BACK AND UPPER LIMB

A. coronoid process of the ulna

B. olecranon process of ulna
1. The distal C. styloid process of ulna
attachment D. radial notch of ulnar
(insertion) of the E. ulnar tuberosity
triceps brachii
muscle is:

2. Most of the A. trapezius

muscles that act on B. teres minor
the shoulder girdle C. latissimus dorsi
and upper limb D. rhomboid major
joints are supplied E. levator scapulae
by branches of the
brachial plexus.
Which of the
following is not?
3. Increasing muscle
mass and tone is
the aim of many
people who work
out at the gym. This A. depression of the scapula
is done by B. abduction of the arm
contracting the C. extension of the arm
muscle against D. flexion of the arm
resistance. If you E. lateral rotation of the arm
want to increase the
muscle mass of the
latissimus dorsi
muscle, which of the
following actions
would you be most
likely to perform?
A. it receives its motor supply from the median
4. The TRUE
nerve
statement about the
B. it contains the profunda brachii artery and radial
posterior
nerve
compartment of the
C. it contains a single elbow flexor
arm is:
D. its major artery is the brachial
 E. it contains the ulnar nerve in its distal part

A. infraglenoid tubercle
B. acromion process
5. The long head of C. coracoid process
the biceps brachii D. clavicle
muscle arises from E. supraglenoid tubercle
the:

A. abduction
6. The major B. flexion
function of the C. adduction
muscles in the D. medial rotation
anterior E. lateral rotation
compartment of the
forearm is:
7. This is a
radiographic image
of the left shoulder.
Which letter
identifies the
coracoid process?
8. This is a
radiographic image
of the wrist and
hand. Which letter
identifies the hook
of the hamate?

A. cephalic vein
B. basilic vein
C. brachial vein
9. A structure found D. radial vein
in the deltopectoral E. musculocutaneous nerve
groove is the:

10. In the cubital A. investing fascia of the brachialis muscle

fossa, the median B. crural fascia
cubital vein is C. bicipital aponeurosis
frequently used for D. anconeus muscle
venipuncture. This E. tendon of the biceps brachialis muscle
vein is separated
from underlying
neurovascular
structures by the:
A. tendon of the palmaris longus
B. ulnar artery
11. Which of these C. median nerve
structures passes D. palmar branch of the ulnar nerve
deep to the flexor E. radial artery
retinaculum at the
wrist?

12. If the dorsal A. neck

rootlets of T4 are B. clavicle
cut (dorsal C. nipple
rhizotomy) there will D. umbilicus
be a loss of
sensation at the
level of the:
Questions 13 and 14.

A 52-year-old man was brought to the emergency room after being found in
the park where he had apparently lain overnight after a fall. He complained
of severe pain in the left arm. Physical examination suggested a broken
humerus, which was confirmed radiologically. The patient was able to extend
the forearm at the elbow, but supination appeared somewhat weak; the
hand grasp was very weak when compared with the uninjured arm.
Neurologic examination revealed an inability to extend the wrist ("wrist
drop"). Since these findings pointed to apparent nerve damage, the patient
was scheduled for a surgical reduction of the fracture.
13. The
A. posterior division of the brachial plexus
observations that
B. posterior cord of the brachial plexus in the axilla
extension at the
C. radial nerve at the distal third of the humerus
elbow appeared
D. radial nerve injury in the vicinity of the head of
normal, but
the radius
supination of the
E. radial nerve in the mid-forearm
forearm weak,
warrants localization
of the nerve to the:

14. In this patient, A. pronator teres

paralysis of the B. brachioradialis
supinator muscle C. pronator quadratus
only slightly affects D. biceps brachii
the ability to E. triceps brachii
supinate due to the
unimpaired action of
the:
A. abduction
B. adduction
15. The thumb C. extension
action that is D. flexion
totally affected by E. opposition
radial nerve trauma
is:

A. the long head of the biceps

B. long head of the triceps
16. The C. medial head of the triceps
supraglenoid D. subscapularis
tubercle serves as E. short head of triceps
an attachment for:

A. extensor carpi radialis longus

B. extensor pollicis longus
17. The extensor C. extensor digitorum
expansion of the D. extensor pollicis brevis
fingers is formed by E. interossei
the tendon of the:

18. Which of the A. flexor pollicis longus

following muscles is B. extensor pollicis longus
innervated by the C. abductor pollicis brevis
ulnar nerve? D. adductor pollicis
 E. opponens pollicis

19. If you slide a

piece of paper
between a patients A. radial
fingers and asked B. median recurrent
the patient to hold C. ulnar
onto the paper when D. deep radial
you try to pull it E. superficial radial
from the fingers,
and the patient is
unable to perform
this action, which
nerve is suspected
to be nonfunctional?
A. subscapularis
B. supraspinatus
20. Which of the C. latissimus dorsi
following muscles D. pectoralis major
does NOT rotate the E. anterior fibers of the deltoid
arm medially (or
internally)?

A. extension
21. Damage to the B. rotation
coracobrachialis C. flexion
muscle and its nerve D. supination
supply would E. abduction
weaken which
motion of the arm
and forearm?
Match the lettered
item on the diagram
to the numbered
structure:

22. trochlea

23. deltoid
tuberosity

24. greater
tuberosity

A. deltoid
25. The uppermost B. teres minor
part of the rotator C. teres major
cuff of the shoulder D. subscapularis
is the tendon of the: E. supraspinatus
 A. infraspinatus
B. subscapularis
26. Which of the C. latissimus dorsi
following muscles is D. teres major
a lateral rotator of E. anterior fibers of the deltoid
the arm?

A. trapezium
B. trapezoid
27. Which of the C. capitate
following wrist D. hamate
bones is found in E. scaphoid
the proximal row?

A. flexor digitorum profundus

B. flexor digitorum superficialis
28. Which of these C. pronator teres
muscles of the D. flexor pollicis longus
forearm has a E. pronator quadratus
double innervation?

A. latissimus dorsi
B. pectoralis major
29. The muscle that C. subscapularis
forms the bulk of D. teres minor
the anterior axillary E. teres major
fold is the:

30. The infraglenoid A. long head of biceps

tubercle serves as B. long head of triceps
an attachment for C. medial head of triceps
the: D. coracobrachialis
 E. subscapularis

A. medial
31. The ulnar nerve B. lateral
is a branch of which C. posterior
cord of the brachial
plexus?

A. median nerve
B. ulnar nerve
32. Muscles of the C. radial nerve
hypothenar D. median and radial nerves
eminence are E. median and ulnar nerves
innervated by the:

A. ulnar
33. Numbness to B. radial
the skin on the C. median
lateral half of the D. superficial radial
palm of the hand E. anterior interosseous
would be caused by
a lesion to which
nerve?

A. radial
B. axillary
34. The nerve most C. ulnar
likely to be injured D. median
in fractures of the E. musculocutaneous
medial epicondyle is
the:

35. Which nerve is

A. axillary
probably damaged if
B. radial
a patient cannot
C. musculocutaneous
abduct the arm
D. median
beyond 25 degrees?
 E. ulnar

36. Identify the

nerve of the brachial
plexus that supplies
the muscles of the
posterior
compartment of the
arm.

A. C7
37. The middle B. C6 and C7
trunk of the brachial C. C6
plexus is formed by D. C5 and C6
anterior rami of E. C7 and T1
which spinal cord
segments?

A. median nerve
B. radial nerve
38. Loss of C. ulnar nerve
pronation of the D. intercostobrachial nerve
hand suggests a E. musculocutaneous nerve
lesion of the:

39. After a time, A. musculocutaneous

when a motor nerve B. ulnar
to a muscle is C. radial
sectioned, the D. median
muscles will atrophy E. thoracodorsal
(get smaller). If you
notice that the
thenar muscles are
atrophied, which
nerve would you
suppose has been
injured?
A. rhomboid major
40. A physical sign B. levator scapulae
known as "winged C. latissimus dorsi
scapula" suggests D. serratus anterior
the loss of function E. trapezius
to which of the
following muscles?

A. anterior humeral circumflex artery and axillary

nerve
41. If a tumor grows B. posterior humeral circumflex artery and radial
into the nerve
quadrangular space C. posterior humeral circumflex artery and axillary
of the axillary nerve
region, which D. radial nerve and profunda brachii artery
structures would be E. profunda brachii artery and axillary nerve
in danger?

A. teres major
B. serratus anterior
42. The medial wall C. pectoralis major
of the axilla is D. subscapularis
formed by which of E. pectoralis minor
the following
muscles?

A. costocervical
43. A branch of the
B. vertebral
axillary artery is
C. dorsal scapular
the:
D. suprascapular
 E. subscapular

A. median cubital vein

44. At the front of B. brachial artery
the elbow, which of C. median nerve
the following lies D. ulnar nerve
superficial to the E. cephalic vein
bicipital
aponeurosis?

A. flexor carpi radialis muscle

B. tendon of the biceps muscle
45. The lateral C. brachialis muscle
boundary of the D. brachioradialis muscle
cubital fossa is E. pronator teres muscle
formed by the:

A. axillary
46. Which artery B. brachial
accompanies the C. ulnar
radial nerve to D. profunda brachii
supply the posterior E. radial
compartment of the
arm?

A. superficial ulnar
B. posterior interosseous
47. The artery that C. cephalic
may be palpated D. radial
deep in the E. deep ulnar
"anatomical snuff
box" is the:

48. All of these A. subscapular

arteries may B. transverse cervical
contribute to the C. suprascapular
anastomoses around D. intercostal
the scapula EXCEPT E. lateral thoracic
the:

A. ulnar
B. profunda brachii
49. When taking the C. axillary
blood pressure, the D. brachial
stethoscope is E. radial
usually paced on
which artery?

