ö -1 -1 of vaporisation (Lv)
C= = ç J mol K
and the sublimation curve meet and all coefficient than mercury. m m è DT ø÷
the three phases of a substance coexist 1 5
22.6 × 10 J/kg
m aV = for ideal gases For gases two molar specific heat (540 kcal/kg)
T Boiling Phase
218
Solid
C
(aV )gases > (aV )liquid > (aV )solids capacities point change
100 5
3.33 × 10 J/kg Gas
Liquid AO ® Fusion curve

Temperature (°C)
(80 kcal/kg) phase
BO ® Sublimation curve m When a solid rod has its ends rigidly Molar specific heat Molar specific heat Melting Phase
(steam)
point change Liquid phase
O CO ® Vaporisation curve fixed, it results in thermal stress in capacity at constant capacity at constant 0 (water)
0.006 B Vapour material which is proportional to pressure CP volume CV Solid phase
B temperature change. (ice)
–220 0.01 374 T(°C)
Thermal Stress = Y×al×DT
Pressure-temperature phase diagrams for water CP – CV = R (for ideal gases)
50 Thermal Properties of Matter NCERT Maps

HEAT TRANSFER MODES

7 CONDUCTION 8 CONVECTION 9 RADIATION

m It is a mechanism of heat transfer between In convection mode heat transfer by actual motion of matter occurs. m This heat transfer mechanism needs
adjacent parts of a body due to temperature m Convection occurs in fluids only. no medium.
difference. m Two types of convections are m Energy transferred by waves is called
m At steady state, the temperature of bar, through 1. Natural convection radiant energy.
which heat is flowing, decreases with distance, 2. Forced convection m Heat transferred from sun to earth is
and heat starts flowing at a constant rate. m Trade winds is example of natural convection in which gravity plays an important role. by radiation.
m The rate of flow of heat m In forced convection material is forced to move by a pump. Human circulatory m Radiations emitted by hot bodies are
system, cooling system of automobile engine are forced convection method. called thermal radiations.
æ T - TC ö
H = KA ç H ÷
è L ø

L LAWS OF RADIATIONS
H Conduction 10 Wien's Displacement Law 11 Stefan-Boltzmann's Law
TH TC Convection Wavelength for which radiation For a black body which is perfect
energy is maximum decreases with radiator energy emitted per unit
TH = Hot end Temperature time is given as
increasing temperature.
TC = Cold end Temperature 4
lmT = constant H=AsT
L = Length of rod Radiation
Value of constant (Wien's constant) A is area, T is absolute temperature
A = Cross -section of rod
o f b o d y, s i s c a l l e d S t e f a n
K is called thermal conductivity of material. –3
is 2.9 × 10 m K. Boltzmann's constant
m Greater value of K for a material, more rapidly m This law is used to measure –8 –2 –4
–1 –1
loge (T2 – T1) s = 5.67 × 10 Wm K
will it conduct heat. Its SI units are Wm K surface temperature of celestial
DT(°C) m But if a body is surrounded by
bodies like stars, moon and sun.
surroundings at temperature Ts.
12 Newton's law of cooling time For perfect radiator net rate of heat
O time
cooling curve radiated
Rate of heat loss of a body is directly H = sA(T 4 - Ts4 )
proportional to difference of temperature of Average method
Change in temperature
dQ = kDT m For body with emissivity e
body and surroundings. - = k (TB - TS ) time
dt modified relation is
m This law holds for small temperature DT = (Tav – Ts) 0<e£l
difference only. H = esA(T 4 - Ts4 )
loge (T2 – T1) = –kt + C

13 Greenhouse effect: The absorption of infrared waves by greenhouse gases such as CO2, methane (CH4) nitrous dude (N2O) chlorofluorocarbon (CFxClx) and ozone (O3). Heating of
atmosphere ® More energy to earth ® Warmer surface. Without Greenhouse effect temperature of earth would have been –18°C
NCERT Maps Thermal Properties of Matter 51

1. A rod of length 5 m is prevented from 4. The property of water that has important 7. Which of the following graph gives the
thermal expansion by fixing its ends rigidly. environmental effect on marine life is correct dependency of coefficient of volume
Its cross-sectional area is 40 cm2. [NCERT Pg. 282] expansion of copper with temperature?
Calculate thermal stress developed on a (1) Low viscosity [NCERT Pg. 281]
temperature rise of 20°C, if Y = 2 × 1011
(2) Low thermal conductivity
Nm–2 and α = 1.2 × 10–5 K–1.
(3) High heat capacity (1)
[NCERT Pg. 283]
(4) Maximum density at 4°C
(1) 2.4 × 103 N m–2
5. Coefficient of volume expansion of ideal
(2) 2.4 × 107 N m–2 gases at constant pressure and at
(3) 4.8 × 107 N m–2 temperature T K is equal to
[NCERT Pg. 282]
(4) 5.6 × 107 N m–2
1 (2)
2. A blacksmith fixes iron ring on rim of woods (1)
T
wheel of a cart. The diameter of rim and iron
ring are 3.243 m and 3.231 m respectively (2) T
at 27°C. To what temperature should ring be 1
(3)
heated to fit on rim? (α = 1.2 × 10–5 K–1) T2
[NCERT Pg. 283]
(4) T
(1) 309.5°C (3)
6. Assertion: When hot water is poured in a
(2) 336.5°C beaker of thick glass, the beaker cracks.
(3) 412°C Reason: The beaker experiences unequal
expansion. [NCERT Pg. 280]
(4) 232.6°C
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
3. A temperature of 60°C in Fahrenheit scale is
reason is true explanation of assertion
equal to [NCERT Pg. 279]
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (4)
(1) 104°F reason is not correct explanation of
(2) 140°F assertion
(3) 119°F (3) Assertion is true but reason is false

(4) 100°F (4) Both assertion and reason are false

 52 Thermal Properties of Matter NCERT Maps
8. The specific heat of a substance depends (1) 392.69 K, 391.98 K 14. Steam at 100°C causes more burns than
on [NCERT Pg. 284] (2) 362.3 K, 378.6 K boiling water at 100°C because
(1) Nature of substance [NCERT Pg. 289]
(3) 378.4 K, 375.4 K
(2) Temperature of the substance (1) Low specific heat of steam
(4) 387.5 K, 386.3 K
(3) Mass of the substance (2) Steam is in gaseous phase
11. Boiling water is converting into steam at
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Steam at 100°C carries more heat than
atmospheric pressure. The heat supplied is
9. An aluminium sphere of mass 47 gm is at now being utilised to change water from water at 100°C
100°C. It is then transferred to 140 gm liquid state to vapour state. Under this (4) Steam has low viscosity
copper calorimeter containing 250 gm of condition, specific heat of water is
water at 20°C. In steady state the 15. The incorrect statement among the
[NCERT Pg. 287] following is [NCERT Pg. 293]
temperature of water rises by 3°C. What is
specific heat of aluminium if that of copper is (1) Less than zero (1) Cooking pots have copper coating on
386 J kg–1 K–1? [NCERT Pg. 286] (2) Zero bottom to promote distribution of heat
(1) 911 J kg–1 K–1 quickly
(3) Slightly greater than zero
(2) 516 J kg–1 K–1 (2) Plastic foams are insulators because
(4) Infinite
they contain pockets of air
(3) 312 J kg–1 K–1
12. Certain amount of heat is given to 200 gm of (3) Convection can be forced or natural but
(4) 612 J kg–1 K–1 copper to increase its temperature by 20°C. is possible only in fluids
10. Two ideal gas thermometers A and B use If same amount of heat is given to 60 gm of
oxygen and hydrogen gas respectively. water, then rise in its temperature is (4) Trade winds is an example of forced
Following observation were made (Specific heat of copper = 385 J kg–1 K–1 and convection

Temperature Pressure Pressure water = 4200 J kg–1 K–1) [NCERT Pg. 289] 16. An iron bar of conductivity K1 = 79 W m–1
thermometer A thermometer K–1 and an identical brass bar of conductivity
(1) 4°C (2) 5°C
B K2 = 109 W m–1 K–1 are soldered end to end.
(3) 6°C (4) 9°C The free end of iron and brass bars are
Triple point of 1.25 × 105 Pa 2 × 104 Pa
water 13. When 150 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with maintained at 400 K and 300 K respectively.
Normal 1.797 × 105 Pa 2.87 × 104 Pa
300 gm of water at 50°C in a container, the What is temperature of junction of two bars?
melting point resulting temperature is [NCERT Pg. 292]
of sulphur
(Lf = 3.34 × 105 J kg–1, Sw = 4186 J kg–1 K–1) (1) 350 K
What is absolute temperature of normal (2) 342 K
[NCERT Pg. 289]
melting point of sulphur as read by
(1) 2.7°C (2) 3.7°C (3) 333 K
thermometer A and B respectively?
[NCERT Pg. 300] (3) 5.7°C (4) 6.7°C (4) 305 K
NCERT Maps Thermal Properties of Matter 53

17. When a piece of iron is heated in a hot 18. A tungsten lamp at a temperature of 3000 K (3) Square of area of the black body
flame, it first becomes dull red, then reddish has surface area of 0.3 cm2. If the lamp has (4) Square of temperature on Celsius scale.
yellow and finally white hot. This emissivity of 0.4, the rate of heat radiated is
20. A box filled with hot tea cools from 94°C to
phenomenon can be explained by [NCERT Pg. 295]
86°C in 4 minute, when room temperature is
(1) 40 W (2) 50 W
[NCERT Pg. 294] 40°C. How long will it take to cool from 71°C
(3) 90 W (4) 55 W to 69°C? [NCERT Pg. 297]
(1) Stefan- Boltzmann’s law 19. The amount of radiations emitted by a
(1) 10 minute
(2) Greenhouse effect perfectly black body is proportional to
[NCERT Pg. 295] (2) 3 minute
(3) Wien’s displacement law (1) Temperature on ideal gas scale (3) 100 second

(4) Newton’s law of cooling (2) Fourth power of temperature on ideal (4) 50 second
gas scale

