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Q Sta Comp

1. End-to-end connectivity is provided by the network, transport, and application layers. 2. Half-duplex mode supports two-way traffic but only allows communication in one direction at a time. 3. The delivery of a message to the correct application program is related to the port address.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
37 views18 pages

Q Sta Comp

1. End-to-end connectivity is provided by the network, transport, and application layers. 2. Half-duplex mode supports two-way traffic but only allows communication in one direction at a time. 3. The delivery of a message to the correct application program is related to the port address.

Uploaded by

shravan2312
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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1.

End-to end connectivity is provided by the layer

a) Data link layer

b) Network layer

c) Application layer

d) Transport layer

2. The communication mode which supports two way traffic but only in one direction at
a time is called as
a) Simplex mode

b) Duplex mode

c) Half duplex mode

d) Multiplex mode

3. The delivery of a message to the correct application program is related to

a) Physical address

b) IP address

c) Ethernet address

d) Port address

4. The length of the address in IPv6 is

a) 32 bit

b) 64 bit

c) 128 bit

d) 256 bit

5. In which ARQ, if a NAK is received, only specific damaged frame is retransmitted?

a) Stop-and-wait

b) Go-back-n

c) Selective repeat

d) All the above

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6. The following is a routing protocol:

a) FTP

b) HTTP

c) OSPF

d) TCP

7. In wireless LAN protocol the following channel access method is used:

a) ALOHA

b) CSMA/CD

c) CSMA/CA

d) Slotted ALOHA

8. The following is protocol used at Logical Link Control, a sub layer of Data link layer:

a) HDLC

b) RRC

c) OSPF

d) TCP

9. In Linux, the user can change the access rights of a file using the following
command:
a) pid

b) chmod

c) chown

d) top

10. To maintain the connection oriented concept the following mechanism is used:

a) Silly window

b) Sliding window

c) Flooding

2
d) Circuit switching

11. A flip-flop is a ……… element that stores a binary digit as a low or high voltage

a) chip

b) bus

c) I/O

d) Memory

12. Decoder takes n-input lines and produce

a.a) 2n same output lines


a.b) 2n unique output lines
a.c) 2n-1output lines
a.d) none of the above

13. Which of the following is not an octal number?

a.a) 49
a.b) 64
a.c) 14
a.d) 134

14. The combinational circuit which adds three bits called

a.a) half adder


a.b) full adder
a.c) decoder
a.d) encoder
15. Suppose a system has been designed by creating only three different lights.
Numbers in the system are written down, using the digits 0, 1 and 2 with 0<1<2.
What will be the binary equivalent of 222 in this system?
a.a) 11011
a.b) 11010
a.c) 11000

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a.d) 10110

16. Minimum number of two inputs NAND gates used to perform functions two inputs
OR gates is
a.a) 1
a.b) 2
a.c) 3
a.d) 4

17. In a combinational circuit the outputs at any instant depend.

a.a) Only on past input


a.b) Only on past output
a.c) Past as well as present inputs
a.d) only on inputs present at that instant

18. The number of flip flop required in a mod -n counter is

a.a) log2 n + 1
a.b) [log2n]
a.c) log2(n+1)
a.d) log2(n-1)

19. If a mod 14 and mod 20 counter are cascaded, what will be the new mod number?

a.a) 34
a.b) 280
a.c) 6
a.d) will not be a counter any more

20. Abstraction is classified into _______ types


a) 4
b) 3

4
c) 2
d) 1

21. The process of compartmentalizing the elements of an abstraction that constitute its
structure and behavior is called as
a) Hierarchy
b) Encapsulation
c) Modularity
d) Entity Abstraction

22. In which of the following mechanisms, types of all variables and expressions are fixed
at compilation time.
a) Strong Typing
b) Weak Typing
c) Static Binding/ early binding
d) Dynamic Binding/ late binding

23. In which of the following mechanisms, types of all variables and expressions are not
known until runtime
a) Strong Typing
b) Weak Typing
c) Static Binding/ early binding
d) Dynamic Binding/ late binding

24. Which of the following statements about Persistence is correct?


a) It is the enforcement of the class of an object, such that objects of different types
may not be interchanged, or at the most they may be interchanged only in very
restricted ways.
b) It is the property of an object through which its existence transcends time and/or
space.
c) It is the property that distinguishes an active object from one that is not active.
d) All of the above

25. What is that concept in type theory in which a single name may denote objects of
many different classes that are related by some common super class referred to
a) Monomorphism

5
b) Type Checking
c) Polymorphism
d) Generalization

26. The method of design encompassing the process of object oriented decomposition
and a notation for depicting both logical and physical and as well as static and
dynamic models of the system under design is known as:
a) Object- Oriented Programming
b) Object- Oriented Design
c) Object- Oriented Analysis
d) None of the mentioned

27. What is the programming style of the object oriented conceptual model?
a) Invariant relationships
b) Algorithms
c) Classes and objects
d) Goals, often expressed in a predicate calculus.