A. radial
B. median forearm
50. The superficial C. axillary
vein that runs up D. cephalic
the ulnar side of the E. basilic
upper limb is the:

A. deep radial artery

B. superficial radial artery
51. The deep palmar C. ulnar artery
arterial arch is D. anterior interosseous artery
formed primarily by E. posterior interosseous artery
the:
55. The clavicle is
one of the most
fractured bones. In
the diagram, the
clavicle has been
fractured at about
the junction of the
middle and distal
thirds. Notice that
the proximal end
has been pulled
upward. Which of
the following
muscles is
responsible for this?

A. anterior
deltoid fibers
B. trapezius
C. subclavius
D. sternocleidom
astoid
E. pectoralis
major

A. flexor digitorum superficialis

B. pronator quadratus
56. Which muscle is C. flexor digitorum profundus
innervated by both D. supinator
the ulnar and E. none of the above
median nerves?

A. extensor carpi radialis longus

57. Which of the B. extensor carpi radialis brevis
following muscles C. extensor carpi ulnaris
does NOT extend D. extensor digitorum
the wrist? E. brachioradialis
 A. median
B. ulnar
58. Which of the C. dorsal scapular
following nerves D. musculocutaneous
sends branches to E. long thoracic
the muscles of the
arm?

A. denticulate ligament
B. coccygeal ligament
C. dura mater
59. The filum D. arachnoid
terminale is a E. pia mater
continuation of the:

A. laterally from the palm

B. at right angles to the palmar surface
C. along side the index finger
60. Abduction of the D. straight across the palm
thumb is when it is E. none of the above
moved:

A. it arises from the humerus

B. it inserts into the bony ribs
62. Which of the C. it abducts the arm
following statements D. it is innervated by the median nerve
is TRUE for the E. there is no true statement
pectoralis major
muscle?

63. The nerve most

A. median
likely to be
B. axillary
traumatized with a
C. radial
fracture of the
D. ulnar
surgical neck of the
humerus is the: E. profunda brachii

64. With an injury to A. abducted

the right upper B. adducted
trunk of the brachial C. medially rotated
plexus (Erb D. laterally rotated
Duchenne E. flexed
paralysis), the
patient's right upper
extremity would be:
A. flexor carpi radialis
65. At the wrist, the B. flexor carpi ulnaris
long slender tendon C. flexor digitorum superficialis
of which muscle D. palmaris longus
serves as a guide to E. flexor digitorum profundus
the median nerve,
which is deep and
lateral to it:

A. glenohumeral
B. acromioclavicular
66. Which joint C. scapulothoracic
serves as the only D. sternoclavicular
bony attachment of E. costoclavicular
the superior limb to
the axial skeleton?

A. teres minor
67. The only rotator B. infraspinatus
cuff muscle that C. supraspinatus
does not contribute D. subscapularis
to rotation of the
arm is the:

68. The dermatome A. C5

of the thumb is B. C6
innervated by C. C7
nervous elements D. C8
arising from which E. T1
spinal cord
segment?

69. A large muscle A. latissimus dorsi

that arises from two B. trapezius
heads flexes and C. deltoid
medially rotates the D. subscapularis
arm. It is innervated E. pectoralis major
by nerves arising
from different cords
of the brachial
plexus. This is the:
A. radial
70. Loss of B. ulnar
opposition of the C. musculocutaneous
thumb is a symptom D. median
associated with E. posterior interosseous
lesion of which
nerve?

A. trapezoid
B. scaphoid
C. hamate
71. Which carpal D. capitate
bone articulates E. trapezium
with the radius?

72. All of the A. medial epicondyle

following bony B. greater tubercle
landmarks are C. spiral groove
visible on a skeleton D. lesser tubercle
when viewed E. olecranon process
directly from behind
(posterior view),
EXCEPT:
73. Inability to flex A. lumbrical
the distal phalanx of B. dorsal interosseous
the middle finger C. flexor digitorum superficialis
indicates injury to D. flexor digitorum profundus
which of these E. palmar interosseous
muscles?

A. ligamenta flava
B. interspinal ligaments
C. posterior longitudinal ligament
74. The anterior wall D. anterior longitudinal ligament
of the vertebral E. ligamentum nuchae
canal is formed by:

A. trapezius
B. serratus anterior
75. The muscle C. rhomboideus major
attached to the D. deltoid
whole length of the E. infraspinatus
scapular spine is
the:

76. You are to

perform a
venipuncture of the A. the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle
median cubital vein. B. the bicipital aponeurosis
Which of the C. the tendon of the brachialis
following structures D. the brachioradialis muscle
is most suitably E. the medial epicondyle of the humerus
located to afford
protection against
your inadvertently
entering the brachial
artery rather than
the veins?
A. the coccyx
77. The B. S2
subarachnoid space C. S5
ends inferiorly in the D. promontory
adult at the level of: E. the lower border of L1
 A. levator scapulae
78. All of the B. rhomboideus major
following muscles C. teres major
attach to the medial D. serratus anterior
border of the E. rhomboideus minor
scapula, EXCEPT
the:

A. radial nerve, profundus brachii artery

B. axillary nerve, posterior humeral circumflex
artery
C. ulnar nerve, superior ulnar collateral artery
79. Which nerve- D. median nerve, posterior interosseous artery
artery pair do not E. anterior interosseous nerve, anterior
run together? interosseous artery

80. Following a A. spinal accessory nerve

cervical injury, a B. long thoracic nerve
patient is unable to C. axillary nerve
abduct the arm D. all of the above
above the horizontal E. none of the above
plane. This would be
a result of an injury
to the:
Bones can fracture
or be displaced from
their normal
anatomical position A. radial nerve
at any of several B. axillary nerve
locations. Each of C. ulnar nerve
these injuries may D. median nerve
traumatize a nerve E. medial brachial cutaneous nerve
passing close to the
bone in question at
that location. Match
the nerve most
likely to be injured
with the problem:

81.Fracture of the
medial epicondyle of
the humerus
82. Fracture of the
surgical neck of the
humerus
83. Mid-shaft
humeral fracture
84. Anterior
dislocation of the
lunate
Match the following
muscles with their
appropriate
innervation.
A. lower subscapular nerve
85. supraspinatus
B. axillary nerve
muscle C. thoracodorsal nerve
86. latissimus dorsi D. long thoracic nerve
E. suprascapular nerve
muscle
87. teres minor
muscle
88. serratus anterior
muscle
A. hamate, pisiform, trapezium, scaphoid
B. hamate, capitate, trapezoid, scaphoid
89. The four chief C. lunate, hamate, capitate, scaphoid
bony attachments of D. lunate, pisiform, trapezoid, hamate
the flexor E. trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate
retinaculum are:
90. Select the
correct match to the
structure at the end
of the arrow

A. tendon of the
extensor
digitorum
muscle
B. flexor
digitorum
superficialis
muscle
C. lumbrical
muscle
D. vincula longus
This is an anterior
view of the left
elbow. Match the
lettered items with
the following:

91. trochlea
92. insertion of
brachialis muscle
93. insertion of
biceps brachii
muscle
94. capitulum
95. common origin
of flexor muscles of
hand
96. Match the
lettered items with
the numbered
statements.

96. With a lesion of

this nerve elbow
flexion is severely
weakened

97. One indication

of a lesion of this
nerve: the patient is
unable to hold a
piece of paper
tightly between the
fingers

98. All postaxial

musculature of the
upper extremity
would be
denervated by a
lesion at this site

99. This nerve may

be damaged by a
deep cut over the
anterolateral chest
wall

100. This nerve is

traumatized in
Carpal Tunnel
Syndrome
101. drains into
subclavian vein
102. innervates
muscles of the
hand
103. drains into the
brachial vein
104. biceps brachii
muscle

Questions 105 - 107 refer to the diagrams. The diagrams on the right show
an area of anesthesia occurring after a cut (shown by the red arrow and
dotted line) in the lower left figure). Nerve regeneration over a period of 4
(left column) to 93 (right column) weeks indicates a reduced area of
anesthesia as shown. Assume only nerves are cut and not any tendons.
105. The injured
nerve is the:

A. radial
B. median
C. musculocutan
eous
D. ulnar
E. median
recurrent

106. Motor changes

that would
acccompany this
lesion would include
all of these EXCEPT:

A. adduction of
the fifth finger
B. abduction of
the fifth finger
C. adduction of
the fourth
finger
D. abduction of
the thumb
E. adduction of
the thumb

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107. In most
patients,
accompanying initial
motor changes
would include some
weakness in thumb

A. abduction
 B. adduction
C. opposition
D. extension
E. flexion

Back and Uper Limb

Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer

1 B 36 B 74 C
2 A 37 A 75 A
3 C 38 A 76 B
4 B 39 D 77 E
5 E 40 D 78 C
6 B 41 C 79 D
7 C 42 B 80 A
8 H 43 E 81 C
9 A 44 A 82 B
1O C 45 D 83 A
11 C 46 D 84 D
12 C 47 D 85 E
13 E 48 E 86 C
14 D 49 D 87 B
15 C 50 E 88 D
16 A 51 E 89 A
17 C 55 D 90 C
18 D 56 C 91 D
19 C 57 E 92 E
20 B 58 D 93 B
21 C 59 E 94 A
22 F 60 B 95 C
23 C 61 B 96 C
24 B 62 E 97 A
25 E 63 B 98 D
26 A 64 C 99 E
27 E 65 D 100 B
 28 A 66 D 101 A
29 B 67 C 102 E
30 B 68 B 103 D
31 A 69 E 104 B
32 B 70 B 105 D
33 C 71 B 106 D
34 C 72 D 107 D
35 A 73 D

THORAX

Head and Neck Questions

For each question, select the one BEST answer. Hold mouse cursor over the
button to see the correct answer.
A. its opening can be seen in the
vestibule of the mouth opposite
the upper 2nd premolar tooth
B. it extends from the anterior
border of the parotid gland
C. it can be palpated as it crosses
1. When trying to locate the parotid the face, superficial to the
duct, a physician would consider each masseter muscle
of the following relationships EXCEPT: D. it is inferior to the zygomatic
arch
E. it is superior to the zygomatic
arch

A. it is located within the

substance of the parotid gland
2. Which of the following statements
B. it communicates superiorly with
best describes the facial vein?
the ophthalmic vein
C. it is more tortuous than the
 facial artery
D. it lies anterior to the facial
artery as it passes through the
face
E. it usually empties into the
external jugular vein

A. facial
B. maxillary division of trigeminal
C. mandibular division of the
3. The tickling sensation felt in the trigeminal
nasal cavity, just prior to a sneeze is D. glossopharyngeal
probably carried in which of the E. none of the above
following nerves?