1. Heat transfer takes place between system 5. With a constant volume gas thermometer, 10°C and coefficient of linear expansion is
and surrounding medium, until the body and temperature is read in terms of _______. 1.2 × 10–5 K–1. The thermal strain produced
surrounding medium are at same _______. [NCERT Pg. 280] is _______
[NCERT Pg. 278] 6. Coefficient of volume expansion of a [NCERT Pg. 283]
substance depends in general on 10. Coefficient of area expansion is _______
2. Heat is a form of energy transferred temperature, it becomes constant only at times its linear expansivity in solids.
between two systems or a system and _______ temperature [NCERT Pg. 281] [NCERT Pg. 283]
surroundings by virtue of _______.
7. Value of αν for alcohol (ethanol) is _______
[NCERT Pg. 279] 11. If equal amount of heat is added to equal
than mercury. [NCERT Pg. 282] masses of different substances, the
3. On the Fahrenheit scale, there are _______ 8. The volume of a given amount of water resulting temperature change will be
equal intervals between two reference _______ as it is cooled from room different. [NCERT Pg. 284]
points and on the Celsius scale, there are temperature until its temperature reaches
_______. [NCERT Pg. 279] (1) True (2) False
4°C. Below 4°C, the density _______.
4. If Fahrenheit is plotted along y-axis and [NCERT Pg. 282] 12. Specific heat capacity of a substance
Celsius temperature on x-axis, the shape of depends on nature of substance and its
9. Consider a steel rail of length 5 m and area
graph obtained is a _______. mass. [NCERT Pg. 284]
of cross-section 40 cm2 that is prevented
[NCERT Pg. 279] from expansion. Its temperature rises by (1) True (2) False
 54 Thermal Properties of Matter NCERT Maps
13. Water is used as a coolant in automobile 16. Boiling point of water inside the cooker is [NCERT Pg. 293]
radiators as well as a heater in hot water ______ by increasing the pressure. 19. The amount of heat that a body can absorb
bags due to its ______ specific heat [NCERT Pg. 288] by radiation depends on the colour of the
capacity. [NCERT Pg. 285] 17. The heat required during a change of state body. This statement is [NCERT Pg. 294]
14. The temperature at which the liquid and the of substance depends upon the heat of (1) True
vapour states of the substance co-exist is transformation and mass of substance
(2) False
called its _______. [NCERT Pg. 287] undergoing the change. [NCERT Pg. 289]
20. The wavelength (λm) for which energy
15. The temperature and pressure at which the (1) True (2) False
radiated by a hot body is maximum
fusion curve, the vaporisation curve and 18. Cooling system of an automobile engine, decreases with increasing temperature.
sublimation curve meet and all three phases human circulatory system, heating system This statement is related with _______ law.
coexist is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 287] in homes are examples of ______. [NCERT Pg. 295]

  
 Thermodynamics
12
Chapter

1 THERMODYNAMIC EQUILIBRIUM 4 SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITY 6 THERMODYNAMIC STATE VARIABLES

m Temperature of a body is related to its average internal m Molar specific heat at constant volume. m Thermodynamic state variables describe equilibrium state of
energy, not to kinetic energy of motion of centre of mass. system. These state variables are not necessarily independent.
æ DQ ö æ DU ö
CV = ç ÷ =ç ÷ m The connection among state variables is called equation of state.
m Equilibrium in thermodynamics refer to situation when è DT øV è DT ø
macroscopic variables defining thermodynamic state of m Equilibrium state of thermodynamic system is described by state
m Molar specific heat at constant pressure variables. The value of state variable depends on particular state
system don't depend on time. not by the path used to arrive that state. Pressure, volume,
æ DQ ö æ DU ö æ DV ö
CP = ç ÷ =ç ÷ + P ç DT ÷ temperature and mass are state variable. Heat and work are not
è DT øP è DT øP è øP
2 ZEROTH LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS state variables.
æ DV ö
m Two systems in thermal equilibrium with third system PV = RT \ P ç ÷ =R m For an ideal gas, equation of state is PV = mRT
è DT øP
separately are in thermal equilibrium with each other. m Thermodynamic state variables are of two types
m If TA = TC and TB = TC, then TA = TB CP = CV + R (MAYER'S Equation)
m (1) Extensive
m Thermodynamic variable whose value is equal for two
C C +R R (2) Intensive
systems in thermal equilibrium is called temperature. m g= P = V = 1+
CV CV CV m Extensive variables indicates size of system.
3 HEAT, INTERNAL ENERGY AND WORK CP = g × CV m Internal energy, volume and mass are extensive variables. But
m Heat is energy transfer arising due to temperature difference pressure, temperature and density are intensive variables.
between system and surroundings. 5 FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
m Internal energy is simply the sum of kinetic energies and 7 REVERSIBLE AND IRREVERSIBLE PROCESS
m DQ = DU + DW (Energy conservation law)
potential energies of the molecules in the frame of reference m Spontaneous processes in nature are irreversible.
to which centre of mass of system is at rest. DQ = heat supplied to system by the surrounding
m A process is reversible if the process can be turned back such that
m Internal energy depends on state of the system, not how the DW = work done by the system on the surrounding both the system and surrounding return to their original states with
state was achieved. DU = Change in internal energy of a the system no any other change anywhere else in universe.
m There are two ways to change internal energy of a m Heat supplied to system goes in partly to increase
thermodynamic system m A quasi-static isothermal expansion of an ideal gas in a cylinder
internal energy and rest in work on environment. fitted with a frictionless movable piston is a reversible process.
(1) To do work on system m This is simply the general law of conservation of
(2) Supply heat to system energy applied to any system in which energy m A quasi-static process is an infinitely slow process such that system
So heat and work are two modes of altering the state of a transfer is taken into account. remains in thermal and mechanical equilibrium with surroundings
thermodynamic system and changing internal energy. throughout. In this process pressure and temperature of the
m DW = PDV environment can differ from those of system only infinitesimally.
m Heat and work in Thermodynamics are not state variables. \ DQ = DU + PDV
m U is a state variable. DU depends only on initial and final
states and not on path taken by gas to go from one to 8 THERMODYNAMIC PROCESSES
another.
m DQ and DW will depend on path taken to go from initial to m A thermodynamic process is an activity where a
final state. thermodynamic system is taken from one
m Work done during thermodynamic process equilibrium state to another.
v2
DW = m Reversible process
ò PdV
v1
m Irreversible process
m Area under the P – V diagram with the volume axis gives the
work done in thermodynamic process. No accelerated motion of Piston
m Cyclic process
 56 Thermodynamics NCERT Maps

9 ISOTHERMAL PROCESS 12 ISOCHORIC PROCESS 14 HEAT ENGINE

m For isothermal process Temperature during the process m For isochoric process volume during the process should be m Heat engine is a device in which a system undergoes a
should be constant constant cyclic process resulting in conversion of heat in to the
PV = constant P sink.
= constant
m So pressure of given mass of a gas varies inversely as its T m Efficiency of the engine is
volume. m Work done in isochoric process, DW = PDV = 0 W Q1 - Q2 Q
h= = = 1- 2
m Work done in isothermal process. m DQ = DU + DW Q1 Q1 Q1
If a system of ideal gas at temperature T goes from DQ = DU Q1 = heat absorbed from source
(P1, V1) to (P2, V2) equilibrium state, then work done m Heat absorbed by gas goes entirely to change its internal Q2 = heat released to sink
æv ö æP ö energy and its temperature. h = efficiency of heat engine
W = mRT ln ç 2 ÷ = mRT ln ç 1 ÷
è v1 ø è P2 ø
m Change in internal energy is determined by specific heat at
constant volume and temperature change. W
m Here DT = 0 \ DU = 0

Cold Reservoir T2
Hot Reservoir T1
æV ö 13 CYCLIC PROCESS
DQ = DW = mRT ln ç 2 ÷
è V1 ø m In any cyclic process system returns to initial state, DU = 0 Q1 Q2
m Hence total heat absorbed equals the work done by the system, Engine
10 ADIABATIC PROCESS DQ = DW
m In adiabatic process heat interaction between system and
surrounding is zero. i.e. DQ = 0 15 REFRIGERATOR
g
m PV = constant m A refrigerator is the reverse of a heat engine. Working
m Heat engine based on idealised reversible processes
Where g = ratio of molar specific heats at constant substance extracts heat from cold reservoir, some external
achieve the highest possible efficiency.
pressure and at constant volume. work is done on system and heat is released to reservoir at high
m System is insulated from surroundings and heat absorbed temperature.
or released is zero. heat extracted 17 CARNOT ENGINE
m Coefficient of performance of refrigerator = Carnot engine is a reversible engine operating between
m Work done by gas results in decrease in its internal work input m

energy. two temperatures T1 and T2. Carnot cycle consists of

Q2 Q2 T2 1- h two isothermal and two adiabatic processes. Its
m If system change from (P1, V1, T1) to (P2, V2, T2) b= = = =
W Q1 - Q2 (T1 - T2 ) h efficiency is
mR(T1 - T2 ) (PV - P2V2 ) (P1, V1, T1)
DW = = 1 1 where g = CP/CV T2
g -1 ( g - 1) m Coefficient of performance for heat pump is h = 1- P (P2, V2, T1)
m If work done by gas (W > 0), then, T2 < T1 T1
Q T1 1
b= 1 = =
W T1 - T2 h
11 ISOBARIC PROCESS
m For isobaric process pressure during the process (P4, V4, T2)
should be constant 16 SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS (P3, V3, T2)
V m Kelvin-Planck statement : No process is possible whose sole V
= constant result is absorption of heat from a reservoir and complete
T m Engine efficiency of Carnot engine does not depend on
conversion of heat into work.
m Work done in isobaric process nature of working substance.
W = P(V2 – V1) = mR(T2 – T1) m Clausius statement : No process is possible whose sole Carnot Theorem: Any other engine working between
result is transfer of heat from cold reservoir to hotter object. temperature T1 and T2 can not have efficiency more than
m Heat partly to do absorbed goes partly to increase internal
Two statements are completely equivalent. that of Carnot engine. The Carnot engine's efficiency is
energy and mechanical work. m
independent of nature of working substance.
DQ = DU + DW m It shows that efficiency of a heat engine can never be unity so In Carnot cycle
DU = mCVDT, DQ = mCPDT and DW = mRDT heat released to cold reservoir can never be made zero.
DW R g -1 DU CV 1 m Kelvin Planck and Clausius deny the perfect heat engine and Q1 T1 is universal relation and this relation can be
= = and = = =
DQ CP g DQ CP g refrigerator. Q2 T2 used to design universal thermodynamic scale.
NCERT Maps Thermodynamics 57