28. The total running time of knapsack problem for a simple approach
a.a) O(n)
a.b) O( log n)
a.c) O(2n log n)
a.d) O(2n)

29. What is an optimal Huffman code for alphabet a of the following set of frequencies
a: 01, b:01, c:02, d:03, e:05, f:8, g:13, h:21
a.a) 001010
a.b) 001111
a.c) 111100
a.d) 101010

30. What is operating system?

a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources


b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned

31. Bluetooth is an example of

a) personal area network


b) local area network

6
c) virtual private network
d) none of the mentioned

32. Which of the following method is taking overcharge for some operations in
amortized analysis?
a.a) Aggregate method
a.b) accounting method
a.c) potential method
a.d) both (a) and (c)

33. Which of the following method is most flexible in amortized analysis?


a.a) Aggregate method
a.b) accounting method
a.c) potential method
a.d) both (a) and (b)

34. Which of the following method is taken different operations different charges in
amortized analysis?
a.a) Aggregate method
a.b) accounting method
a.c) potential method
a.d) both (a) and (b)

35. Which of the following method is computing total cost of an algorithm in amortized
analysis?
a.a) Aggregate method
a.b) accounting method
a.c) potential method
a.d) both (c) and (b)

36. Which of the following method is credit as the potential energy to pay for future
operations?
a.a) Aggregate method
a.b) accounting method
a.c) potential method
a.d) both (a) and (b)

37. If all c(i, j )’s and r(i, j)’s are calculated, then OBST algorithm in worst case takes one
of the following time.
a) O(n log n)
b) O(n3)
c) O(n2)
d) O(log n)

38. The upper bound on the time complexity of the nondeterministic sorting algorithm is

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a) O(n)
b) O(n log n)
c) O(1)
d) O( log n)

39. The worst case time complexity of the nondeterministic dynamic knapsack algorithm
is
a) O(n log n)

b) O( log n)

c) O(n2)

d) O(n)

40. How is search done in #include and #include”somelibrary.h” normally or


conventionally?
a) When former is used, current directory is searched and when latter is used,

standard directory is searched


b) When former is used, predefined directory is searched and when latter is used,

current directory is searched and then predefined directories are searched


c) When former is used, search is done in implementation defined manner and latter

is used to search current directory


d) For both, search for somelibrary is done in implementation-defined manner

41. Can function definition be present in header files?


a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the compiler
d) Depends on the standard

42. Comment on the output of this C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>
2. #include "test.h"
3. #include "test.h"
4. int main()
5. {
6. //some code
7. }

8
a) true
b) Compile time error
c) false
d) Depends on the compiler

43. What is the output of this C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>
2. #define foo(m, n) m ## n
3. void myfunc();
4. int main()
5. {
6. myfunc();
7. }
8. void myfunc()
9. {
10. printf("%d\n", foo(2, 3));
11. }

a) 23
b) 2 3
c) Compile time error
d) Undefined behaviour

44. Tags and test that are not directly displayed on the page are written in _____ section.
a) <html>
b) <head>
c) <title>
d) <body>

45. Which tag inserts a line horizontally on your web page?


a) <hr>
b) <line>
c) <line direction=”horizontal”>
d) <tr>

46. What should be the first tag in any HTML document?


a) <head>
b) <title>

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c) <html>
d) <document>

47. To create HTML document you require a


a) web page editing software
b) High powered computer
c) Just a notepad can be used
d) None of above

48. The special formatting codes in HTML document used to present content are
a) tags
b) attributes
c) values
d) None of the above

49. HTML documents are saved in


a) Special binary format
b) Machine language codes
c) ASCII text
d) None of above

50. Some tags enclose the text. Those tags are known as
a) Couple tags
b) Single tags
c) Double tags
d) Pair tags

51. The _____ character tells browsers to stop tagging the text
a) ?
b) /
c) >
d) %

52. In HTML document the tags


a) Should be written in upper case
b) should be written in lower case
c) should be written in proper case
d) can be written in both uppercase or lowercase

10
53. Marquee is a tag in HTML to
a) mark the list of items to maintain in queue
b) Mark the text so that it is hidden in browser
c) Display text with scrolling effect
d) None of above
54. The Boolean expression AB + AB’+AC’+AC is equivalent to
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) None of the above
55. The digital logic family which has minimum power dissipation is

a) TTL
b) RTL
c) DTL
d) CMOS

56. The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is either
a) a NAND or an EX-OR
b) an OR or an EX-NOR
c) an AND or an EX-OR
d) a NOR or an EX-NOR

57. Data can be changed from special code to temporal code by using
a) Shift registers
b) Counters
c) Combinational circuits
d) A/D converters.

58. A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have


a) 5 states
b) 10 states
c) 32 states
d) Infinite states.

59. The speed of conversion is maximum in


a.a) Successive-approximation A/D converter.
a.b) Parallel-comparative A/D converter.
a.c) Counter ramp A/D converter.
a.d) Dual-slope A/D converter.

11
60. The 2’s complement of the number 1101101 is
a.a) 0101110
a.b) 0111110
a.c) 0110010
a.d) 0010011

61. The correction to be applied in decimal adder to the generated sum is


a.a) 00101
a.b) 00110
a.c) 01101
a.d) 01010

62. When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z) simplifies to


a.a) x
a.b) x + x(y + z)
a.c) x(1 + yz)
a.d) x + yz
63. The gates required to build a half adder are
a.a) EX-OR gate and NOR gate
a.b) EX-OR gate and OR gate
a.c) EX-OR gate and AND gate
a.d) Four NAND gates.