A. lateral cricoarytenoid
B. cricothyroid
C. posterior cricoarytenoid
4. Which muscle is innervated by the D. transverse arytenoid
external branch of the superior E. thyroarytenoid
laryngeal nerve?

A. infratemporal fossa
B. cranial cavity by way of the
5. Tumors of the head may grow from foramen ovale
one region of the head to another by C. cranial cavity by way of the
passing through fissures and foramen rotundum
foramina. Knowing this, if you found a D. nasal cavity
tumor in the pterygopalatine fossa, it E. oral cavity by way of the
may have developed there primarily greater palatine canal
or it may have grown into the fossa
from any of the following EXCEPT:

A. the lacrimal caruncle

6. The 4th cranial nerve (trochlear)
B. a muscle that turns the eyeball
innervates:
superiorly and laterally
 C. the lacrimal gland
D. the medial part of the lower
eyelid
E. a muscle that turns the eyeball
inferiorly and laterally

A. geniohyoid
B. styloglossus
7. During a physical examination, you C. palatoglossus
have a patient stick out his/her D. genioglossus
tongue and say AAH. The muscle that E. hyoglossus
is responsible for this movement is
the:

A. maxillary
B. mandible
C. sphenoid
8. The coronoid process belongs to D. occipital
which bone in the head? E. temporal

A. at the level of the cricothyoid

membrane
B. at the level of the hyoid bone
C. at the level of the upper border
9. In order to locate the approximate of the cricoid cartilage
position of the bifurcation of the D. at the level of the upper border
common carotid artery, you would of the thyroid cartilage
feel for its pulse at or above which of E. at the level of the first tracheal
the following? ring

A. pterygopalatine fossa
10. The muscles of mastication, their
B. jugular fossa
nerves and their vessels are located
C. incisive fossa
primarily in which part of the head?
D. infratemporal fossa
 E. temporal fossa

A. submental
B. glandular
C. carotid
11. The thyroid gland can be D. submandibular (or digastric)
examined in which of the following E. muscular (or visceral)
triangles of the neck?

A. meningeal
B. greater petrosal
C. pterygoid
12. During a sinus attack, painful D. nasociliary
sensation from the ethmoid cells is E. frontal
carried in which nerve?

A. hypoglossal nerve
B. glossopharyngeal nerve
13. The pharyngeal plexus of nerves C. vagus nerve
contains both motor and sensory D. trigeminal nerve
components. The motor nerves are E. spinal accessory nerve
believed to come from which of the
following?

A. medial angle of the orbit

B. lateral nose
C. region of the eyebrow
14. The facial artery gives rise to D. upper lip
branches that supply each of the E. lower lip
regions listed below EXCEPT for the:

15. Which of the following meningeal A. diaphragma selli

structures is located between the B. falx cerebelli
cerebral hemispheres? C. tentorium cerebelli
 D. falx cerebri
E. none of the above

A. internal laryngeal nerve

B. external laryngeal nerve
16. The cough reflex, as do all C. trigeminal nerve
reflexes, has a sensory and a motor D. facial nerve
part to it. What nerve carries the E. maxillary nerve
sensory part of the cough reflex?

A. oculomotor nerve
B. internal carotid artery
C. ophthalmic division of the
trigeminal nerve
17. All of the following structures are D. mandibular division of the
located within the walls or cavity of trigeminal nerve
the cavernous sinus EXCEPT for the: E. abducens nerve

A. nasal cavity
B. orbit
C. anterior cranial fossa
18. The lateral wall of the ethmoid D. oropharynx
sinus is also part of the medial wall of E. nasopharynx
the:

A. exits the cranium through the

foramen ovale
B. provides the primary
parasympathetic supply to the
19. The facial nerve: parotid gland
C. supplies taste fibers to the
posterior 1/3 of the tongue
D. supplies motor fibers to the
medial pterygoid muscle
 E. supplies motor fibers to the
stapedius muscle

A. drains into the straight sinus

B. is attached to the petrous
temporal bone
C. receives emissary veins from
the scalp
D. communicates with the
20. The superior sagittal sinus: cavernous sinus
E. receives the superior petrosal
sinus

A. floor of the middle ear cavity

B. pyramid of the middle ear
C. medial surface of the tympanic
membrane
D. promontory of the middle ear
21. The tympanic plexus of nerves is cavity
found on the: E. mucous membrane lining the
vestibule of the inner ear

A. is part of the nerve of the

pterygoid canal
B. contains postganglionic
parasympathetic fibers for the
parotid gland
C. contains sensory fibers from the
22. The chorda tympani nerve:
tympanic membrane
D. joins the auriculotemporal
nerve
E. carries parasympathetic fibers
to the submandibular ganglion
 A. is closed by a cartilaginous disc
in life
B. is found in the petrous temporal
bone
C. usually transmits the maxillary
nerve
23. The foramen spinosum: D. is located in the posterior
cranial fossa
E. transmits the middle meningeal
artery

A. nasociliary
B. greater petrosal
C. supraorbital
24. Loss of lacrimation (dry eye) can D. anterior ethmoid
be due to an injury to which nerve? E. lesser petrosal

A. nasolacrimal duct
B. sphenoid sinus
25. Upon examining a sick child, you C. maxillary sinus
notice pus draining from the middle D. mastoid sinus
meatus of the nose. You might E. posterior ethmoidal air cells
suspect and look for further evidence
of an infection originating from the:

A. inferior laryngeal branch of the

recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. ascending pharyngeal artery
26. A structure that can easily be
C. superior parathyroid gland
injured during ligation of the superior
D. transverse colli nerve
thyroid artery is the:
E. external branch of the superior
laryngeal
 A. hypoglossal nerve
B. internal branch of the superior
laryngeal nerve
C. external branch of the recurrent
27. The thyrohyoid membrane is laryngeal nerve
pierced by the: D. ansa cervicalis
E. inferior larygneal artery

A. pterygopalatine ganglion
B. otic ganglion
C. trigeminal ganglion
28. Destruction of which of the D. geniculate ganglion
following would result in loss of pain E. inferior ganglion of the
from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? glossopharyngeal nerve

A. tensor tympani
B. superior constrictor of the
pharynx
29. Which of the following muscles is C. tensor veli palatine
innervated by the glossopharyngeal D. stylopharyngeus
nerve? E. palatopharyngeus

A. foramen lacerum
B. foramen ovale
C. foramen rotundum
30. Which of the following does not D. superior orbital fissure
open into the middle cranial fossa? E. inferior orbital fissure

Match the most appropriate opening A. foramen ovale

on the right with the numbered B. superior orbital fissure
description on the left: C. internal acoustic meatus
D. foramen magnum
31. It is located within the petrous E. jugular foramen

part of the temporal bone.

32. It allows for the exit of the spinal

accessory nerve from the cranial

cavity.

33. The vertebral artery enters the

cranial cavity through it.

34. The lesser petrosal nerve usually

leaves the cranial cavity through it.

35. The abducens nerve enters the

orbit by passing through it.

Below are a list of numbered
symptoms that occur after a
particular nerve lesion. Select the
lettered item that corresponds to the
lesioned nerve. A letter may be used
more than once. A. trochlear nerve
B. oculomotor nerve
36. An upper eyelid that droops C. facial nerve
D. hypoglossal nerve
E. none of the above
(ptosis)

37. Loss of tears over the eyeball (dry

eye)
38. A pupil that is small in diameter

with no light reflex

39. On protrusion, the tongue

deviates to one side.

A. facial
B. internal jugular vein
C. superficial temporal artery
40. Pulsations felt just above the D. retromandibular vein
zygomatic arch and in front of the ear E. maxillary artery
are from which vessel?

A. diaphragma sella
B. roof of the sphenoid sinus
C. medial wall of the temporal
fossa
D. roof of the nasal cavity
41. The floor of the sella turcica is E. site of attachment of the
also the: superior pharyngeal constrictor
muscle

A. cranial nerves III, IV and VI

B. ophthalmic nerve
C. meninges and opthalmic artery
42. Which of the following D. ophthalmic veins
accompanies the optic nerve through E. none of the above
the optic canal?

A. mental nerve
43. The sensory supply to the skin B. maxillary division of the
over the lower eyelid comes from the: trigeminal
C. auriculotemporal nerve
 D. buccal branch of the trigeminal
nerve
E. ophthalmic division of the
trigeminal

A. superior constrictor and

buccinator
B. masseter and inferior
constrictor
C. medial pterygoid and lateral
44. The pterygomandibular raphe pterygoid
serves as a point of attachment for D. lateral pterygoid and superior
two important muscles. They are: constrictor
E.