1. 1 gm of water is changed from its liquid to 6. What amount of heat must be supplied to (1) Increases
vapour phase. The measured latent heat of 2 × 10–2 kg of nitrogen at room temperature (2) Decreases
water is 2256 J/g. What is the amount of to raise its temperature, by 25°C at constant
change in internal energy?[NCERT Pg. 308] pressure? (Molecular wt. of N2 = 28) (3) No change
(1) 169.2 J (2) 3068.2 J [NCERT Pg. 321] (4) May decrease or no change
(3) 2086.8 J (4) 2548.3 J (1) 270.5 J (2) 519.6 J 10. A thermodynamic system is taken from
2. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes an (3) 370.4 J (4) 148.3 J original state to another intermediate state
adiabatic process from temperature 300 K to by linear process shown in diagram. Its
7. In changing the state of a gas adiabatically
600 K. The gas has 2 moles, calculate work
from an equilibrium state A to another volume is then reduced to original volume
done by this ideal gas. [NCERT Pg. 312]
equilibrium state B, an amount of work equal from B to C by an isobaric process. What is
(1) 600 R (J) (2) –200 R (J) to 104.6 J is done on the system. If this gas total work done by gas from A to B to C?
(3) –450 R (J) (4) –900 R (J) is taken from state A to B via a process in
3. A reversible cyclic heat engine absorbs 900 which the net heat absorbed by the system [NCERT Pg. 322]
joule of heat from source. If 400 J of heat is is 35 cal, how much is net work done by the
released to the sink, what is the efficiency of system in later case? (1 cal = 4.19 J)
the engine? [NCERT Pg. 314] [NCERT Pg. 321]
2 3 (1) 192.7 J (2) 89.6 J
(1) (2)
9 7
(3) 42.05 J (4) 142.5 J
5 4
(3) (4) 8. A cylinder with movable piston contains 2
9 9
moles of hydrogen at standard temperature
4. In an isothermal process, two moles of an
and pressure. The cylinder walls of the
ideal gas expands from volume 2 m3 to 8 m3 (1) 500 J (2) 400 J
cylinder are made of heat insulator. By what
at temperature of 227°C. Heat absorbed by (3) 1200 J (4) 2000 J
factor does the pressure of a gas increase
the gas during process is nearly
when gas is suddenly compressed to half of 11. A steam engine working like an ideal heat
[NCERT Pg. 311] its original volume? [NCERT Pg. 321] engine delivered 5.4 × 108 J of work per
(1) 2752 cal (2) 3250 cal (1) 1.5 (2) 3.82 minute and takes 3.6 × 109 J of heat per
(3) 1945 cal (4) 1875 cal
(3) 2.64 (4) 6.23 minute from its boiler at 127°C. What is sink
5. In a refrigerator, the system extracts heat of
9. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are temperature? [NCERT Pg. 322]
600 J from a cold reservoir and released 900
connected to each other via a stopcock. A
J of heat to hot reservoir. The coefficient of (1) 37°C
contains a gas at standard temperature and
performance of a refrigerator is given by (2) 47°C
pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
[NCERT Pg. 314] entire system is thermally insulated. The (3) 57°C
(1) 2 (2) 3 stopcock is suddenly opened. What is effect
(3) 6 (4) 9 on internal energy of gas? [NCERT Pg. 321] (4) 67°C
 58 Thermodynamics NCERT Maps
12. A diatomic gas with three moles are in a (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 17. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat
container at 400 K. Under isobaric process, (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) added, change in internal energy and work
its temperature is changed to 900 K. How done in a closed cyclic process, then
much heat is absorbed by the gas during this (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
[NCERT Pg. 312]
process? [NCERT Pg. 312] (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(1) 6.4 kcal (1) Q = 0
15. Molar specific heat of an ideal gas at
(2) 9.4 kcal (2) Q = W = 0
constant volume is 21 joule/mol K and molar
(3) 10.4 kcal specific heat at constant pressure is about (3) W = 0
(4) 12.4 kcal 35 joule/mol K. The ideal gas is (4) E = 0
13. Which of the following is incorrect [NCERT Pg. 314] 18. Thermodynamic state variables may be
statement? [NCERT Pg.315] [NCERT Pg. 310]
(1) Monoatomic
(1) Free expansion of a gas is irreversible
(2) Diatomic (1) Extensive only
process
(3) Triatomic (2) Intensive only
(2) A thermodynamic process is reversible if
process can be turned back so that both (4) Polyatomic (3) Both (1) and (2)
system and surrounding return to their (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
original states 16. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via
three different processes as indicated in 19. An ideal gas is compressed to half of its
(3) No process is possible whose sole result
P – V diagram. If Q1, Q2 and Q3 indicate the initial volume by means of different
is transfer of heat from a colder object to
heat absorbed by gas along the three thermodynamic processes. Which of the
hotter object
processes and ∆U1, ∆U2 and ∆U3 indicate process result in the maximum work done on
(4) The efficiency of an ideal heat engine is
the gas? [NCERT Pg. 312]
unity. the change in internal energy along three
processes, then [NCERT Pg. 306] (1) Isothermal
14. In thermodynamic processes, correct match
of column-I with column-II is (2) Adiabatic
[NCERT Pg.306] (3) Isobaric
Column-I Column-II (4) Isochoric
Type of process Feature
20. Refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept
a. Isothermal (i) Volume constant inside at 7°C. If the room temperature is
b. Isobaric (ii) Pressure 43°C, coefficient of performance of
constant refrigerator must be [NCERT Pg. 322]
c. Isochoric (iii) No heat flow (1) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and ∆U1 = ∆U2 = ∆U3
(1) 7.78
between system (2) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ∆U1 = ∆U2 = ∆U3
and surroundings (2) 13.7
(3) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ∆U1 > ∆U2 > ∆U3 (3) 9.72
d. Adiabatic (iv) Temperature
constant (4) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ∆U1 > ∆U2 > ∆U3 (4) 0.75
NCERT Maps Thermodynamics 59

1. Thermodynamics is a _____ science. It 8. The connection between state variables in 15. According to _____ statement no process is
deals with bulk systems and does not go into thermodynamics is called _____. possible whose sole result is the absorption
molecular constitution of matter. of heat from a reservoir and complete
[NCERT Pg. 310]
[NCERT Pg. 304] conversion of heat into work.
9. Thermodynamic state variables are of two
2. Two systems in thermal equilibrium with a type _____ and _____. _____ variables NCERT Pg. 315]
third system separately are in thermal indicate size of the system. The variables
equilibrium with each other. This forms the 16. The dissipative effects are present
that remain unchanged for each part are
basis of _____ law of thermodynamics. everywhere and cannot be eliminated but
_____. [NCERT Pg. 310]
[NCERT Pg. 305] can only be minimized so most processes
10. A process in which temperature of the
3. The thermodynamic variable whose value is that we deal with are _____ in nature.
thermodynamic system is kept fixed
equal in two systems in thermal equilibrium throughout is called an _____ process. [NCERT Pg. 315]
is called _____. [NCERT Pg. 305]
[NCERT Pg. 312] 17. Heat capacity in general, depends on _____
4. Internal energy depends only on the state of
11. There is no change in internal energy of a of the system goes through when heat is
system, not how the state was achieved.
gas in an isothermal process. In isothermal supplied. [NCERT Pg. 306]
This is an example of thermodynamic
_____. compression work is done _____ gas and 18. When work is done by a gas in
[NCERT Pg. 306] heat energy is _____ [NCERT Pg. 312] thermodynamic adiabatic process then final
5. Internal energy of a system can change 12. Heat absorbed by the gas goes entirely to temperature of gas is _____ than its initial
through two modes of energy transfer. change its internal energy and temperature, temperature. [NCERT Pg. 312]
These are _____ and _____ the process is _____ [NCERT Pg. 312]
19. Carnot engine is a reversible engine
[NCERT Pg. 307] 13. Heat engine is a device by which a system operating between two temperatures
6. First law of thermodynamics is the general is made to undergo a cyclic process that
T1(source) and T2(sink). The efficiency of
law of _____, applied to any system in which results in conversion of _____ to _____.
Carnot engine is given by η = 1 – (––)
energy transfer from or to system is taken [NCERT Pg. 313]
into account. [NCERT Pg. 307] [NCERT Pg. 317]
14. A refrigerator cannot work without some
7. _____ and _____ will in general depend on external work done on the system. So 20. The second law of thermodynamics gives a
the path taken to go from one state to coefficient of performance cannot be _____. fundamental limitation to the _____ of a heat
another state. [NCERT Pg. 307] [NCERT Pg. 314] engine. [NCERT Pg. 315]

  
 Kinetic Theory
13
Chapter

1 LAWS ASSOCIATED WITH KTG 3 KINETIC INTERPRETATION 4 SPECIFIC HEAT CAPACITIES

m An ideal gas is only theoretical model of a gas. No real gas is truly OF TEMPERATURE m Specific heat capacity for solids = 3R
ideal. Without interactions gas behaves like an ideal gas. At low m Average kinetic energy of molecule m Specific heat capacity of water = 9R
pressure or high temperature, molecules are far apart and 1 3 3 2
= mv 2 = K BT m CV (monoatomic gas) = R m g = 1 +
molecular interaction is negligible. 2 f
2 2
Ideal gas 1 5 7
1 VRMS = (V 2 ) 2 m g=
3
(monoatomic) m g= (rigid diatomic)
5
3K BT Polyatomic gases in general a polyatomic molecules has 3
J mol–1K–1

T1 m
= translational, 3 rotational degree of freedom and a certain
T2 m
T1 > T2 > T3 > number (f¢) of vibrational modes. Then for one mole of gas
m In a mixture of gases at a given temperature,
3 3
heavier molecule has lower average speed. U= K T + KBT + fKBT NA
pV
mT