64. The code where all successive numbers differ from their preceding number by single
bit is
a.a) Binary code.
a.b) BCD.
a.c) Excess – 3.
a.d) Grey.

65. Which of the following is the fastest logic


a.a) TTL
a.b) ECL
a.c) CMOS
a.d) LSI

66. If the input to T-flipflop is 100 Hz signal, the final output of the three T-flipflops in
cascade is
a.a) 1000 Hz
a.b) 500 Hz
a.c) 333 Hz
a.d) 12.5 Hz.

67. Which of the memory is volatile memory


a.a) ROM

12
a.b) RAM
a.c) PROM
a.d) EEPROM
68. How many Flip-Flops are required for mod–16 counter?
a.a) 5
a.b) 6
a.c) 3
a.d) 4

69. EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to


a.a) Ultraviolet rays.
a.b) Infrared rays.
a.c) Burst of microwaves.
a.d) Intense heat radiations.

70. The decimal equivalent of hex number 1A53 is


a.a) 6793
a.b) 6739
a.c) 6973
a.d) 6379
71. Hexadecimal equivalent of 734  
8 16
a.a) C1D
a.b) DC1
a.c) 1CD
a.d) 1DC

72. The number of control lines for a 8 – to – 1 multiplexer is


a.a) 2
a.b) 3
a.c) 4
a.d) 5
73. Functional Dependencies are the types of constraints that are based on______
a) Key
b) Key revisited
c) Superset key
d) None of these

74. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that design by examining the
relationship between attributes:
a) Functional dependency
b) Database modelling
c) Normalization
d) Decomposition

13
75. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is minimal data aggregates and
repetitive groups:
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) All of the mentioned

76. Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity:
a) 2NF
b) 3NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF

77. Which forms are based on the concept of functional dependency:


a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 3NF
d) 4NF

78. Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state, pincode).


For any pincode, there is only one city and state. Also, for given street, city and state,
there is just one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a relation in
a) 1 NF only
b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF
c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF
d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF

79. The ______ clause allows us to select only those rows in the result relation of the
____ clause that satisfy a specified predicate.
a) Where, from
b) From, select
c) Select, from
d) From, where

80. Select ID, name, dept_name, salary * 1.1


where instructor;
The query given above will not give an error, so which one of the following has to be
replaced to get the desired output?
a) Salary*1.1
b) ID
c) Where
d) Instructor

81. The ________ clause is used to list the attributes desired in the result of a query.
a) Where
b) Select
c) From

14
d) Distinct

82. Select name, course_id


from instructor, teaches
where instructor_ID= teaches_ID;
This Query can be replaced by which one of the following ?
a) Select name,course_id from teaches,instructor where instructor_id=course_id;
b) Select name, course_id from instructor natural join teaches;
c) Select name ,course_id from instructor;
d) Select course_id from instructor join teaches;

83. Select * from employee where salary>10000 and dept_id=101;


Which of the following fields are displayed as output?
a) Salary, dept_id
b) Employee
c) Salary
d) All the field of employee relation

84. The number of resources requested by a process :


a) must always be less than the total number of resources available in the system
b) must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the system
c) must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
d) must exceed the total number of resources available in the system

85. The request and release of resources are ___________.


a) command line statements
b) interrupts
c) system calls
d) special program

86. Multithreaded programs are :


a) lesser prone to deadlocks
b) more prone to deadlocks
c) not at all prone to deadlocks
d) None of these

87. For a deadlock to arise, which of the following conditions must hold simultaneously?
(choose all that apply )
a) Mutual exclusion, Hold and wait
b) Starvation

15
c) No pre-emption, Circular wait
d) a) and c) only

88. 5) For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system :


a) at least one resource must be held in a non-sharable mode
b) the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
d) All of these

89. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail:


a) A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be freed, and
then request to acquire it
b) A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire additional
resources that are being held by other processes
c) A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire additional
resources
d) None of these

90. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods :


a) to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
b) to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
c) to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
d) to recover from a deadlock

91. For non-sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion:


a) must exist
b) must not exist
c) may exist
d) none of these

92. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system, it must be
ensured that:
a) whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any other
resources
b) each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it begins its
execution
c) a process can request resources only when it has none
d) All of these

16
93. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before beginning its
execution is:
a) Low CPU utilization
b) Low resource utilization
c) Very high resource utilization
d) None of these

94. To ensure no pre-emption, if a process is holding some resources and requests


another resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it :
a) then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
b) the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
c) the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
d) then all resources currently being held are pre-empted

95. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to :
a) impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether one
precedes another in the ordering
b) to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
c) to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
d) All of these

96. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model

97. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?


a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

98. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfix-able & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible

17
d) It scales up well to large projects

99. RAD Model has


a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases

100. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the

a) entire IP packet
b) IP header
c) IP payload
d) none of the mentioned

-*-*-*-

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