A. pterygoid canal
B. pterygomaxillary fissure
C. foramen rotundum
45. The opening from the D. sphenopalatine foramen
pterygopalatine fossa to the nasal E. pharyngeal canal
cavity is the:

A. digastric
B. lateral pterygoid
C. medial pterygoid
46. Impaired function of which of the D. masseter
following muscles would result in E. temporalis
difficulty in protruding the lower jaw?

A. facial
47. Which nerve innervates the
B. oculomotor
muscle for tight closure of the
C. sympathetic
eyelids?
D. trigeminal
 E. vagus

A. loss of general sensation to the

48. An acoustic neuroma is a tumor face
involving the vestibulocochlear nerve B. facial paralysis
as it exits the cranial cavity. Because C. paralysis of the lateral rectus
this tumor compresses surrounding muscle
structures or invades nearby tissues, D. tongue paralysis
in addition to hearing loss and E. ptosis
equilibrium problems, a patient would
most likely also demonstrate
ipsilateral (same sided):

A. mandibular
B. maxillary
49. A gag reflex overcomes your C. facial
patient as you lightly swab an area of D. glossopharyngeal
the oropharynx. What nerve carries E. vagus
the sensory fibers of this reflex?

A. it is lined with mucous

membrane.
B. it drains through an opening
under the superior concha
(turbinate).
50. Each of the following is C. it may become infected from an
characteristic of the maxillary sinus abscessed tooth.
EXCEPT that: D. its roof is the floor of the orbit.
E. its lining is innervated by the
trigeminal nerve.

A. frontal
51. All of the following paranasal
B. maxillary
sinuses drain into the middle meatus,
C. sphenoid
EXCEPT the:
D. anterior ethmoid
 E. middle ethmoid

A. III (oculomotor)
B. V (trigeminal)
52. The submandibular ganglion C. VII (facial)
contains preganglionic D. IX (glossopharyngeal)
parasympathetic axons from which E. X (vagus)
cranial nerve?

A. maxillary
B. facial
53. A nosebleed (epistaxis) frequently C. ophthalmic
occurs because of picking of the nose D. A and B
with the finger at the anterior inferior E. B and C
portion of the nasal septum. Branches
of which arteries may be involved?

A. an ipsilateral (same side) loss

of taste to the anterior tongue
B. a decrease in saliva production
in the floor of the mouth
C. a sensory loss to the tongue
54. A lesion of the facial nerve just D. an ipsilateral paralysis of facial
after it exits from stylomastoid muscles
foramen would result in: E. a contralateral (opposite side)
paralysis of facial muscles

A. uvula
B. frenulum
C. philtrum
55. The vertical depression in the D. torus
midline of the upper lip is called the: E. mentum
 A. temporal
B. sphenoid
C. ethmoid
56. The sella turcica (turks saddle) is D. occipital
a part of which bone: E. lacrimal

57. Arrange the following foramina A. 4 5 3 1 2

from anterior to posterior: B. 4 3 5 1 2
C. 3 4 5 1 2
i. internal auditory meatus D. 5 4 3 2 1
ii. jugular foramen E. 4 3 5 2 1
iii. foramen ovale
iv. foramen rotundum
v. foramen spinosum

A. lateral pterygoids
B. geniohyoids
58. Depression of the jaw (opening C. mylohyoid
the mouth) is accomplished by D. digastrics
contraction of which of the following E. all of the above
muscles and gravity?

59. Arrange the following from lateral A. 1 4 5 2 3

to medial: B. 4 1 5 3 2
C. 1 3 4 5 2
i. infratemporal fossa D. 5 a 3 2 4
ii. nasal cavity E. 1 3 5 4 2
iii. pterygo-maxillary fissure
iv. pterygo-palatine fossa
v. sphenopalatine foramen

A. 4th cervical nerve root

B. 5th cervical nerve root
60. Herniation of the intervertebral
C. 6th cervical nerve root
disc between the fifth and sixth
D. 7th and 8th cervical nerve roots
cervical vertebrae will compress the:
E. 7th cervical nerve root
ANSWERS ON HEAD AND NECK QUESTIONSHead and Neck Written
Exam

Question Answer Question Answer

1 E 32 E
2 B 33 D
3 B 34 A
4 B 35 B
5 B 36 B
6 E 37 C
7 D 38 E
8 B 39 C
9 D 40 C
10 D 41 B
11 E 42 C
12 D 43 B
13 C 44 A
14 C 45 D
15 D 46 B
16 A 47 A
17 D 48 B
18 B 49 D
19 E 50 B
20 C 51 C
21 D 52 C
22 E 53 D
23 E 54 D
24 B 55 C
25 C 56 B
26 E 57 B
27 B 58 E
28 C 59 C
29 D 60 C
30 E
 31 C

Practice Exam for the Abdomen

1. The ligament
that extends
from the A. lacunar
anterior B. interfoveolar
superior iliac C. inguinal
spine to the D. ilio-pectineal
pubic tubercle E. pectineal
and forms the
lower lateral
boundary of the
abdominal wall,
is the:

A. hepatic arteries
2. The "porta B. hepatic ducts
hepatis" of the C. autonomic nerves from the celiac plexus
liver transmits D. portal vein
all of the E. hepatic veins
following
EXCEPT the:

3. Most of the
small intestine A. middle colic
receives its B. celiac
blood supply C. gastroduodenal
D. inferior mesenteric
from branches
E. superior mesenteric
of a single
artery. The
artery that
supplies most
of the small
bowel is the:

A. iliohypogastric nerve
4. Which of the B. obturator nerve
following C. lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
nerves passes D. ilioinguinal nerve
through the E. pudendal nerve
superficial
inguinal ring?

A. caudate lobe of the liver

B. first part of the duodenum
5. The posterior
C. portal vein
boundary of the D. common bile duct
epiploic E. inferior vena cava
foramen (of
Monro) is the:

A. its floor is predominately formed by the inguinal

ligament
6. Regarding B. its deep ring is located just lateral to the inferior
the anatomy of epigastric artery
the inguinal C. its roof is formed by arching fibers of the internal
canal, all of the oblique and transversus muscles
following D. its deep ring is formed by peritoneum
E. its superficial ring is formed by the aponeurosis of the
statements are
external oblique muscle
true about it
EXCEPT:

7. The
abdominal A. T8
aorta passes B. T10
through the C. T12
diaphragm at D. L1
which vertebral E. L2
level?
8. The common A. gastrosplenic ligament
B. gastrohepatic ligament
bile duct,
C. hepatoduodenal ligament
hepatic artery D. gastrocolic ligament
and postal vein E. falciform ligament
are found
grouped
together in the:

A. symphysis pubis and the inferior iliac spine

B. anterior and posterior superior iliac spines
C. left and right iliac tubercles
9. The inguinal D. pubic tubercle and iliac tubercle
ligament runs E. anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle
between the:

A. renal pyramid
10. In the B. ureter
human kidney, C. major calyx
the renal D. renal columns
papilla projects E. minor calyx
directly into
the:

A. hepatoduodenal ligament
B. peritoneum over the inferior vena cava
11. The epiploic
C. peritoneum on the caudate lobe of the liver
foramen is D. free border of the greater omentum
bounded E. peritoneum at the beginning of the duodenum
anteriorly by
the:

11. Motor A. vagus nerve

innervation to B. thoracic splanchnic nerve
the respiratory C. 3rd, 4th and 5th thoracic nerves
diaphragm is D. phrenic nerve
E. recurrent laryngeal nerve
the:

A. hepatic duct
12. The B. common hepatic duct
common bile C. cystic duct
duct and major D. cisterna chyli
pancreatic duct E. ampulla of Vater
join to form
the:

A. gastrosplenic ligament
13. Each of the B. left triangular ligament of the liver
following forms C. greater omentum
a boundary of D. lesser omentum
the lesser E. splenorenal ligament
peritoneal sac
EXCEPT the:

14. Which of A. ligament of Treitz

B. cardiac sphincter
the following is
C. ileocecal valve
located at the D. pyloric sphincter
opening E. tricuspid valve
between the
small and large
intestines?

15. When A. superior mesenteric

removing the B. left gastric
spleen, a C. left gastroepiploic
D. superior pancreaticoduodenal
surgeon must
E. left renal
be careful not
to cut one of its
branches, the:

16. Which of A. obturator

B. deep external pudendal
the following
C. femoral
arteries is used D. superficial circumflex iliac
to characterize E. inferior epigastric
an inguinal
hernia as direct
or indirect?

17. When
performing
surgery in the
ischiorectal A. base of the fossa
B. medial wall of the fossa
fossa, the
C. lateral wall of the fossa
internal D. anterior wall of the fossa
pudendal E. posterior wall of the fossa
vessels and
pudendal nerve
should be
avoided by
staying away
from the:

18. Infected
glands of the A. ischiorectal fossa
anus (near the B. deep perineal pouch (or space)
pectinate line) C. rectovesical fossa
may erode the D. superficial perineal pouch (or space)
wall of the anal E. retropubic space
canal and
rupture
laterally into
the:

A. femoral
19. Which
B. ilioinguinal
nerve is C. genitofemoral
identified by its D. obturator
position on the E. lateral femoral cutaneous
anterior surface
of the psoas
major muscle?