T3 2 B 2
m Translational kinetic energy of gas CV = (3 + f)R (4 + f )
3 2 E 1 3 g=
0 200 400 600 800 CP = (4 + f)R (3 + f )
E = K B NT and PV = E , = mv 2 = K BT
P (atm) 2 3 N 2 2 m Each vibrational frequency has two modes of energy with
m Boyle's Law : Pressure of a given ideal gas is inversely m Average KE is proportional to temperature. corresponding energy equal to KBT.
proportional to its volume if temperature is kept constant. m Molecules of a monatomic gas have only translational degree of
m Charle's Law : Volume of given ideal gas is directly proportional to m R.M.S. speed of gas molecule, freedom.
its temperature in kelvin if pressure is kept constant. 3RT m Molecules like CO even at moderate temperature has mode of
VRMS =
m Gay Lussac’s Law : Pressure of an ideal gas is directly M vibration.
proportional to its absolute temperature if volume is kept constant. m Diatomic molecule, like a dumbell, has five degree of freedom.
m Most probable speed of molecule
m Polyatomic molecule has 3 transitional, 3 rotational and a
m Avogadro's Law : Equal volume of all the gases under similar 2RT degree of a certain number of vibrational modes.
conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of =
M
molecules. PV PV
1 1 Average speed of gas molecule 5 MEAN FREE PATH
= 2 2 = KB m
N1T1 N2T2 m Molecules of gas have rather large speeds of the order of
8RT
= speed of sound.
Ideal gas equation connecting the variables is pM
rRT m Molecules of gas undergo collisions and their paths keep
PV = mRT = KBNT P= m This concept of maxwell energy distribution getting deflected.
M0
predict specific heat of gases theoretically. m Average distance a molecule can travel without collision is
m Dalton's Law of Partial Pressure : Total pressure of a mixture of LAW OF EQUIPARTITION OF ENERGY called mean free path.
non-reactive gases is the sum of their partial pressures. m Mean free path of gas molecule is related to number of
m KTG is consistent with ideal gas equation. molecules per unit volume and size of gas molecule.
2 AVERAGE PRESSURE OF GAS m For a system in equilibrium at absolute temperature 1 KBT
T, total energy is distributed equally in different l= 2
º l = 2
2pnd 2pPd
1 1 modes of absorptions. Energy of each mode is
P= n mv 2 and PV = nV mv 2
3 3 n : number density; d : diameter of molecules
equal to 1/2 KBT.
m Mean free path in gases is of order of thousands of angstrom.
n ® Number density m ® Mass of molecule m Each translational and rotational degree of freedom P : Pressure of gas; T : Absolute temperature
v 2 ® Mean of squared speed corresponds to one energy mode of absorption. KB : Boltzmann's Constant
NCERT Maps Kinetic Theory 61

1. A vessel contains two non-reactive gases; 4. Which of the following statement is 7. Three moles of oxygen are mixed with two
monoatomic neon and diatomic oxygen. The incorrect? [NCERT Pg. 327] moles of helium, what will be approx. ratio of
ratio of their partial pressure is 5 : 3. (1) In case of collision of gas molecules in a specific heat at constant pressure and
Estimate the ratio of number of moles of given amount of gas in container, total constant volume for the mixture?
neon and oxygen in a vessel. (Molar mass kinetic energy is conserved [NCERT Pg. 329]
oxygen O2 = 32.0 u and atomic mass of neon
(2) All collisions of gas molecules is elastic (1) 1.2
= 20.2 u) [NCERT Pg. 322]
in nature
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 1.4
(3) Average kinetic energy per degree of
(2) 3 : 5 (3) 1.5
freedom depends on temperature only
and is independent of nature of gas (4) 1.67
(3) 4 : 3
(4) By law of equipartition of energy, the 8. The kinetic theory of gases gives the formula
(4) 2 : 5
energy for each degree of freedom in 1 Nm 2
2. In case of two ideal gases under ideal P= (v ) for the pressure P exerted
thermal equilibrium is KBT 3 V
conditions of same temperature, pressure
5. Which of the following is not an assumption by a gas enclosed in a vessel of volume V,
and volume, the ratio of mean free paths of
of kinetic theory of gases? [NCERT Pg. 327] the term Nm represents [NCERT Pg. 324]
molecules having molecular diameter 1Å
and 2Å is [NCERT Pg. 337] (1) The volume occupied by molecule of gas (1) Mass of one mole of the gas
(1) 2 : 1 is negligible (2) Mass of gas present in volume V
(2) 4 : 1 (2) The force of attraction between (3) Total number of molecules present in
molecules is negligible volume V
(3) 1 : 4
(3) All molecules have same speed at a (4) Average mass of one molecule of the
(4) 8 : 1 temperature gas
3. An inflated rubber balloon contains one mole (4) The collisions of molecules among
9. A balloon contains 1500 m3 of helium at
of an ideal gas has a pressure P, volume V themselves are elastic
and temperature T. If temperature rises to 300 K and 4 atmospheric pressure. The
6. The temperature of the gas is increased from volume of helium at 270 K and 2
1.1 T and volume increases to 1.05 V, final
120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K, the rms speed of atmospheric pressure will be
pressure will be [NCERT Pg. 322]
gas molecules is VRMS then at 480 K, it
(1) 1.1 P [Assuming no leakage of gas]
becomes [NCERT Pg. 325]
(2) P [NCERT Pg. 321]
(1) 4 VRMS (2) 2 VRMS
(3) Less than P (1) 1500 m3 (2) 1900 m3
V
(3) VRMS (4) RMS (3) 1700 m3 (4) 2700 m3
(4) Between P and 1.1 P 2
 62 Kinetic Theory NCERT Maps
10. A vessel contains 6 g of oxygen at pressure 14. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its 18. A flask contains argon and chlorine in the
P and temperature 400 K. A small hole is [NCERT Pg. 321] ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The mixture
made in it so that oxygen leaks out. How temperature is 300 K. What is ratio of root
(1) Both pressure and temperature are high
P mean square speed of molecules of two
much oxygen leaks out if final pressure is (2) Both pressure and temperature are low
2 gases? [NCERT Pg. 330]
and temperature is 300 K? (3) Pressure is high and temperature is low [Atomic mass of argon = 39.9 u and
[NCERT Pg. 339] (4) Pressure is low and temperature is high molecular mass of chlorine = 70.9 u]
(1) 5 g (2) 3 g 15. What will be mean free path of a nitrogen (1) 1.33
(3) 2 g (4) 4 g molecule in a container at 2 atmospheric
(2) 1. 55
pressure and at 17°C, radius of nitrogen
11. If the pressure and volume of a certain
molecule is about 1Å? [NCERT Pg. 337] (3) 1.77
quantity of an ideal gas is halved, then its
temperature becomes [NCERT Pg. 325] (Molar mass of nitrogen = 28.0 u) (4) 1.66

(1) Doubled (2) One fourth (1) 1.11 × 10–7 m 19. A polyatomic gas has 3 translational, 3
(2) 2.3 × 10–6 m rotational degrees of freedom and 2
(3) Four times (4) Remains same
vibrational modes. What is molar specific
12. Pressure of a gas at constant volume is (3) 2.4 × 10–7 m
heat ratio for the gas? [NCERT Pg. 334]
proportional to [NCERT Pg. 325] (4) 1.8 × 10–9 m
(1) 1.50
(1) Total internal energy of gas 16. Air has density of 1.3 kg m–3 and
temperature of air is 37°C. If molar mass of (2) 1.30
(2) Square of average kinetic energy of gas
molecule air is 28.8, what will be air pressure? (3) 1.40
(3) Average potential energy of molecules [NCERT Pg. 326] (4) 1.20
(4) Speed of the gas molecule (1) 1.16 × 105 N m–2
20. A cylinder of capacity 44.8 litres contains
13. If three molecules have speeds of (2) 2.1 × 104 N m–2 helium gas at standard temperature and
2000 ms–1, 1000 ms–1 and 500 ms–1, the (3) 1.92 × 105 N m–2 pressure. What amount of heat is needed to
ratio of rms speed to average speed is raise the temperature of gas in cylinder by
(4) 0.92 × 105 N m–2
[NCERT Pg. 325] 10°C? [NCERT Pg. 335]
17. The ratio of degrees of freedom of a
(1) 1.14 monoatomic gas to diatomic gas is (1) 173.5 J

(2) 0.92 [NCERT Pg. 327] (2) 249.3 J

(3) 1.78 (1) 3:5 (2) 3:1 (3) 205.2 J
(4) 1.71 (3) 4:5 (4) 1:1 (4) 374.2 J
NCERT Maps Kinetic Theory 63

1. In a closed vessel if pressure is increased 8. Total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is 15. Mean free path depends inversely on
by adding some gas, the mean free path of the sum of partial pressures. This is called ________ and inversely as square of
a molecule of gas ________. ________ law of partial pressure. ________ the gas molecules.
[NCERT Pg. 332] [NCERT Pg. 331]
[NCERT Pg. 321]
2. When an ideal gas undergoes an isothermal
9. Average kinetic energy of a gas molecule is 16. The ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant
expansion, the pressure of the gas in
pressure and specific heat at constant
enclosure ________. [NCERT Pg. 321] proportional to ________ of the gas.
volume for a diatomic gas is ________ than
3. If a gas container in motion is suddenly [NCERT Pg. 325]
that of a monatomic gas. [NCERT Pg. 329]
stopped, the temperature of the gas may
10. Internal energy of an ideal gas depends only 17. Heat capacity of a system, in general
________. [NCERT Pg. 325]
on parameter ________ not on ________ depends on ________ it goes through when
4. The absolute temperature of a gas is
and ________. [NCERT Pg. 325] heat is supplied. [NCERT Pg. 329]
increased three times; the root mean square
speed of gas molecule will increase 11. When gases diffuse, their rate of diffusion is 18. Number of molecules per unit volume is the
________. [NCERT Pg. 325] inversely proportional to ________. same for all gases at fixed ________ and
5. If the pressure of a closed vessel is reduced [NCERT Pg. 327] ________. [NCERT Pg. 320]
by drawing out some gas with help of a 19. All collisions between molecules among
12. Molecules of monoatomic gas like argon
pump, the mean free path of molecules of themselves or between molecules and wall
have only ________ degrees of freedom.
the gas is ________. [NCERT Pg. 331] of container are ________. This is in
[NCERT Pg. 328]
6. Equal volume of all gases under similar accordance with kinetic theory of an ideal
conditions of temperature and pressure 13. In equilibrium, in a gas total energy is gas. [NCERT Pg. 320]
contains equal number of molecules. This equally distributed in all possible energy
20. In equilibrium, total energy is equally
statement was given by _______. modes, with each mode having an average
distributed in all possible energy modes,
[NCERT Pg. 320] energy equal to ________. This is known as
with each mode has an average energy
7. At low pressure or high temperature, the gas the law ________. [NCERT Pg. 328]
1
molecules are far apart and molecular equal to KBT. But each vibrational mode
14. For one mole of solid, total energy at 2
interaction is minimum. Without interactions
absolute temperature T is equal to has energy contribution of ________.
the gas behaves like ________.
________. [NCERT Pg. 330] [NCERT Pg. 333]
[NCERT Pg. 321]
  