A. tunica vaginalis
20. The B. transversus abdominis aponeurosis
external C. external oblique aponeurosis
spermatic D. extraperitoneal fascia
fascia is E. internal oblique aponeurosis
derived from
the:

A. ischiopubic ramus
B. pubic symphysis
21. The
C. apex of the coccyx
perineum is D. urogenital diaphragm
bounded by all E. sacrotuberous ligament
of the following
EXCEPT the:

22. The portion A. penile urethra

B. spongy urethra
of the male
C. membranous urethra
urethra that D. prostatic urethra
passes through E. external urethral sphincter
the urogenital
diaphragm is
called the:

23. The A. bulb of the vestibule

scrotum has as B. crura of the clitoris
its counterpart C. labia majora
in the female D. labia minora
the: E. clitoris
24. When a A. ovarian artery
surgeon B. ureter
removes the C. urethra
uterus and cuts D. internal pudendal artery
the uterine E. vagina
artery, he must
be careful not
to cut the:

25. The portion A. round ligament

B. mesovarium
of the broad
C. mesometrium
ligament of the D. mesosalpinx
uterus that E. parametrium
attaches to the
uterine tube is
known as the:
In the adjacent
diagram of a
sagittal section
through the
female pelvis,
select a letter
that answers
the question or
statement:

26. A space or
recess used to
reach the
urinary bladder
without
entering the
peritoneal
cavity:

A.
B.
C.

27. A space or
recess easily
entered from
the posterior
fornix of the
vagina

A.
B.
C.
28.
Anastomosis of
the left
gastroepiploic
artery with the
right
gastroepiploic
artery occurs
here:

29. This part of

the diagram is
supplied by
short gastric
branches of the
splenic artery.

Match the
numbered
statement with
the lettered
muscle.

30.
A. rectus abdominis
independent
B. iliacus
contraction of C. internal oblique
this muscle D. transverse abdominis
results in trunk E. quadratus lumborum
flexion
31.
independent
contraction of
this muscle
aids in rotation
of the trunk

32. throughout
most of its
extent, the
aponeurosis of
this muscle
contributes
only to the
posterior layer
of the rectus
sheath
33. contraction
of this muscle
stabilizes the
12th rib
34. this muscle
is innervated
by the femoral
nerve

A. transverse colon
B. spleen
35. Which of C. ileum
the following D. descending colon
structures is E. jejunum
retroperitoneal?
 A. an enlargement of the end of the thoracic duct
B. an enlarged lymph node
C. a ganglion with a cavity in it
36. The D. a cavity formed by the convergence of the pancreatic
cysterna chyli and bile ducts
E. the cavity of the urinary bladder
is:

A. covers the round ligament

B. is formed from peritoneum
C. lies posterior to the testis
37. The tunica D. is normally continuous with the peritoneal cavity in
vaginalis: the adult

In questions 38 - 42 match the numbered statement with the lettered

muscle.

38.
independent
contraction of
this muscle
results in trunk
flexion
A. rectus abdominis
B. iliacus
39. C. internal oblique
independent D. transverse abdominis
contraction of E. quadratus lumborum
this muscle
aids in rotation
of the trunk

40. throughout
most of its
extent, the
aponeurosis of
this muscle
contributes
only to the
posterior layer
of the rectus
sheath

41. contraction
of this muscle
stabilizes the
12th rib

42. this muscle

is innervated
by the femoral
nerve

Abdomen

Question Answer Question Answer

1 C 22 C
2 E 23 C
3 E 24 B
4 D 25 D
5 E 26 A
6 D 27 C
7 C 28 C
8 C 29 A
9 E 30 A
10 E 31 C
11 A 32 D
11 D 33 E
12 E 34 B
 13 C 35 D
14 C 36 A
15 C 37 B
16 E 38 A
17 C 39 C
18 A 40 D
19 C 41 E
20 C 42 B
21 D

Thorax Practice Examination

A. middle cardiac
B. anterior cardiac
1. Which of the following C. small cardiac
cardiac veins empties D. great cardiac
directly into the right E. none of the above
atrium of the heart?

A. pulmonary veins
B. left atrium
2. A blood clot (embolus)
C. right ventricle
found in the left D. left brachiocephalic vein
pulmonary artery probably E. left ventricle
came from which of the
following?

3. All of the following are A. the ascending lumbar veins enter it

B. it communicates with the common iliac
true statements about the
vein
azygos system of veins C. it frequently receives the left pulmonary
EXCEPT that: vein
D. it empties into the superior vena cava
 E. it drains the thoracic wall

A. anterior
B. middle
4. The heart is located in C. posterior
which anatomical D. lateral
subdivision of the E. superior
mediastinum?

A. superior
B. middle
5. The aortic arch is C. posterior
located in which D. anterior
subdivision of the E. none of the above
mediastinum?

A. superior vena cava, coronary sinus and

hemiazygos vein
B. coronary sinus and pulmonary vein
C. pulmonary and bronchial veins the
6. Which group of following
structures empties directly D. superior and inferior venae cavae and
coronary sinus
into the right atrium?
E. coronary sinus and azygos vein

7. The esophageal A. the posterior wall of the esophagus

branches of the right B. the left wall of the esophagus
vagus nerve in the lower C. the right wall of the esophagus
D. the anterior wall of the esophagus
thorax (just before it
E. none of the above
enters the stomach) are
found mainly on:

A. plane of the sternal angle

B. suprasternal (or jugular) notch
C. first rib
8. The trachea bifurcates D. seventh cervical vertebra
into right and left primary E. xiphoid process
bronchi at the level of the:

A. a ligament connecting the liver to the

anterior abdominal wall
B. a fibrous remnant of a fetal channel
connecting the left pulmonary artery to the
aorta
C. remnant of the embryonic umbilical artery
9. The ligamentum D. remnant of a fetal channel connecting the
arteriosum is: right atrium to the left atrium
E. remnant of a channel that allowed the
blood to bypass the liver

A. the pulmonary semilunar valve opens

B. the right atrioventricular valve closes
10. Which of the following
C. blood enters the coronary arteries
does NOT occur during D. the left atrioventricular valve closes
contraction of the left E. the aortic semilunar valve opens
ventricle of a normal
heart?

A. right ventricle
11. Increased resistance B. left atrium
to pulmonary blood flow in C. right atrium
the lungs would cause a D. left ventricle
direct strain on which E. none of the above
chamber of the heart?

A. middle cardiac vein

B. coronary sinus
C. small cardiac vein
12. Which of the following D. great cardiac vein
accompanies the anterior E. anterior cardiac vein
interventricular artery?

A. on the mediastinal surface of the lung

B. within the major fissure/s of the lung
C. between all the pulmonary segments of the
13. A layer of visceral lung
pleura is normally D. on or between both A and B
E. within or between both B and C
present:

A. sympathetic chain
B. inferior vena cava
14. The vagus nerve C. phrenic nerve
accompanies which of the D. aorta
following through the E. esophagus
diaphragm?

A. right recurrent laryngeal nerve

B. left phrenic nerve
15. During surgical repair
C. left recurrent laryngeal nerve
of a patent ductus D. left vagus
arteriosus, the surgeon E. right phrenic nerve
must be careful not to
injure the:
 A. subserous (or extrapleural) fascia
B. internal intercostal muscle
16. When considering the
C. parietal pleura
structures that make up D. intercostal vessels and nerve
the thoracic wall, which of E. external intercostal muscles
the following is most
superficial?

17. During the early A. phrenic nerve

stages of tuberculosis B. vagus nerve
infections, the costal C. recurrent laryngeal nerve
parietal pleura becomes D. intercostal nerve
inflamed and results in E. splanchnic nerve
pain at the involved area.
What nerve carries these
painful sensations?

18. On the diagram,

identify the structure
labeled A.

A. does not move

B. moves upward
19. When you inhale, the
C. moves downward
diaphragm: D. relaxes
E. does none of the above
 A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
20. The left lung is made D. 4
up of how many lobes? E. 5

A. plane of the sternal angle

B. xiphisternal junction
C. second thoracic vertebra
21. The bifurcation of the D. attachment of the 4th costal cartilage to
trachea lies at about the the sternum
E. plane of the jugular notch
level of the:

A. right vagus nerve

B. azygos vein
22. Which structure below
C. right phrenic nerve
leaves the most D. thoracic aorta
pronounced impression on E. right common carotid artery
the right lung of the
cadaver?

For questions 23 - 30, select the lettered item that best matches with the
numbered structure. A letter may be used more than once.

A. right atrium
23. mitral valve B. right ventricle
C. left ventricle
D. pericardial cavity
E. trachea
24. musculi pectinati
25. carina

26. moderator band or

(septomarginal

band)

27. crista terminalis

28. tricuspid valve

29. infundibulum (or

conus arteriosus)

30. fossa ovalis

A. right atrial wall

B. left atrial wall
C. right ventricular wall
31. The sinuatrial node is D. left ventricular wall
located in the: E. interventricular septum

32. Which vein A. great cardiac

B. marginal
accompanies the posterior
C. middle cardiac
interventricular coronary D. small cardiac
artery? E. coronary sinus
 A. crista terminalis
33. Overdistension of the B. ligamentum teres
valves of the C. chordae tendineae
atrioventricular orifices of D. trabeculae carneae
the heart is prevented by E. ligamentum venosum
the papillary muscles and
the:

A. left atrium
B. left ventricle
C. right atrium
34. The apex of the heart D. right ventricle
is formed by the: E. both left and right ventricles

A. prevents reflux of blood into the right

ventricle
B. prevents reflux of blood into the right
atrium
C. prevents reflux of blood into the left atrium
35. During diastole, the D. prevents reflux of blood into the left
aortic valve: ventricle
E. the pulmonary artery

A. AV node
36. The pacemaker of the B. bundle of His
heart is the: C. purkinje system
D. SA node
 A. hemiazygos vein
37. Which of the following B. left posterior superior intercostal vein
structures lies between C. pericardiacophrenic artery
the azygos vein and the D. thoracic duct
thoracic aorta in the E. right superior intercostal vein
posterior mediastinum of
the thorax?

A. superior vena cava

B. inferior vena cava
C. right atrium
38. The azygos vein drains D. left brachiocephalic vein
into the: E. right brachiocephalic vein

A. esophagus
B. aortic arch
39. Which of the following C. azygos vein
structures is NOT found in D. hemiazygos vein
the posterior E. splanchnic nerves
mediastinum?

A. manubrium
B. sternal angle
C. body of the sternum
40. The anterior boundary D. pericardium on anterior aspect of the heart
of the posterior E. pericardium on posterior aspect of the
heart
mediastinum is the:
 A. internal thoracic artery
B. thoracic duct
41. Which of the following C. thymus
structures is found in both D. aortic arch
the superior and the E. pericardiacophrenic artery
posterior mediastinum?

Match the following

numbered items with the
mediastinal region in
which they are found.

42. thymus

43. right brachiocephalic

vein

44. esophagus
A. superior mediastinum
B. anterior mediastinum
C. middle mediastinum
45. left vagus nerve D. posterior mediastinum
E. not found in the mediastinum
46. arch of the azygos

vein

47. trachea

48. heart
49. right recurrent

laryngeal nerve

50. Identify the part of the

heart marked with an "X".

A. apex of the heart

B. pulmonary artery
51. The upper right border C. right auricle
of the mediastinal shadow D. right ventricle
as seen on the P-A chest E. superior vena cava
radiograph represents the:

52. The thoracic duct A. left internal jugular vein

usually drains into the: B. left subclavian vein
C. junction of the left internal jugular and
subclavian veins
D. superior vena
E. junction of the right internal jugular and
subclavian veins

A. pulmonary lymph nodes

B. bronchopulmonary lymph nodes
C. tracheobronchial lymph nodes
53. The lymph nodes D. bronchomediastinal lymph nodes
found in the hilum of the E. anterior mediastinal lymph nodes
lung are the:

A. the action of the muscles of expiration

54. When air is allowed B. the elasticity of the visceral pleura
into the pleural cavity, C. the elasticity of the lung parenchyma
either from a stab wound D. expansion of the rib cage
or a blown out alveolus of E. paralysis of the muscles of inspiration
the lung, the lung will
collapse because of:

A. lateral
55. Contraction of the B. anteroposterior
diaphragm causes an C. superior-inferior
increase in the thoracic D. any two diameters to the same extent
volume by increasing E. all three diameters to the same extent
primarily which of the
diameters of the rib cage?

56. When foreign objects A. it is larger, straighter and shorter than the
left
are aspirated into the
B. it is more curved, longer and smaller than
trachea, they will usually
the left
pass into the right primary C. it is straighter, longer and larger than the
bronchus because: left
D. it is at a 90 degree angle to the trachea
E. there really is a good reason

A. sinoatrial node
B. atrioventricular node
C. atrioventricular bundle (of His)
57. The pacemaker for the D. subendocardial plexus
heart is ordinarily the: E. membranous interventricular septum

A. both diaphragms are usually depressed in

emphysema
B. the posterior attachment is inferior to the
anterior attachment
C. the lateral attachment is inferior to the
58. Regarding the posterior attachment
diaphragm, which of the D. in dextrocardia, the right diaphragm is
inferior to the left
following it NOT true?
E. the left diaphragm is usually inferior to the
right

ANSWERS ON THORAX

Question Answer Question Answer

1 B 30 A
2 C 31 A
3 C 32 C
 4 B 33 D
5 A 34 B
6 D 35 D
7 A 36 D
8 A 37 D
9 B 38 A
10 C 39 B
11 A 40 E
12 D 41 B
13 D 42 A,B
14 E 43 A
15 C 44 A,D
16 E 45 A,D
17 D 46 A
VISCERAL
18 47 A
PLEURA
19 C 48 C
20 B 49 E
LEFT
21 A 50
VENTRICLE
22 B 51 E
23 C 52 C
24 A 53 A
25 E 54 C
26 B 55 C
27 A 56 A
28 B 57 A
29 B 58 C

Pelvis and Perineum Practice Exam

Perineum Practice Exam

1. The roof of the A. obturator fascia

ischiorectal fossa is B. urogenital diaphragm
formed by which of C. levator ani
the following? D. obturator internus muscle
E. external anal sphincter

A. para-aortic
2. Lymphatic B. superior mesenteric
vessels from the C. internal iliac
anal canal, below D. superficial inguinal
the pectinate line, E. inferior mesenteric
drain into which
lymph nodes?

A. true pelvis
B. superficial perineal space
3. The C. deep perineal space
ischiocavernosus D. ischiorectal fossa
muscle is found in E. around the bulb of the penis
the:

A. ureter
4. The broad B. ovarian ligament
ligament of the C. uterine tube
uterus is a double D. round ligament
layer of peritoneum E. uterine artery
which encloses all
of the following
EXCEPT the:

A. within the urogenital diaphragm

B. at the neck of the bladder and above the pelvic
diaphragm
C. at the neck of the bladder and below the pelvic
5. The prostate diaphragm
gland lies: D. in the superficial perineal space
E. in the rectovesical space
 A. internal iliac artery
B. superior rectal artery
6. The superior and C. common iliac artery
inferior gluteal D. inferior epigastric artery
arteries arise from E. median sacral artery
the:

A. superior gluteal
B. middle rectal
7. The internal iliac C. superior vesicle
artery give rise to D. internal pudendal
all of the following E. ovarian
branches EXCEPT
the:

A. is that part within the prostate gland

B. starts at the trigone of the bladder
C. is that part within the urogenital diaphragm
8. In the male, the D. is that part within the corpus spongiosum
membranous E. is called the ejaculatory duct
urethra:

A. prostate
9. In the male, B. sacrum
during a rectal C. ductus deferens
examination, each D. coccyx
of the structures E. ischial tuberosity
below can be
palpated (felt)
EXCEPT for the:
10. The diagram
represents a
sagittal section
through the anal
triangle. Identify
the lettered items.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.
11. The diagram
represents the
urogenital triangle
of the female.
Identify the
lettered structures.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

A. levator ani muscle

B. external anal sphincter
C. internal anal sphincter
12. The lateral wall D. obturator internus muscle
of the ischiorectal E. obturator externus muscle
fossa is the:

A. true pelvis from the false pelvis

B. lesser and greater sciatic notches
C. perineum from the ischiorectal fossa
13. In the male, D. deep perineal pouch from the superficial perineal
the pelvic pouch
diaphragm E. pelvis from the ischiorectal fossa
separates the:

14. Which of the A. piriformis muscle

following leaves the B. pubococcygeus muscle
pelvis by passing C. obturator internus muscle
through the lesser D. inferior gluteal nerve
sciatic foramen? E. iliacus muscle

15. The uterine

tube runs in the
free border of a A. suspensory ligament of the ovary
double-layered B. recto-uterine fold
sheet of C. mesovarium
peritoneum clothing D. mesouterus
the anterior and E. broad ligament
posterior surfaces
of the uterus and
attaching laterally
to the pelvic wall.
This sheet is known
as the:
A. vas deferens
B. uterine artery
16. Each of the C. ureters
following crosses D. middle sacral artery
the pelvic brim E. internal iliac artery
EXCEPT the:
17. Match the
following lettered
items with the a
numbered selection
on the diagram of a
sagittal section
through the broad
ligament about 2
inches to the left of
the midline. If
there is no match,
leave blank.

A. ovarian
ligament
B. uterine
tube
C. ovarian
artery
D. round
ligament
E. mesovarium

ANSWER ON PELVIS AND PERENIUM

Question Answer Question Answer

superficial
transverse
1 C 11A
perineus
muscle
ischiocaver-
2 D 11B
nosus muscle
bulbospongio-
3 B 11C
sus muscle
4 A 11D clitoris
vaginal
5 B 11E
opening
6 A 12 D
 7 E 13 E
8 C 14 C
9 C 15 E
obturator
10A 16 B
internum
levator ani
10B or pelvic 17A not visible
diaphragm
ischiorectal
10C 17B 5
fat
10D rectum 17C not visible
pudendal
10E 17D 2
canal
17E 3

Examination Questions for the Lower Limb

1. Cancerous
lymph nodes may
envelope and
destroy adjacent
structures as it
grows. A
A. lateral rotation of the thigh
physician might
B. adduction of the thigh ***
suspect
C. extension of the knee
involvement of
D. abduction of the thigh
lymph nodes in the
E. flexion of the thigh
anterolateral pelvis
because one of the
following
movements in a
patient is
weakened or lost.
Which movement
is it?
2. Which group of A. the chief adductors of the thigh ***
muscles below is B. the chief lateral rotators of the thigh
supplied by the C. the chief flexors of the thigh
obturator nerve? D. the chief extensors of the thigh
 E. the chief abductors of the thigh

3. If the foot is
A. femoral
permanently
B. tibial ***
dorsiflexed
C. deep peroneal
(extended) and
D. common peroneal
everted, which
E. superficial peroneal
nerve is NOT
functioning
properly?
A. interosseous sacroiliac
4. The greater
B. sacrospinous ***
sciatic notch is
C. dorsal sacroiliac
formed into a
D. uterosacral
foramen by which
E. arcuate
of the following
ligaments?

5. Nerves can
frequently be
A. saphenous
compressed
B. common peroneal ***
against bony
C. lateral sural cutaneous
structures in the
D. tibial
lower limb. The
E. medial sural cutaneous
nerve that rests
against the head
and neck of the
fibula is the:
A. peroneus longus
6. Of the B. tibialis anterior
following, which C. popliteus
is the principal D. soleus
invertor of the E. gastrocnemius
foot?

A. cuboid
B. calcaneus
7. At the ankle C. talus
joint, the tibia and D. cuneiform
fibula articulate E. navicular
with the:

8. The abductor A. first

digiti minimi B. second
muscle is located C. third
in which layer of D. fourth
the sole of the E. fifth
foot?