 14
Oscillations Chapter

1 SPECIAL TYPES OF MOTIONS 2 SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

m Periodic Motion m Simple harmonic motion is an example of periodic m Velocity displacement graph will be an ellipse
–1
oscillatory motion. (w ¹ 1) or a circle (w = 1 rad s ).
A motion which repeats itself after regular intervals of time, (T) is
m Special type of oscillatory motion which satisfies
periodic. Examples: following conditions. m The maximum velocity of particle executing SHM
A. Oscillatory amplitude of particle is small. will be at mean position and at extremes speed
l Motion a particle in circle with constant speed becomes minimum (zero).
B. During oscillation, acceleration towards mean
l Skipping position, due to net restoring force, is directly m Different graphs for a particle executing SHM
l Spring block system proportion to displacement from mean position. (A) Displacement - time graph
m Force displacement relation in S.H.M.
l Simple pendulum If at t = 0 particle is at mean position
F = –ky, where K is force constant (Force law in
l Motion of Earth around sun S.H.M.), y is displacement from mean position. A
m Acceleration of particle F F
l Motion of needle of sewing machine y A
F æK ö
A boat tossing up and down in a lake a= = - ç ÷ y = - w2 y T
l
m èmø –A +A (t)
l Piston of engine going back and forth can be periodic \ Acceleration and displacement are antiparallel –A
m Oscillatory Motion d 2y K y = A sin(wt)
+ w2 y = 0 , here w = (Angular frequency)
Special type of periodic motion in which a particle moves to and fro dt 2 m
(B) Velocity - time graph
about a fixed point. The force acting on the particle in a direction m is mass oscillating, K is force constant.
vP
directed towards equilibrium position is called restoring force. m General equation for displacement in S.H.M. wA
l Every oscillatory motion is periodic but every periodic motion y = A sin (wt + f) or y = A cos (wt ± f)
may not be oscillatory. 2p
w= = 2 p n is angular frequency and (wt + f) is
T T (t)
l Back and Forth motion can be oscillatory or vibratory. When called phase, a time varying quantity.
oscillations frequency is small we call it oscillatory, at high –wA
Here f is called epoch or initial phase.
frequency we call it vibratory.
A. If particle at t = 0 is at equilibrium position. v = Aw cos (wt)
Oscillations can be (y = 0)
(C) Acceleration time graph
A. Free oscillations y = A sin wt n
2 acc
B. If particle at t = 0 is at extreme right position +w A
l When a system oscillates with its natural frequency the
(y = A)
oscillations are called free oscillations.
y = A cos wt 0
B. Damped oscillations T T
m Velocity of particle in SHM.
l If some external resisting force appears opposing restoring dy 2 2
vP = = w A cos ( w t ± f ) –w A
force, oscillatory amplitude starts decreasing with time. dt
2
If at t = 0 particle is at origin. a = –w A sin (wt)
C. Forced oscillations
l Velocity leads displacement by a phase
v P = wA cos wt = w A2 - y 2
l Forced oscillations are those in which damping is not allowed of (p/2) rad.
by applying an external time varying force, which m Acceleration of particle in SHM
2 l Acceleration leads velocity a phase of p/2
compensates the effect of damping force acting on it. aP = –w A sin wt, at t = 0 particle is at mean position. rad.
NCERT Maps Oscillations 65

3 SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION AND UNIFORM 5 MECHANICAL ENERGY IN SIMPLE 6 OSCILLATIONS DUE TO A SPRING
CIRCULAR MOTION HARMONIC OSCILLATOR
1 2
m Projection of uniform circular motion on a diameter of m Potential energy in SHM U = ky + U 0 (1) Oscillations of a spring block system
2
the circle follows simple harmonic motion.
U0 is generally taken zero at equilibrium. k
dU m
B Y Fint =- ; instantaneous force on particle.
dy
m Maximum potential energy occurs at extreme positions and
P(t) minimum at mean position. (Linear S.H.M.)
y R
wt (t) = 0 m Graph of potential energy versus displacement of particle will
x be parabolic, symmetric about y-axis. Force law, F = –kx
O A
m Kinetic energy of particle in S.H.M. varies directly as square 2
F = –ma = –mw x
of its velocity at any location.
1 1 k
KE = (mw2 ) ( A2 - y 2 ) = mw2 A2 cos2 (wt + f) 2
\ k = mw or w =
2 2 m
Particle position m Kinetic energy can not be negative. Potential energy increases
y = R sin wt is SHM. at expense of KE and vice versa. Where k spring constant of spring and m is mass
of block executing SHM.
m Kinetic energy will be maximum at mean position and zero at
extreme position. (2) For two Identical Springs
This is an equation of S.H.M. for particle
displacement at any time. m Total mechanical energy is independent of time.
This is also linear harmonic oscillator
m Potential energy and kinetic energy peaks twice during every
period. Element of springiness stores potential energy and x
element of inertia stores its kinetic energy. F1 F2
4 SPECIAL PARAMETERS IN SHM k k
m Graph of kinetic energy versus position of particle will be m
m Since particles speed is not constant ; from mean an inverted parabola.
position to half of amplitude it takes half of time than m In absence of damping ; total mechanical energy of harmonic
to move from half of amplitude to extreme position. oscillator will remain constant.
1 When displaced right, restoring forces towards left
m Minimum velocity in S.H.M. is vmin = 0 at extremes E = kmax = Umax = mw2 A2
2 T
and maximum velocity at equilibrium position. m Potential energy and kinetic energy is periodic with period .
2 F1 = –kx, F2 = –kx, F = F1 + F2
vmax = wA
m The graphs for energy versus position are
m Maximum acceleration of particle is at extreme F = –2 kx
2
positions amax = w A and minimum (zero) is at Since force acting on mass is proportional to
U
equilibrium. 1 2
displacement and directed towards mean position. It is
E = const. = K + U = KA
(U) 2
m Maximum force on particle is at extreme positions SHM. The period of oscillation is
and zero at mean, in between it varies linearly (E)
always directed towards equilibrium. (K) KE
(Displacement) m
2 T = 2p
Fmax = mw A and Fmin = zero –A O +A 2k
66 Oscillations NCERT Maps

7 SIMPLE PENDULUM 8 DAMPED SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

Simple Pendulum m A viscous surroundings will apply force on simple pendulum or a spring pendulum
m By attaching a small mass to an inextensible string, a simple pendulum can be made. and system will ultimately come to rest.

m The mass executes SHM for small displacements only. m The damping force depends on nature of surrounding medium. When damping is
Rigid Support high, energy is quickly dissipated. This force is generally proportion to velocity
of oscillator.
q ur r ur r
F d µ v Þ F = - bv
L

m Net force F = –ky – bv (b ® damping factor)

m
ma = –ky – bv
mg
2
md y dy
I +b + ky = 0 is damped equation, whose solution is given by
T = 2p 2
Also here I = mL , about rigid support point. dt 2 dt
mgL
- bt
y = Ae 2m cos ( w ¢ t + f ) for displacement of oscillator.
L
T = 2p
g k b2
Where w¢ = -
m The time period of a simple pendulum depends on its length and acceleration due to m 4m 2
gravity but is independent of its mass and amplitude.
m Time period of a clock pendulum which ticks every second is 2s and its length is 10
approximately 1 metre.
5

9 FORCED OSCILLATIONS AND RESONANCE

x(t)
0
m An external agency can maintain motion by resisting damping forces.
These are called driven or forced oscillations. An external force which is –5
periodic is applied to damped oscillator. Equation of oscillations of mass
–100
md 2 y dy
is +b + ky = F0 cos wd t , and after natural oscillation, die out eqn. is 5 10 t 15 20 25
dt 2 dt

y = A cos(wdt + f) and A depends on wd and w.

F0 b
m If wd is close to w then A = l Small damping means << 1
wd b km
m The phenomenon of increase of amplitude when driving frequency is close to natural é 1 2 - bt / m ù
frequency of the oscillators is called resonance.
l ê E = 2 kA e ú energy eq n .
ë û
NCERT Maps Oscillations 67

1. The equation of motion is represented by 6. A particle executes SHM. Its time period is
y = sin ωt + cos ωt. The time period of T. The kinetic energy of the particle is also
(1) periodic with time period of
periodic motion is [NCERT Pg. 339]
[NCERT Pg. 346]
π 2π
(1) (2)
ω ω (1) T

2π 4π (2) (2) 2T
(3) (4)
ω ω T
(3)
2. The equation of motion of particle executing 2
SHM is given as y = sin2 ωt. The position of (4) Infinity
(3)
equilibrium is [NCERT Pg. 341]
7. A block whose mass is 500 g is fastened to
(1) y = 0 (2) y = 1 a spring. The spring has spring constant of
100 N/m. The block is pulled to a distance of
1 x = 10 cm from its equilibrium position
(3) y = (4) y = –1
2 (4)
state of x = 0 from rest at t = 0. What is
3. A body execute SHM according to equation kinetic energy of block at x = 5 cm?
x = 10 cos(2πt + π/4). At t = 3/2 s, what is 5. Two springs with spring constants K and 2K [NCERT Pg. 347]
speed of the particle? [NCERT Pg. 339] are attached to a block of mass m and with
(1) 0.375 J (2) 0.19 J
fixed supports as shown. When mass is
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 20 ms–1 (3) 0.56 J (4) 0.76 J
displaced from equilibrium position on either
(3) 22 ms–1 (4) 44 ms–1 side, it executes SHM. The frequency of 8. A block of mass 2 kg is attached to a spring
oscillation is [NCERT Pg. 345] of spring constant 200 Nm–1 oscillates
4. Acceleration versus time graph for a particle
without friction over a smooth horizontal
executing SHM is shown in figure below.
surface. The block is displaced by 10 cm
Corresponding position time graph will be
from equilibrium position and released.
[NCERT Pg. 344]
What is maximum acceleration of block?
1 3m 1 m
(1) (2) [NCERT Pg. 348]
2π K 2π 2K
(1) 1 ms–2 (2) 2 ms–2
1 3m 1 3K
(3) (4)
2π 2K 2π m (3) 0.5 ms–2 (4) 1.5 ms–2
 68 Oscillations NCERT Maps
9. Length of a simple pendulum whose time 12. A spring having spring constant of 800 Nm–1 15. A spring balance has a scale that reads from
period is 2 second on earth surface will be is mounted on a horizontal table as shown. 0 to 100 kg. The length of scale is 25 cm.
nearly [NCERT Pg. 351] A mass of 2 kg is attached to free end of the A block suspended from this balance when
spring. The mass is pulled sideways to displaced and released oscillates with time
(1) 0.5 m
distance of 2.5 cm and released. How much period of 0.2 s. What is mass of block
(2) 1 m time the mass takes from one extreme to approximately? [NCERT Pg. 359]
(3) 1.5 m other [NCERT Pg. 359]
(1) 2 kg
(4) 2 m
(2) 4 kg
10. A block of mass 500 g and attached to one
end of a spring of spring constant K = 450 (3) 5 kg
Nm–1. The friction is also present which (4) 6 kg
dissipate energy and damping constant of (1) 0.157 s (2) 0.2 s
system is 25 g/s. What is time taken for its 16. The graph between length of pendulum and
(3) 0.314 s (4) 0.782 s
amplitude of oscillation to drop to half of its square of its time period is shown below.
initial value. [NCERT Pg. 352] 13. The acceleration due to gravity on the The best graph is [NCERT Pg. 351]
surface of moon is 1.7 ms–2. What will be
(1) 18.73 s
period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on
(2) 27.72 s (1)
the surface of moon if its time period on the
(3) 32.2 s surface of earth is 2s? [NCERT Pg. 361]