9. If the area
marked "A" is
numb to the touch,
which nerve is not
functioning?

A. tibial
B. deep
peroneal
C. superficial
peroneal
D. medial
sural
cutaneous
E. lateral
sural
cutaneous

Select the lettered

choice that best A. hip joint
fits where the B. knee joint
numbered muscle C. both
acts. D. neither

10. rectus
femoris

11.

sartorius

12. soleus

13.

pectineus

14. peroneus

longus

15. adductor

magnus

11. What is the

structure labeled

A?

12. The ligament A. anterior cruciate ligament

which prevents B. transverse ligament
forward (anterior) C. posterior cruciate ligament
displacement of D. tibial collateral ligament
the femur at the E. popliteal ligament
knee joint is the:

A. gluteus maximus
B. psoas major
13. The most C. iliacus
powerful extensor D. obturator externus
of the thigh is the: E. piriformis

A. small saphenous vein

14. Which of the B. greater saphenous vein
following is found C. dorsalis pedis artery
superficially D. arcuate artery
immediately E. anterior tibial artery
anterior to the
medial malleolus?

15. A man was hit

in the leg by a
baseball bat A. inability to plantar flex his foot
producing a B. inability to dorsiflex his foot
fracture of the C. the foot would be everted
head and neck of D. flexion of the leg is lost
the fibula and E. extension of the leg is lost
damaging a major
nerve to the leg.
Physical findings
that would be
found is/are:
A. peroneus longus tendon
16. Which of the B. tibialis posterior artery
following runs C. flexor hallucis longus tendon
through a groove D. tibialis nerve
underneath the E. flexor digitorum longus tendon
sustentaculum
tali?

17. In the A. peroneus brevis

following list what B. tibialis posterior
is the main C. flexor hallucis longus
invertor of the foot D. flexor digitorum longus
is the: E. peroneus longus

For questions 18 to 24, match the lettered structure with the numbered statement or phrase:
18. primary
external (lateral)
rotator of the thigh

19. antagonist of
quadriceps femoris

20. arises from

iliac crest A. iliopsoas
21. an antagonist B. gluteus medius
to the gluteus C. biceps femoris
D. tensor fasciae latae
maximus E. piriformis
22. a primary
abductor of the
thigh
23. passes through
the greater sciatic
notch
24. attaches to the
lesser trochanter
of the femur
A. tibial nerve
B. femoral nerve
19. If a patient C. medial plantar nerve
cannot stand on D. peroneal nerve
his heal, which E. obturator nerve
nerve is not
functioning?

20. Which of these

A. pubofemoral
ligaments helps
B. iliofemoral
most to prevent
C. ischiofemoral
overextension
D. ligamentum teres femoris
(hyperextension)
at the hip joint? E. scarotuberous

21. Following a
car accident and A. femoral
some healing time, B. obturator
a patient is not C. nerve to iliopsoas
able to rise from a D. superior gluteal
sitting position. E. inferior gluteal
This could be due
to a lesion of
which of the
following nerves?
22. When you A. biceps femoris
stand on one foot, B. gluteus maximus
the free limb has a C. piriformis
tendency to drop. D. gluteus medius
Which of the E. iliacus
following prevents
this from
happening?
A. femoral
B. superior gluteal
C. inferior gluteal
23. The nerve that D. obturator
is responsible for E. pudendal
the above is the:

A. tibialis anterior
B. extensor hallucis
24. Which of the C. extensor digitorum longus
following D. tibialis posterior
dorsiflexes the E. peroneus longus
foot but also
inverts it?

25. Which of the A. piriformis

following is NOT B. gluteus medius
a lateral rotator of C. obturator internus
the hip? D. obturator externus
E. quadratus femoris

26. As the sciatic A. iliac crest

nerve passes B. symphysis pubis
vertically from the C. greater trochanter
gluteal region into D. ischial ramus
the thigh, it runs E. lesser trochanter
midway between
the ischial
tuberosity and the:
27. A quick way to A. deep peroneal
check the function B. lateral plantar
a one of the nerves C. sural
of the leg is to D. saphenous
pinch the skin E. superficial peroneal
between the big
toe and 2nd toe.
Which nerve are
you checking?
Match the
following
numbered items
with the lettered
structures on the
image.

28. greater
trochanter of
femur
29. sacrotuberous
ligament
30. iliac crest
31. greater sciatic
foramen
32. ischial
tuberosity
29. By knowing A. the lower medial quadrant
where the major B. upper medial quadrant
vessels and nerves C. upper lateral quadrant
are located in the D. lower lateral quadrant
gluteal region, you E. none of the above
should know
where the safest
place would be to
administer an
intramuscular
injection. It is in:
A. sartorius muscle
B. adductor longus muscle
30. The medial C. inguinal ligament
border of the D. pubic tubercle
femoral triangle is E. none of the above
formed by the:

A. pectineus
B. rectus femoris
C. iliopsoas
31. Which muscle D. sartorius
is NOT a flexor of E. adductor magnum
the thigh?

A. lateral rotation of the leg

B. extension of the leg
32. Paralysis of C. flexion of the thigh
the quadriceps D. extension of the thigh
femoris results E. flexion of the leg
MAINLY is loss
of:

33. Severance of
this nerve severely
weakens extension A. obturator nerve
of the leg at the B. femoral nerve
C. both
knee. D. neither

34. This nerve

innervates a
muscle that inserts
onto the greater
trochanter.
Questions 35 - 36 are related to the lettered items to the right:
35. Severance of
the superficial
peroneal nerve
would weaken
this/these
A. eversion of the foot
movement(s): B. inversion of the foot
C. both
36. The tibialis D. neither
anterior and
posterior muscles
bring about
this/these
movement/s:
A. gemellus
B. tensor fasciae latae
37. Which of the C. obturator externus
following muscles D. obturator internus
is NOT a lateral E. piriformis
rotator of the
thigh?

A. femoral
B. obturator
C. common peroneal
38. The medial D. tibial
plantar nerve is a E. saphenous
branch of the:

A. femoral
39. The dorsalis
B. popliteal
pedis artery is
C. peroneal
usually a direct
D. anterior tibial
continuation of
E. posterior tibial
which artery?
Questions 40 - 42 are related to the lettered items to the right:
40. A large muscle
that is used rising
from a squat or
sitting position
A. gluteus maximus
B. iliopsoas
C. biceps femoris
41. the chief flexor D. rectus femoris
of the thigh E. gluteus medius

42. has an origin

from the ischial
tuberosity
43. Following a
football injury, a
physician grabbed
hold of a players A. anterior cruciate ligament
leg and noticed B. lateral collateral ligament
that the tibia could C. medial collateral ligament
be moved D. posterior cruciate ligament
anteriorly with E. oblique popliteal ligament
undue freedom,
especially when
the knee was
flexed. This
disability should
be diagnosed as a
torn:
44. A misplaced
intramuscular
injection into the A. tibialis anterior
gluteal region B. soleus
infiltrated the C. peroneus brevis
sciatic nerve and D. gracilis
its surroundings, E. popliteus
giving rise to
temporary
paralysis of the
muscles supplied
by that nerve. All
of the following
would be involved
EXCEPT for the:
Match questions 45 and 46 with the proper lettered phrase to the right:
45. tibial (medial)
A. is attached to the medial meniscus
collateral
B. is attached to the lateral meninscus
ligament) 46. C. extends between the lateral condyle of the femur and the tibial
fibular (lateral) condyle
collateral ligament D. is outside the joint capsule

ANSWER FOR 45 QUESTIONS

Examination Questions for the

Lower Limb
1. Cancerous lymph
nodes may
envelope and
destroy adjacent
structures as it
A. lateral rotation of the thigh
grows. A physician
B. adduction of the thigh ***
might suspect
C. extension of the knee
involvement of
D. abduction of the thigh
lymph nodes in the
E. flexion of the thigh
anterolateral pelvis
because one of the
following
movements in a
patient is weakened
or lost. Which
movement is it?
2. Which group of A. the chief adductors of the thigh ***
muscles below is B. the chief lateral rotators of the thigh
supplied by the C. the chief flexors of the thigh
obturator nerve? D. the chief extensors of the thigh
 E. the chief abductors of the thigh

3. If the foot is
A. femoral
permanently
B. tibial ***
dorsiflexed
C. deep peroneal
(extended) and
D. common peroneal
everted, which
E. superficial peroneal
nerve is NOT
functioning
properly?
A. interosseous sacroiliac
4. The greater
B. sacrospinous ***
sciatic notch is
C. dorsal sacroiliac
formed into a
D. uterosacral
foramen by which
E. arcuate
of the following
ligaments?

5. Nerves can
frequently be A. saphenous
compressed against B. common peroneal ***
bony structures in C. lateral sural cutaneous
the lower limb. The D. tibial
nerve that rests E. medial sural cutaneous
against the head
and neck of the
fibula is the:
A. peroneus longus
B. tibialis anterior ***
6. Of the following,
C. popliteus
which is the
D. soleus
principal invertor of
E. gastrocnemius
the foot?

A. cuboid
B. calcaneus
7. At the ankle
C. talus ***
joint, the tibia and
D. cuneiform
fibula articulate
E. navicular
with the:

8. The abductor A. first ***

digiti minimi muscle B. second
is located in which C. third
layer of the sole of D. fourth
the foot? E. fifth

9. If the area
marked "A" is numb
to the touch, which
nerve is not
functioning?

A. tibial
B. deep
peroneal***
C. superficial
peroneal
D. medial sural
cutaneous
E. lateral sural
cutaneous

Select the lettered

choice that best fits
A. hip joint
where the
B. knee joint
numbered muscle
C. both
acts.
D. neither
10. rectus
femoris ‘C”
11. Sartorius ‘C”

12. soleus ‘D”

13. pectineus “A”

14. peroneus
longus ‘D”

15. adductor
magnus ‘A”

11. What is the

structure labeled A?