(4) 6.52 s (1) 4.8 s (2) 2.8 s

11. Which of the following example does not (3) 1.8 s (4) 3.5 s (2)
represents SHM? [NCERT Pg. 358]
14. A particle executes SHM has maximum
(1) Oscillations of a spring block system speed of 20 cm s–1 and maximum
(2) Motion of ball bearing inside smooth acceleration of 40 cm s–2. The period of
(3)
curved bowl, when released slightly oscillation is [NCERT Pg. 361]
away from equilibrium π
(1) π s (2) s
(3) Motion of oscillating mercury column in 2
(4)
vertical U-tube
π
(3) s (4) 2π s
(4) Rotation of earth about its axis 3
NCERT Maps Oscillations 69

17. A collar of mass 4 kg is attached to a spring 2

(1) T
of spring constant 500 Nm–1. If collar is 3
displaced from equilibrium position by a
distance of 2 cm and released, what is 3
(2) T (3)
frequency of oscillation? 2

[NCERT Pg. 348]

(3) 2T

1 (4)
(4) ×T
3

(1) 5.4 Hz 19. A particle executes SHM, has potential

(2) 1.78 Hz 20. The graph of a particle executing SHM is
energy which changes with position. If
(3) 9.36 Hz potential energy at equilibrium position is shown for two particles A and B. The ratio of

(4) 3.26 Hz assumed to be zero, then potential energy maximum accelerations of A to B is

18. Two identical springs of spring constant K versus position graph is best represented by
[NCERT Pg. 341]
each are attached to block of mass m and
[NCERT Pg. 347]
fixed supports as shown in figure (a). The
period of oscillation was observed to be T.
If one more identical spring is attached as
shown in figure (b) then new period will be
[NCERT Pg. 345]
(1)
(1) 1 : 1

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1
(2)
(4) 1 : 4
 70 Oscillations NCERT Maps

1. The direction of acceleration in case of SHM 8. Motion of a ball bearing inside a smooth 14. When amplitude of a particle executing
is always towards mean position and is hemispherical bowl, when released from a S.H.M. increases its time period ________.
________ to displacement. point slightly above equilibrium point is [NCERT Pg. 348]
[NCERT Pg. 344] ________. [NCERT Pg. 358] 15. The motion of a sewing needle when handle
2. The ratio of distance travelled by an rotated at constant speed is ________.
9. The phenomenon of increase in amplitude
oscillator to its amplitude in one time period [NCERT Pg. 337]
when driving force is closed to natural
is ________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
frequency of the oscillation is called 16. Maximum possible time period of a simple
3. In case of a particle executing SHM, phase
________. [NCERT Pg. 354] pendulum on the surface of earth will be
difference between velocity and
________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
acceleration is ________. 10. The mechanical energy in a real oscillating
17. The projection of uniform circular motion on
[NCERT Pg. 343] system decreases during oscillations. The
a diameter of circle follows ________.
4. The length of second’s pendulum on surface real oscillator and its motion are then said to
of Earth is 1 m. The length of second’s [NCERT Pg. 342]
be ________. [NCERT Pg. 351]
pendulum on surface of moon will be 18. A particle executing SHM of amplitude
________. [NCERT Pg. 351] 11. Every periodic motion is not simple 10 cm. At extreme position the force acting
5. The displacement of the particle executing harmonic motion, only that periodic motion is 6 N. At a point midway between mean and
SHM where PE and KE are equal is governed by the force law in which force is extreme position the force is ________.
________ times amplitude of motion. linear proportion to ________ is simple [NCERT Pg. 345]
[NCERT Pg. 346] harmonic motion. [NCERT Pg. 345]
19. A particle executes SHM with amplitude A
6. A spring pendulum and simple pendulum
12. The kinetic energy of a particle executing and period T. The time taken by the particle
have equal time period on earth surface. On
simple harmonic motion is maximum at from extreme position to half of amplitude is
the surface of moon simple pendulum has
________. [NCERT Pg. 346] ________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
time period ________ than spring
pendulum. [NCERT Pg. 348] 20. In simple harmonic motion at mean position
13. The graph between acceleration and
7. A body is performing SHM, then its average ________ energy is minimum and
displacement of a particle executing S.H.M.
velocity over a complete cycle is ________. ________ energy is maximum.
is ________. [NCERT Pg. 344]
[NCERT Pg. 343] [NCERT Pg. 346]
  
 15
Waves Chapter

WAVE 2 DISPLACEMENT RELATION IN A 3 PRINCIPLE OF SUPERPOSITION OF WAVES

It is a disturbance produced, which transfer energy and PROGRESSIVE WAVES
momentum without transfer of matter. m If y1(x, t) and y2(x, t) be the displacement due to two wave
m y(x, t) = a sin(kx – wt + f)
a = amplitude of wave disturbances in the medium and the waves arrive in a region
1 TYPES OF WAVES
is linear combination of sine and cosine function simultaneously and overlap, the net displacement y(x, t) is
m Electromagnetic Wave – wave propagates in the form of
time varying electric and magnetic fields. It require no y(x, t) = A sin(kx – wt) + B cos(kx – wt) given by
medium. Amplitude of resultant wave, a = A + B 2 2
y(x, t) = y1(x, t) + y2(x, t)
m Matter waves – wave associated with the particles having
f = tan
–1 B
momentum. A Similarly, resultant waveform
w
Speed of wave v = k = nl n
m Mechanical waves – The waves which require a material
2p y = å fi (x – vt)
medium for their propagation. k= called angular wave number) i=1
l
MECHANICAL WAVES In the phenomenon of interference of two waves
(kx – wt + f) = Phase of wave
y1(x, t) = a sin(kx – wt)
Transverse waves Longitudinal waves m Speed of a Transverse Wave on a Stretched String
and y2(x, t) = a sin(kx – wt – f)
The individual particle of The individual particle of v= T
m
The net displacement
medium vibrate perpendicular medium vibrate parallel to
to direction of propagation. direction of propagation Here f f
T = tension in string (in newton)
y(x, t) = 2a cos
2 )
sin kx – wt +
2 )
Rarefaction
Crest Trough Amplitude
Displacement

Wavelength m
m = l ( mass per unit length of string) So, amplitude is a function of phase difference
v v
Speed of a Longitudinal wave
A(f) = 2a cos ) 2f )
Compression Y
m Speed of longitudinal wave in a solid bar v = r
Wavelength For f, = 0, A = 2a (Constructive interference)
where Y = Young’s modulus of material of bar For constructive interference, path difference between two
m Trasverse waves are possible in solids like strings (under
r = Density of material of bar waves, Dx = 0, l, 2l,....nl
tension), due to shear modulus.
m Speed of longitudinal wave in gases For f = p, A = 0 (Destructive interference)
m Longitudinal waves, involve compressive stress, i.e. (Bulk
For destructive interference, path difference between two
modulus), so is possible in both solids and fluids According to Newton, v= P
r (Isothermal)
waves,
m Waves on the surface of water are of two kinds capillary waves
gP l 3l ,....(2n – 1) l
and gravity waves According to Laplace, v = r (Adiabatic) Dx =
2 2 2
72 Waves NCERT Maps

4 REFLECTION OF WAVES 5 NORMAL MODES OF ORGAN PIPES 6 BEATS

m Rigid Boundary – At rigid boundary wave suffer a Closed organ pipe m When two harmonic sound waves of nearly same
phase change of p. frequencies travel in the same direction then the intensity
yi = a sin(wt – kx) of resultant wave produced from their superposition
increase and decrease continuously at same point with
yr = – a sin(wt + kx)
time. It is called beat formation.
m Open Boundary or Free boundary : At open boundary m Two waves of angular frequencies w1 and w2 superimpose
phase change is 0. at , x = 0 at time t
s1 = a1cosw1t, s2 = a2cosw2t
yi = a sin(wt – kx)
from superposition, s = s1+ s2
yr = a sin(wt + kx) w – w2 w + w2
s = 2a cos 1 t.cos 1 t
2 2
Standing Waves and Normal Modes
When two waves of same amplitude and of same (w1 – w2) (w + w2)
wb = and wa = 1
frequency travel in opposite direction then resultant wave Seventh Ninth Eleventh 2 2
pattern from their superposition is called standing waves. harmonic harmonic harmonic Beat frequency, nbeat = |n1 – n2|
From open boundary. m We hear a waxing and warning of sound with frequency
1 l equal to difference between the frequencies of
L= n+ : for n = 0, 1, 2, 3,.....
yi(x, t ) = a sin (wt – kx), 2 2
superposing waves.
2L
Possible wavelengths l =
yr(x, t ) = a sin (wt + kx) 1
n+ 7 DOPPLER EFFECT
2
y = yi + yr for n = 0, 1, 2, 3 Generally, if there is relative motion between a source(s)
1 v and observer then observed frequency will be other than
y(x, t) = 2a sin wt coskx Natural frequencies n = n + 2 , for n or = 0, 1, 2, 3 real frequency. This apparent change in frequency is
2L
m The amplitude varies from point to point, but each element Open Organ Pipe called Doppler effect.
of string oscillate with same angular frequency (w) m Both source and observer moving
A A A v + v0
m Nodes – The point at which amplitude is zero or there is no
N n = n0
motion called nodes. Distance between two consecutive N A v + vS
nodes is l/2. L N A N here v is the speed of sound through the medium, n0 is the
N A
m Antinodes – The points at which amplitude is maximum A N velocity of observer relative to the medium, and vs is the
called antinodes. Distance between two consecutive A A
source velocity relative to the medium. In using this
antinodes is l/2 First Second Third formula, velocities in the direction O to S should be
harmonic harmonic harmonic
Normal modes of stretched string Fixed At Both Ends treated as positive and those opposite to it should be
l taken to be negative.
L=n , for n = 1, 2, 3...
A (a) 2 m When source and observer stationary and wind is blowing
L = nl , n = 1, 2 3 fundamental or
Wavelength of stationary wave, l = 2L
2 A first harmonic n , for n = 1, 2, 3... towards stationary observer with speed vw, apparent
A A (b)
nv wavelength
Frequencies of different second harmonic Frequencies of different modes, n = 2L , for n = 1, 2, 3...
A N A
modes (c) (v0 –vw)
A A A
third harmonic m A compression is reflected as compression from the closed la = n
n = nv , n = 1, 2 3-- A N A N A
end of the organ pipe and as rarefaction from the open end. m When source is moving towards the stationary observer
2L A A A (d)
A with medium at rest, apparent wavelength
fourth harmonic m A rarefaction is reflected as rarefaction from the closed end
N N N
A A A A of the organ pipe and as compression from the open end. (v –v )
la= n s
NCERT Maps Waves 73