“Tibialis anterior tendon”

12. The ligament A. anterior cruciate ligament

which prevents B. transverse ligament
forward (anterior) C. posterior cruciate ligament ***
displacement of the D. tibial collateral ligament
femur at the knee E. popliteal ligament
joint is the:

A. gluteus maximus ***

B. psoas major
13. The most C. iliacus
powerful extensor D. obturator externus
of the thigh is the: E. piriformis
 A. small saphenous vein
14. Which of the
B. greater saphenous vein ***
following is found
C. dorsalis pedis artery
superficially
D. arcuate artery
immediately
E. anterior tibial artery
anterior to the
medial malleolus?

15. A man was hit

in the leg by a
baseball bat
A. inability to plantar flex his foot
producing a
B. inability to dorsiflex his foot ***
fracture of the head
C. the foot would be everted
and neck of the
D. flexion of the leg is lost
fibula and
E. extension of the leg is lost
damaging a major
nerve to the leg.
Physical findings
that would be found
is/are:
A. peroneus longus tendon
16. Which of the B. tibialis posterior artery
following runs C. flexor hallucis longus tendon ***
through a groove D. tibialis nerve
underneath the E. flexor digitorum longus tendon
sustentaculum tali?

A. peroneus brevis
B. tibialis posterior ***
17. In the following
C. flexor hallucis longus
list what is the main
D. flexor digitorum longus
invertor of the foot
E. peroneus longus
is the:

For questions 18 to 24, match the lettered structure with the numbered
statement or phrase:
18. primary
external (lateral) A. iliopsoas
rotator of the thigh B. gluteus medius
C. biceps femoris
D. tensor fasciae latae
19. antagonist of
E. piriformis
quadriceps femoris
20. arises from iliac
crest
21. an antagonist to
the gluteus
maximus
22. a primary
abductor of the
thigh
23. passes through
the greater sciatic
notch
24. attaches to the
lesser trochanter of
the femur
A. tibial nerve
B. femoral nerve
25. If a patient
C. medial plantar nerve ***
cannot stand on his
D. deep peroneal nerve
heal, which nerve is
E. obturator nerve
not functioning?

A. pubofemoral
26. Which of these
B. iliofemoral ***
ligaments helps
C. ischiofemoral
most to prevent
D. ligamentum teres femoris
overextension
E. scarotuberous
(hyperextension) at
the hip joint?

27. Following a car

accident and some A. femoral
healing time, a B. obturator
patient is not able C. nerve to iliopsoas
to rise from a D. superior gluteal
sitting position. This E. inferior gluteal
could be due to a
lesion of which of
the following
nerves?
28. When you stand A. biceps femoris
on one foot, the B. gluteus maximus
free limb has a C. piriformis
tendency to drop. D. gluteus medius
Which of the E. iliacus
following prevents
this from
happening?

A. femoral
B. superior gluteal
C. inferior gluteal
29. The nerve that D. obturator
is responsible for E. pudendal
the above is the:

A. tibialis anterior
B. extensor hallucis
30. Which of the C. extensor digitorum longus
following dorsiflexes D. tibialis posterior
the foot but also E. peroneus longus
inverts it?

A. piriformis
B. gluteus medius
31. Which of the C. obturator internus
following is NOT a D. obturator externus
lateral rotator of E. quadratus femoris
the hip?

32. As the sciatic A. iliac crest

nerve passes B. symphysis pubis
vertically from the C. greater trochanter
gluteal region into D. ischial ramus
the thigh, it runs E. lesser trochanter
midway between
the ischial
tuberosity and the:
33. A quick way to A. deep peroneal
check the function a B. lateral plantar
one of the nerves of C. sural
the leg is to pinch D. saphenous
the skin between E. superficial peroneal
the big toe and 2nd
toe. Which nerve
are you checking?

Match the following

numbered items
with the lettered
structures on the
image.

34. greater
trochanter of
femur
35. sacrotuberous
ligament
36. iliac crest
37. greater sciatic
foramen
38. ischial
tuberosity
39. By knowing
where the major A. the lower medial quadrant
vessels and nerves B. upper medial quadrant
are located in the C. upper lateral quadrant
gluteal region, you D. lower lateral quadrant
should know where E. none of the above
the safest place
would be to
administer an
intramuscular
injection. It is in:
40. The medial A. sartorius muscle
border of the B. adductor longus muscle
femoral triangle is C. inguinal ligament
formed by the: D. pubic tubercle
 E. none of the above

A. pectineus
B. rectus femoris
C. iliopsoas
41. Which muscle is D. sartorius
NOT a flexor of the E. adductor magnum
thigh?

A. lateral rotation of the leg

B. extension of the leg
42. Paralysis of the C. flexion of the thigh
quadriceps femoris D. extension of the thigh
results MAINLY is E. flexion of the leg
loss of:

43. Severance of
this nerve severely
weakens extension
of the leg at the
A. obturator nerve
knee. B. femoral nerve
C. both
44. This nerve D. neither
innervates a muscle
that inserts onto
the greater
trochanter.
Questions 45 - 46 are related to the lettered items to the right:
45. Severance of
the superficial A. eversion of the foot
peroneal nerve B. inversion of the foot
would weaken C. both
this/these D. neither
movement(s):
46. The tibialis
anterior and
posterior muscles
bring about
this/these
movement/s:
A. gemellus
B. tensor fasciae latae
47. Which of the C. obturator externus
following muscles is D. obturator internus
NOT a lateral E. piriformis
rotator of the thigh?

A. femoral
B. obturator
C. common peroneal
48. The medial D. tibial
plantar nerve is a E. saphenous
branch of the:

A. femoral
B. popliteal
49. The dorsalis C. peroneal
pedis artery is D. anterior tibial
usually a direct E. posterior tibial
continuation of
which artery?

Questions 50 - 52 are related to the lettered items to the right:

50. A large muscle
that is used rising
A. gluteus maximus
from a squat or
B. iliopsoas
sitting position C. biceps femoris
D. rectus femoris
51. the chief flexor E. gluteus medius
of the thigh
52. has an origin
from the ischial
tuberosity
53. Following a
football injury, a
physician grabbed
hold of a players A. anterior cruciate ligament
leg and noticed that B. lateral collateral ligament
the tibia could be C. medial collateral ligament
moved anteriorly D. posterior cruciate ligament
with undue E. oblique popliteal ligament
freedom, especially
when the knee was
flexed. This
disability should be
diagnosed as a
torn:
54. A misplaced
intramuscular
injection into the
gluteal region A. tibialis anterior
infiltrated the B. soleus
sciatic nerve and its C. peroneus brevis
surroundings, D. gracilis
giving rise to E. popliteus
temporary paralysis
of the muscles
supplied by that
nerve. All of the
following would be
involved EXCEPT for
the:
Match questions 55 and 56 with the proper lettered phrase to the right:
55. tibial (medial)
collateral ligament) A. is attached to the medial meniscus
B. is attached to the lateral meninscus
C. extends between the lateral condyle of the femur
and the tibial condyle
56. fibular (lateral)
D. is outside the joint capsule
collateral ligament

Question Answ Question Answer

 er
1 B 32 D
2 A 33 D
3 B 34 B
4 B 35 A
5 B 36 B
6 B 37 C
7 C 38 A
8 A 39 C
9 B 40 A
10 C 41 E
11 C 42 B
12 D 43 D
13 A 44 C
14 D 45 B
15 A 46 E
tibiali
s
16 47 B
anteri
or
17 C 48 B
18 A 49 D
19 B 50 A
20 B 51 B
21 C 52 B
22 B 53 D
23 E 54 D
24 C 55 A
25 D 56 B
26 B 57 C
27 B 58 A
28 E 59 D
29 A 60 A
30 A 61 D
31 B
 Questions About General Anatomical Information

A. it has a constant, fixed number

of ganglia
B. it lies anterior to the vertebrae
in the thorax
C. it extends from the base of the
skull to the coccyx
1. Select the TRUE statement about D. it receives white rami
the sympathetic trunk: throughout its extent
E. it supplies postganglionic
processes to thoracic and
lumbar spinal nerves only

A. superior, same side, and lying

face down
B. dorsal, opposite side, and lying
on back
C. ventral, same side and lying
face down
2. The terms "posterior", "ipsilateral", D. dorsal, same side, and lying on
and "supine" mean: back
E. distal, opposite side, and lying
face down

A. two neurons and two synapses

B. two neurons and one synapse
C. three neurons and one synapse
3. The simplest reflex arc would D. one neuron and three synapses
involve: E. any of the above

4. A spinal nerve, in the intervertebral A. spinous process

foramen, is adjacent to what portion B. pedicle
of a vertebra? C. anterior longitudinal ligament
D. lamina
E. transverse process

A. body
B. transverse foramen
C. vertebral foramen
5. A typical vertebra contains all of D. spine
the following EXCEPT a: E. lamina

A. horizontal
B. median
C. transverse
6. The anatomical plane that divides D. sagittal
the body into equal right and left E. coronal
halves is the:

A. deep fascia
B. epimysium
C. an aponeurosis
7. The layer of the body just under D. superficial fascia
(or deep to) the skin is called: E. epineurium

Questions 8-10 relate to the image showing various dermatomes. Remember

that a dermatome is a section of skin that is supplied by a specific spinal
nerve.
8. Dermatome T4

9. Dermatome T10

10. Dermatome L1

A.
B.
C.
D.
9. E.

A.
B.
C.
D.
10. E.