1. Some examples of wave motion are given in 4. At what temperature will the speed of sound 8. Equation of a plane progressive wave is
the following options. In which case wave in air becomes 3 times of its value at 0°C? x

motion is a combination of both transverse [NCERT XI Pg. 391] =
given by y 0.6 sin2π  t −  .On reflection
 2
and longitudinal waves? (1) 1184°C (2) 1148°C from a denser medium its amplitude
[NCERT XI Pg. 370] (3) 2184°C (4) 2148°C rd
2
5. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency becomes   of the amplitude of incident
(1) Motion of a kink in a longitudinal spring 3
produced by displacing one end of the 1000 kHz in air. If the sound meets a water wave. The equation of reflected wave is
spring side ways surface, the wavelength of the reflected and
transmitted sound are (speed of sound in air [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
(2) Waves produced in a cylinder containing
= 340 m/s and in water 1500 m/s) x
a liquid by moving its piston back and 
[NCERT XI Pg. 391] (1)
= y 0.6 sin2π  t + 
forth  2
(3) Waves produced by a motorboat sailing (1) 3.4 mm, 30 mm (2) 6.8 mm, 15 mm
 x
in water (3) 0.34 mm, 1.5 mm (4) 6.8 mm, 30 mm =
(2) y 0.4 sin2π  t + 
 2
(4) Both (1) and (3) 6. A pipe 30 cm long, is open at both the ends.
Which harmonic mode of the pipe resonates  x
2. Longitudinal waves in a medium propagate (3) y – 0.4 sin2π  t − 
=
with 1.1 kHz source?  2
due to [NCERT XI Pg. 390]
(v = 330 m s–1) [NCERT XI Pg. 382]
(1) Shear modulus  x
(1) First (4) y – 0.4 sin2π  t + 
=
 2
(2) Bulk modulus (2) Second
9. A sound is produced by plucking a string in
(3) Both Shear and Bulk modulus (3) Third
a musical instrument, then
(4) Young’s modulus (4) Forth
7. A progressive wave is represented by y = 2 [NCERT XI Pg. 381]
3. Modification in Newton’s formula for speed
sin(100πt – 2πx), where x and y are in cm
of sound in air was made by (1) The velocity of wave in string is equal to
and t is in second. The maximum particle
velocity and wave velocity respectively are the sound velocity in string
[NCERT XI Pg. 376]
[NCERT XI Pg. 373] (2) The frequency of wave in string is equal
(1) Stefan
(1) 628 cm/s, 628 cm/s to the frequency of sound produced
(2) Boltzman (2) 50 cm/s, 50 cm/s
(3) The wave in string is progressive
(3) Laplace (3) 628 cm/s, 50 cm/s
(4) 50 cm/s, 628 cm/s (4) The frequency of the wave in string is
(4) Edison
double the frequency of sound
 74 Waves NCERT Maps
10. A glass tube of 100 cm length is filled with 13. A second harmonic has to be generated in
water. The water can be drained out slowly a string of length L stretched between two
at the bottom of the tube. If a vibrating tuning rigid support. The point where the string has
fork of frequency 500 Hz is brought at the to be plucked and touched are
(1)
upper end of the tube and the velocity of
[NCERT XI Pg. 381]
sound in air is 330 m/s, then the total
number of resonances obtained will be L L
(1) Plucked at and touch at
[NCERT XI Pg. 382] 4 2

(1) 4 L 3L
(2) Plucked at and touch at (2)
(2) 3 4 8

(3) 2
(4) 1 L L
(3) Plucked at and touch at
2 4
11. A tuning fork A of frequency 512 Hz (3)
produces 5 beats per second when sounded
with another tuning fork B of unknown L 3L
(4) Plucked at and touch at
frequency. If B is loaded with wax the 2 4
number of beats is again 5 per second. The
14. An observer moves towards a stationary
frequency of fork B before it was loaded is
source of sound with a velocity one fifth of (4)
[NCERT XI Pg. 384]
the velocity of sound. The percentage
16. If a wave is incident on a surface and a part
(1) 507 Hz (2) 502 Hz change in apparent frequency is [NCERT
of the incident wave is reflected back and a
(3) 517 Hz (4) 522 Hz XI Pg. 386]
part is transmitted into the second medium,
12. The equation of a stationary wave along a (1) 0% (2) 5% then [NCERT XI Pg. 378]
stretched string is given by (3) 10% (4) 20% (1) Incident and refracted waves obey
2πx Snell’s law of refraction
y = 5 sin cos 40 πt in, where x and y 15. A railway engine whistling at a constant
3 frequency moves with a constant speed.It
(2) Incident and refracted waves doesn’t
are cm and t is in second. The separation goes past a stationary observer standing
between two adjacent nodes is obey laws of refraction
beside the railway track. The frequency (ν′)
[NCERT XI Pg. 379] of the sound heard by observer is plotted (3) Incident and reflected waves obey the
against time (t). Which of the following graph usual laws of reflection
(1) 1.5 cm (2) 3 cm
best represent the variation in apparent (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) 6 cm (4) 4 cm frequency with time? [NCERT XI Pg. 385]
NCERT Maps Waves 75

17. Two sitar strings A and B playing a note are 18. The transverse displacement of a string (1) Maximum displacement and maximum
clamped at its both ends is given by pressure
slightly out of tune and produce beats of
 2πx  (2) Minimum displacement and minimum
= y 0.06 sin   cos(120πt ) , where x and
frequency 5 Hz. When the tension in the  3  pressure change
y are in metre and t is in second. The length
string B is slightly increased, the beat (3) Minimum displacement and maximum
of the string is 1.5 m and its mass is
pressure change
frequency is found to reduce to 3 Hz. If the 3 × 10–2 kg. The tension in string is
(4) Maximum displacement and maximum
[NCERT XI Pg. 392]
frequency of string A is 427 Hz. The original pressure change
(1) 324 N
frequency of string B is [NCERT XI Pg. 392] 20. Newton assumed that sound propagation in
(2) 648 N a gas takes under [NCERT XI Pg. 376]
(1) 422 Hz (3) 832 N (1) Isothermal condition
(2) 424 Hz (4) 972 N (2) Adiabatic condition
(3) 430 Hz 19. In longitudinal stationary waves, (3) Isotropic condition
(4) 432 Hz displacement nodes are the points where
(4) Isochoric condition
there is [NCERT XI Pg. 379]

1. In any mechanical wave, _______ and not medium depends only on _______ and 7. In stationary waves, wavelength is equal to
_______ is transferred from one point to the Inertial properties of medium. _______ the distance between two
other. [NCERT XI Pg. 367] consecutive nodes or antinodes.
[NCERT XI Pg. 374]
2. Transverse wave can propagate only in a [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
5. At rigid boundary there is a phase difference
medium which can sustain _______ stress. 8. The speed of sound in air at constant
of _______ between incident and reflected
[NCERT XI Pg. 370] temperature is independent of _______.
wave. [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
3. The lowest possible natural frequency of a [NCERT XI Pg. 391]
6. When two or more waves traverse in
system is called its _______ mode. 9. The propagation constant represents 2π
opposite direction in the same medium, the
[NCERT XI Pg. 380] net displacement of any element of the times the _______ that can be
medium is the _______ of displacement due accommodated per unit length.
4. Relative to an observer at rest in a medium
to each wave. [NCERT XI Pg. 377] [NCERT XI Pg. 372]
the speed of a mechanical wave in that
 76 Waves NCERT Maps
10. For a travelling wave, minimum distance 14. The waves in an ocean are the combination 17. In a stationary wave, all the particles on the
between two point having the _______ is of both _______ and _______ waves. two sides of a node oscillates in _______
called the wavelength of wave. phase. [NCERT XI Pg. 379]
[NCERT XI Pg. 367] [NCERT XI Pg. 370] 18. If a wave is incident obliquely on the
11. The argument of trigonometric function boundary between two different media, the
15. In a harmonic progressive wave of a given
representing a travelling wave is called the transmitted wave is called the _______
_______ of the wave. frequency, all the particles have the same wave [NCERT XI Pg. 378]
[NCERT XI Pg. 370] amplitude but different _______ at a given 19. If there is no medium present Doppler shifts
12. The phase determine the _______ of the instant of time. [NCERT XI Pg. 371] are _______ irrespective of whether the
wave at any position and at any instant. source moves or the observer moves.
[NCERT XI Pg. 371] 16. In a stationary wave, all particles between
[NCERT XI Pg. 385]
13. Beats arise when two waves having two nodes have the same _______ at a
20. In stationary waves, the points at which the
_______ frequencies and comparable given instant but have different _______.
amplitudes are superposed. amplitude is largest are called _______.

[NCERT XI Pg. 389] [NCERT XI Pg. 379] [NCERT XI Pg. 379]

  
NCERT Maps Answers 153

Class XI

Chapter-1 : Physical World

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 6. Cyclotron

1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Terrestrial 7. Angular momentum

3. (1) 4. (2) 2. Energy
8. Same
5. (4) 6. (1) 3. Momentum
9. Four
7. (3) 8. (4) 4. Electrons
10. Weak nuclear
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Nuclear

Chapter-2 : Units and Measurements

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Relative errors

1. (1) 2. (3) 1. 1.745 × 10–2 12. Precision
3. (3) 4. (4) 2. 5.82 × 10–4
13. Number
5. (4) 6. (1) 3. Derived
14. Addition or subtraction
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. [caesium – 133]
15. Powers or exponents
9. (3) 10. (2) 5. Parallax
16. Significant
11. (1) 12. (4) 6. Earth orbit, one arc second
13. (4) 14. (1) 17. Multiplication or division
7. 10–15
15. (3) 16. (4) 8. ± 1 × 10–13 18. 3

17. (3) 18. (1) 9. Smallest 19. 6.6 × 10–27

19. (1) 20. (2) 10. Absolute error 20. 3.7 × 10–3
 154 Answers NCERT Maps

Chapter-3 : Motion in a Straight Line

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Continuous

1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Straight line 12. Uniform acceleration
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Kinematics 13. Instantaneous
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Frame of reference
14. Slope of line
7. (1) 8. (4) 4. Magnitude, direction
15. On
9. (2) 10. (4) 5. May or may not be
16. Constant
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Less
17. Parallel
13. (2) 14. (3) 7. Average velocity, infinitesimally
15. (1) 16. (1) 8. Average velocity 18. Uniform acceleration

17. (2) 18. (4) 9. Speed, Direction, Both 19. Increasing, Decreasing

19. (1) 20. (4) 10. Displacement 20. Acceleration

Chapter-4 : Motion in a Plane

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. 0° or 180°

1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Magnitude 12. One dimensional
3. (1) 4. (3) 2. Same, Different 13. Vector
5. (3) 6. (1) 3. Free vectors
14. Vector difference
7. (2) 8. (2) 4. Opposite
15. Constant
9. (4) 10. (1) 5. Commutative, Associative
16. Remains constant, continuous change
11. (2) 12. (2) 6. Zero vector or null vector
17. Continuous change
13. (3) 14. (4) 7. Unit, dimension and unit
18. Constant speed
15. (2) 16. (3) 8. One
19. Acceleration
17. (1) 18. (4) 9. Average acceleration
20. Radius
19. (3) 20. (2) 10. 0° and 180°
NCERT Maps Answers 155

Chapter-5 : Laws of Motion

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Conserved

1. (4) 2. (3) 1. Rest 12. Zero
3. (1) 4. (2) 2. Motion 13. Impending
5. (1) 6. (3) 3. Backward 14. Independent
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. Momentum 15. Component
9. (2) 10. (3) 5. Change in momentum 16. Friction
11. (3) 12. (1) 6. Directly, Direction 17. Independent
13. (4) 14. (1) 7. Time, Impulse 18. Rg ( µ s + tan θ )

15. (2) 16. (2) 8. Internal (1– µs tan θ )

17. (3) 18. (2) 9. mg 19. [MLT –1 ]

19. (1) 20. (1) 10. Different 20. Less

Chapter-6 : Work, Energy and Power

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Gravity and tension in string
1. (2) 2. (2) 1. Component of force 12. Positive
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. 3.6 × 106 13. Kinetic, Potential
5. (1) 6. (3) 3. Kinetic
14. Friction
7. (4) 8. (2) 4. Work done
15. Heat
9. (3) 10. (1) 5. Second law
16. Linear momentum, Total kinetic energy
11. (2) 12. (3) 6. Position
17. Completely inelastic
13. (2) 14. (1) 7. Conservative
18. Inelastic
15. (1) 16. (3) 8. ML2T–2, joule (J)
19. Maximum
17. (3) 18. (1) 9. Zero
20. Right angles
19. (2) 20. (3) 10. Conservative
 156 Answers NCERT Maps

Chapter-7 : System of Particles and Rotational Motion

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 12. Angular velocity

1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Centroid 13. Conservation of angular momentum
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Their geometric centre 14. Rolling
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Remains constant 15. Shape of body
7. (2) 8. (4) 4. Axis of rotation
16. Ring
5. Moment of force, torque
9. (1) 10. (3) 17. (a) Total external force is zero ( ∑ Fi =
0)
6. External torque
11. (4) 12. (2) (b) Total external torque is zero
7. Couple  
13. (1) 14. (1) ( ∑ τi = ∑ ri × Fi = 0)
8. Torque
15. (1) 16. (3) 18. Rω
9. Uniform gravity
17. (3) 18. (2) 19. Right hand rule
10. Radius of Gyration
19. (3) 20. (3) 20. Zero
11. Rotational kinetic

Chapter-8 : Gravitation

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Zero

1. Elliptical −Gm1m2
1. (3) 2. (2)
2. Angular momentum 11.
r
3. (1) 4. (1) Gm1m2
3. 12. ve = 2v 0
5. (1) 6. (2) d2
13. 84.6 min
4. Attractive
7. (4) 8. (1)
5. Inside it  4 π2 
14.  
9. (3) 10. (2) 6. 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2/kg2  GMe 
11. (1) 12. (4) 4 15. Constant
7. πGρRe
3
13. (2) 14. (1) 16. 500-800 km
 2h 
15. (1) 16. (2) 8. g 1 −  17. Geostationary
 Re  18. Free fall
17. (4) 18. (2)
 d  19. Telecommunication
19. (4) 20. (4)
9. 1 − 
 Re  20. 100 minutes
NCERT Maps Answers 157

Chapter-9 : Mechanical Properties of Solids

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Less

1. (4) 2. (1) 1. Restoring force
12. Gases
2. Elastomers
3. (4) 4. (3)
3. Elastic 13. Less
5. (1) 6. (1)
4. Bulk 14. –3
7. (3) 8. (3)
5. Strain
15. Larger
9. (1) 10. (3) 6. Brittle
16. F
11. (1) 12. (3) 7. Elastic
13. (1) 14. (2) 8. 0.28 and 0.30 17. False

15. (1) 16. (1) 1 18. Solids

9.
B
17. (2) 18. (1) 19. 4F
Yσ2
19. (2) 20. (2) 10. 20. Ductile
2

Chapter-10 : Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Backward thrust

1. (2) 2. (2) 1. Million
12. Flow speed
3. (3) 4. (2) 2. Normal
13. Pressure, external pressure
5. (4) 6. (3) 3. Gauge pressure
14. Magnus effect
7. (4) 8. (2) 4. Low
5. Undiminished, equally 15. Strain rate
9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (1) 12. (2) 6. Remains constant 16. 0°C and 37°C

13. (2) 14. (4) 7. Conservation of mass 17. Rapidly, Randomly

15. (4) 16. (2) 8. Low 18. Mass, energy
9. Different magnitude, parallel
17. (4) 18. (1) 19. More
10. Kinetic energy change, potential energy
19. (4) 20. (2) 20. Shearing stress, strain rate
change
 158 Answers NCERT Maps

Chapter-11 : Thermal Properties of Matter

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. True

1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Temperature 12. False
3. (2) 4. (4) 2. Temperature difference 13. High
5. (1) 6. (1) 3. 180, 100
14. Boiling point
7. (2) 8. (4) 4. Straight line
15. Triple point
9. (1) 10. (1) 5. Pressure
16. Increased
11. (4) 12. (3) 6. High
17. True
13. (4) 14. (3) 7. More
18. Forced convection
15. (4) 16. (2) 8. Decreases, decreases
19. True
17. (3) 18. (4) 9. 1.2 × 10–4
20. Wien’s displacement
19. (2) 20. (3) 10. Two

Chapter-12 : Thermodynamics

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 12. Isochoric process

1. (3) 2. (4) 1. Macroscopic
13. Heat, work
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. Zeroth
14. Infinite
5. (1) 6. (2) 3. Temperature
4. State variable 15. Kelvin Planck
7. (3) 8. (3)
5. Heat and work 16. Irreversible
9. (3) 10. (2)
6. Conservation of energy
11. (4) 12. (3) 17. Process
7. ∆Q and ∆W (Heat and work)
13. (4) 14. (4) 18. Less
8. Equation of state
15. (1) 16. (1) 9. Extensive, Intensive, Extensive, Intensive T2
19.
T1
17. (4) 18. (3) 10. Isothermal
19. (2) 20. (1) 11. On the, released 20. Efficiency

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NCERT Maps Answers 159

Chapter-13 : Kinetic Theory

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Square root of their masses
1. (1) 2. (2) 1. Decreases 12. Translational
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Falls 13. 1
K BT , of equipartition of energy
2
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Increase
14. 3 RT
7. (3) 8. (2) 4. 3 times
15. Number density, diameter
9. (4) 10. (3) 5. Increases
16. Less
11. (2) 12. (1) 6. Avogadro
17. Process
13. (1) 14. (4) 7. Ideal gas
18. Temperature, pressure
15. (1) 16. (1) 8. Dalton’s law
19. Elastic
17. (1) 18. (1) 9. Absolute temperature
20. KBT
19. (4) 20. (2) 10. Temperature, volume, pressure

Chapter-14 : Oscillations

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 10. Damped

1. (2) 2. (3) 1. Opposite 11. Negative of displacement

3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Four 12. Mean position

5. (4) 6. (3) 3. π/2 13. Straight line

7. (1) 8. (1) 1 14. Remains same

4. m
6 15. Periodic
9. (2) 10. (2)
1 16. 84.6 min = 1.4 hour
11. (4) 12. (1) 5.
2
17. Simple Harmonic motion
13. (1) 14. (1)
6. More
18. 3 N
15. (2) 16. (4) 7. Zero
T
17. (2) 18. (1) 19.
8. Periodic and simple harmonic 6
19. (2) 20. (2) 9. Resonance 20. Potential, Kinetic
 160 Answers NCERT Maps

Chapter-15 : Waves

Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Phase

1. (4) 2. (2) 1. Energy, Matter 12. Displacement
3. (3) 4. (3) 2. Shearing 13. Slightly different
5. (3) 6. (2) 3. Fundamental
14. Longitudinal, transverse
7. (3) 8. (4) 4. Elastic properties
15. Phases
9. (2) 10. (2) 5. 180°
16. Phase, Amplitudes
11. (3) 12. (1) 6. Algebraic sum
13. (1) 14. (4) 7. Twice 17. Opposite

15. (4) 16. (4) 8. Pressure 18. Refracted

17. (1) 18. (2) 9. Number of waves 19. Same
19. (3) 20. (1) 10. Same phase
20. Antinodes
  